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SKILL 1

MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS

 Almost every reading passage on a test will have a question about the main idea of a passage. Such a question
may be worded in a variety of ways; you may for example, be asked to identify the topic, subject, title, primary
idea or main idea. These questions are all really asking what primary point the author is trying to get across in
the passage. Since passages are generally written in an organized manner, it is not difficult to find the main idea
by studying the topic sentence, which is most probably found at the beginning of a paragraph.

 If the passage consists of only one paragraph, you should study the beginning of that paragraph to determine
the main idea of that paragraph.

EXAMPLE
Basketball was invented in 1891 by a physical education instructor in Springfield, Massachusetts, by the
name of James Naismith. Because of the terrible weather in winter, his physical education students were
indoors rather than outdoors. They really did not like the idea of boring, repetitive exercises and
preferred the excitement and challenge of a game. Naismith figured out a team sport that could be
played indoors on a gymnasium floor that involved a lot of running, that kept all team members involved,
and that did not allow the tackling and physical contact of American-style football.

1. What is the main idea of this passage?


(A) The life of James Naismith
(B) The history of sports
(C) Physical education and exercise
(D) The origin of basketball

 The first sentence of this passage discusses the invention of basketball, so this is probably the topic. A quick
check at the rest of the sentences in the passage confirms that the topic is in fact the beginnings of the sport of
basketball. Now you should check each of the answers to determine which one comes closest to the topic that
you have determined. Answer (A) mentions James Naismith but not basketball, so it is not the topic. Answer (B)
is too general; it mentions sports but does not mention basketball. Answer (C) is also too general; it mentions
physical education but does not mention basketball. Therefore, the best answer is Answer (D); the origin of
basketball means that the invention of basketball is going to be discussed.

 If a passage consists of more than one paragraph, you should be sure to read the first sentence of each
paragraph to determine the subject, title, or main idea.
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about main idea questions.

MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  What is the topic of the passage?
 What is the subject of the passage?
 What is the main idea of the passage?
 What’s the author’s main point in the passage?
 With what is the author primarily concerned?
 Which of the following would be the best title?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answer to this type of question can generally be determined
by looking at the first sentence of each paragraph.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Read the first line of each paragraph.
 Look for a common theme or idea in the first lines.
 Pass your eyes quickly over the rest of the passage to check that
you really have found the topic sentence(s).
 Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.
PRACTICE 1
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) COURTNEY’S TEXAS—BIG HISTORY, BIG CITIES, BIG HEARTS


Texas is a big state. The first town we visited was El Paso. Two other neat towns were San Antonio
and Austin. Austin is the capital city. It’s very modern, very technology-oriented, and is really
growing. We visited the capitol building there. Photographers from the ABC television station in
Austin met us at the capitol and took some shots of us looking around.

5 After Austin, we headed on to San Antonio. We got to stay at the Marriott on the Riverwalk. The
manager heard about our trip and let us stay for a night. That was so nice! They even gave us cheese
and fruit. Wow! We felt so welcome.

In San Antonio, we also got to see the Alamo. Hard to believe this is where Davy Crockett died. All
those people in the Battle of the Alamo were so brave, especially since many of them weren’t
10 Texans, just other guys trying to help the Texans gain their freedom from Mexico. Davy Crockett and
his fighters were from Tennessee. Inside the Alamo, you can see some of the actual guns that were
used. A television crew from the ABC station in San Antonio did a story with us, too. It was kind of
neat to be filmed at the Alamo.

Of course, you’ve heard of other big cities in Texas like Houston. We had planned on spending some
15 time there with a family we had met over the Internet, but we didn’t make it to Houston because we
were trying to get back on schedule.

There are a lot of neat places in Texas. This is a really cool state. But then if you’re from Texas, you
already know that.

1. What is the topic of the first paragraph? 4. What is the author’s main point in the fourth
(A) Courtney’s trip to El Paso paragraph?
(B) Courtney’s trip to Houston (A) Internet use in Houston
(C) Courtney’s trip to San Antonio (B) Other big cities in Texas
(D) Courtney’s trip to Texas (C) The family Courtney met over the Internet
(D) Why Courtney and her family couldn’t go to
2. What is the subject of the second paragraph? Houston
(A) Courtney’s trip to Austin
(B) Courtney’s trip to San Antonio 5. With what is the author primarily concerned in
(C) Courtney’s stay in the Marriot all paragraphs?
(D) Courtney’s feelings on her trip (A) Texans and their cultures
(B) Courtney and her family’s visit to Texas
3. What is the main idea of the third paragraph? (C) Traditional meals of Texas
(A) Courtney’s trip to San Antonio (D) The television crew from the ABC station
(B) The Battle of the Alamo
(C) Courtney’s trip to Mexico 6. Which of the following would be another title
(D) Davy Crockett and his fighters for the passage?
(A) Courtney’s Days in Texas
(B) Friendly People in Texas
(C) Courtney and Her Family
(D) Neat Places in Texas
SKILL 2
VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT QUESTIONS

 On reading tests, you will sometimes be asked to determine the meaning of a difficult word or expression, a word or
expression that you do not know. In such cases, you have to guess the meaning from the context. The passage
generally gives you an indication of what the word or expression means.

EXAMPLE
A line in the passage:
She has a large geranium growing in a pot in the corner of her apartment…

1. A “geranium” is probably which of the following?


(A) A sofa
(B) A chair
(C) A fish
(D) A plant

 In this type of question, you are not expected to know the meaning of the word geranium. Instead, you should
understand from the context that if the geranium is growing in a pot, then, it is highly likely that it is a plant.
Therefore, answer (D) is the best answer.

 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about vocabulary questions.

VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING DIFFICULT WORDS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  What is the meaning…?
 Which of the following is closest in meaning to…?
 …could best be replaced by which of the following?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The question usually tells you in which line of the passage the
words or expressions can be found.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Find the word or expression in the passage.
 Read the sentence that contains the word carefully.
 Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning.
 Choose the answer that the context indicates.
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) WHO VOLUNTEERS?


People volunteer in order to help other people in need. They also volunteer in order to “give back”
to their community. This means that they want to help the people in their community who need
help. However, volunteering is not only good for the community and those in need, but it is good
for the volunteers, too. Volunteer Canada, an organization in Canada, started National Volunteer
5 Week in 1943. Today, it is still very popular. In fact, six million people around the country
volunteer.

Who volunteers? All kinds of people volunteer. For example, senior citizens (people over 65 years
old) volunteer for many reasons. They want to meet new friends and stay active. Senior citizens
often have a lot of free time. They can use this time to help other people. Sometimes, when people
10 graduate from college, they do volunteer work. Then they can get some skills and experience
before they find a job. Other people volunteer because it gives them a chance to do something
different. New immigrants to Canada also volunteer. They get work experience and can improve
their English and French language skills.

All of these volunteers in Canada do different work, but they have something in common: they are
15 helping other people. And by helping other people, they are helping themselves, too.

1. What is the meaning of “give back” in line 1? 4. What is the meaning of “around” in line 5?
(A) Return something that you borrowed (A) All over
(B) Take people somewhere in your car (B) Above
(C) Help people in need of help (C) On the other side of
(D) Give money to poor people (D) Outside

2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to 5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to
“community” in line 3? “graduate from” in line 10?
(A) People who live in a particular area (A) Leave one school and start another one
(B) People who work in an army (B) Do something enjoyable because of a
(C) People who have a responsible position in a special event
government organization (C) Complete one’s studies successfully and
(D) People who defend and protect a building leave school or university
(D) Train or educate someone to have a certain
3. The word “started” in line 4 could best be skill
replaced by which of the following?
(A) Replaced 6. The word “experience” in line 12 could best be
(B) Increased replaced by which of the following?
(C) Changed completely (A) Natural ability for doing something
(D) Began (B) Knowledge in a particular job or activity
(C) A habit or action that keeps occurring
(D) Piece of information that can be discovered
7. What is the meaning of “also” in line 12? 9. The phrase “have something in common” in line
(A) Because 14 could best be replaced by which of the
(B) So following?
(C) But (A) To share interests, experiences or other
(D) Too characteristics with someone
(B) To fight or argue with someone
8. Which of the following is closest in meaning to (C) To make someone feel unhappy and afraid
“improve” in line 12? (D) To provide someone with something
(A) Speak a foreign language
(B) Belong to something 10. The main topic of the second paragraph is
(C) Get better at something (A) immigrants who do volunteer work
(D) Memorize something (B) students volunteering at school
(C) senior citizens who help others
(D) different types of people who volunteer
SKILL 3
STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

 A stated detail question asks about one piece of information in the passage rather than the passage as a whole. The
answers to these questions are generally given in order in the passage, and the correct answer is often a restatement
of what is given in the passage. This means that the correct answer often expresses the same idea as what is written
in the passage, but the words are not exactly the same.

EXAMPLE
Flutes have been around for quite some time, in all sorts of shapes and sizes and made from a variety
of materials. The oldest known flutes are about 20,000 years old. They were made from hollowed-out
bones with holes cut in them. In addition to the bone, older flutes were often constructed from
bamboo or hollowed-out wood.

Today’s flutes are generally made of metal, and in addition to the holes they have a complicated
system of keys, levers and pads. The instrument belonging to well-known flautist James Galway is not
just made of any metal; it is made of gold.

1. According to the passage, the oldest flutes


(A) had holes cut in them
(B) were made of metal
(C) were made 200,000 years ago
(D) had a complicated set of lever and pads

2. The passage indicates that James Galway’s flute is made of


(A) bones
(B) bamboo
(C) wood
(D) gold

 The answers to the questions are generally found in order in the passage, so you should look for the answer to the
first question near the beginning of the passage. Since the first question asks about the oldest flutes, you should see
that this question is answered in the second sentence. The passage states that the oldest flutes, you should see that
this question is answered in the second sentence. The passage states that the oldest flutes were bones with holes cut
in them, so the best answer is (A). Answers (B) and (D) are true about today’s flutes, but not the oldest flutes, so
they are incorrect. Answer (C) is an incorrect number; the oldest flutes are 20,000 years old, not 200,000 years old.

 The answer to the second question will probably be located in the passage after the answer to the first question.
Since the second question is about James Galway’s flute, you should skim through the passage to find the part of the
passage that discusses this topic. The answer to this question is found in the statement that the instrument belonging
to well-known flautist James Galway is not just made of any metal; it is made of gold. The best answer to this
question is therefore answer (D).
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about stated detail questions.

STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  According to the passage,...
 It is stated in the passage that…
 The passage indicates that…
 The author mentions that…
 Which of the following is true…?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answers to the questions are found in order in the passage.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Choose a key word in the question.
 Skim the appropriate part of the passage for the key word (or
related idea)
 Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.
 Look for the answer that restates an idea in the passage.
 Eliminate the definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.
PRACTICE 3

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) DIARY OF A TRIPLET FATHER


Birth to six months: When the doctor told us that we were pregnant with triplets, we were surprised, and
wondered what the future would be. We quickly found out after we brought our three babies home.
The first six months of parenthood is a difficult learning experience. We wrote everything down, especially
feeding times and how much food the babies ate. We even had to chart diaper changes (960 the first month!).
5 we marked all the toys, bottles, and clothes with a different color for each child so they could sense what is
theirs.

Six months to four years: It was hardest for us to get used to all the equipment. We had three of everything:
car seats, portable cribs, high chairs, diaper bags, and changes of clothes, not to mention toys!
At this time of life, every minute is a new discovery. Even though you try very hard, you will never be able to
10 carefully watch all three of them at once! Every two-year-old must touch and taste everything, but everything
must also be shared by triplets. We soon learned that they each wanted whatever their siblings had at that
moment.

When they began to speak, my wife noticed that they had their own names for each other. When we began to
make note of the particular sounds that they said to each other, we realized that they had their own language.
15 The age that we have the happiest memories of is two.

School age: When it was time to send the children to school, they went to three different classes.
Kindergarten and first grade were easier for the kids than they were for us. They each had plenty of arts and
crafts homework. Since they had three different assignments, homework lasted a long time. Second grade
seems to be less of a problem at homework time because they are able to do more work without our help.
20 The triplets don’t always get along. Sometimes they fight just like other brothers and sisters. However, there is
still a bond between them that my wife and I hope never disappears.

1. What is the meaning of “triplet” in line 1? 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the things
(A) Three children born at the same time that children need?
(B) Happening three times (A) Portable cribs
(C) Having three parts of the same type (B) Toys
(D) Involving three organizations (C) Color pencils
(D) High chairs
2. According to the passage, during the first six
months the parents 5. The author mentions that every minute is
(A) took psychological help important because
(B) noted down everything (A) you need to organize your time effectively
(C) cooked healthy food (B) you discover something new all the time
(D) lived with their in-laws (C) children grow up too quickly
(D) children take all your time and effort
3. It is stated in the passage that coloring the
children’s possessions
(A) is unnecessary for the first month
(B) takes nearly 960 minutes
(C) is hard work for the mother
(D) helps them learn what belongs to them
6. The children’s parents noticed that the children 8. When the children went to kindergarten and
had their own language when first grade,
(A) their doctor told them so (A) their parents had a hard time
(B) children cried at the same time (B) they were all in the same class
(C) their grandpa called them with their own (C) they had no homework to do
names (D) their teacher couldn’t tell them apart
(D) they started to note down the sounds
children produced 9. The word “plenty of” in line 17 is closest in
meaning to
7. When the children were two years old, their (A) unusual
parents (B) difficult
(A) stopped working to look after them (C) a lot of
(B) had the most cheerful memories (D) different
(C) had to send them to kindergarten
(D) started reading book about child education 10. The passage indicates that triplets
(A) didn’t argue over anything at all when they
were at school age
(B) had the same assignments for arts and
crafts
(C) didn’t have much difficulty doing homework
in second grade
(D) tried to get their mother’s attention by not
helping each other
SKILL 4
“WHERE” QUESTIONS

 Sometimes the final questions in a reading passage will ask you to determine where in the passage a piece of
information is found. The answer choices will list possible locations for that information. The best way to approach
this kind of question is to study the question to determine the information that you are looking for and then to go to
the lines listed in the answers and skim for that information.

EXAMPLE
(Lines) The words “capital” and “capitol” are confused in spelling and in meaning by a lot of people
who try to use them. Both their spellings and their meanings are quite closely related.
A “capital” is the location of the center of government, while a “capitol” is the actual building
where the government officials meet. Thus, in the United States, for example, the Capitol
5 building is located in Washington, D.C., which is the capital city of the United States.

1. Where in the passage does the author define the word “capital”?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Line 2
(C) Lines 3-4
(D) Lines 4-5

2. Where in the passage does the author mention where the U.S. Capitol can be
found?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Line 2
(C) Lines 3-4
(D) Lines 4-5

 To answer the first question, you should skim for the word capital and then look for its meaning. A capital is the
location of the center of government, and this definition is given in the third line. The best answer to this question is
therefore answer (C).

 To answer the second question, you should skim for U.S. Capitol and then look for where the U.S. Capitol is found.
The U.S. Capitol is located in Washington D.C., and this information is given in the fourth through fifth lines. The best
answer to this question is therefore answer (D).
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about “where” questions.

“WHERE”… QUESTIONS
HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  Where in the passage…?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The question can be in any of the lines listed in the answers to
the question.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Choose a key word or idea in the question.
 Skim the lines in the passage that are listed in the answers to the
question. You should skim for the key word or idea.
 Choose the answer that contains the line numbers of a
restatement of the key word or idea in the question.
PRACTICE 4

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) DIARY OF AN ADOPTIVE MOTHER


January 1: It has happened; I got a call today saying a little girl in Russia is now my little girl. There is a lot of
paperwork to do, and we have to travel to Russia to bring her home, but now it is certain. I think I’ll tell some
close friends. Jason is so excited. I haven’t told Steven yet. How can I tell a seven-year-old that he has a sister
who is already five years old?

5 January 10: Today I received a picture of Katerina. The picture is small and not very clear, but I look at it over
and over again. I don’t know anything else about her. She has lived in an orphanage for most of her life. I
wonder how I will talk to her. I don’t speak Russian, and she doesn’t speak English.

February 1: Today I showed Katerina’s picture to Steven. He is very happy and wants to tell all his friends
about his new sister. I want to buy some clothes for Katerina, but I don’t know her size. I haven’t received any
10 more information from the adoption agency, and I’m feeling a little worried.

February 16: Finally! Today we received good news! All the papers are ready and tomorrow we will go to
Russia to bring Katerina home with us.

February 18: Today I met my daughter for the first time. She is very small, very thin, and very afraid. On the
way home in the airplane, she slept most of the time. When she woke up, she cried. I am very nervous and
15 hope that I can be a good mother to Katerina.

February 19: Steven met his sister this morning. Although Katerina was shy at first, soon she and Steven began
to communicate in a mixture of Russian, English, and hand gestures. Steven and his sister get along well
together. In fact, he is able to help her communicate with Jason and me. I am worried about how Katerina will
be in school. Next week she will start kindergarten. How will she communicate with the other children? How
20 will she understand her teacher?

March 21: Katerina looks much healthier now. She has gained weight, her hair is shiny, and her skin is clear.
She loves to watch television with her brother, and she has learned to roller-skate. She is doing well in school,
and her English gets better everyday. Although she sometimes looks sad, and sometimes cries, most of the
time she is happy. I think she is slowly getting used to her new life with us. After only three months, I can’t
25 imagine my life without her.

1. Where in the passage does the author mention 3. Where in the passage does the author mention
the nationality of their adopted child? her son’s feelings as a stepbrother?
(A) Line 1 (A) Line 7
(B) Line 3 (B) Lines 8-9
(C) Lines 3-4 (C) Lines 9-10
(D) Line 5 (D) Lines 11-13

2. Where in the passage does the author mention


the name of their adopted child?
(A) Lines 3-4
(B) Line 5
(C) Line 6
(D) Lines 7-8
4. Where in the passage does the author mention 7. Where in the passage does the author mention
the time when they will go and bring their how their adoptive child and Steven
adoptive child home? communicated?
(A) Lines 9-10 (A) Lines 16-17
(B) Lines 11-12 (B) Lines 21-22
(C) Lines 13-14 (C) Line 22
(D) Lines 14-15 (D) Lines 22-23
5. Where does the author mention the physical
appearance of their adoptive child? 8. It is stated in the passage that
(A) Lines 9-10 (A) Katerina’s teacher finds it hard to talk to her
(B) Line 13 (B) Jason can’t speak Russian
(C) Lines 18-19 (C) Steven didn’t like his sister
(D) Lines 19-20 (D) Katerina will start kindergarten soon

6. Where in the passage does the author mention 9. The word “shiny” in line 21 is closest in meaning
her feelings as an adoptive mother? to
(A) Lines 8-9 (A) mixed
(B) Lines 9-10 (B) caring
(C) Lines 14-15 (C) bright
(D) Lines 19-20 (D) confidential

10. What is the main idea of the last paragraph?


(A) Katerina’s mother can’t live without her
now.
(B) Katerina changed for the better.
(C) Katerina has difficulty learning English.
(D) Katerina and her brother get along well.
SKILL 5
UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS

 You are sometimes asked in a reading test to find an answer that is not stated or not mentioned or not true in the
passage. This type of question really means that three of the answers are stated, mentioned or true in the passage,
while one answer is not. Your actual job is to find the three correct answers and then choose the letter of the one
remaining answer.

 You should note that there are two kinds of answers to this type of question: (1) there are three true answers and
one answer that is not discussed in the passage, or (2) there are three true answers and one that is false according to
the passage.

EXAMPLE
The Florida Keys are a beautiful chain of almost 1,000 coral and limestone islands. These islands form an
arc that heads first southwest and then west from the mainland. U.S. Highway 1, called the Overseas
Highway, connects the main islands in the chain. On this highway, it is necessary to cross 42 bridges
over the ocean to cover the 159 miles from Miami, on the mainland to Key West, the farthest island on
the highway and the southernmost city in the United States.

1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the Florida Keys?


(A) The Florida Keys are a chain of islands.
(B) The Florida Keys contain coral and limestone.
(C) The Florida Keys are in shape of an arc.
(D) The Florida Keys are not all inhabited.

2. Which of the following is NOT true about U.S. Highway 1?


(A) It is also known as the Overseas Highway.
(B) It joins all of the islands in the Florida Keys.
(C) It has more than 40 bridges.
(D) It connects Miami and Key West.

 The first question asks for the one answer that is not mentioned about the Florida Keys. The passage states that the
Florida Keys are a chain (answer A) with coral and limestone (answer B) in the shape of an arc (answer C), so these
answers are not correct. The best answer is therefore answer (D). The passage does not discuss whether or not the
Keys are all inhabited.

 The second question asks for the answer that is not true about U.S. Highway 1. The passage states that it is called the
Overseas Highway (answer A), that it has 42 bridges (answer C), and that it covers the 159 miles from Miami…to Key
West (answer D), so these answers are not correct. The best answer is answer (B). The passage states that the
Overseas Highway connects the main islands in the chain, so it does not connect all of the islands.
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about unstated detail questions.

UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  Which of the following is not stated…?
 Which of the following is not mentioned…?
 Which of the following is not discussed…?
 All of the following are true except…
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answers to these questions are found in order in the
passage.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Choose a key word in the question.
 Scan the appropriate place in the passage for the key word (or
related idea).
 Read the sentence that contains the key word or idea carefully.
 Look for the answers that are definitely true according to the
passage. Eliminate those answers.
 Choose the answer that is not true or not discussed in the
passage.
PRACTICE 5

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) AN UNUSUAL TEACHER


Yuki Ishito’s new 6th grade teacher, Sava, is like most teachers in Japan. This morning, she is calling the
attendance list, and asking the students in the back of the room to “Please be quiet.” Sava smiles at the
students and looks happy. “Thank you,” she says. Sometimes, she looks sad or angry. Other times, she can
look surprised or scared. Sava doesn’t really look different from Yuki’s other teachers, but she is. Sava is a
5 robot.

Hiroshi Kobayashi is a professor at the Tokyo University of Science. He developed Sava. “Robots that look like
people are a big hit with young children,” he said. Of course Sava cannot really teach the students. She is
remote-controlled by a person through a camera inside the robot.

Japan and other countries hope that in the future robots will do a lot of the work that people do today.
10 However, some scientists don’t believe that a robot can replace a teacher. Professor Kobayashi says, “Sava is
just meant to help people. The robot has no intelligence. It has no ability to learn. It’s just a tool.” Although
Sava is not ready to be a real teacher, the children enjoyed her visits.

1. Which of the following is NOT stated in the


passage?
(A) Yuki is a 6th grader. 5. The passage indicates that Sava
(B) Yuki isn’t in the classroom today. (A) has a camera inside
(C) Sava is similar to most teachers in Japan. (B) won’t be liked by children
(D) Sava is a new teacher at school. (C) can do lots of housework
(D) is more developed than ASIMO
2. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the
passage about Sava? 6. Where in the passage does the author mention
(A) She can smile. Hiroshi’s ideas about robots?
(B) She is able to talk. (A) Line 3
(C) She is a different teacher. (B) Lines 6-7
(D) She is inexperienced. (C) Lines 9-10
(D) Lines 11-12
3. All of the following are true about the things
Sava did this morning except 7. The word “replace” in line 10 means
(A) she surprised the students (A) to collect again
(B) she called the roll (B) to gain control of
(C) she warned the students to be silent (C) to take the place of
(D) she thanked the students (D) to improve

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the 8. The word “meant” in line 11 could best be
passage about Hiroshi Kobayashi? replaced by
(A) He made Sava. (A) intended
(B) He works at a university. (B) recognized
(C) He is a robot as well. (C) equipped
(D) He is a professor. (D) announced
9. It is stated in the passage that 10. What could be another title for the passage?
(A) Japanese scientists will improve Sava (A) Future Teachers and Students
(B) Kobayashi has a robot in his house (B) Robots and Education
(C) Sava cannot be like a real teacher (C) Science in Today’s World
(D) all robots can learn to do different tasks (D) Sava The Extraordinary Teacher
SKILL 6
IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS

 Some questions in a reading test will require answers that are not directly stated in the passage. To answer these
questions correctly, you will have to draw conclusions from information that is given in the passage. Questions of this
type contain the words implied, inferred, likely, or probably to let you know that the answer to the question is not
directly stated.

EXAMPLE
The number of rings in a tree can be used to determine how old a tree really is. Each year a tree
produces a ring that is composed of one light-colored wide band and one dark-colored narrow band.
The wider band is produced during the spring and early summer, when tree stem cells grow rapidly and
become larger. The narrower band is produced in fall and early winter. The narrower band is produced
in fall and early winter, when cell growth is much slower and cells do not get very large. No cells are
produced during the harsh winter and summer months.

1. It is implied in the passage that if a tree has 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands, then it is
(A) a century old
(B) two centuries old
(C) fifty years old
(D) two hundred years old

2. It can be inferred from the passage that cells do not grow


(A) when the tree is ill
(B) during extreme heat or cold
(C) when it rains too much
(D) If there are more light-colored bands than dark-colored bands

 The first question asks about the age of a tree with 100 wide bands and 100 narrow bands. The passage does not tell
the age of a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands, but it does indicate one….wide band and one …. narrow band are
produced each year. From this you can draw the conclusion that a tree with 100 wide and narrow bands is 100 years,
or a century old. The best answer to this question is therefore (A). The second question asks when cells do not grow.
The passage indicates that no cells are produced during the harsh winter and summer months. From this you can
draw the conclusion that cells do not grow during the extreme heat of summer or the extreme cold of winter. The
best answer to this question is therefore answer (B).
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about implied detail questions.

IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  It is implied in the passage that…
 It can be inferred from the passage that…
 It is most likely that…
 What probably happened…?
 We can understand from the passage that…
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answers to these questions are found in order in the
passage.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Choose a key word in the question.
 Scan the passage for the key word (or related idea).
 Read the sentence that contains the key word carefully.
 Look for an answer that could be true, according to that
sentence.
PRACTICE 6

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) YOUNG INVENTORS


Many organizations have contests to encourage young people to use their imaginations and make new
inventions. The winners of the competitions receive prizes, usually money or scholarships for college. For
example, last year, 12-year-old Jonathan Edwards was one of the winners of the Young Inventors’ Contest. This
competition encourages students in elementary schools to use their imagination. Jonathan invented the Step
5 Ramp. The Step Ramp is stairs that flatten down into a ramp. This special ramp can help people move heavy
objects up the stairs. It can also be very useful for people in wheelchairs.

Ryan Patterson, who is 18 years old, won a $100,000 scholarship in the Westinghouse Science and Technology
contest for his useful invention. It is a special glove, called the Sign Language Translator. People who are deaf
and cannot speak sometimes use sign language. They use their hands to “speak.” When they wear Ryan’s
10 special glove, it translates sign language into words on a small computer screen. He hopes that his Sign
Language Translator will be helpful and easy for many people to use.

Some contests also encourage young people to find ways to save energy. Every year, the U.S. Department of
Energy has an “Energy Smart Schools” contest. Students can use their imaginations and their science
knowledge. Michael Torrey, a fifth grader, invented a Miniature Hydroelectric Power Plant. This small device
15 goes inside water pipes. Then the device uses water to charge batteries, such as the batteries in a small radio.
While someone is taking a shower or brushing their teeth, for example, the running water charges the
batteries.

Jonathan Ioviero is a fifth grader, too. He invented the “Light Searcher.” This device “looks” around the house.
It can find lights that are on in empty rooms. Then it can turn the lights off. Both Michael’s and Jonathan’s
20 devices are useful because they can help save energy. These young inventors can help people and the
environment at the same time!

1. What is the main idea of the passage? 3. It is stated in the first paragraph that
(A) Inventions make life much easier. (A) heavy things should not be carried by
(B) Teenagers can invent helpful devices too. people in wheelchairs
(C) Young Inventors’ Contest made Jonathan (B) the Step Ramp is invented by Jonathan
Edwards famous. Edwards
(D) There are several contests for young (C) wheelchairs are not so useful anymore
inventors. (D) elementary schools organize contests for
inventors themselves
2. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that
(A) teenagers pay money to be able to take part 4. All of the following are true about Ryan
in a competition Patterson EXCEPT
(B) only 12 students can compete in the Young (A) he studies at the Westinghouse Science and
Inventors’ Contest Technology College
(C) to win the Young Inventors’ Contest is hard (B) he invented the Sign Language Translator
(D) Jonathan Edwards is an elementary school (C) he is a teenage inventor
student. (D) he won a great deal of money from a
contest
5. It is implied in the second paragraph that 8. We can understand from the passage that the
(A) the Sign Language Translator is more Miniature Hydroelectric Power Plant
expensive than the glove (A) needs water to produce electricity
(B) Ryan spent $ 100,000 to invent the special (B) is the fifth invention of Michael
glove (C) works only when people have a bath
(C) Ryan isn’t sure if his invention will be useful (D) makes it possible for water to run inside a
or not house
(D) deaf people didn’t like the Sign Language
Translator 9. It can be implied from the last paragraph that
(A) all fifth graders have to invent something to
6. The word “save” in line 20 could best be pass science classes
replaced by (B) the Light Searcher protects the environment
(A) go backwards (C) Jonathan Ioviero invented the most
(B) preserve complex device
(C) tilt forward (D) Michael and Jonathan worked together to
(D) reach invent things

7. It is most likely that the U.S. Department of 10. Where in the passage does the author mention
Energy the prizes of invention competitions?
(A) gives lectures at schools about energy use (A) Lines 7-8
(B) collects used batteries and uses them again (B) Lines 13-14
(C) controls how much energy a school uses (C) Lines 16-17
(D) wants people not to waste energy (D) Lines 20-21
SKILL 7
PRONOUN REFERENTS

 You are sometimes asked in a reading test to determine which noun a pronoun refers to. In this type of question it is
important to understand that a noun is generally used first in a passage, and the pronoun that refers to it comes
after. Whenever you are asked which noun a pronoun refers to, you should look before the pronoun to find the noun.

EXAMPLE
(Lines) Carnivorous plants, such as the sundew and the Venus flytrap, are generally found in humid
areas where there is an inadequate supply of nitrogen in the soil. In order to survive, these
plants have developed mechanisms to trap insects within their foliage. They have digestive
fluids to obtain the necessary nitrogen from the insects. These plants trap the insects in a
5 variety of ways. The sundew has sticky hairs on its leaves; when an insect lands on these
leaves, it gets caught up in the sticky hairs, and the leaf wraps itself around the insect. The
leaves of the Venus flytrap function more like a trap, snapping suddenly and forcefully shut
around an insect.

3. The pronoun “they” in line 3 refers to


(A) humid areas
(B) these plants
(C) insects
(D) digestive fluids

4. The pronoun “it” in line 6 refers to


(A) a variety
(B) the sundew
(C) an insect
(D) the leaf

 To answer the first question, you should look before the pronoun they for plural nouns that the pronoun could refer
to. Humid areas, insects, and these plants come before the pronoun, so they are possible answers; digestive fluids
comes after the pronoun, so it is probably not the correct answer. Then you should try the three possible answers in
the sentence in place of the pronoun. You should understand from the context that these plants have digestive fluids
to obtain the necessary nitrogen from the insects, so the best answer to this question is answer (B). To answer the
second question, you should look before the pronoun it for singular nouns that the pronoun could refer to. A variety,
the sundew, and an insect come before the pronoun, so they are possible answers; the leaf comes after the pronoun,
so it is probably not the correct answer. Next you should try the three possible answers in the sentence in place of
the pronoun. An insect gets caught up in the sticky hairs, rather than a variety or the sundew, so the best answer to
this question is answer (C).
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about pronoun referents:

PRONOUN REFERENTS
HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  The pronoun “…” in line X refers to which of the following?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The line where the pronoun is located is generally given in the
question. The noun that the pronoun refers to is generally
found before the pronoun
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Find the pronoun in the passage. (The line where the pronoun
can be found is generally stated in the question.)
 Look for nouns that come before the pronoun carefully.
 Read the part of the passage before the pronoun carefully.
 Eliminate any definitely wrong answers and choose the best
answer from the remaining choices.
PRACTICE 7

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A NEW WAY TO RELIEVE STUDENT STRESS


It’s the last week of the semester at the University of Wisconsin. The students are preparing for their final
exams. Of course, this is a very stressful week for many of them. Some are at the library, but they are not
studying. Instead, they are sitting and relaxing with dogs, but they are not wasting their time. The Health
Department of the university brings the dogs to the school library for the students. The dogs help them to feel
5 less stress as they prepare for their finals.

Counselors from the school bring the dogs, but they also bring advice for the students about how to feel less
anxious. They advised the students to take short study breaks- even five minutes every hour-to reduce stress.
These frequent breaks also help the students to remember information. In addition, the counselors advised
the students to get enough sleep. ‘‘Don’t drink a lot of coffee because that will prevent you from sleeping,”
10 one counselor suggests. ‘‘Try not to worry so much,’’ another counselor says, ‘’and ask your friends and family
for their assistance.’’

Manuel Perez, a University of Wisconsin student, says that all of the advice is very useful. However, he says,
‘’The dogs are the most useful of all. When I’m petting one, I feel much more relaxed and then I’m ready to hit
the books.’’

1. What is the main idea of the passage?


(A) Dogs help students to reduce their stress 4. What is the meaning of “anxious” in line 7?
before their final exams. (A) Angry
(B) Students should sleep well before the (B) Worried
exams. (C) Painful
(C) Frequent breaks help the students to (D) Conservative
remember information better.
(D) Students don’t like to study at the library 5. The pronoun “they” in line 7 refers to which of
before the exams. the following?
(A) Dogs
2. The pronoun “they” in line 3 refers to which of (B) Students
the following? (C) Counselors
(A) Dogs (D) Breaks
(B) Students
(C) Final exams 6. The word “reduce” in line 7 could best be
(D) Counselors replaced by which of the following?
(A) Overcome
3. It is implied in the passage that (B) Change
(A) the Health Department of the university is (C) Finish
concerned with students’ problems (D) Decrease
(B) there are two semesters at the University of
Wisconsin 7. It is stated in the passage that students
(C) students aren’t allowed to bring their pets shouldn’t drink too much coffee because
to school with them (A) it increases stress
(D) families don’t help students with their (B) it causes sleep deprivation
problems (C) it wastes students’ time
(D) it distracts concentration
8. The pronoun “their” in line 11 refers to which of 10. Which of the following is NOT stated in the
the following? passage about the counselors?
(A) Students (A) They try to help students feel less anxious.
(B) Dogs (B) They think that dogs will be helpful for
(C) Counselors students to feel less stress.
(D) Friends and family (C) They have strict rules about the final exams.
(D) They advise students to get enough sleep.
9. Where in the passage does the author mention
the length of breaks students should take?
(A) Lines 3-4
(B) Line 7
(C) Lines 8-9
(D) Line 12
SKILL 8
ORGANIZATION OF IDEAS

 You will be sometimes asked in a reading test about the organization of ideas in a passage. In this type of question,
you will be asked to determine how the ideas in one paragraph (or paragraphs) relate to the ideas in another
paragraph (or paragraphs).

EXAMPLE
If I asked who invented the game of baseball, most Americans would probably reply that it was Abner
Doubleday. At the beginning of this century, there was some disagreement over how the game of baseball had
actually originated, so sporting-goods manufacturer Spaulding inaugurated a commission to research the
question. In 1908 a report was published by the commission in which Abner Doubleday, a U.S. Army officer from
Cooperstown, New York, was given credit for the invention of the game. The National Baseball Hall of Fame was
established in Cooperstown in honor of Doubleday.

Today, most sports historians are in agreement that Doubleday really did not have much to do with the
development of baseball. Instead, baseball seems to be a close relation to the English rather than American
roots.

1. The second paragraph


(A) provides examples to support the ideas in the first paragraph
(B) precedes the ideas in the first paragraph
(C) outlines the effect of the idea in the first paragraph
(D) refutes the idea in the first paragraph

 To answer this question it is necessary to look at the main ideas of each of the two paragraphs. The main idea of the
first paragraph is found in the first sentence of the first paragraph: most people believe that Abner Doubleday
invented the game of baseball. The main idea of the second paragraph is found in the first line of the second
paragraph: historians generally agree that Doubleday did not invent baseball. The second paragraph therefore
contradicts or refutes the information in the first paragraph. The best answer to this question is answer (D).

 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about questions on the organization
of ideas:

ORGANIZATION OF IDEAS
HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  How is the information in the passage organized?
 How is the information in the second paragraph related to the
information in the first paragraph?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answer to this type of question can generally be
determined by looking at the first sentence of the appropriate
paragraphs.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Read the first line of each paragraph.
 Look for words that show the relationship between the
paragraphs.
 Choose the answer that best expresses the relationship.
PRACTICE 8

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) WHY DO I EAT WHEN I’M NOT HUNGRY?


The next time you want to eat something, ask yourself a question. Are you really hungry? If your answer ‘No’,
then ask yourself why you want to eat when your body is not really hungry. The following reasons may help you
understand why you do so.

 I’M BORED. Sometimes we are bored and don’t have anything better to do. When this happens, and
5 you start to walk into the kitchen, stop yourself. Go to another part of the house, or go for a walk.
 IT TASTES GOOD. Sometimes it does, but sometimes we eat anything we can find in the kitchen, even if
it really isn’t that great tasting. When I’m dieting, I like to eat food that I really enjoy. Eat less of it,
enjoy it.
 I HAVE A LOT OF STRESS. This is often a common reason for eating. I often eat because of stress, not
10 because I am hungry. I try to read a book, or exercise instead.
 TV MAKES ME WANT TO EAT. I rarely watched TV when I was thin. Then I started to watch TV almost
every evening, and I gained 45 pounds. Evening TV programs have many food commercials that make
me run to the kitchen for a snack. My best advice is to stop watching evening television.
 BECAUSE I’M REALLY THIRSTY. Sometimes people eat because they are thirsty. Instead of having
15 something to drink, people eat something that is often fattening. The next time you feel hungry, drink
some water.

If your stomach is making noise, it is time to eat. If you want food between meals when your stomach is not
making noise, don’t eat. Remember, you should give your body some kind of nutrition three times a day. If you
do have to eat between meals, eat a piece of fruit or a vegetable. Try to think about what and why you are
20 eating the next time you want a snack. Ask yourself, ‘Why am I eating?’

1. What is the author’s main point in the second 4. What is the meaning of “common” in line 9?
paragraph? (A) Different
(A) Going for a walk is healthy. (B) Similar
(B) Eating in the kitchen is boring. (C) Average
(C) Boredom causes unnecessary eating. (D) Natural
(D) Choosing a better place to eat is important.
5. What type of information is included in the fifth
2. The pronoun “this” in line 4 refers to which of paragraph?
the following? (A) A definition
(A) When you are bored (B) A comparison
(B) When you walk into the kitchen (C) A description
(C) When you have better things to do (D) A suggestion
(D) When you go to another part of the house
6. It is stated in the passage that when people are
3. It is implied in the third paragraph that thirsty
(A) sometimes we eat tasteless things (A) they drink water
(B) the food that doesn’t taste nice is hard to (B) they eat fatty foods
eat (C) they do exercise
(C) anything we find in the kitchen is fatty (D) they read a book
(D) when dieting you should often eat in the
kitchen
7. Where in the passage does the author mention 9. How is the information in the passage
how many times a day we should feed organized?
ourselves? (A) Contrasting theories about the kinds of food
(A) Lines 9-10 people should eat are discussed.
(B) Lines 14-16 (B) The reasons why people want to eat when
(C) Line 17 they are not hungry are stated.
(D) Line 18 (C) The kind of diet people should choose to
prevent diseases is outlined.
8. The last paragraph includes (D) The results of eating unhealthy food are
(A) the writer’s advice on how to avoid eating presented.
when you are not hungry
(B) a presentation of an example of the ideas in 10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the
the first paragraph passage?
(C) a description of the weaknesses of people (A) TV commercials make you feel hungry.
who tend to eat between meals (B) You shouldn’t eat between meals when you
(D) a discussion of the effects of eating a are not hungry.
balanced diet (C) When you feel stressed, it is better to read a
book than eat.
(D) When you are thirsty, you should have cold
drinks.
SKILL 9
USING CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF SIMPLE WORDS

 You will sometimes be asked to determine the meaning of a simple word, a word that you see often in everyday
English. In this type of question, you should not give the normal, everyday meaning of the word; instead you should
know the meaning of the word in this situation.

EXAMPLE
A line from the passage:
He put his answer this way ….

The question:
The word “put” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) placed
(B) set
(C) expressed
(D) handed

 In this type of question, you should understand that put is a normal, everyday word, and you are not being asked to
give the regular meaning of a normal, everyday word. Because the primary meaning of to put is to place, answer (A)
is not the correct answer. To answer this type of question, you must see which of the answers best fits into the
sentence in the passage. You cannot place an answer or set an answer or hand an answer, but you can express an
answer, so answer (C) is the best answer to this question.

 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about vocabulary questions containing
simple words:

VOCABULARY QUESTIONS CONTAINING SIMPLE WORDS


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE QUESTION  “What is the meaning …?”
 “Which of the following is closest in meaning to …?”
 The word is a simple word, one that you see often in everyday
English.
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The question usually tells you in which line of the passage the
word can be found.
HOW TO ANSWER THE QUESTION  Find the word in the passage.
 Read the sentence that contains the word carefully.
 Look for context clues to help you understand the meaning.
 Choose the answer that the context indicates.
PRACTICE 9

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) CHOOSING NOBEL PRIZE WINNERS


Alfred Nobel gave more than $9 million of his fortune to establish annual Nobel Prizes. According to Nobel’s
instructions, the money is given to people who help humankind in some outstanding way in five fields: physics,
chemistry, physiology (or medicine), literature, and peace. In addition to the cash prize, each Nobel Prize
winner receives a gold medal.

5 The Nobel Foundation is the legal owner of the prize funds, but it does not award the prizes. The foundation
follows a list of Alfred Nobel’s rules. One of the rules states that not all the prizes must be given out each year.
In fact, no Nobel prizes were given for the years 1940-1942.

Different groups give out each award. The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences makes the physics and chemistry
awards. The Karolinska Institute of Stockholm, Sweden, awards the physiology or medicine prize. The Nobel
10 Prize for literature is awarded by the Swedish Academy. The Norwegian parliament chooses a committee of five
people to award the Nobel Peace Prize. In 1969, a sixth prize was established in economics. The Royal Swedish
Academy of Sciences makes this award, too.

Each of these institutions must receive the names of candidates before February 1 of each year. A jury of
twelve people decides on a final candidate by majority vote. If there is no majority vote for any one candidate,
15 the prize is not offered that year. The jury reviews the candidates and asks them many questions, including the
following:

 Did you make the outstanding contribution in the previous year?


 Was your contribution the result of many years of research?
 Did you work with one, two, or three scientists as a team? (The Prize may be divided.)
20  Did your discovery depend on the work of another candidate? (Again, the prize may be divided.)

The first Nobel prizes were awarded on December 10, 1901, the fifth anniversary of Alfred Nobel’s death. The
amount of each prize was more than $40,000 at that time. Today each prize is more than $1 million.

1. Which of the following is closest in meaning to


“gave” in line 1? 3. The word “outstanding” in line 2 could best be
(A) Lent replaced by which of the following?
(B) Spent (A) Similar
(C) Loaned (B) Generous
(D) Earned (C) Remarkable
(D) Difficult
2. What is the author’s main point in the passage?
(A) How Nobel Prize winners are chosen 4. Where in the passage does the author mention
(B) Fields of Nobel Prize the names of Nobel Prize fields?
(C) A History of Nobel Prize winners (A) Line 1
(D) The Institutes awarding the Nobel Prizes (B) Lines 1-3
(C) Lines 10-11
(D) Lines 14-16
5. Which of the following is NOT stated in the 7. What is the meaning of “offered” in line 15?
passage about Alfred Nobel? (A) Wanted
(A) He spent a lot of money to found Nobel (B) Received
Prizes. (C) Accepted
(B) The prizes were given in five fields (D) Presented
according to his directions.
(C) He set some rules to be followed by the 8. The pronoun “them” in line 15 refers to which
Nobel Foundation. of the following?
(D) He won a prize himself in the field of (A) Jury members
chemistry. (B) Questions
(C) Institutions
6. The passage indicates that (D) Candidates
(A) Nobel Prize winners are only given cash
prize 9. It can be inferred from the passage that
(B) no Nobel Prizes were given in 1941 (A) the prize is given every two years
(C) the Nobel Prize for literature is awarded by (B) the Nobel foundation awards all the prizes
the Karolinska Institute (C) Alfred Nobel died in 1896
(D) the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences (D) the prize was more valuable in the past
makes the prize in economics
10. How is the information in the passage
organized?
(A) Factual information about Nobel Prize
awards is presented.
(B) A chronological narration of the Nobel Prize
winners is outlined.
(C) Contrasting views about the establishment
of the Nobel Foundation are presented.
(D) The reasons to establish Nobel Prizes are
discussed.
SKILL 10

DETERMINING THE TONE, PURPOSE, OR COURSE

 You will sometimes be asked questions about (1) the tone of the passage, (2) the author’s purpose in writing the
passage, and (3) the course in which the passage might be used.

 A question about the tone is asking if the author is showing any emotion in his or her writing. If the passage is a
factual passage presented without any emotion, the tone of this type of passage could be simply informational,
explanatory, or factual. Sometimes the author shows some emotion, and you must be able to recognize that emotion
to answer a question about tone correctly. If the author is being funny, then the tone might be humorous; if the
author is making fun of something, the tone might be sarcastic; if the author feels strongly that something is right or
wrong, the tone might be impassioned.

 A question about purpose is asking what the author is trying to do in the passage. You can draw a conclusion about
the author’s purpose by referring to the main idea and the organization of details in the passage. For example, if the
main idea is that George Washington’s early life greatly influenced his later career and if the details give a history of
his early life, the author’s purpose could be to show how George Washington’s early life influenced his later career.
However, the answer to a purpose question is often considerably more general than the main idea. A more general
author’s purpose for the main idea about George Washington would be to demonstrate the influence of early
experiences on later life (without any mention of George Washington).

 A question about the course is asking you to decide which university course might have this passage as assigned
reading. You should draw a conclusion about the course by referring to the topic of the passage and the organization
of details. For example, if the passage is about George Washington and the details give historical background on his
early life, then this would probably be assigned reading in an American history class. However, if the passage is about
George Washington and the details show the various influences that he had on the formation of the American
government, then the passage might be assigned reading in a government or political science class.
EXAMPLE
Military awards have long been considered symbolic of royalty, and thus when the United States was a young
nation just finished with revolution and eager to distance itself from anything tasting of monarchy, there was
strong sentiment against military decoration. For a century, from the end of the Revolutionary War until the
Civil War, the United States awarded no military honors. The institution of the Medal of Honor in 1861 was a
source of great discussion and concern. From the Civil War until World War I, the Medal of Honor was the only
military award given by the United States government, and today it is awarded only in the most extreme cases
of heroism. Although the United States is still somewhat wary of granting military awards, several awards have
been instituted since World War I.

1. The tone of the passage is


(A) angered
(B) humorous
(C) outraged
(D) informational

2. The author’s purpose in this passage is to


(A) describe the history of military awards from the Revolutionary War to the Civil War
(B) demonstrate an effect of America’s attitude toward royalty
(C) give an opinion of military awards
(D) outline various historical symbols of royalty

3. The passage would probably be assigned reading in a course on


(A) general science
(B) psychology
(C) American history
(D) interior decoration

 The first question asks about the tone of the passage. To determine the tone of a passage, you should look for any
indications of emotion on the part of the author. In this passage, the author uses historical facts to make a point
about America’s sentiment against military awards; the author does not make any kind of emotional plea. Therefore,
the best answer to this question is answer (D). There is nothing in the passage to indicate any anger (A), or humor
(B), or outrage (C) on the part of the author.

 The second question asks about the author’s purpose in writing the passage. To answer this question correctly, you
should refer to the main idea of this passage as outlined in the first sentence. The main idea is that there has been
strong sentiment against military awards in the United States because military awards are symbols of royalty. The
author gives historical facts about military awards as details to support the main idea. Since the purpose is
determined from the main idea and the overall organization of details, the author’s purpose is to describe, explain, or
demonstrate that America’s sentiment against military awards is because of its negative sentiment against royalty.
The best answer to this question is therefore answer (B); you should notice that the correct answer is considerably
more general than the main idea: according to answer (B) the purpose is to demonstrate an effect (America’s dislike
of military awards) of America’s attitude toward royalty.
 The third question asks about the course in which you might be assigned this reading passage. To draw a conclusion
about the course, you should refer to the topic of the passage and the overall organization of details. Since this
passage is about American military awards, and the details discuss the history of American military awards from the
Revolutionary War until today, the best answer is (C).

 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about tone, purpose, or course
questions:

TONE, PURPOSE, OR COURSE


HOW TO IDENTIFY THE  TONE: What is the tone of the passage?
QUESTION  PURPOSE: What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
 COURSE: In which course would this reading be assigned?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  TONE: There will be clues throughout the passage that the
 author is showing some emotion rather than just presenting facts.
 PURPOSE: Draw a conclusion about the purpose from the main idea
and supporting details.
 COURSE: Draw a conclusion about the course from the topic of the
passage and the supporting details.
HOW TO ANSWER THE  TONE: Skim the passage looking for clues that the author is showing
QUESTION some emotion. Choose the answer that identifies the emotion.
 PURPOSE: Study the main idea in the topic sentence and the details
used to support the main idea. Draw a conclusion about the
purpose.
 COURSE: Study the main idea in the topic sentence and the
details used to support the main idea. Draw a conclusion about the
course.
PRACTICE 10

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) IRENE CURIE


Most people are aware that Marie Curie was the first woman to win the Nobel Prize, and the first person to
win it twice. However, few people know that Marie Curie was also the mother of a Nobel Prize winner. Irene
Curie was born on September 12, 1897. Irene was the first of Marie and Pierre Curie’s two daughters. At the
age of ten, Irene’s talents and interest in mathematics were apparent. Irene, along with nine other children
5 whose parents were also famous scholars, studied in their own school. It was known as the ‘’Cooperative,’’
and Marie Curie was one of their teachers. Irene finished her high school education at the College of Sevigne
in Paris.

Irene entered the Sorbonne in October 1914 to prepare for a degree in mathematics and physics. When World
War I began, Irene left the Sorbonne to help her mother, who was using X-ray facilities in military hospitals in
10 France and Belgium. After the war, Irene received a Military Medal for her work.

In 1918, Irene became her mother’s assistant at the Curie Institute. In December 1924, Frederic Joliot visited
the Institute, where he met Marie Curie. Frederic became one of Marie’s assistants, and Irene taught him the
techniques required to work with radioactivity. Irene and Frederic soon fell in love and were married on
October 29, 1926. Their daughter Helene was born on September 17, 1927 and their son Pierre on March 12,
15 1932. Like her mother, Irene combined family and career. Like her mother, Irene was awarded a Nobel Prize,
along with her husband Frederic, in 1935, for synthesizing new radioactive elements. Unfortunately, also like
her mother, she developed leukemia because of her exposure to radiation. Irene Joliot-Curie died from
leukemia on March 17, 1956.

1. It is stated in the passage that Marie Curie 4. It can be inferred from the second paragraph
(A) had nine children that
(B) won the Nobel Prize twice (A) Irene Curie could not graduate from
(C) was the only teacher at the “Cooperative” Sorbonne
(D) was born in 1897 (B) Irene Curie worked harder than her mother
did
2. The word “apparent” in line 4 could best be (C) Irene Curie was against war and violence
replaced by which of the following? (D) Irene Curie’s favorite branch of science was
(A) Intelligent Physics
(B) Clear
(C) Less 5. Where in the passage does the author mention
(D) Simple the date Irene got married?
(A) Lines 3-4
3. Which of the following is NOT stated in the (B) Line 10-11
passage about Irene Curie? (C) Lines 13-14
(A) She worked as an assistant to her mother. (D) Lines 17-18
(B) She got a medal from the military for her
work. 6. The pronoun “their” in line 14 refers to which of
(C) She worked in Italy as a medical doctor. the following?
(D) She served in World War I to help wounded (A) Marie and Irene Curie’s
soldiers. (B) Marie Curie’s assistants’
(C) Irene Curie and Frederic Joliot’s
(D) Marie Curie and Frederic Joliot’s
7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to 10. What is the tone of the passage?
“developed” in line 17? (A) Informational
(A) Started (B) Emotional
(B) Used (C) Humorous
(C) Increased (D) Descriptive
(D) Had
11. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
8. Which of the following best describes the (A) To give biographical knowledge about a
organization of the passage? famous figure
(A) Similarities between two important figures (B) To explain the details of a historical event
are discussed. (C) To make the reader aware of an unknown
(B) The effects of a scientific invention are scientific fact
described. (D) To describe the development of an
(C) Factual knowledge about an outstanding invention
figure is given chronologically.
(D) An opinion about how mothers affect their 12. In which course would this reading be assigned?
children is presented. (A) Statistics
(B) History
9. With what is the author primarily concerned in (C) Literary Research
all paragraphs? (D) Biology
(A) Similarities between the lives of Marie and
Irene Curie.
(B) Irene Curie’s studies on X-ray facilities.
(C) Marie Curie’s effects on her daughter’s life.
(D) Important facts of Irene Curie’s life.
SKILL 11
TRANSITION QUESTIONS

 You will sometimes be asked to determine what probably came before the reading passage (in the preceding
paragraph) or what probably comes after the reading passage (in the following paragraph).Of course, the topic of the
preceding or following paragraph is not directly stated, and you must draw a conclusion to determine what is
probably in these paragraphs.

 This type of question is a transition question. It asks you to demonstrate that you understand that good writing
contains transitions from one paragraph to the next. A paragraph may start out with the idea of the previous
paragraph as a way of linking the ideas in the two paragraphs. A paragraph may also end with an idea that will be
further developed in the following paragraph.

EXAMPLE
Another myth of the oceans concerns Davy Jones, who in folklore is the mean-spirited sovereign of the
ocean’s depths. The name “Jones” is thought by some etymologists to have been derived from the name
“Jonah,” the Hebrew prophet who spent three days in a whale’s belly.

According to tradition, any object that goes overboard and sinks to the bottom of the ocean is said to have
gone to Davy Jones’s locker, the ocean-sized, mythical receptacle for anything that falls into the water.
Needless to say, any sailor on the seas is not so eager to take a tour of Davy Jones’s locker, although it
might be a rather interesting trip considering all the treasures located there.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses


(A) the youth of Davy Jones
(B) Davy Jones’s career as a sailor
(C) a different traditional story from the sea
(D) preparing to travel on the ocean

2. The topic of the paragraph following the passage most likely is


(A) valuable items located at the bottom of the ocean
(B) where Davy Jones is found today
(C) Jonah and the whale
(D) preventing objects from falling overboard

 The first question asks about the topic of the preceding paragraph, so you must look at the beginning of the
passage and draw a conclusion about what probably came before. Since the passage begins with the
expression another myth of the oceans, you should understand that the new passage is going to present a
second myth of the oceans and the previous passage probably presented the first myth of the oceans. A myth
is a traditional story, so the best answer to this question is answer (C). The second question asks about the
topic of the following paragraph, so you must look at the end of the passage and draw a conclusion about
what probably comes after. The passage ends with the mention of all the treasures located there, and there is
in Davy Jones’s locker, or at the bottom of the ocean; this is probably going to be the topic of the next
paragraph. The best answer to the second question is therefore answer (A).
 The following chart outlines the key information that you should remember about transition questions:

TRANSITION QUESTIONS
HOW TO IDENTIFY THE  The paragraph preceding the passage probably…
QUESTION  What is most likely in the paragraph following the passage?
WHERE TO FIND THE ANSWER  The answer can generally be found in the first line of the passage for
a preceding question. The answer can generally be found in the last
line for a following question.

HOW TO ANSWER THE  Read the first line for a preceding question.
QUESTION  Read the last line for a following question.
 Draw a conclusion about what comes before or after.
 Choose the answer that is reflected in the first or last line of the
passage.
PRACTICE 11

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) THE DO IT HOMESTEAD


Charlie and Fran Collins live in southwest Utah on the family farm which they built together. For the last 21
years, the Collinses have not paid any electrical bills. They have run their home and their farm completely on
solar energy. They do not depend on electrical companies to supply their power.

Many people dream of becoming energy self-sufficient for different reasons. Some people want to use energy
5 resources that are safer for the environment, or environmentally friendly. However, while most of us only
dream about becoming energy self-sufficient, Charlie and Fran Collins actually did it. When the Collinses
bought their 240-acre farm, they began experimenting with various sources of light and energy. After 21 years,
they have a lifestyle that has all of the modern conveniences, but which is powered entirely on solar energy.
The Collinses call their home ‘’The Do It Homestead’’ because Charlie and Fran understood that if they wanted
10 to get anything done, they had to ‘’DO IT’’ themselves.

Using 24 solar electric panels, the Collinses produce enough electricity to meet their needs for three to five
days with no sunlight. They run lights, a solar refrigerator/ freezer, and other household appliances, such as a
dishwasher, washing machine, and vacuum cleaner.

Charlie’s dream is to help others become as self-reliant as he and his wife are on their Utah homestead. He is
15 the author of ‘Ask Mr. Solar’, a popular newspaper column that answers people’s questions about solar energy
through the Internet. For people who are interested in alternative energy, the Collinses are experienced
sources of information. The knowledge they have can be invaluable to anyone who dreams of providing power
to their homes without having to pay monthly electric bills.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most 3. Which of the following is closest in meaning to
probably discusses “run” in line 2?
(A) the disadvantages of living in a farmhouse (A) Stayed
(B) information about Charlie and Fran Collins (B) Hurried
(C) how to use household appliances efficiently (C) Maintained
(D) the advantages of using electricity (D) Saved

2. What is the main idea of the passage? 4. The pronoun “it” in line 6 refers to which of the
(A) The Collinses’ use of alternative energy in following?
their farmhouse (A) Environment
(B) The peaceful life of a couple in a farmhouse (B) Collinses’ farm
(C) How to avoid paying electrical bills (C) Experimenting with various sources
(D) The disadvantages of using electrical (D) Becoming energy self-sufficient
devices
5. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) the Collinses have three children
(B) the Collinses built their house 21 years ago
(C) Mr. Collins studied engineering at school
(D) the Collinses have paid lots of money on
electricity so far
6. What is the meaning of “entirely” in line 8? 10. Which of the following is NOT stated in the
(A) Successfully passage about Mr. Collins?
(B) Easily (A) He writes for a newspaper.
(C) Sensitively (B) He works in collaboration with his wife.
(D) Completely (C) He wants to share his experiences with
other people.
7. It can be understood from the passage that if (D) He has a college degree.
there is no sunlight for three or five days,
(A) the Collinses cannot use their household 11. Which of the following is most likely the topic of
appliances the paragraph following the passage?
(B) the electricity the Collinses produce will be (A) The outline of the course the Collinses teach
a lot more at college
(C) the Collinses can still use electrical energy (B) The negative effects of using solar energy
for a while (C) The suggestions of the Collinses for other
(D) the Collinses will have to ask for help from families
their neighbors to run their home (D) The story of how Charlie and Fran Collins
met
8. Where in the passage does the author mention
the reason why the Collinses call their home 12. What is the tone of the passage?
“The Do It Homestead”? (A) Humorous
(A) Lines 4-5 (B) Emotional
(B) Lines 6-8 (C) Exaggerated
(C) Lines 9-10 (D) Informational
(D) Lines 12-14
13. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to
9. The third paragraph includes (A) describe an energy self-sufficient family
(A) examples of where the Collinses use solar (B) explain what solar energy is
energy (C) discuss the role of solar energy to save
(B) reasons why people want to become energy electricity
self-sufficient (D) demonstrate why we should be energy self-
(C) definition of solar energy sufficient
(D) a comparison of solar energy and electrical
energy 14. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(A) Engineering
(B) Culture Studies
(C) History
(D) Sociology
SKILL 12
DETERMINING MEANINGS FROM WORD PARTS

 When you are asked to determine the meaning of a long word that you do not know, it is sometimes possible
to determine the meaning of the word by studying the word parts.

EXAMPLE
(Lines) Ring Lardner himself was born into a wealthy, educated, and cultured family. For the bulk of his
career, he worked as a reporter for newspapers in South Bend, Boston, St. Louis, and Chicago.
However, it is for his short stories of lower middle-class Americans that Ring Lardner is perhaps
best known. In these stories, Lardner vividly creates the language and the ambiance of this
lower class, often using the misspelled words, grammatical errors, and incorrect diction that
5 typified the language of the lower middle class.

1. The word “vividly” in line 4 is closest in meaning to


(A) in a cultured way
(B) in a correct way
(C) in a lifelike way
(D) in a brief way

2. The word “misspelled” in line 5 is closest in meaning to


(A) highly improper
(B) vulgar
(C) incorrectly written
(D) slang

3. The word “diction” in line 5 is closest in meaning to


(A) writing
(B) sentence structure
(C) form
(D) speech

 In the first question, the word vividly contains the word part viv, which means life, so the best answer is
answer (C). In the second question, the word misspelled contains the word part mis, which means error or
incorrect, so the best answer is answer (C). In the third question, the word dictation contains the word part
dic, which means speak, so the best answer is answer (D).
 The following charts contain a few word parts, some common prefixes and some common roots that you will
need to know.

A SHORT LIST OF WORD PARTS


PART MEANING EXAMPLE PART MEANING EXAMPLE
CONTRA (against) contrast DIC (say) dictate
MAL (bad) malcontent DOMIN (master) dominant
MIS (error) mistake JUD (judge) judgment
SUB (under) subway MOR (death) mortal
DEC (ten) decade SPEC (see) spectator
MULTI (many) multiple TERR (earth) territory
SOL (one) solo VER (turn) divert
TRI (three) triple VIV (live) revive

SOME COMMON PREFIXES


PREFIX MEANING EXAMPLE
ex- out exterior
in- in indebted
pre- before prepaid
post- after postdate
sub- under subconscious
tele- far telephone
co-/con- together with coordination
in- not incapable
mis- incorrect misplace
re- again review
re- back recall
un- not unfair

SOME COMMON ROOTS


ROOT MEANING EXAMPLE
-graph- write biography
-jud- judge/decide judicial
-port- carry support
-ven- come convent
-vis- see vision
-voc- call/voice vocal
-ced-/-ceed- go exceed
-dic- say diction
-mit-/-mis- send mission
-scrib-/-scrip- write tapescript
-spec- see/look inspect
-ver- turn invert
PRACTICE 12

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A SURVIVOR’S STORY


My name is Keiko Tanaka, and I live in Kobe, Japan. Because I was born and raised in Japan, I have experienced
many earthquakes. By far the most powerful and frightening earthquake I have ever lived through was the one
that struck my city on January 17, 1995.

My son’s family and I live in a small house in Kobe. When the earthquake began, it was only 5:46 A.M., and we
5 were all sleeping. I was thrown from my bed onto the carpet. I wanted to get to my son and his wife, but I
couldn’t- the amount of movement in our home was incredible. The door near where I was standing was
swinging back and forth. I listened helplessly while just about everything standing in our home fell over. Loose
objects were tossed across rooms while the shaking continued. The noise was incredibly loud. When the
earthquake finally stopped, I hurried to my son’s room, where he, his wife Mika, and their children had been
10 sleeping. Then we looked around our home. It had been heavily damaged. All the windows were broken, and
the roof had fallen in. In the kitchen, most of the dishes lay in small pieces all across the kitchen floor. Outside,
we saw that our neighbors’ houses had fallen down, too. People were standing near their homes, and
everyone looked shocked and frightened.

Although we were all safe and no one had been hurt, we were still very affected by a terrible fear. In addition,
15 we did not have electrical power or water for days. Overall, it was a terrifying experience, and we worry that it
may happen again. In the meantime, we are all beginning to try to rebuild our homes and our lives. We love
our beautiful city of Kobe and do not want to leave it.

1. The topic of the preceding paragraph is most 4. What type of information is included in the first
likely paragraph?
(A) life in Kobe before the earthquake (A) A definition
(B) the biggest natural disaster in the world (B) A comparison
(C) the memory of another earthquake survivor (C) A suggestion
(D) earthquake precautions to be taken (D) A regret

2. Which of the following would be another title for 5. It is stated in the passage that the earthquake
the passage? (A) happened early in the morning
(A) My Childhood Memories (B) was the first one occurring in Kobe
(B) The Scariest Earthquake in My Life (C) was not very strong
(C) How Earthquakes Happen (D) happened when Keiko was working
(D) Earthquake Safety Tips
6. It can be inferred from the passage that Keiko
3. What is the meaning of “struck” in line 3? (A) does not have a husband
(A) Hit (B) has worked as a nurse for years
(B) Met (C) has experienced an earthquake before
(C) Destroyed (D) does not have any children
(D) Caused
7. The word “incredibly” in line 8 is closest in
meaning to
(A) very strong
(B) dissatisfying
(C) unbelievable
(D) deadly
8. Where in the passage does the author mention 12. What is the tone of the passage?
the details of the damage their house had? (A) Humorous
(A) Lines 2-3 (B) Outraged
(B) Lines 8-10 (C) Disinterested
(C) Lines 10-11 (D) Emotional
(D) Lines 14-15
13. The author’s purpose in this passage is to
9. The word “rebuild” in line 16 is closest in (A) clarify the role of the government in reducing
meaning to the damages of earthquakes
(A) incorrectly built (B) make the reader aware of a worsening world
(B) build again problem
(C) build alone (C) describe the effects of a natural disaster from
(D) build many of something a survivor’s point of view
(D) enumerate examples of some of the most
10. The pronoun “it” in line 17 refers to which of the destructive earthquakes
following?
(A) Keiko’s house 14. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(B) The earthquake (A) Theology
(C) Kobe (B) Human Sciences
(D) The experience (C) Archeology
(D) American History
11. Which of the following is NOT stated in the
passage? 15. The following paragraph will most likely discuss
(A) The earthquake happened in 1995. (A) Keiko’s life story when she was younger
(B) Nobody in Keiko’s family was hurt in the (B) the detailed description of the time when the
earthquake. earthquake happened
(C) Keiko’s house was damaged heavily during (C) the efforts of the earthquake survivors to
the earthquake. rebuild their city
(D) The government helped the victims after the (D) what happened to Keiko’s husband
earthquake.
REVIEW SKILL 1 “MAIN IDEA QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) AVOIDING CULTURAL TABOOS


The speed and convenience of modern travel means that destinations that used to take a lot of time to
travel can now be reached quickly and easily. Even though “far away” countries may now seem closer
thanks to air travel, they may still be different from your home country. Therefore, it is important to
adapt your behavior so that you don’t insult or offend the local people. The following are some
5 fundamental rules that will make communication easier and your trip more enjoyable.

First, be careful with how you utter words or express yourself. Never raise your voice in order to make
yourself understood. If you do not know the word for something in the local language, or cannot make
yourself understood verbally, try drawing a picture, or pointing to an object. Remember though, that
pointing directly at a person can be highly offensive in some cultures. If you have to point something out,
10 do so by gesturing towards the object, with the palm of your hand flat, facing upward, and your fingers
outstretched.

Second, consider the main religion of the country you plan to visit and read about any taboos related to
clothing, especially if you plan to visit places that are considered sacred. As a precaution, bring
conservative clothes, such as shirts and T-shirts that cover your shoulders, and long trousers. However,
15 you may have to be careful about your clothing on the streets, too.

Avoid topics of conversation that you think may be sensitive. If a topic is sensitive in your own culture, it
will more than likely be same in other cultures. Feel free to show interest in the history and customs of
the place you are visiting, but don’t ask too many questions about why things are done a certain way; you
may offend local people.

20 Finally, if you are planning to stay with a host family, and you wish to take a gift, you should do some
research. The idea of the perfect gift varies greatly from country to country, and one of the easiest ways
to offend somebody is to give the wrong gift. In China, it is taboo to give clocks and fans. The Chinese
word for “fan” has a similar sound to the word for “separation,” while the sound for “clock” is similar to
that of “death.”

25 Wherever you go around the world, always be tolerant of the local customs. Avoid being critical; try
instead to show respect for the values of the country you are in, even if you do not necessarily agree with
them.
1. What is the main idea of the second paragraph?
(A) How different people use words in their daily lives
(B) How people react when others raise their voice
(C) The similarities among cultures in terms of the word choice
(D) The importance of our word choice when you are abroad

2. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?


(A) Wearing conservative clothes in sacred places
(B) Paying attention to the religion of the visited country
(C) The importance of learning taboos worldwide
(D) Visiting sacred places in other countries

3. What is the primary idea in paragraph five?


(A) What to keep in mind before choosing a gift when abroad
(B) The meaning of gifts in foreign cultures
(C) Disadvantages of staying with a host family
(D) The reflection of the difference among languages

4. What might be the best title for this text?


(A) Things to Consider When Abroad
(B) Be a Considerable Representative
(C) Language Makes Difference
(D) Culture the Unknown Entity
PRACTICE 2

A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Every culture has its own unwritten list of behavior that is acceptable. Every society also has its taboos, or
types of behavior that are considered a violation of good manners. If you travel to another country, on
business or vacation, it is helpful to learn some of that country’s customs so that you do not insult the
local people.

5 The word “taboo” comes from the Tongan language and is used in modern English to describe verbal and
nonverbal behavior that is forbidden or to be avoided. In spite of what some may think, taboos are not
universal; they tend to be specific to a culture or country, and usually form around a group’s values and
beliefs. Therefore, what is considered acceptable behavior in one country may be a serious taboo in
another.

10 Verbal taboos usually involve topics that people believe are too private to talk about publicly, or relate to
one’s manner of speaking. In many cultures, for example, it is considered to be bad manners and is
offensive to discuss subjects such as sex or religion in public. In some countries, the volume of one’s voice
may offend people. In Japan, for example, people tend to be more soft spoken and might think that
someone who is speaking or laughing loudly is rude or aggressive.

15 Nonverbal taboos usually relate to body language. For example, one of the biggest differences among
many Western, Asian, and African cultures is the use of eye contact. In the U.S., people make eye contact
when they talk to others. If a person avoids eye contact, others might think that they are being dishonest
or that they lack confidence or the speaker may think that the listener is not interested. In many Asian
countries, however making eye contact with an older person or a person of higher social rank or status is
20 considered rude and disrespectful.

Certain actions, especially with the hands and feet, can cause offense in many cultures. In Thailand, as in
most other Buddhist cultures in Asia, touching a person on the head is considered very insulting because
the head is the highest, and therefore, considered the most important part of the body. As the feet are
the lowest, pointing at someone with one of your feet, or showing the soles of your feet to someone, is
25 considered insulting in many Asian countries.

Behavior that is acceptable and non-offensive in one culture can be highly offensive in another. When
visiting a foreign country, be aware of some of the basic differences, as this will help to ensure a more
enjoyable trip.

1. What might be the best title for the text? 2. What is the main idea of paragraph three?
(A) Travel Manners (A) The impression laughter may create on
(B) Universal Taboos people
(C) Mingling with Foreigners (B) Respecting other people’s private life
(D) Being Non-offensive as a Local (C) The importance of the choice of subjects
and style when you are with people
(D) The underlying beliefs when someone talks
about obscene things in public
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the things 4. Which of the following is discussed in the
someone should learn before traveling to passage?
another country? (A) The ways people react when they are
(A) Topics to talk about publicly offended
(B) How to adjust the tone of voice (B) The appropriate behavior when dining with
(C) The value of gifts to be given to people a foreigner
(D) How to use someone’s body language (C) The rules of business relations with an Asian
(D) The origin of the word “Taboo”

B.Match the words from the text above with their meanings.

WORDS ANSWERS DEFINITIONS


1. violation ________ (A) to not have something, or to not have enough of it
2. universal ________ (B) in a way that is intended for anyone to know, see, or hear
3. serious ________ (C) an action that breaks a law, rule, agreement, etc.
4. publicly ________ (D) to do something to be certain of a particular result
5. tend ________ (E) important and deserving a lot of attention; severe in effect; bad
6. lack ________ (F) the bottom of your feet or shoes
7. soles ________ (G) to be likely to do a particular thing
8. ensure ________ (H) involving everyone in the world or in a particular group; true or
appropriate in every situation
REVIEW SKILL 2 “VOCABULARY IN CONTEXT QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Different cultures enjoy different foods. Sometimes a food that one culture thinks is delicious might seem
disgusting to another. In much of the world, people eat beef, but the idea of meat from a cow disgusts
some Hindus in India. People in Western countries eat cheese, and for the people living in some parts of
Asia it is revolting. They wouldn’t even stand seeing it. And then there are insects. Many people wonder
5 how people can eat bugs. Yet, they are an important part of the diet in many countries.

In different places, people eat over 1,000 types of insects – and ate them in the past, too. For example,
people in ancient Greece and Rome ate insects. American Indians ate grasshoppers, crickets, and
caterpillars. Today, in parts of Africa, people eat termites – insects that eat wood- and caterpillars as
snacks. In Japan, some people eat grasshoppers with soy sauce. In some Mexican restaurants, people pay
10 $25 for a plate of butterfly larvae. In America, some restaurants now offer insects as gourmet food. In
China, people spend $100 million each year on ants.

There are various ways to prepare bugs as food. One way is to boil them in very hot water. In Colombia,
some people spread them on bread. In the Philippines, people fry them in butter with vegetables. In
some parts of Africa, some people bake or fry them. In other areas, people eat them raw. However,
15 entomologists-scientists who study insects-say that it’s important to cook insects, not eat them
uncooked.

Julieta Ramos-Elorduy, a researcher at a university in Mexico city, says that there are many good reasons
to eat bugs. First, insects are cheap food – except on a plate in an expensive restaurant- and they taste
good. Some insects taste like nuts, bacon, mints or cinnamon. Second, bugs are good for our health. For
20 example, they often have more protein than beef or fish. Third, they can bring money to poor people
who find them in the forest and trade them. In parts of Africa, there are seven pounds of insects on just
one tree. This brings a good profit for very little work. Finally, eating insects can help you to save the
environment. In many countries people cut down trees. However, they will not do this if the trees have
insects to eat or sell.

25 People worldwide are now eating foods from other countries. People in the West now enjoy Japanese
sushi –a small roll of cooked white rice served with a garnish of raw fish, vegetables, or egg. People
everywhere eat Italian pizza and American Hamburgers. Maybe someday, in a fast-food restaurant in any
country, a customer will say, “Give me a hamburger and an order of caterpillars, please.” In the future,
insects might be as familiar to us as rice, bread, or beans.

1. What might be the best title for the text? 2. The main idea in paragraph 3 centers around
(A) Eating Bugs? Why Not? (A) why people should prefer bugs as foods
(B) Gourmet Food: Disgusting (B) the countries which prepare best bugs ever
(C) Why People Consume Different Food (C) how to convert insects into something
(D) Ways to Eat Bugs edible
(D) what makes an entomologist warn people
about bugs
3. The word “revolting” in line 4 means 6. What is the meaning of “raw” in line 14?
(A) disgusting (A) Disadvantageous
(B) interesting (B) Inadequate
(C) amazing (C) Irrational
(D) amusing (D) Uncooked

4. The word “yet” in line 5 could best be replaced 7. The word “trade” in line 21 could be best
by which of the following? replaced by
(A) Nevertheless (A) buy
(B) In addition (B) sell
(C) Similarly (C) choose
(D) Eventually (D) consume

5. The word “various” in line 12 is closest in 8. The word “garnish” in line 26 could best be
meaning to replaced by which of the following?
(A) healthier (A) Addition
(B) important (B) Dessert
(C) different (C) Dish
(D) professional (D) Intake

B.For the following words, write down a definition in your own words.

1. OFFER (in line 10): __________________________________________________________________

2. PROFIT (in line 22): __________________________________________________________________

3. CUSTOMER (in line 28): ______________________________________________________________


PRACTICE 2

A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) JUNK FOOD


In today’s fast moving world people have less and less time to spend eating, let alone cooking. It is
probably for this reason that junk food has become so popular and there’s no doubt that it’s here to stay.
It seems that you simply can’t get away from it. So what is junk food exactly? Basically, it’s anything that
is high in calories but lacking in nutrition. Hamburgers, crisps, chocolate bars and hot dogs fall into this
5 category.

Obviously, a diet of junk food is not the best thing for your health, particularly as it is high in saturated
fat. In 1993, the Journal of the National Cancer Institute reported this type of fat to be associated with a
greater risk of cancer. Apart from the risk of cancer, another side effect of consuming high fattening junk
food is that you are likely to gain weight. This is especially true because you tend to eat more, as junk
10 food is less satisfying and lower in vital nutrients than healthier food. The best advice, then, for those
who cannot live without their hamburgers or chocolate bars, is to limit the amount of junk food they eat.
A little now and then will probably do no harm. But why have our eating habits changed? “It’s lack of
time and loss of tradition,” says one expert. He explains that people are too busy to cook and eat proper
meals, so they grab whatever is available – and that is usually junk food.

15 Another alarming thing about people’s lifestyles today is that while the amount of junk food we eat has
increased, the amount of exercise we do has actually decreased. Exercise plays an important part in
keeping the body fit and healthy; it helps to control our weight and, if done regularly, can also decrease
our chances of having a heart attack later in life. You can gain anything from glowing skin to an all-round
feeling of good health. Even though people nowadays are actually far more aware of the importance of
20 exercise and a healthy diet than they were a few years ago, the new unhealthy way of life is surprisingly
popular. This is illustrated by statistics gathered by researchers over the past two decades. Recent
research has shown that young French people, who prefer burgers and chips to rich gourmet dishes, tend
to become overweight. Weight gained in adolescence is extremely hard to lose in later life, so
researchers are predicting that soon the new French generation is not going to be admired for their slim
25 figures as the French have traditionally been.

1. What is the main idea of the passage? 3. The words “get away from” in line 3 could be best
(A) The motives of dieting and exercising replaced by
(B) The reason why people prefer junk food (A) derive from
(C) The rise of junk food and its consequences (B) escape from
(D) What people will eat in the future (C) spring from
(D) take away
2. According to the passage, people don’t cook
because 4. The word “obviously” in line 6 could best be
(A) women work outside their homes replaced by which of the following?
(B) it is cheaper to order meals (A) Consequently
(C) junk food tastes better (B) Occasionally
(D) people cannot find time (C) Surprisingly
(D) Apparently
5. It is stated in the passage that once people eat junk 7. The word “grab” in line 14 could best be replaced
food, they want to eat more because by which of the following?
(A) junk food doesn’t provide nourishment (A) Eat
(B) people can find them wherever they go (B) Hold
(C) there is addictive ingredients in junk food (C) Catch
(D) consuming junk food is a way of rebellion for (D) Let
young people
8. The word “illustrated” in line 21 means
6. The word “vital ” in line 10 could be best replaced (A) protested
by (B) demonstrated
(A) minor (C) converted
(B) simple (D) declined
(C) important
(D) long-lasting

B.Decide if the following statements are true or false according to the passage.

1. If you eat junk food, the possibility of getting cancer increases, too TRUE FALSE
2. Regulating the amount of junk food cannot be a solution to junk food addicts. TRUE FALSE
3. According to an expert, consuming too much junk food may harm someone’s cultural
values. TRUE FALSE
4. People who eat a lot of junk food try to regulate their body weight by exercising
regularly. TRUE FALSE
5. The French are known for their good-looking bodies. TRUE FALSE

C.Fill in the correct word(s) from the box below, and if necessary make changes in the form of the words given. (Some
clues are given in parentheses)

LIMIT PREDICT TEND TO NUTRIENT


RESEARCH LET ALONE CONSUME GAIN

1. Vegetables are an essential part of our diet as they contain a lot of ____________________ (healthy substance)
2. I don’t even know what a breadfruit looks like, ____________________ what it tastes like. (not to mention)
3. You should ____________________ the amount of chocolate you eat if you want to lose weight. (restrict)
4. People who eat lots of sweets ____________________ have dental problems. (likely)
5. If you do not cut down on junk food and sweets, you will ____________________ weight. (put on)
6. Young people ____________________ large amounts of carbonated drinks with their meals. (take in)
7. Nutritionists are ____________________ that junk food consumption will increase in the near future. (foresee)
8. Scientific ____________________ has shown that saturated fats are a major cause of cancer. (investigation)
REVIEW SKILL 3 “STATED DETAIL QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) According to the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP), the average American
child watches between three and four hours of TV every day. This equals about nine years of TV viewing by
retirement age, and includes roughly 2,000,000 TV commercials.

Many psychologists are worried about the effect that all this TV watching has on children’s behavior. There
5 is concern that watching a lot of TV, especially programs with a violent content, can have a negative effect
on children’s psychological development.

The AACAP also claims that children who watch a lot of television violence have higher levels of aggressive
behavior. The average American child, for example, will have watched 100,000 acts of TV violence,
including 8,000 images of murder by the time he reaches the age of thirteen. Surprisingly, programs
10 created for children can be the most violent types of shows, with an average of twenty-six violent acts such
as hitting or bullying per hour, compared to five per hour during adult prime time.

Psychologists believe that TV violence affects children in three main ways. First, they become immune to
the violence they have seen, and begin to see it as normal behavior. Secondly, they accept the use of
violence as a way to solve problems or get what they want. Finally, children copy the violent acts they see
15 on TV.

Long hours of TV watching can affect a child’s development in other ways, too. Jerome Singer, a
psychologist at Yale University, says that long hours of TV viewing are “a clear hazard to children”. His
research also shows that children who watch the most TV, with the least parental supervision, have the
lowest reading scores. Another study, led by Dr. Judith Owens, a pediatrician at Brown University, suggests
20 that children who watch a lot of TV around bedtime are more likely to not want to go to bed, have trouble
sleeping, or wake up more during the night.

However, a study of children at Stanford University offers some reasons to be hopeful. The report,
published in 2001, concludes that the levels of aggressive behavior in children can be reduced if parents
monitor the programs their children see, and watch some TV shows with them. Parents should also limit
25 the amount of time children are allowed to watch TV each day, and refuse to let children watch shows that
cover violent scenes.

1. What is the main point discussed in the passage? 2. The word “concern” in line 5 is closest in meaning
(A) The precautions that parents should take to
against too much TV viewing (A) ignorance
(B) The damage that TV viewing does to children (B) support
(C) The violent scenes that should be banned (C) worry
(D) The behavior of children watching TV (D) faith
3. It is stated in the passage that, according to AACAP, 6. The word “supervision” in line 18 could be best
children watching too much violence on TV replaced by
(A) have hostile actions (A) improvement
(B) tend to end up as criminals (B) consumption
(C) want to watch more and more TV (C) strength
(D) create serious problems at home (D) control

4. The word “bullying” in line 11 means 7. The author mentions that Dr. Judith Owens’ study
(A) tenderness shows that if children watch violence on TV before
(B) importance they go to bed,
(C) harassment (A) they resist sleeping
(D) embarrassment (B) they have constant nightmares
(C) they want to sleep with their parents
5. The passage indicates that a child watching too (D) their parents should be responsible for their
much TV comfort
(A) has problems in expressing himself
(B) gets accustomed to brutal behavior 8. The word “cover” in line 26 could be best replaced
(C) compare the scenes on TV with his daily life by
(D) has difficulty in communicating with his mates (A) contain
(B) combat
(C) collapse
(D) collaborate
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Laptops, PDAs, iPods, smart phones and other technological gadgets seem to be taking over our pockets
and purses with no end in sight. Could they also be altering our families and affecting the way we interact
with each other? Investigators at the University of Minnesota found that traditional family meals have a
positive impact on adolescent behavior. In a 2006 survey of nearly 100,000 teenagers, a higher frequency
5 of family dinners was associated with more positive values and a greater commitment to learning them.
Adolescents from homes having fewer family dinners were more likely to exhibit high-risk behaviors,
including substance abuse, suicide attempts, and academic problems.

In today’s fast-paced, technologically driven world, some people consider the traditional family dinner to
be an insignificant old-fashioned ritual. Actually, it not only strengthens our neural circuitry for human
10 contact, but it also helps ease the stress we experience in our daily lives. Many of us remember the times
when dinners regularly brought the nuclear family together at the end of the day. Parents and children
relaxed, shared their experiences during the day, kept up with each other’s lives, and actually made eye
contact while they talked.

Now dinnertime tends to be a much more harried event. With e-mailing, video-chatting, and TV blaring,
15 there is little time set aside for family discussion and reflection on the day’s events. Conversations at
meals sometimes resemble instant messages where family members pop in with comments that have no
theme. In fact, if there is time to have a family dinner, many family members tend to eat quickly and run
back to their computers, video games, cell phones or other digital activities.

Although the traditional dinner can be an important part of family life, whenever surly teenagers, sulking
20 kids, and tired over-worked parents get together at the dining table, a conflict can emerge and tensions
may arise. However, it still provides a good setting for children and adolescents to learn basic social skills
in conversation, dining etiquette, and basic empathy.

Our technology allows us to do remarkable things – we can communicate through online social networks,
get vast amount of information in an instant, and work and play more efficiently. The potential negative
25 impact of new technology on the brain depends on its content, duration, and context. Think about your
own family life, and ask yourself if technology is bringing you closer to the people you care about or
tearing you apart?
1. What might be the best title for the passage? 5. The author mentions that the traditional family
(A) Is Technology Fracturing Families? dinner helps to
(B) What Happened to the World? (A) get rid of anxiety
(C) Technology vs. Morality (B) balance our eating habits
(D) Enemies of Technology (C) remember the good old days
(D) understand the value of our lives
2. The word “altering” in line 2 could be best replaced
by 6. The word “harried” in line 14 can be best replaced by
(A) depending (A) rude
(B) desiring (B) filthy
(C) changing (C) curious
(D) chasing (D) rushed

3. It is stated in the passage that a 2006 survey shows 7. According to the passage, people eat dinner quickly
that frequent family dinners because they want to
(A) form stronger bonds between siblings (A) reflect on their days alone
(B) help teenagers learn values better (B) get back their digital world
(C) bring financial advantages (C) escape from family pressure
(D) reduce conflicts (D) relax and rest before the start working again

4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of 8. The pronoun “it” in line 21 refers to
the possible negative effects of having fewer family (A) the traditional dinner
dinners? (B) family life
(A) Trying to kill oneself (C) a conflict
(B) Failure at school (D) a good setting
(C) Manslaughter
(D) Using drugs 9. It is stated in the passage that being freed from the
negative impact of technology
(A) depends on our own conduct
(B) brings us together as a society
(C) can be achieved only through family bonds
(D) is almost impossible for the new generation

10. Where in the passage does the author mention


possible problems which may arise at dinner table?
(A) Lines 8-9
(B) Lines 14-15
(C) Lines 19-21
(D) Lines 23-24
REVIEW SKILL 4 “WHERE” QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Body language is a part of nonverbal language. It includes things like stance, gestures, facial
expressions, and even small things that are barely perceptible like a brief shrug of the shoulder or nod
of the head. We frequently communicate both bodily and verbally and an estimated 70 % of what we
communicate may be nonverbal. Nonverbal language is an even bigger category than body language
5 and includes things like tone of voice.

There are many ways to learn to interpret body language, but it must be understood that these are
frequently specific to a culture. For instance people in the US wave goodbye with the palm facing the
person they’re waving to. In some other cultures, waving goodbye may occur with the hand palm up to
the sky. To people in the US, this might look like a gesture asking someone to approach rather than a
10 wave goodbye.

Still, since most of us live in one area where body language may be similar among people, it’s
important to know that you can communicate a lot by how you gesture, what you do with your arms
when you’re sitting or standing and talking to someone else, and even what your posture may say. A
person in much of the U.S., who sits with hands crossed over the chest, and with legs crossed, may be
15 sending an unintended message that they’re not open to talking. Some people are excellent at reading
these kinds of messages, and we have to be careful what we may be conceiving, especially when we’re
being judged, mostly in things like dating or job interviews.

Eye contact is another key element of body language in much of the Western world. Looking at
someone in the eyes enough but not too much may indicate that you’re direct and forthright. Evading
20 eye contact may say you’re shy or being deceptive, or alternately, it can convey annoyance or disgust
with someone. Even the way you turn your head, shrug, yawn, look at your watch may all be forms of
non-verbal communication that send clear signals to other people. If possible, never look at your watch
or the clock above your head when you’re in a meeting with your boss. It can send the message that
you’re bored, which isn’t a positive message to send.

1. What is the main idea of the passage? 2. It is stated in the first paragraph that
(A) Body language can be learned easily. (A) most of communication is likely to be through
(B) Non-verbal language counts a lot when body language
communicating. (B) the tone of the voice forms most of the non-
(C) The most outstanding body language sign is verbal language
eye-contact. (C) when you shrug your shoulder, it openly
(D) Western and Eastern body language are delivers your message
completely different. (D) there is no need for verbal communication in
most cases
3. The word “interpret” in line 6 could be best 6. The word “convey” in line 20 is closest in meaning
replaced by to
(A) handle (A) regard
(B) improve (B) pursue
(C) transfer (C) avoid
(D) understand (D) express

4. Which of the following is true according to the 7. Where in the passage are signals of boredom
third paragraph? mentioned?
(A) Sometimes your body language and your words (A) Lines 9-10
contradict. (B) Lines 11-13
(B) Everyone can learn to read body language by (C) Lines 19-21
attending interviews. (D) Lines 22-24
(C) If you don’t want to talk, you can make it clear
through your posture. 8. Where in the passage does the author compares
(D) If your hands are crossed over your chest, you different gestures in different cultures?
could be offended by someone. (A) Lines 3-5
(B) Lines 7-10
5. The word “forthright” in line 19 means (C) Lines 13-15
(A) frank (D) Lines 18-19
(B) nervous
(C) ignorant 9. Where in the passage does the author mention the
(D) easy-going situations which someone should be in alert while
communicating?
(A) Lines 1-3
(B) Lines 6-7
(C) Lines 15-17
(D) Lines 19-21
PRACTICE 2

A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Parents should sing to their children every day to avoid language problems developing later in life,
according to some consultants. Too much emphasis in the early years is placed on reading, writing and
numeracy, and not enough on the benefits of singing, according to Sally Goddard Blythe, a consultant
in neuro-developmental education and director of the Institute for Neuro-Physiological Psychology.

5 Singing traditional lullabies and nursery rhymes to babies and infants before they learn to speak, is an
essential precursor to later educational success and emotional wellbeing. Song is a special type of
speech. Lullabies, songs and rhymes of every culture carry the signature melodies and inflections of a
mother tongue, preparing a child’s ear, voice and brain for language. Blythe says in her book that
traditional songs aid a child’s ability to think in words. She also claims that singing and listening along
10 with rhymes and songs uses and develops both sides of the brain. When the brain is scanned, neuro-
imaging has shown that music involves more than just centralized hotspots in the brain, occupying
large swathes on both sides.

Growing numbers of children enter nursery and school with inadequate language and communication
skills, according to the National Literacy Trust, often because their parents have not helped them
15 develop communication skills. Blythe believes that singing to a child is the most effective way to
transform their ability to communicate. “Children’s response to live music is different from recorded
music,” she said. “Babies are particularly responsive when music comes directly from the parent;
singing along with a parent for the development of reciprocal communication.”

Beverly Hughes, the former children’s minister who established a national curriculum to set down how
20 babies are taught to speak in childcare from the age of three months, agrees that nursery rhymes can
“boost child development”. Hughes cites research showing that music and rhyme increase a child’s
ability in spatial reasoning, which can enhance a child’s mathematical and scientific abilities.

Daniel Dwase, editor of the online Child Development Guide said, “Music assists in the development of
a child’s speech; singing nursery rhymes and simple songs teaches children how language is
25 constructed and assists with the acquisition of language. Singing songs with your child will also teach
them about tone, beat and rhythm.”
1. What might be the best title for the text? 4. Which of the following is true according to the
(A) The Power of Singing in Language Learning third paragraph?
(B) Sing and the World Sings with You (A) When parents sing, babies become
(C) Communication Through Singing accustomed to the words used in that
(D) Scientific Evaluation over Music language.
(B) Some children cannot produce language well
2. It is stated in the passage that enough because of lack of teacher support.
(A) since every culture has its unique features, a (C) National Literacy Trust is satisfied with the
child has to learn them one by one results of the recent studies conducted on
(B) if mothers take care of their children well, they language and children.
become responsible citizens (D) It is proved that singing to children helps them
(C) a child’s ability to think in words depends to have a stable personality in their
mostly on their desire to learn adolescence.
(D) lullabies in the mother tongue prepares the
child to learn the language 5. The word “enhance” in line 22 could be best
replaced by
3. The word “aid” in line 9 means (A) use
(A) include (B) connect
(B) prove (C) improve
(C) react (D) perceive
(D) help
6. Where in the passage does the author compares
recorded and live music?
(A) Lines 6-10
(B) Lines 13-15
(C) Lines 16-18
(D) Lines 25-26

7. Where in the passage does the author try to prove


his point directly through a scientific study?
(A) Lines 2-4
(B) Lines 13-15
(C) Lines 16-17
(D) Lines 21-22

8. How many experts are mentioned in the text?


(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
B.Match the words with their definitions.

1. consultant (line 2) ______ (A) the act of getting something; something that you have gotten

2. precursor (line 6) ______ (B) to increase or improve something and make it more successful

3. inadequate (line 13) ______ (C) someone with a lot of experience in a particular area of business,
whose job is to give advice about it

4. responsive (line 17) ______ (D) the process of thinking carefully about something in order to make a
judgment

5. reciprocal (line 18) ______ (E) reacting quickly, in a useful or helpful way; able or eager to
communicate with people, and to react to them in a positive way

6. boost (line 21) ______ (F) an agreement, relationship, etc. is one where two groups of people
do or give the same things to each other

7. reasoning (line 22) ______ (G) not good enough, big enough, skilled enough, etc. for a particular
purpose

8. acquisition (line 25) ______ (H) something that happened or existed before something else and
influenced its development

C.Fill in the blanks with suitable information from the text

1. When children are young, generally their skills on ______________, ______________, and

________________are improved because they are taken as important.

2. Lullabies, songs and rhymes of each culture are important in learning the mother tongue because

____________________________________________.

3. In the past, Beverly Hughes was responsible ______________________________________.


REVIEW SKILL 5 “UNSTATED DETAIL QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Grandparents are like shady trees that have an ever welcoming attitude towards life. They are always there
to offer their cool shade to the next generation. It seems that they have all the love, affection and warmth in
the world stored within them. The unconditional warmth and infinite love create a special bond between the
two generations. More than parents, grandparents feel the pain when the child gets hurt or starts crying.
5 They look like the happiest individuals on this world when they spend time with their grandchildren.

Today the task of raising children is not restricted to parents. The fact is that millions of grandchildren
around the world are raised solely by their grandparents. In some fortunate cases, parents do not shy away
from abandoning their responsibilities. However, grandparents take up the responsibility of raising the kids,
and when they are doing this they are completely aware of the fact that this emerging responsibility can
10 take a toll on their health.

As a child grows up, s/he will encounter dozens of teachers, but there cannot be any replacement for
grandparents. They have gold mines of knowledge, but they also have a wealth of real life experiences. Not
all grandparents may possess bookish knowledge, but they have a wealth of real life experiences to share,
which is not taught by any of the schools. The best part is that you can always see a million dollar smile on
15 their face when they see their grandchildren. Some of the grandparents have all the time in the world to
devote towards their grandchildren. Some parents make use of this opportunity and leave their child at the
care of their grandparents. In this manner, they are able to generate more revenue for the family to lead a
better life.

Today, children often look up to their grandparents’ suggestions since they know that they have seen and
20 faced the real world. Being the most experienced in the family, they are also entrusted with the
responsibility of keeping the family together. Grandparents and kids are seen as best pals. Kids often reveal
secrets and problems about their lives to their grandparents, and the latter offers them valuable advice on
how to deal with the situation. It goes without saying, grandparents are very important in our lives when it
comes to imbibing great values. Kids may not listen to their parents, but they will pay heed to what the old
25 grandma or grandpa has to say. After all, getting advice from the roots of the family tree will ensure that the
fruits are sweet, worthy, and loveable.

1. What’s the author’s main point in the passage? 2. Which of the following is NOT true according to the
(A) The significance of grandparents in the future first two paragraphs?
of their grandchildren (A) Grandparents feel worse than their own kids
(B) The differences between parents and when their grandchildren are hurt.
grandparents (B) Initially, grandparents expect their children to
(C) The responsibilities of grandparents in the take their own responsibilities.
family (C) The time when grandparents and the kids
(D) The importance of grandparents in our lives spend together is priceless.
(D) Some parents avoid taking care of their own
children.
3. The phrase “take a toll” in line 10 is closest in 7. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
meaning to (A) grandparents try to make sure that the kids do
(A) make an irritating sound not do something wrong
(B) criticize in a harsh way (B) kids have a great significance in the keeping
(C) find an opportunity the family together
(D) have a bad effect (C) grandchildren give importance to their
grandparents’ needs
4. It is stated in the third paragraph that (D) in time kids get closer to their parents and have
(A) no teacher can take the place of the a distance with their grandparents
grandparents for children
(B) parents leave their kids to their grandparents 8. The pronoun “they” in line 24 refers to
on special days (A) grandparents
(C) grandparents can tutor their grandchildren as (B) great values
in schools. (C) kids
(D) grandparents provide financial support for kids (D) parents

5. The word “revenue” in line 17 means 9. Where in the passage does the author mention the
(A) worth feelings of grandparents toward their
(B) care grandchildren?
(C) income (A) Paragraphs 1&2
(D) agreement (B) Paragraphs 1&3
(C) Paragraphs 2&3
6. Which of the following is NOT true about (D) Paragraphs 3&4
grandparents according to the passage?
(A) They are respected by their grandchildren. 10. Where in the passage does the author create a
(B) They keep their own problems to themselves. metaphor?
(C) They have the most life knowledge in the (A) Lines 4-6
family. (B) Lines 8-10
(D) They are trusted by their grandchildren when it (C) Lines 15-16
comes to secrets. (D) Lines 25-26
PRACTICE 2

A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A generation gap is just a difference in values and beliefs between parents and children. Sociologists began to
use this term in the 1960s. “Generation gap” is a useful concept because people in different age groups have
different experiences. Communication can become difficult between parents and children. Some parents feel
that their children’s peers have more influence over them than their families. These parents fear that they will
5 “lose” their children. The opinion of experts is that the generation gap may not be a serious problem anymore.
Sociologists believe that in some matters like music and fashion, there are differences. Young people tend to
agree with their contemporaries, but on issues such as belief in right and wrong, the young tend to believe the
same things as their parents. They ask their parents for help with important questions like career goals.

Counselors have some important suggestions for parents to use with their teenage or young-adult children.
10 These ideas seem to improve communication:
Suggestion 1: A parent should be a good listener. Young people need to express their feelings and opinions.
Parents who listen can help a young person speak openly. Openness usually means honesty between the two
generations. A parent tries to help a young adult learn to be independent not by questioning but by listening.
Suggestion 2: A parent should be respectful to a child. A parent should always show trust toward the child. A
15 young adult believes in his or her parents’ judgments. If dad treats him like an adult, a young man is more likely
to act like an adult.
Suggestion 3: In talking with a young person, a parent should stay calm. It’s not easy for a parent to watch his or
her child make mistakes. Therefore, the parent should talk to the young person in terms of thinking about the
results. Getting angry doesn’t help anyone.
20 Suggestion 4: A parent should avoid “lectures.” That is, a parent should ask a teenager if he or she wants an
opinion. If the answer is no, the parent says nothing more. If the young person wants an opinion, the parent
should not expect agreement. The parent should say, “This is my view.”
Suggestion 5: Both parents and children must live according to the same rules. Parents are models, or examples,
for their children. Children lose respect for parents who do not follow rules. A child sees a parent behaving in a
25 responsible way, and the child learns to act the same way.
Suggestion 6: Furthermore, parents should let their teenagers and young adults know about their feelings. A
parent should apologize if he or she makes a mistake. A young person needs to know that parents are human
beings.

The teenage years are seldom easy for either the child or the parent. The young person is learning to become an
30 adult. And the parent is learning to give the child freedom to become an adult. These suggestions can help to
improve communication between the generations. The parents who feel closer to their children can better
support them. With this, children may feel the loving support from their parents.
1. What might be the best title for this passage? 5. The word “judgments” in line 15 is closest in
(A) How to Turn Misunderstandings between meaning to
Generations into Fruitful Ones (A) punishments
(B) Deciding on the type of Relation between (B) observations
Generations (C) decisions
(C) Making a Bridge over the Generation Gap (D) refusals
(D) How to Avoid Problems among Parents
6. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the
2. It is stated in the first paragraph that suggestions?
(A) difficult communication between parents and (A) Parents should share their feelings with their
teenage children is the generation gap children.
(B) parents are always afraid that they will lose (B) Parents always think about the health of their
their children sooner or later children.
(C) a difference in values and beliefs between (C) Parents should apologize if they make
generations has increased mistakes.
(D) the generation gap has a frightening place in (D) Parents also have feelings.
today’s modern society
7. Which of the following is NOT true according to the
3. The word “contemporaries” in line 7 could be best last paragraph?
replaced by (A) It is almost impossible for the parent to give
(A) cages freedom to their kids in many countries.
(B) equals (B) When parents try to realize the suggestions,
(C) dealers the kids may feel their parents’ support.
(D) quarrels (C) Through the suggestions, parents may learn
how to support their kids.
4. The main idea discussed in suggestion 5 is that (D) When teenagers are being raised, many
(A) a parent must be a good model of behavior for problems occur.
a child
(B) a parent should always talk to a teenager about 8. In which suggestion does the author say that
the teenager’s opinions parents should not talk like superiors to their
(C) the most important thing in a family is to make children?
rules for everyone to follow (A) Suggestion 1
(D) living by the same rules may sometimes be (B) Suggestion 2
overwhelming (C) Suggestion 3
(D) Suggestion 4
B.Find pairs of words or phrases that match in meaning.

TRUST BELIEFS FEELINGS EXAMPLES


PEERS MODELS CHILDREN AGE GROUP
ISSUES RESPECT OPINIONS GENERATION
VALUES EXPRESS BEHAVIOR SPEAK OPENLY
ACTIONS MATTERS OFFSPRING CONTEMPORARIES

1. If a parent of teacher gives both ___TRUST__ and __RESPECT__ to a young person, that person will act in a
responsible way.
2. A person’s ____________ and ____________ are other people about the same age.
3. In some places a person can say what he or she wants to say: he or she can ____ and ____ about his or her
ideas.
4. Children generally keep the ____________ and ____________ of their parents, although they may like different
music different styles of clothing.
5. The people of every ____________ or ____________ seem to have different ideas about fashion and style
6. Parents and children might disagree on the small ____ like music and style, but they agree on the big
____________.
7. The older people in a society are ____________ or ____________ for younger people learn how to behave from
the older folks.
8. A person will not understand you if you don’t tell him or her your ____________ and your ____________ about
topics like life goals.
9. Parents’ sons and daughters are their ____________or their ____________.
10. ____________ speak louder than words; you can know a person from his or her ____________.

C.Answer the following questions.

1. Do you think that the generation gap is a serious problem? Why / Why not?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________.
2. Do you think through the above mentioned suggestions can the problems between parents and their kids be
overcome?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________.
3. Do you have any further suggestions to overcome the problems regarding generation gap?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________-___________.
REVIEW SKILL 6 “IMPLIED DETAIL QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Do you feel nervous when you meet new people? Does speaking in public send a chill up your spine? Is it
sometimes difficult for you to express your true feelings to others? If you answered “yes” to any of these
questions, you may be a shy person. Almost 80 percent of people report feeling shy at some point their
lives. And with each passing year, shyness becomes more common. With shyness being so widespread,
5 scientists have long desired to know what causes it. Although they don’t have any definite answers, they do
have some interesting ideas about why we are shy.

A common belief is that people become shy during life as a result of troubling social experiences. But
scientists now say there is evidence that we are born shy. Studies show that 15 to 20 percent of babies
behave shyly. These babies tend to be a little quieter and more reactive to unfamiliar sounds and images
10 than other babies. These shy babies usually have shy parents and grandparents.

Family size might be a factor is shyness as well. A Harvard University study of shy children found that 66
percent had older brothers and sisters. The researchers concluded that menacing behavior by the older
made the younger ones become shy. Also, children with no siblings may be shy as well. Growing up alone,
they are not able to develop the same social skills as children from big families.

15 People may even be shy simply because of where they are born. A study of shyness in different countries
found remarkable differences. In Japan, for example, most people said they were shy. But in Israel, only
one in three people said so. The study’s authors said the difference can be explained by Japanese and
Israeli opinions about failure. Israelis often blame failure on external factors: family, friends, or bad luck. In
Israel, freedom of expression and risk taking are encouraged.

20 Another cause of shyness might be technology. Thanks to computers, face-to-face conversation is no


longer essential in many situations. Activities such as buying groceries or filling up a car at the gas station
once required social interaction. Today, they can all be done via machines. As a result, people are losing
daily practice in the fundamentals of conversations.

What, then, can shy people do? Scientists agree that shyness can be overcome, but the transformation
25 cannot happen overnight. First of all, it is important to be conscious of negative thoughts. For example,
people who experience shyness when meeting with others should be honest with themselves about their
nervousness rather than trying to ignore it. They should ask themselves why they feel nervous. Once this is
done, they can try to shift their attention outward. Finally and perhaps most importantly shy people should
remember that their condition is widespread. In a world full of shy people, there are a lot of other people
30 who are in the same boat.

1. What might be the best title for the text above? 2. It is stated in the passage that
(A) What to do to Overcome Shyness (A) over 80 percent of people say that they are
(B) Shyness vs. Extroversion nervous in public
(C) Why Are We Shy? (B) scientists have come up with certain results
(D) If Shy, Endure It about shyness
(C) the certain causes of being shy surprise people
(D) the number of shy people is on the increase
3. It can be inferred from the passage that 7. According to the fifth paragraph, technology
(A) shy babies show curiosity to their environment (A) encourages people to behave freely in the
(B) all peaceful babies are shy society
(C) shyness is contagious (B) makes people reserved in social contexts
(D) shyness is genetic (C) provides people with more practice in face-to-
face conversation
4. The word “menacing” in line 12 is closest in (D) helps people use machines with ease
meaning to
(A) interesting 8. The word “fundamentals” in line 23 can be best
(B) frightening replaced by
(C) amusing (A) laws
(D) tiring (B) races
(C) edges
5. It can be understood from the passage that (D) basics
someone can be shy if
(A) the family is crowded 9. The pronoun “it” in line 27 refers to
(B) the siblings help the youngers (A) transformation
(C) younger children don’t have a role model (B) shyness
(D) the parents behave differently to siblings (C) condition
(D) attention
6. It can be inferred from the passage that
(A) Israelis have a tendency to criticize the 10. Where in the passage does the author tries to
Japanese comfort the shy people?
(B) Israelis don’t like to be disapproved by the rest (A) Lines 1-3
of the world (B) Lines 15-17
(C) Japanese people blame themselves when they (C) Lines 22-23
cannot be successful (D) Lines 28-30
(D) Japanese and Israelis share many traits except
for their attitude toward failure
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Feeling lonely is to be overwhelmed by an unbearable feeling of separateness at a very deep level. To some
degree, it is a totally normal emotion – a part of growing up. At birth, we all start the process of separation, the
growth towards becoming individuals. Also, from our earliest months, as awareness of our separateness dawns
upon us, the parallel need to seek relationships begins.

5 The particular stresses of modern life tend to make people particularly vulnerable to loneliness. Changes in
employment practice, a rising divorce rate, and the fact that people can more easily move away have caused
many to suffer from loneliness. Also, negative attitudes toward single mothers and to those who are long-term
unemployed or who have mental health problems can increase a person’s sense of isolation. They may come to
feel that the loneliness, which has been caused by their circumstances, is somehow all their own faults. The old
10 cliché that it is possible to feel lonely in a crowd is also painfully true. Someone who is constantly surrounded by
people may still feel desperately lonely. Many people suffering from devastating feelings of loneliness have an
active social life, a busy job, a stable relationship or marriage, and a family.

However, being alone is not the same as being lonely. There are plenty of loners who happily choose solitude as
a way of life. Solitude has been helpful to a number of well-known writers, philosophers and composers. The
15 author, Dr. Anthony Storr argues that relationships aren’t everything in life. He believes that hobbies, and
creative interests developed over a lifetime can be an important source of stability and contentment. Some
people need to be alone to allow their creativity to emerge.

For some people, feelings of loneliness are more constant and appear unrelated to external events or time of
life. It is impossible to generalise about why someone might feel constantly lonely. Sometimes, a person feels
20 unable to like themselves or to be liked by others. They may have little self-esteem and lack self-confidence.
The roots of profound loneliness may come from having been unloved as a child, so that, as an adult, they
continue to feel abandoned and unlovable in all relationships, including the relationship with themselves.
Sometimes, people cut themselves off, consciously or unconsciously, because they are afraid of being hurt.
Those who are susceptible to a constant inner loneliness may try to avoid being on their own, and will seek out
25 other people to avoid having to face their own company. Others may react in the opposite way, hiding away on
their own and perhaps drowning empty feelings with drink, so that they don't have to face a world of people
they feel unconnected to.
1. What is the main idea of the passage? 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the features
(A) The reactions of lonely people toward society of a person feeling lonely?
(B) The causes and results of loneliness (A) Having a family
(C) How loneliness affects people (B) Having a loveable pet
(D) Why people prefer loneliness (C) Having a constant partner
(D) Having a hectic business life
2. It is stated in the passage that feeling lonely
(A) is affected by how we are raised 7. The word “emerge” in line 17 is closest in
(B) can lead to committing suicide meaning to
(C) starts almost when we are born (A) abandon
(D) is a part of an individual’s awakening (B) accept
(C) appear
3. The word “vulnerable” in line 5 means (D) attack
(A) defenseless
(B) careless 8. The word “constantly” in line 19 means
(C) harmless (A) quietly
(D) useless (B) seemingly
(C) appropriately
4. It can be inferred from the passage that a person (D) continuously
can feel lonely,
(A) if people around him/her don’t understand 9. We can understand from the passage that
him/her (A) if someone feels lonely, s/he can become an
(B) if s/he has had an argument with his/her boss alcoholic
(C) if s/he has lost one of his/her loved ones (B) when someone leaves you, that means you
(D) if s/he is raising his/her children alone are not likeable enough
(C) being self-confident and having self-esteem
5. It is stated in the passage that if a person feels may not stop becoming isolated
lonely, s/he may think that (D) when people are hurt, they may continue
(A) the world will come to an end fighting with their difficult circumstances
(B) s/he has caused the situation
(C) there is no hope for him/her 10. Where in the passage does the author mention
(D) the others are guilty the good sides of being alone?
(A) Lines 5-7
(B) Lines 11-12
(C) Lines 16-17
(D) Lines 19-20
REVIEW SKILL 7 “PRONOUN REFERENTS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) LIFE IN PRISON IS STILL LIFE: WHY SHOULD A KILLER LIVE?


Murder is totally unfair; the victims of murder are gone forever. Their hopes and plans end permanently, and
the pleasures they enjoyed in life are destroyed. They will never see their friends again and will never hear the
voices of parents, brothers and sisters who cry, “How can that happen?” But the murderer is still alive. Without
execution, he is allowed to participate and enjoy life.

5 Today there are murderers in prisons all over the world. Most of them would rather spend their lives in prison
than die. This is not surprising since the desire to live is normal and natural. In prison, there are many small
pleasures that one can enjoy every day: the feeling of warm sunshine, the taste of a hot meal, the comfort of
sleep. The lifestyle in prison is not always harsh and cruel; many prisoners have the opportunity to continue
their educations, play sports, enjoy movies, and receive visits from their loved ones. Justice requires that each
10 person respects the rights and freedoms of others, or be punished for not doing so. The people who commit
murder give up their rights to citizenship and life itself. Why should the tax money of citizens - including the
victim’s family- keep the killer alive? The only fair punishment is execution. It puts the killer away from society
forever, stops him from killing again, and sends a strong message to others who might kill: Killers will not be
allowed to live.

WHY DO WE KILL PEOPLE TO SHOW THAT KILLING PEOPLE IS WRONG?


15 There are times when murder is not committed because of cruelty. People may kill for other reasons like anger,
misunderstanding and fear. Everyone makes mistakes because of such feelings. It’s a serious mistake to take the
life of someone who killed because it teaches others forgiveness is unnecessary.

The government has the difficult job of deciding who is innocent or guilty, and this job can never be done
perfectly. If capital punishment is allowed, there exists the possibility that an innocent person will be executed
20 by mistake. When that happens, an even worse crime has been committed- the killing of an innocent person by
the government. There is also the fact that the poor and minorities get the death penalty more often than
whites do. Also, the idea that capital punishment stops criminals from committing murder is doubtful; studies
have been unable to show that the fear of it stops someone from committing murder. Murdering the murderer
is a violent act in itself; it’s revenge. The U.S. once followed the example of other nations that no longer execute
25 their citizens- but since 1977 it has been allowing execution again, at a high cost. Nobody can imagine the pain
of family members waiting for years for the government’s decision to execute their loved ones. It also costs the
taxpayer millions of dollars to execute a criminal than to imprison him for life. Prison is a better form of
punishment because it protects society and punishes criminals by taking away their freedom.

People can change, even people who have made terrible mistakes. Life in prison gives people a chance to
30 change. Carly Chessman is an example. He became a better person in prison. He taught other prisoners how to
read, and he wrote several books. Before his execution, he wrote that he had finally learned not to hate.
Chessman learned this important lesson in prison. But a dead man learns nothing, and an executed person will
never change. When a government kills, it murders hope.
1. What is the main idea of the article “Life in Prison is 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the examples
Still Life: Why Should a Killer Live?” as a motive to kill someone?
(A) The government should respect the desires of (A) Rage
the victims. (B) Dread
(B) Imprisonment is a suitable punishment for the (C) Revenge
murderer. (D) Confusion
(C) Capital punishment must be enforced for the
murderers. 7. It can be understood from the passage that
(D) The relatives of the victims deserve payback. (A) when deciding on a person’s being guilty,
racism may play a part
2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a joy (B) the pain of the murder’s family is as strong as
of life in the first article? the victims
(A) Watching films (C) the U.S. still follows the examples of other
(B) Learning crafts nations
(C) Sunlight (D) studies show punishment is not the best way
(D) Food
8. It can be inferred from the second article that
3. The word “fair” in line 12 means (A) almost all murderers regret their actions
(A) reasonable (B) government spends most of tax money for jails
(B) biased (C) sometimes the government makes mistakes
(C) partial too
(D) light (D) the victim’s relatives forgive murderers in the
end
4. The pronoun “it” in line 12 refers to
(A) murder 9. The pronoun “it” in line 23 refers to
(B) citizenship (A) the government
(C) tax money of citizens (B) capital punishment
(D) execution (C) committing murder
(D) a violent act
5. It is stated in the first article that execution
(A) is necessary for the victim’s family to take 10. Where in the passage does the author give an
revenge example to oppose capital punishment?
(B) prevents other people from committing crimes (A) Lines 6-8
(C) is not a permanent solution to murder (B) Lines 12-15
(D) may not cost as high as people think (C) Lines 18-20
(D) Lines 30-32
PRACTICE 2
A.Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Every crime has a criminal, but not every crime has a victim. When criminals steal, for example, someone gets
hurt. That means there is a victim. Other crimes, though, do not have victims. When someone litters, or draws
graffiti on a wall, there is no victim. They are called victimless crimes. Though there are no victims in these
crimes, the actions are illegal. In many countries, there are laws against them. Normally, laws are made to
5 protect people. But if there are no victims of these acts, why do we make laws against them?

Sometimes, the issue is not so simple. The laws against selling alcohol to kids are a good example. Most people
agree that these laws are good. They say that if we do not control alcohol sales, even young children could
drink alcohol. Even though there is no specific victim, these laws protects our society. People for such laws
believe that if we do not have laws against victimless crimes like using drugs, watching child pornography or
10 gambling, our society will fail. They say that freedom requires responsibility, and that democracy requires laws
to protect society. To understand this point of view, let’s look at one example of a victimless crime: drug use. It
might be true that if people use drugs in their homes, they are not hurting anyone. However, there are indirect
victims. If addicts want them, but do not have enough money, they might steal or take money from people
violently. Drugs are connected to many crimes in this way. So, drug use is a victimless crime, but it contributes
15 to crimes that have victims.

Nevertheless, others say that all laws against victimless crimes are bad. They say that all laws against victimless
crimes are bad and governments waste money by catching these “criminals” taking them to court, and then
putting them in jail. One author estimates that the US arrests 4 million people each year for victimless crimes.
The government spends $50 billion in court and jail costs. For people who oppose laws against victimless
20 crimes, everyone has the right to do what they want, as long as they don’t hurt others. Let’s look at the
example of seat belt laws to better comprehend this point of view. These people say there is no reason to
require people to wear seat belts. If you have a car accident and you are not wearing a seat belt, the only result
is that you might be badly injured. This doesn’t harm others, and it doesn’t harm the society. They wonder why
we need laws to make people wear them.

25 As with all controversial topics, people will continue to debate victimless crimes. The truth though, is that drug
use and seat belt use are very different matters. In time, our lawmakers might find better ways to address
these issues. In the meantime, it’s up to the police and courts to exercise good judgment in each case.

1. What might be the best title for this passage? 4. It is stated in the passage that in a free society,
(A) Lawmakers vs. Victims people support laws against victimless crimes
(B) The Controversy on Jails (A) because citizens should act responsibly
(C) Unnecessary Punishment (B) to reduce the amount of money spend
(D) Victimless Crimes; For or Against (C) to protect people from being directly hurt
(D) because some actions might indirectly cause
2. The pronoun “them” in line 4 refers to harm
(A) victimless crimes
(B) victims 5. It is indicated in the passage that drug use can be
(C) countries called a victimless crime because
(D) laws (A) drug use leads to other crimes
(B) people steal money for drugs
3. The word “specific” in line 8 means (C) drug users harm themselves
(A) dangerous (D) drug users are violent
(B) serious
(C) exact
(D) tiny
6. The pronoun “them” in line 13 refers to 8. The word “comprehend” in line 21 could be best
(A) drugs replaced by
(B) homes (A) appreciate
(C) indirect victims (B) understand
(D) addicts (C) respond
(D) employ
7. According to the passage, which of the following is
one of the reasons to oppose victimless crimes? 9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as crime
(A) To waste less money type?
(B) To have more freedom (A) Drug abuse
(C) To be more responsible (B) Throwing trash
(D) To decrease the number of jails (C) Not buckling up
(D) Not carrying an ID card

10. Where in the passage does the author give some


examples of victimless crimes?
(A) Lines 5-6
(B) Lines 8-10
(C) Lines 16-19
(D) Lines 26-28
B.Match each word or phrase with their definition

1. CONTROVERSIAL ______ (A) to calculate approximately


2. DEBATE ______ (B) to be in conflict with; to stand against
3. ESTIMATE ______ (C) a way of thinking; an opinion
4. INDIRECT ______ (D) during the time between one occurrence and another
5. INJURE ______ (E) to make necessary
6. ISSUE ______ (F) to cause harm to someone
7. IN THE MEANTIME ______ (G) not direct; roundabout
8. OPPOSE ______ (H) to argue about
9. POINT OF VIEW ______ (I) a matter of public concern
10. REQUIRE ______ (J) causing disagreement

C.Answer the following questions

1. What do you think of victimless crimes? Do they really deserve punishment? Why? Why not?

___________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
2. What else can be taken as victimless crimes other than the ones mentioned in the passage?

___________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
REVIEW SKILL 8 “ORGANIZATION OF IDEAS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) In the movies, the eyewitness scene usually plays out one of two ways: The victim of a crime is brought into a
police station to sit behind a one-way mirror and identify his or her assailant in a line-up, or the eyewitness
dramatically points to the person sitting arrogantly beside his defense attorney during the trial. In other
words, in the movies, the eyewitness always picks up the right person.

5 Eyewitness testimony can play a big part in criminal court cases. Whether or not a person is convicted of a
crime can be based on the reliability of an eyewitness and how confidently he conveys testimony to a jury. The
problem is these eyewitness accounts aren’t always accurate. A nonprofit team of attorneys and law students
re-examined questionable murder convictions using DNA evidence. In the first 130 cases the team changed the
verdict, which was based on eyewitness testimony.

10 Other tests have proven that eyewitnesses aren’t as reliable as they claim to be, especially when those
witnesses are older than 60. In one study at the University of Virginia, participants between the ages of 60 and
80 performed far worse than college-aged students, which isn’t surprising given aging eye-sight. However, the
study revealed another startling find. The older eyewitnesses were also more adamant and confident in their
wrong answers. So jurors not only hear unreliable testimony from an older one, but they are likely more
15 convinced that testimony because of this confidence.

An eyewitness may not be reliable for several reasons – and they don’t all have to do with poor vision,
although that’s one of the leading reasons. In fact, tests performed on people with good eyesight have shown
that at just 10 feet away, a witness may not be able to see a person’s eyelashes. At 200 feet, the eyes
themselves are a blur. At 500 feet, it’s likely that no facial features can be distinguished. This seems logical, but
20 murder cases have been decided in part based on the testimony of eyewitnesses who were more than 450
feet away from the perpetrator. Also, researchers have found that stress can affect an eyewitness. Studies
have shown that double-blind lineups, in which the officer also doesn’t know the suspect’s identity, produce
fewer false results.

Whether or not there was a weapon present at the time of the crime can affect the outcome as well. When a
25 gun or knife is at present, an eyewitness frequently concentrates on the weapon and not the details of the
assailant’s face. Leading questions by police officers and attorneys also have an impact on the testimony of an
eyewitness. This is why a judge can refuse a question and demand that it be rephrased in court. As more
research is completed in the field of eyewitness identifications, no doubt more standards will be put in place
to guide police officers during initial questioning.

1. What might be the best title for the passage? 2. It is stated in the passage that in the movies
(A) Never Trust the Eyewitnesses (A) the eyewitness never fails to spot the criminal
(B) Eyewitnesses versus Suspects (B) three different ways of identifying the murderer
(C) The Weaknesses of Eyewitnesses are displayed
(D) Difference between Real life and Movies (C) the importance of eyewitnesses is exaggerated
(D) there is always a defense attorney beside the
criminal
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the 7. The pronoun “it” in line 27 refers to
nonprofit team of attorneys and law students (A) court
(A) had friends who were convicted based on false (B) impact
information (C) question
(B) worked with the government to prove their (D) testimony
view point
(C) had suspicions about the statements of 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of
witnesses the factors affecting the eyewitness’ testimony?
(D) were able to re-examine only 130 case files (A) Extended period of time
(B) Interrogation
4. The word “adamant” in line 13 could be best (C) A firearm
replaced by (D) A blade
(A) embarrassed
(B) determined 9. Where in the passage does the author reveals a
(C) spiteful study on age and sight relation?
(D) tearful (A) Lines 7-9
(B) Lines 10-13
5. The pronoun “they” in line 14 refers to (C) Lines 16-19
(A) jurors (D) Lines 24-27
(B) wrong answers
(C) older eyewitnesses 10. How is the information in the passage organized?
(D) college-aged students (A) It has a cause and effect relationship.
(B) The paragraphs support the author’s point of
6. It is stated in the 4th paragraph that if the suspect is view.
at approximately 200 feet, one can NOT properly (C) It outlines why eyewitnesses should be out of
see the courts.
(A) face (D) The general idea of the text is refuted in the last
(B) eyes paragraph.
(C) color of the skin
(D) color of the hair
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) An eyewitness is someone who directly witnesses a crime through one or more of his or her senses. Despite
the ocular emphasis of the term, an eyewitness does not necessarily have to be someone who visually
witnessed the crime, but could be someone who heard the event or used other senses to be directly aware of
the occurrence. In this way, a blind witness who heard the voice of a perpetrator or perpetrators of a crime
5 may be more valuable than a sighted that saw a crime performed by people wearing masks. An eyewitness is
usually considered a valuable asset for police officers attempting to solve a crime and for prosecutors looking
forward to convicting those who have been arrested.

The report of an eyewitness can often help the police to establish potential suspects or better understand a
crime scene. This sort of witness can often be brought in to identify suspects in a police lineup or look through
10 books of photographs of previous offenders who resemble the description given by the witness. An
eyewitness can also be used to create an image of a suspect through the use of a police sketch artist who
creates a picture of the suspect based on the description by the witness.

While a single eyewitness can provide important and helpful details or a description to investigators, multiple
statements can be taken by police officers and compared for similar or disparate details in the witnesses’
15 accounts of the crime. This is especially helpful when the event may have been particularly traumatic or
intense, and accurate recollection of it can be more difficult for a witness.

Weaknesses in eyewitness testimony are one of the strongest arguments against too much emphasis which is
placed on the reports given by the witnesses. Though the reports may be initially helpful, people aren’t
perfect factual recorders of events. Memories can be distorted or inconsistent; people can lie out a sense of
20 evil, and other factors can influence the perceptions of a person about an event. Studies of eyewitness
reliability have shown that things like weapon focus -where a person is threatened by a weapon- can
adversely affect a person’s ability to recall information. Too much reliance on the memory of an eyewitness
has sometimes led to misidentified suspects and innocent people being charged with or convicted of a crime.

There is some debate over the reliability of such evidence, however, much of this concern stems from
25 research performed by psychologists on the ways in which eyewitness testimony can be remembered. While
purposeful deception in eyewitness testimony is illegal, there is a tendency for a witness to change his
recollection of events without even being aware that he is doing so.
1. What is the main point discussed in the passage? 6. The pronoun “it” in line 16 refers to
(A) How an eyewitness is responsible for detecting (A) a single eyewitness
the criminal (B) a description
(B) The importance of eyewitnesses in the (C) the event
interrogation period (D) the witness
(C) Why eyewitness testimony cannot be relied
upon 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of
(D) The questionable topics regarding the reasons why the testimony of a witness can be
eyewitnesses problematic in the fourth paragraph?
(A) He may have trouble in remembering
2. In the first paragraph, it is stated that a witness everything in its real context.
who cannot see (B) He may be scared because of a life threatening
(A) can be as reliable as the one who can see tool.
(B) can be a witness under special circumstances (C) He may be a bad person and he may
(C) Is usually considered as a secondary option in intentionally lie.
the court (D) He may have a personal feud with the suspect.
(D) has a stronger hearing sense compared to a
person who can see 8. The word “initially” in line 18 means
(A) late
3. The word “asset” in line 6 could be best replaced (B) first
by (C) firmly
(A) ability (D) seriously
(B) access
(C) advantage 9. In which paragraph does the author mention the
(D) assignment comparison of different testimonies by the
authorities?
4. The word in line 7 “those” refers to (A) Paragraph 1
(A) perpetrators (B) Paragraph 2
(B) people wearing masks (C) Paragraph 3
(C) police officers (D) Paragraph 4
(D) prosecutors
10. How is the information in the first three paragraphs
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the things related to the information in the last two
that a witness can do to identify a suspect? paragraphs?
(A) Browsing a book in which there are the (A) It provides an example to introduce the idea of
pictures of possible suspects witnessing.
(B) Going back to the crime scene to retell the (B) It summarizes the ideas given in the first three
chain of events paragraphs.
(C) Pointing at the person who stands in a police (C) It refutes the ideas given in the first three
line-up paragraphs.
(D) Helping someone to draw a picture of the (D) It describes a crime scene to raise questions.
suspect
REVIEW SKILL 9 “USING CONTEXT TO DETERMINE MEANINGS OF SIMPLE WORDS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A forensic investigator works with police departments to solve crimes. Becoming a forensic investigator usually
requires a bachelor’s degree in biology, chemistry, or a related field. Alternatively, having a couple of years of
education and some experience may also be enough to get a position in this field.

The first thing that a forensic investigator does at a crime scene is to create a sketch of the scene, including the
5 victims, evidence and anything else crucial to the set-up. This process requires an investigator to determine
what the crime was, and then create a drawing of the crime scene as close scale as possible. This, in addition
to the crime scene photographs, is used to help record the original state of the crime scene for investigative
and court purposes.

After determining the crime and drawing a sketch, the next step is for the forensic investigator to collect any
10 evidence that may be a part of the crime scene. This is a complicated process. Some crimes have evidence
spread over miles of territory. Other crimes involve microscopic evidence, such as DNA or clothing fibers.

Once a forensic investigator collects the evidence, it is carefully bagged, sealed, and recorded. This start the
chain of custody, which is used to keep a record of where the evidence is at all times. The investigator then
begins to formulate a hypothesis about how the crime took place and how the evidence points to that theory.
15 This will help lead investigators to a suspect, or a group of suspects, and will eventually solve most crimes.

Forensic investigators work in a very physically, emotionally and mentally draining field. There is a lot of heavy
lifting and potential danger. They need to pay very close attention to even the smallest detail of a crime scene.
Investigators use advanced technology to find and recover the tiniest piece of evidence. This includes
fingerprints, blood and other bodily fluids, and trace evidence. They will use trajectory analysis to determine
20 the path of a bullet, along with where and what the bullet was shot from. They will also need to make castings
out of impressions, such as footprints or tire marks, left at the scene of the crime.

When a forensic investigator is not investigating crime scenes, she may be found filling out paperwork or
testifying in court. The work of a forensic investigator is often done as part of a team, especially in larger police
departments. Smaller departments might share one or two forensic investigators amongst themselves.

1. What might be the best title for the passage? 3. The pronoun “this” in line 5 refers to
(A) An Insight to Forensics (A) evidence
(B) How hard an Investigator Tries (B) set-up
(C) Arresting Criminals via Forensics (C) crime
(D) The Importance of Forensics in Court (D) crime scene

2. We can understand from the passage that to 4. The word “court” in line 8 could be best replaced by
become a forensic investigator, a person should (A) field
(A) take police training (B) trial
(B) take a lie detector test (C) scene
(C) pass some endurance tests (D) prosecutor
(D) have a related education to forensics
5. It is stated in the passage that collecting evidence 8. The word “path” in line 20 can be best replaced by
can be a difficult task because (A) route
(A) the detectives might interfere with the process (B) road
(B) the evidence could be planted by an accomplice (C) signal
(C) there are a lot of onlookers around the crime (D) objects
scene
(D) the area that it can be found might cover a wide 9. Which of the following might be one of the things
area that a forensic investigator does according to the
passage?
6. The word “chain” in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) Administrating a team of detectives in an
(A) cable investigation
(B) metal ring (B) Attending in courses related to their field of
(C) restraint study
(D) sequence (C) Standing in a trial as a witness
(D) Participating in negotiations
7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the fifth
paragraph as one of the pieces of evidence collected 10.Where in the passage does the author mention how
by forensics? to gather and keep evidence?
(A) Sweat (A) Lines 5-8
(B) Blood (B) Lines 10-12
(C) Hair (C) Lines 13-14
(D) Sperm (D) Lines 20-24
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) No matter how meticulous or clever the criminal, there is usually some evidence left behind at a crime scene.
There may be no smoking gun, but what there is can give police plenty of information for their investigation.
The evidence doesn’t need to be huge, in fact a few cells will do.

As DNA began to give up the secrets of its structure, one man – Sir Alec Jeffreys- realized that the molecule of
5 life could be used to identify individuals. DNA is a code of essentially four letters –; these are the nucleotide
bases. The chemical structure of everyone’s DNA is essentially the arrangement of four letters. Everyone’s
sequence of letters is unique, so DNA fingerprinting provides a very useful way of identifying individuals.
However, there are more than 3 billion base pairs in each body, so the task of looking for meaningful
differences would be tedious indeed. However, Sir Jeffreys provided a short cut, and it’s based on the fact
10 that there are a number of highly repetitive sequences that vary among individuals. When two samples are
compared, DNA technology is able to tell whether they are from the same person, related people or complete
strangers.

Initially, the reaction from some police was one of skepticism, but today genetics is commonly used in
forensics all over the world. The technology has moved on so far that it’s possible to catch a criminal from a
15 relative’s DNA. Sometimes the DNA of a suspect has been left at a crime scene, but police have been unable
to find a match in their computer databases. However, on searching through their computers, they’ve found
DNA that was similar to the crime scene sample. Relatives contain more similarities in their genetic makeup
than do complete strangers and a close enough match can result in a criminal being found. The technique has
been used successfully to solve a number of cases, and some of those had been cold for many years.

20 The area is not without controversy. In the UK, for example, anyone arrested of what is called a recordable
offence has a sample of their DNA placed on the National DNA Database. It stays there indefinitely –
regardless of whether the person is acquitted or convicted. It means that there are many innocent people
who have their samples on it. When the DNA database went live in 1995, only the profiles of convicted felons
could be taken. If a person was subsequently found to be innocent or the case was not pursued samples were
25 destroyed. This is now not the case. Civil liberties organizations argue that regarding innocent people, this is
an invasion of privacy and that the state should not have this biological material.

Technology could make DNA fingerprinting process an even more powerful technology. Though in the realms
of science fiction now, it might be possible one day for the police to be able to determine how a person looks
from just their DNA sample. They could pick up DNA from crime scenes and work out the facial features, hair
30 and eye color of the suspect.

1. What is the main point discussed in the passage? 3. It is stated in the second paragraph that
(A) The drawbacks of using DNA in forensics (A) Sir Alec Jeffreys worked with the police to solve
(B) The cases that DNA helped to be solved crimes
(C) How DNA affects solving crimes and society (B) DNA technology helps to distinguish people from
(D) How DNA samples are processed in judiciary each other
(C) if the letters of DNA are unique, they can be
2. The word “cell” in line 3 means used in profiling
(A) the smallest part of any living thing (D) Sir Alec Jeffreys thought that differences in DNA
(B) a small room where prisoners are kept are hard to distinguish
(C) a gray powder used in building
(D) something unpleasant which cannot be avoided
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the 8. Which of the following is true according to the
word “makeup” in line 17? passage?
(A) Face paint (A) How a person looks cannot yet be determined by
(B) Structure DNA
(C) Resemblance (B) DNA fingerprinting process is quite an expensive
(D) Concealment process
(C) DNA samples are used to understand someone’s
5. What is the meaning of the word “cold” in line 19? tendency to commit crime
(A) Frosty (D) The police aren’t willing to use DNA
(B) Bitter fingerprinting due to its complex process
(C) Unsolved
(D) Unfriendly 9. How is the fourth paragraph related to the rest of
the passage?
6. The pronoun “it” in line 23 refers to (A) It explains the causes and effects of DNA
(A) controversy fingerprinting.
(B) recordable offence (B) It provides examples to support the authors
(C) DNA view.
(D) the National DNA Database (C) It presents a contradictory idea.
(D) It outlines the author’s opinion.
7. It can be inferred from the passage that the National
DNA database 10. Where in the passage does the author explain the
(A) helps to determine the connection between meaning of DNA?
felons (A) Lines 1-3
(B) is planned to be launched in other countries, too (B) Lines 5-7
(C) is still in use even though it’s illegal (C) Lines 17-19
(D) has a great number of DNA samples (D) Lines 23-25
REVIEW SKILL 10 “DETERMINING THE TONE, PURPOSE OR COURSE”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Over time, developments in archeology and exploration have led to fascinating and unique discoveries. There
are still places on earth, though, which have puzzled scientists for years and have been the subject of much
discussion and speculation around the world.

Two of the most intriguing places are Easter Island and Stonehenge. Located in the South Pacific, Easter Island
5 is one of the most isolated places on earth and is famous for the large stone monoliths that line its coast.
These structures, carved by ancient people to resemble human heads, range in height from about 3½ to 12
meters. Today, roughly 600 stones remain. On the opposite side of the world stands Stonehenge. This ancient
site is a collection of large stones arranged in two circles. Although only ruins of the original formation exist
today, archeologists believe that the inner circle of bluestones, each weighing, about 4 tons, was built first.
10 The giant stones that form the outer circle each weigh as much as 50 tons. In South America, another
mysterious phenomenon exists. Near the coast of Peru, in the high plateau of the Nazca Desert, some
remarkable art is etched into the earth. Viewed from the ground, these etchings are insignificant. Viewed from
high above, these large drawings on the earth’s surface resemble birds, fish, and geometric shapes. These are
thought to be at least 1,500 years old, yet have been preserved by centuries by the dry, stable climate of the
15 desert.

Many theories exist about the ancient peoples of Easter Island, Stonehenge, and the Nazca Desert and their
purposes for creating these mysterious phenomena. Scientists believe early inhabitants carved the monoliths
on Eastern Island. Those are believed to be religious symbols. They also suggest that the lines at Nazca are
related to the religious beliefs of an ancient civilization. These ancient people believed that their gods
20 protected them by controlling the weather and the provision of water. Many figures are associated with
nature or water. As they lived in a desert region, water was valuable and exactly how the lines were drawn
without the help of aerial monitoring equipment remains an enigma.

Exactly how and why Stonehenge was constructed remains a mystery. Research suggests that it may have
been designed and built by an ancient religious group who used it for one or two purposes; either as a sacred
25 temple or an observatory to study the sky. Scientists believe that the enormous stones were transported from
places around the country to their present site on Salisbury Plain in southern England. Work on the monument
is thought to have started around 2000 B.C. and continued to 1500 B.C. Today, scientists estimate that
approximately 600 people were needed to transport each stone from its point of origin to Salisbury. They
consider this a remarkable feat, given that heavy lifting equipment used in modern construction was not
30 available at that time.

1. What might be the best title for the passage? 2. It can be inferred from the second paragraph that
(A) Easter Island and Stonehenge vs. the Nazca on Easter Island,
Desert (A) the stone heads belong to important people in
(B) The Outstanding Achievement of Archeologists their society
(C) Ancient Mysteries Remain Unsolved (B) some statues are higher than 12 meter
(D) Beyond the Unknown (C) the statues were carved in the caves, too
(D) the number of stones were more than 600
3. The word “etched” in line 12 can be best replaced 7. The word “figures” in line 20 means
by (A) numbers
(A) engraved (B) records
(B) published (C) shapes
(C) associated (D) facts
(D) resolved
8. Which of the following is NOT true according to the
nd
4. Which of the following is true according to the 2 passage?
paragraph? (A) The ancient places mentioned in the passage
(A) The drawings in the Nazca Desert weren’t were thought to be related to religion.
discovered by the scientists. (B) The stones at Stonehenge were carried
(B) The drawings in the Nazca Desert could survive approximately by 600 people.
due to weather conditions. (C) It is believed that Stonehenge was also used to
(C) All the stones in Stonehenge were made from observe the sky.
bluestones. (D) Stonehenge is believed to be as old as 1500 or
(D) All the stones in Stonehenge were carried on 2000 years old.
rolls from their original places.
9. The purpose of the writer in this passage is to
5. It can be understood from the passage that to (A) discuss the speculations related to some
carve monoliths ancient mysteries
(A) strong slaves were forced to carry those heavy (B) explain how those ancient constructions were
stones made
(B) people must have needed to look down from (C) give examples of ancient mysteries recently
the sky solved
(C) more than two tribes had to come together (D) compare the differences between ancient
(D) they had to wait for their gods to approve buildings

6. The pronoun “they” in line 18 refers to 10. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(A) scientists (A) Sociology
(B) inhabitants (B) Astrology
(C) monoliths (C) Geography
(D) religious symbols (D) Archeology
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) POMPEII UNDER ASHES


Pompeii is an ancient Roman city which was preserved by an epic volcanic eruption in 79 CE. Thanks to the
fact that the eruption was so sudden, the city has been perfectly frozen in time, allowing archeologists to
catch a glimpse of what daily life in ancient Rome would have been like. The site of Pompeii is an extremely
popular spot for tourists to visit, and research continues at the site to excavate and preserve artifacts while
5 learning about Roman culture.

According to evidence uncovered at the site, Pompeii was settled around the sixth century BCE, and the site
was no stranger to earthquakes and other geologic disturbances, as evidenced by traces of earlier volcanic
eruptions and quake damage. In fact, a major earthquake in 62 CE destroyed much of the city, some of which
was still under construction 17 years later when Mount Vesuvius erupted.

10 The eruption of Mount Vesuvius on August 24 spewed a huge cloud of ash, rock, debris across Pompeii and
the surrounding landscape burying Pompeii in as much as 10 feet of debris in some places, along with the
sister city of Herculaneum. While it is clear that people attempted to evacuate, many were caught and
crushed by the debris, which also preserved the remains of lunches, tools used in everyday life, an astounding
amount of artwork, and a wide assortment of buildings.

15 After the eruption of Vesuvius, Pompeii was abandoned, and stories about the city faded into myths and
legends. Almost 1,700 years later, Pompeii was unearthed by accident, and it has been consistently excavated
and studied ever since. For archeologists, the discovery of Pompeii was quite exciting, as it allowed people to
see how Romans actually lived, preserving everything, including graffiti on the streets.

One of the most eerie sights at Pompeii are plaster casts taken of the victims. When archeologists began
20 excavating the site, they noticed strange voids in the ash, and realized that they were the last traces of
decomposing human and animal remains. By injecting plaster and later resin into these voids, it was possible
to make a perfect replica of the volcano’s victims, frozen in their last moments, and some of these casts are
on display at the sites where they were found.

Unfortunately, with the unearthing of Pompeii, the city was put at risk. The same mounds of volcanic ash
25 which destroyed the city and its inhabitants also preserved the contents of the site from air, moisture,
corrosive materials, and other threats. As the city began to be excavated, parts of it began to decay quite
rapidly, raising concerns about the fate of the site. Archeologists today are focused on preserving as much of
Pompeii and its artifacts as they can, using a variety of tools.
1. What is the main idea discussed in the passage? 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the things
(A) How people lived and prospered in Pompeii that archeologists found at the site of Pompeii?
(B) Historical evidence discovered at the site of (A) Variety of constructions
Pompeii (B) Leftovers from meals
(C) The damage the tourists has given to the site of (C) Valuable jewelry
Pompeii (D) Some gears
(D) Why scientists decided to stop working on
Pompeii 6. It is stated in the paragraph that when
archeologists studied in the area,
2. The word “traces” in line 7 could be best replaced (A) some of them were poisoned in the voids
by (B) they managed to make copies of the victims
(A) imitations (C) a wide variety of written documents were
(B) levels found
(C) drops (D) they realized that human and animal remains
(D) hints carried a virus

3. It can be understood from the passage that the city 7. The word “it” in line 17 refers to
of Pompeii (A) the eruption of Vesuvius
(A) had suffered from more geological disasters (B) Pompeii
before the big eruption (C) accident
(B) had been fully reconstructed before the (D) the discovery of Pompeii
volcanic eruption
(C) was protected against some kinds of disasters 8. The word “eerie” in line 19 is closest in meaning to
at the time (A) natural
(D) was evacuated before the big volcanic eruption (B) grown
(C) peculiar
4. It can be inferred from the passage that (D) decaying
(A) the Pompeian people were really good in
artwork 9. Where in the passage does the author mention the
(B) most of the people managed to escape, but reason why there is a possibility of not being able
died later on to protect Pompeii as an archeological site?
(C) all the city was buried under the lava of at least (A) Paragraph 3
10 meters (B) Paragraph 4
(D) volcanic eruptions and earthquakes hit Pompeii (C) Paragraph 5
at the same time (D) Paragraph 6

10. The tone of the passage is


(A) explanatory
(B) sarcastic
(C) skeptical
(D) irritated
REVIEW SKILL 11 “TRANSITION QUESTIONS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Those traditional surgical procedures require surgeons to make large incisions in a patient’s body to gain
access to the internal organs. It was once common for heart surgeons, who perform highly specialized complex
procedures, to make long incisions in a patient’s chest and then split the breastbone to reach the heart. The
patient had to recover from the trauma of the surgical treatment, the split bone, and the large wound.
5 Patients who undergo surgery requiring this kind of procedure are often prone to infection as bacteria can
infect the cut. Also, there is often a lengthy recovery period.

A surgical technique known as “keyhole surgery” has become more common in recent years. This technique
eliminates the need for surgeons to make large incisions, so there is almost no bleeding. Instead, a couple of
small incisions, each measuring about one centimeter, are made around the area to be operated on. Long
10 instruments, which look a bit like a chopstick, are inserted through the tiny incisions and into the patient’s
body. There are small tools at the end of these instruments. A tiny camera- an endoscope- is also inserted into
the body through one of the incisions. It relays an image of what is happening inside to a large computer
monitor, so doctors can see what is going on, and where to place the tools. The awkward part of keyhole is
that it is counterintuitive; if a surgeon wants to move the tool to the left, he or she must push it to the right,
15 and vice versa.

Other advancements are used in the operating room today. A machine called the da Vinci Surgical System has
been tested in hospitals in the US. This robotics apparatus requires that surgeons make three small incisions.
Two of the slits are for instruments; the other is for the endoscope. Unlike keyhole surgery, the da Vinci
robot’s moving parts are designed to mimic the natural hand and wrist movements of a surgeon, thus
20 providing better control and sensitivity. Sitting at a console a few feet from a patient, the surgeon can perform
an operation by holding and moving highly sensitive pads that enable him to control the instruments. The area
of the body on which the surgeon is working is magnified on a screen, which is attached to the console. This
gives surgeons a realistic three-dimensional view of the area – similar to what they would see during a
traditional surgical procedure.

25 Patients with serious illnesses must still undergo major surgery, but the smaller incisions and less invasive
procedures typically mean that there is less physical trauma to the body, so a shorter recovery time is needed.
On the downside, some operations have taken up to fifty minutes longer because surgeons are inexperienced
at using the new technology. As surgeons become more familiar with the machines, the time needed for
surgical procedures is likely to decrease. As technologies continue to develop in the medical field, we may find
30 that robots become a permanent feature or of the operating room as experiments still continue in various
countries by using different methods.

1. The paragraph preceding this passage most 2. Which of the following is NOT one of the
probably discusses drawbacks of traditional surgical procedures
(A) heart surgeons mentioned in the first paragraph?
(B) robots in medicine (A) Infection
(C) alternative medicine (B) Cost of surgery
(D) traditional surgical procedures (C) Fragmented bones
(D) Patients’ long recovery period
3. It is stated in the passage that keyhole surgeries 7. It is mentioned in the passage that the da Vinci
(A) include less bloody surgeries robot
(B) are still at the stage of experiment (A) has more than three apparatus
(C) cause incisions longer than 1 centimeters (B) cannot be bought by many hospitals due to its
(D) can be carried out with only one hole into the cost
body (C) is needed to be performed both by doctors and
engineers together
4. It can be inferred from the passage that while (D) offers good command to surgeons compared
carrying out keyhole surgeries, to the key hole surgery
(A) the patient should be completely under
anesthesia 8. The word “invasive” in line 25 could be best
(B) the records of what is happening inside are replaced by
kept for later reference (A) customary
(C) the surgeon has to read the computer screen (B) disturbing
skillfully (C) irrelevant
(D) the surgeon should be ready anytime to switch (D) unproven
to traditional surgery
9. Where in the passage does the author compare
5. The pronoun “it” in line 12 refers to new technologies to traditional ones in medicine?
(A) the area (A) Lines 3-5
(B) chopstick (B) Lines 9-13
(C) the endoscope (C) Lines 21-24
(D) the patient’s body (D) Lines 27-29

6. The word “incisions” in line 17 could be best 10. What is the tone of the passage?
replaced by (A) Questioning
(A) reductions (B) Humorous
(B) openings (C) Factual
(C) defects (D) Witty
(D) marks
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) There are also other practices of technology which is directly related to human life. Health technologies have
become an integral part of the medical industry, and these technologies are continually improved upon. The
primary goal of health technology is to assist physicians in providing the optimum amount of care to the
patients they service. With technology, a doctor may manage his office more effectively, leaving more time to
5 devote to patients. Technological instruments assist the doctor in delivering an accurate diagnosis of a
patient’s medical problems. Other machines help doctors monitor their patients and may increase the length
and quality of a patient’s life.

It takes a lot of man hour to maintain and keep track of patient records in a doctor’s office, clinic, or a
hospital. For this reason, electronic medical records have become a significant cost saving in health
10 technology. Physicians can look up a patient’s medical history in an instant and determine past medical
problems or allergic reactions to drugs. The electronic records contain data fields for future appointments and
follow-up calls. They also assist the billing departments in assessing the fee for various treatments and
payment schedules. Diagnostic health technology helps medical professionals accurately test for diseases and
scan for health problems. Diagnostic tests can identify current and future health concerns, and they take a lot
15 of guess work out of identifying these problems. Ultrasound machines and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI),
positron emission tomography (PET) and computed tomography (CT) scanners are some examples of
hardware used in diagnosing patients. There are universal test kits for communicable diseases and non-
communicable diseases, such as AIDS, flu viruses, diabetes or heart disease.

Another important area of health technology is medical equipment. These machines are used to assess a
20 patient’s medical condition and determine the causes for those problems. Therapeutic equipment, such as
infusion pumps and lasers, help the medical personnel in treating the patient’s condition. Life support
machines are necessary pieces of medical equipment in hospitals and keep patients in critical condition alive
longer. Medical monitors help nurses and doctors supervise a patient’s vital signs, blood pressure, and other
organ functions.

25 The area of health technology also includes transplants and medical devices. These technologies keep a
patient alive after all other alternatives are exhausted. Transplant technologies take the tissues and organs
from one individual and let surgeons transfer them to another. Medical devices may replace other vital organs
such as the heart. A common example of a medical device is the heart pacemaker. Of course, apart from all
these benefits, there occur some ethical conflicts when it comes to using technology in treating people.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most 6. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an
probably discusses example to diseases that can be diagnosed via
(A) the improvements in medical technology universal test kits?
(B) another field of study where technology is used (A) AIDS
(C) why human life is important than all other (B) Flu viruses
things (C) Diarrhea
(D) the history of medical technologies throughout (D) Heart disease
history
7. The word “communicable” in line 18 means
2. What might be the best title for the passage? (A) spoken
(A) How to Make a Patient’s Life Better (B) similar
(B) Ethics versus Technology in Medicine (C) infectious
(C) Causes and Effects of Using Technology (D) incurable
(D) The Benefits of Technology in Medicine
8. The word “exhausted” in line 26 is closest in
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the things meaning to
that technology helps doctors with? (A) shattered
(A) They can make an exact judgment of their (B) fatigued
patients’ condition. (C) changed
(B) They can spend more time with their patients. (D) diagnosed
(C) They can examine their patients from a
distance. 9. Where in the passage does the author give
(D) They may lengthen their patients’ lives. examples of medical devices?
(A) Lines 5-7
4. It is stated in the passage that electronic medical (B) Lines 11-14
records (C) Lines 16-19
(A) save time both for the doctor and the patient (D) Lines 27-28
(B) may be costly when they are first implemented
(C) can guess the best drugs and treatment for the 10. What is most likely in the paragraph following the
patient passage?
(D) are kept in a national database which all (A) Some contradictory ideas about using
doctors can reach technology in medicine
(B) Some further benefits of using technology in
5. The pronoun “they” in line 12 refers to medicine
(A) physicians (C) Another aspect of using technology in our lives
(B) medical problems (D) Another device used in medicine
(C) drugs
(D) electronic records
REVIEW SKILL 12 “DETERMINING MEANINGS FROM WORD PARTS”

PRACTICE 1

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) Space travel is a form of travel in which passengers enter space, the vast region outside the protective
envelope of the Earth’s atmosphere. Space starts 62 miles -100 kilometers- above the Earth’s crust, at a point
called the Karman Line, and it continues for a distance which appears to be infinite. It is periodically
interrupted by celestial bodies such as stars, planets, and so forth. Humans have long and romantic
5 associations with extraterrestrials, space travel, with people considering space “the final frontier”, as they
famously say on Star Trek.

Humans have been intrigued by the night sky for centuries, tracking the movements of stars, planets,
comets, and other features in the sky, and pondering the mysteries of the heavens. In the 20 th century, the
fascination with space took on a new level of excitement when humans successfully launched manned
10 spacecraft out of the Earth’s atmosphere, putting astronauts in space and the Moon. With the proof that
manned spacecraft was possible, the concept of space travel began to seem less like a pipe dream and more
like a reality, and private companies began to enter the field, developing space planes and offering
commercial flights.

In the 20th century, space travel was restricted to astronauts who worked for various governments, and it
15 was primarily performed for research purposes. Space travel allowed people to collect samples from the
Moon, maintain space telescopes such as the Hubble Telescope, and eventually to perform research on the
International Space Station, a structure which orbits the Earth and houses astronauts from several nations at
any given time.

While space travel for research is certainly admirable and important, many people are more interested in the
20 potential for space travel as a form of recreation, tourism or exploration. Civilians began purchasing tickets
for tourist flights into space in the early 2000s, sometimes going on brief suborbital flights in which they
barely entered space. They explore the International Space Station and enjoy the experience of being in
space.

The potential for space travel is infinite, just like the universe, bound only by human technology. Many
25 people hope that the dreams of science fiction, such as massive ships which can travel between galaxies, will
someday be realized. Space travel could be used to explore the rest of the solar system and galaxy, learning
more about the nature of the universe and potentially leading to a discovery of life beyond the boundaries of
Earth. As we all know, there are many movies about the dreams of traveling to outer space and some of
them really seem to fire up people to wonder and learn about space more.

1. It is stated in the passage that the Karman Line 2. The word “extraterrestrials” means
(A) measures approximately 100 kilometers (A) dangers of space travel
(B) is named after the person who discovered it (B) creatures from outer space
(C) determines the boundary between atmosphere (C) geographical features of other planets
and space (D) reams of human beings related to space travel
(D) consists of some celestial bodies such as stars,
planets, and meteorites
3. The word “pondering” in line 8 is closest in 7. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
meaning to (A) more evidence on extraterrestrials will be
(A) thinking displayed at International Space Station
(B) traveling (B) astronomers and wealthy people will work
(C) targeting together to explore space
(D) throwing (C) the desire to explore space is a never-ending
dream
4. Which of the following made space travel possible? (D) scientists are currently working on massive
(A) Starting commercial flights ships
(B) Attempts of private companies
(C) Possibility of manned spaceships 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned
(D) Increase in the number of astronauts throughout the passage?
(A) What made it possible to collect samples from
5. The pronoun “they” in line 22 refers to outer space
(A) civilians (B) The definition of space and what it consists of
(B) tickets (C) What International Space Station stands for
(C) tourist flights (D) The first unmanned ship sent to the space
(D) brief suborbital flights
9. What might be the topic of the paragraph following
6. Which of the following is NOT true according to the the passage?
4th paragraph? (A) Some of the authors who have written about
(A) Tickets for space travel have been bought. space
(B) Some items from outer space have been (B) The journeys that have been taken to the space
purchased. (C) How science fiction affected the life of humans
(C) People started to see space travel something (D) Movies about space and space travel
trade worthy.
(D) People have been to International Space 10. Where in the passage does the author mention the
Station to enjoy space simulations. milestone that fired up people for space
exploration?
(A) Lines 4-6
(B) Lines 8-10
(C) Lines 15-18
(D) Lines 26-28
PRACTICE 2

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A black hole is another thing that is one of the most intriguing phenomena in the universe. They have
captured the imagination of the public and dedicated study by many famous physicists, including Albert
Einstein and Stephen Hawking. In its simplest sense, it is an area of space wherein there is no way for an
object to escape its gravitational pull. Whether black holes really exist or not remains a question for scientists.
5 The dominant idea among astronomers is that they do, even though confirmation of them cannot currently be
made by direct evidence.

In a black hole, there is a huge concentration of mass. This is what gives the black hole its gravitational
strength. Scientists agree that black holes are formed following the death of a massive star. As we know, the
Sun is a star, but they do not think it is large enough to ever have the capacity to create a black hole upon its
10 death. For a dying star to create a black hole, it must weigh ten times more than our sun itself. Because a
black hole has intense gravitational pull, nothing can escape it, not even light. The lack of light accounts for
the term “black” hole, as the gravitational forces will cause it to remain dark. Though scientists can’t see
them, when they find areas in space where large amounts of mass are contained in a small volume, and the
area is dark, chances are there is a black hole in the area.

15 Black holes are interesting from the perspective of physicists because they can be characterized exhaustively
by three values: their mass, rotation, and charge. Slightly different theories are used to describe the behavior
of black holes that are rotating vs. non-rotating, charged vs. neutral. The biggest distinction among black holes
is not their rotation or charge, but their mass. Known black holes cluster around two mass levels: the stellar
mass black holes, ranging from 1.5 to 14 solar masses, and the supermassive black holes, with millions or
20 billions of solar masses. Stellar ones are created every time a star with more than 1.5 solar masses depletes all
its nuclear fuel and collapses.

According to scientists and astronomers, as mentioned above our sun will never develop into a black hole.
These men and women also indicate that the sun can be expected to endure as it is for another 5 billion years.
However, to get a feel of what it would be like entering a black hole, they suggest astronauts in a space ship
25 would experience a floating, gliding sensation as they neared the black hole. This would be a pleasant
experience as the gravitational forces would be similar to simply orbiting the earth at first. However, as the
ship moved closer and closer to the black hole, the areas of the body closest to the center of the black hole
would begin to feel more pull. For instance, your feet would begin to feel a stretching sensation as you grow
closer to the black hole. Eventually, this pull or stretching sensation would grow to be quite uncomfortable
30 and would finally crush the human body.

1. The main idea of the passage is that 2. The “dominant” in line 5 is closest in meaning to
(A) black holes will be the end of humanity sooner (A) recent
or later (B) leading
(B) the newly discovered features of black holes (C) shifting
frighten people (D) shadowy
(C) there are ongoing research about black holes
and their mysteries
(D) scientists and astronomers have conflicting
opinions about black holes
3. Which of the following is true according to the 6. The word “exhaustively” in line 15 could be best
passage? replaced by
(A) The mass and the gravitational force of a black (A) comprehensively
hole are interrelated. (B) peculiarly
(B) The idea of a black hole was inspired from (C) allegedly
science fiction art. (D) wearily
(C) The Sun will turn up to be a black hole if it
exists long enough. 7. It can be inferred from the passage that a
(D) A gravitational pull of a black hole cannot be supermassive black hole
calculated. (A) takes a very long time to form
(B) has less gravitational force
4. The pronoun “it” in line 10 refers to (C) have non-rotating behavior
(A) the Sun (D) may have less than 14 solar masses
(B) the capacity
(C) its death 8. Which of the following is NOT one of the effects
(D) a dying star when exposed to the gravitational pull of a black
hole according to the scientists?
5. It is stated in the passage that (A) A feeling as if you were fluctuating
(A) black holes can only be seen during the pulling (B) An extending feeling in your body
process (C) Hallucination
(B) the term “black” hole was given by the ancient (D) Pleasure
astronomers
(C) the places of black holes can be guessed due to 9. The paragraph preceding this passage most
the amounts of mass probably discusses
(D) there are many other types of black holes that (A) a different interesting wonder
were failed to be classified (B) gravitational pull of black holes
(C) studies of Albert Einstein and Stephen Hawking
(D) urban legends created by the imagination of
the public

10. In which course would this reading be assigned?


(A) Astrology
(B) Anthology
(C) Astronomy
(D) Anthropology
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 1
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) NOT AS DIFFERENT AS YOU THINK


All countries in the world are unique. Obviously, countries are different from one another in location, size,
culture, government, climate, and lifestyles. However, many countries share some surprising similarities.
Some may think that because Brazil and the United States are in different hemispheres, these two nations
have nothing in common. On the contrary, they share many similarities.

5 One important similarity is their size. Both Brazil and the United States are large countries. Brazil covers
almost half of the South American continent. Few Brazilians can say that they have traveled extensively within
the country’s borders. Because of Brazil’s large size, its weather varies greatly from one area to another. Like
Brazil, the United States takes up a significant portion of its continent (North America), so most Americans
have visited only a few of the 50 states. In addition, the United States has a wide range of climates. When the
10 Northeast is experiencing snowstorms, cities like Miami, Florida, can have temperatures over 85 degrees
Fahrenheit.

Another similarity between Brazil and the United States is the diversity of ethnic groups. Brazil was colonized
by Europeans, and its culture has been greatly influenced by this fact. However, the identity of the Brazilian
people is not solely a product of Western civilization. Brazil is a “melting pot” of many ethnic groups that
15 immigrated there and mixed with the native people. The United States also has a diversity of ethnic groups
representing the early colonists from northern Europe as well as groups from Africa, the Mediterranean, Asia,
and South America. The mixture of cultures and customs has worked to form ethnically rich cultures in both
cultures.

Finally, individualism is an important value for both Brazilians and Americans. Brazil works hard to defend the
20 freedom of choice. Citizens believe that they have the right to do and be whatever they desire as long as they
do not hurt others. Individualism and freedom of choice also exist in the United States, where freedom is
perhaps the highest value of the people. Some people may believe that the desire for individual expression is
divisive and can make a country weak. However, the ability of people to be whatever they want makes both
countries strong.

25 Although Brazil and the United States are unique countries, there are remarkable similarities in their size,
ethnic diversity, and personal values. Some people tend to believe that their culture and country are without
equal. Nevertheless, it is important to remember that people as a whole have more in common than they
generally think they do.

1. What is the author’s main point in the passage? 2. The pronoun “its” in line 13 refers to which of the
(A) The surprising similarities between different following?
countries (A) Brazil’s
(B) The similarities between Brazil and the United (B) United States’
States (C) North America’s
(C) The importance of individualism for Brazil and (D) significant portion’s
the United States
(D) The importance of the United States among
other countries
3. It is implied in the passage that 8. Where in the passage does the author list the origin
(A) the United States is larger than Brazil of the ethnic groups in the United States?
(B) Miami and Florida usually have different (A) Lines 9-11
climates (B) Lines 12-13
(C) there are more than fifty states in the United (C) Lines 15-17
States (D) Lines 19-20
(D) there are not many Brazilians who traveled
widely around the country 9. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(A) Social Studies
4. The passage states that the climates in the United (B) Geology
States (C) American History
(A) are usually the same everywhere (D) Literary Research
(B) are mainly harsh in all the cities
(C) vary a lot because of its large size 10. The tone of this passage could best be described as
(D) are not as various as the ones in Brazil (A) humorous
(B) comparative
5. Which of the following is not mentioned about (C) emotional
Brazil and the United States? (D) degrading
(A) The diversity of ethnic groups
(B) The mixture of customs
(C) The mixture of cultures
(D) The diversity of languages

6. The word “divisive” in line 23 is closest in meaning


to
(A) factious
(B) corrupt
(C) disturbing
(D) horrendous

7. The pronoun “they” in line 27 refers to


(A) Brazilians
(B) Americans
(C) people as a whole
(D) unique countries
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 2
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) COMMUNICATING NUTRITION AROUND THE WORLD


What picture comes to mind when you think of a healthful diet? The U.S. Departments of Agriculture
(USDA) and Health and Human Services hopes you think of their Food Guide Pyramid. Since 1992, the
Pyramid has served as a visual adaptation of the U.S. Dietary Guidelines for Americans, the seven basic
dietary recommendations to promote wellness and prevent chronic disease. Today, the Pyramid can be
5 seen not only in nutrition education materials for children and adults, but also on grocery bags, food
packages and in the media.

Food guides, such as the USDA’s Food Guide Pyramid, are tools used to communicate complex scientific
information in a consumer-friendly way. For the most part, government agencies use graphic depictions to
communicate dietary guidance messages that provide population-wide recommendations for eating to
10 promote health.

Food guides are not new educational tools. The first United States food guide was developed in 1916 by
the USDA and consisted of five food groups-milk and meat; cereals; vegetables and fruits; fats and fat
foods; and sugars and sugar foods. By the 1940s, the food guide listed ten food groups, including water
and eggs. Vegetables and fruits were split into three individual groups-leafy green and yellow vegetables;
15 citrus, tomato and cabbage; and other vegetables and fruits. Ten food groups were difficult for consumers
to remember, so these were trimmed to four food groups by the late 1950s.

Previous versions of the United States food guide were tools used to promote a diet containing essential
vitamins and minerals. School children were often the educational target for the simple illustrations used
to depict the optimal diet. One of the most familiar food guides of the past is the “Basic Four,” containing
20 four food groups-milk, fruit and vegetable, bread and cereal, and meat groups-which was used for nearly
25 years. The emphasis of the “Basic Four” food guide was to help Americans get a foundation diet,
meaning, it was intended to meet only a portion of caloric and nutrient needs.

After the publication of the first Dietary Guidelines for Americans in 1980, work began on a new food guide
graphic to reflect the latest science on diet and health. In addition to a review of existing research,
25 government agencies conducted extensive quantitative and qualitative research with American consumers
to ensure the resulting graphic communicated key dietary guideline concepts. The pyramid design proved
most useful in graphically communicating the intended messages across various socioeconomic groups.

No single adaptation of the pyramid graphic can depict all of the eating practices of the diverse American
populace. However, because of the simplicity and understandability of the pyramid shape, the U.S. Food
30 Guide Pyramid can be translated to reflect the customs of numerous ethnic and cultural groups within the
United States. The pyramid concept has been adapted to Asian, Mexican, vegetarian and Mediterranean
diets by various organizations. For instance, to better serve their state population, the Washington State
Department of Health created materials using the pyramid shape to depict diets for Russians, Southeast
Asians and Native Americans.

35 The pyramid concept has also been adapted to communicate other health-promoting activities. For
example, a physical activity pyramid, developed by a private organization, promotes ways to stay active in
everyday life, and a “life balance” pyramid by the same group offers to build and maintain emotional well-
being.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most 6. Which of the following is NOT stated about
probably discusses previous versions of the United States food
(A) eating habits guide?
(B) benefits of vegetables (A) They suggested a diet of vitamins and
(C) how to prevent diseases minerals especially for children.
(D) how to obtain emotional well-being (B) “Basic Four” food guide intended to help
Americans get a basic diet.
2. Which of the following best describes the main (C) The most familiar one was used for more
idea of the passage? than 24 years.
(A) The ways to get a balanced diet (D) “Basic Four” contained almost all the food
(B) The history of the food guide pyramid groups needed for nutrition.
(C) Food guides used all around the world
(D) How to follow a healthful diet 7. The word “conducted” in line 25 is closest in
meaning to
3. The word “depictions” in line 8 is closest in (A) carried out
meaning to (B) examined
(A) systems (C) observed
(B) lines (D) applied
(C) interpretations
(D) pictures 8. It can be inferred from the sixth paragraph that
(A) the U.S. Food Guide Pyramid is not easy to
4. The pronoun “that” in line 9 refers to which of comprehend
the following? (B) the Washington State Department of Health
(A) Government agencies ignored the Food Guide Pyramid
(B) Dietary guidance messages (C) more than one pyramid graphic is needed
(C) Graphic depictions to show the eating practices in America
(D) Population-wide recommendations (D) the U.S. Food Guide Pyramid can not be
adapted to any other diets
5. According to the passage, which of the
following is true about the first United States 9. Where in the passage does the author mention
food guide where Food Guide Pyramid can be seen?
(A) was developed in the 19th century (A) Lines 4-6
(B) presented several food groups (B) Lines 13-15
(C) included water and eggs (C) Lines 23-24
(D) was developed by the U.S. Departments of (D) Lines 29-31
Agriculture
10. In which course would this reading be
assigned?
(A) Physics
(B) Dietetics
(C) History
(D) Psychology
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 3
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) EFFECTS OF COMPUTERS ON HIGHER EDUCATION


Through the ages, industrious individuals have continuously created conveniences to make life easier.
From the invention of the wheel to the light bulb, inventions have propelled society forward. One recent
modern invention is the computer, which has improved many aspects of people’s lives. This is especially
true in the field of education. Because of computer technology, higher education today has three major
5 conveniences: lecture variety, easy research, and time-saving writing methods.

One important effect of computer technology on higher education is the availability of lectures. As a result
of the development of computer networks, students can obtain lectures from many universities in real
time. They are now able to sit down in front of a digital screen and listen to a lecture being given at
another university. In addition, interactive media can be used to question a lecturer or exchange opinions
10 with other students via e-mail. Such computerized lectures give students access to knowledge that was
previously unavailable. For this reason, students can learn from professors in specialized fields, regardless
of where they are teaching.

The development of computers also makes it possible to have access to more information via the Internet
and databases. Consequently, when students research a topic, they do not necessarily have to go to the
15 library to find information because many articles and even textbooks can be downloaded via computer. It
is now extremely easy to use the Internet and databases since all one has to do is type in a few key words
and wait a few moments. The convenience of doing this type of research from home helps busy students
who would otherwise not have time to visit a campus library.

Finally, computer technology helps students with their academic writing assignments. E-mail
20 assignments are becoming more common at universities. As a result, the assignments are much quicker
and easier to finish than before. When it is time to hand in assigned papers or homework, students simply
send them to their professors via e-mail. This method is beneficial for students and convenient for
teachers, who will not risk losing their students’ work in a mountain of papers. Another time-saving
computer function is the word processor. Because of improved word-processing programs, students have
25 the added benefit of spell-checking and grammar-checking programs. If a sentence is grammatically
incorrect, one of these programs highlights the incorrect parts of the sentence and corrects them. Word-
processing programs also have built-in dictionaries and spell checkers, which help students write concisely
and accurately. As a result of these two functions-e-mail and word-processing- both teachers and students
can save a great deal of time and produce solid work.

30 To summarize, computer technology has three main positive effects on higher education: lecture variety,
easy research, and time-saving writing methods. Because of the advent of computers in education,
students can now increase their knowledge and be more time-efficient at the same time. Academic life
will never be the same!
1. What is the main subject of this passage? 6. The pronoun “who” in line 23 refers to
(A) How to use computers in higher education (A) students
(B) The development in computer technology (B) teachers
(C) The advantages of using computers in higher (C) professors
education (D) assigned papers
(D) Using computers for doing assignments
7. The word “concisely” in line 27 can best be replaced
2. The word “propelled” in line 2 means by
(A) pushed (A) well
(B) affected (B) briefly
(C) supported (C) neatly
(D) seen (D) correctly

3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about 8. The word “solid” in line 29 means
lectures? (A) careful
(A) Lectures can be obtained from many universities (B) easy
through computer networks. (C) hard
(B) Through e-mails students can ask questions (D) perfect
about the lectures in other universities.
(C) Lectures on internet help students reach the 9. It can be inferred from the passage that
information which they could not reach before. (A) computer technology has no negative effects on
(D) Lectures listened to through computers can be higher education
about scientific research done at universities. (B) there will be a lot of changes in academic life
because of advancing computer technology
4. The pronoun “they” in line 12 refers to which of the (C) because of the advent of computers in education
following? there will be no need for teachers in future
(A) Professors (D) students will probably spend more time on their
(B) Students assignments as a result of computer technology
(C) Specialized fields
(D) Computerized lectures 10. Where in the passage does the author state the
reason why students do not have to go to the
5. It is stated in the passage that library to find information?
(A) sending assigned papers by e-mail is (A) Lines 6-9
advantageous both for teachers and students (B) Lines 14-15
(B) teachers do not like to keep handed assignments (C) Lines 16-18
of students for a long time (D) Lines 20-21
(C) word processing programs help students write
more creatively
(D) spell-checking programs are becoming more
common at universities
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 4
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) LANGUAGE: IS IT ALWAYS SPOKEN?


Most of us know a little about how babies learn to talk. From the time infants are born, they hear language
because their parents talk to them all the time. Between the ages of seven and ten months, most infants
begin to make sounds. They repeat the same sounds over and over again. For example, a baby may repeat
the sound “dadada” or “bababa”. This activity is called babbling. When babies babble, they are practicing
5 their language. Soon, the sound “dadada” may become “daddy,” and “bababa” may become “bottle.”

What happens, though, to children who can not hear? How do deaf children learn to communicate?
Recently, doctors have learned that deaf babies babble with their hands. Laura Ann Petitto, a psychologist
at McGill University in Montreal, Canada, has studied how children learn language. She observed three
hearing infants and two deaf infants. The three hearing infants had English-speaking parents. The two deaf
10 infants had deaf mothers and fathers who used American Sign Language (ASL) to communicate with each
other and with their babies. Dr. Petitto studied the babies three times: at 10, 12, and 14 months. During
this time, children really begin to develop their language skills.

After watching and videotaping the children for several hundred hours, the psychologist and her assistants
made many important observations. For example, they saw that the hearing children made many different,
15 varied motions with their hands. However, there appeared to be no pattern to these motions. The deaf
babies also made many different movements with their hands, but these movements were more consistent
and deliberate. The deaf babies seemed to make the same hand movements over and over again. During
the four-month period, the deaf babies’ hand motions started to resemble some of the basic hand-shapes
used in ASL. The children also seemed to prefer certain hand-shapes.

20 Hearing infants start first with simple syllable babbling (dadada), then put more syllables together to sound
like real sentences and questions. Apparently, deaf babies follow this same pattern, too. First, they repeat
simple hand-shapes. Next, they form some simple hand signs (words) and use these movements together
to resemble ASL sentences.

Linguists-people who study language- believe that our ability for language is innate. In other words,
25 humans are born with the capacity for language. It does not matter if we are physically able to speak or
not. Language can be expressed in many different ways-for instance, by speech or by sign. Dr. Petitto
believes this theory and wants to prove it. She plans to study hearing children who have one deaf parent
and one hearing parent. Dr. Petitto wants to see what happens when babies have the opportunity to learn
both sign language and speech. Does the human brain prefer speech? Some of these studies of hearing
30 babies who have one deaf parent and one hearing parent show that the babies babble equally with their
hands and their voices. They also produce their first words, both spoken and signed, at about the same
time.

The capacity for language is uniquely human. More studies in the future may prove that the sign system of
the deaf is the physical equivalent of speech. If so, the old theory that only the spoken word is language will
35 have to be changed. The whole concept of human communication will have a very new and different
meaning.
1. Which of the following would be another title 5. The word “innate” in line 24 could be best
for the passage? replaced by which of the following?
(A) Human Capacity for Language (A) Natural
(B) The Problems Deaf Children Come Across (B) Important
(C) How to Teach Sign Language to Babies (C) Coincidental
(D) The Differences Between Sign Language and (D) Necessary
Speaking
6. The pronoun “it” in line 27 refers to which of
2. The pronoun “they” in line 3 refers to which of the following?
the following? (A) Language
(A) Sounds (B) This theory
(B) Parents (C) Speech
(C) Infants (D) Sign
(D) Ages
7. It is stated in the passage that hearing babies
3. Which of the following is NOT stated in the who have one hearing parent and one deaf
passage about Dr. Petito’s study? parent
(A) The different motions that the hearing (A) prefer to use their voices
children make have no pattern. (B) prefer to bubble with their hands
(B) The deaf babies make more intentional (C) use sign language before they use speech
movements. (D) use sign language and speech at the same
(C) The hearing babies make continuously the time
same hand movements.
(D) The four-month period is a time when the 8. What type of information is included in the last
deaf babies use basic ASL. paragraph?
(A) A definition
4. The word “consistent” in line 16 means (B) A comparison
(A) careful (C) A suggestion
(B) coherent (D) A presumption
(C) specific
(D) rhythmical 9. Where in the passage does the author mention
the time when infants start to make sounds?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Lines 2-3
(C) Lines 14-15
(D) Lines 24-25

10. In which course would this reading be assigned?


(A) Sociology
(B) Biology
(C) Linguistics
(D) Statistics
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 5
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) WORDS THAT CAMOUFLAGE


People use words, of course, to express their thoughts and feelings. As everyone who has tried to write
knows, choosing just the right word to express an idea can be difficult. Nevertheless, it is important to choose
words carefully, for words can suggest meanings not intended at all; words can also be used to deceive. In
order to express ourselves accurately and to understand what other people express, we must be aware that
5 words can camouflage real attitudes; English is full of examples.

Take, for instance, the language of advertising. Advertisers obviously want to emphasize the virtues of their
products and detract from their faults. To do this, they use carefully chosen words designed to mislead the
unwary customer. Carl P. Wrighter in his book I Can Sell You Anything has dubbed these expressions “weasel
words,” which the dictionary defines as words “used in order to evade or retreat from a direct or forthright
10 statement or position.” Let’s say, for example, that the advertiser wants you to think that using his product
will require no work or trouble. He cannot state that the product will be trouble free because there is usually
no such guarantee; instead, he suggests it by using the expression “virtually,” as in this product is “virtually
trouble free.” The careless listener will ignore the qualifier “virtually” and imagine that the product is no
trouble at all. Another misleading expression is “up to.” During a sale a car dealer may advertise reductions of
15 “up to 25 percent.” Our inclination again is to ignore “up to” and think that most of the reductions are 25
percent, but too often we find that only a few products are reduced this much.

A second example of words that camouflage meaning is euphemisms. A euphemism is defined as “the
substitution of an agreeable or inoffensive expression for one that may offend or suggest something
unpleasant”. We often use euphemisms when our intentions are good. For instance, it is difficult to accept
20 that someone we love has died, so people use all kinds of euphemisms for death, such as “She passed away,”
“He’s gone to meet his maker,” or “She is no longer with us.” To defend against the pain of such a reality
some use the humorous euphemism, “He’s kicked the bucket.” To make certain jobs sound more appealing,
people use euphemisms. A janitor is now a “custodial worker” or “maintenance person.” A trash man may be
called a “sanitation engineer.” Such euphemisms are not harmful, but sometimes euphemisms can be used to
25 camouflage potentially controversial or objectionable actions. For example, instead of saying we need to raise
taxes, a politician might say we need “revenue enhancement measures.” When psychologists kill an animal
they have experimented with, they prefer to use the term “sacrifice” the animal.

A final example of language that conveys unintended impression is sexist language. Sexist language refers to
expressions that demean females in some way. For instance, when someone refers to a grown woman as a
30 “girl,” the implication is that she is still a child. Other offensive expressions include “young thing,” as in “She’s
a cute young thing.” The proper term, “girl,” should be used in this case, since the “thing” is a young female.
Further, the names of many jobs suggest women should not fill these positions. Thus, we use “chair” or
“chairperson” instead of the sexist “chairman.” Likewise, a “foreman” should be called a “supervisor.”

We must always be careful to choose the words that convey what we really mean. If we do not want to give
35 offense, then we should always be on guard again sexist language. If we do not want to be misled by
advertisements, we must keep our ears open for weasel words. Finally, when we use a euphemism, we should
be aware that we are trying to make an idea more acceptable. At times, this may be preferable, but let’s not
forget that euphemisms camouflage reality. After all, “coloring the truth” is still lying.
1. What is the author’s main purpose in this 6. Which of the following is probably NOT an
passage? example of euphemism?
(A) To list the major characteristics of (A) Big-boned
euphemism (B) Between jobs
(B) To enumerate examples of words that hide (C) Adult beverages
real thoughts (D) Firing someone
(C) To prove that the language of advertising is
misleading 7. It is stated in the passage that psychologists
(D) To refute a common misconception about prefer to use the word “sacrifice” when they
words kill an animal in an experiment because
(A) “kill” is an inoffensive word
2. What does the pronoun “their” in line 6 refer (B) they are ashamed of what they do
to? (C) they think that it is immoral
(A) Advertisers (D) using animals in experiments is a
(B) Virtues controversial issue
(C) Products
(D) Customers 8. The pronoun “they” in line 27 refers to
(A) politicians
3. In line 8, “unwary” could best be replaced by (B) doctors
(A) uncertain (C) psychologists
(B) irresponsible (D) animals
(C) indifferent
(D) careless 9. Which of the following has the same meaning
as the word “demean” in line 29?
4. According to the passage, weasel words (A) Degrade
(A) are generally used by scientists (B) Affect
(B) are used to avoid from direct statement (C) Criticize
(C) are used to emphasize virtues (D) Deceive
(D) are not directly told to avoid
misunderstanding 10. This passage would probably be assigned
reading in which of the following courses?
5. The second paragraph (A) Linguistics
(A) precedes the ideas in the first paragraph (B) Literary Research
(B) refutes the ideas in the first paragraph (C) Psychology
(C) provides examples to support the ideas in (D) Audiology
the first paragraph
(D) outlines the reason of the idea in the first
paragraph
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 6
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) LONELINESS: HOW CAN WE OVERCOME IT?


Most people feel lonely sometimes, but it usually only lasts between a few minutes and a few hours. This
kind of loneliness is not serious. In fact, it is quite normal. For some people, though, loneliness can last for
years. Psychologists are studying this complex phenomenon in an attempt to better understand long-term
loneliness. These researchers have already identified three different types of loneliness.

5 The first kind of loneliness is temporary. This is the most common type. It usually disappears quickly and
does not require any special attention. The second kind, situational loneliness, is a natural result of a
particular situation- for example, a divorce, the death of a loved one, or moving to a new place. Although
this kind of loneliness can cause physical problems, such as headaches and sleeplessness, it usually does
not last for more than a year. Situational loneliness is easy to understand and to predict.

10 The third kind of loneliness is the most severe. Unlike the second type, chronic loneliness usually lasts more
than two years and has no specific cause. People who experience habitual loneliness have problems
socializing and becoming close to others. Unfortunately, many chronically lonely people think there is little
or nothing they can do to improve their condition.

Psychologists agree that one important factor in loneliness is a person’s social contacts, e.g., friends, family
15 members, coworkers, etc. We depend on various people for different reasons. For instance, our families
give us emotional support, our parents and teachers give us guidance, and our friends share similar
interests and activities. However, psychologists have found that the number of social contacts we have is
not the only reason for loneliness. It is more important how many social contacts we think or expect we
should have. In other words, though lonely people may have many social contacts, they sometimes feel
20 they should have more. They question their own popularity.

Most researchers agree that the loneliest people are between the ages of 18 and 25, so a group of
psychologists decided to study a group of college freshmen. They found that more than 50% of the
freshmen were situationally lonely at the beginning of the semester as a result of their new circumstances,
but had adjusted after a few months. Thirteen percent were still lonely after seven months due to shyness
25 and fear. They felt very uncomfortable meeting new people, even though they understood that their fear
was not rational. The situationally lonely freshmen overcame their loneliness by making new friends, but
the chronically lonely remained unhappy because they were afraid to do so.

Psychologists are trying to find ways to help habitually lonely people for two reasons. First of all, they are
unhappy and unable to socialize. Secondly, researchers have found a connection between chronic
30 loneliness and serious illnesses such as heart disease. While temporary and situational loneliness can be a
normal, healthy part of life, chronic loneliness can be a very sad, and sometimes dangerous, condition.
1. Which of the following is NOT stated in the 6. What is the main idea of the last paragraph?
passage? (A) Why lonely people are unable to socialize
(A) The loneliness which lasts between a few (B) The reasons why psychologists want to help
minutes and a few hours is considered as lonely people
normal. (C) The connection between chronic loneliness
(B) The most common type of loneliness is and serious illnesses
short-lived loneliness. (D) Chronic loneliness is more dangerous than
(C) Situational loneliness usually lasts for more temporary loneliness
than a year.
(D) Divorce is one of the reasons of situational 7. What is the tone of the passage?
loneliness. (A) Informational
(B) Humorous
2. It is stated in the passage that chronic (C) Emotional
loneliness (D) Exaggerated
(A) has certain causes
(B) lasts less than a year 8. Which of the following is most likely the topic of
(C) causes hopelessness on its sufferers the paragraph following the passage?
(D) is the least severe of all the other types of (A) Other causes of heart disease
loneliness (B) Severe results of chronic loneliness
(C) Examples of serious illnesses chronic
3. The pronoun “they” in line 22 refers to which of loneliness causes
the following? (D) The ways psychologists found to help
(A) Social contacts habitually lonely people
(B) Psychologists
(C) Our friends 9. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(D) Lonely people (A) Psychology
(B) Statistics
4. It can be inferred from the fifth paragraph that (C) History
(A) the loneliest people are mostly adults (D) Culture Studies
(B) most of the freshmen cannot adjust to new
circumstances for a long time 10. Where in the passage does the author mention
(C) the chronically lonely freshmen make the reasons why we rely upon other people?
friends more easily than the situationally (A) Lines 7-10
lonely freshmen (B) Lines 15-17
(D) after seven months from the beginning of (C) Lines 25-27
the semester, 87% of the freshmen are not (D) Lines 28-30
lonely anymore

5. What is the meaning of “rational” in line 26?


(A) Helpful
(B) Valid
(C) Logical
(D) Dense
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 7
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) LONELINESS HAS A PURPOSE


You can be lonely whether or not you have a partner, relatives, or many friends. When you have a need
and desire to be interpersonally connected and recognize that it's missing, you may become wrapped in
the emotion of loneliness. Emotions, by definition, are immediately felt when triggered by a particular
event or stimulus. Loneliness can be triggered when you're thinking of a significant relationship that has
5 ended, if you realize that your relationships are not emotionally satisfying, if you have lost a loved one, if
your access to social relationships has been altered because of a life circumstance, or at the moment you
recognize that you are not truly known and understood by another.

When you're lonely, it's unlikely you'll remember that emotions serve a purpose, since what possible
purpose can the heartache of loneliness serve? If you consider how this emotion makes you feel and
10 think, then you will easily recognize that it alerts you to the fact that your relationships are inadequate
and your needs to belong are not being met. Beyond that, loneliness motivates you to take necessary
action that will relieve it. Emotions do have a purpose, regardless of how unpleasant some of them can
make us feel.

Loneliness can make you feel empty and a sense of longing for someone who really knows you. If you are
15 without friends, you may wish to have someone in your life who will relieve the emptiness. Yet loneliness
may not be clearly linked to the reality of a situation because it can exist when connections with others
are fleeting, meaningless, or not what you consider to be significant. Thus, you may have many friends, or
be in a room filled with people, and still be lonely.

Loneliness, like all emotions, creates certain cognitions and therefore can cause you to imagine that
20 everyone else has the kinds of affiliations that you strongly desire, or that other people are enjoying the
company of others while you are feeling inadequately connected. Your longing for closeness may, at
times, lead you to believe that your situation might never end. It's understandable why people who are
lonely might feel unwanted, unloved, undesirable, insignificant, despairing, insecure, or abandoned. Such
attributions falsely account for the lack of connection.

25 People have a need to be connected with others. Researchers studied people who were recently excluded
from relationships and found that these people may behave in certain ways in social situations just
because they need connection. Early on, a person who is excluded seeks emotional contact and needs to
find others who are accepting. Excluded people paid closer attention to others who had smiling faces, as
opposed to those whose faces showed disapproval. The researchers concluded that people who feel the
30 threat of social exclusion are highly motivated to look for sources of acceptance, and their perceptions are
in gear to find a friendly face. Being connected to others is important, and it shows in the basic ways in
which our brain has evolved to seek out others.

However, it takes more than recognizing a friendly face to extract oneself out of a lonely state. Having a
willingness to take risks socially, to be assertive, to self-disclose, and be responsive to others are
35 strategies to defeat loneliness. Drowning your feelings of isolation in alcohol or subjecting them to
substances in order to forget is not listening to what your emotions are telling you to do. Loneliness can
lead to self-absorption and a high sensitivity where you hopelessly avoid others, or desperately seek their
positive affirmation. For these reasons, in social interactions it is important to remain mindful of the
needs of others when you are lonely.
1. The passage mainly discusses 6. The word “exclusion” in line 30 is closest in
(A) some results of loneliness meaning to which of the following?
(B) the need for connecting with other people (A) Ban
(C) why people feel lonely and how they can (B) Life
defeat loneliness (C) Bond
(D) the reasons why people excluded from (D) Security
relationships look for acceptance
7. Which one of the following is NOT stated as one
2. What does the pronoun “them” in line 12 refer of the ways to overcome loneliness?
to? (A) To be confident
(A) Needs (B) To be honest
(B) Friends (C) To take risks in social life
(C) Emotions (D) To be sensitive to other people’s feelings
(D) Relationships
8. In which course might this passage be assigned
3. The pronoun “it” in line 16 refers to reading?
(A) reality (A) Psychology
(B) situation (B) Research Methodologies
(C) emptiness (C) Public Administration
(D) loneliness (D) Chemistry

4. In line 20, “affiliations” could best be replaced 9. What is the tone of the last paragraph?
by (A) Critical
(A) features (B) Suggestive
(B) situations (C) Humorous
(C) feelings (D) Disinterested
(D) connections
10. Where in the passage does the author state the
5. The passage indicates that result of a research?
(A) one’s need for closeness might direct him to (A) Lines 4-7
believe that his loneliness will last forever (B) Lines 19-21
(B) people who are lonely may feel more (C) Lines 29-31
successful in their professions (D) Lines 36-38
(C) if you feel lonely you have the tendency to
feel that everyone else is lonely
(D) lack of connection with others makes
people more powerful
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 8

Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) THE IMPORTANCE OF GRANDMOTHERS


What do you think of when you think about your grandmothers? Many people have happy memories of their
grandmothers. Their grandmothers loved them, paid attention to them, and gave them special treats, such as
toys and sweets. Sometimes, grandmothers even helped them when they had problems with their parents. It
seems that for many people, their grandmothers were a very happy part of their childhood.

5 In recent years, anthropologists have begun to study the role of grandmothers. Anthropologists are scientists
who study people, societies, and cultures. They studied infants and children to learn about the factors that
helped infants and children survive. Anthropologists usually looked at parents and did not pay much attention
to grandparents. However, now they are studying how grandmothers also influence the survival rate of their
grandchildren.

10 Many biologists and anthropologists now believe that the role of grandmothers in a family is very important.
Grandmothers may be the reason why human infants, who take so many years to grow up, are able to survive.
The biologists and anthropologists are starting to examine grandmothers within different societies and cultures.
In fact, at one international conference, the role of grandmothers was the main topic. The biologists and
anthropologists explained that although grandmothers no longer have children, many grandmothers are still
15 young and active. As a result, they have the time and energy to help with their grandchildren. This extra help
may be an important factor in reducing the mortality, or death, rate among young children.

Some people at the conference studied different societies. They explained that in many cultures, having a
grandmother in the family made a significant difference in the child’s chances of living. In fact, the
grandmother’s presence sometimes improved a child’s chance of survival even more than the father’s presence
20 did. In other words, it was sometimes more important for a child to have a grandmother than for a child to have
a father!

Dr. Ruth Mace and Dr. Rebecca Sear work in the Department of Anthropology at University College in London.
They collected and studied information about people in the countryside in Gambia, Africa. At the time of their
study, the child mortality rate was very high. Dr. Mace and Dr. Sear looked at children who were about one to
25 three years old. They discovered that the presence or absence of the child’s father did not affect the death rate.
However, the presence of a grandmother reduced the children’s chances of dying by 50%. These
anthropologists made another discovery that surprised them very much. The children were only helped by the
presence of their maternal grandmother- their mother’s mother. The presence of their father’s mother, or
paternal grandmother, had no effect on the mortality rate.

30 Dr. Cheryl Jamison is an anthropologist at India University in Bloomington. She worked with colleagues to study
the population records of a village in central Japan for the period 1671 through 1871. They found that the
mortality rate for children in the village was very high. In fact, 27.5% of children died by the age 16. They then
studied girl and boy children separately and looked for the presence of grandmothers. Again, the
anthropologists were surprised by their discovery. The death rate for girls was not different whether or not a
35 grandmother lived with them. However, there was a great difference in the survival rate of boys. If a maternal
grandmother lived in the household, boys were 52% less likely to die in childhood. The anthropologists were
very surprised to find that boys were 62% more likely to die in childhood when a paternal grandmother lived in
the household. Dr. Jamison said that in this society, families usually lived with the husband’s parents, so very
few children lived with their maternal grandmothers.

40 Today, many children do not live with their grandmothers. However, grandmothers still have an important role
in their grandchildren’s lives. They still love and care for their grandchildren, and make their lives happier, too.
1. With what is the author primarily concerned in
all paragraphs? 7. All of the following are true about the study Dr.
(A) The important role of grandmothers in our Cheryl Jamison and her colleagues did except
lives (A) they studied girl and boy children
(B) The differences between maternal and separately
paternal grandmothers (B) they studied a 200 year period population
(C) The ways to reduce death rate among records of a Japanese village
young children (C) they found that about seventy percent of
(D) The differences between the survival rate of children survived after the age of sixteen
boys and girls (D) they found that death rate for girls
depended on the presence of a
2. What is the meaning of “treats” in line 2? grandmother
(A) Tips
(B) Remedies 8. Where in the passage does the author mention
(C) Manners the meaning of the word anthropologist?
(D) Gifts (A) Lines 5-6
(B) Line 8
3. The pronoun “they” in line 8 refers to which of (C) Lines 10-11
the following? (D) Lines 40-41
(A) Grandparents
(B) Children 9. How is the information in the passage
(C) Anthropologists organized?
(D) Infants (A) Contrasting ideas about the importance of
grandmothers are presented.
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to (B) The studies conducted about the
“mortality” in line 16? significance of grandmothers are stated.
(A) Birth (C) The reasons for living with grandmothers
(B) Growth are discussed.
(C) Death (D) The basic family structure in some countries
(D) Illness is outlined.

5. The author mentions that the grandmother’s 10. The paragraph following this passage most
presence probably discusses
(A) has different meanings in different societies (A) examples of how grandmothers make our
(B) has no effect on a children’s chances of lives better
living (B) the differences between the survival rates
(C) is more effective when the grandmother is of boys and girls
still young and active (C) what grandmothers mean to the families in
(D) is sometimes more effective than the different countries
father’s presence (D) the negative effects of living with a
grandmother
6. It is implied in the fifth paragraph that
(A) the death rate is higher in the countryside
because of lack of scientific study
(B) the older the child is, the more the death
rate is
(C) after the time of the study the child
mortality rate decreased
(D) children with a maternal grandmother tend
to live longer than children with a paternal
grandmother
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 9
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) WHICH GRANDPARENT ARE YOU CLOSEST TO?


Every human being has four grandparents: Paternal grandfather, paternal grandmother, maternal grandfather,
and maternal grandmother. Think of your four grandparents now. And, regardless of whether they are currently
alive, think of which of the four grandparents you are or were closest to in your life. Try to rank-order your four
grandparents in terms of how close you are or were to them. Which grandparent are you closest to? Which
5 grandparent are you least close to?

If you are like most people, regardless of whether you are a man or a woman, you’d probably conclude that you
are or were closest to your maternal grandmother, followed by your maternal grandfather and paternal
grandmother, and that you are or were least close to your paternal grandfather. This is in fact a universal
pattern. A study of a large sample of undergraduate students at the University of Michigan shows that they are
10 emotionally closer to, spend more time with, and receive more resources from maternal grandmothers than
either paternal grandmothers or maternal grandfathers, and they are in turn closer to, spend more time with,
and receive more resources from maternal grandfathers and paternal grandmothers than paternal
grandfathers.

The pattern is reciprocal as well. From the perspective of the grandparents, a study of bereaved parents shows
15 that maternal grandmothers grieve the death of their grandchildren more than either paternal grandmothers or
maternal grandfathers, who in turn grieve more than paternal grandfathers. Similar results are found in studies
conducted in Canada, Germany, and Greece. Other studies show that we generally feel closer to and have more
contact with our maternal relatives in general than paternal relatives, despite the fact that we on average live
closer to our paternal relatives than to our maternal relatives. I am not aware of any study of grandparents and
20 their relationships with grandchildren that violates the order: maternal grandmother > paternal grandmother =
maternal grandfather > paternal grandfather. Now what explains this peculiar but precise and universal
pattern?

The key to understanding this pattern is the twin concepts of paternity uncertainty and maternity certainty.
Mothers are always certain of their maternity, whereas fathers can never be completely certain of their
25 paternity. Because maternity is always certain, maternal grandmothers are always certain to be related to their
grandchildren; there is no possibility of cuckoldry anywhere in their relationships to their grandchildren. In
sharp contrast, paternal grandfathers have two reasons that they may not be related to their grandchildren:
They may have been cuckolded by their wives, or their sons may have been cuckolded by their wives, or both.
Maternal grandfathers and paternal grandmothers fall in between these two extremes; both categories of
30 grandparents each have one reason that they may not be related to their grandchildren.

It therefore follows from evolutionary psychological logic that maternal grandmothers have more contact with,
are closer to, and invest more heavily in their grandchildren than either maternal grandfathers or paternal
grandmothers, who in turn have more contact with, are closer to, and invest more heavily in their
grandchildren than paternal grandfathers. Of course, none of this is conscious on the part of either the
35 grandparents or the grandchildren. We know we feel closer to our maternal grandmothers than to our paternal
grandfathers, but we don’t know why. Maternal grandmothers love their grandchildren much more than
paternal grandfathers do, but they don’t know why. Nor am I aware of any theoretical perspective besides
evolutionary psychology which can explain the precise ordering: maternal grandmother > paternal
grandmother = maternal grandfather > paternal grandfather.
1. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely 6. According to the passage, most people have more
contains information on what? contact with their maternal relatives than paternal
(A) Other family members relatives
(B) Relationship between couples (A) as they live closer to their maternal relatives
(C) Some problems families may face (B) because they love their mothers more than their
(D) Studies conducted about evolutionary fathers
psychology (C) although they live closer to their paternal
relatives
2. The author’s purpose in this passage is to (D) despite receiving more sources from paternal
(A) summarize the role of grandparents in a society relatives
(B) criticize the general tendency of being closer to
maternal grandmothers 7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned about the
(C) discuss the universal pattern showing how close twin concepts of paternity and maternity certainty?
we are to our grandparents (A) Fathers may have doubts about their paternity.
(D) mention the differences between maternal and (B) Mothers are always sure of their maternity.
paternal relatives (C) Maternal grandmothers may be uncertain to be
related to their grandchildren.
3. It is stated in the passage that (D) Paternal grandfathers have reasons to be
(A) grandchildren spend the least time with their uncertain to be related to their grandchildren.
paternal grandfathers
(B) maternal and paternal grandmothers are equally 8. In line 28, the word “cuckoldry” means
close to their grandchildren (A) happiness
(C) grandchildren receive more resources from (B) unfaithfulness
paternal grandfathers than maternal (C) confidence
grandfathers (D) insecurity
(D) grandchildren spend more time with paternal
grandmothers than maternal grandmothers 9. What does the pronoun “their” in line 33 refer to?
(A) Grandchildren
4. The pronoun “they” in line 11 refers to (B) Paternal grandfathers
(A) maternal grandmothers (C) Maternal grandmothers
(B) paternal grandmothers (D) Maternal grandfathers or paternal grandmothers
(C) maternal grandfathers
(D) undergraduate students 10. Where in the passage does the author mention the
countries where studies were conducted?
5. What does “reciprocal” in line 14 mean? (A) Lines 9-13
(A) Uncertain (B) Lines 16-17
(B) Mutual (C) Lines 19-21
(C) Questionable (D) Lines 23-25
(D) Different
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 10
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) INNOCENT UNTIL PROVEN GUILTY: THE CRIMINAL COURT SYSTEM


The purpose of the American court system is to protect the rights of the people. According to American law,
if someone is accused of a crime, he or she is considered innocent until the court proves that the person is
guilty. In other words, it is the responsibility of the court to prove that a person is guilty. It is not the
responsibility of the person to prove that he or she is innocent.

5 In order to arrest a person, the police have to be reasonably sure that a crime has been committed. The
police must give the suspect the reasons why they are arresting him and tell him his rights under the law.
Then the police take the suspect to the police station to “book” him. “Booking” means that the name of the
person and the charges against him are formally listed at the police station.

The next step is for the suspect to go before a judge. The judge decides whether the suspect should be kept
10 in jail or released. If the suspect has no previous criminal record and the judge feels that he will return to
court rather than run away –for example, because he owns a house and has a family- he can go free.
Otherwise, the suspect must put up bail. At this time, too, the judge will appoint a court lawyer to defend
the suspect if he can’t afford one.

The suspect returns to court a week or two later. A lawyer from the district attorney’s office presents a case
15 against the suspect. This is called a hearing. The attorney may present evidence as well as witnesses. The
judge at the hearing then decides whether there is enough reason to hold a trial. If the judge decides that
there is sufficient evidence to call for a trial, he or she sets a date for the suspect to appear in court to
formally plead guilty or not guilty.

At the trial, a jury of 12 people listens to the evidence from both attorneys and hears the testimony of the
20 witnesses. Then the jury goes into a private room to consider the evidence and decide whether the
defendant is guilty of the crime. If the jury decides that the defendant is innocent, he goes free. However, if
he is convicted, the judge sets a date for the defendant to appear in court again for sentencing. At this time,
the judge tells the convicted person what his punishment will be. The judge may sentence him to prison,
order him to pay a fine, or place him on probation.

25 The American justice system is very complex and sometimes operates slowly. However, every step is
designed to protect the rights of the people. These individual rights are the basis, or foundation, of the
American government.
1. What is the subject of the passage? 6. What is the meaning of “plead” in line 18?
(A) The crime rates in the U.S. (A) Accuse
(B) The jury system in the U.S. (B) Understand
(C) The types of punishments in the American (C) Declare
justice system (D) Recognize
(D) The structure of the American court system
7. Which of the following is NOT stated in the
2. The passage indicates that in order to arrest a passage about the jury system?
person (A) The jury consists of twelve people.
(A) a previous criminal record of the suspect is (B) The jury decides the punishment of the
sufficient convicted person.
(B) the suspect must be given explanations (C) The jury makes its final decision in a private
about his arrest session.
(C) the suspect should know his legal rights in (D) The jury listens to both attorneys and the
advance witnesses.
(D) only one witness testimony is necessary
8. Where in the passage does the author state the
3. How is the information in the third passage punishments a guilty person may have?
related to the information in the second (A) Lines 7-8
paragraph? (B) Lines 10-12
(A) It follows the process told in the second (C) Lines 15-18
paragraph. (D) Lines 23-24
(B) It provides examples to support the ideas in
the second paragraph. 9. The tone of the passage could best be described
(C) It refutes the ideas in the second paragraph. as
(D) It presents a counterargument to the ideas (A) judicial
in the second paragraph. (B) informative
(C) exaggerated
4. In line 12, “put up” could best be replaced by (D) disinterested
(A) pay
(B) request 10. Which of the following is most likely the topic of
(C) save the paragraph following the passage?
(D) have (A) The ways to enable the American justice
system to operate more effectively
5. The pronoun “one” in line 13 refers to (B) The most common crimes committed in
(A) the judge America
(B) a court lawyer (C) Further information about individual rights
(C) the suspect in America
(D) bail (D) The problems about American justice
system
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 11
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) THE RELIABILITY OF EYEWITNESSES


Bernard Jackson is a free man today, but he has many bitter memories. Jackson spent five years in prison
after a jury wrongly convicted him of raping two women. At Jackson’s trial, although two witnesses
testified that Jackson was with them in another location at the times of the crimes, he was convicted
anyway. Why? The jury believed the testimony of the two victims, who positively identified Jackson as the
5 man who had attacked them. The court eventually freed Jackson after the police found the man who had
really committed the crimes. Jackson was similar in appearance to the guilty man. The two women had
made a mistake in identity. As a result, Jackson has lost five years of his life.

The two women in this case were eyewitnesses. They clearly saw the man who attacked them, yet they
mistakenly identified an innocent person. Similar incidents have occurred before. Eyewitnesses to other
10 crimes have identified the wrong person in a police lineup or in photographs.

Many factors influence the accuracy of eyewitness testimony. For instance, witnesses sometimes see
photographs of several suspects before they try to identify the person they saw in a lineup of people. They
can become confused by seeing many photographs of similar faces. The number of people in the lineup,
and whether it is a live lineup or a photograph, may also affect a witness decision. People sometimes have
15 difficulty identifying people of other races. The questions the police ask witnesses also have an effect on
them.

Are some witnesses more reliable than others? Many people believe that police officers are more reliable
than ordinary people. Psychologists decided to test this idea, and they discovered that it is not true. Two
psychologists showed a film of crimes to both police officers and civilians. The psychologists found no
20 difference between the police and the civilians in correctly remembering the details of the crimes.

Despite all the possibilities for inaccuracy, courts can not exclude eyewitness testimony from a trial.
American courts depend almost completely on eyewitness testimony to resolve court cases. Sometimes it
is the only evidence to a crime, such as rape. Furthermore, eyewitness testimony is often correct. Although
people do sometimes make mistakes, many times they really do identify individuals correctly.

25 American courts depend on the ability of the 12 jurors, and not the judges, to determine the accuracy of
the witness’s testimony. It is their responsibility to decide if a certain witness could actually see, hear, and
remember what occurred.

In a few cases, the testimony of eyewitnesses has convicted innocent people. More importantly, it has
rightly convicted a larger number of guilty people; consequently, it continues to be of great value in the
30 American judicial system.

1. What is the author’s main point in the passage? 2. What is the meaning of “testified” in line 3?
(A) The reliability of police officers (A) To state publicly that something is true
(B) Examples of incorrect eyewitness testimony (B) To say that something is not true
(C) The importance of eyewitnesses in (C) To promise that you will do something
American judicial system (D) To believe that something will change soon
(D) The factors affecting the accuracy of
eyewitness testimony
3. Which of the following is NOT stated about 6. It is indicated in the fourth paragraph that
Bernard Jackson? (A) civilians are more reliable than police
(A) He spent five years in jail although he was officers
innocent. (B) the police and ordinary people are equally
(B) He looked like the man who committed the reliable as witnesses
crime. (C) eye witnesses can recognize criminals
(C) He was convicted although he had better when shown the film of a crime
witnesses to prove his location at the time (D) the psychology of a witness affects his
of the crime. testimony a lot
(D) He lost his job after he was put in prison.
7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to
4. The pronoun “them” in line 16 refers to “exclude” in line 21?
(A) witnesses (A) Keep
(B) photographs (B) Count out
(C) people of other races (C) Rely on
(D) the questions the police ask witnesses (D) Differ

5. All of the following are among the factors 8. The paragraph following this passage most
affecting a witness’s testimony EXCEPT likely contains information on what?
(A) seeing too many photographs of similar (A) Other important factors in the American
faces judicial system
(B) difficulty in identifying people of other races (B) The jury system in the American judicial
(C) standing in the lineup for a long time system
(D) the questions asked by the police (C) Other examples of incorrect conviction
(D) The importance of police officers in
eyewitness testimony

9. In which course would this reading be assigned?


(A) American History
(B) Criminology
(C) Statistics
(D) Public Administration

10. Where in the passage does the author discuss


the fact that court cases rely mostly on
eyewitness testimony?
(A) Lines 5-6
(B) Lines 17-18
(C) Lines 22-23
(D) Lines 28-30
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 12
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) SOLVING CRIMES WITH MODERN TECHNOLOGY


Solving crimes is one of the most important jobs of law enforcement. Improvements in crime technology
help detectives solve crimes faster, and more efficiently, today. For example, crime labs have new kinds of
DNA, testing, which can identify body fluids such as blood, sweat, and saliva. There are also new kinds of
fingerprint testing. In the past, fingerprint testing was only helpful if the fingerprints from the crime scene
5 could be matched with “prints” that were already on file. The fingerprints of convicted criminals are kept
on file in police records permanently. People whose fingerprints are not on file cannot be identified in this
way, and as a result, many crimes have not been solved.

However, the newest kind of fingerprint testing can do much more than simply record a fingerprint
pattern. It can provide additional information about a fingerprint, such as the age and sex of its owner. The
10 fingerprints can reveal if the person takes medication, too. But the latest technology does even more. It
can even get fingerprints from fabric, for example, from blankets or curtains.

In a recent case, the police in Tacoma, Washington, found the body of a 27-year-old woman who had been
murdered in her bedroom. There were no witnesses, and her apartment had few clues. The only real
evidence did not seem very helpful. The victim’s bed sheet had some of her blood on it and looked as if
15 someone had wiped his or her hands. At the time of the murder, it was impossible to identify a fingerprint,
or even a palm print, from fabric. This is because all the unique characteristics of fingerprints and palm
prints can get lost in a fabric. The detectives were unable to use the evidence, but they saved it anyway.
Then they called Eric Berg, a forensic expert with the Tacoma police, for help. A forensic expert is a person
who helps solve crimes.

20 Eric Berg was not only a forensic expert, but a computer expert, too. Using his own time and money, he
had already spent years developing computer software in his own home to enhance, or improve, crime
scene photos. He decided to use that software to examine the fabric from the murder case. It worked! Eric
Berg had used his computer to make the palm print more apparent, or clear. When he was done, he gave
the evidence to the detectives. The detectives found a man whose palm print matched a print on file. Only
25 two hours later, the suspect was arrested. He was eventually convicted of the crime and is now in jail.
Today, many other police departments use Eric Berg’s new software. Because of it, crimes that seemed to
be unsolvable were suddenly solvable again.

While all of this technology may help solve future crimes, it may also help solve crimes from the past. In all
crimes, detectives carefully take samples of evidence from the scene. In many cases 15 or 20 years ago, the
30 police could not always identify important evidence such as body fluids. In these cases, they stored the
evidence in a freezer. Now, criminologists have the modern technology they require to examine the frozen
evidence, and, in many cases, identify as well. In Newport News, Virginia, detectives today are
reinvestigating a 15-year-old murder case. A 34-year-old woman was murdered, and a pair of scissors was
found at the crime scene. The police had only one clue: the scissors. The police found a drop of sweat on
35 the scissors, but they had no way of studying it because, at the time, the DNA technology was not very
advanced. Today, however, they are using the new DNA technology and believe it may lead them to the
murderer.

Today, police have other kinds of new crime-solving technology, as well. A laser system of lights helps
detectives find evidence of body fluids at a crime scene in daylight. Previously, it was only possible to see
40 this kind of evidence at night or in the dark. By helping the police identify criminals, this new technology
can help put more criminals in prison.
1. Which of the following best describes the topic 6. According to the passage, Eric Berg
of the passage? (A) was a successful detective
(A) The difficulties of solving a crime increase (B) was a photographer taking crime scene
day by day. photos
(B) Improvements in technology help solve not (C) searched for evidence at the crime scene to
only the current crimes but also the past help detectives
crimes. (D) developed computer software to make
(C) The crime-solving technology in the past crime scene photos clearer
was far more efficient than that of today.
(D) To detect fingerprints are easier today 7. The word “apparent” in line 23 suggests that
thanks to improvements in technology. something is
(A) efficient
2. In line 10, the word “reveal” is closest in (B) useful
meaning to (C) bright
(A) seem (D) obvious
(B) change
(C) display 8. Where in the passage does the author mention
(D) disappear how fingerprint testing was in the past?
(A) Lines 4-7
3. The pronoun “it” in line 10 refers to (B) Lines 10-11
(A) medication (C) Lines 12-13
(B) a fingerprint (D) Lines 36-38
(C) the latest technology
(D) additional information 9. Which of the following is most likely the topic of
the paragraph preceding the passage?
4. What type of information is included in the (A) Information about law enforcement
third paragraph? (B) Famous crimes committed in the past
(A) An opinion (C) The development in technology
(B) An example (D) Some crimes that have not been solved
(C) A theory
(D) An argument 10. The tone of the passage could best be described
as
5. The pronoun “they” in line 17 refers to (A) concerned
(A) crimes (B) judicial
(B) the detectives (C) emotional
(C) fingerprints (D) informational
(D) unique characteristics of fingerprints
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 13
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) ANCIENT ARTIFACTS AND ANCIENT AIR


Archeologists made an exciting discovery in Egypt in 1954. During an excavation near the base of the Great
Pyramid, they uncovered an ancient crypt. Although they believed that this discovery would help us
understand Egypt’s past, they also hoped that it would give us important information about the future.

This crypt was a tomb, or burial place, for a dead Egyptian pharaoh, or king. Historians believed that the
5 Egyptians buried their pharaohs with two boats: one to carry the body and the other to carry the soul. This
was one of their religious customs about death. The archeologists expected to find two boats inside the
crypt. As they broke the crypt open, they smelled the scent of wood. The ancient Egyptians had sealed the
room so effectively that the aroma of the cedar wood was still preserved. Inside the crypt, archeologists
found a 4,600-year-old boat that was in almost perfect condition. In addition, they found another closed
10 room next to the crypt. Archeologists and historians believed that this chamber contained the second boat.
If so, archeologists would have better information about the past. They would be sure about the religious
custom of burying pharaohs with two boats.

However, this was not the only information they hoped to find. They wondered if the air in the two rooms
contained something special that helped to preserve the wood. This information could help in the
15 preservation of ancient artifacts in museums throughout the world. Researchers also hoped to find some
answers about the future by carefully examining the air in the second chamber. When the archeologists
opened the first chamber, all the old air escaped. Scientists wanted to recover the air in the second
chamber, compare it with the air of the present, and then examine the differences, especially differences in
the level of carbon dioxide (CO2). This information might help them predict changes in the air in the future.
20 They also did not want outside air to get inside the chamber. Careful planning would be necessary in order
to open the second room and save the air. In fact, it took years to plan the excavation and to design and
make the equipment necessary to open the chamber and collect the air inside.

Finally, in October 1986 an international team of scientists, using special equipment, drilled through the
roof of the chamber. The hole they made was kept carefully sealed. As they broke into the ancient room,
25 they realized that the chamber was not sealed. They took an air sample. The air inside was the same as the
air outside. The scientists were very disappointed. However, they continued working to see what was inside
the chamber. The team lowered a light and a camera into the small hole, and looked at the interior of the
room on a television monitor. The second boat was really there!

After the scientists took samples of the air inside the chamber and photographed it completely, they sealed
30 up the hole in the roof and left the room as they had found it. Although they did not get samples of 4,600-
year-old air, they did confirm the Egyptian custom of burying pharaohs with two boats. More importantly,
they practiced a new, non-destructive approach to archeology: investigate an ancient location, photograph
it, and leave it untouched. When archeologists opened the first chamber, they removed the boat. The
Egyptian government built a museum on the site for the first boat. During the construction of the museum,
35 the vibrations from the heavy machinery disturbed the second room and probably destroyed the seal.
Water leaked in, too, so the second boat was not as well preserved as the first boat.

The investigation of the second chamber taught archeologists a valuable lesson. New excavations will not
only use modern technology, but they will also follow the idea of preserving the entire location for future
studies.
1. What is the author’s main point in the passage? 6. Which of the following is NOT stated in the third
(A) The reason why Egyptian pharaohs were paragraph?
buried with two boats was important to (A) Researchers wanted to examine the air in
learn more about Egyptians. the chambers.
(B) Archeologists should have good education (B) Researchers had difficulty in finding the
before they start working. second chamber.
(C) While using modern technology for an (C) When the first chamber was opened, the
archeological study, study area should be old air in it was lost.
preserved. (D) The scientists spent many years to open the
(D) All the ancient customs should be known second chamber.
well to learn more about ancient empires.
7. In line 23 “drilled” could best be replaced by
2. What is “excavation” in line 1? (A) built
(A) Dig (B) passed
(B) War (C) walked in
(C) Discovery (D) bored a hole
(D) Construction
8. The fourth paragraph contains information on
3. The pronoun “the other” in line 5 refers to (A) how Egyptians preserved the chambers for
(A) the body years
(B) this crypt (B) what kind of new technology was used to
(C) the second boat drill the chamber
(D) dead Egyptian pharaoh (C) how scientists reached to the second boat
in the chamber
4. Which of the following is true about the ancient (D) the scientists working on the project
crypt?
(A) It was built in Egypt in 1954. 9. The passage would probably be assigned
(B) Archeologists found an ancient boat inside reading in a course on
it. (A) Archeology
(C) The boat inside it was not preserved well. (B) Geography
(D) When the archeologists opened the crypt it (C) Literature
had been ruined. (D) Astronomy

5. It is implied in the passage that Egyptians 10. The author’s purpose in this passage is to
(A) had more than one religious customs about (A) explain the customs in ancient Egypt
death (B) blame scientists for destroying ancient art
(B) had no respect for their dead kings crafts
(C) buried their pharaohs with precious jewelry (C) enumerate examples of uncovered beauties
(D) were very skilled at woodworks of the past
(D) inform the readers about a new discovery
and its results
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 14
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY: SAVING LIVES WITH ROBOTICS


In most operating rooms today, there are two or three surgeons, an anesthesiologist, several nurses, and the
patient. All of these people are needed for even a simple surgery. In fact, most surgeries require about a
dozen people in the room. This, however, might possibly change in the very near future. Surgical robots may
replace several surgeons during one operation. In a few hospitals today, an operation needs only one surgeon,
5 a computer and a surgical robot. Looking even further into the future, the surgeon may not have to be there
at all!

Robotic surgery has many advantages. It can be less traumatic for the patient. For example, during traditional
heart surgery, the surgeon must open the patient’s chest in order to perform the operation. Often, the
opening, or incision, is about one foot (30cm) long. However, with the newest robotic surgery, called the da
10 Vinci system, it’s possible to make only three or four small incisions-about an inch (about two centimeters)
each-instead. Because the incisions are so much smaller, the patient experiences much less pain and bleeding.
As a result, he can recover much faster. The da Vinci system is also an improvement in another way. Robotic
surgery can be performed more quickly than traditional surgery, which means the surgeons are not so
exhausted when they are finished.

15 During the robotic surgery, the doctor controls the robotic “arms” using a computer. Currently, the doctor
must be in the operating room with the patient for the robotic systems to react instantly to the doctor’s hand
movements. However, the doctor does not have to be right next to the patient. In fact, he can actually be a
few feet away. With further developments in this technology, the doctor will be able to control the robot from
another room. When that becomes possible, it’s only a matter of time before the doctor does not have to
20 even be in the same hospital, or even the same state, as the patient. This would allow surgeons to perform
operations on patients miles away-even hundreds of miles.

Michael Troy strongly believes that the da Vinci robotic surgery system saved his life. He was a 22-year-old
college student when he learned that he had kidney cancer. The news was devastating. “I thought this was
the end for me,” Michael said. “Many doctors did not want to perform surgery on me because my cancer was
25 so severe. They would have to make a huge incision in my back in order to remove my kidney.” Then one of
Michael’s doctors suggested that Michael might have one other option. He sent Michael to see Dr. Fuentes at
Queens Memorial Hospital in Clemens, Missouri. Dr. Fuentes said to Michael, “I think I can save your kidney.”
At first, Michael did not believe the doctor. “Of course I was skeptical,” Michael says. Then Dr. Fuentes told
Michael about the da Vinci robot. Dr. Fuentes explained that in order to remove the cancer and save
30 Michael’s kidney, he would need four hands to get into the small area. However, the da Vinci robot, under Dr.
Fuentes’ control, could effectively perform the surgery making only small incisions to Michael’s body.

Dr. Fuentes showed Michael a video of the da Vinci system. “After I watched the video, I knew that this was
the best-maybe even the only- possible treatment for me.” A week later, Michael had the surgery. As
promised, Dr. Fuentes saved a larger part of Michael’s kidney, and removed the cancer. “This was all due to
35 the da Vinci system,” adds Michael. Today, Michael is a healthy college graduate. “I’m so grateful to Dr.
Fuentes for saving my life and my kidney,” says Michael. “I would recommend the da Vinci system, especially
because my tumor was so large. I didn’t want to lose a kidney at such a young age.”

Robotic surgery is still new technology. However, doctors believe there may be even more astonishing
technology in the operating rooms of the future: Robot surgeons. At Duke University in North Carolina in the
40 U.S., doctors and scientists are working to develop a robot that can perform surgery by itself. Dr. Steve Smith
of Duke University thinks that the technology could reduce the cost and time necessary to complete some
surgical procedures. “We keep giving the robot more and more complex tasks,” said Dr. Smith. “So far the
robot has been able to accomplish these tasks automatically.” Many doctors, including Dr. Smith, agree that it
will take about ten years before robot surgeons become a reality. Like most medical technology, in the
45 beginning it will likely be more expensive than using a human surgeon. Eventually, doctors hope that the life-
saving technology will become widely available and more affordable for all.

1. The paragraph preceding the passage probably 6. Which of the following is NOT stated about
discusses Michael Troy?
(A) how the operation rooms were in the past (A) He was young when he learnt he had
(B) the difficulties surgeons are often faced cancer.
with (B) He felt very pessimistic after he learnt he
(C) examples of surgeries in the past had cancer.
(D) doctor-patient relationship in general (C) He was convinced by his family to be
operated by the da Vinci robot.
2. The topic of the passage could best be (D) He had difficulty finding a doctor to operate
described as on him.
(A) overcoming cancer
(B) living long 7. The word “skeptical” in line 28 is closest in
(C) robot surgeons meaning to
(D) new discoveries in cancer treatment (A) curious
(B) nervous
3. What is “incision” in line 9? (C) ambitious
(A) Cut (D) suspicious
(B) Injury
(C) Operation 8. According to the sixth paragraph,
(D) Distance (A) robotic surgery is believed to decrease the
money and time needed for some surgical
4. What type of information is included in the procedures in the future
second paragraph? (B) many doctors believe that robot surgeons
(A) A definition will be real in a very short time
(B) An argument (C) the robot has had some problems about
(C) An illustration completing the given tasks so far
(D) A comparison (D) doctors in Duke University state that robotic
surgery will be available in only some parts
5. The pronoun “ that” in line 19 refers to of the U.S. in the future
(A) further developments in technology
(B) doctor’s controlling the surgical robot from 9. Where in the passage does the author make a
a distance comparison?
(C) doctor’s controlling the robotic arms using a (A) Lines 3-6
computer (B) Lines 11-14
(D) robotic system’s reacting instantly to the (C) Lines 19-21
doctor’s hand movements (D) Lines 44-46

10. The tone of the passage is


(A) cold
(B) critical
(C) outraged
(D) informative
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 15
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) MARS: OUR NEIGHBOR IN SPACE


Ever since people first looked up at the night sky, they have been fascinated by the planet Mars. When
scientists started using telescopes to try to see the Red Planet, they wondered if there could be life on Mars.
However, for hundreds of years, they could only ask questions. There was no way to actually travel to another
planet.

5 When space exploration began in the 1960s, many countries sent unmanned spacecraft to Mars to find out
everything they could about our nearest planetary neighbor in space. Unfortunately, only half were
successful. Twelve missions landed on the surface, but only seven sent information back to Earth.

In spite of the numerous failures, astronomers all over the world are hopeful as each Mars mission
approaches the Red Planet. For example, Mars Observer, an American spacecraft, was scheduled to move into
10 orbit around Mars and begin sending new information back to Earth. Mars Observer was going to study the
Martian atmosphere and surface. Unfortunately, scientists lost contact with Mars Observer, and the mission,
which cost $845 million, failed.

In contrast, the United States’ mission to Mars in 1996 was a great success. Mars Pathfinder sent back more
images of Mars than all the previous Mars missions combined. More recently, in 2007, the Mars
15 Reconnaissance Orbiter sent back to Earth more information than all other Mars missions put together. The
Phoenix Mars Lander, in 2008, returned an enormous amount of data as well.

What kinds of information did the successful Mars missions obtain? In 1976, the Viking spacecraft searched
for signs of life, but the tests that they performed had negative results. However, scientists wanted to
investigate further into the possibility of life on Mars. This was the purpose of the unsuccessful Mars Observer
20 mission in 1993.

Scientists’ interest in the Red Planet is based on an assumption. They believe that 4.5 billion years ago, Mars
and Earth began their existence under similar conditions. During the first billion years, liquid water-in contrast
to ice- was abundant on the surface of Mars. This is an indication that Mars was much warmer at that time.
Mars also had a thicker atmosphere of carbon dioxide (CO2). Many scientists think it is possible that life began
25 under these favorable conditions. After all, Earth had the same conditions during its first billion years, when
life arose. At some point in time, Earth developed an atmosphere that is rich in oxygen, and an ozone layer.
Ozone (O3) is a form of oxygen. The ozone layer protects Earth from harmful ultraviolet light from the sun.
While life not only began on Earth, it also survived and became more complex. In contrast, Mars lost its thick
atmosphere of carbon dioxide. Ultraviolet radiation intensified. The planet eventually grew colder, and its
30 water froze.

A biologist at NASA (the National Aeronautics and Space Administration), Chris McKay, has suggested three
theories about life on Mars. One possibility is that life never developed. A second possibility is that life arose
on Mars just as it did on Earth and survived for at least a billion years. The third is that life arose and simple
organisms developed. When environmental conditions on Mars changed, life ended.

35 Since the early missions, spacecraft have mapped the planet’s surface and have landed in better locations.
The spacecraft have searched for simple life forms (microorganisms) as well as for signs of water. To date,
none of the Mars missions has discovered any sure signs of past or present life. Nonetheless, scientists
worldwide are not discouraged. If life ever existed on Mars, they believe that future missions might find
records of it under sand, or in the ice. They are thrilled with the data they have obtained so far, and are
40 planning a number of missions in the future. These missions might include airplanes or balloons, which can
explore many different sites on the planet’s surface.

Even if future missions discover no evidence of past or present life on Mars, scientists will look for the
answers to other, intriguing questions. How is Earth different from Mars? Why did life develop here on our
planet and not on Mars? Are we alone in the universe?

1. Which of the following best states the subject 6. The pronoun “its” in line 25 refers to
of this passage? (A) Mars’s
(A) The spacecraft sent to Mars after 1960s (B) Earth’s
(B) The three theories about life on Mars (C) scientist’s
(C) The similarities between Mars and Earth (D) atmosphere’s
about four billion years ago 7. What does the pronoun “it” in line 39 refer to?
(D) Whether there is life on Mars or not has (A) Life
always been a subject of interest (B) Mars
2. The word “unmanned” in line 5 is closest in (C) Nasa
meaning to which of the following? (D) Possibility
(A) Uplifted 8. It is indicated in the eighth paragraph that
(B) Excursionary (A) it is hard to land on the surface of Mars
(C) High-tech because of its complex structure
(D) Remote-controlled (B) during some of the Mars missions, a few
3. In line 10, the word “orbit” could best be certain signs of life were discovered
described as (C) scientists hope to find evidence of life under
(A) way the water covering the surface of Mars
(B) path (D) future missions of Mars may be done by
(C) place airplanes or balloons
(D) moon 9. The paragraph following this passage most
4. How is the information in the fourth paragraph likely contains information on what?
related to the information in the third (A) The studies conducted by NASA to learn
paragraph? more about Mars
(A) It states contrasting real events to the one (B) Possible answers to the questions scientists
in the third paragraph. ask about Mars and our planet
(B) It presents an example of the ideas in the (C) The past Mars missions which were failed
third paragraph. due to several different reasons
(C) It follows chronologically from the ideas in (D) The atmosphere of Mars which was once
the third paragraph. considered to be rich in carbon dioxide
(D) It presents a hypothesis developed from 10. The author’s purpose in this passage is to
another in the third paragraph. (A) refute a theory
5. It can be inferred from the passage that (B) make a comparison
(A) about 4 billion years ago, Mars and Earth (C) warn the readers
had different conditions (D) present real information
(B) about 3 billion years ago, Mars’s surface
was covered with ice which can be an
indication of life on Mars
(C) when life arose on Earth billion years ago, it
had a thicker atmosphere of carbon dioxide
(D) the ozone layer in Mars’s atmosphere
protects it from harmful ultraviolet light
from the sun
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 16
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) LOTTERY WINNERS- RICH, BUT HAPPY?-


Every week, millions of dollars are spent, and won, on lottery tickets. The jackpot in many lotteries can be
as much as 100 million, and winners suddenly find themselves with more money than ever before. Many
will have enough to purchase as a new car, build a luxury house, take a holiday, and quit working- all
within a short amount of time. The lucky few who hit the jackpot, however, may end up with problems-
5 more than they had before they struck it rich.

Lottery organizers employ counselors to help jackpot winners. These counselors encourage winners to
get advice from financial experts such as accountants, about how best to invest their windfall. The
counselors also help winners to understand how their lives may change for the better- and possibly for
the worse. Luckily many jackpot winners manage their fortunes sensibly. Some winners, however, do not
10 use their money wisely and, as a result; end up in debt and struggling to make ends meet.

The biggest mistake many lottery winners make is overspending. A waiter who won $2 million in a
California lottery spent all of his winning shopping, having parties, and lending money to friends. A few
months after he won, he was broke and working as a sales clerk.

Being greedy is another way to invite trouble. In 1999, a woman from California was ordered to pay her
15 ex-husband her entire lottery winnings. She won a $1.3 million lottery jackpot eleven days before her
divorce from her husband was finalized. Under the state law, her spouse was entitled to half the
winnings. However, the woman didn’t tell her husband about the win, and used her mother’s address to
receive the money. Two years later, the divorced man received a letter for his wife from a lottery
winner’s advisory company. It was then that he discovered his wife’s secret win.

20 Another problem that many lottery winners often experience is unwanted attention from the public or
their colleagues at work. Many winners have to deal with letters or e-mail from strangers asking for
money. Other lottery winners who don’t immediately quit their jobs may find that their less affluent
colleagues expect them to pay for lunch all the time, or to loan them money.

Not all jackpot winners experience the same fate, though. A woman from south Wales who won over €7
25 million in the U.K.’s National Lottery gave €3 million of her winnings to family and friends. The biggest
luxury item she bought right after winning was a secondhand Porsche.

No matter how large the jackpot, there is always a risk that the money will run out if a winner overspends
and does not invest wisely. That is why he should get advice from some experts on how to spend his/her
money.
1. What is the author’s main point in the first 7. The word “mistake” in line 11 is closest in
paragraph? meaning to
(A) People who won the lottery usually quit (A) choice
working and live a luxurious life. (B) error
(B) People spend lots of money on lottery (C) change
tickets. (D) fortune
(C) People who won the lottery may be
unhappier than before. 8. What is the meaning of “affluent” in line 22?
(D) Lottery winners are never satisfied with (A) Dangerous
what they get. (B) Wealthy
(C) Close
2. The topic of the paragraph preceding the (D) Hardworking
passage most likely is about
(A) disadvantages of winning a lottery game 9. It can be inferred from the sixth paragraph that
(B) general information about lottery tickets (A) all winners spend their money carelessly
(C) lottery winners all around the world (B) U.K.’s National Lottery is worth €10 million
(D) how to be happy (C) women winners use their money better
than the men
3. What is the meaning of “purchase” in line 3? (D) U.K.’s National Lottery winner spent more
(A) Own than half of her money for herself
(B) Buy
(C) Drive 10. The last paragraph includes
(D) See (A) a presentation of an example of a lottery
winner’s bad fate
4. Which of the following is closest in meaning to (B) the description of the reasons why some
“hit” in line 4? lottery winners may not experience the
(A) Beat same bad fate
(B) Knew (C) a final comment about the result of a
(C) Won lottery winner’s spending his money
(D) Shot unwisely
(D) the writer’s advice on how to spend the
5. The pronoun “their” in line 8 refers to which of jackpot
the following?
(A) Winners’ 11. Which of the following is NOT one of the
(B) Counselors’ problems lottery winners may face?
(C) Accountants’ (A) Unwanted attention from the public
(D) Financial experts’ (B) Overspending
(C) Being greedy
6. It is stated in the second paragraph that lottery (D) Having bad luck
winners
(A) are employed by lottery organizers as 12. What is the tone of the passage?
accountants (A) Informational
(B) may get help from counselors to use their (B) Emotional
money properly (C) Humorous
(C) can easily understand the changes in their (D) Disinterested
lives
(D) pay their debts easily after they won the
lottery
13. What is the author’s purpose in this passage? 15. Which of the following is most likely the topic of
(A) To explain how to win the lottery the paragraph following the passage?
(B) To discuss the results of being greedy (A) The reasons why governments support
(C) To describe how to spend the money won lottery games
from the lottery (B) The luckiest lottery winners ever
(D) To introduce the problems lottery winners (C) The best ways to invest lottery winnings
may have (D) Favorite luxury items the winners buy

14. In which course would this reading be assigned? 16. Where in the passage does the author mention
(A) History the amount of money a woman from California
(B) Economics won from the lottery?
(C) Statistics (A) Lines 1- 2
(D) Social Studies (B) Line 11-12
(C) Line 15-16
(D) Line 24-25
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 17
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) HOW DO FIRST NAMES INFLUENCE OUR LIVES?


According to an article, some names happen to be more successful than others, some sound more
attractive, and some confer more luck. This may just be a statistical observation. The true psychology
behind names is far too personal to be generalized in this way.
However, if one is called Jesus (probably a Latin American), Abraham (probably a North American), or
5 Mohammed, chances are that they will feel closer to the religion associated to that name as if they had
had a non-religious name. So some names do have a psychological impact that can be somewhat
generalized, though individual mindset, culture and one's environment will influence this in various
ways, sometimes giving it a completely different direction as could have been expected.

The association of a famous person in history with one's name (especially if it is a not so common one) is
10 bound to have a psychological effect on the person, even unconsciously. It can also have an effect on
how other people see that person. Needless to say that a boy called Siegfried will evoke in other people
the legendary dragon slayer. This is because it is a very rare name nowadays, and that's the only
association most people will have with that name. On the other hand, Biblical names are so common
that a person called David has little chance of reminding first of King David, as opposed to say David
15 Beckham, David Bowie, or other modern celebrities.

Our image of the attractiveness or success linked to a name is highly influenced by family and
acquaintances and celebrities. Celebrities also include historical ones. It is hard to be called Louis/Lewis
without ever thinking about the kings of France.

The psychology of names is a complex matter that could be studied in one's whole lifetime. Ultimately,
20 the important thing is for each of us to understand what our name means to ourselves and people we
meet in the culture and society in which we live, and how the image reflected by others influences our
own image of ourselves.

1. What is the subject of this passage?


2. The paragraph preceding this passage most
(A) Psychological effects of names on people
probably discusses
(B) The reasons why some people want to change
(A) Latin American names
their names
(C) Why parents name their children after (B) research on names
celebrities (C) popular names for children
(D) How to choose a proper name for a child (D) the difficulty of naming a child
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the 8. What type of information is included in the last
passage about names? paragraph?
(A) Some names may be more successful than (A) A definition
others. (B) An example
(B) Their attractiveness is influenced by people we (C) A comparison
know. (D) An opinion
(C) Some names can be associated with Biblical
characters. 9. What is the tone of the passage?
(D) The meaning of names affects the way people (A) Humorous
behave. (B) Informational
(C) Descriptive
4. It is stated in the passage that the name Abraham is (D) Emotional
(A) a well-known historical name
(B) a Biblical name 10. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
(C) most likely a North American name (A) To enumerate examples of common names
(D) a legendary dragon slayer (B) To describe the advantages of having an
ordinary name
5. Which of the following is closest in meaning to (C) To discuss the impact of our names on us
“mindset” in line 7? (D) To blame parents for naming their children
(A) Feeling unconsciously
(B) Mentality
(C) Lifestyle 11. In which course would this reading be assigned?
(D) Comment (A) Psychology
(B) History
6. The word “evoke” in line 11 could be replaced by (C) Literature
which of the following? (D) Biology
(A) Resemble
(B) Refer 12. Where in the passage does the author mention the
(C) React effect of a historical name on a person?
(D) Remind (A) Lines 4-6
(B) Lines 10-12
7. The pronoun “ones” in line 17 refers to which of the (C) Lines 13-15
following? (D) Lines 19-22
(A) Kings
(B) Names
(C) Families
(D) Acquaintances
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 18
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) This month in Family Planning magazine, child psychologist Dr. Ethan Wood answers a question from
Andrea Gonzales who writes:

Q: Dear Dr. Wood,

My husband and I are facing a dilemma, namely the issue of whether to have a second child- we already
5 have one healthy, happy five-year-old daughter. Both of us have demanding jobs, and limited time and
financial resources, but we’re also very keen to ensure that our only child does not become a lonely
child. So, what are the pros and cons of having a second child?

A: Dear Andrea,

This is one of the most difficult issues that parents nowadays face. As you point out, a concern that is
10 often heard with regard to single children is whether one child necessarily means a lonely child. Many
single-child parents feel a stigma associated with their decision to have only one child. There are no
other children in the family for the child to associate with, and this may lead to the child feeling lonely at
times, especially during vacations.

Another common argument against having just one child is that an only child may be more spoiled than
15 one with siblings. Many people believe that a single child will not have learned to negotiate with others,
and respect the give-and-take involved in many relationships. Some think this may leave the child less
capable of interacting well with people his or her own age than one who has been raised with siblings.

Despite these arguments, the number of parents choosing to have only one child is increasing in many
parts of the world. In the U.S, for example, 14 percent of women between 18 and 34 plans to have just
20 one child, and this percentage is expected to rise. The same trend can be seen in the U.K. According to
the Family Policy Studies Center, the overall number of British children being born each year has
declined. In Japan, the average number of children born per family had declined to 1.42 by 1996, while
latest statistics cite less than one child. This has led to government concerns about supporting an
increasing population of elderly people in the future; it is predicted that, by 2020, a third of the
25 population in Japan will be aged 65 or over.

For some single-child parents, particularly those with busy careers, the pressures of devoting time and
energy to a second child can seem too overwhelming, resulting in them electing to have no more
children. For other parents, the financial burden of having a second child may be the prime
consideration.

1. With what is the author primarily concerned in all 2. What is the meaning of “stigma” in line 11?
paragraphs? (A) Power
(A) The difficulties of raising a child (B) Shame
(B) The dilemma of having just one child or not (C) Sadness
(C) The financial burden of having a second child (D) Difference
(D) The increasing percentage of families having one
child
3. The pronoun “their” in line 11 refers to which of the 9. What is the tone of the passage?
following? (A) Humorous
(A) Other families’ (B) Descriptive
(B) Single children’s (C) Exaggerated
(C) Other children’s (D) Informational
(D) Many single child parents’
10. In which course would this reading be assigned?
4. It is stated in the second paragraph that Mr. and (A) History
Mrs. Gonzales (B) Geography
(A) have two daughters (C) Psychology
(B) do not have any siblings (D) Culture Studies
(C) spend a lot of time at work
(D) are rich enough to have a second child 11. What is the author’s purpose in this passage?
(A) To present different points about having one
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the child
disadvantages of having just one child? (B) To make the reader aware of the problems of
(A) A single child might be more spoiled. having an only child
(B) The only child may feel lonely at special times. (C) To explain the role of financial resources for not
(C) A single child might be less successful in future. having a second child
(D) The only child may have difficulty in (D) To enumerate examples of some of the
communicating with other people. advantages of having one child

6. Which of the following is closest in meaning to 12. Which of the following is most likely the topic of the
“negotiate” in line 15? paragraph following the passage?
(A) Talk (A) The problems single-children may face in their
(B) Help careers
(C) Live (B) The psychology of the children who do not have
(D) Learn any siblings
(C) How financial resources affect parents to have
7. What is the meaning of “overwhelming” in line 27? only one child
(A) Late (D) The possible results of the increase in the
(B) Weird population of elderly people
(C) Frightening
(D) Unbearable 13. Where in the passage does the author compare the
only children with the ones who have siblings?
8. The last paragraph includes (A) Lines 9-10
(A) a discussion of whether to have a second child or (B) Lines 14-15
not (C) Lines 18-20
(B) an outline of the portrait of parents with busy (D) Lines 28-29
careers
(C) a description of the advantages of having an only
child
(D) a presentation of reasons of parents for not
having a second child
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 19
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) NORMAN COUSINS’ LAUGH THERAPY


In the summer of 1964, well-known writer and editor Norman Cousins became very ill. His body
ached and he felt constantly tired. It was difficult for him to even move around. He consulted his
physician, who did many tests. Eventually he was diagnosed as having ankylosing spondylitis, a very
serious and destructive form of arthritis. His doctor told him that he would become immobilized and
5 eventually die from the disease. He was told he had only a 1 in 500 chance of survival.
Despite the diagnosis, Cousins was determined to overcome the disease and survive. He had always
been interested in medicine and had read the work of organic chemist Hans Selye, The Stress of Life
(1956). This book discussed the idea of how body chemistry and health can be damaged by
emotional stress and negative attitudes. Selye's book made Cousins think about the possible
10 benefits of positive attitudes and emotions. He thought, "If negative emotions produce (negative)
changes in the body, wouldn't positive emotions produce positive chemical changes! Is it possible
that love, hope, faith, laughter, confidence, and the will to live have positive therapeutic value?"
He decided to concentrate on positive emotions as a remedy to heal some of the symptoms of his
ailment. In addition to his conventional medical treatment, he tried to put himself in situations that
15 would elicit positive emotions. "Laugh therapy" became part of his treatment. He scheduled time
each day for watching comedy films, reading humorous books, and doing other activities that would
bring about laughter and positive emotions. Within eight days of starting his "Iaugh therapy"
program, his pain began to decrease and he was able to sleep more easily. His body chemistry even
improved. Doctors were able to see an improvement in his condition! He was able to return to work
20 in a few months' time and actually reached complete recovery after a few years.
Skeptical readers may question the doctor's preliminary diagnosis, but Cousins believes his recovery
is the result of a mysterious mind-body interaction. His "Iaugh therapy" is a good example of one of
the many alternative, or nonconventional, medical treatments people look to today.

1. What is Norman Cousins’ job? 3. According to the passage, ankylosing spondylitis


(A) A writer and an editor is
(B) A doctor (A) diagnosed in 1 person out of 500
(C) A physician and a surgeon (B) a common illness
(D) A chemist (C) an unimportant ailment
(D) a damaging type of arthritis
2. Which of the following is NOT one of the things
Norman experienced during his illness? 4. What happens to a patient with ankylosing
(A) He had pains in his body. spondylitis?
(B) He was always exhausted. (A) He cannot move and he most often dies.
(C) He felt depressed. (B) He cannot eat and drink.
(D) He could barely move. (C) He cannot talk.
(D) He cannot see and hear.
5. What did Norman do after the diagnosis? 11. Which of the following could Norman NOT have
(A) He decided to become interested in done as a part of “Laugh therapy”?
medicine. (A) Sleeping more
(B) He consulted Hans Selye about his disease. (B) Reading comics
(C) He wanted to continue to live and fight the (C) Watching sitcoms
disease. (D) Meeting with his funny friends
(D) He developed a negative attitude towards
life. 12. The word “bring about” in line 17 means
(A) ignore
6. Which of the following is not true about the (B) deal
book “The Stress of Life”? (C) limit
(A) It helped many people to recover. (D) cause
(B) It is written by Hans Selye.
(C) It discusses the bad effects of emotional 13. After eight days of Laugh Therapy,
stress on health. (A) Norman started to have intense pains in his
(D) It affected Norman in a good way. body
(B) Norman’s body chemistry went bad
(C) Norman stopped working
7. Which of the following concepts may NOT help (D) Norman began to recover
a person recover, according to The Stress of
Life? 14. A skeptical person might
(A) Friendship (A) think that doctors’ initial diagnosis about
(B) Wealth Norman could have been wrong
(C) Trust (B) believe that Laugh Therapy is a fraud
(D) Success (C) claim Norman is lying
(D) make a detailed investigation about
8. After reading the book, Norman Norman’s life
(A) understood he would definitely die
(B) stopped receiving conventional treatment 15. Norman believes that his getting better
(C) could heal none of his symptoms (A) is a miracle
(D) focused on positive emotions (B) must not encourage other people to try
nonconventional treatments
9. The word “remedy” in line 13 is closest line (C) would not have been possible but for the
meaning to doctors
(A) operation (D) is a consequence of his mind’s positive
(B) surgery effects on his body
(C) cure
(D) drug 16. Which of the following can be an example of
nonconventional medical treatment?
10. Laugh therapy (A) Acupuncture
(A) is a conventional treatment (B) Cosmetic surgery
(B) is a proven treatment (C) Chemotherapy
(C) cannot be taken in addition to another (D) Physiotherapy
treatment
(D) includes everything that helps a person
laugh
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 20
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.
(Lines) LEECH
Leeches are a kind of worm from one millimeter to five centimeters long. They live all over the world.
In general, leeches live in lakes and rivers. There are 650 kinds of leeches in the world. Only one kind
is used in medicine. They are called medicinal leeches.

Medicinal leeches live on the blood of other animals. They have suckers at both ends; one for feeding
5 and one for holding on. Their saliva has three special chemicals that help them drink blood. One is an
anesthetic, which allows the leech to feed without hurting the animal. The second chemical makes
the veins open wide, and the third makes the blood flow from the veins for a long time.

A medicinal leech will drink 10 to 15 milliliters of blood at one time. This takes about 45 minutes.
After the leech is full, it falls off. The bite will still bleed for another 24 hours because of the
10 chemicals from its saliva.

Leeches have been used in medicine for over 3,000 years. Leeches were most popular in Europe in
the early 1800s. At this time, people thought that too much blood in a person's body made the
person sick. Doctors put three or four leeches (or sometimes up to 50 or 60 leeches!) on a patient's
body. The leeches took out the extra blood. Leeches were used to cure many illnesses, from fevers to
15 broken legs.

Unfortunately, leeches often hurt more than they healed. For example, the Russian writer Nikolai
Gogol was leeched because he had anemia, an illness caused by too little blood. He died a few days
later. George Washington had a sore throat. He was leeched four times in two days. He too died a
few days later. By the mid-1850s, people began to understand some of the problems with leeching,
20 and it became unpopular.

Today, doctors know more about leeches. They know when to use them and why. They understand
that the chemicals in the leech saliva make leeches very useful in medicine. For this reason, the
United States made it legal in 2004 to use leeches in reattachment surgeries.

Until now, reattachment surgeries often failed. Take the example of a reattached finger. After
25 surgery, the finger often becomes swollen with blood and the veins can't grow back together. The
finger soon dies. Leeches take away this extra blood in two ways. One, they drink some of the blood
from the finger. This only removes a spoonful of blood, however. The second way leeches remove
this blood is the most important. Because of the chemicals in the leech saliva, the bite continues to
bleed for hours and hours after the leech falls off. With one or two leeches put on the finger twice a
30 day for 4-5 days, the swelling will go away completely. With the swelling gone, the veins can grow
back together and the finger lives. Doctors agree that leeches work better than anything else for this
problem with reattachment surgeries. There might be other medical uses for leeches too. For
instance, some doctors use leeches to treat patients with heart disease or knee and elbow pain.

1. What is NOT mentioned in the first paragraph


2. Which of the following is true about a medicinal
about leeches?
leech?
(A) What their size is
(A) It is rarely found in nature today.
(B) Where they generally live
(B) It helps other animals drink blood.
(C) Why leeches are risky to use
(C) Its suckers are located in the middle of its
(D) How many kinds of leeches are in the world
body.
(D) Its saliva performs a variety of tasks.
3. It can be inferred from the passage that if a 9. It can be inferred from the passage that doctors
medicinal leech’s saliva didn’t produce an in the past
anesthetic, animals being leeched would (A) refused to accept the fact that leeches
(A) attack the leech could cure people of their illnesses
(B) feel pain (B) would never believe they were going to use
(C) die leeches one day
(D) loose too much blood (C) couldn’t get the chance to test leeches’
chemicals
4. The word “flow” in line 7 is closest in meaning (D) didn’t know as much about leeches as they
to do today
(A) move continuously
(B) spill suddenly 10. The pronoun “it” in line 23 refers to
(C) react calmly (A) this reason
(D) consume reasonably (B) using leeches
(C) 2004
5. How long would it probably take for a leech to (D) medicine
drink 90 to 95 milliliters of blood if it were
possible to do so? 11. The word “swollen” in line 25 means
(A) More than one day (A) larger than usual
(B) Nearly 7 hours (B) darker in color
(C) Not more than 5 hours (C) injured severely
(D) At least 600 minutes (D) covered with blood

6. It is stated in the passage that in the past 12. Why is the second way of leeching more
people used to believe that an excessive important than the first one?
amount of blood in the body (A) Because it helps the leech fall off more
(A) meant bad luck quickly
(B) was a desired condition (B) Because it hurts less
(C) made the heart beat faster (C) Because it lasts longer
(D) caused illnesses (D) Because it removes a lot more blood

7. Leeching lost its popularity because 13. We can infer from the passage that the bigger
(A) people died after being leeched the swelling on a reattached finger is,
(B) Nikolai Gogol discredited leeching in his (A) the fewer leeches doctors need
books (B) the less likely it is for the finger to live
(C) research showed that leeching was (C) the longer the patient has to be leeched
hazardous (D) the harder it is for veins to grow back
(D) doctors claimed it caused anemia together

8. With what are the fourth and fifth paragraphs 14. According to the passage, which of the
primarily concerned? following illnesses can NOT be cured by
(A) Leech Biology leeching?
(B) Medicinal properties of leeches (A) Heart disease
(C) History of leeching (B) Kidney failures
(D) Science and leeches (C) Aching knees
(D) Painful elbows
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 21
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) KEEPING YOUR CONFIDENCE UP


By Dennis O’Grady
(from Taking the Fear Out of Changing )

Success seeks to help you become more accepting of your genuine strengths. Self-approval
unleashes your best traits to be expressed in your work and family life, and in the world. How can
you learn to accept your successes without panicking? Here are some practical ways to learn to
celebrate all of your SUCCESSES.

5 SELF-ESTEEM. Being a genuine achiever means you acknowledge your strengths, hunt for
your secret talents, and give your best to the world without being a braggart.
Build Self-Confidence: Learn from your failures.
UNDERSTANDING. Achievement means you are an intense person who expresses who you
really are while staying open to growing and changing each and every day.
10 Build Self-Confidence: Thrive on responsibility.
CHILD DRIVE. You pay attention to inner urges that speak to you about what work you love
to do and what insights you have to give the world.
Build Self-Confidence: Make work fun.
CURIOSITY. You talk, talk, and talk some more to people to find out what makes them tick.
15 You soak up information like a sunbather taking in sunshine.
Build Self-Confidence: Take good advice.
ENERGY. You maximize your energy by eating, sleeping, exercising, and working in
recognition of your own special rhythms. You do what makes you feel most alive.
Build Self-Confidence: Keep your energy high.
20 SET GOALS. You dignify life with long-term goals and mark your progression toward them.
Build Self-Confidence: Choose commitment.
STAY FOCUSED. You intensely focus single-mindedly on the most important tasks to
accomplish, and you say, "No way!" to nifty distractions.
Build Self-Confidence: Accept self-discipline.
25 ERRORS. You make errors every day and know that if you aren't failing at least once a day
then you aren't succeeding. You try again to hit the mark after you've missed it.
Build Self-Confidence: Never accept failure as a permanent state.
SATISFACTION. You endorse yourself for your wins, follow a consistent set of values, and
take humble pride in all of your accomplishments.
30 Build Self-Confidence: Feel gratified.

Permit yourself to be a genuine achiever instead of an impostor. Real people aren't impostors-we
are the genuine article. Take the risk, and be the real McCoy!
1. What is the text mainly about? 8. Which of the following best expresses the
(A) Learning from failures essential information in this sentence from the
(B) Setting goals for success passage?
(C) Success through risk-taking “Achievement means you are an intense
(D) How to be successful person who expresses who you really are while
staying open to growing and changing each
2. The word “thrive” in line 10 is closest in and every day.”
meaning to (A) Constantly changing who you are will make
(A) survive you successful.
(B) grow (B) Believe in yourself, and you will accomplish
(C) build what you want.
(D) depend (C) Passionate people get what they want by
stating their views.
3. In paragraph 4, the author suggests that (D) Be true to yourself, but try to improve, and
(A) we should try not to act like children you will succeed.
(B) we must only respond to our inner urges
(C) we should follow our youthful impulses 9. All of the following are recommendations for
(D) we can only teach others when we are older success EXCEPT
(A) celebrate your success
4. According to paragraph 5, if you ask questions (B) acknowledge your strengths
(A) you will become curious (C) hunt for your secret talents
(B) people will talk a lot (D) do not make mistakes
(C) you will learn more
(D) people will listen to you 10. Which of the following best describes the
author's presentation of information in the
5. Which of the following statements about failure passage?
can be inferred from paragraph 9? (A) The author describes problems related to
(A) Failure can be avoided. success.
(B) Failure prevents you from succeeding. (B) The author explains ways to be successful.
(C) It is difficult to try again after failing. (C) The author discusses the effects of success.
(D) You learn when you fail. (D) The author compares various methods for
success.
6. The word “endorse” in line 28 is closest in
meaning to
(A) thank
(B) approve of
(C) focus on
(D) analyze

7. The pronoun “we” in line 31 refers to


(A) achievers
(B) impostors
(C) articles
(D) real people
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 22
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) There are two main types of government, two main systems of governing in the world. Under the unitary
system, which is also called the national government, the central government has a great deal of control
over the regional and local governments. For example, the central government may completely control the
budgets of the provinces, the states, and departments, whatever the political subdivisions are called. The
5 national president may appoint the governors of these regional units. Actually, most of the national
governments in the world are of this type.

The other type, the other system of government is the federal system. Under this system, the constituents
of the nation have a great deal of power. Only about twenty-four nations in the world are considered to
have federal systems. The oldest one of these is the United States. The reason that the U.S. has a federal
10 system is because of its history. Before independence, the thirteen British colonies were ruled separately.
People from the colony of Virginia, for example, considered themselves Virginians, not Americans. After the
Revolutionary War, the former colonies guarded their own independence. When the states signed the
Constitution, they surrendered some of their sovereign powers. But, according to the Constitution, powers
that are not given directly to the federal government belong to the state governments. There may be a few
15 countries that have an equally decentralized system. Switzerland has states called cantons in Swiss, which
have a great deal of power similar to the Canadian provinces. France has always had a very centralized
system of government, Paris controlling everything in a traditional way. In the United Kingdom, local
governments have a fair amount of power, but there is nothing comparable to state governments. Britain is
divided into regions, but these regions have no real governments to mention.

20 Compared to most political units around the world, the U.S. states are pretty powerful. What kind of
powers do the states have? They collect taxes, regulate businesses that operate within the state, issue
licenses, like drivers’ licenses, marriage licenses, and build roads. They’re also involved in education, mostly
with higher education. All the states operate a state university system. On the other hand, elementary and
secondary schools are mostly controlled by local school boards.

25 The structure of the federal government and the rules for operating the federal government are
determined by the U.S. Constitution. Likewise, each state has its own constitution that determines its
structure. Massachusetts has the oldest constitution; in fact, it’s older than the national constitution. It has
been changed some since it was adopted in 1780, but really the same document.

Federal government is divided into three branches: executive, legislative, and judicial. The same is true of
30 the states. The chief of the executive branch is called the governor. The governor is elected for a four-year
term. In about half the states, the governor can serve only two terms, in about half he can serve as many as
he wants. In one state—Virginia—the governor can only serve one term.

The state legislatures serve the same purpose as the U.S. Congress. Members of the legislature are elected.
They make laws, set tax rates, and in all of the states except Oregon, they can impeach, i.e., they can throw
35 out the governor. Like the U.S. Congress, state legislatures have a bicameral structure. This means they are
divided into two bodies, two houses. The upper house is called the state senate; the lower one has different
names, depending on the state. The only exception is Nebraska with just one house. That’s why it has a
unicameral system.

State supreme courts, which represent the judicial branch, interpret the state constitution like the U.S.
40 Supreme Court does and try various cases. In some states, they are elected, in some states they are
appointed by the governor or the legislature. In most states, they serve terms of 8 to 10 years, but in Rhode
Island, they’re appointed for life.
1. What is the passage mainly about? 6. The word “regulate” in line 21 is closest in
(A) General information about unitary and meaning to
federal governing systems (A) divide
(B) Different federal governments in the US. (B) disturb
(C) Legislative and judicial branches of the (C) distinguish
state governments (D) manage
(D) The difference between national and
federal governments. 7. According to the passage, which of the
following is mainly responsible for primary
2. The word “constituents” in line 7 is closest in and secondary education in the United
meaning to States?
(A) details (A) The federal government
(B) parts (B) Local governments
(C) capacities (C) State governments
(D) subjects (D) Private, nongovernmental agencies

3. What is true about the unitary system of 8. What can be inferred about the constitution
government? In Massachusetts?
(A) It involves a single, powerful leader. (A) It has a unicameral system.
(B) It features a government with only one (B) It doesn’t determine its own structure.
branch. (C) It was written before the US. Constitution.
(C) It involves a powerful central government. (D) It rules the federal government.
(D) It features a legislature with one but not
two houses. 9. What is the maximum time that a governor of
Virginia can serve?
4. The pronoun “these” in line 9 refers to (A) Two years
(A) federal systems (B) Four years
(B) the constituent systems (C) Eight years
(C) the British colonies (D) As many years as he or she wants
(D) countries
10. The pronoun “one” in line 36 refers to
5. According to the passage, what can be said (A) a bicameral structure
about Switzerland? (B) the senate
(A) Like Britain and France, it has a unitary (C) a house
form of government. (D) the state
(B) Its government served as a model for the
government of the United States. 11. What is unique about the state legislature of
(C) It has the oldest federalist system of Nebraska?
government in the world. (A) It has a single house, and only one body.
(D) Like the United States and Canada, it has a (B) It lacks the power to impeach the
federalist government. governor.
(C) It is the only legislature that appoints
Supreme Court justices.
(D) It is appointed, not elected.
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 23
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) American parents today are faced with a stark choice. The country's public schools are becoming more
crowded, more violent, and less effective in preparing children for employment or college. Private schools
may be too expensive or unavailable. To ensure that they provide their children an adequate education,
an increasing number of parents are simply teaching their children at home. While homeschooling offers
5 many benefits to both child and parent, its three most important advantages are its flexibility of
curriculum, its adaptability to different learning styles and speeds, and its more positive, supportive social
environment.

If, for example, the child is interested in dinosaurs, that subject could be used to teach scientific concepts
in geology, biology, or even history. Moreover, in the home environment, there is plenty of room for
10 spontaneous debates, field trips, and other learning experiences like lengthy exams that classroom
logistics make difficult, expensive, or challenging. Homeschooling puts the child's natural curiosity to use,
limited only by the imaginations of the child and parent.

Children can move through the material at a rate that challenges them positively. In the conventional
classroom, most lessons are aimed at the middle level of ability. Thus, some students are rushed along
15 much faster than is optimal, or faster than necessary for satisfactory results, while others yawn or find
distractions because the pace is too slow. Nor can a teacher pay much attention to any single student in a
classroom of 30 or discover how individual students learn best. But the parent at home, who knows the
child better than any teacher, can readily make adjustments to content, teaching strategy, or pace, as the
child requires.

20 The final important advantage of homeschooling lies in the socialization children are able to receive.
Homeschooled children are less subject to the stresses and pressures experienced by conventional
students who spend six, seven, or eight hours a day with their peers. They are less likely to become
involved with gangs or drugs. On the other hand, homeschooled children spend much more time in the
company of appropriate role models: parents, other adults, and older siblings. In this environment, they
25 are better able to learn from actual life situations, and how to interact with people of all ages. In
particular, homeschooling fosters healthy family relationships because both children and their parents are
able to play larger and more complete roles in one another's lives.

If both parents work out of the home, care must be found for young children while the parents are away.
Indeed, working parents may be unable to find the time to provide schooling for their children at all, and
30 hiring a tutor to fill that role is an expensive proposition. Second, parents may be attacked for choosing
what many people feel is an antisocial or elitist option-for thinking that their children are better than
anyone else's, for refusing to participate in an important social institution, or even for trying to destroy
public schools by depriving them of students and funding. Third, not all parents will be comfortable in the
role of teacher. They may not have the patience required, the basic knowledge of the material, or the
35 energy to encourage and motivate their children when necessary.

Homeschooling is not a panacea for the institutional deficiencies found in American public schools; these
can only be addressed through a large-scale restructuring of public education policies nationwide.
Nevertheless, homeschooling offers a number of significant advantages to parents and children. And it
works. Homeschooled children, on average, place in the 87th percentile on standardized exams-the
40 national average is the 50th percentile-and have been admitted to all major universities and military
academies in the country. Clearly, homeschooling is a serious, positive alternative for motivated parents
and their children.
1. What is the passage mainly about? 7. Which of the following is mentioned as a
(A) The advantages of homeschooling problem with today's public schools?
(B) The needs of children (A) They raise students to be gang members.
(C) Financing children’s education (B) They overly emphasize the importance of
(D) The importance of education standardized exams.
2. The pronoun “they” in line 3 refers to (C) They have too many students and are very
(A) private schools distracting.
(B) an increasing number of parents (D) They structure their lessons for children at
(C) public schools the lowest level of ability.
(D) three most important advantages 8. The pronoun “they” in line 22 refers to
3. According to the passage, one of the benefıts of (A) conventional students
homeschooling is that the environment (B) stresses and pressures
(A) enables children to develop skills that will (C) peers
make them good parents (D) homeschooled children
(B) prepares students for being self-directed 9. According to the passage which of the following
members of the workforce is NOT one of the drawbacks of
(C) gives the child ready access to books and homeschooling?
other educational materials (A) Parents may be too busy to find time to
(D) provides more flexibility in the choice of teach their children.
learning activities (B) Parents may lack the necessary knowledge
4. According to paragraph 2, which of the to educate their children.
following is NOT discussed as an advantage of (C) Other people can criticize parents for being
homeschooling in terms of logistics? anti-social.
(A) Casual discussions (D) Grading success properly might create
(B) Long tests confusions
(C) Expeditions 10. The word “panacea” in line 36 is closest in
(D) Historical presentations meaning to
5. The word “conventional” in line 13 is closest in (A) reason
meaning to (B) solution
(A) traditional (C) consequence
(B) scientific (D) explanation
(C) up-to-date 11. What could be the best title for this text?
(D) serious (A) Best Homeschooling Methods
6. The author’s description of a parent’s (B) The Best for Our Children
homeschooling role mentions the importance (C) How to Teach People
of parents (D) Materials in Homeschooling
(A) being trained to use appropriate teaching 12. In which course can this subject be taught?
methods (A) Psychology
(B) challenging children to work at increasingly (B) Anthropology
higher levels (C) Education
(C) modifying the instruction to suit the needs (D) Medieval Languages
of the child 13. How is the author’s tone in this passage?
(D) providing alternative opportunities for (A) Neutral
children to interact with their peers (B) Supportive
(C) Criticizing
(D) Sarcastic
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 24
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) The difference between the words college and university depend very much upon where you live. In many
cases, in the US, a college refers to a four year advanced education only, and an institution which does not have
the accreditation to offer more than a bachelor’s degree. College may also be restricted by its modifiers. For
example, a technical college may offer Associate of Arts degrees or certification in certain fields only. A junior
5 college or community college also offers a variety of A.A. degrees and certification programs.

Traditionally, the term college applied to a part of a university. Large universities may be split into colleges or
departments that offer different degrees. In a sense, the university unified different colleges. The University of
California, Berkeley, for instance, has colleges of music, science, law, and liberal arts, to name a few. Deans or
heads of the college oversee each college, but the ability to grant degrees is through the overhead university.
10 Most large universities also offer advanced degrees like PhDs and Master’s degrees. A four-year college, not
attached to a university may only offer bachelor’s degrees.

The reason that college was first used in the US is because institutions established for higher education were
very small ones not approaching the grandeur of European, and particularly English universities like Oxford.
Men, and at first only men, could attend some of the early colleges like Harvard College, but could not get
15 advanced doctorate degrees unless they studied abroad.

As colleges like Harvard College grew, some changed the word "college" in their names to “university” to reflect
that they now offered advanced degrees and numerous fields of study. Some other colleges representing the
oldest in the US, clung to the old name of college, even as they expanded and offered advanced degrees.
Another term that may be synonymous with university or college is institute (lots of people mix it up with the
20 term, institution which has a totally different meaning), which also may have the power to grant advanced
degrees. In the UK, the term college almost always means a section of a school offering a particular type of
study that is part of a larger university.

The terms college and university may be synonymous, or may be used as a way of granting higher stature to an
institute of higher learning. In California, there are three public degree-granting systems. The first includes the
25 numerous state community or junior colleges. The next is the California State University System (CSU), and the
last the University of California system (UC). At their inception, CSUs were called state colleges but in 1982 they
were designated as universities. The UC system, on the other hand, grants doctorates and medical degrees, and
is associated with more research and larger attendance. In this way, the UC system may be considered to be
more of a university because it has more of the features of a university. Most students attempt to get into a UC
30 over a state university because the UCs are considered truer universities.

Many institutions in the CSU system are excellent, and have wonderful education programs. Each CSU is broken
into “schools” and offers a number of degrees. However, the UC system has higher stature, generally costs
more, and is associated with more recognizable (i.e., published) professors. Even though a CSU is technically a
university, it is sometimes called a college to distinguish it from the UC system.

35 In other countries, a college may not even be an institute of higher learning. In places like Hong Kong, New
Zealand, South Africa, and Ireland, secondary schools may be called colleges. College in Canada tends to mean
Junior College or certificate colleges that offer training in trades. In France, college normally means junior high
or middle school. Thus definition of college will depend upon where one goes. It may be synonymous with
university, a part of university, a junior college, high school, trade school or junior high. Where you live will
40 determine just how much a college actually differs from a university.
1. The passage is mainly about 6. The word “inception” in line 26 is closest in
(A) the meaning of colleges and their equals in meaning to
other countries (A) beginning
(B) basic conceptual differences between (B) process
college and university (C) period
(C) the reasons why colleges and universities (D) difficulty
were founded
(D) basic types of colleges in the United States 7. Which of the following is true about the UC
system?
2. The word “unified” in line 7 is closest in (A) It is more affordable especially compared to
meaning to CSU system.
(A) prepared (B) It employs less-known professors and
(B) founded lecturers.
(C) simplified (C) It is closer to the concept of universities
(D) combined than CSU system.
(D) It promotes research in just one field of
3. What is the fundamental reason behind the study
foundation of universities in the US?
(A) To match the magnificence of European 8. Which of the following is true about the
universities variations in the concept of college in other
(B) To compete with the colleges in a more countries?
effective way (A) In Ireland and South Africa, colleges only
(C) To provide better education for bachelor give education in commerce.
degrees (B) France and Canada have the similar types of
(D) To bring up influential people for the colleges equal to universities.
country (C) In Hong Kong, only colleges provide higher
education.
4. The pronoun “they” in line 18 refers to (D) In New Zealand, secondary schools are also
(A) names given the name “college”.
(B) colleges
(C) degrees 9. Where in the passage does the author mention
(D) fields of study a gender bias in colleges?
(A) Lines 6-9
5. According to the passage which of the following (B) Lines 14-15
is NOT one of the names given to schools that (C) Lines 21-22
provide a particular type of study? (D) Lines 38-40
(A) College
(B) University 10. What is the tone of the passage?
(C) Institution (A) Informative
(D) Institute (B) Critical
(C) Praising
(D) Cynical
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 25
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) WHOSE CONTINENT IS IT ANYWAY?


500 million years ago, Antarctica was located on the equator, a hot climate surrounded by life in the shallow
seas of its continental shelf. Over the next 140 million years, the continent drifted south, becoming centered
on the South Pole, where it has remained since. Despite its location, most of the time, Antarctica has been a
relatively warm continent, even becoming a hot desert for tens of millions of years. About 40 million years
5 ago, the supercontinent, Gondwana, which Antarctica was a part of, started breaking up. This allowed cold
water to build and circulate around the southern continent, displacing the warm north-south currents that
previously made the area warm. Over millions of years, glaciers began to form, covering it 15 million years
ago. It was only 6 million years ago that the ice caps reached their present extent - 98 % of the continent.

The contemporary Antarctic flora is mostly sustained by the continent’s meager flora, which grows only
10 during the summer, and usually for just a few weeks. The majority of the plants are the same ones that first
evolved to live on the land -non-vascular plants like mosses and liverworts. Numerous microorganisms make
up the majority of all photosynthetic organisms on the continent. In all, Antarctica contains about 200
species of lichens, 50 non-vascular plants, and just a couple of flowering plants, and Antarctic hair grass.

At present, most Antarctic animals are tiny invertebrates, such as microscopic mites, lice, rotifers and
15 springtails. The largest terrestrial member of the Antarctic animals is a flightless midge -a very small fly- just
12 millimeters in size. The body fluids of many of these insects contain glycerol -antifreeze that allows them
to survive at temperatures as low as -34°C. The animals and their larvae have a number of other adaptations
to survive in Antarctica, including the tendency to bunch together and the ability to survive without oxygen
for weeks. Some of their larvae are a dark blue-black color, thought to help absorb heat and block out
20 ultraviolet radiation caused by the ozone hole.

The newest of the Antarctic animals is human beings, whose population numbers as great as 4,000 during
summer, when researchers come to do field work and bring their families along. About 70 research bases are
maintained, producing substantial scientific returns for the investment required to ship in supplies. Some of
the biggest draws for researchers are unique fossils found on the slopes of its mountains, the McMurdo Dry
25 Valleys, gravel valleys in the Antarctic interior and light pollution free Antarctic high country, used as a site
for telescopes and neutrino observatories, and Lake Vostok, a sub-glacial lake that has been sealed under the
ice-cap for more than a million years.

1. What is the main point discussed in the text? 3. It is stated in the first paragraph that Antarctica
(A) Antarctica’s topographical features (A) is currently surrounded by shallow seas
(B) Antarctica’s features in prehistoric times (B) was inhabited by Australian aborigines
(C) Antarctica’s formation and its inhabitants (C) took its final position 140 years ago
(D) Interaction among humans, plants and animals (D) had a different climate from today

2. The word “drifted” in line 2 could be best replaced 4. The pronoun “it” in line 7 refers to
by (A) present extent
(A) traced (B) cold water
(B) moved (C) north-south current
(C) staggered (D) the area
(D) connected
5. It is mentioned in the text that with the separation 10. Which of the following is NOT required for an
of Antarctica from Gondwana, animal to be able to live through the harsh
(A) the inhabitants of the continents had to sail conditions of Antarctica?
north (A) The color of some larvae’s skin stops ultraviolet
(B) the southern continent moved closer to the radiation.
north (B) The color of some animals’ skin gives out heat.
(C) north-south currents became cold and icy (C) Animals live close to one another.
(D) the movement of the currents changed (D) Some animals have dark colors.

6. Which of the following is true according to the 11. The word “draws” in line 24 means
passage? (A) scores
(A) Today only 2% of the continent is habitable. (B) downsides
(B) Plants in Antarctica grow all year round. (C) countries
(C) It took 15 million years to form glaciers on (D) attractions
Antarctica.
(D) The reason why Antarctica separated from 12. According to the last paragraph,
Gondwana was earthquakes. (A) the population of the continent doubles in
summer
(B) researchers also take their families with them
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the plants in to Antarctica
Antarctica? (C) most of the research bases are funded by
(A) Hair grass various governments
(B) Synthesis (D) tourists continue coming to Antarctica not only
(C) Mosses in summer, but also in winter
(D) Lichen
13. It is stated in the passage that
8. The phrase “make up” in lines 11-12 can be best (A) Lake Vostok has been enclosed below the ice-
replaced by cap
(A) protect (B) gravel valleys are close to the observatories
(B) change (C) the level of pollution of the Antarctic high
(C) form country is on the increase
(D) wrap (D) telescopes and neutrino observatories are
placed on the coastal areas
9. According to the passage, glycerol that is present in
insects 14. Where in the passage does the author mention
(A) keeps them warm enough to fight the extreme Antarctica’s fauna?
cold (A) Paragraph 1
(B) helps them stay alive without feeding for a long (B) Paragraph 2
time (C) Paragraph 3
(C) enables them to move freely since it blocks (D) Paragraph 4
certain odors
(D) decreases their body temperature so that they
can survive
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 26
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) A MESSENGER FROM THE PAST


Numerous human civilizations existed before the dawn of recorded history, and even some recent societies
left little record of their beliefs, histories or lifestyles. Writing was only invented in 5000 BCE, and even then,
few people were literate and archival methods were very poor. Therefore, information of about 99 % of the
human history can only be retrieved through the study of artifacts and fossils. All civilizations leave behind
5 physical evidence, including structures, waste from cities or agricultural areas, or burial items such as a
precious jewelry. Archeological methods have been refined over the decades to uncover as much data as
possible about the societies that left this evidence.

The archeological methods used in a given instance mostly depend on the location of the site. For sites
within modern cities, for example, urban archeology is employed. This involves disturbing the surrounding
10 businesses and homes as little as possible, and coordinating efforts with city governments to protect the site
during survey and excavation. If a site is in imminent danger of being destroyed by development,
archeologists will use a more rapid method called rescue archeology.

Archeologists will often examine a likely site through aerial or satellite photography, which can reveal
patterns or structures not evident from the ground level. Further examination may involve ground
15 penetrating radar, electrical sensors, and magnetic devices such as metal detectors. The method for
unearthing a buried site is called excavation; unfortunately, this has the effect of destroying the site. Since so
much important information involves the physical location of artifacts, archeologists will only start
excavations after other methods of gathering information have been exhausted. For example, DNA testing of
existing local populations can provide information about whether an ancient society died out, migrated or
20 remained in place.

Excavation has its own set of well-defined archeological methods. Archeologists will first create a grid and a
detailed map called a site plan so that every artifact’s location can be precisely documented. An object’s
depth within various layers of soil can reveal its age, a process called stratification. Items can also be
identified by the existence of similar objects, a method called typology, or by a chemical analysis of its age
25 called radiocarbon dating. Specialized methods such as underwater archeology, urban archeology and rescue
archeology are applied for sites in unusual locations. Underwater archeology requires scientists to be
familiar with diving and submersible gear, as well as the effects of water on soil and artifacts.

1. What is the main idea discussed in the passage? 2. It is understood from the first paragraph that only
(A) Why archeological studies are conducted a little information on the history of mankind can
(B) How archeological studies affect society be accessed because
(C) Archeological methods and their process (A) written documents were rare
(D) Archeologists and the difficulties they face (B) they are still waiting to be uncovered
(C) the study of artifacts and fossils is not enough
(D) discovered materials cannot be properly
understood
3. Which of the following can NOT be one of the 10. Which of the following is true according to the
remains of ancient civilizations? passage?
(A) A golden necklace (A) So long as the archeology team has
(B) A part of a building permission, they can extend the area of the
(C) Trash from crop fields excavation.
(D) Ancient maps on papyrus (B) With the help of genetic remains, the roots of
the people living in that area can be
4. According to the second paragraph what is the compared.
most important thing when choosing an (C) Unless all the physical features of artifacts are
archeological method? determined, it is impossible to comment on
(A) Funding their age.
(B) The team (D) If the ancient people are found to have
(C) The place migrated, the excavation area can be moved
(D) The government to another place.

5. The word “employed” in line 9 can be best 11. Which of the following deals with the layers of
replaced by earth?
(A) compromised (A) Radiocarbon dating
(B) performed (B) Urban archeology
(C) observed (C) Stratification
(D) hired (D) Typology

6. It is stated in the passage that rescue archeology 12. The word “gear” in line 27 means
is preferred when (A) equipment
(A) there is a risk of a natural disaster (B) knowledge
(B) the site is to going be used as an agricultural (C) approach
area (D) reserves
(C) the improvement of a place is likely to harm
the site 13. What is the tone of the author of the passage?
(D) the site is under the danger of smuggling (A) Humiliating
historical artifacts (B) Explanatory
(C) Humorous
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the (D) Cynical
instruments used for archeological examination?
(A) Radars 14. In which course can this passage be assigned?
(B) Magnets (A) Topography
(C) Metal detectors (B) Sociology
(D) Satellite photography (C) Land Economy
(D) History
8. According to the passage what is the drawback of
digging a site?
(A) Working for long hours under the sun
(B) The mistakes of inexperienced staff
(C) Destroying the flora
(D) Damaging the site

9. The word “exhausted” in line 18 is closest in


meaning to
(A) used
(B) tired
(C) fatigued
(D) prevented
TOEFL READING PRACTICE 27
Read the passage below and fill in the letter of the best answer.

(Lines) IS TIME TRAVEL POSSIBLE?


One of the hardest questions for humans to answer has been where the universe came from. This has been a
matter of controversy, both philosophically and scientifically. Most cultures have traditional stories, called
creation myths, about how the world began. These have great value in each culture, but they are not based on
scientific observation. The Hopi people of the southwestern US say a Spider Woman and a Sun God created all
5 that exists. The Norse people of Europe believed that a shapeless world, stuck between fire and ice, eventually
took shape as the gods fought to control it.

Many religions, including Christianity, Judaism, and Islam, say that a supreme being is the creator of the
universe. Before God made the universe, there was nothing except God. One day God will eliminate the
universe, leaving the same nothingness that existed before its creation. The explanations of these monotheistic
10 religions assume a definite beginning for the universe. On the other hand, some people, like Aristotle, did not
like the idea of the universe having a beginning. He believed the universe had always existed and would exist
forever; that it was eternal. However, Aristotle agreed with most other thinkers that the basic structure of the
universe right now was static. This belief in an unchanging, uniform universe was natural for people who could
see only small snapshots of the universe. During any person’s lifetime, the large patterns of objects in the
15 universe do not change enough to notice.

In the 18th and 19th centuries, however, evidence began to indicate that the universe might not be motionless
and unchanging. Isaac Newton’s Universal Law of Gravity stated that each star in the universe ought to be
attracted to the others. If this was true, they would all fall together and collapse at a central point unless the
matter of the universe was moving. An Austrian physicist named Ludwig Boltzmann pointed out that, according
20 to the second Law of Thermodynamics, the total amount of entropy, or disorder, of the universe always
increases with time. If this is true, the universe has to be changing, headed towards a greater one.

In the 1920s, astronomer Edwin Hubble identified a group of celestial objects outside our own galaxy. By
observing the Doppler shift of these stars- the way the wavelengths and colors of their light changed because of
their motion – he realized that they were receding from our own position in the universe. In fact, all the
25 observable galaxies were moving away from each other. The more distant the galaxy, the faster it was moving
away. This observation implied that the universe was expanding. From this evidence, physicists logically
concluded that all matter in the universe had once been infinitely close. The event that started this expansion is
referred to as the Big Bang. According to that, time and space did not exist prior to the beginning of the
expansion. Thus, the age of the universe can be calculated from the distance and the velocities of the stars
30 traveling away from us. A definite age cannot be given for the universe, but scientists guess it to be between
10-20 billion years old. Another interesting idea about the Big Bang theory relates to the movement of the
galaxies. Though the universe is expanding, the galaxies themselves aren’t moving, contrary to our basic ideas
of movement; it is the space between them that is expanding, while the galaxies themselves remain still.
1. What is the main idea discussed in the passage? 7. What did people conclude from Boltzmann’s law
(A) Why humankind started to search the about entropy?
beginning of the universe (A) At one time, all matter had to be infinitely
(B) The assumptions about the universe and how dense.
everything started (B) Galaxies must be moving outward.
(C) How the galaxies were formed and how they (C) Religious ideas have to be proved.
influenced the scientists (D) The universe cannot be static.
(D) The clash between the religions and the 8. The word “the others” in line 18 refers to
scientists about the beginning of the universe (A) patterns
2. Which of the following is NOT true about creation (B) stars
myths? (C) objects
(A) They have no scientific background. (D) snapshots
(B) Some of them are related to animals. 9. Which of the following ideas does NOT fit well
(C) One of the ancient beliefs included gods with the Big Bang theory?
struggling. (A) The universe had no real beginning.
(D) They have led some controversies among (B) The space between galaxies is changing.
ancient cultures. (C) The universe is at least ten billion years old.
3. The word “supreme” in line 7 means (D) At some point, time and space did not exist.
(A) absolute 10. The word “still” in line 33 could be best replaced
(B) peripheral by
(C) conscientious (A) unknown
(D) circumstantial (B) stationary
4. It is stated in the passage that religious (C) irreversible
approaches (D) disconnected
(A) claim that there is a certain start of the 11. It is mentioned in the last paragraph that
universe (A) the scientists are still far away from
(B) completely deny the assumptions of the calculating the wavelengths of the stars
scientists (B) time and space can be the keys to the
(C) allege that God cares for the people that he understanding of galaxies
created (C) the physical distance between galaxies is
(D) assert there was another universe before increasing
God created this one (D) observations from the satellites are of great
5. It is mentioned in the passage that Aristotle help
(A) disagreed with his contemporaries 12. The topic of the paragraph following the passage
(B) believed that the universe was static most likely is
(C) supported the preceding stories about the (A) misconceptions about the universe
universe (B) our basic instincts about the universe
(D) wanted to find out when the universe was (C) how the space between galaxies moves
going to end (D) how the age of the universe can be
6. It can be understood from the passage that it is calculated
almost impossible for people to understand the 13. Where in the passage does the author explains
movements of the universe because why people cannot understand the universe is
(A) most of them are religious changing?
(B) they do not have enough records (A) Lines 7-9
(C) their life span is too short for that (B) Lines 13-15
(D) the evidence is kept to researchers and (C) Lines 19-22
scientists (D) Lines 27-30
14. The tone of the passage is
(A) skeptical
(B) humorous
(C) explanatory
(D) exaggerated

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