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Saveetha School of Engineering

Question Bank – CIA 1


MEA09 – MACHINING PROCESSES AND METROLOGY
GATE QUESTIONS
1. In an orthogonal cutting process, the tool used has rake angle of zero degree. 2016 2
The measured cutting force and thrust force are 500 N and 250 N, marks
respectively. The coefficient of friction between the tool and the chip is
________
(a) 0.5 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.8 (d) 0.9

2. The tool life equation for HSS tool is VT 0.14 f 0.7 d 0.4 = Constant. The tool life 2016 2
(T) of 30 min is obtained using the following cutting conditions: V = 45 marks
m/min, f = 0.35 mm, d = 2.0 mm If speed (V), feed (f) and depth of cut (d) are
increased individually by 25%, the tool life (in min) is __________
(a) 0.15 (b) 1.06 (C) 22.50 (d) 30.0

3. Under certain cutting conditions, doubling the cutting speed reduces the tool 2015 2
life to (1/16) th of the original. Taylor’s tool life index (n) for this tool-work marks
piece combination will be._____0.25
(a) 7.562min (b) 7.539min (c) 7.55min (d) 7.58min

4. For an orthogonal cutting operation, tool material is HSS, rake angle is 22°, 2015 2
chip thickness is 0.8 mm, speed is 48 m/min and feed is 0.4 mm/rev. The shear marks
plane angle (in degrees) is __29.6_____

5. In a machining operation, if the generatrix and directix both are straight lines, 2019 2
the surface obtained _______ marks
(a) Cylindrical (b) Helical (c) Plane (d) Surface of
revolution

6 During pure orthogonal turning operation of a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is 2018 2


found that the thickness of the chip produced is 0.5 mm. The feed given to the marks
zero degree rake angle tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear strain produced during
the operation is ____
(a) 2.9 (b) 2.8 (c) 2.7 (d) 2.3

7. If the Taylor’s tool life exponent n is 0.2, and the tool changing time is 1.5 2014 2
min, then the tool life (in min) for maximum production rate is __6______ marks

8. The normal force acting at the chip-tool interface in N is ________ 2018 2


marks
(a)1000 (b)1500 (c)2000 (d) 2500

9. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by _______ 2019 1


mark
(a) Decreasing (b) Increasing the (c) Decreasing (d) Increasing the
the rake angle depth of cut the cutting cutting speed
speed
10. For tool A, Taylor’s tool life exponent (n) is 0.45 and constant (K) is 90. 2018 2
Similarly for tool B, n = 0.3 and K = 60. The cutting speed (in m/min) above marks
which tool A will have a higher tool life than tool B is ________
(a) 26.7 (b) 42.5 (c) 80.7 (d) 142.9

11. In a single point turning operation with cemented carbide tool and steel work 2016 2
piece, it is found that the Taylor’s exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is marks
reduced by 50%, then the tool life changes by times ____16________

12 Match the Machine Tools (Group A) with the probable Operations (Group B): 2014 2
marks
(Group A) (Group B)
Centre lathe Slotting
Milling Counter-boring
Grinding Knurling
Drilling Dressing

13 A built-up-edge is formed while machining


(a) Ductile (b) Ductile (c) Brittle (d)Brittle materials 2012
materials at high materials at low materials at at low speed
speed speed high speed

14 The coefficient of friction at the tool-chip interface is ______ 2016 2


marks
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.46 (c) 0.85 (d) 0.95

15 In an orthogonal cutting test on mild steel, the following data were obtained 2018 2
Cutting speed : 40 m/min marks
Depth of cut : 0.3 mm
Tool rake angle : + 5°
Chip thickness : 1.5 mm
Cutting force : 900 N
Thrust force : 450 N
Using Merchant’s analysis, the Friction angle during the machining will be

(a) 26.6° (b) 31.5° (c) 45° (d) 63.4°

UNIT 2
1 The back gear unit has a shaft, which carries _____ 2018
(a) a gear (b) a gear and a (c) a pinion (d) none of the
pinion both mentioned

2 The preferred option for holding an odd-shaped workpiece in a centre lathe is_____ 2018 2
marks
(A) live and dead (B) three jaw (C) lathe dog (D) four jaw chuck
centres chuck

3 Metric thread of 0.8 mm pitch is to be cut on a lathe. Pitch of the lead screw is 1.5 2017 2
mm. If the spindle rotates at 1500 rpm, the speed of rotation of the lead screw (rpm) marks
will be__________800____
4 Tool life of 10 hours is obtained when cutting with single point tool at 63 m/min. If 2017 2
Taylor’s constant C = 257.35, tool life on doubling the velocity will be __25.7 marks
min_____
(A) 800 to 800 (B) 600 to 600 (C) 700 to 700 (D) 500 to 500

5 Trepanning is performed for ______ 2018 1


mark
(a) Finishing a (b) Producing a (c) Truing a (d) Enlarging a drilled
drilled hole large hole without hole for hole
drilling alignment

6 The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to......... 2019 1


mark
(a) Cut gears (b) Cut threads (c) Reduce (d) Give desired
spindle speed direction of
movement to the
lathe carriage

7 In a single pass drilling operation, a through hole of 15 mm diameter is to be drilled 2012 2


in a steel plate of 50 mm thickness. Drill spindle speed is 500 rpm, feed is 0.2 mm/rev marks
and drill point angle is 118º. Assuming 2 mm clearance at approach and exit, the total
drill time in seconds is ______
(a) 35.1 (b) 32.4 (c) 31.2 (d) 30.1

8 A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being shaped in a shaping machine with a 2014 2
depth of cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/stroke and the tool principal cutting edge marks
angle of 30°. Number of cutting strokes per minute is 60. Using specific energy for
cutting as 1.49 J/mm3 , the average power consumption (in watt) is ___298_____

9 The time taken to drill a hole though a 25 mm thick plate with the drill rotating at 300 2019 2
rpm and moving at a feed rate of 0.25 mm/revolution is _________ marks
(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec (c) 60 sec (d) 100 sec

10 The rake angle in a drill _______ 2020 1


mark
(a) Increases from (b) Decreases from (c) Remains (d) is irrelevant to the
centre to periphery centre to periphery constant drilling operation

11. The cutting tool used in Lathe machine is _____. 2016 1


mark
(a) multi point (b) single point (c) Both of the (d) None of the above
cutting tool cutting tool above

UNIT III

1. Diamond wheels should not be used for grinding steel components. State True or 2016 1
False. mark

2. If each abrasive grain is viewed as a cutting tool, then which of the following 2016 1
represents the cutting parameters in common grinding operations? mark
(a) Large negative (b) Large positive (c) Large (d) Zero rake angle,
rake angle, low rake angle, low negative rake high shear angle and
shear angle and shear angle and angle, high high cutting speed
high cutting speed high cutting speed shear angle and
low cutting
speed

3. The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by the 2012 1


mark
(a) Hardness of (b) Ability of the (c) Hardness of (d) Ability of the
abrasive grains bond to retain the bond grinding wheel to
abrasives penetrate the work
piece

4. Abrasive material used in grinding wheel selected for grinding ferrous alloys is: 2017 1
mark
(a) silicon carbide (b) diamond (c) aluminium (d) boron carbide
oxide

5. Ideal surface roughness, as measured by the maximum height of unevenness, is best 2015 1
achieved when the material is removed by mark
(a) an end mill (b) a grinding (c) a tool with (d) a ball mill
wheel zero nose radius

6. In machining using abrasive material, increasing abrasive grain size 2010 1


mark
(a) increases the (b) decreases the (c) first decreases (d) first increases and
material removal material removal and then then decreases the
rate rate increases the material removal
material removal rate.
rate

7. Among the conventional machining processes, maximum specific energy is 2015 1


consumed in mark
(a) Turning (b) Drilling (c) Planning (d) Grinding

8. Internal gears are manufactured by 2016 1


mark
a) hobbing b) shaping with c) shaping with d) milling
pinion cutter rack cutter

9. Feed rate in slab milling operation is equal to ______ 2018 1


mark
(A) rotation per (B) product of rpm (C) product of (D) product of rpm,
minute (rpm) and number of rpm, feed per feed per tooth and
teeth in the cutter tooth and number number of teeth in
of teeth in the contact
cutter

10. A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at 150 rpm. If the feed per tooth is 0.1, the 2019 2
table speed in mm per minute is ________ marks
(a) 120 (b) 187 (c) 125 (d) 70

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