Full Test Jee Advanced-P1-050523

FULL TEST PAPER − I
IIT-JEE, 2023
Time: 180 Minute Maximum Marks: 186

Please read the instructions carefully.
INSTRUCTIONS
A: General:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point
pen.
2. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer
Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
3. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
4. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.
5. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
6. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
7. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test
Booklet with them.
B: Questions paper format & Marking Schema:

1. The question paper consists of Three Sections: Physics (PH), Chemistry (CH), Mathematics
(MT).
2. Each Section I, II & III has TWO parts: Part A, Part C.
3. PART A is further subdivided into Two.
a. For questions 1 to 4 in PART A you will be awarded +3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (−1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
b. For questions 5 to 12 in PART A, you will be awarded +4 marks if you darken ALL the
bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0)
marks will be awarded. Minus one (−1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
4. For each question in PART C, you will be awarded +3 marks if you darken the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. In case of
bubbling of incorrect answer, (0) mark will be awarded.
Enrollment No. : Batch :
Name :
Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:
FIITJEE Limited, Chandigarh Centre, SCO-321-322, Sector 35-B, Chandigarh – 160 022 Ph. 0172 3010043, Fax: 4001003
Website: www.fiitjee.com Email: chandigarh@fiitjee.com
IITJEE-2023 FULL TEST JEE ADVANCED-P1-050523-2
SECTION – I: Physics
PART A Single Correct Choice Type
This part contains FOUR Single Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Consider two arbitrary decay equations and mark the correct alternative given below.
92 U → n +92 U U → p +91
230 229 230 229
(i) (ii) 92 Pa
Given M ( 230
92 )
U = 230.033927u
M ( 229
92 )
U = 229.0.33496u,M ( 229
91 )
U = 229.032089
mn = 1.008665u
mp = 1.007825
1 amu = 931.5 MeV.
(A) Only decay (i) is possible (B) Only decay (ii) is possible
(C) Both the decays are possible (D) Neither of the two decays is possible
2.
0
3. Radiation of wavelength (0 being the threshold wavelength) is incident on a photosensitive metallic sphere of
3
radius R. The charge developed on the sphere when electrons cease to be emitted will be
40Rhc 60Rhc
(A) (B)
e 0 e 0
80Rhc 120Rhc
(C) (D)
e 0 e 0
4. A toy car is moving on a closed track whose curved portions are semicircles of radius 1m. The adjacent graph
describes the variation of speed of the car with distance moved by it (starting from point P). The time t required for
the car to complete one lap is equal to 6k second. Find k. (take ln2  2)
Speed v, m/s
0.250
1m 1m
0.125
S(m)
P 0 2 2+/2 2+ 4+ 2+3/2 4+2
2m
S=0
(A) 4 (B) 8
(C) 12 (D) 16
Space for rough work
FULL TEST JEE ADVANCED-P1-050523-3 IITJEE-2023
PART A Multi Correct Choice Type
This part contains EIGHT Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is (are) correct answers.
5. A rod CD of length L and mass M is placed horizontally on a frictionless horizontal

surface as shown. A second identical rod AB which is also placed horizontally
(perpendicular to CD) on the same horizontal surface is moving along the surface
with a velocity v in a direction perpendicular to rod CD and its end B strikes the rod
CD at end C and sticks to it rigidly. Then:
(A) speed of centre of mass of the system just after impact is v /4
(B) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is 3v /5L
(C) speed of centre of mass of the system just after impact is v /2
(D) the (angular speed) of system just after collision is 5v /3L
6. Two adiabatic processes involving an ideal gas are plotted on a P – V diagram. A and B are two points on these
curves as shown in the diagram. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(A) Heat is given to system in the process AB

(B) Heat is rejected by system in the process AB
(C) Whether heat is rejected or absorbed by the system during the process AB does not depend on the
magnitude of the slope of line AB
(D) Whether heat is rejected or absorbed by the system during the process AB does not depend on the position
of the points A and B on the P – V diagram
7.
8.
9.
10.
11. Bodies of mass m = 0.5 kg, resting on a horizontal frictionless tabletop, are
connected with an unstretched spring of length L = 20 cm, and of spring
constant K = 16 N/m. The mass of the spring is negligible. At a certain moment
the bodies are given an initial speed of v0 = 0.36 m/s, towards the wall on the
right. The body at the right collides with the wall totally elastically.
(A) The greatest compression of the spring during the motion is 9 cm.
(B) The right body hit the wall again, when the spring is unstretched
(C) The change in the linear momentum of the system after all collision will be 0.72 kgm/s
(D) Finally both the bodies will have same velocity.
4
12. In young’s experiment, the upper slit is covered by a thin glass plate of refractive index and of thickness 9 ,
3
where is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. The lower slit is also covered by another glass plate of
3
thickness 2 & refractive index , as shown in figure. If 0 I is the intensity at point P due to slits S 1 & S2 each,
2
then:
(A) Intensity at point P is 4I0

(B) Two fringes have been shifted in upward direction after insertion of both the glass plates together
(C) Optical path difference between the waves from S1 & S2 at point P is 2
(D) If the source S is shifted upwards by a small distance 2 d then the fringe originally at P after inserting the
d 
plates, shifts downwards by D  1 
 d2 
PART C Integer Based
1. A stone projected at an angle of 60° from the ground level strikes at an angle of 30° on the roof of a building of
height ‘h’. The speed of projection (m/s) is v. Find value of v/5.
Take h = 30 m, g = 10 m/s2
2. A particle is projected from point A, that is at a distance 4R from the centre of the earth, with
speed v1 in a direction making 30° with the line joining the centre of the earth and point A, as
shown. The particle passes grazing the surface of the earth. Consider gravitational interaction
only between these two. Find v1 in km/sec. Report your answer in nearest integer.
(use GM/R = 6.4 × 107 m2/s2)
→
3. A ship swims at constant velocity v on a windless ocean. A short sound
pulse is emitted from a sound source located at point A of the open deck of
the ship. The sound is reflected from wall B that is at distance L from point
A. The sound is also reflected from wall C that is also at distance L . The
reflected sounds arrive back at the sound office with time difference ∆t .
(this time difference is measured by a time piece that is connected to a
microphone placed next to the source).Given L m t s = ∆ = 16 , 40µ and
speed of sound in air( c) is 320 m/s . Find the speed of ship in m/s(to the
→ →
nearest integer)(note moving from A to C, v is along c where as moving
→ →
from A to B v is perpendicular to c ).
4. Potential energy curve (Sinusoidal) is shown graphically for a particle. The potential
energy does not depend on y and z coordinates. The maximum value of
corresponding conservative force (in magnitude) for range 0 < x < 2 is ‘n’
(in Newton). Find ‘n’.
Report your answer is nearest integer.
(Take  = 3.14).
5.
Fill bubble corresponding to……… Displacement (in m) × 2.
 x   x 
6. If two sound waves, y1 = 0.3 sin 596  t −  and y2 = 0.5 sin 604  t − 330  superimposed, The ratio of
 330   
maximum and minimum intensities of beats is ‘x’. Then sum of integers of ‘x’ is
SECTION – II: Chemistry

− −
1. Ag(s) | AgBr(s) | Br(0.01N) || Cl(0.2N) | AgCl(s) | Ag(s) If Ksp of AgBr & AgCl at 25 C are 10–12 & 10–10 respectively. Find
which is/are true for above cell at 25C(log2 = 0.3)
(A) As E0Ag+ / Ag is not given so E cell cannot be determined
(B) E cell is 0.041 Volt
(C) G > 0
(D) E 0cell cannot be determined as data is insufficient
2. Bond energy of N  N and N = N are 946 kJ/mol and 418 kJ/mol respectively. H0f of N3− is 500 kJ/mol. Then
enthalpy of resonance of N3− will be
(A) −88 kJ/mol (B) −83 kJ/mol
(C) −94 kJ/mol (D) −126 kJ/mol
3. Two mol of an ideal mono atomic gas undergoes from A to B state as shown
in the figure. If for the process AB, PT2 = constant. Then work done (in cal) on
the system for the process AB is
(A) 4000 Cal (B) 2000 Cal
(C) 6000 Cal (D) −6000 Cal
4. 0.1 mols of AgNO3, KCl and Kl each are mixed in one litre of water. If Ksp(AgCl) = 10–12 and Ksp(Agl) = 10–16 then
in the final solution
(A) [Ag+] = 10–6M; [Cl-] = 10–6M; [I–] = 10–10M
(B) [Ag+]= 10–8M; [Cl–] = 10–4M; [I–] = 10–8M
(C) AgCl precipitated = 0.1 mol; Agl precipitated = 0.1 mol
(D) [Ag+]= 10–11M; [Cl–]= 0.1M ; [I–] = 10–5M
5. Which of the following about SF4, SOF4, CH2SF4 and OCF2 molecules is correct-
(A) Equatorial FSF bond angle in SOF4 will be less than that in SF4 molecule
(B) The two hydrogens, carbon, sulphur and two flourines (of axial positions) in molecule CH 2SF4 will be lying in
the same plane
(C) The bond angle FCO will be < 120° in molecule OCF2
(D) The axial FSF bond angle in SF4 = 180°
6. The following concentration curves were plotted for the concentration of A, B and C in a vessel (K c of the reaction
is constant during the whole process).
Consider the following statement(s) which is incorrect

(A) Ratio of temperature at equilibrium (2) to at equilibrium (1) is 1.33
(B) Ratio of volume of container at equilibrium (2) to at equilibrium (1) is 0.75
(C) Ratio of pressure at equilibrium (2) to equilibrium (1) is 1.25
(D) Ratio of moles of gases at equilibrium (2) to at equilibrium (1) is approx 0.93
7. Select CORRECT statement(s)

(A) Stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increase in size of the metal ion
(B) Increase in stability of peroxides and superoxides in I(A) is due to stabilisation of large anions by larger
cations through lattice energy effects.
(C) The low solubility of LiF is due to its high lattice energy whereas low solubility of CsI is due to smaller
hydration energy.
(D) NaOH crystals are not moisture absorbing in nature.
8. In a hypothetical solid C atoms from CCP lattice with A atoms occupying all the tetrahedral voids and B atoms
occupying all the octahedral voids. A and B atoms are of the appropriate size such that there is no distortion in the
CCP lattice. Now if a plane is cut (as shown) then the cross section of the plane would not be like.
9. Boyle's temperature of a vander Waal's gas is 350 K. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the
gas?
(A) The gas can't be liquefied at 300 K
(B) The gas can be liquefied at 150 K
(C) The gas shows negative deviation at low pressure and 275 K
(D) The gas shows positive deviation at any pressure at 400 K
10. In which of the following reactions products mentioned are correct?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11. Choose the correct statement (s)
(A) is formed.
(B) Intermediate formed is aromatic
(C) is formed involving non-aromatic intermediate
(D) The intermediate is
12.
Select the correct statement
0
1. B2H6 + NH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
High temperature(200 C)
1:2ratio of reac tant
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
H2O

→B + C + D
B = Base, C= Acid, D = Gas;
X is no. of lone pairs on B
Y is basicity of C
Z is atomicity of d, then X+ Y + Z is
2. How many of following compound will react with NaHCO3.
3. Total number of geometrical isomers for the complex: [Ir (acac)(SCN)(H2O) (NH3)(Py)]+
4. For coagulation of 500 mL of Fe(OH)3 sol in two hours, 1 mL of 1 M Na2SO4 electrolyte is required. What is the
coagulating value of Na2SO4 electrolyte?
5. How many acetals are formed when acetaldehyde is treated with CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH) in gaseous HCl?
6. For the Equilibrium

CuSO4.5H2O ( s) CuSO4.3H2O ( s) + 2H2O ( g)
Kp = 2.25 x 10–4 atm2
x
Vapour pressure of water is 22.8 torr at 298 k the percentage relative humidity is expressed as x% find .
10
SECTION – III: Mathematics

1. If g(x) = max|y2 – xy| (0  y  1) then minimum value of g(x) (for real x) is

1
(A) (B) 3− 8
4
1
(C) 3+ 8 (D)
2
2. If u = a2 cos2  + b2 sin2  + a2 sin2  + b2 cos2  , then the difference between maximum and minimum
value of u2 is
(A) 2 a2 + b2 (B) (a – b)2
(C) 2(a2 + b2) (D) (a + b)2
1
If y1 = max | z −  | − | z −  | , where |z| = 2 and y2 = max | z −  | − | z −  | , where |z| =
2 2
3. and  and 2
2
are complex cube roots of unity, then
(A) y1 = 3 , y2 = 3 (B) y1 < 3 , y2 = 3
(C) y1 = 3 , y2 < 3 (D) none of these
4. If y = x – 3, y = x + 1, y = x + 4 are three normals drawn from a fixed point P to the parabola whose axis is
along x-axis, then 2 – 3 is equal to
5
(A) 5 (B)
2
5
(C) − (D) none of these
2
5. If f(x) > f(x) for all x  1 and f(1) = 0, then

(A) exf(x) is a decreasing function (B) e−xf(x) is an increasing function
(C) f(x) > 0 for all x  (1, ) (D) f(x) < 0 for all x  [1, )
1 1
6. Given a natural number n. Consider the function f(x) = − − 2nx , then for all 0 < x < 1, which of
(1 − x )n
(1 + x )n
the following is / are correct
(A) f(x) > 0 (B) f(x) > 0
(C) f(x) > 0 (D) none of these
7. The number of ways of choosing triplet (x, y, z) such that z  max{x, y} and x, y, z  {1, 2, …, n, n + 1} is
n + 1C
1
(A) 3 + n + 2C3 (B) n(n + 1)(2n + 1)
6
(C) 12 + 22 + … + n2 (D) 2(n + 2C3) – n + 1C2
 p1 p2   a1 a2 
8. Let  ,  and  ,  be any two rational points on the circle x + y = 1 where p1, p2, q1, q2, a1, a2, b1
2 2
 1 2
q q  b1 b2 
and b2 are integers and H.C.F. of (p1, q1), (p2, q2), (a1, b1) and (a2, b2) is 1.
Then the statements which are always correct are
(A) q1 = q2 (B) p1 =  1 or 0
(C) b1 = b2 (D) a1 =  1 or 0
x2 y2
9. AB and CD are two equal and parallel chords of the ellipse + = 1 . Tangents to the ellipse at A and B
a2 b2
intersect at P and at C and D at Q. The line PQ
(A) passes through the origin (B) is bisected at the origin
(C) cannot pass through the origin (D) is not bisected at the origin
x
tan x  1
10. The value of lim + lim  1 + 2  is
x →−4 x + 4 x →  x 
(A) greater than 3 (B) greater than 4
(C) greater than 5 (D) less than 6
11. Let Sn(n  1) be a sequence of sets defined by
S1 = {0}, S2 =
3 5
 
, , S3 =
2 2
, ,
8 11 14
3 3 5 
S4 = 
15 19 23 27
, ,
4 4 4 4
, 
, … then
439 431
(A) third element in S20 is (B) third element in S20 is
20 20
(C) sum of elements in S20 is 589 (D) sum of elements in S20 is 609
12. The differential equation for the family of curves y = c sinx can be given by
2 2 2
 dy   dy   dy 
  = y cot x   −  sec x  + y = 0
2 2 2
(A) (B)
 dx   dx   dx 
2
 dy  dy
  = tan x = y cot x
2
(C) (D)
 dx  dx
1. The order of differential equation of family of circles touching two given circles externally is
2. The longest geometric progression that can be obtained from the set (100, 101, …., 1000) has the number of
terms equal to ………….
dy x3 + y 2
3. Let y = f(x) be solution of = and f(0) = 0, then f(2) is
dx xy
i
4. Let P(x) be a polynomial of degree n such that P(i) = , for i = 0, 1, 2, …, n. If n is odd then P(n + 1) is equal
i+1
to …………
1
5. The base AB of a triangle is 1 and height h of C from AB is less than or equal to . The maximum value of the 4
2
times the product of the altitudes of the triangle is ________
6. If f is continuous function satisfying f(f(x)) = 1 + x  x  R. then f(1) is equal to _________

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FULL TEST PAPER − I

Time: 180 Minute Maximum Marks: 186

B: Questions paper format & Marking Schema:

Enrollment No. : Batch :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

Space for rough work

PART A Multi Correct Choice Type

5. A rod CD of length L and mass M is placed horizontally on a frictionless horizontal

(A) Heat is given to system in the process AB

Space for rough work

Space for rough work

(A) Intensity at point P is 4I0

Space for rough work

PART C Integer Based

Space for rough work

Fill bubble corresponding to……… Displacement (in m) × 2.

Space for rough work

SECTION – II: Chemistry

Space for rough work

PART A Multi Correct Choice Type

Consider the following statement(s) which is incorrect

7. Select CORRECT statement(s)

Space for rough work

10. In which of the following reactions products mentioned are correct?

Space for rough work

11. Choose the correct statement (s)

(B) Intermediate formed is aromatic

(C) is formed involving non-aromatic intermediate

(D) The intermediate is

Space for rough work

Select the correct statement

PART C Integer Based

2. How many of following compound will react with NaHCO3.

6. For the Equilibrium

Space for rough work

SECTION – III: Mathematics

1. If g(x) = max|y2 – xy| (0  y  1) then minimum value of g(x) (for real x) is

Space for rough work

PART A Multi Correct Choice Type

5. If f(x) > f(x) for all x  1 and f(1) = 0, then

11. Let Sn(n  1) be a sequence of sets defined by

Space for rough work

PART C Integer Based

6. If f is continuous function satisfying f(f(x)) = 1 + x  x  R. then f(1) is equal to _________

Space for rough work

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