Applied Geology

1. The hot molten material erupted from a volcano is called:

a) Lava
b) Magma
c) Pyro-clast
d) Tephra
2. The point in the earth from where seismic waves spread out in all directions is:
a) Seismic Center
b) Epicenter
c) Earthquake focus
d) Focal point
3. Marble is a:
a) Sedimentary rock
b) Igneous rock
c) Metamorphic rock
d) None of these
4. Yardang is produced by:
a) River
b) Glacier
c) Wind
d) Volcanic activity
5. The earth's crustal plates move
a) A few meters per year
b) A few millimeters per 1000 years
c) A few centimeters per year
d) A few millimeters a day
6. Divergent boundaries are the areas where
a) New continental lithosphere is forming
b) New oceanic lithosphere is forming
c) Two plates come together
d) Two plates slide past each other
7. Bedding or stratification in a sedimentary rock
a) Is due to directed pressure from earth forces
b) Results from heat
c) Is always exactly horizontal
d) Represents variations which took place during deposition
8. On average, the geothermal gradient inside the Earth is about:
a) 1000°C per kilometer
b) 100°C per kilometer
c) 50°C per kilometer
d) 25°C per kilometer
9. As a rock starts to melt, the minerals with the lowest melting temperature will start to melt first, forming magma. This
melted portion can get squeezed away from the remaining solid rock through a process called:
a) Partial melting
b) Fractionation
c) Differentiation
d) Buoyancy
10. The type of magma that has the highest silica content is:
a) Intermediate
b) Ultramafic
c) Mafic
d) Felsic
11. The physical evidence that the core is composed mostly of iron is
a) The known mass of Earth requires material of high density at the core
b) Scientists have sampled the core and determined its composition
c) Volcanoes regularly erupt material from the core to the surface
d) All of above
12. The Term, opposite to the dip is called?
a) Strike
b) dip direction
c) pitch
d) Limb
13. In Petrographic Microscope following type of light is used to study the thin section of an mineral sample
a) Transmitted light
b) Reflected light
 c) Combination of transmitted and reflected lights
d) None of the above three
14. The waves that reaches first on seismogram
a) P-waves
b) Surface waves
c) S-waves
d) L-waves
15. In the Moh’s scale of hardness, the minerals in increasing sequence of hardness are
a) Calcite, Gypsum, Topaz, Diamond
b) Topaz, Gypsum, Calcite, Diamond
c) Calcite, Gypsum, Diamond, Topaz
d) Gypsum, Calcite, Topaz, Diamond

Mine Ventilation

16. Instrument used for the measurement of wind speed is called

a) Altimeter
b) Barometer
c) Anemometer
d) Wind-meter
17. When a pitot tube is inserted in an air flow, it intercepts the:
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Internal energy
d) Total energy
18. Weight of water vapor contained per unit weight of dry air is
a) Specific volume
b) Degree of saturation
c) Specific humidity
d) Specific heat
19. The usual situation confronted in mine air conditioning is
a) Standard air
b) Normal air
c) Supersaturated air
d) Foggy air

Rock Mechanics

20. Which of the following rock failure criteria is based on micro-cracks

a) Mohr-coulomb
b) Hoek and Brown
c) Druker-Prager
d) Griffith
21. What is not rock bolt in the following
a) Square set
b) Split-set
c) Fully grouted bolts
d) Mechanical bolts
22. Strength to stress ratio is:
a) Young’s modulus
b) Poisson’s ratio
c) Safety factor
d) Strain
23. Rock quality designation is used for
a) Support design
b) Pillar design
c) blast design
d) slope design
24. In-situ stresses are measured on site using:
a) Rock bolts
b) Wire mesh
c) USBM Probe
d) GPR
25. Preliminary pillar design is accomplished with:
a) Kaiser Effect
b) Slake durability
c) Mohr circle
 d) Tributary area approach
26. Time dependent behavior of rocks is called:
a) Creep
b) Sleet
c) Modulus of deformation
d) Elasticity
27. Slope instability is increased due to
a. Density of air
b. Flyrock
c. Ground Water
d. Safety factor
28. Plane failure is instigated if:
a) Plane angle > Face angle
b) Face angle > plane angle
c) Angle of internal friction > strike
d) None of above
29. Brazilian test is used to find out:
a) Hardness of material
b) UCS
c) Tensile strength
d) Abrasion
30. Rock mechanics is a branch of
a) Geotechnical Engineering
b) Mechanical Engineering
c) Engineering Mechanics
d) Geological Engineering
31. The response of rock to imposed load is dependent on
a) Size
b) Shape
c) Color
d) Texture
32. Rocks are weakest in:
a) Compression
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) both b and c
33. Ground response curve is used to calculate
a) Stresses
b) Support Pressure
c) Angle of internal friction
d) None of above
34. Direct tensile test of rocks is known as:
a) Hardness of material
b) Brazilian test
c) Dog-bone test
d) Abrasion
35. Which of the following is not a structural feature
a) Bedding plane
b) Folds
c) Dykes
d) Shear
36. Inflatable rock bolts are a type of
a) Swellex
b) Split-set
c) Fully grouted bolts
d) Mechanical bolts
37. RQD is dependent on:
a) Operator skill
b) Poisson’s ratio
c) Orientation
d) Stress
38. Rock quality designation is represented as a
a) Ratio
b) Percentage
c) Fraction
 d) None of above
39. Stereoplots are 2-dimensional representation of:
a) rocks
b) rock mass
c) Planes in Space
d) 3-dimensional objects

Mineral Processing

40. Jaw Crusher is generally used as a

a) Primary crusher
b) Secondary crusher
c) Tertiary crusher
d) Intermediate crusher
41. In flotation process frother is used to
a) To make particles hydrophobic
b) To make particles hydrophilic
c) To stabilize the air bubbles
d) To separate the mineral particles
42. A separation process that uses the electrical conductivity between the minerals in the ore feed is
a) Hydraulic separation
b) Flotation process
c) Magnetic separators
d) Electrical separation
43. In mineral processing, vertical water currents are used in
a) Hydraulic classifier
b) Settling cones
c) Rake classifier
d) Spiral classifier
44. Classification of mineral particles is a method of
a) Size-Size separation
b) Solid-Solid separation
c) Liquid-Liquid separation
d) Solid-Liquid separation
45. Centrifugal force is used in operation of
a) Column flotation
b) Hydrocyclone
c) Froth flotation
d) Teeter bed
46. Froth flotation process utilizes following characteristic of minerals for separation.
a) Magnetic characteristics
b) Electrical characteristics
c) Surface characteristics
d) None of above
47. The reduction ratio of Jaw Crushers usually varies between:
a) 1:2
b) 1:7
c) 1:10
d) 1:15
48. Classification of mineral particles depends upon
a) Size of the particles
b) Shape of the Particles
c) Nature of feed
d) Both (a) and (b)
49. Screening efficiency is increased by
a. Increasing ratio of particle size to aperture size
b. Increasing feed rate
c. Using dry feed
d. Increasing screen angle

Surface Mining

50. Which one of the following is an independent variable mining

a) Pillar sizes
b) Methane liberation
c) roof support
d) cut depth
 51. Equipment used in mining of placer deposits is
a) Auger
b) Wagon drill
c) Rope saw
d) Riffle box
52. What types of openings play a major role in the development of a mine?
a) Ramps and crosscuts
b) Primary and secondary horizontal openings
c) Tertiary openings
d) Winzes and raises
53. Which of the following is not true for surface mining?
a) Bulk Production
b) Low-cost operations
c) High recoveries
d) Low development cost
54. Which of the following excavation and hauling method results in lowest cost per ton for surface mines?
a) Truck-shovel method
b) Side casting
c) Dragline method
d) Shovel-conveyer method
55. Which of the following is true for the bottom of the optimized pit.
a) The break-even situation is achieved
b) The material below cannot pay for its excavation any further deeper
c) Going further deep may result into wider pits outside the leased area
d) All of the above
56. Which of the following excavation equipment offer least flexibility in surface mining operations?
a) Dozers
b) Cable shovel
c) Wheeled loaders
d) rippers
57. Which sequence of process is true for heap leaching of gold?
a) Stacking – soaking – diffusion - washing
b) Stacking – diffusion – dissolution - percolation
c) Stacking – diffusion – washing – extraction
d) Stacking – washing – diffusion – extraction
58. Sugar can’t be extracted (leached) from a sphere made of a mix of sugar and sand when sprayed with an oil and
dropped in water. Which of the following are the possible reasons for this?
a) Oil prevents the capillary action
b) Oil bonds with sugar and hence sugar doesn’t get dissolved
c) Oil has nothing to do with it. Sugar is buried too deep inside the sphere that it can’t be extracted
d) Sugar grains are large and hence can’t be extracted
59. Which of the following will not increase the heap leaching extraction rate of gold?
a) Size reduction of particles
b) Making a larger distribution of particle size having more larger size particles
c) Increasing the micro porosity of the particles
d) Increasing permeability of the heap
60. What is the cheapest way (comparatively) of mining?
a) Open pit mining
b) Strip mining
c) Shaft mining
d) Drift mining
61. A cut-off grade in surface mining is the one:
a) Where break-even of profits and costs occurs
b) Lowest grade available in the ore
c) Which cannot be processed in the plant
d) Where 50% of the material is below this grade value

Underground Mining

62. Preliminary pillar design is accomplished with:

a) Kaiser Effect
b) Slake durability
c) Mohr circle
d) tributary area method
63. The stoping mining method in which a large part of blasted ore is allowed to accumulate in the stope to provide a
working platform as well as to support the rock is known as
 a) Shrinkage stoping
b) Cut and fill stoping
c) Square-set stoping
d) Sublevel stoping
64. The selection of convenient shape of the cross section of the opening is governed by
a) Number of Joint sets, faults etc.
b) Type of skip to be used and shape of head frame
c) Inflow of ground water
d) Geological conditions, construction technology and services required
65. Declines in metal mines are called
a) Adits
b) Slopes
c) Drifts
d) Ramps
66. If an underground deposit can be easily accessed through horizontal entries then the cost-effective choice/method of
developing a mine is often by
a) Shaft
b) Slope
c) Adit or drift
d) Ramp
67. The size and number of adits needed for developing a mine is determined by evaluating the
a) Deposit size
b) Production rate
c) Machinery required
d) Equipment size & production rate
68. On each level of the mine a minimum number of crosscuts and drifts are driven to provide
a) Mine supplies
b) Access, haulage and ventilation
c) Ore passes
d) Man ways
69. For moderately inclined (30-70) degree deposit with low to moderate production and mine life, the best choice is
a) Vertical shaft with hoisting
b) Decline with haulage
c) Drift or adit with haulage
d) Inclined shaft with hoisting
70. The best choice for a shallow out cropping horizontal deposit or steeply inclined deposit in area of high relief with high
production and long mine life is
a) Inclined shaft with hoisting
b) Vertical shaft with hoisting
c) Decline with haulage
d) Drift or adit with haulage
71. The system of room & pillar mining method in which the panel entries are driven on advance and de-pillaring on retreat
is called
a) Supported
b) Caving
c) Open-ending
d) Block
72. In underground mining methods the term adit is called
a) Tertiary opening
b) Secondary opening
c) Main opening
d) Zone opening
73. Portion of a deposit overlying an excavation in the form of a pillar is known as
a) Country rock
b) Capping
c) Sill pillar
d) Crown pillar
74. Crosscut is known as
a) Level opening
b) Primary opening
c) Zone opening
d) Tertiary opening
75. The first step carried out during underground mine development sequence is
a) Construction of main openings
b) Confirmation of mining method
 c) Adoption of feasibility report
d) Construction of mineral processing plant
76. In a four-shaft mine system following number of shaft(s) will be used for production purposes
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
77. Which of the following machines is not used in underground mines:
a) Belt conveyor
b) Power shovel
c) LHD
d) All of above

Coal Mining

78. What is low grade brown coal called?

a) Lignite
b) Anthracite
c) Bituminous
d) Sub bituminous
79. Apart from coal mining the long-wall mining method has been practiced for mining the deposits
a) Copper
b) Lead and Zinc
c) Manganese
d) Pyrite and Phosphate
80. In case of coal mines there is no difference between secondary development and
a) Primary openings
b) Production openings
c) Tertiary openings
d) drifts
81. In case of out-cropping coal seam deposit the preferred shape of cross section of the opening is
a) Horseshoe
b) Round
c) Rectangular
d) Trapezoidal
82. Declines in coal mines are called
a) Raises
b) Winzes
c) Slopes
d) Shafts

Mine safety & rescue

83. From the following dusts, which one is toxic?

a) Coal dust
b) Asbestos dust
c) Arsenic dust
d) Zinc dust

Mineral Exploration

84. The ore reserves are called Proven or measured when there is
a) Degree of uncertainty
b) A fairly high degree of confidence
c) High degree of certainty
d) None of above

Tunneling & Excavation Engineering

85. The roof bolt that follows the principle of point anchorage is
a) Expansion shell bolt
b) Full column grouted bolt
c) Split set bolt
d) Swellex bolt
86. Ground water may influence:
a) Mechanical performance
b) Slake durability
c) Rock coring
 d) Tributary area method
87. In underground mining, which of the following has no effect on performance:
a) Weathering
b) Sleet
c) Modulus of deformation
d) Groundwater

Selection of Mining Methods

88. The basic unit in room and pillar mining is (Selection of Mining Methods)
a) Room
b) Pillar
c) Section
d) Barrier pillar
89. In room and pillar coal mining a panel is defined as
a) Area of the mine to be worked
b) Area of the mine to be ventilated
c) Area of the mine to be worked, ventilated and supported
d) Area of the mine to be worked and ventilated
90. In hard rock mining of ore bodies the room and pillar mining method is very similar to
a) Stope and pillar
b) Shrinkage stoping
c) Vertical Crater Retreat
d) Longwall mining
91. In room and pillar mining where the pillars are left in place or where the roof is not caved it is important to design
a) Pillars
b) Rooms
c) Barrier pillars
d) Panels
92. In depillaring if two working places are extended in the pillar leaving fenders to support the roof then the method is
called
a) Split and fender
b) Pocket and wing
c) Open ending
d) Out side lifts
93. An oil shale regular ore body having thickness of 15 m is to be worked by stope and pillar mining method which of the
following options you would select?
a) Multiple pass system
b) Single pass
c) Advancing multiple bench system
d) Breast stoping
94. Stope and pillar mining differs from room and pillar mining because later is the term commonly reserved for
a) Limestone mining
b) Potash mining
c) Oil shale mining
d) Coal mining
95. If an ore body in less than competent rock is to be worked with stope and pillar mining method then roof stability can be
achieved by
a) Continual scaling
b) Using secondary support
c) Decreasing pillar height
d) Using secondary support and continual barring down
96. The alternative method to sublevel caving when dilution levels must be kept to a minimum is
a) Sublevel stoping
b) Block caving
c) Longwall mining
d) Cut and fill mining
97. Sublevel stoping requires an ore of high compressive strength and minimal structural weaknesses because of
a) Wide ore bodies
b) Unsupported stopes
c) Repeated shocks from large blasts
d) High stopes
98. In longwall mining the extracted area between the rear edge of supports and face line is called
a) Face area
b) Gob
c) Tail gate
 d) Head gate
99. In sublevel caving the primary working places are
a) Levels
b) Crosscuts
c) Drifts
d) Raises
100.A deposit has moderately strong rocks, tabular with 8 degrees dip and 6 ft thickness. The hanging wall is relatively
competent over a short period of time. Suggest a well suited mining method to the above mentioned conditions.
a) Sublevel stoping
b) Stope-and- pillar
c) Stull stoping
d) Room-and-pillar
101.A deposit has strong rocks, tabular with 60 degrees dip and 25 ft thickness (uniform). The depth of the deposit is
shallow. The ore is of non-oxidizing and non-caking nature. Suggest a well suited mining method to the above
mentioned conditions.
a) Block caving
b) Cut & fill
c) Shrinkage stoping
d) Sub-level stoping
102.A deposit has weak to very weak rocks, irregular, 85 degrees dip and thickness of 25 ft. The depth of the deposit is
7000 ft and ore grade is fairly high. Suggest a well suited mining method to the above mentioned conditions.
a) Longwall mining
b) Block caving
c) Square-set stoping
d) Room & pillar mining
103.A flat lying deposit has strong ore strength, tabular with uniform thickness of 8 ft. The depth of the deposit is 3500 ft.
The strength of country rock is moderate which is breakable/cavable when excavated. Suggest a well suited mining
method to the above mentioned conditions.
a) Longwall mining
b) Block caving
c) Stope & pillar mining
d) Room & pillar mining

Mine Planning

104.The first step to be considered in designing a shaft is

a) Identification of its location
b) Its inclination
c) Its intended purpose
d) Determination of number of hoists require
105.In the design process of a shaft the following step has a major impact:
a) Number of conveyances/hoists required
b) Arrangement of compartments
c) Shaft lining design
d) Location and inclination
106.The main factor involved in deciding to sink either a vertical or inclined shaft is
a) Geological formations
b) Size and shape of the ore body
c) Dip of the ore body
d) Ground strength
107.The selection of a mining method largely governs the type and placement of the
a) Level openings
b) Primary development openings
c) Laterals
d) Panel openings
108.If the integrity of the ground overlying the active mining area can be ensured then the main mine openings can be
located
a) Outside the deposit
b) Away from the deposit
c) Centrally above the deposit
d) At an angle to the deposit
109.A number of initial decisions related to the primary development openings of a mine must be made early in the
a) Development stage
b) Production stage
c) Mine planning stage
d) Exploration stage
 110.Vertical shafts are most common types of openings for
a) Shallow deposits
b) Faulted deposits
c) Thin deposits
d) Deep seated deposits
111.Where the deposits can be easily accessed through horizontal type openings following is the best choice:
a) Shaft
b) Ramp
c) Crosscut
d) Adit or drift
112.Slopes are generally driven at an angle of
a) 15 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 45 degrees
d) 60 degrees
113.If the mining area is elongated in the direction of dip, then for four-shaft mine system shafts may be located in the
configuration with
a) Two shafts (Production + ventilation) in the central area and (personnel + ventilation) shafts in the upper part
of deposit
b) Production, personnel and ventilation shafts in the central area and a ventilation shaft in the upper part of the
deposit
c) Two ventilation shafts in the central area and (production + personnel) shafts in the upper part of the deposit
d) Production, personnel and two ventilation shafts in the central part of the deposit
114.Three shafts are required when the mining area is spread to the extent that a two-shaft arrangement is insufficient to
provide the required
a) Production
b) Personnel/material supplies
c) Ventilation
d) Production and ventilation

Mine Surveying

115.The operation of levelling to determine the elevation between two points is known as
a) Differential levelling
b) Simple levelling
c) Fly levelling
d) Indirect levelling
116.Contours when unite together form a
a) Ridge
b) Valley
c) Cliff
d) Overhanging cliff
117.If contour lines are closely spaced, there is a
a) Gentle slope
b) Steep slope
c) Plain slope
d) Plain area
118.Contours in a topographic map
a) Are not closed upon themselves although the earth is a continuous surface
b) Are not perpendicular to the direction of maximum slope
c) Provide an indication of presence of valley or ridge in the area
d) Are the lines joining the points of same declination at different elevations
119.The imperfect alignment of the tape introduces
a) Accidental error
b) Systematic error
c) Experimental error
d) Both (a) and (b)
120.If the length of the tape is too short, the correction in measured length would be
a) Subtracted
b) Added
c) Multiplied
d) None of above
121.Alidade is used in
a) Tachoemetry
b) Plane Tabling
c) Chaining
 d) Compass Surveying
122.A Theodolite measures
a) Horizontal angle only
b) Vertical angle only
c) Horizontal and Vertical angles
d) Both angle and distance
123.In Surveying, contours are lines of equal
a) Length
b) Elevation
c) Bearing
d) Latitude
124.Surveys which are carried out to depict mountains, rivers, water bodies, wooded areas and other cultural details, are
known as
a) City surveys
b) Guide map surveys
c) Topographical surveys
d) Cadastral surveys
125.Horizontal control is established by measuring
a) Horizontal distances and vertical angles
b) Horizontal angles and vertical angles
c) Horizontal distances and horizontal angles
d) Horizontal angles and vertical distances

Explosive Engineering

126.ANFO stands for:

a) Ammonium Nitrate for ore
b) Ammonium Nitrate Fuel oil
c) Ammonium Nitrogen Fuel oil
d) Asiatic Native Fuel oil
127.The blasting technique used for controlled throw of overburden is known as
a) Cast blasting
b) Coyote blasting
c) Plaster shooting
d) Pop shooting
128.The critical diameter of an explosive is defined as the diameter below which it
a) Develops the optimum velocity of detonation
b) Does not involve in chemical reaction
c) Develops the maximum velocity of detonation
d) Deflagrates
129.Low VOD explosive tend to produce
a) More heave
b) More shattering
c) Gas pressure over long period of time
d) Both a and c are correct
130.If we add aluminum in ANFO there will be more
a) Heave
b) Shattering
c) Heat of formation
d) All of above
131.The size of the fragments that form during blasting is not affected by
a) Rock strength
b) Explosive strength
c) Rock joint pattern
d) Tensile strength of detonating cord
132.What is the purpose of using a decked charge?
a) To reduce the amount of explosive detonated per delay
b) To avoid loading a weak seam
c) To by-pass a void in the rock
d) All of above

Material Handling and Transportation

133.Horse power requirement for the double engine planes is

a) Same as that of the simple engine plane
b) Less than the simple engine plane
c) Double as that of the simple engine plane
 d) Triple as that of the simple engine plane
134.The endless rope haulage system is most suitably run by a
a) Diesel loco
b) Electric loco
c) Steam loco
d) Stationary engine
135.A solid steel mine car can be unloaded at the dumping point with the provision of a
a) Self-dumping system
b) Tippler & slide
c) Slide railings only
d) Tippler
136.A broken rail system of safety can be most suitable employed on
a) Level grades
b) Vertical hoists
c) Ascending grades
d) Descending grades
137.The gauge of the rail track is governed by
a) Car width & its height
b) Car width & wheel base
c) Car width & speed
d) Car speed & its height
138.The tractive effort exerted by the locomotive at the rim of its driving wheels is a function of
a) Its height and its ability to adhere to the track
b) Its width and its ability to adhere to the track
c) Its weight and its ability to adhere to the track
d) Its weight and its ability to pull the trailing load
139.Rail Haulage System is suitable for
a) High output and short haul distances
b) Low output and short haul distances
c) High output and long haul distances
d) High output and for steeper grades
140.The Duty Cycle of a locomotive for a round trip under operating conditions of a particular haulage system is
a) Related to the characteristics curves of the motors in the locomotive
b) Related to the tractive effort exerted by the locomotive
c) Related to the horse power of the motors in the locomotive
d) Related to the condition of the track for the locomotive
141.In Belt Conveyor System of haulage, the higher speed will limit the
a) Width of the conveyor
b) Length of the conveyor
c) Thickness of the conveyor
d) Drive of the conveyor
142.The basic purpose of a head frame installed over a shaft is
a) To provide support to the drum
b) To provide support to the sheave wheel
c) To provide support to the shaft collar
d) To provide support to the rope
143.Choose the most appropriate statement
a) Skip is used for underground haulage system
b) Belt conveyor can be employed with a plow at coal face
c) Aerial rope way may be suitable in rugged topography
d) Shuttle cars can be employed in opencast mining operations
144.Scrapers are used in mines for loading ore and waste for
a) Dumpers
b) High outputs
c) Short hauling distances
d) Long hauling distances
145.Cable reeled haulage vehicles are used in
a) Surface mines
b) Underground mines
c) Shafts
d) Inclined shafts
146.From mine planning stand point, the most important factor in selecting the rubber-tired haulage vehicles is the
a) Depth of mine
b) Mine ventilation
c) Clearance and tire life
 d) Production capability of the vehicle
147.The shuttle cars can easily be employed for
a) Surface mines
b) Underground mines
c) Open cast mining
d) Shafts
148.The most important support factor in the selection of underground haulage system is
a) Humane-machine interaction
b) Digging range
c) Service and maintenance
d) Travel speed
149.Which of the following performance factor is most suitably related in the design of underground haulage machines
a) Humane-machine interaction
b) Service and maintenance
c) Computer diagnostics
d) Travel speed and reliability
150.Which of the followings is used for loading mineral/ore in underground mines
a) Slusher
b) Dozer
c) Dragline
d) Power shovel