Electrical

24 GEN 24-037
Power

Electrical
24 FOD 24-038
Power

Electrical
24 FOD 24-039
Power

Fire
Protection
26 FOD 26-023
&
Detection
Fire
Protection
26 FOD 26-024
&
Detection
Fire
Protection
26 FOD 26-025
&
Detection

Fuel
28 FOD 28-003
System

Fuel
28 LOC 28-004
System

Fuel
28 FOD 28-006
System

Fuel
28 OPS 28-014
System

Fuel
System
28A Monitorin FOD 28A-013
g&
Indicating
 Fuel
System
28A Monitorin FOD 28A-014
g&
Indicating

Fuel
System
28A Monitorin IND 28A-015
g&
Indicating

Ice &
30 Rain GEN 30-020
Protection

Ice &
30 Rain FOD 30-021
Protection

Pneumati
36 FOD 36-004
cs

Pneumati
36 IND 36-032
cs

Pneumati
36 FOD 36-033
cs

Pneumati
36 FOD 36-034
cs

Standard
70 GEN 70-022
Practices

Standard
70 SFT 70-023
Practices
 Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-011
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-012
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-013
ent

Engine
70A arrangem FOD 70A-014
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-017
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-018
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-020
ent

Engine
70A arrangem GEN 70A-022
ent

Engine
70B Performa GEN 70B-006
nce

Engine
70B Performa GEN 70B-008
nce

Engine
70B Performa GEN 70B-009
nce
 Engine
70B Performa FOD 70B-010
nce

Power
71 GEN 71-018
Plant

Power
71 GEN 71-019
Plant

Power
71 GEN 71-020
Plant

Power
71 GEN 71-021
Plant

Popwer
71 GEN 71-022
Plant

Engine
72 GEN 72-031
Turbine

Engine
72 GEN 72-032
Turbine

Engine
72 GEN 72-033
Turbine

Engine
72 GEN 72-034
Turbine

Engine
72 GEN 72-035
Turbine

Engine
72 GEN 72-036
Turbine
 Engine
72 GEN 72-037
Turbine

Engine
72 OPS 72-038
Turbine

Engine
72 LOC 72-039
Turbine

Engine
73 Fuel GEN 73-006
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-007
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel GEN 73-008
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel GEN 73-017
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-018
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-019
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-020
& Control

Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-021
& Control
 Engine
73 Fuel FOD 73-022
& Control

Engine
Fuel
73A GEN 73A-018
& Control
FADEC

Engine
Fuel
73A FOD 73A-019
& Control
FADEC

Engine
Fuel
73A FOD 73A-020
& Control
FADEC

Engine
Fuel
73A FOD 73A-021
& Control
FADEC

Engine
Fuel
73A FOD 73A-022
& Control
FADEC

74 Ignition FOD 74-010

75 Air FOD 75-018

75 Air FOD 75-019

75 Air FOD 75-020

75 Air FOD 75-021

77 Indicating FOD 77-019

77 Indicating LOC 77-020

77 Indicating FOD 77-021

77 Indicating LOC 77-022

77 Indicating IND 77-023

77 Indicating GEN 77-024

77 Indicating FOD 77-020

78 Exhaust LOC 78-016

78 Exhaust FOD 78-022

78 Exhaust LOC 78-024

78 Exhaust GEN 78-025

78 Exhaust GEN 78-026

78 Exhaust FOD 78-027

78 Exhaust GEN 78-028

78 Exhaust IND 78-029

79 Oil GEN 79-003

79 Oil GEN 79-006

79 Oil LOC 79-008

79 Oil FOD 79-011

79 Oil LOC 79-013

79 Oil IND 79-014

79 Oil GEN 79-019

79 Oil FOD 79-020

80 Starting MP 80-009

80 Starting FOD 80-017

80 Starting FOD 80-018

80 Starting MP 80-019

80 Starting MP 80-020

80 Starting FOD 80-021

80 Starting FOD 80-022

Where is the IDG installed?
a) On the rear left side of the engine main gearbox.
b) On the forward left side of the engine main gearbox.
3
c) On the left side of the angle gearbox.

The IDG fuel/oil heat exchanger transfers heat from…

a) the engine fuel to the IDG oil.
b) the IDG oil to the engine fuel. 3
c) the engine oil and the IDG oil to the engine fuel.
What is NOT the function of the Generator Control Unit (GCU)?
a) To control the voltage and frequency.
b) To prevent overcurrent in the electric-power generation channel. 3
c) To change the variable main gear box speed into constant speed for the generator.
How many fire detection elements are there in the engine?
a. Three.
b. Four. 3
c. Six.
In what case the fire warning does NOT appear in the cockpit?
a. Fire signal related to one loop when the other is faulty.
b. Break of both loops within 5 seconds. 3
c. Break of one of the loops.
How many switches are there in the fire detector responder?
a. One.
b. Two. 3
c. Three.
How is the fuel tanks consumption priority obtained during flight?
a. Wings tanks fuel and center tank fuel feed the engines simultaneously.
b. As the fuel level in the wing tank decreases, the center tank fuel is transferred to the wing
tanks by transfer valves which supplied pressure for two jet pumps. 3
c. The center tanks fuel will be used first because the related booster pumps have greater
output pressure.

Where is the RTT valve (Return-to-Tank valve) fitted on the engine?

a. The valve is attached to the TMS (Thermal Management System) manifold at 9:00 position.
b. The valve is installed in the IDG Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger. 3
c. The valve is attached to the Integrated Fuel Pump and Control (IFPC) at 3:00 position.

Which computer controls the RTT valve (Return-to-Tank valve) directly?

a. FLSCU (Fuel Level Sensing Control Unit).
b. EEC (Electronic Engine Control). 3
c. EIU (Engine Interface Unit).
The central fuel transfer valves on NEO aitcaft are:
a. Manually controlled and open when the MODE SEL push button is selected to MAN.
b. Closes automatically if the high level in the center tank is detected. 2
c. Automatically opens if a low level is sensed in either main wing tank.
If the wing tank fuel contents decreases to 280 kg:
a. The related FLSCU sends a signal to close the RTT valve (Return-to-Tank valve) through
the FADEC.
b. A warning is given to the crew via Engine/Warning Display (EWD) when specific failures has 3
occured.
c. The FUEL page shows automaticaly on the System Display (SD) to give fuel system data to
the crew.
When does the FADEC send a signal to close the RTT valve (Return-to-Tank valve)?
a. The FADEC closes its related RTT valve if the hydraulic oil temperature is above certain
limits.
b. The FADEC closes its related RTT valve if the IDG oil temperature is not between certain
limits. 3
c. The FADEC closes its related RTT valve when the excessive pressure condition has
occurred in the wing surge tank.

Is it possible to check the position of the refuel valve during refueling operation?
a. The blue OPEN light comes on when the refuel valve switch is set in the OPEN position on
the refuel/defuel control panel 800VU. In this case the refuel valve is open.
b. The amber OPEN light comes on when the MODE SELECT is set to REFUEL position on 3
the fuel control panel. It confirms the opening of the refuel valve.
a. There is no refuel valve indicator. The indication that the valve is open is an increase in the
fuel quantity.

Where are the Nacelle Anti-Ice Pressure Regulating Shutoff Valves (NAI PRSOVs)
located?
a) Mounted to the HPC case at 5:00 and 6:00. 3
b) Mounted to the HPC case at 3:00 and 4:00.
c) Mounted to the HPC case at 6:00 and 6:30.
What are the types of the thermocouples located in the fan compartment for hot air
leakage detection?
a) Type K. 3
b) Type F.
c) Type T.
The Pressure Regulator Bleed Valve (PRV) regulates the downstream pressure to … for
normal bleed operation.
a. 49 plus or minus 9 psig. 3
b. 51 plus or minus 9 psig.
c. 61 plus or minus 9 psig.
What does the crossbleed valve closed amber indication mean?
a. Valve fully closed.
b. Valve closed and disagree. 3
c. Valve fault.
What is the minimum pressure necessary to open the HP Bleed Valve?
a. 15 psig.
b. 18 psig. 3
c. 20 psig.
The HP Bleed Valve pneumatically limits the downstream static prssure to...
a. 55 psig plus or minus 12 psig.
b. 62 psig plus or minus 12 psig. 3
c. 65 psig plus or minus 12 psig.
Aerodynamic strakes are mounted to the fan cowl outer surface...
a. on the inboard and outboard side.
b. on the inboard side. 2
c. on the outboard side.
Which of the following features are used to avoid fan cowl door loss in flight?
a) Fan cowl door electrical lock.
b) Fan cowl door latches proximity sensors. 3
c) Fan cowl door fail safe solenoid.
How many rotors does the PW1100G engine have?
a. The PW1100G-JM is a single Turbofan rotor engine.
b. Two rotors: Low Pressure Rotor and High Pressure Rotor. 1
c. Three rotors: Low, Intermediate and High Pressure Rotors.
How many engine bearing compartments are on the PW1100G engines?
a. Front compartment with bearings №1, №1.5, №2 and №3; and rear compartment with
bearings №4, №5 and №6.
b. Front compartment with bearings №1 and №2; and rear compartment with bearings №3,
№4 and №5. 3
c. 5 compartments: Fan rotor and Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) with bearings №1 and
№1.5; front of N1 rotor with bearing №2; front of N2 rotor with bearing №3; rear of N2 rotor
with bearing №4; and rear of N1 rotor with bearings №5 and №6).

Both engine rotors are supported by …

a. Five bearings.
b. Six bearings. 3
c. Seven bearings.
Which is NOT the function of the Fan Intermediate Case (FIC)?
a. To provide support for the Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS).
b. To provide a structural link between the inlet cowl and the core engine. 3
c. To support the fan case.
The Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) comprises:
a. A rack-and-pinion gear.
b. A helical gear. 3
c. A sun and star gear reduction unit.
The front end of the High Pressure rotor is supported on the:
a. roller bearing №4.
b. ball bearing №3. 3
c. ball bearing №2.
The aft end of the Low Pressure rotor is supported on the:
a. ball bearing №3.
b. roller bearings №5 and №6. 3
c. roller bearing №6.
How many bearings are there in the PW1100G engine?
a. 7.
b. 6. 1
c. 5.
The IAE V2500 (or IAE PW1100G) engine can be installed on all Airbus A320 family
aircrafts except following:
a. Airbus A318. 1
b. Airbus A319.
c. Airbus A321.
What of the engine bearings are ball bearings?
a. Bearings №1 and №1.5.
b. Bearings №2 and №3. 3
c. Bearings №4, №5 and №6.
What type are engine bearings №1 and №1.5?
a. Ball bearings.
b. Roller bearings. 3
c. Tapered roller bearings.
The Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) reduces the N1 rotor speed with the ratio of ...
a. 1:2.
b. 1:3. 3
c. 1:4.

The forward engine mount is attached to the pylon by:

a. two bolts and four shear rivets.
b. five bolts and self-locking nuts. 3
c. four bolts and two shear pins.
The forward engine mount is attached …
a) to the pylon and the aft Fan Case.
b) to the pylon and the CIC (Compressor Intermediate Case). 3
c) to the pylon and the TEC (Turbine Exhaust Case).
The aft engine mount is attached …
a) to the pylon and the TEC (Turbine Exhaust Case).
b) to the pylon and the CIC (Compressor Intermediate Case). 3
c) to the pylon and the aft Fan Case.
What loads is the engine forward mount capable to take?
a. Side and vertical loads.
b. Fore-aft, side and vertical loads. 1
c. Fore-aft, side, vertical and roll loads.
What is a purpose of the inlet scoops on the air inlet cowl outer barrel?
a. Providing cooling air to the Electronic Engine Control and for ventilating the fan
compartment. 3
b. Providing cooling air to the Igniter boxes and for ventilating the engine core.
c. Providing cooling air to the Low Pressure Turbine case.
How many Engine Modules are there in the PW1100-JM engine?
a) 17
b) 11 1
c) 14
The HP compressor on the PW1100-JM engine has ...
a) 8 stages.
b) 10 stages. 1
c) 17 stages.
What is the primary function of the diffuser?
a) To reduce the air velocity and increase the pressure.
b) To increase the air velocity. 3
c) To mix air and fuel.
The diffuser case assembly houses ...
a) The diffuser only.
b) The diffuser and combustor. 3
c) The diffuser, combustor and turbine nozzles subassembly.
How many access ports are there for borescope inspection of the LPC?
a) 3.
b) 4. 1
c) 6.
The Low Pressure Turbine consists of:
a. One stage.
b. Two stages. 3
c. Three stages.
The High Pressure Turbine consists of:
a. One stage.
b. Two stages. 3
c. Four stages.
Which of the following sentences relating to the engine turbines is correct?
a) HPT changes the energy of the hot gases into a mechanical energy to turn the HPC rotor
and the accessory drive.
b) HPT changes the energy of the hot gases into a mechanical energy to drive the LPC and 3
fan.
c) The High Pressure Turbine (HPT) is a four-stage turbine.

Where is the engine aerodynamic Station 2.5 situated?

a) It is the fan air discharge aerodynamic station.
b) The high pressure compressor air discharge. 3
c) The low pressure compressor air exit.
The Engine Fuel Metering Valve is a part of the ...
a. IFPC (Inegrated Fuel Pump and Control).
b. FDR (Flow Divider Valve). 3
c. FFM (Fuel Flow Meter).
The FFM (Fuel Flow Meter) ...
a. sends a signal to the EEC to calculate the fuel flow to the combustor.
b. controls the fuel flow to the combustor. 3
c. adjusts the position of the FMV (Fuel Metering Valve).
The purpose of the Ecology Collector Tank is to ...
a. supply the fuel return pump with pressurized fuel.
b. supply the fuel drained from the FDR (Flow Divider Valve) to the IFPC boost pump during
engine operation. 3
c. collect the fuel drained from the FDR (Flow Divider Valve) after engine shutdown.

The IFPC (Integrated Fuel Pump and Control) has:

a) Boost, main and servo pumps.
b) Boost and servo pumps. 3
c) Boost and main pumps.
In the engine normal operation the fuel pumps of the IFPC (Integrated Fuel Pump and
Control) are used:
a) To pressurize the fuel coming from the fuel tanks and to deliver the fuel to the fuel nozzles
and engine component actuators.
b) To pressurize the fuel coming from the fuel tanks and to deliver the fuel to fuel nozzle and to 3
return the fuel to the fuel tanks.
c) To pressurize the fuel coming from the fuel tanks and to deliver the fuel to the fuel nozzles.

What is used to cool the oil in the fuel/oil heat exchanger?

a) Air.
b) Fuel. 1
c) Cold Oil.
How many fuel nozzles are installed on each engine?
a. Twelve.
b. Eighteen. 1
c. Twenty.
Dividing metered fuel between the fuel nozzles is the function of the ...
a. FFM (Fuel Flow Meter).
b. FMV (Fuel Metering Valve). 1
c. FDV (Flow Divider Valve).
The fuel/oil heat exchanger is used to…
a. cool fuel.
b. heat fuel and cool oil. 3
c. cool oil by air.
The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) is...
a. a single channel computer located in the avionic compartment.
b. a dual channel computer located on the engine fan case. 1
c. a computer wich provides engine's vibration monitoring.

What EEC channel is always in the active mode?

a) Both channels (A and B) are always is in the active mode
b) It can be A or B depending on the channel selected for the flight and on the health of the 3
channels, the healthiest is selected as the active channel.
c) Channel A is always is in the active mode.
During normal operation, the EEC is in the...
a) active/standby mode.
b) active/active mode. 3
c) active/active mode as well as during abnormal operation.
What would happen to the EEC (Electronic Engine Control) power supply in flight, if the
PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) failed?
a. The standby channel of the EEC would take over. 3
b. The ECU would now be powered using A/C 28 VDC power.
c. The ECU would now be powered using A/C battery power.
Which parameter does the EEC (Electronic Engine Control) use to control the RTT
(Return-to-Tank) valve?
a. The engine oil temperature. 3
b. The Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) oil temperature.
c. The engine fuel temperature.
During an autostart on the ground, what is the sequence the exciters are alterated?
a. EEC Channel A - Igniter 1; EEC Channel B - Igniter 1; EEC Channel A - Igniter 2; EEC
Channel B - Igniter 2.
b. EEC Channel A - Igniter 1; EEC Channel A - Igniter 2; EEC Channel B - Igniter 1; EEC
Channel B - Igniter 2. 3
c. EEC Channel A - Igniter 1; EEC Channel B - Igniter 2; EEC Channel A - Igniter 2; EEC
Channel B - Igniter 1.

The HPC … stage provides cooling air for the TIC (Turbine Intermediate Case) and LPT
rotor and case.
a) 3rd 3
b) 6th
c) 8th
The Buffer Air Heat Exchanger (BAHE) purpose is to...
a) cool the Station 2.5 bleed air before its delivery to the №4 bearing housing.
b) use Station 2.5 bleed air to cool the HPC 3rd stage air before its delivery to the №4 bearing
housing. 3
c) use the fan air to cool the HPC 3rd stage air before its delivery to the №4 bearing housing.

In normal operation, what is the position of the Active Clearance Control (ACC) valve
during start and idle?
a) Fully closed. 3
b) Fully opened.
c) Partially opened.
How are the compressor variable stator vanes operated?
a) Hydraulically using fuel pressure.
b) Hydraulically using oil pressure. 3
c) Pneumatically.
How many channels does the N2 speed sensor use?
a) 3 channels: - EEC (channel A), - EEC (channel B), - PHMU.
b) 2 channels: - EEC (channel A), - EEC (channel B). 3
c) 2 channels: - EEC (channel A), - PHMU.
The Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) on PW1100G is sensed by:
a. 4 thermocouple probes located on the Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
b. 4 thermocouple probes located in the Low Pressure Turbine (LPT) stage 2 nozzle assembly. 3
c. 6 thermocouple probes located just behind the High Pressure Turbine stage.

Where does the engine N1 speed sensor transmits the signal to?
a. Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
b. Electronic Engine Control (EEC) and Engine Interface Unit (EIU). 3
c. Electronic Engine Control (EEC) and Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit (EVMU).
The N2 speed sensor is installed:
a. at 9 o’clock position on the rear of the Turbine Intermediate Case (TIC).
b. at 4 o’clock position on the rear of the Compressor Intermediate Case (CIC). 3
c. on the right side of the Angle Gearbox (AGB) housing.
To monitor the rotor vibration, the Prognostics and Health Monitoring Unit (PHMU)
uses...
a) the N1 or N2 speed sensor signals. 2
b) the N1 and N2 speed sensor signals.
c) forward and aft engine accelerometers signals.
The Temperature Indicating System uses...
a. two EGT sensors.
b. four EGT sensors. 1
c. six EGT sensors.
The Exhaust Gas Temperature (EGT) on PW1100G is sensed by ______ thermocouple
probes located on the Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
a. 2 1
b. 4
c. 6
The reverser Hydraulic Control Unit on the PW1100G-JM engine is installed...
a. in the pylon upper spar.
b. in the avionic compartment. 1
c. in the aft cargo compartment.
The HCU (Hydraulic Control Unit) is controlled by the:
a. Electronic Engine Control (EEC).
b. Engine Interface Unit (EIU). 1
c. Fuel Metering Unit (FMU).

The centerbody attachment flange alignment pin holes positions are at ____ o'clock:
a) 12 and 3
b) 12 and 5 3
c) 12 and 6
The forward centerbody assembly is installed with ____ bolts on the TEC flange; the aft
centerbody assembly is attached to the forward centerbody with ____ bolts and
nutplates.
a) 23; 13. 3
b) 20; 10.
c) 21; 11.

There are _____ thrust reverser blocker doors on the PW1100G engines:
a) 12
b) 10 3
c) 8
Each reverser translating sleeve is operated by…
a. a hydraulic actuator.
b. two hydraulic actuators. 3
c. a electric actuator.
The primary nozzle is fastened to...
a. the aft fitting of the pylon structure.
b. the engine Turbine Intermediate Case (TIC). 3
c. the aft flange of the Turbine Exhaust Case (TEC).
Where is the REV indication shown on ECAM?
a. At the top of the EPR indicator.
b. On the lower ECAM screen. 3
c. In the middle of the N1 indicator.
The Lubrication and Scavenge Oil Pump (LSOP) has ____ pressure pump stage(s) and
____ scavenge pump stages.
a. 1; 6. 3
b. 2; 4.
c. 1; 5.
What type are the oil pumps in the Lubrication and Scavenge Oil Pump (LSOP)?
a) Positive displacement gear type.
b) Gear type. 3
c) Piston type.
Where is the Lubrication and Scavenge Oil Pump (LSOP) located?
a. On the left side of the Fan Case.
b. On the left front side of the Main Gearbox. 1
c. On the right side of the Fan Case.
What is a purpose of the Anti-siphon device in the engine oil system?
a. It is to decrease engine oil consumption rate.
b. It is to prevent oil system from overfilling. 3
c. It is to prevent oil from draining by gravity from the tank through the pump into the gearbox
after engine shutdown.
Where is the engine oil tank located?
a. It is installed on the left side of the fan case.
b. It is installed on the right side of the fan case.
c. It is installed on the left side of the turbine frame. 1

What happens if the oil scavenge filter is clogged?

a. Oil filter clog warning is activated in the cockpit.
b. A visual clogging indicator on the filter becomes red. 3
c. Oil low press switch closes.
How many bearing are there in the forward compartment?
a) Four bearings: the first is a ball bearing, the second is a roller bearing, the third is a ball
bearing, the forth is a roll bearing.
b) Two bearings: the first is a forward ball bearing, the second is an aft roller bearing. 3
c) Two bearings: the first is a forward tapered roller bearing, the second is an aft tapered roller
bearing.

The function of the Oil Control Module (OCM) is to...

a. distribute pressurized oil to the various engine compartments and heat exchangers.
b. increase oil pressure in front of the oil supply pump. 3
c. supply oil to the distributers and monitor oil quantiry.
Is there possibility for engine start if the starter shutoff valve solenoid is failed?
a. Yes. The starter air valve can be opened/ closed manually using a 0.375 inch square drive.
b. Yes. We must use the ENG MAN START pushbutton for engine start in this case. 3
c. No. The start valve must be replaced by new one in this case.

Is there a possibility to select the ignition system (A or B) during engine start?

a. Yes. Pilots can select the ignition system A or B manually.
b. No. Each ignition system is alternately selected by the EEC for each starting sequence.
c. No. The ignition system A is always active when the engine mode selector is in IGN/START 1
position.

How does the Starter Air Valve (SAV) open during a manual (alternate) start?
a. It is automatic once the ENG MASTER switch is placed to the ON position.
b. By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel. 3
c. By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel while the ENG
MODE selector is in IGN/START position.
Is it possible to open the engine Starter Air Valve (SAV) manually?
a. Yes. We can operate this valve by a manual drive.
b. Yes. We can use the ENG MAN START pushbutton for engine start in this case. 3
c. No. There is not any possibility to open the SAV manually.
Where and how is the Starter Air Valve (SAV) fitted?
a. It is bolted to a flange on the Main Gearbox.
b. It is mounted to a Quick Attach/Detach (QAD) ring on the Abgle Gearbox. 3
c. It is mounted to a Quick Attach/Detach (QAD) ring on the Main Gearbox.

The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) controls and monitors the start
sequence…
a) in automatic mode. 2
b) either in automatic or manual mode.
c) in manual mode.

What of the following happens during PW1100G engine automatic start when the HP
rotor reaches 50% of N2 speed?
a. EEC opens the Starter Air Valve (SAV), then energizes one of the two ignition exciters. 2
b. EEC closes the Starter Air Valve (SAV) and cuts off ignition.
c. EEC oprens fuel flow in to the engine combustion chamber.
 21/12
NEO PD24-05 INI
2016

21/12
NEO PD24-07 INI
2016

24-44 21/12
NEO INI
P24-86 2016

21/12
NEO PD26-05 KFK
2016

21/12
NEO PD26-10 KFK
2016

21/12
NEO PD26-14 KFK
2016

NEOD28- 21/12
NEO KFK
10/15 2016

NEO28-
28 21/12
PW KFK
NEOD28- 2016
28/29

NEOD28- 21/12
PW KFK
26/27 2016

NEO28- 18/01
NEO KFK
146/147 2017

NEO28-
62 21/12
PW KFK
NEOD28- 2016
26
 NEO28-
62 21/12
PW KFK
NEOD28- 2016
26

28-92/104
NEO28-
18/01
ALL 106/118 KFK
2017
NEOD28-
35

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-30- INI
2016
012

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-30- INI
2016
023

NEO36-
28 21/12
PW KFK
NEOD36- 2016
26

NEOD36- 21/12
PW KFK
10 2016

NEOD36- 21/12
PW KFK
22 2016

21/12
PW NEOD36- KFK
2016
22

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
016 2016

P70- 18/01
PW KFK
18/19 2017
 P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
088 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
088 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
089/090 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
114 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
111/114 2016

P70- 21/12
PW KFK
088/089 2016

P70- 21/12
PW KFK
088/089 2016

P70- 21/12
PW KFK
088/089 2016

PW V70-2/3 03/03
BMD
V2500 P70-08 2014

P70- 21/12
PW KFK
088/089 2016

P70- 21/12
PW KFK
088/089 2016
 21/12
PW P70-114 KFK
2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
026/027 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
026 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
028 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
026 2016

P70-80- 21/12
PW KFK
13/182 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-092 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-125 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-129 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-130 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-120 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-144 2016
 B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-136 2016

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-136 2016

B1/B2-72- 21/12
PW KFK
84/85 2016

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
234/236

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
276

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
262

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
233

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
233

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
267

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
258

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
252
 NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
267

C-70-
14/16
PW 06/09
NEO BMD
V2500 2010
B1/B2-73-
199

NEO
PW 21/12
B1/B2-73- KFK
V2500 2016
202

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
202

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
191/224

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-73- KFK
2016
226

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-74- KFK
2016
301

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-75- KFK
2016
358

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-75- KFK
2016
367

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-75- KFK
2016
389
 NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-75- KFK
2016
315

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
426/429

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
434

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
422

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
426

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
449

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
434

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-77- KFK
2016
434

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
518

AMM78-
00-00
V2500 14/05
NEO BMD
PW 2014
B1/B2-78-
518

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
550
 NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
550

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
486

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
486

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
550

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-78- KFK
2016
557

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-79- KFK
2016
598

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-79- KFK
2016
598

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-79- KFK
2016
598

B1-70-
276
CFM56 14/05
NEO DYG
PW 2014
B1/B2-79-
662

B1-70-
284
B2-70-
CFM56 02/08
424 KZK
PW 2015
NEO
B1/B2-79-
582
B1-70-96
V2500 NEO 14/05
DYG
PW B1/B2-79- 2014
602
 NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-79- KFK
2016
088

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-79- KFK
2016
612

B1-70-
328
V2500 14/05
NEO DYG
PW 2014
B1/B2-80-
708

AMM80-
00-00
V2500 21/12
NEO KFK
PW 2016
B1/B2-80-
301

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-80- KFK
2016
714

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-80- KFK
2016
708

NEO
21/12
PW B1/B2-80- KFK
2016
701

AMM80-
00-00
V2500 21/12
NEO KFK
PW 2016
B1/B2-80-
714

B1/B2-70- 21/12
PW KFK
80-715 2016