Aakash Intensive CST - 1

CODE-A
Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test - 1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII
Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. ection-A ection-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
SECTION-A 3. Charge Q is given to a conducting shell of radius
R such that it has surface charge density .
1. A body is displaced from x = –1 m to x = 2 m
Which of the following is the correct expression
under the effect of a force F = (5x2 – 2) N acting
of electric field intensity just outside the shell?
along x-axis. Work done by this force is
 1 
(1) –19 J (2) 9 J  K = 
 40 
(3) 27 J (4) 13 J
2. Consider the following statements. KQ KQ
(1) 3
(2)
(A) Electrostatics field lines do not form any R R2
closed loop. 
(B) In a charge free region, electric field lines can (3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
0
be taken to be continuous curves without any
break. 4. The contribution of electric field in energy density
of an EM wave is u. Then half of the contribution
Which of the following option is correct?
of magnetic field in average energy density of the
(1) Statement A is correct while statement B is EM wave will be
incorrect
u
(2) Statement B is correct while statement A is (1) u (2)
incorrect 2
(3) Statement A & statement B both are incorrect u

(3) 2u (4)
(4) Statement A & statement B both are correct 4
(1)
CST-1 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
5. An unpolarized light beam of intensity I is incident 11. Some logic gates are given in column I and
on a polarizer and then it passes through an column II contains their names.
analyzer which has its axis perpendicular to the
Match the column I with column II.
polarizer. The final intensity of the emergent
beam is Column-I Column-II
I
(1) Zero (2) A P OR
2
I I
(3) (4)
6 4
6. Two identical plates of different metals but with B Q AND
same area of cross-section, are joined to form a
single plate whose thickness is double the
thickness of each plate. If the coefficients of C R NAND
thermal conductivity of each plate are 4 and 3
unit respectively, then conductivity of composite
plate will be D S NOT
(1) 3.43 unit (2) 1.21 unit
(3) 3.99 unit (4) 5.21 unit
7. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper (1) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
and brass of same thickness and equal area are
(2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1 : 4. If
the free face of brass is at 100°C and that of (3) A → P, B → S, C → Q, D → R
copper at 0°C, the temperature of interface is
(4) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
(1) 80°C (2) 20°C
12. The force versus time graph of a body of mass
(3) 60°C (4) 40°C
18 kg is shown in figure. The velocity of the body
8. Choose the correct statement.
12 seconds after stating from rest is
(1) Nuclear forces are attractive only for all
ranges
(2) Gravitational forces are repulsive only
(3) Electromagnetic force can be attractive or
repulsive
(4) Nuclear forces are central force
9. A student of class XI have two iron rods one of
length (4.89 ± 0.01) cm and other of length (7.01
± 0.02) cm. He welded both the rods to form a
single rod. If the extra length of rod increased (1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
due to welding material is (0.05 ± 0.01) cm, then
the total length of the rod will be (3) 12 m/s (4) 15 m/s
(1) (11.95 ± 0.02) cm (2) (11.95 ± 0.04) cm 13. What is the depth of lake at which the density of
(3) (11.90 ± 0.03) cm (4) (11.90 ± 0.04) cm water is 1.5% more than at the surface, if the
10. Consider the following two statements compressibility of water is 50 × 10–11 m2 N–1?
Statement A: p-type semiconductor is (1) 1.5 km (2) 2.0 km
electrically positive charged.
(3) 2.5 km (4) 3.0 km
Statement B: The conductivity of pure
germanium is given as  = nie(e + h), where ni 14. A cylinder contains 5 litre of oxygen gas at STP.
is intrinsic carrier concentration, e is electron If the cylinder is cooled by 60 K, what amount of
mobility and h is hole mobility. heat will be lost by the gas? (At S.T.P., P = 1 bar,
Choose the correct statement(s). T = 0°C)
(1) A only (2) B only (1) 240 J (2) 274.7 J
(3) Both A and B (4) Neither A nor B (3) 321.6 J (4) 156.2 J
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 T-1 (Code-A)
15. If horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field g g

is 0.36 G and dip angle is 30° at the given place, (1) (2)
3R 2R
the value of Earth’s total magnetic field is
g 2g
(1) 0.72 G (2) 0.36 3 G (3) (4)
R 3R
(3) 0.24 3 G (4) 0.18 G
22. Match the column-I with column-II for physical
16. A pure inductor of 50 mH is connected to source quantity with its SI units.
of 200 V. The frequency of the source is 60 Hz,
the amplitude of current in circuit is Column-I Column-II
(1) 10 A (2) 12 A A Angular acceleration P Js
(3) 15 A (4) 10.6 A
B Moment of inertia Q kg m2
17. One mole of monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with
3 moles of a diatomic gas. What is the molecular C Torque R rad/s2
specific heat of the mixture at constant volume?
D Angular momentum S Nm
(1) 12.5 J/mol K (2) 16.5 J/mol K
(3) 18.7 J/mol K (4) 9.6 J/mol K (1) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
18. The refractive angle of a prism is A. If angle of (2) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q
minimum deviation is (180° – 2A) then refractive
index of the material of the prism will be (3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
 A  A (4) A → P, B → Q, C → S, D → R
(1) tan   (2) cot  
2 2 23. The frequency of a particle performing SHM is
10 Hz. Its amplitude of oscillations is 6 cm. Its
 A  A
(3) sin   (4) cos   initial displacement is 3 cm and velocity towards
2 2
positive extreme position then its equation for
19. When an object is at distances 12 cm and 4 cm displacement is
from the optical centre of a convex lens, a real
and a virtual image of same magnification are  
(1) x = 0.06sin 10t +  m
obtained. The focal length of the lens is  6 
(1) 16 cm (2) 4 cm
 
(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm (2) x = 0.06sin  20t +  m
 6 
20. The radius of a coil decreases steadily at the rate
of 2 × 10–3 m/s. A constant and uniform magnetic  
(3) x = 0.06sin  40t +  m
field of induction 10–4
Wb
acts perpendicular to  4
m2
 
the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil when (4) x = 0.06sin  20t +  m
the induced emf of the coil is 2 V is  4
2 5 24. Displacement time graph of a particle moving in a
(1)   m (2)   m
  straight line is shown in the figure below. Then
3 4
(3)   m (4)   m
 
21. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R starts
falling under gravity at t = 0 as shown in figure. If
the mass of chord is negligible and there is no
slipping of chord on cylinder, the angular
acceleration of the cylinder will be
(1) In region A, acceleration is negative
(2) In region B, acceleration is negative
(3) In region C, acceleration is non zero
(4) In region D, acceleration is non zero
(3)
25. A and B are two soap bubbles. Bubble A is larger

than B in size. If these two bubbles are now
joined by a narrow tube, then
(1) Bubble A becomes more large
(2) Bubble B becomes more large
(3) Both the bubbles acquire same size (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(4) Both the bubbles will get bursted (3) 30 m (4) 40 m
26. A charge q is placed at the centre of cubical 30. Four identical masses are kept at corners and
vessel (with one face open) as shown in figure. centroid of an equilateral triangle as shown in
The flux of electric field through the complete figure. Then which particle among the following
vessel is particles is in equilibrium?
q 5q
(1) (2)
60 0
5q q (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) (4)
60 40 (3) 3 (4) 4
27. Resistance of a wire at temperature t°C is 31. Figure shows a string of linear mass density
R = R0(1 + 2t + 3t2). Here R0 is the resistance at 2 kg m–1 on which a wave pulse is travelling.
0°C. The temperature coefficient of resistance at Find time taken by pulse in travelling a distance
temperature t is of 4 m on the string. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) (2 + 6t) (2) Constant
 1 + 3t   2 + 6t 
(3)   (4)  
 1 + 2t + 3t 2   1 + 2t + 3t 2 
28. The value of current ‘i’ in the part of circuit shown
in the figure is
(1) 2 10 s (2) 3 10 s
(3) 1.26 s (4) 2.3 s
32. Consider a transverse wave propagating as
Y = 10 mm sin[(2 cm–1) x – (50 s–1)t]. The time
period and linear wave number of wave
respectively are
 
(1) s, 1 cm–1 (2) s, 2 cm–1
30 40
(1) 8 A (2) 12 A  1 
(3) s, cm–1 (4) s, 2 cm–1
(3) 16 A (4) 4 A 25  30
29. A drone flying horizontally at height 20 m with 33. In which of the following transition, in hydrogen
velocity 10 m s–1 has to hit stationary enemy atom, will the wavelength of emitted photon be
target. At what horizontal distance H before maximum?
target should the drone drop the bomb so as to (1) n = 5 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
hit the target? (g = 10 m s–2) (3) n = 3 to n = 2 (4) n = 2 to n = 1
(4)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)
34. The half life of a radioactive nuclide is 30 hr. 38. A transistor is used in common emitter
What fraction of original activity will remain after configuration. If  = 100 and VBE = 0.7 V, then for
60 hr? the given amplifier (in figure) the co-ordinates of
(1) One-third (2) Half operating point (VCE, Ic) is
(3) One-fourth (4) One-sixth
35. A square loop of side length 25 cm is partially
hanged in magnetic field of 4 T by an insulated
pan of a spring balance as shown. The loop
carries an anti-clock wise current of 4 A. Find the
increase in tension of spring if direction of current
is reversed in the loop.
(1) (5 V, 5 mA)
(2) (7 V, 5 mA)
(3) (7 V, 0.05 mA)
(4) (4.3 V, 0.05 mA)
39. The parallax of a far off planet, measured from
two diametric extremes on equator of the earth is
(1) 4 N (2) 6 N 1 minute. If radius of earth is 6400 km, then the
(3) 8 N (4) 10 N distance of planet from earth is
(1) 2.2 × 1010 m
SECTION-B
(2) 1.1 × 1010 m
36. Two identical discs ‘A’ & ‘B’ collides elastically (3) 4.4 × 1010 m
such that disc ‘A’ hits disc ‘B’, which was at rest,
while moving in a straight line as shown in figure. (4) 5.5 × 1010 m
40. For the shown situation in figure, how much time
block A will take lining up with front face of B?
(g = 10 m s–2)
(mA = 1 kg and mB = 2 kg &  = 0.2)
If radius of each disc is R, then speed of disc A
and disc B after collision are respectively
2V0 V0 V0 2V0
(1) and (2) and
3 3 3 3
V0 2 2V0
(3) and (4) 0 and V0
3 3
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.3 s
37. A beam of light contains two wavelengths
(3) 0.6 s (4) 0.9 s
4000 nm and 6000 nm. The beam is used to
obtain interference fringes in Young’s double slit 41. A monoatomic gas at pressure P and volume V is
experiment. The distance between the slits is expanded adiabatically to volume 8V. Final
2 mm and the distance of screen from the slit pressure is
plane is 100 cm. What is the least distance from
P P
central maximum where the bright band due to (1) (2)
32 16
both wavelengths coincide?
(1) 2 mm (2) 3 mm P
(3) (4) P
(3) 5 mm (4) 6 mm 8
(5)
42. A series LCR circuit is shown in figure below 46. A physicist wants to eject electrons by making
light incident on a metal surface. If wavelength of
light is 600 nm, then which of the following metal
will produce most energetic electrons (work
function of lithium & tungsten is 2.3 eV, 2.5 eV
respectively)?
(1) Lithium (2) Tungsten
The correctly matched row for the given
parameters are (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
S. Value Resonance Inductive Average 47. The equation of equipotential line in an electric
No of R frequency reactance power field is y = 4x, then electric field vector at (1, 4)
consumption
may be
A 2 100 Hz 2 5 kW
(1) 4iˆ + 3 jˆ (2) 4iˆ + 4 ˆj
B 4 50 Hz 2 400 W
C 6 200 Hz 4 4 kW (3) –8iˆ + 2 ˆj (4) –8iˆ + 4 jˆ

D 4 100 Hz 2 10 kW 48. A syringe having area ‘A’ of its cylindrical portion
(1) A (2) B is fitted with a plunger. Area of orifice at the front
(3) D (4) C end of the syringe is ‘a’. What should be the
43. A boy of mass 40 kg is running with a velocity of value of force ‘F’ applied on plunger so that liquid
2 m/s on ground just tangentially to a merry-go- (density, ) comes out of syringe with speed ‘v’?
round at rest, which has radius R = 2 m, mass (All contacts are frictionless and air inside the
100 kg and radius of gyration 1 m. If the boy syringe is at atmospheric pressure)
suddenly jumps on to the merry-go-round and
sits on it, the angular velocity acquired by the
system is
8 8
(1) rad/s (2) rad/s 1  a2 
5 13 (1) F = Av 2  1– 2 

2  A 
5 5
(3) rad/s (4) rad/s
13 8 1  a2 
(2) F = av 2  1– 2 

44. An astronomical telescope has large aperture to 2  A 
(1) Reduce spherical aberration
(2) Have high resolving power v 2
(3) F =
(3) Increase span of observation 2A
(4) Have low dispersion 1   A 2 
45. In the circuit shown, if a wire is connected (4) F = Av 2  1–   
2  a 
between points A and B. Current through wire AB  
is 49. A conducting wire shaped in form of regular
hexagon of side 4 cm carries a current of 4 A.
Find magnetic field at centre of hexagon.
(1) 4 3  10 –5 T (2) 6 3  10 –5 T
(3) 8 3  10 –5 T (4) 2 2  10 –5 T
50. Two particles A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg
respectively are kept 1 m apart, are released to
move under the mutual gravitational force of
10 10 attraction. The separation between both the
(1) A from A to B (2) A from B to A
3 3 particles when speed of B is 10–5 m/s, is
20 20 (1) 0.8 m (2) 0.6 m
(3) A from A to B (4) A from B to A
3 3 (3) 0.47 m (4) 0.125 m
(6)
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 59. The given reaction is called
51. The strength of ‘10 volume’ solution of Hydrogen
peroxide is nearly
(1) 35 g/L (2) 45 g/L
(3) 30 g/L (4) 40 g/L
(1) Wolff-Kishner reduction
52. In the metallurgy of silver and gold, the
respective metal is leached with a dilute solution (2) Clemmensen reduction
of NaCN or KCN in the presence of (3) Stephen reaction
(1) O2 (2) N2 (4) Etard reaction
(3) H2 (4) Cl2 60. Pernicious anaemia is caused by the deficiency
53. The oxidation state of central carbon atom in of
C3O2 is (1) Vitamin B6 (2) Vitamin B1
(1) +2 (2) 0 (3) Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin B12
(3) +4 (4) +3 61. Which among the following ligand has highest
54. Excess of potassium makes KCl crystals violet field strength?
due to (1) H2O (2) CO
(1) Frenkel defect
(3) OH– (4) en
(2) Schottky defect
62. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly from
(3) Metal deficiency defect 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done involved in the
(4) Metal excess defect process is
55. If the molar conductivity of 10–3 M HA is 39 S cm2 (1) –11.5 kJ (2) –5.74 kJ
mol–1, then its dissociation constant will be
(3) –57.4 kJ (4) –109.8 kJ

[Given: m (HA) = 390 S cm2 mol–1] 63. Ratio of time taken for 99.9% and 99%
(1) 10–7 M (2) 10–6 M completion of a first order reaction is
(3) 10–8 M (4) 10–5 M 2 10
(1) (2)
56. The formula of compound formed by two 1 1
elements A and B if they form cubic solid in
3 9
which atoms of A are at the corners of cube and (3) (4)
2 1
B are at the body centre, will be
64. Molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH
(1) A2B (2) AB
solution is (Ksp Zn(OH)2 = 1 × 10–15)
(3) AB2 (4) A2B3
(1) 10–9 M (2) 10–13 M
57. Which among the following is yellow coloured
(3) 10–14 M (4) 10–15 M
species?
65. Correct order of bond order is
(1) [Fe(SCN)]2+ (2) (NH4)3PO4·12MoO3
(3) PbS (4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– (1) O2  O2−  O2+ (2) O2−  O2  O2+
58. Which compound on reductive ozonolysis gives
(3) O2+  O2  O2− (4) O2  O2+  O2−
propanone as one of the product?
66. Which of the following does not depend upon
(1) (2) charge on colloidal particle?
(1) Electrophoresis (2) Peptization
(3) (4) (3) Tyndall effect (4) Coagulation
(7)
67. Number of significant figures in 2140 pencils are 72. Which of the following graph is not according to
(1) 3 (2) 4 Boyle’s law?
(3) Infinite (4) 2
68. Molarity of 6% (w/v) glucose solution will be
(1) (2)
M
(1) 1 M (2)
3
M M
(3) (4)
4 6
69. Which of the following is not true for a solution
that shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law?
(3) (4)
(1) mixH < 0 (2) mixV < 0
(3) mixG < 0 (4) mixS < 0
70. Which of the following alkyl halides is most
reactive towards SN1 reaction?
(1) CH3 = CH – CH2 – Cl 73. Which of the following elements will have the
highest number of unpaired electrons in ground
state?
(2)
(1) Cr (2) Mn
(3) V (4) Fe
(3) 74. Consider the following statements
I. TeO2 is an oxidising agent.
II. TeF4 is solid while SeF4 is liquid.
(4)
III. Hybridization of S in SF4 is sp3d.
Correct statements among the following are
71. (1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I, II and III
Organic compounds (A) and (B) formed in the 75. Which of the following oxoacids of phosphorus
above reaction sequence are respectively
has maximum number of P – OH bonds?
(1) Phosphinic acid
(1) (2) Phosphonic acid
(3) Orthophosphoric acid
(4) Pyrophosphorous acid
(2) 76. Propan-2-one on reaction with methyl

magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) Butan-1-ol
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) (3) 2-methylpropanol
(4) Butan-2-ol
77. Electrophile involved in the Reimer Tiemann
reaction is
(4)
(1) :CHCl2 (2) :CCl2
(3) :CCl3 (4) CO2
(8)
78. Which of the following pairs of compounds can SECTION-B

be distinguished using isocyanide test? 86. For the balanced redox reaction,
xMnO−4 (aq.) + yI− (aq.) + zH2O(l) → MnO2(s) + I2(s)
(1)
+ OH–(aq.), the coefficient x, y and z respectively
are
(2) (1) 2, 4 and 6 (2) 1, 2 and 4
(3) 2, 3 and 6 (4) 2, 6 and 4
(3) (CH3CH2)2NH and (CH3CH2)3N
87. During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid
using inert electrodes the product obtained at
(4)
anode is
79. Polyester among the following is (1) SO2(g) (2) O2(g)

(3) H2(g) (4) SO3(g)
(1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Nylon-6
88. The species which does not show
(3) Teflon (4) Dacron hyperconjugation is
80. Norethindrone is a/an
(1) Antifertility drug (2) Tranquilizer (1) (2)
(3) Antibiotic (4) Analgesic
81. The correct relation for Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle is represented by
h h (3) (4)
(1) x  p x  (2) x  p x 
4 2
h h
(3) x  p x  (4) x  p x 
2 4 89. Consider the following statements
82. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is a. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in nature.
(1) N3– > F– > Mg2+ (2) Na+ > F– > O2– b. Pyrole is a heterocyclic aromatic compound.
c. Naphthalene and anthracene contain 14 and
(3) F– > O2– > Na+ (4) Mg2+ > N3– > F–
10  electrons respectively.
83. Which among the following does not give flame
The correct statement(s) is/are
test?
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) only
(1) Mg (2) Ca
(3) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Sr (4) Ba 90. Consider the following reaction sequence
84. Lewis acidity of boron halides decreases in the
sequence
(1) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (2) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BBr3 > BCl3 (4) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
Product B formed is a/an
85. The incorrect statement regarding photochemical
(1) Ether (2) Acetal
smog is
(3) Ester (4) Ketal
(1) It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate
91. Which among the following complexes shows
(2) It is mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur optical isomerism?
dioxide (1) [Pt(NH3)2ClBr]
(3) Nitrogen oxides produced from automobiles (2) [Pt(NH3)(H2O)(Cl)(Br)]
and factories contributes in it (3) [Co(en)3]Cl3
(4) It is also called as oxidising smog (4) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4
(9)
92. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY 97. If 10 g He diffuses from a tiny hole in 2 s, then
are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 4. H for the formation of amount of SO2 diffused from same tiny hole in
XY is –450 kJ mol–1. The bond dissociation 5 s at same temperature and pressure conditions
energy of X2 will be will be
(1) 50 g (2) 100 g
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
(3) 1.56 g (4) 40 g
(2) 900 kJ mol–1
98. Most basic compound among the following is
(3) 300 kJ mol–1
(1) N-ethylethanamine
(4) 150 kJ mol–1
(2) Benzenamine
93. Shape of ICl3 molecule is
(3) Phenylmethanamine
(1) Pyramidal (4) N, N-Dimethylaniline
(2) Trigonal planar 99. Statement-I : Salts of lithium are mostly
(3) Tetrahedral hydrated.
(4) Bent T-shape Statement-II : Hydration enthalpy increases with
decrease in ionic sizes of cations.
94. Which of the following pair can act as a buffer
solution? In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) NaOH + HCl
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(2) NaOH + CH3COONa correct
(3) CH3COOH + HCl (2) Both statements-I and II are correct
(4) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (3) Both statements-I and II are incorrect
95. Unit of rate constant for a zero order reaction is (4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(1) s–1 (2) mol L–1 s–1
100. The total number of electrons that can be
(3) L mol–1 s–1 (4) L2 mol–2 s–1
accommodate in an orbital having n = 2 and l = 1
96. Positively charged sol among the following is is
(1) TiO2 sol (2) Ag sol (1) 14 (2) 10
(3) As2S3 sol (4) Gum (3) 6 (4) 2
BOTANY
SECTION-A (3) The reduced ubiquinone is then oxidised by
101. Self-consciousness is a characteristics feature transferring its electrons to complex II
not the defining, because (4) It is found in the matrix of the mitochondria
(1) It is seen in non-living objects too 104. The major advantage of producing plants by
(2) It is not seen in all living organisms micropropagation is that
(3) It is seen in all mammals only (1) A large number of plants can be propagated
in very short duration.
(4) It cannot be seen in multicellular forms
(2) Genetically different plants can be produced
102. Mark the correctly written scientific name of
mango. (3) Without use of hormones, plants can be
produced
(1) Mangifera Indica (2) Mangifera indica
(4) Commercially important vegetables or fruits
(3) mangifera indica (4) mangifera Indica
can be produced which are genetically
103. Select the correct statement about ubiquinone of different from parent plant.
electron transport system of mitochondria.
105. All of the given factors may increase the
(1) It receives reducing equivalents via FADH2. population density of an area, except
(2) It transfers electrons to NADH (1) Food availability (2) Natality
dehydrogenase (complex I) (3) Emigration (4) Immigration
(10)
106. The organisms present at first trophic level in a 114. In DNA replication, DNA unwinds to form two
pond are strands: the leading strand and the lagging
(1) Phytoplanktons (2) Zooplanktons strand.
(3) Fishes (4) Birds Which of the following statements about these
strands is true?
107. Which of the following statement is incorrect
(1) The leading strand is formed on template
w.r.t. hydroponics?
with polarity 3 → 5
(1) It was first demonstrated by Julius von Sachs
(2) The lagging strand can only be synthesized
(2) It controls soil borne pathogens once the leading strand has been completed
(3) It is used for commercial production of (3) The lagging strand of DNA is synthesized
seedless cucumber, lettuce continuously
(4) It does not help in identifying the deficiency (4) The leading strand requires DNA ligase
symptoms of an essential element during its formation on template DNA.
108. Which of the following represents the correct 115. The smallest unicellular organism
relationship between s, p and w? (1) Is a eukaryote
(1) w = s + p (2) w = s – p (2) Has cellulosic cell wall
 s + p (3) Does not have cell organelles
(3)  w = (4) w = s × p
2 (4) Has both DNA and RNA
109. Which among the following shows isogamous as 116. Which of the following is/are present in cytidine?
well as anisogamous type of reproduction? (A) Cytosine (B) Hydrogen bond
(1) Volvox (2) Fucus (C) Deoxyribose sugar (D) N-glycosidic linkage
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Spirogyra (1) A only (2) A, C and D
110. Stored food in Porphyra is (3) A and D (4) A, B and D
(1) Floridean starch 117. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is not found in
which of the given organelles?
(2) Starch
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi apparatus
(3) Mannitol
(3) Nucleus (4) Chloroplast
(4) Laminarin
118. Select the incorrect match from the following.
111. Which of the following statement is not correct
w.r.t. G1 phase of cell cycle? (1) Amyloplast – Stores starch
(1) Cell does not replicate its DNA (2) Stroma – Space enclosed between
(2) Cell synthesizes nucleotides, ATP, protein, outer and inner membrane
amino acids, RNA of chloroplast
(3) Synthesis of tubulin protein takes place (3) Thylakoid – Flattened membranous sac
(4) Duplication of most of the cell organelles (4) Chromoplast – Has fat soluble pigments
occur in this phase
119. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the recent
112. The best stage to study shape of chromosomes extinction of steller’s sea cow from
is (1) Mauritius (2) Africa
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (3) Austria (4) Russia
(3) Telophase (4) Anaphase 120. Smaller sub-unit of ribosome associated with
113. Which of the given is both reactant as well as mitochondria and rough endoplasmic reticulum
product in various stages of Calvin cycle? are of
(1) 3-phosphoglycerate (1) 60S
(2) CO2 (2) 30S
(3) NADPH (3) 30S and 40S respectively
(4) ATP (4) 50S and 60S respectively
(11)
121. In which among the given organisms of an 129. How many chromosomes are present in the
aquatic food chain, biomagnification of heavy gamete of fruit fly?
metals would be least? (1) Eight (2) Fourteen
(1) Fish eating birds (2) Zooplankton (3) Twenty (4) Four
(3) Small fish (4) Large fish 130. In a given typical dicot embryo diagram, select
122. In Whittaker’s classification system saprophytic the correct option for labelling A-D.
organisms are not included in the kingdom
(1) Monera (2) Animalia
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
123. Chemosynthetic autotrophs
(1) Play great role in recycling of nutrients
(2) Are found in Kingdom Protista
(3) Fix nitrogen in legume plants A B C D
(4) Have heterocysts
(1) Hypocotyl Cotyledons Plumule Radicle
124. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
(2) Plumule Cotyledons Hypocotyl Radicle
(1) Trichoderma – Meiospores are exogenously
(3) Epicotyl Scutellum Radicle Hypocotyl
produced
(2) Albugo – Parasite on mustard (4) Plumule Scutellum Hypocotyl Root cap
(3) Ustilago – Branched and septate mycelium 131. Match the following column I with column II and
(4) Aspergillus – Ascus is the site of meiosis select the correct option
125. A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic Column I Column II

expressions. Select the incorrect statement for
A. Clostridium (i) Acetic acid
this gene.
(1) It is pleiotropic gene B. Aspergillus (ii) Ethanol
(2) It can affect multiple metabolic pathways C. Acetobacter (iii) Butyric acid
(3) It has more than two alleles D. Saccharomyces (iv) Citric acid
(4) Mutation of a gene that codes for the enzyme
A B C D
phenylalanine hydroxylase can show
pleiotropy (1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
126. Term recombination was given by (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(1) Sturtevant (2) Morgan (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Mendel (4) Punnett (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
127. In birds 132. The structure which cannot be seen in mature
(1) Males are heterogametic sugarcane plant is
(2) Egg decides sex of progeny (1) Axillary bud (2) Primary root
(3) Egg has one chromosome less than the (3) Node (4) Expanded leaf base
sperm 133. Select the option which is not true for the plant
(4) Males produce two different types of sperms that has following floral formula.
128. Select the incorrect match from the following.

(1) Ethylene – Effective in fruit ripening (1) Anther is dithecous
(2) Auxin – Used to induce Parthenocarpy (2) Corolla is polypetalous
(3) Abscisic acid – Promote seed germination (3) Phyllotaxy alternate
(4) Gibberellins – Acidic in nature (4) Leaves exstipulate with parallel venation
(12)
134. On the basis of following characteristic, identify A B C D

the plant tissue.
(1) T T T T
• Elastic, living and mechanical.
• Lacks intercellular space. (2) F T F T
• Cell corners are thickened with cellulose, (3) F T F F
hemicellulose and pectin
(4) T T F T
(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Epiblema 138. As the exhaust passes through the catalytic
converter, carbon monoxide and nitric oxide
(3) Collenchyma
respectively are converted to
(4) Parenchyma
(1) Carbon dioxide and water
135. Identify the false statement w.r.t. angiosperms.
(2) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas
(1) Conjoint vascular bundles are present in
dicot stem (3) Water and nitrogen gas
(2) Casparian strips are present in pericycle of (4) Carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide
dicot root 139. Read the following statements and select the
(3) Conjunctive tissue in dicot root is correct option.
parenchymatous Statement A: Desert lizards lack the
(4) Vascular bundles of monocot stem have physiological ability to deal with the high
water containing cavities temperatures of their habitat.
SECTION-B Statement B: Some species are capable of

burrowing into the soil to hide and escape from
136. Which of the following correctly represents the the above ground heat.
DNA replication enzyme with its function? (1) Only statement A is correct
(1) DNA polymerase I opens up the DNA at the (2) Only statement B is correct
replication fork
(3) Both statements are correct
(2) Helicase seals gap between DNA fragments
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) DNA primase extends primers by adding
nucleotides at 3 end 140. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(4) Topoisomerase functions ahead of the (1) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
replication fork to prevent supercoiling may be inverted
137. Read the given statements stating them true (T) (2) Energy content gradually decreases from first
or false (F) and select the correct option. to fourth trophic level
(A) The Evil quartet describes four major causes (3) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem is
of biodiversity loss. inverted
(B) The most dramatic examples of habitat loss (4) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem is
come from tropical rain forests upright
(C) In Rajasthan, the sacred groves are the last 141. The natural classification system
refuge for a large number of rare and
threatened plants (1) Is based mainly on the androecium structure
(D) The historic convention on Biological (2) Was given by Linnaeus

Diversity (‘The Earth Summit) held in Rio de (3) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and
Janeiro in 1992, called upon all nations to sexual characteristics
take appropriate measures for conservation
(4) Considers external as well as internal
of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of
features
its benefits.
(13)
142. Read the following statements and mark True (T) 147. Which biocontrol agent is used to get rid of
or false (F). mosquitoes?
(A) Diffusion is the only means for gaseous (1) Dragonflies (2) Ladybird
movement within plant body. (3) Trichoderma (4) B. thuringiensis
(B) Diffusion rate is not affected by the 148. The following diagram represents the aestivation
permeability of the membrane separating of corolla. Which option is correct regarding the
them. type and example of this aestivation?
(C) Diffusion is a fast process and is dependent
on a ‘living system’.
A B C
(1) F F T
(2) T F F
(3) T T F
(1) Imbricate – Cassia
(4) F T T
(2) Twisted – China rose
143. Euglenoids
(3) Vexillary – Bean
(1) Are majorly found in marine environment
(4) Valvate – Calotropis
(2) Have cell wall
149. The component of primary tissue in dicot plant
(3) Have pigments identical to those of green that is not a part of bark is
plants
(1) Cortex (2) Phloem
(4) Are multicellular eukaryotes
(3) Xylem (4) Pericycle
144. A heterozygous round seeded pea plant is
crossed with wrinkled seeded pea plant. Identify 150. Match the following columns and select the
the correct option w.r.t. above given cross. correct option.
(1) All progeny will be with round seeds Column I Column II

(2) 50% progenies will have round seed with A. Mesosomes (i) Help to attach
intermediate size starch grains the bacteria
(3) All progeny will be round seeded and long with host
starch grains tissues
(4) 50% progeny will be wrinkled seeded and B. Fimbriae (ii) Helps in DNA
with intermediate size starch grains replication
145. Which among the following chemical can be used
C. Flagella (iii) Contain
to break seed dormancy?
pigments for
(1) Phenolic acid (2) Nitrates photosynthesis
(3) Abscisic acid (4) Para-ascorbic acid
D. Chromatophores (iv) Have filament,
146. Triploid Primary Endosperm nucleus is formed hook and
when basal body
(1) Syngamy occurs during double fertilization.
A B C D
(2) Male gamete fuses with only one polar nuclei
located in central cell (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) Male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei (2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
located in central cell
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(4) Male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei
located in antipodal cells (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(14)
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Which of the following statements is not a
connotation of the theory of special creation?
151. The vital link that ensures continuity of species (1) All living organisms that we see today were
between organisms of one generation and the created as such.
next is
(2) Diversity was always the same since creation
(1) Ootid (2) Zygote and will be same in future also.
(3) Sperm (4) Embryo (3) Earth is about 4000 years old.
152. Choose the incorrect statement. (4) Fitness refers ultimately and only to
reproductive fitness.
(1) Embryonal protection and care are better in
157. Choose the incorrect match.
viviparous organisms.
(1) Vertebrate hearts – Homology
(2) In both plants and animals, embryo is
progenitor of next generation. (2) Thorns of Bougainvillea – Divergent
and tendrils of Cucurbita evolution
(3) Reproduction enables continuity of the
species, generation after generation. (3) Sweet potato and potato – Convergent
evolution
(4) The most vital event of sexual reproduction is
gametogenesis. (4) Bones of forelimbs in – Analogy
whale and bat
153. Which of the following is not a component of
seminal plasma? 158. Intestinal perforation and death may occur in
severe cases of
(1) Fructose (2) Sperms
(1) Typhoid fever (2) Pneumonia
(3) Enzymes (4) Calcium (3) Ascariasis (4) Malaria
154. Assertion (A): Scientifically it is correct to say 159. Complete the analogy w.r.t drugs and their
that the sex of the baby is determined by the effects.
father and not by the mother. CNS depressant : Heroin : : CNS stimulant :
Reason (R): All ova produced by female have _____
the sex chromosome X whereas in sperms sex (1) Morphine (2) Smack
chromosomes could be either X or Y.
(3) Barbiturate (4) Cocaine
In the light of above statements, choose the 160. Following are the statements about MOET.
correct answer from the options given below. (a) It is a programme for herd improvement in
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true short time.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (b) Hormones with FSH-like activity are
correct explanation of (A) administered in cattle to induce follicular
maturation and superovulation.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (c) The cattle is only artificially inseminated with
correct explanation of (A) the semen collected from an elite bull.
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages are
155. All of the following reasons are probably recovered non-surgically and transferred to
responsible for population explosion in India surrogate mothers.
except a rapid decline in Choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
(1) Death rate
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) Maternal mortality rate
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) Infant mortality rate (3) a, b and d are correct
(4) Number of people in reproducible age (4) a, c and d are correct
(15)
161. Which of the following is not a critical research 167. Read the following statements A and B and
area of biotechnology? choose the correct answer from the following
(1) Providing the best catalyst in the form of given options.
improved organism usually a microbe or pure Statement A: The intercellular material of
enzyme. cartilage is solid and pliable and resist
compression.
(2) Creating optimal conditions through
engineering for a catalyst to act. Statement B: Bones have a hard and non-pliable
matrix rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
(3) In vivo fertilisation and embryo transfer to
(1) Only statement A is correct
assist those females who can conceive but
cannot produce ovum (2) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Downstream processing technologies to (3) Only statement B is correct

purify protein/organic compound. (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
162. After gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA 168. Match the following:
fragments can by visualized only after staining List-I List-II
the DNA with a compound known as _______.
a. Euspongia (i) Hookworm
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.
b. Meandrina (ii) Filarial worm
(1) Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to
visible light c. Wuchereria (iii) Brain coral
(2) Chromogenic substrate followed by exposure d. Ancylostoma (iv) Bath sponge

to gamma-rays Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Chromogenic substrate followed by exposure given below.
to X-rays (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
UV radiation 169. The variable R group in amino acid serine is
163. The non-chordate animal which has closed type (1) Hydrogen (2) Methyl
circulation is
(3) Hydroxyl (4) Hydroxy methyl
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta 170. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(3) Saccoglossus (4) Branchiostoma correct answer from the options given below.
164. Select the correct match. Column-I Column-II
(1) Torpedo – Poison sting a. Collagen (i) Fights infectious agents
(2) Exocoetus – Marine bony fish
b. Haem (ii) Intercellular ground
(3) Hippocampus – Sea hare substance
(4) Carcharodon – Presence of air bladder c. Antibody (iii) Prosthetic group of
165. In pBR322, the number 322 depicts enzyme peroxidase
(1) Number of ori d. NADP (iv) Contains the vitamin
(2) Number of selectable marker niacin
(3) Distinguishes from other vectors developed (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
in the same laboratory (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Size of the plasmid 171. An adult human has
166. What is the ratio of numbers of spermathecae (1) 20 milk teeth
found in earthworm and cockroach? (2) 12 deciduous teeth
(1) 2 : 4 (2) 1 : 6 (3) Only 20 permanent teeth
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 8 : 1 (4) 32 permanent teeth
(16)
172. Statement I: Living state is a non-equilibrium 177. Select the incorrect match.
steady-state to be able to perform work.
(1) Planaria – Protonephridia
Statement II: The living state and metabolism
are synonymous. Without metabolism there (2) Pheretima – Nephridia
cannot be a living state. (3) Periplaneta – Malpighian tubules
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. (4) Ascaris – Flame cells
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 178. Choose the correct statement w.r.t humans.
correct (1) The first step in urine formation is filtration of
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct blood which is carried out by malpighian
(3) Both statement I and statement II are tubules.
incorrect (2) Roughly 1/5th of blood pumped out by each
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is ventricle of the heart in a minute is filtered by
incorrect the kidneys per minute.
173. Which of the following is not the function of (3) The glomerular capillary blood pressure
conducting part of respiratory system in humans? causes filtration of blood through 3 cellular
(1) Transports atmospheric air to the alveoli layers.
(2) Clears air of foreign particles (4) Capillary pores present in glomerulus are
actually responsible for filtration and called
(3) Site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2
filtration slits or slit pores.
(4) Humidifies and also brings the air to body
temperature 179. A perfect coordinated activity of all of the
following systems are required for locomotion
174. Choose the incorrect match.
except
(1) pCO2 of atmospheric air – 0.3 mmHg
(1) Muscular system (2) Skeletal system
(2) pO2 of blood in pulmonary veins – 40 mmHg
(3) Neural system (4) Excretory system
(3) PO2 of blood in aorta – 95 mmHg
180. Cerebral aqueduct is a
(4) pO2 of alveolar air – 104 mmHg
(1) Canal in cerebrum
175. Read the following statements.
(2) Round swelling in midbrain
(a) All chordates and a few non-chordates have
a closed circulatory system. (3) Canal in midbrain
(b) SAN sets the pace of activities of the heart. (4) Ventricle in midbrain
(c) The cardiac cycle is formed by sequential 181. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
events in the heart which is cyclically correct answer from the following given options.
repeated. Column-I Column-II
(d) The electrical activity of the heart can be
a. Myasthenia (i) Decreased bone mass
recorded from the body surface by using gravis and increased chances of
electrocardiogram and the recording is called fractures
electrocardiography.
b. Muscular (ii) Auto-immune disorder
Choose the option representing correct
dystrophy affecting neuromuscular
statements only. junction
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
c. Osteoporosis (iii) Rapid spasms in muscles
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) due to low Ca+2 in body
176. Choose the correct option to complete the fluid
analogy.
d. Tetany (iv) Progressive degeneration
Eosinophils : Resist infections : Platelets : _____ of skeletal muscles
(1) Form megakaryocytes mostly due to genetic
disorder
(2) Help in coagulation of blood
(3) Contract heart (1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) Gas transport (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(17)
182. Read the following statements A and B and

A B C
choose the correct answer from the options
given below. (1) Pituitary Adrenaline Pupilary dilation
Statement A: The membranous labyrinth is filled gland
with a fluid called endolymph surrounded by a (2) Corpus Androgens Piloerection
series of channels filled with perilymph. luteum
Statement B: The waves in the lymph induce a (3) Placenta Adrenaline Vasoconstriction
ripple in basilar membrane that bend the hair
cells present on tectorial membrane to generate (4) Corpus Aldosterone Increase
impulse. luteum alertness
(1) Both statements A and B are correct

SECTION-B
(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect 186. Which of the following structures is considered as
(4) Only statement B is correct structural and functional unit between developing
183. Which of the given statements is incorrect? embryo (foetus) and maternal body?
(1) Sterilisation procedure in the males as well (1) Zygote
as in females affect the hormonal level as
(2) Placenta
well as gamete formation.
(3) Blastocyst
(2) In periodic abstinence, the couples should
avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to (4) Mammary glands
17 of the menstrual cycle. 187. All of the following are grounds for medical
(3) Hormonal pills inhibit ovulation as well as termination of pregnancies except
alter the uterine endometrium.
(1) The continuation of pregnancy would involve
(4) The mode of action of implants is similar to
a risk to the life of pregnant women.
that of pills and their effective periods are
much longer in comparison to pills. (2) Continuation of the pregnancy involves a risk
184. Select the set of organs which secrete hormones of grave injury to physical or mental health of
but are not considered as organized endocrine child.
bodies. (3) A female is carrying female foetus in her
(1) Pituitary gland, pineal gland and thyroid womb.
gland (4) Substantial risk that if the child were born, it
(2) Parathyroid gland, thymus and adrenal gland would suffer from such abnormalities as to be
(3) Liver, kidneys and heart seriously handicapped.
(4) Testis, ovary and pineal gland 188. Which of the following set of mammals does not
185. Given below is an incomplete table about certain exhibit convergent evolution?
hormones, their source glands and one of their
(1) Lemur and Spotted cuscus
major effects on the body in humans.
(2) Anteater and Numbat
Identify the correct option for the three blanks A,
B and C. (3) Flying squirrel and Flying phalanger
Gland Secretion Effect on body (4) Wombat and Koala
(A) Progesterone Supports pregnancy 189. Genetically modified plants are useful in all of the
following ways except
Adrenal (B) Anabolic effects on (1) Crops are more tolerant to abiotic stresses
cortex protein and
carbohydrate (2) Decreased efficiency of mineral usage by
metabolism plants
Adrenal Adrenaline (C) (3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides

medulla (4) Reduced post harvest losses
(18)
190. Which of the following diseases given in the box 194. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t human
are viral as well as vector-borne diseases? digestive system.
(1) Threadworm is a parasite in human’s
Malaria, Elephantiasis, Typhoid, Chikungunya,
intestine.
Dengue fever, Taeniasis, Ascariasis, Ringworm,
Amoebic dysentery (2) Absorption of glucose in small intestine takes
place by active transport mechanism.
(1) Malaria, amoebic dysentery and chikungunya (3) The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent
(2) Malaria, elephantiasis and dengue faeces in the colon initiate a neural reflex
(3) Dengue and chikungunya causing an urge for its removal.
(4) Taeniasis, ascariasis and typhoid (4) In constipation, the faeces are retained in
colon as the bowel movements occur
191. Which of the following animal is triploblastic irregularly.
pseudocoelomate?
195. Match items in column-I with those in column-II
(1) Fasciola and choose the correct answer from the
(2) Pheretima following given options.
(3) Wuchereria Column I Column II
(4) Ctenoplana a. Respiratory (i) EC – TV
192. Following are the statements about amphibians. minute volume
(a) Body forms do not vary greatly among b. Inspiratory (ii) TLC – RV
species as tail is absent in all the species of capacity
class Amphibia and body is divisible into
head and trunk.
c. Expiratory reserve (iii) TV × Breathing
volume
rate
(b) Limbs are usually two pairs
(c) Ectothermic, body temperature depends d. Vital capacity (iv) TV + IRV
upon environmental temperature (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(d) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
tracts open into a common chamber cloaca (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
which opens to the exterior.
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
Choose the correct answer from the options 196. Percent of proteins in blood plasma is equal to
given below. percent of
(1) Only (b) and (c) are correct (1) Formed elements in blood
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Thrombocytes in formed elements
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (3) Eosinophils in leucocytes
(4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct (4) Monocytes in total number of WBCs
193. Rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed as 197. Which of the following is correct arrangement of
P nitrogenous wastes in decreasing order of
Rate = requirement of water for their elimination?
t
(1) Urea > ammonia > uric acid
Where P represents
(2) Ammonia > urea > uric acid
(1) Product formed per unit time
(3) Uric acid > urea > ammonia
(2) Product formed in time t
(4) Urea > uric acid > ammonia
(3) Amount of reactants which changes into 198. Total number of facial bones is equal to the total
products in unit time number of
(4) Reactants present at the beginning of (1) Wrist bones (2) Ankle bones
reaction (3) Girdles (4) Ribs
(19)
199. Assertion (A): Bacterial cells are treated with a 200. Match the hormones and their target glands/cells.
specific concentration of a divalent cation, such
Column-I Column-II
as calcium, which increases the efficiency with
(Hormones) (Target
which DNA enters the bacterium.
glands/cells)
Reason (R): DNA is a hydrophobic molecule, it
cannot pass through cell membranes. a. Thyrotrophin (i) Cells of zona
fasciculata
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below. b. Melanotrophin (ii) Follicular cells
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true c. Corticotrophin (iii) Melanocytes
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
d. Gonadotrophin (iv) Testis
correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the Select the correct option.
correct explanation of (A) (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
❑ ❑ ❑
CODE-A

MM : 720 Test-1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Answers
1. (2) 41. (1) 81. (4) 121. (2) 161. (3)
2. (4) 42. (3) 82. (1) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (1) 163. (1)
4. (2) 44. (2) 84. (2) 124. (1) 164. (2)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (2) 125. (3) 165. (3)
6. (1) 46. (4) 86. (4) 126. (2) 166. (3)
7. (1) 47. (3) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (2)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (3) 168. (2)
9. (2) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (2) 52. (1) 92. (2) 132. (2) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (3)
14. (2) 54. (4) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (4) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (3) 56. (2) 96. (1) 136. (4) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (4) 177. (4)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (1) 138. (2) 178. (2)
19. (3) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (3) 180. (3)
21. (4) 61. (2) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (1) 62. (2) 102. (2) 142. (2) 182. (2)
23. (2) 63. (3) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (1)
24. (2) 64. (2) 104. (1) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25. (1) 65. (3) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (3) 66. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (3) 107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (3)
28. (2) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (4)
29. (2) 69. (4) 109. (3) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (3)
31. (3) 71. (3) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (3)
32. (3) 72. (4) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (4)
33. (1) 73. (1) 113. (1) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (4) 114. (1) 154. (2) 194. (3)
35. (3) 75. (3) 115. (4) 155. (4) 195. (2)
36. (3) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (4)
37. (4) 77. (2) 117. (2) 157. (4) 197. (2)
38. (2) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (1) 198. (2)
39. (3) 79. (4) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (1) 120. (3) 160. (3) 200. (2)
(1)
CODE-A
MM : 720 Test-1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Hints and Solutions
PHYSICS
SECTION-A 4. Answer (2)

1. Answer (2) In an EM wave, the contribution of Electric and
Magnetic fields in average intensity is equal.
2
 (5x )
W =  F .ds = 2
– 2 ( dx )  Half of the contribution of magnetic field in
–1
u
average energy density of the EM wave =
2
2
 5x3  5. Answer (1)
= – 2x 
 3  –1 Ifinal = I1 cos2()
I
58  5  ( –1)3  = cos2 ( 90 ) = 0
= – 22 –  – 2  ( –1)  2
3  3 
  6. Answer (1)
1 l 1 l 1  2l 
40 5 45  + =  
= –4+ –2 = –6 k1 A k 2 A k  A 
3 3 3
27 1 l 1 l 2 l
= = 9 joule  + =
3 4A 3A k A
1 1 1 6+8
2. Answer (4)  = + =
k 8 6 48
Electrostatic field lines never form a closed loop. 48 24
k= = = 3.43
3. Answer (4) 14 7
7. Answer (1)
KQ
Electric field outside the shell E =
r2
For electric field just outside the shell
KQ
E= (r = R at surface )
R2
100 –   – 0
=
1 Q  Q  R1 R2
E=  = 
40 R 2  4R 2  4K(100 – ) = K( – 0)
or 400 – 4 = 

 E= or 5 = 400
0 or  = 80°C
(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2022 CST-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
8. Answer (3)  – 
= k gh
• Nuclear forces may be repulsive for very short 
distances.
 1 1.5 1
• Gravitational forces are attractive in nature. h =  = 
 kg  100 50  10–11  10  103
• Electromagnetic forces may be attractive or
repulsive. = 3000 m = 3 km
• Nuclear forces are non central forces 14. Answer (2)
9. Answer (2) Q = U as W = 0
For addition A + B = (a + b) ± (a + b) PV R
Q = nCvT =   T
i.e., L1 + L2 + L3 = (4.89 + 7.01 + 0.05) RT  − 1
± (0.01 + 0.02 + 0.01) PV 1
= (11.95 ± 0.04) cm =   T
T  −1
10. Answer (2)
• All type of semiconductors are electrically 105  5  10–3 1
=   60
neutral. 273 (1.4 − 1)
• Conductivity of semiconductor = 274.7 J
() = e(nee + nhh) 15. Answer (3)
For intrinsic semiconductor ne = nh = ni
i.e.,  = nie (e + h)
11. Answer (1)
A: Y = A + B = A.B  NAND gate
B: Y = A.A = A  NOT gate
H
C: Y = A + B = A.B = A.B  AND gate = cos30
B
D: Y = A + B = A + B  OR gate H
B=
12. Answer (2) cos30
Impulse = change in momentum 0.36  2 0.72
= m(v2 –v1) = area under F – t curve B= = = 0.24 3 G
3 3
mv – 0 = Area of F – t graph
16. Answer (3)
1  1
=   2  20  + ( 8 − 2 )  ( 20 ) + (12 − 8 )  20 VRMS = 200 volt
2  2
XL =  × L = 2fL = 2 × 3.14 × 60 × 50 × 10–3
= 20 + 120 + 40 = 180 = 18.84 
 18 × v = 180
V0 200 2
 v = 10 m/s I0 = = = 15 A
XL 18.84
13. Answer (4)
17. Answer (3)
m m  V
= and  =  = 0 3
V0 V  V For monoatomic gas Cv = R
2
V
P = B· 5
V For diatomic Cv = R
2
 P 
 =   1 +  and P = hg  3  5 
 B  1Cv + 2Cv  1 2 R  + 3   2 R  9
Cv = 1 2
=   = R
and
1
= k (Compressibility) 1 +  2 1+ 3 4
B
9
 = (1 + kgh) Cv =  8.31 = 18.7 J/mol K
4
(3)
CST-1 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2022
18. Answer (2) dr

 = – B2r
 A + min  dt
sin  
 2  2 × 10–6 = 10–4 × 2r × 2 × 10–3
=
 A r=
10
m
sin  
2 2
min = 180° – 2A r=
5
m

 A + 180 – 2 A 
sin   21. Answer (4)
=  2 
 
A
sin  
2
 A
sin  90 – 
=  2
 
A
sin   Mg – 2T = Ma …(i) for linear motion
2 2T × R = I for rotational motion
 A MR 2 a
cos  
 2    = cot  A  2T  R =
= 2 2 R
 A  
sin   Ma
2 2T = …(ii)
2
19. Answer (3) (i) + (ii)
1 1 1 3Ma
– = Mg =
v u f 2
For real image 2Mg 2g
a= =
1 1 1 3M 3
+ =
v1 u1 f a
=
u1 u1 1 u R
+1=  – + 1= 1 …(i) 2g
v1 f m f =
3R
For virtual image 22. Answer (1)
1 1 1 Angular acceleration = rad/s2
– + = ⚫
v 2 u2 f ⚫ Moment of inertia = kg m2
u2 u2 ⚫ Torque = N m
1 u
– +1=  + 1= 2 …(ii) ⚫ Angular momentum = mvr = J s
v2 f m f
23. Answer (2)
(i) + (ii) x = A sin(t + )
u1 u2 A = 0.06 m
2= +
f f  = 2f
u1 + u2 = 20 rad/s
f = 0.03 = 0.06sin(t + ) (at t = 0, x = 0.03 m)
2
1
12 + 4 = sin 
= 2
2
 5
f = 8 cm  = ,
6 6
20. Answer (2)

 = BA cos0° = BA As velocity is positive  =
6
 = Br2
 
d  x = 0.06 sin  20t + 
=–  6 
dt
(4)
24. Answer (2) 30. Answer (4)

• In region A, slope is increasing i.e velocity is FBD of particle 4
increasing, acceleration is positive
• In region B, slope is decreasing, i.e velocity is
decreasing, acceleration is negative
• In region C and D, slope is constant,
acceleration is zero.
25. Answer (1)
1
Pressure inside the bubble p  , so larger
r F41 = F42 = F43
bubble will become more large and smaller bubble
will become more small So, particle 4 is in equilibrium.
The vessel has only five faces. FBD of 2 kg blocks
By Gauss’s Theorem, Flux of electric field through

complete vessel will be
5q
=
6 0
27. Answer (4)

dR
Temperature coefficient of resistance  =
Rdt
R = R0 (1 + 2t + 3t2)
20
T = N (a = 0)
dR 2
= R0 (2 + 6t )
dt
T 20
R0 (2 + 6t ) (2 + 6t ) So v = = = 10 m/s
 = =  2. 2
R0 (1 + 2t + 3t 2 ) (1 + 2t + 3t )2
4
 Time = = 1.26 s
28. Answer (2) 10 m/s
By Kirchhoff’s first law at each junction. 32. Answer (3)
Comparing given equation with standard wave
equation we get
2
 = 50 rad/s k = 2 cm–1 =

2 2 
T= = = s
 50 25
1
 i = 12 A. And linear wave number = cm–1

29. Answer (2)
33. Answer (1)
2H 2  20 As principle quantum number increases, energy
Time to reach ground = = =2s
g 10 gap between successive orbits decreases so
 H = 10 × 2 = 20 m corresponding wavelength of emission increases.
(5)
34. Answer (3) SECTION-B

36. Answer (3)
A 1 1 1
= = 60 =
A0 2t / t1/2 4
2 30
Thus one-fourth of initial activity will remain after
60 hr.
35. Answer (3) After collision

Along line of impact velocity will change. Here
FBD collision is elastic so along line of impact both the
discs will interchange velocities after the impact.
When current is anti-clock wise
2 2V0 V0
Hence VB = & VA =
3 3
37. Answer (4)
n × 4000 = m × 6000
 2n = 3m
n 3
 =
m 2
Minimum value of n = 3 and m = 2
3  4000  10 –9
y=  1 = 0.006 m
2  10–3
25
F1 = ilB = 4   4 = 4 N (upwards) y = 6 mm
100
38. Answer (2)
Thus T + F1 = W For input loop, using KVL
5 – iB(86 × 10+3) – 0.7 = 0
T=W–4 …(i)
4.3
For clock-wise current  iB =  10 –3 = 0.05 mA
86
FBD Now iC =  iB
 iC = 100 × 0.05 ×10–3 = 5 mA
For output loop, using KVL
12 – 10+3 × 5 × 10–3 – VCE = 0
VCE = 7 V
39. Answer (3)
D = R
D
R=

 T =W + 4 …(ii) 2  6400  103

=
1 

Thus using (i) & (ii) 60 180
T – T = 8 N 2  64  105  10800
=

 T = 8 N = 4.4 ×1010 m
(6)

FBD for block A The circuit shown is resonance circuit. The
resonance frequency is 100 Hz. Potential drop
across R = 200 V
VR = IR
200
R = =4
50
VL = 100 = 50XL
 XL = 2 
Net force on A
(V ) ( 200 )
2 2
(5 – mAg) = mA × aA Pav = R =
R 4
(5 – 0.2 × 1 × 10) = 1 × aA = 10,000 W = 10 kW
3 = aA 43. Answer (2)
 aA = 3 m s–2 By conservation of angular momentum.
M1vR = M1R2 + M2k2
For Block B : F.B.D.
40 × 2 ×2 = [40 (2)2 + 100] 
160
=
160 + 100
16
=
26
8
= rad/s
mAg = mB × aB 13
  mA  g 44. Answer (2)

0.2  1 10
aB = = = 1 m s–2 An astronomical telescope has large aperture to
mB 2
have high resolving power.
Acceleration of A relative to B 45. Answer (1)
a = aA – aB = 3 – 1 = 2 m s–2
Initial relative velocity is zero
1
s = ut + at 2
2
1
9 × 10–2 = 0 +  2 t2
2
9 Req = 8 
t=
100
 80
i= = = 10 A
t = 0.3 s Req 8
41. Answer (1) 2 20
i1 =  10 = A
For adiabatic process 3 3
PV = constant i2 =
1
 10 =
10
A
3 3
PV5/3 = P(8V)5/3
Current in wire AB = (i1 – i2)
5/3
 1 P  20 10 10
 P = P   =   – = A from A to B
2  32  3 3 3
(7)
46. Answer (4) 2

tan  = = tan30° ( = 30° for hexagon)
r
12375
Energy of incident photon (E ) = eV
6000
 r = 2 3 cm
= 2.06 eV
E < Li(2.3 eV) as well as E < tungsten (2.5 eV) Magnetic field at centre due to each side
So, no electron will be emitted. 0 i

= sin ( 30 ) + sin ( 30 ) 
47. Answer (3) 4r 
10–7  4  1 1  2
= –2 
+ =  10–5 T
2 3  10  2 2  3
Net magnetic field at centre due to complete
hexagon
2
r = iˆ + 4 jˆ = 6  10 –5 = 4 3  10 –5 T
3
E .r = 0
50. Answer (3)
 E may be –8iˆ + 2 ˆj
Applying momentum conservation on system of
48. Answer (1) two particles
AV = av
0 + 0 = 2v + 4 ×10–5
 av 
V'= ,  v = –2 ×10–5 m/s
 A
By Bernoulli’s Theorem  speed of A = 2 ×10–5 m/s
F 1 1
+ (V )2 = (v )2 Now conserving mechanical energy of system
A 2 2
Ui + KEi = Uf + KEf
F 1 2 1
= v – (V )2
A 2 2 –G  2  4
 +0
2 1
F 1 2 1  av 
= v –   
A 2 2  A
–G  2  4 1
( ) 1
( )
2 2
= + 2 2  10 –5 + 4 10 –5
  a 2  r 2 2
F 1 2
= v 1–   
A 2   A   8G
= 60  10 –11 + 8  6.67  10 –11
r
49. Answer (1)
53.36  10–11
r =
11.33  10–10
 r = 0.47 m
(8)
CHEMISTRY
51. Answer (3)
‘10 volume’ H2O2 means that 1 L of this H2O2
solution will give 10 L of O2 at STP
2H2O2(l) → O2(g) +H2O(l) 59. Answer (2)
68 g 22.7 L at STP Reduction of carbonyl compounds to alkane by
Zn-Hg/HCl is called Clemmensen reduction
10 L of O2 at STP is obtained from =
60. Answer (4)
68  10
g 30 g H2O2 Name of vitamin Deficiency disease
22.7
Vitamin B6 Convulsions
 Strength of H2O2 = 30 g/L Vitamin B1 Beri beri
52. Answer (1) Vitamin B2 Cheilosis
4M(s) + 8CN–(aq.) + 2H2O(aq.) + O2(g) Vitamin B12 Pernicious anaemia
→ 4[M(CN)2]– (aq.) + 4OH–(aq.) 61. Answer (2)
As per spectrochemical series, CO has highest
where, M = Ag or Au field strength.
+2 0 +2 V 
C3O2 : O = C = C = C = O W = −2.303 nRT log  f 
 Vi 
54. Answer (4)  100 
= −2.303  1 8.314  300 log  
Excess of K makes KCl crystals violet due to F  10 
centres in metal excess defect. = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 300 = – 5.744 kJ
m 39 1 100 1
= = = 0.1 t 99.9 = ln = ln1000

m 390 k 100 − 99.9 k
1 100 1
HA  A– + H+ t 99 = ln = ln100
k 100 − 99 k
(i) C O O t99.9 ln1000 3
= =
(f) C – C C C t 99 ln100 2
64. Answer (2)
C2
Ka = C2 = 10−3  (0.1)2 = 10−5 M Zn(OH)2  Zn2+ + 2OH–
1− 
56. Answer (2) s M (2s + 0.1) M
[ 2s << 0.1  2s + 0.1  0.1]
1
In 1 unit cell : A = 8  =1 Ksp = [Zn2+] [OH–]2 = (s)(0.1)2 = 1 × 10–15
8
s = 10–13 M
B=1
65. Answer (3)
 Formula of compound = AB 1
Bond order O2 = (10 − 6) = 2
57. Answer (2) 2
Chemical species Colour 1
Bond order O2+ = (10 − 5) = 2.5
[Fe(SCN)]2+ Blood red 2
1
(NH4)3PO4·12MoO3 Yellow Bond order O2− = (10 − 7) = 1.5
2
PbS Black
+ −
Correct order of bond order : O2  O2  O2
[Fe(CN)5NOS]4– Violet
(9)

Tyndall effect depends on diameter of dispersed ⚫ The reducing property of dioxides of group 16
particle and refractive indices of dispersed phase elements decreases from SO2 to TeO2.
and dispersion medium only. ⚫ TeO2 is an oxidising agent
67. Answer (3)
⚫
For the number of objects, significant figures are
infinite.
%w / v  10 6  10 1
M= = = M
(mw)solute 180 3
⚫ Phosphinic acid : H3PO2 :
69. Answer (4)
During mixing, entropy of system increases hence
S will be positive.
⚫ Phosphonic acid : H3PO3 :
70. Answer (2)
• Reactivity towards SN1 reaction depends upon
stability of carbocation.
⚫ Orthophosphoric acid : H3PO4 :
• Order of stability of carbocation :
⚫ Pyrophosphorous acid : H4P2O5 :
72. Answer (4)

Boyle’s law says
Graph I  PV = constant (rectangular hyperbola) 77. Answer (2)
Constant Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
Graph II  P = (straight line through
V
origin)
Graph III  logP = – logV + log {constant} (straight
line with negative slope)
73. Answer (1)
Elements No. of unpaired e–s
Cr 6
Mn 5
V 3
Fe 4 The electrophile involved in : CCl2
(10)

Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating ⚫ Hyperconjugation involves delocalisation of 
with chloroform and ethanolic potassium electrons of C–H bond of an alkyl group
hydroxide form isocyanides or carbylamines. This directly attached to an atom of unsaturated
is known as isocyanide test. system or to an atom with vacant p orbital

R − NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH ⎯⎯ →
R − NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
⚫ Benzyl cation does not show
79. Answer (4)
hyperconjugation.
89. Answer (1)
80. Answer (1)

Norethindrone is an antifertility drug.
81. Answer (4)
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle : 90. Answer (3)
h
x  p x 
4
Where x and px are uncertainties in position and
momentum of electron respectively.
91. Answer (3)
82. Answer (1)
[Co(en)3]Cl3 → shows optical isomerism.
For isoelectronic species, the ionic size increases
with increase in negative charge and decreases
with increase in positive charge.
83. Answer (1)
Electrons in Mg are too strongly bound to get
excited by flame.
84. Answer (2)
92. Answer (2)
Extent of back bonding increases as size of
1 1
terminal atom increases. Hence Lewis acidic X2 (g) + Y2 (g) → XY(g)
2 2
character down the group increases.
H = BE(Reactants) − BE(Products)
85. Answer (2)
Classical smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and 1 1
= BE( X− X) + BE(Y −Y) − BE( X−Y)
SO2. 2 2
SECTION-B 1 1
−450 = (3x) + (2x) − 4x
86. Answer (4) 2 2
2MnO−4 (aq.) + 6I− (aq.) + 4H2O(l) → −450 =
−3x
2
3I2(s) + 2MnO2(s) + 8OH–(aq.)
x = 300
87. Answer (2)
 Bond dissociation enthalpy of
At anode :
X2 = 3 × 300 = 900 kJ mol–1
2H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4H+(aq.) + 4e–
(11)
93. Answer (4) 2.5

Shape of ICl3 2 = 64
n 4
5
6.25
 =4
n
94. Answer (4) nSO2 = 1.5625
Mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong base
can act as an acidic buffer. w SO2 = 1.5625  64 = 100 g
95. Answer (2)
r = k[A]0; for zero order reaction unit of rate 98. Answer (1)
constant is same as of rate of reaction i.e., mol Correct order of basic strength is
L–1 s–1.
96. Answer (1) N-ethylethanamine > Phenylmethanamine >
Generally metal oxides are positively charged N, N-dimethylaniline > Benzenamine.
colloidal sol i.e., TiO2 sol. 99. Answer (2)
97. Answer (2)
Salts of lithium are mostly hydrated due to higher
1
 Rate of diffusion  hydration enthalpy which decreases down the
M group with increase in ionic size of cations.
n 100. Answer (4)
  (M)SO2
 t He =
n (M)He An orbital can accommodate maximum two
t
 SO2 electrons with opposite spin.
BOTANY
101. Answer (2) Hydroponics is used to identify essential
Self-consciousness is seen only in human beings. elements. It also helps in identifying the deficiency
That’s why it is characteristic feature. symptoms of an essential element.
102. Answer (2) 108. Answer (1)
In a scientific name, genus name starts with Water potential of a cell is affected by both solute
capital letter and specific epithet with small letter. and pressure potential. Mathematically, it is
The scientific name of mango is: Mangifera indica. expressed as: w = s + p.
103. Answer (1) 109. Answer (3)
UQ receives electrons from complex I as well as II • Fucus shows oogamous type of reproduction.
and gives to Cyt c via complex II
• Spirogyra shows only isogamous type of
104. Answer (1)
reproduction.
With the help of tissue culture, a large number of
110. Answer (1)
plants can be obtained in very short time.
105. Answer (3) • Starch is stored food in green algae
Emigration is when individuals leave a place. It • Floridean starch is stored food in red algae.
decreases population density. • Mannitol and Laminarin are stored food in
106. Answer (1) brown algae.
In pond ecosystem, zooplanktons, fishes and 111. Answer (3)
birds are heterotrophs. First trophic level is Tubulin protein synthesis takes place during G2
occupied by producers i.e., phytoplankton.
phase of cell cycle.
(12)
112. Answer (4) 122. Answer (4)

During anaphase the shape of chromosomes can Members of Plantae are autotrophic. Saprophytes
be best studied. are included among Monera, Animalia and Fungi.
113. Answer (1) 123. Answer (1)
The Calvin cycle uses CO2 and ATP, along with Some bacteria oxidise inorganic substances and
NADPH made from the light-dependent reactions use the released energy for ATP production.
to produce 3-carbon sugars called Cyanobacteria have heterocysts.
3-phosphoglycerate (G3P).
124. Answer (1)
Some of G3P exits the cycle to make glucose, and
Trichoderma being member of Deuteromycetes
the rest gets used up in the Calvin cycle to
lacks sexual stage. It reproduces only by non-
regenerate RuBP. Thus, G3P is both a reactant
motile asexual spores.
and product of the Calvin cycle.
125. Answer (3)
114. Answer (1)
Pleiotropic genes have two alleles only. In multiple
The leading strand is a continuous strand
allelism phenomenon a gene have more than
produced on template with polarity 3 → 5.
2 alleles.
Lagging strand is discontinuously produced.
126. Answer (2)
115. Answer (4)
Morgan proposed terms linkage and
The smallest unicellular organism is Mycoplasma.
recombination.
It is a prokaryote. It has both DNA and RNA and
lacks cell wall. 127. Answer (2)
116. Answer (3) In birds, females show heterogamety and they
Cytidine is a nucleoside. It contains cytosine and decide sex of progeny.
ribose sugar which are linked by N-glycosidic 128. Answer (3)
linkage. Abscisic acid acts as a general plant growth
117. Answer (2) inhibitor and it inhibits plant metabolism and seed
In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase is not found in germination.
golgi apparatus. 129. Answer (4)
118. Answer (2) In fruit fly, four chromosomes are present in a
The space enclosed by the inner membrane of the gamete.
chloroplast is called the stroma. The space 130. Answer (2)
enclosed by the membrane of thylakoid is called In a given typical diagram of dicot embryo, the
lumen. label
119. Answer (4) ⚫ A – Plumule
Steller’s sea Cow has recently extincted from
⚫ B – Cotyledons
Russia.
⚫ C – Hypocotyl
120. Answer (3)
⚫ D – Radicle
Mitochondria has 70S ribosomes and
endoplasmic reticulum has 80S ribosomes. Small 131. Answer (4)
subunits of 70S and 80S ribosomes are 30S and Aspergillus niger – Citric acid
40S respectively. Acetobacter aceti – Acetic acid
121. Answer (2) Clostridium butylicum – Butyric acid
Biomagnification refers to increase in Saccharomyces cerevisiae – Ethanol
concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic
132. Answer (2)
levels.
Sugarcane is a monocotyledonous plant. In these
Hence according to given question
plants, primary root is short lived and is replaced
biomagnification of heavy metals would be least at
zooplanktons. by large number of fibrous roots.
(13)
133. Answer (4) 142. Answer (2)

The given floral formula represents the member of Diffusion rates are affected by the gradient of
family Fabaceae. Class of this family is concentration, the permeability of the membrane
Dicotyledonae. In these members, leaves have separating them, temperature and pressure.
reticulate venation and are stipulate. It is a slow process and is not dependent on a
‘living system’.
134. Answer (3)
143. Answer (3)
Collenchyma is an elastic, living mechanical
Euglenoids are unicellular eukaryotes. They lack
tissue. It lacks intercellular spaces and the corners
cell wall and are majorly found in fresh water.
of its cells are thickened with cellulose,
hemicellulose and pectin. 144. Answer (2)
Genotype of round seeded pea plant = Rr
135. Answer (2)
Genotype of wrinkled seeded pea plant = rr
In monocot and dicot roots, endodermis
comprises a single layer of barrel-shaped cells
having thickenings of suberin called casparian
strips.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (4)
• Topoisomerase prevent DNA double helix 145. Answer (2)
ahead of replication fork to prevent Nitrate and gibberellic acid chemical can be used
supercoiling. to break seed dormancy.
• Helicase opens up the DNA at replication fork Abscisic acid, phenolic acid and para-ascorbic
while, DNA ligase seals gaps between acid cause seed dormancy.
discontinuously synthesized DNA fragments 146. Answer (3)
(okazaki fragments) on template DNA with During double fertilisation, the male gamete
polarity 5 → 3 moves towards the two polar nuclei located in the
137. Answer (4) central cell and fuses with them to produce a
triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
In Meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last
147. Answer (1)
refuge for a large number of rare and threatened
plants. Dragonflies are responsible for get rid of
mosquitoes.
138. Answer (2)
148. Answer (2)
As the exhaust passes through the catalytic
The given figure shows twisted aestivation. Such
converter, unburnt hydrocarbons are converted
aestivation in corolla is found in china rose, lady’s
into carbon dioxide and water, and carbon finger and cotton.
monoxide and nitric oxide are changed to carbon
149. Answer (3)
dioxide and nitrogen gas, respectively.
All tissues outside the vascular cambium
139. Answer (3) constitute the bark. The cell layers that constitute
Desert lizard show behavioral adaptations. the bark are periderm, primary cortex, pericycle,
140. Answer (3) primary phloem and secondary phloem.
150. Answer (2)
Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem is upright.
Mesosomes are extensions of plasma membrane
141. Answer (4)
into the cell. They help in DNA replication.
Natural classification system were based on Fimbriae help the bacteria to attach to the host
natural affinities among the organisms and tissues.
considers external and internal features, like ultra- Chromatophores have photosynthetic pigments.
structure, anatomy, embryology and Prokaryotic flagella have three parts; filament,
phytochemistry. hook and basal body.
(14)
ZOOLOGY
151. Answer (2) Cocaine, commonly called coke or crack is usually
Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of snorted. It has a potent stimulating action on CNS,
species between organisms of one generation producing a sense of euphoria and increased
and the next. Every sexually reproducing energy.
organism, including human beings begin life as a Morphine suppresses brain functions, relieve
single cell - the zygote. intense pain and produce temporary euphoria.
152. Answer (4) 160. Answer (3)
Successful transfer and coming together of In MOET, the animal is either mated with an elite
gametes is essential for the most critical event in bull or artificially inseminated.
sexual reproduction, the fertilisation.
161. Answer (3)
153. Answer (2) In vivo fertilisation and embryo transfer are
Semen is the mixture of sperms and seminal included in assisted reproductive technology
plasma, which is the liquid portion of semen that (ART) that assist those females who cannot
consists of secretions of the epididymis, conceive.
seminiferous tubules, seminal vesicles, prostate 162. Answer (4)
gland and bulbourethral glands. The separated DNA fragments in gel
154. Answer (2) electrophoresis can be visualised only after
After the fusion of male and female gametes, the staining the DNA with a compound known as
zygote would carry either XX or XY chromosomes ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV
depending on whether the sperm carrying X or Y radiation.
fertilised the ovum respectively. 163. Answer (1)
155. Answer (4) Pheretima belongs to phylum Annelida and
possesses closed circulatory system.
A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality
rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate (IMR) as well Periplaneta is an arthropod and possesses open
as increase in number of people in reproducible circulatory system.
age are probable reasons for population explosion 164. Answer (2)
in India. Trygon – Stingray
156. Answer (4) Carcharodon – Absence of air bladder
Hippocampus – Sea horse
The fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately
and only to reproductive fitness. This was included 165. Answer (3)
in his theory regarding natural selection. Following is the explanation of the name pBR322 :
157. Answer (4) p – plasmid
Bones of forelimbs in whale and bat – Homology. BR – Boliver and Rodriguez
158. Answer (1) 322 – Distinguishes this plasmid from others
• Typhoid is characterised by sustained high developed in the same laboratory.
fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, 166. Answer (3)
constipation, headache and loss of appetite.
In earthworm, four pairs of spermathecae are
• Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and located in 6th – 9th segments while a pair of
Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of
the disease pneumonia in humans which female cockroach which opens into the genital
infects the alveoli of the lungs. chamber.
(15)
167. Answer (2) 175. Answer (2)

Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground The electrical activity of the heart can be recorded
substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres from body surface by using electrocardiograph
which provides to bone its strength. and the recorded graph is called
168. Answer (2) electrocardiogram.
Euspongia – Bath sponge 176. Answer (2)
Meandrina – Brain coral • Platelets also called thrombocytes, are cell
Wuchereria – Filarial worm fragments produced from megakaryocytes.
Ancylostoma – Hookworm • RBCs assist in gas transport.
169. Answer (4) 177. Answer (4)
Flame cells are the excretory structures in
Platyhelminthes.
An excretory tube removes body wastes from the
body through the excretory pore in Ascaris.
178. Answer (2)
170. Answer (2) • The first step in urine formation is the filtration
Collagen – Intercellular ground substance of blood, which is carried out by the
glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration.
Antibody – Fights infectious agents
• Roughly 1/5th of the blood pumped out by each
Haem – Prosthetic group of enzyme ventricle of the heart is filtered by the kidneys
peroxidase and catalase in a minute.
NADP – Contains the vitamin niacin 179. Answer (4)
171. Answer (4) Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity

of muscular, skeletal and neural systems.
An adult human has 32 permanent teeth which are
of four different types, namely, incisors, canines, 180. Answer (3)
premolars and molars. A canal called cerebral aqueduct passes through
172. Answer (2) the midbrain. The dorsal portion of the midbrain
consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes)
The living state is a non-equilibrium steady-state
called corpora quadrigemina.
to be able to perform work; living process is a
constant effort to prevent falling into equilibrium. 181. Answer (3)
This is achieved by energy input. Metabolism Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder
provides a mechanism for the production of characterised by decreased bone mass and
energy. Hence, the living state and metabolism
increased chances of fractures. Decreased levels
are synonymous.
of estrogen is a common cause.
173. Answer (3)
182. Answer (2)
Exchange or respiratory part that includes alveoli
The waves in the lymphs induce a ripple in the
and their ducts is the main site of human
basilar membrane. These movements of the
respiratory system where diffusion of gases O2
basilar membrane bend the hair cells, pressing
and CO2 occurs.
them against the tectorial membrane. As a result,
174. Answer (2) nerve impulses are generated in the associated
Respiratory Atmospheric Alveoli Blood Blood Tissues afferent neurons.
Gas Air (Deoxygenated) (Oxygenated)
183. Answer (1)

O2 159 104 40 95 40
Sterilisation procedure in the males as well as in
CO2 0.3 40 45 40 45 females does not affect gametogenesis.
(16)
184. Answer (3) no intervening neck; Caecilians have an

Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, elongated trunk not strongly demarcated from the
parathyroid, thymus and gonads (testis in males head.
and ovary in females) are the organised endocrine 193. Answer (2)
bodies in our body. Rate of physical or chemical process refers to the
185. Answer (2) amount of product formed per unit time. It can be
Corpus luteum mainly secretes progesterone expressed as:
which supports pregnancy. P
Rate =
Adrenal cortex secretes androgens. t
The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones Rate can also be called velocity if the direction is
called adrenaline or epinephrine and specified.
noradrenaline or norepinephrine. These 194. Answer (3)
hormones increase alertness, piloerection,
The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent
sweating, etc.
faeces in the rectum initiate a neural reflex
SECTION-B causing an urge or desire for its removal.
186. Answer (2) 195. Answer (2)
The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become Respiratory → Tidal volume ×
interdigitated with each other and jointly form a minute volume Breathing rate
structural and functional unit between developing
embryo (foetus) and maternal body called Inspiratory → TV + IRV
placenta. capacity
187. Answer (3) Expiratory → EC – TV
In MTP, there are strict restrictions to check reserve volume
indiscriminate and illegal female foeticide.
Vital capacity → ERV + TV + IRV
188. Answer (4)
Wombat and Koala are both Australian 196. Answer (4)
marsupials. Proteins constitute about 6-8 percent of plasma.
189. Answer (2) 197. Answer (2)
Genetic modification has increased efficiency of Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large
mineral usage by plants (this prevents early amount of water for its elimination, whereas uric
exhaustion of fertility of soil). acid, being the least toxic, can be removed with a
minimum loss of water.
190. Answer (3)
198. Answer (2)
Dengue and chikungunya are both viral as well as
vector-borne diseases. Total number of facial bones is 14 and total
number of ankle bones is also 14 in an adult
191. Answer (3)
human.
Animals belonging to the phylum Aschelminthes
199. Answer (4)
are triploblastic pseudocoelomate.
DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass
Fasciola is a platyhelminth, Pheretima is an
through cell membranes.
annelid and Ctenoplana is a ctenophore.
200. Answer (2)
192. Answer (4)
Thyrotrophin – Follicular cells
Body forms vary greatly among species of class
Melanotrophin – Melanocytes
Amphibia; Salamanders usually have distinct
head, neck, trunk and tail; adult frogs have a Corticotrophin – Cells of zona fasciculata
compressed body with fused head and trunk and Gonadotrophin – Testis
❑ ❑ ❑
(17)

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CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Complete Syllabus of Class-XI & XII

(3) Statement A & statement B both are incorrect u

15. If horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field g g

25. A and B are two soap bubbles. Bubble A is larger

C 6 200 Hz 4 4 kW (3) –8iˆ + 2 ˆj (4) –8iˆ + 4 jˆ

(2) 76. Propan-2-one on reaction with methyl

78. Which of the following pairs of compounds can SECTION-B

79. Polyester among the following is (1) SO2(g) (2) O2(g)

125. A single gene can exhibit multiple phenotypic Column I Column II

128. Select the incorrect match from the following.

134. On the basis of following characteristic, identify A B C D

SECTION-B Statement B: Some species are capable of

(D) The historic convention on Biological (2) Was given by Linnaeus

(1) All progeny will be with round seeds Column I Column II

(4) Downstream processing technologies to (3) Only statement B is correct

(2) Chromogenic substrate followed by exposure d. Ancylostoma (iv) Bath sponge

182. Read the following statements A and B and

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

Gland Secretion Effect on body (4) Wombat and Koala

Adrenal Adrenaline (C) (3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2022

MM : 720 Test-1 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Hints and Solutions

SECTION-A 4. Answer (2)

18. Answer (2) dr

24. Answer (2) 30. Answer (4)

26. Answer (3) 31. Answer (3)

The vessel has only five faces. FBD of 2 kg blocks

By Gauss’s Theorem, Flux of electric field through

27. Answer (4)

34. Answer (3) SECTION-B

35. Answer (3) After collision

 T =W + 4 …(ii) 2  6400  103

40. Answer (2) 42. Answer (3)

  mA  g 44. Answer (2)

46. Answer (4) 2

So, no electron will be emitted. 0 i

Net magnetic field at centre due to complete

By Bernoulli’s Theorem  speed of A = 2 ×10–5 m/s

66. Answer (3) 74. Answer (4)

71. Answer (3) 76. Answer (2)

72. Answer (4)

78. Answer (2) 88. Answer (4)

80. Answer (1)

93. Answer (4) 2.5

112. Answer (4) 122. Answer (4)

133. Answer (4) 142. Answer (2)

167. Answer (2) 175. Answer (2)

171. Answer (4) Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity

183. Answer (1)

184. Answer (3) no intervening neck; Caecilians have an

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