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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
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TNPSC GROUP – II
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(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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õ = ÖB_ Š 8 / åV^ Š 13.08.2021
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 8) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| (TAMILNADU HISTORY AND CULTURE)
1. sõÖ[® ØÃVF©¸[ söÀì sBÐéïÝm
2.
A) gu®Àì B)ØÃöBÀì
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c^W[® c¦u®D ÃE‡ ÖÂzŹ_ Ö¦D ØîD 'söÀì' ¨[Ã>[ ØÃVò^.
C)ï¦_Àì D)þðu®Àì
Ø>Võ| ØÄFm kV¿D ØÃö¼BVìï¹[ ØÃòç\çB cðìÝmD ¶]ïV«D?
A) \Âïâ¼Ã® B)ÀÝ>Vì ØÃòç\
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C)ØÃö¼BVç«© ¸çwBVç\ D)»Âïxç¦ç\
3. >Dt[>D \Âï^ ¶¤¡ç¦ç\ \VWéÝm
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6. gÂïD ¶]ìsªVFß ØÄ_KD ¶çÄ¡ ÖéV' ‡ ¨[Å zŹ_ gÂïD BVö¦D ka¼ïâ|Â
ØïVõ| ØÄ_KD ¨[® k^Ókì z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) ÃðD ¶]ïD c^ákö¦D B)>á«V> »ÂïD c^ákö¦D
C)ï_s ¶¤¡ c^ákö¦D D)c¦_ c®] tÂïkö¦D
7. c^Ókm ¨_éVD cBì¡^á_' ‡ Ö]_ ¶½Â¼ïV½â¦ ØÄV_o[ ØÃVòáVï k^Ókì
z¤©Ãm BVm?
A) cBìkm B)¨õbkm
C)ý©Ãm D)¨¿mkm
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼Ãì ¶«·©Ãèl_, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
8. ¶çªÝ>Å[
gzé À« ¸Å ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃVs_ EÅÍ> ¶Å\Vï ]òk^Ók«V_ z¤©¸¦©Ã|km BVm?
A) ¼Ã«VçÄ¥¦[ kVµkm
B)Ö_éV>kìÂz c>¡km
C)c^áÝ]_ zuÅD Ö_éV\_ Öò©Ãm
D)¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD.
9. Ø>VzÝ>ku®^ ¨_éVD >çé' ¨[® k^Ókì ¨ç> z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) ¸Å clö[ m[ÃÝç>Ý >\m m[ÃD ¼ÃV_ ïòm>_
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B) >Dt¦D Öò©ÃkuçÅ© ¸Å clìïÓÂzD ÃþìÍm ØïV|Ý>_.
C) c^áÝ]_ zuÅD Ö_éV\_ Öò©Ãm
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D) guÅ_ cç¦Bkìïçá ÖïwV]òÝ>_
10. ¨öBV_ ·¦©Ã½ÐD cF¡õ¦VD cFBVì
kVì' ‡ ÖÂzŹ_ BVòÂz yºz ØÄF>kì >©¸Âï x½BVm ¨ª k^Ókì
z¤©¸|þÅVì?
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A) °çwïÓÂz B)k¤BVìïÓÂz
C)ØÃöBkìïÓÂz D)AékìïÓÂz
11. å[ÅVuÅ_ c^ÓD >k®õ| ¶k«kì
12.
A) ÃõäÍm guÅV ïç¦
C)ØÄFBVç\ BVÐD Øï|D
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'¨[Å zŹ[ Ö®]¶½çB WçÅ¡ ØÄFï.
B)z½BVï ¼kõ| Ãkì
D)¶¿ÂïVu¤[ ¶[ç\ Øä[
Ø>Vâ¦çªÝm »GD \ðu¼ïè \VÍ>ìÂz ‡ ¨[Å zŹ_ c^á ckç\ í®D ïòÝm?
A) ï_sçB s¦ EÅÍ> ØÄ_kD ¼k® Ö_çé
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B)ï_s ïuzD ¶ásuz \ÂïÓÂz ¶¤¡ káòD
C)ï_s¼B \ÂïÓÂz ïõï^ ¼ÃV[Åm.
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k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) xBuE ØÄFm ¼ÄòD káÝç> cç¦B åV|
B)ØÃöB ¶ás_ xBuE °mD Ö_éV\_ káD >òk>Vï ÖòÝ>_ ¼kõ|D.
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¨ª k^Ókì z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) ØÃVFí¤ °\Vu¤ ¼ÄìÝ> ØÄ_kD B)cçwÂïV\_ ¼ÄìÝ> ØÄ_kD
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C)¸Åç« ¶½Ým ¼ÄìÂï©Ã|D ØÄ_kD D)ïá¡ JéD ¼ÄìÂï©Ã|D ØÄ_kD
19. c^áD cç¦ç\ cç¦ç\ .
W_éVm Àºþ s|D. - ÖÂzÅâÃVs_ ¼ïV½â¦ Ö¦Ýç> W«©Aï
A) gÂïD B)»ÂïD C)ØÃVòÓç¦ç\ D)¶¤¡ç¦ç\
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20. Îòk[ ¨Í> zðÝç> οÂï Øå¤BVï ØïVõ| kVw ¼kõ|D?
A) kVFç\ B) ØÃVÅVç\ ¶uÅ zðD
C) »ÂïD D) ¼ÄVDÃ_ Ö_éVç\
21. ØÄ_kºïÓ^ EÅÍ> ØÄ_kD ¨ª©Ã|km BVm?
A) ¶òâØÄ_kD B) ØÃVòâØÄ_kD
Tn C) ØÄsßØÄ_kD
22. ''¶[¸éVì ¨_éVD >\ÂzöBì'' ¨[ÐD zŹ_ ¶[¸éVì ØÄB_ BVm?
A) ¸ÅìÂz ¨_éVD ØïV|Ý>_
C) ¨_éVD >\ÂzöB>VÂz>_
D) A \u®D C
C) Ø>öÍmØÄB_kçï D) ·uÅÍ>wV_
26. >[z½çBß EÅÍ> z½BVïß ØÄFB sòDAÃkö¦D ÖòÂï í¦V>m?
A) ¼ÄVDÃ_ B) k®ç\ C) ØÄ_kD D) ·®·®©A
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¨ª© ÃV½Bkì
A) ÃV«]BVì B) ÃV«]>VÄ[ C) kVè>VÄ[ D) ØÃòÞEÝ]«ªVì
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36. ''¶bçkÝ mçáÝm °µï¦çé© Aïâ½
z®ïÝ >öÝ> zÅ^'' ¨ª ]òÂzŹ[ ØÃòç\çB í¤Bkì?
A) ÎáçkBVì B) ï_éV¦ªVì C) ëðì D) ï¸éì
37. ïVkuØÃõ| ¨[Å ØÃõ Aékì ¨Í> \[ªM[ ØÄsoÝ>VBVï sáºþªVì?
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A) ¼ïV©ØÃòÞ¼ÄVw[ B) þ^¹ kák[
C) ¼ïV©ØÃò åuþ^¹ D) Øå|\V[ ¶ÞE
38. ''~[Å kl¼ÅV Öm¼k
¼>V[®k[ \V¼>V ¼ÃVìïáÝ>V¼ª'' Š ¨[Å© ÃV¦_ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_?
A) åu¤çð B) z®ÍØ>Vçï
39. ¼Äm Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
1.Ö«V.¸. ¼Äm Š ØÄV_o[ ØÄ_kì
2.Ökì ¨¿]B ±_ Š >taBÂïD
Tn C) ¶ïåVû® D) AÅåVû®
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3.ÄVþÝ]B ¶ïVئt sòmØÃuÅ Ökì ±_ Š >tµ sòÍm
4.ï¦uïç«lM¼é Š Ökì ÖBu¤B ±_
A) 2, 4 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D) 3, 4
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¨[Å ÃV¦é½ïçá© ÃV½Bkì?
A) ÃV«]BVì B) ÃV«]>VÄ[ C) kVè>VÄ[ D) Øå_çé ·. xÝm
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51. Ãâ|¼ïVâç¦ ï_BVð ·Í>«Ý][ EÅ©A© ØÃBì?
A) ÃzÝ>¤¡ ïs«VBì B) \Âï^ ïsQì C) ÃVkéì \è D) A«âE ïsQì
52. å_é οÂïºï¹[ Ø>Vz©A ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|D ±_?
A) å_ka B) gÄV«Â¼ïVçk C) åVé½BVì D) Jmç«
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53. ''A_Øk¹ ØB_éVD ¯ÂïV ¦Vþ©
A[ªçï ØÄF> ØÃVuïVéD'' ¨[Å ÃV¦çé© ÃV½Bkì?
A) ïsQVl® B) Ø\VaQVl® C) ]«Vs¦ kVªDÃV½ D) \ïVïs
54. 2 ¶½ï¹_ ÃV¦©Ã|D ÃVkçï
A) gEöB©ÃV B) ïõè
Tn
55. \è¼\ïéV Ø>FkD \è¼\ïçéçB ¶çwÝmß ØÄ[Å y¡
A) Ã_ékÝy¡
C) ÖéºçïÝy¡
C) ØkõÃV
B) ï[MÝy¡
D) \èÃ_ékÝy¡
D) ïo©ÃV
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56. ïV|ïçá z¤ÂzD ¼k®ØÃBìï¹_ ¶_éV>m?
A) s_çé B) ØÃVuçÅ C) Ö®DA D) x¹
57. ''ØåÞE_ c«t[¤
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¼åìç\Ý ]Åt[¤
kÞÄçª ØÄV_kV«Ï! Š þ¹¼B
kVFßØÄV_o_ T««½'' ¨[Å© ÃV¦çé ÃV½Bkì BVì?
A) ÃV«]>VÄ[ B) ÃV«]BVì C) >V«VÃV«] D) kVè>VÄ[
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58. ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.ÃzÝ>¤¡Â ïs«VBì Š 1. ï_BVð ·Í>«D A) 3 1 4 2
b.\Âï^ ïsQì Š 2. >V«VÃV«] B) 1 2 3 4
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c.ïsQVl® Š 3. åV«VBð ïs C) 2 1 4 3
d.A«âE ïsQì Š 4. ÃV«]>VÄ[ D) 3 1 2 4
59. åV\Âï_ ïsQì Ãu¤B íu®ï^
tp
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C) yõ¦Vç\ Îa©A D) Öª ÃVzÃV|
62. Statement 1: Gender discrimination refers to health, education, economic and political inequalities
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between men and women in India.
Statement 2: Religious discrimination is unequal treatment of an individual or group based on their
beliefs.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) Only 2 correct
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íu® 1: ÃVoª ÃVzÃV| ¨[Ãm gõïÓÂzD ØÃõïÓÂzD Ö禼BBVª ·ïV>V«D, ï_s,
ØÃVòáV>V«D \u®D ¶«EB_ °uÅÝ>Vµ¡ïçá z¤ÂþÅm.
íu® 2: \> ÃVzÃV| ¨[Ãm \Âï¹[ åD¸Âçï ¶½©Ãç¦l_ Îò >M åÃ竼BV ¶_ém
z¿sªç«¼BV Ä\Ýmkt[¤ å¦Ýmk>VzD.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 2 >k®
Tn D) 2 \â|D Äö
63. The term "secular" was included in the preamble by _____ amendment of the Constitution of India
A) 42nd B) 43rd C) 44th
''Ä\BßÄVìÃuÅ'' ¨[Å ØÄV_éVªm å\m ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Ý>çªBVkm Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý][
D) 45th
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JéD xï¡ç«l_ ¼ÄìÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 42Škm B) 43km C) 44km D) 45km
64. Archaeological Survey of India discovered inscription evidence in which 60 % of it founded from
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________
A) Kerala B) Uttar Pradesh C) Tamil Nadu D) Karnataka
ÖÍ]B Ø>V_oB_ mçÅ Ömkç« ïõ|¸½Ý> ï_Økâ| ÄV[®ï¹_ 60% ¨Í> \VWéÝ]_
ÖòÍm ïõ|¸½Âï©Ãâ¦m?
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í¤Bkì BVì?
A) gì>ì s[ØÄ[â B) s.°. ütÝ
C) >V\ü ¼ÃV¼ï D) >V\ü \[¼ÅV
67. Match. a b c d
a. Kerala - 1. Sattriya A) 2 3 4 1
b.Karnataka - 2. Kathakali B) 1 3 4 2
c. Andhra Pradesh - 3.Yakshagana C) 1 2 4 3
d.Assam - 4. Kuchipudi D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.¼ï«áV Š 1. ÄÝöBV A) 2 3 4 1
b.ïìåV¦ïV Š 2. ï>ï¹ B) 1 3 4 2
c.gÍ]«¸«¼>ÄD Š 3. BÂ−ïVªD C) 1 2 4 3
d.¶ÄVD Š 4. zßE©A½ D) 1 2 3 4
68. Select the incorrect option
1.Tamil Nadu - Karakattam, Oyilattam
2.Kerala - Bhangra
3.Jammu & Kashmir - Tumhal
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4.Gujarat - Garpa, Thandia
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A) 1, 2 B) 2 only C) 1, 2, 3 D) 3, 4
>kÅVªç> ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.>tµåV| Š ï«ïVâ¦D, ÎléVâ¦D
2.¼ï«áV Š ú«V
3.ÛDx & ïVi*ì Š mDÇ_
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4.zÛ«VÝ Š ïVìÃV, >Võ½BV
A) 1, 2 B) 2 \â|D C) 1, 2, 3 D) 3, 4
69. Statement 1 : India is a country of "unity in diversity".
Statement 2: India's classical or folk dances showcase our rich cultural diversity
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1 : Îò z¤©¸â¦ ÄJïÝ][ åç¦xçÅï^ \u®D ÃwÂï kwÂïºïçá ÃõÃV| ¨ÐD
ØÄV_ z¤©¸|þÅm.
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íu® 2: ÖÍ]BVs[ ØÄËsB_ (\) åVâ|©AŠ妪ºï^ å\m ká\Vª ÃõÃVâ| Ã[xïÝ
>[ç\lçª ÃçÅÄVu®þ[Ū.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
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74. In which year did John F. Kennedy introduce the affirmative action?
A) 1959 B) 1960 C) 1961 D) 1962
ÛV[ ¨à© Øï[ª½ x>_ c®]Ã|ÝmD gçð ØïVõ| kÍ> gõ|?
A) 1959 B) 1960 C) 1961 D) 1962
75. Choose the correct option.
1. The Government of Madras announced financial assistance schemes for the depressed classes in
1885 & In some places, the government itself opened schools for the Depressed Classes.
2. In "1892" Chengalpattu Collector "Tremancre distributed 12 lakh acres of Panchami land to the
depressed Classes
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A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct
C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
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ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. ØÄ[çª \VïV𠶫· >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂïVª W] c>sÝ]⦺ïçá 1885 Š Ö_ ¶¤sÝ>m.
Eé Ö¦ºï¹_ >VµÝ>©Ã⼦VòÂïVª Ã^¹ïçá ¶«¼Ä ]ÅÍ>m.
2. ''1892'' Øĺï_Ãâ| gâEBì '']«[Ø\[ÿ¼«'' 12 ÖéâÄD °Âïì WéD >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂz
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kwºþªVì. Öm¼k ÃÞÄt WéD ¨ª©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
76. 69% reservation followed in Tamil Nadu under the _______amendment act
A) 74 B) 75
Tn
>twïÝ]_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|D 69% Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| ¨Ý>çªBVkm Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D?
A) 74 B) 75 C) 76
C) 76
D) 77
D) 77
77. Which article of the constitution of India states, Everyone is equal before the law?
A) 14 B) 15 C) 16 D) 17
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Äâ¦Ý][ x[ ¶çªkòD Ä\D, ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Í> s] z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 14 B) 15 C) 16 D) 17
78. Statement 1 : Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner
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ïòmk>VzD.
íu® 2 : ÎÝ> ïòÝm ¨[Ãm °>Vkm Î[çÅ© Ãu¤ >kÅVª ïõ¼ðVâ¦D ¶_ém ïòÝ>VzD.
A) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö B) íu® 1, 2 Äö
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religions in India.
Reason R : We need a secular country to maintain peace and harmony among people who have
different religious principles.
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80. Statement 1: In 1846, William John Thoms coined the term "Folklore"
Statement 2: His view is that the residue of ancient culture (Cultural Survival) is folklore.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: åVâ|AÅsBçé z¤ÂzD ”Folklore” ¨[Å ØÄV_çé, 1846_ s_oBD ÛV[ >V\·
¨[Ãkì còkVÂþªì.
íu® 2: ÃwºïVé© ÃõÃVâ½[ ¨ßÄD (Cultural Survival) åVâ|AÅsB_ ¨[Ãm ¶k«m ïòÝ>VzD.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
81. AmartyaSen's article ”Many Faces of Gender inequality” highlights ____ types of inequality
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
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¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[ ¨¿]B ÃVoª ÃVzÃVâ½[ Ã_¼k® xïºï^ ¨[Å >ç驸éVª ïâ|ç«l_ ¶kì ¨Ý
>çª ÃVzÃV|ï^ Ãâ½Bo|þÅVì.
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A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
82. Match. a b c d
a. Theory of Justice - 1. 1993 A) 2 3 1 4
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b. Justice as fairness - 2. 1971 B) 3 1 4 2
c. Political Liberalism - 3. 1985 C) 1 2 3 4
d. Law of people - 4. 1993 D) 1 3 4 2
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. À] ¼ïVâÃV|
b. ¼åìç\BVª À]
c. ¶«EB_ >V«VásB_
d. \Âï¹[ Äâ¦D
Š
Š
Š
Š
1.
2.
3.
4.
1993
1971
1985
1993
A)
B)
C)
D)
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2
3
1
1
3
1
2
3
1
4
3
4
4
2
4
2
e/
83. “ The ethics of reason will create a new political structure in which people will think of polices not to
optimize their self-interests but rather envisage society as a whole” said by
A) Thomas pogge B) John rawls C) AmartyaSen D) Socrates
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84. Statement 1: Fostering brotherhood among the people of India and assures individual dignity and
integrity of the country.
Statement 2: The secular Indian state declares public holidays to mark the festivals of all religions
s:
íu® 2: Ä\BßÄVìÃuÅ ÖÍ]B åV¦Vªm ¶çªÝm Ä\B swVÂïÓD ØÃVm s|xçÅ ¶¤sÂþÅm.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
85. Which article states that the State should not force any citizen to pay taxes to support any particular
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religion ?
A) 27 B) 26 C) 25 D) 24
¨Í>ØkVò z¤©¸â¦ Ä\BÝç>¥D g>öÂï ¶«ÄVªm ¨Í>ØkVò z½\ï窥D köØÄKÝm\V®
kuA®Ý> í¦Vm ¨[® í®D s]?
A) 27 B) 26 C) 25 D) 24
86. Who submitted the First communal Representative order in the Assembly?
A) Munusamy B) Sir RK Shanmugam
C) C. Nadesan D) Sir P. Thyagarayar
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íu® : ¸Å©ÃV_ ÛV], \>D, gõ, ØÃõ ÃVzÃV| gþBkuçÅ >[ ÄJï EÍ>çªBV_ ¨]ìÝ>kì
(\) \M>¼åBD \u®D ·B\öBVç> ïòÝç> ko¥®Ý]Bkì ØÃöBVì.
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ïV«ðD : ØÃöBVì >twï ÄJï æìÝ]òÝ>kV], ØÄBuÃVâ¦Váì, EÍ>çªBVáì gkVì. ¶kì ÄJï
À], ÄV]B ¨]ì©A, J¦åD¸Âçï ¨]ì©A, ÖçÅ \®©A, ÃzÝ>¤¡, ØÃõï^ x[¼ªuÅD,
ï_s gþBçk ÄVìÍ> EÍ>çªï¼á ØÃöBVì ØïV^çïï^ (¶) EÍ>çªï^ ¨[®
¶çwÂï©Ã|þ[Ū.
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A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu®D, ïV«ðxD >k®
88. Who headed the first Backward Classes Commission of Independent India?
A) Sattanathan
A) Kaka Kalelkar
B) Kaka Kalelkar
B) SSGill
Tn C) Mandal
·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì gçðBD BVì >çéç\l_ ¶ç\B©ØÃuÅm?
A) Äâ¦åV>[ D) K.N.sÛB[
D) K.N.Vijayan
89. Who was appointed as the Secretary of the Mandal Commission constituted in 1974?
C) Sattanathan D) KN Vijayan
e/
1974-gD gõ| ¶ç\B©ØÃuÅ \õ¦_ gçðBÝ]_ ØÄBéVá«Vï BVì WBtÂï©Ãâ¦Vì?
A) ïVïV ï¼é_ïì B) ¨ü.¨ü.þ_ C) Äâ¦åV>[ D) ¼ï.¨[.sÛB[
90. Statement 1: The ancient Indian civilization had evolved with the “Varnashrama Dharma” which
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c. Thoothukudi - 3. 90.18% C) 2 4 1 3
d. Nilgiris - 4. 86.16% D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï.
\Vkâ¦D ¨¿Ý>¤¡ sþ>D a b c d
a.ï[MBVz\ö Š 1. 85.20% A) 2 3 4 1
b.ØÄ[çª Š 2. 91.75% B) 1 3 4 2
c.#ÝmÂz½ Š 3. 90.18% C) 2 4 1 3
d.Àéþö Š 4. 86.16% D) 1 2 3 4
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The World day of social justice was observed on
A) March 22 B) February 21 C) May 21 D) February 20
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94. ÄJï ØÃVòáV>V« (\) ¶«EB_ À] ÖÍ]B \Âï^ ¶çªkòÂzD þç¦Âï ¼kõ|D ¨[Å
¼åVÂïÝç> Ø>¹¡©Ã|ÝmD ¶«EBéç\©A ¸ö¡ ¨m?
A) ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ B) ¶½©Ãç¦ ï¦ç\
C) xï¡ç« D) ¶«· kaïVâ|D ¼ïVâÃV|
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Which one of the constitution of India clearly expresses its intention to make the socio-economic and
political justice available to all the people of India?
A) Fundamental Rights B) Fundamental Duties
C) Preamble
100. Which article will not prevent any sort of appointment or reservation among backward communities, if
sufficient representation is not provided?
A) 15 (4) B) 16 (4) C) 29 (2) D) 17
¶«·©Ãèl_ ¼ÃV]B ¶á¡ ¸«]W]ÝmkD ØÃÅV> ¶çªÝm ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªòÂïVª
Ãè WB\ªºï¹_ ¼\uØïV^á©Ã|D ØÄB_ïÓÂz ¨Í> s] >ç¦BVï ÖòÂïVm?
A) 15(4) B) 16(4) C) 29(2) D) 17
101. Examine the following statement. (John rawls said)
Assertion A :Rawls argues that in a situation , we will most likely to support a decision on the rules
and organizations of that future society which would be fair for all members..
5
Reason R :This moment Rawls describes as thinking under a ‘Veil of Ignorance’.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
c8
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect
ÿµÂïõ¦ íuçÅ g«VFï. (ÛV[«V_ü í®km)
íu® : Îò óµWçél_ ¶Í> ¨]ìïVé ïuÃçª Äx>VBÝ]_ åVD còkVÂzD s]ï^ (\)
Ä⦺ï^ ¶çªkòÂzD ØÃVmkVª>Vï¡D, WBVB\Vª>Vï¡D \â|D ÖòÂzD ¨[®
ps
''ÛV[ «V_ü'' í®þÅVì.
ïV«ðD : ÖÍ> >òðÝ]_ ÛV[ «V_ü ''¶¤BVç\ ]ç«'' Š l[ ÿµ EÍ]©Ãm Ø>V¦ìÃVï
sköÂþÅm.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö Tn
D) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
102. Statement 1 : The Constitution of India shares power among all those affected by democratic norms
and protects them by their social and economic lives.
Statement 2: Social freedom and social justice are ensured by adopting alternative processes for
e/
social development.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2correct
íu® 1 : ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©AßÄâ¦D \ÂïáVâE Øå¤xçÅï¹[ ý ÃV]Âï©Ã⦠¶çªkòÂzD
.m
103. Statement 1:Hindustani music in north India and Carnatic music in south India are the instruments
that integrates people.
Statement 2: "Classical language" is a language that has the ability to be an international language
s:
105. UN declaration for ethnic, religious and linguistic minorities adopted in the year
A) December 18, 1992 B) December 19, 1992
C) November 18, 1992 D) November 19, 1992
Öª, \>, Ø\Va E®ÃV[ç\lªòÂïVª n.åV.¸«ï¦ªD ØÄF> gõ|?
A) ½ÄDÃì 18, 1992 B) ½ÄDÃì 19, 1992 C) åkDÃì 18, 1992 D) åkDÃì 19, 1992
106. Choose the correct option.
1. Article 29 (2) may not act as an obstacle in making special policy decisions for socially and
educationally backward communities or SC/ST people – Article 15(4).
2. Article 16(4) will not prevent any sort of appointment or reservation among backward
5
communities, if sufficient representation is not provided in government jobs.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
c8
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. ¸ö¡ 15(4) ÄJï \u®D ï_sl_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªì ¶_ém Ãâ½B_ ÄV] \u®D
Ãwºz½lªö[ x[¼ªuÅÝ]uÂïVª EÅ©A ]⦺ï^ còkVÂzk>uz ¶«Äç\©Aß
Ä⦠s] ''29(2)'' >ç¦BVï ÖòÂïVm.
ps
2. ¸ö¡ 16(4) ¶«·©Ãèl_ ¼ÃV]B ¶á¡ ¸«]W]ÝmíD ØÃÅ ¶çªÝm ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦
kz©¸ªòÂïVª ÃèWB\ªºï¹_ Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| kwºï ¼\uØïV^á©Ã|D ØÄB_ïÓÂz ÖËs]
>ç¦BVï ÖòÂïVm?
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2>k®
C) America Revolution
Tn
107. Social, Political and Economic Justice embodied in the Indian Constitution are taken from?
A) French Revolution B) Russian Revolution
D) Britain Revolution
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ c^á ÄJï, ¶«EB_ \u®D ØÃVòáV>V« À] ¨ºz ÖòÍm
e/
¨|Âï©Ãâ¦m?
A) ¸Ø«Þ· A«âE B) «iB A«âE C) ¶Ø\öÂïV A«âE D) ÖºþéVÍm A«âE
108. Issue in Indian Society which are Hinderance to social justice and social Harmony?
.m
>kÅVªm ¨m?
A) ·«ºï Äâ¦D Š 1952 B) Ø>VauÄVçéï^ Äâ¦D Š 1948
C) zçÅÍ>ÃâÄ »]B Äâ¦D Š 1956 D) ÖÍm ]ò\ðß Äâ¦D Š 1955
ht
112. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights began to operational from
A) 2005 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2008
¼>EB zwÍç> cöç\ï^ ÃVmïV©A gçðBD ¨Í> gõ| x>_ ØÄB_Ã¦Ý mkºþBm?
A) 2005 B) 2006 C) 2007 D) 2008
113. “Sugamya Bharat App” was launched by
A) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
B) Ministry of Law and Justice
C) Ministry of Agriculture
D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
5
''·ïDBV ÃV«Ý ØÄBo'' ¨Í> mçÅBV_ Øk¹l¦©Ãâ¦m?
A) ÄJï À] \u®D ¶]ïV«\¹©AÝ mçÅ B) Äâ¦D \u®D À]ÝmçÅ
c8
C) skÄVBÝ mçÅ D) ·ïV>V«D \u®D z|Dà åéÝmçÅ
114. Match the following.
a.Family Courts Act – 1. 1976
ps
b.Equal Remuneration Act – 2. 1987
c.Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act – 3. 1984
d.Legal Services Authorities Act – 4. 1986
a b c d
A) 1
B) 4
C) 3
D) 1
2
1
1
3
3
2
4
2
4
3
2
4
Tn
e/
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. z|Dà åé À]\[Åß Äâ¦D Š 1. 1976
b. Ä\ »]Bß Äâ¦D Š 2. 1987
.m
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 1 3 2 4
s:
116. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 safeguards women form
A) Physical abuse B) Sexual abuse
C) Economic abuse D) All the above
ØÃõïÓÂØï]«Vª z|Dà k[xçÅÝ >|©Aß Äâ¦D Š 2005 ¨Í> s>\Vª
k[xçÅï¹oòÍm ØÃõïÓÂz ÃVmïV©A kwºzþÅm?
A) c¦_ Z]BVª k[xçÅ B) ÃVoB_ Z]BVª k[xçÅ
C) ØÃVòáV>V« Z]BVª k[xçÅ D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
5
káºïçá ÃþìÍ>¹©Ãm Ø>V¦ìÃVª ¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçk ¨m/¨çk?
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D C) 1 \u®D 3 \â|D D) 2 \u®D 3 \â|D
c8
118. “Tamil Nadu developed a commitment to universal and well functioning public services thanks to the
power of democratic action, public reasoning and social action”?
Who said this?
A) Amartya Sen and Jean Dreze B) Dutt and Sundaram
ps
C) Raghuram Rajan and Abhijit Banerjee D) Milton Friedman
''ÛªåVBï ØÄB_ÃV|ï^ ÃzÝ>¤¥D ]Å[, ÄJï ØÄB_ÃV|ï^ gþBku¤[ sçákVï
¶çªkòÂz\VªmD, EÅ©A¦[ ØÄB_Ã|km\Vª ØÃVmß¼Äçkïçá kwºzk]_ >tµåV|
>ªm ¶ì©Ãè©çà káìÝm^ám''
ÖËkV® í¤Bm BVì?
A) ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[ \u®D ý[ ½¼«L
B) >Ý \u®D ·Í>«D
Tn
C) «z«VD «VÛ[ \u®D ¶¸÷Ý ÃVªì÷
e/
D) t_¦[ ¸öâØ\[
119. The most important reason/s for the relative success of Tamil Nadu in extending social policies lie/s
in:
.m
ïV«ð\Vï/ïV«ðºïáVï sáºzkm:
1.þâ¦Ý>⦠¶çªkç«¥D c^á¦ÂþBÝ ]⦺ï^
2.\Âï^ÄVì åé ØïV^çï
tp
ïè>D / MATHS
121. Find the area of triangle whose sides are 25 cm, 24 cm and 7 cm.
A) 84 cm2 B) 87.5 cm2 C) 90 cm2 D) 300 cm2
Îò x¼ïVðÝ][ J[® ÃÂïºï^ xçżB 25 ØÄ.*, 24 ØÄ.* \u®D 7 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ë©Ãá¡
¨[ª?
A) 84 Ä.ØÄ.* B) 87.5 Ä.ØÄ.* C) 90 Ä.ØÄ.* D) 300 Ä.ØÄ.*
122. Area of rhombus with diagonals as 6 cm and 8 cm is
5
A) 12 cm2 B) 18 cm2 C) 24 cm2 D) 36 cm2
Jçés⦺ï^ 6 ØÄ.* \u®D 8 ØÄ.* ØïVõ¦ ÄVFÄm«Ý][ ë©A?
c8
A) 12 Ä.ØÄ.* B) 18 Ä.ØÄ.* C) 24 Ä.ØÄ.* D) 36 Ä.ØÄ.*
2
123. Curved surface area of a solid sphere is 36 cm . If the sphere is divided into two hemisphere then total
surface area of one of its hemisphere is
A) 9 cm2 B) 12 cm2 C) 18 cm2 D) 27 cm2
ps
Îò ]¦Â¼ïVáÝ][ kçá©Ã«©A 36 ØÄ.*2, ¶>çª Öò ¶ç«Â ¼ïVáºïáVï ¸öÝ>V_, Îò
¶ç«Â¼ïVáÝ][ Ø\VÝ>ë©A ¨[ª?
A) 9 ØÄ.*2 B) 12 ØÄ.*2 C) 18 ØÄ.*2 D) 27 ØÄ.*2
124. The curved surface area of a right circular cone of height 15 cm and base diameter 16 cm is
A) 60 cm2 B) 68 cm2 Tn C) 120
15 ØÄ.* cB«xD, 16 ØÄ.* sâ¦xD ØïVõ¦ Îò ¼åìkâ¦Â íD¸[ kçáë©A
A) 60 ØÄ.*
2
B) 68 ØÄ.*
2
C) 120 ØÄ.*
2
cm2
D) 136 ØÄ.*
2
D) 136 cm2
125. Calculate the area of a sector whose diameter and arc length are 30 cm and 26 cm respectively.
e/
A) 195 sq.cm B) 175 sq.cm C) 165 sq.cm D) 185 sq.cm
sâ¦D 30 ØÄ.*, s_o[ ÀáD 26 ØÄ.* ØïVõ|^á k⦠¼ïVð© Ãz]l[ ë©A ïVõï.
A) 195 Ä.ØÄ.* B) 175 Ä.ØÄ.* C) 165 Ä.ØÄ.* D) 185 Ä.ØÄ.*
.m
126. A mason uses the expression 2x3+16 to represent the area of the rectangular floor of a room. If he
decides that the length of the room will be represented by 2(x+2) then what will the width of the room
be represented in terms of x?
A) 2(x – 2) B) (x2 – 4) C) (x2 – 2x+4) D) (x2+2x – 4)
//t
ï⽦ ¼kçéBV^ Îòkì ¶çÅl[ ØÄËkï k½k >ç«l[ ë©Ãá¡ 2x3+16 ¨ªÝ yì\VMÝmÂ
ØïVõ¦Vì. ¶>[ ÀáD 2(x+2) ¨ªÂ z¤Âï©Ãâ¦V_ ¶ïé\Vªm x[ ÄVìÃVï ¸[kòkªku®^ ¨m?
A) 2(x – 2) B) (x2 – 4) C) (x2 – 2x+4) D) (x2+2x – 4)
s:
127. The breadth of a rectangular field is 60% of its length. If the perimeter of the field is 800m, what is the
area of the field?
A) 18750 sq.m B) 37500 sq.m C) 40000 sq.m D) 48000 sq.m
tp
Îò ØÄËkï kBo[ ¶ïéD, ÀáÝ][ 60% gzD. ¶ËkBo[ ·uÅá¡ 800* ¨M_ ¶ËkBo[
ë©Ãáçk ïVõï.
A) 18750 sq.m B) 37500 sq.m C) 40000 sq.m D) 48000 sq.m
ht
128. A wire can form a square of area 36 sq.cm. What is the area of rectangle when the same wire forms
a rectangle in which one side is 2 cm?
A) 12 cm2 B) 18 cm2 C) 20 cm2 D) 24 cm2
Îò ïD¸BVªm Äm« k½kÝç> còkVÂzD ØÃV¿m ¶>[ ë©Ãá¡ 36 Ä.ØÄ.*. ¶¼> ïD¸çBÂ
ØïVõ| 2 ØÄ.* Îò ÃÂï ¶á¡ cç¦B Îò ØÄËkïÝç> còkVÂzD¼ÃVm ¶ßØÄËkïÝ][
ë©Ãá¡ ¨[ª?
A) 12 Ä.ØÄ.* B) 18 Ä.ØÄ.* C) 20 Ä.ØÄ.* D) 24 Ä.ØÄ.*
129. The area of quadrilateral is 525 sq.m. The Perpendicular from two vertices to the diagonal are 15m and
20m. what is the length of this diagonal?
A) 25m B) 30m C) 35m D) 45m
Îò åVuï«Ý][ ë©Ãá¡ 525 Ä.* ¶>[ Öò cßEï¹oòÍm Jçésâ¦Ý]uz kç«B©Ã|D
ØĺzÝ][ Àáºï^ 15*, 20* ¨M_ Jçésâ¦Ý][ ÀáØ\[ª?
A) 25* B) 30* C) 35* D) 45*
130. At a particular time the shadow of a tree is 8m while shadow of a stick of length 3m is 2m. find the
height of the tree.
A) 10m B) 6m C) 9m D) 12m
5
z¤©¸â¦ ¼å«Ý]_ Îò \«Ý][ Ww_ 8* \u®D ¼å«Vï c^á 3* cB«D ØïVõ¦ Îò ¼ïVo[
Ww_ 2* ¨M_ \«Ý][ cB«D ïVõï.
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A) 10 * B) 6 * C) 9* D) 12 *
131. In a triangle with area 48 sq.cm, its base is 4cm greater than its altitude. Then the length of the base of
the triangle is
ps
A) 8cm B) 12 cm C) 16 cm D) 10 cm
48 Ä.ØÄ.* ë©Aç¦B Îò x¼ïVðÝ]_, ¶>[ ¶½©ÃÂïD, ¶>[ zÝmB«Ýç>s¦ 4 ØÄ.* ¶]ïD
¨M_ ¶>[ ¶½©ÃÂïÝ][ ¶á¡
A) 8 ØÄ.* B) 12 ØÄ.* C) 16 ØÄ.* D) 10 ØÄ.*
A) 20% B) 40% Tn
132. If the side of a square is increased by 20%. Then its area is increased by
C) 25%
Îò Äm«Ý][ ÃÂïD 20% ¶]ïöÂþÅm ¨M_ ë©A ¨Ý>çª Ä>T>D ¶]ïöÂzD?
A) 20% B) 40% C) 25%
D) 44%
D) 44%
133. Find the length of the altitude of an equilateral triangle of sides 3√3 cm.
e/
A) 5.4 B) 4.0 C) 4.5 D) 4.2
3√3 ØÄ.* n ÃÂï\Vï ØïVõ¦ Îò Ä\ÃÂï x¼ïVðÝ][ zÝmB«D ïVõï.
.m
Îò ØÄËkïÝ][ ÀáD \u®D ¶ïéÝ][ sþ>D xçżB 3:2. ¶ßØÄËkïÝ][ ·uÅá¡ \u®D
ë©Ãás[ sþ>D xçżB 5:9. ¨M_ ØÄËkïÝ][ ¶ïéÝç> *â¦ö_ ïVõï.
A) 6 *â¦ì B) 8 *â¦ì C) 9 *â¦ì D) 13 *â¦ì
135. The total surface area of cube is 384 m2. Find the side of the cube.
s:
A) 3m B) 8m C) 4m D) 6m
2
Îò ïªßÄm«Ý][ Ø\VÝ> kçáë©A 384* ¨M_ ¶>[ ÃÂïD ¨Ëká¡?
tp
A) 3* B) 8 * C) 4 * D) 6 *
136. The radius of a cart wheel is 35 cm. How many revolution does it make in travelling a distance
of 154 m.
ht
A) 70 B) 189 C) 119 D) 86
\Vâ| kõ½ß ÄÂï«Ý][ g«D 35 ØÄ.*. ¶m 154* Ø>Vçé¡ ï¦Í>V_, ¶ßÄÂï«D ¨Ý>çª
x¿ß·u®ï^ ·u¤lòÂzD?
A) 70 B) 189 C) 119 D) 86
137. Find the area of equilateral triangle whose circumference is 180 cm.
A) 155.88 cm2 B) 1558.8 cm2 C) 900 cm2 D) 900.8 cm2
180 ØÄ.* ·uÅá¡ ØïVõ¦ Îò Ä\ÃÂï x¼ïVðÝ][ ë©Ãáçk ïVõï.
A) 155.88 ØÄ.*2 B) 1558.8 ØÄ.*2 C) 900 ØÄ.*2 D) 900.8 ØÄ.*2
138. A cubical tank can hold 27,000 litres of water. Find the dimension of its side.
A) 9 cm B) 9 m C) 3 m D) 3 cm
Îò ïªßÄm« k½k ÀìÝØ>Vâ½l[ ØïV^áá¡ 27,000 oâ¦ì ¨M_ ¶>[ ÃÂï ¶áçk ïVõï.
A) 9 ØÄ.* B) 9* C) 3* D) 3 ØÄ.*
139. Find the Perimeter of a semicircle of radius 28 cm.
A) 128 cm B) 66 cm C) 144 cm D) 56 cm
g«D 28 ØÄ.* cç¦B ¶ç«kâ¦Ý][ ·uÅá¡ ïVõï.
A) 128 ØÄ.* B) 66 ØÄ.* C) 144 ØÄ.* D) 56 ØÄ.*
140. Find the area of a semicircle whose radius is 28 cm.
5
A) 618 cm2 B) 144 cm2 C) 1232 cm2 D) 784 cm2
g«D 28 ØÄ.* cç¦B ¶ç«kâ¦Ý][ ë©Ãá¡ ïVõï.
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2 2 2 2
A) 618 ØÄ.* B) 144 ØÄ.* C) 1232 ØÄ.* D) 784 ØÄ.*
141. A horse is tethered to one corner of a rectangular field of dimensions 60m by 42 m by a rope 14 m
long for grazing. How much area can the horse left ungrazed?
A) 2366 m2 B) 1366 m2 C) 1827 m2 D) 2212 m2
ps
ØÄËkï k½séVª 60 * × 42 * Ãö\VðD ØïVõ¦ ïáÝ]_ Îò Jçél_ Îò z]ç«
¼\Fk>uïVï 14* ÀáD ØïVõ¦ ïlu¤ªV_ ï⦩Ãâ|^ám. z]ç« ¼\BV> ïáÝ][ ë©çÃÂ
ïVõï.
A) 2366 *
2
B) 1366 *
2
C) 1827 *
Tn
=
D) 2212 *
2
142. A sector containing an angle of 140° is cut off from a circle of radius 9 cm and folded into a cone.
D) 126 sq.cm
e/
9 ØÄ.* g«x^á Îò kâ¦Ý]oòÍm 140° ç\B ¼ïVðD ØïVõ¦ Îò k⦠¼ïVð©Ãz]çB
Økâ½ØB|Ým ¶>[ g«ºïçá Î[¤çðÝm Îò íDÃVÂþªV_, þç¦ÂzD íD¸[ kçáë©çÃÂ
ïVõï. =
.m
A) 15 cm B) 45 cm C) 30 cm D) 60 cm
15 ØÄ.*, 20 ØÄ.* \u®D 25 ØÄ.* ÃÂï ¶á¡ï^ ØïVõ¦ Îò x¼ïVðÝ][ ¶ç«ß·uÅá¡?
A) 15 ØÄ.* B) 45 ØÄ.* C) 30 ØÄ.* D) 60 ØÄ.*
146. What would be the measure of the diagonal of a square whose area is equal to 882 cm2?
A) 38 cm B) 32 cm C) 42 cm D) 48 cm
2
882 ØÄ.* n ë©ÃVï ØïVõ¦ Äm«Ý][ Jçésâ¦Ý][ ¶á¡ ¨[ª?
A) 38 ØÄ.* B) 32 ØÄ.* C) 42 ØÄ.* D) 48 ØÄ.*
147. The area of a circle is 154 sq.cm. What is the circumference of a circle?
A) 28 cm B) 44 cm C) 88 cm D) 108 cm
kâ¦Ý][ ë©A 154 Äm« ØÄ.* ¨M_ kâ¦Ý][ ·u® kâ¦Ý][ ¶á¡ ¨[ª?
A) 28 ØÄ.* B) 44 ØÄ.* C) 88 ØÄ.* D) 108 ØÄ.*
148. The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is 5√5 cm. Its total
surface area is
A) 361 cm2 B) 125 cm2
C) 236 cm2 D) 486 cm2
Îò ïª ØÄËkïÝ][ ÀáD, ¶ïéD \u®D gwD gþBku¤[ í|>_ 19 ØÄ.*. ¼\KD ¶>[
5
Jçésâ¦Ý][ ÀáD 5√5 ØÄ.*, ¨M_ ¶>[ Ø\VÝ>© ë©A ¨[Ãm?
A) 361 ØÄ.*2 B) 125 ØÄ.*2
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2 2
C) 236 ØÄ.* D) 486 ØÄ.*
149. If length is 12m and breadth 8 m, then Perimeter of rectangle is
A) 96 m B) 40 m C) 48 m D) 20 m
ps
Îò ØÄËkïÝ][ ÀáD 12* ¶>[ ¶ïéD 8* ¨M_ ØÄËkïÝ][ ·uÅákVªm?
A) 96 * B) 40 * C) 48 * D) 20 *
150. The total surface area and curved surface area of the right circular cylinder of radius 7 cm and height
20 cm are
Tn
A) Total surface area = 1188 cm2, Curved Surface area = 880 cm2
B) Total surface area = 1818 cm2, Curved Surface area = 830 cm2
C) Total surface area = 1188 cm2, Curved Surface area = 830 cm2
D) Total surface area = 1881 cm2, Curved Surface area = 880 cm2
e/
Îò ]õ\ ¼åìk⦠còçál[ g«D 7 ØÄ.* \u®D cB«D 20 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶>[ Ø\VÝ> ë©Ãá¡
\u®D kçáë©ÃákVªm
A) Ø\VÝ> ë©A = 1188 Ä.ØÄ.*, kçáë©A = 880 Ä.ØÄ.*
.m
5
• Tamil Literature from Sangam age till contemporary times.
(8th & 9th standard - Tamil Seiyul & Thirukkural)
c8
2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD :
• >twïÝ]_ ï_s
• Education system in Tamil Nadu.
3. ïè>D : ¶áT|ï^ Š ØïV^áá¡
ps
Mensuration- Volume
ÖB_ Š 9:
17.08.2021 (ØÄËkVF):
Tn
Where to Study
e/
köçÄ ÃV¦D kz©A
¨õ
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z¤©A : ¼\uzöB ¶çªÝm >ïk_ïÓD Î[ÅVï ]«â½ gïVi AÝ>ïD (>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D
ÃõÃV| \u®D >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD) AÝ>ïÝ]_ Ø>VzÂï©Ãâ|^ám. Ö©AÝ>ïD
\Vðkìï^ åéM_ ÎòkaïVâ½BVï ÖòÂzD. (gïVi AÝ>ï >çé©Aï^) ¸[kò\V®.
ht
5
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ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
31 D 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 B
41 B 42 C 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 C 50 A
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51 B 52 B 53 A 54 B 55 D 56 A 57 B 58 D 59 B 60 B
61 C 62 B 63 A 64 C 65 B 66 B 67 A 68 B 69 C 70 B
71 A 72 A 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 B
81 B 82 A 83 B 84 C 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 B 89 B 90 C
ps
91 A 92 B 93 D 94 C 95 D 96 D 97 C 98 A 99 B 100 B
101 C 102 D 103 C 104 B 105 A 106 C 107 B 108 D 109 C 110 A
111 C 112 C 113 A 114 C 115 C 116 D 117 C 118 A 119 C 120 A
121 A 122 C 123 D 124 D 125 A 126 C 127 B 128 C 129 B 130 D
131
141
B
A
132
142
D
A
133
143
C
B
134
144
A
C
135
145 Tn
B
C
136
146
A
C
137
147
B
B
138
148
C
C
139
149
C
B
140
150
C
A
e/
GR–II TAF MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – IYAL - 8 ANS KEY – 13.08.2021
.m
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 C
11 A 12 B 13 B 14 C 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 C 20 B
21 A 22 C 23 C 24 C 25 C 26 A 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 C
//t
31 D 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 C 38 D 39 B 40 B
41 B 42 C 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 C 50 A
51 B 52 B 53 A 54 B 55 D 56 A 57 B 58 D 59 B 60 B
s:
61 C 62 B 63 A 64 C 65 B 66 B 67 A 68 B 69 C 70 B
71 A 72 A 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 B 79 B 80 B
81 B 82 A 83 B 84 C 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 B 89 B 90 C
tp
91 A 92 B 93 D 94 C 95 D 96 D 97 C 98 A 99 B 100 B
101 C 102 D 103 C 104 B 105 A 106 C 107 B 108 D 109 C 110 A
111 C 112 C 113 A 114 C 115 C 116 D 117 C 118 A 119 C 120 A
ht
121 A 122 C 123 D 124 D 125 A 126 C 127 B 128 C 129 B 130 D
131 B 132 D 133 C 134 A 135 B 136 A 137 B 138 C 139 C 140 C
141 A 142 A 143 B 144 C 145 C 146 C 147 B 148 C 149 B 150 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
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(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 9 / åV^ Š 17.08.2021
.08.2021
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sªVÂï^ (150)
s:
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¶éz Š 9 • >twïÝ]_ ï_s 0 sªVÂï^
60
ht
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH – OFFLINE/ONLINE
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 9) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
UNIT 8, UNIT 9, MATHS
A) ÷ B) Ao
Tn
(TAMILNADU HISTORY AND CULTURE)
1. kol_ Wçéç\BV[ k_KòkD ¨ÐD zŹ_ 'ØÃuÅD' ¨[Ã>[ ØÃVò^.
C) EºïD D) Ã[¤
e/
2. æìïçá köçÄÃ|Ý] ÄöBVª ]òÂzÅçá ïVõï.
A) ¨[zuÅD ÀÂþ© ¸ÅìzuÅD ïVõþu¸[ g
>DzuÅD gzD ÖçÅÂz ïV
.m
WçªÝ>VKD çïí|D
C) >\Âzß ÄV>ï\Vª ïVéD kòD kç« ÃèÍm, >Âï ïVéD kòD ¼ÃVm ¶kìïâz x½¡
ï⦠¼kõ|D.
D) ØÄBéVu®D ]Å[ cç¦Bkç«¥D, ØÄFB ¼kõ½B ØÄBçé¥D ØÄFk>uzöB
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5. Økò kÍ> ØÄFBVç\ ¨[ÐD ¶]ïV«Ý]_ ¶«ÄM[ ï¦ç\BVï zÅ^ z¤©¸|km ¨m?
A) Îòkì ØÄF¥D zuÅÝç> ïõ¦¤Ím ¶kç« #Âþo|km.
B) åVâ禩 ÃVmïVÂï ¼ÃVòÂz ¸ÅåV⼦[ ØÄ_km
C) Îòkì ØÄF¥D zuÅÝç> g«VFÍm, *õ|D ¶ÂzuÅÝç> ¶kì ØÄFBV>kV® >õ½©Ãm.
D) åVâ½_ ¶ÅÝç> WçéW®Ýmkm.
6. ÖçÅï½B[ ¨[® cç«ÂzD.......... ¨ªÝ Ø>V¦ºzD zŹ_ ¨Ý>[ç\çB cç¦B ¶«Äì
>[ kVµåV^ zçÅÍm sç«s_ ¶akVì, ¨ª k^Ókì z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) åD ¶«Äì ï|ç\BVªkì ¨[® z½\ÂïáV_ #uÅ©Ã|Ãkì
B) ¶«Äì ÖakVªkì ¨[® ¨]öåVâ¦k«V_ #uÅ©Ã|Ãkì
5
C) ¨]ö﹦xD ¶[A ØÄKÝmD ¶«Äì
D) ¸Å åV⽦xD ÃçïçB ØïVõ¦ ¶«Äì
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7. Ãé±_ïçá ïuÅkö[ ï_s ¨©¼ÃVm ØÃòç\B禥D ¨ª zÅ^ í®þÅm?
A) ¶«Äö¦D >[ ïòÝç> ¨|Ýmç«ÂzD ¼ÃVm,
B) ØÄVuïçá g«V¥D ¶¤Qì WçÅÍ> ¶çkl_ ¼Ã·D ¼ÃVm
C) ï_s ¶¤¡ ØÃÅV>kö¦D >[ ïòÝç> Aé©Ã|ÝmD ¼ÃVm,
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D) >[ gEöBö¦D ¶kì ¶¤BV>ç> ¨|Ýmç«ÂzD ¼ÃVm,
8. åVD ØÄV_KD ØÄV_çé ¼k® ØÄV_éV_ Øk_é ÖBéV>kV® EÅÍ> ØÄVuïçáÝ
¼>ìÍØ>|Ým© ¼ÃÄ ¼kõ|D ¨[® í®D zÅçáÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|?
A) ØÄV_Kï ØÄV_çé© ¸¤m{ìØÄV_ ¶ßØÄV_çé
Øk_KDØÄV_ Ö[ç\ ¶¤Ím
Tn
B) ¼ïâ¦Vì© ¸èÂzD >çïBkVF ¼ïáVòD
¼kâà Ø\Vak>VD ØÄV_
g
ïV
C) ]Ū¤Ím ØÄV_Kï ØÄV_çé ¶ÅÐD i
e/
ØÃVòÓD x>Mûcºz Ö_
D) ¼kâÃÝ>V ØÄV_o© ¸¤ßØÄV_ ÃB[¼ïV¦_
\VâEl[ \VÄuÅVì ¼ïV^.
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9. 'ïuŤͼ>Vì ï_s sáºzD ïĦÅß' ¨[Å zŹ[ Ö®] ¶½çB WçÅ¡ ØÄFï.
A) ¼kâà Ø\Vak>VD ØÄV_
B) ØÄV_o[ Ö[ç\ ¶¤Ím
C) ØÄV_o[ #Fç\ Bkì
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13. ¨çªÝ>VÐD.........
g[Å ØÃòç\ >òD ‡ ÖÂzŹ[ ØÃVò^ >òï.
A) ¼ÃVì ØÄF¥D T«D, guÅ_ Ö_çéØB[ÅVKD
Ãç¦ >[ ¶èkz©ÃV_ ØÃòç\ ØîD.
B) Îò ØÄBçé (¨Ý>çïB ØÄBçé¥D) ØÄF¥Dx[ >á«Vç\¼B
¶ßØÄBKÂz ØÃòç\>òD.
C) å_éªkuçÅ ¼ïâ¦V_ ¼ïâzD ¶ásuz ØÃòç\ cõ¦VzD.
D) sçªÝ]âÃD cç¦Bk«m ØÄB_ åVâç¦ gÓD ¶«Äçª
¶ç¦Ím ØÃòç\çB cõ¦VÂzD.
5
14. æìïçá köçÄÃ|Ý] ÄöBVª ]òÂzÅçá ïVõï.
A) OðºþB ¼ï^sBì kðºþB ¶_éVì
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kVlªì g>_ ¶öm.
B) kðºþB ¶_éVì kVlªì g>_ ¶öm
OðºþB ¼ï^s Bkì.
C) OðºþB ¼ï^sBì ¶_éVì kðºþB
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kVlªì g>_ ¶öm
D) kðºþB ¼ï^sBVì OðºþB ¶_éVì
kVlªì g>_ ¶öm.
15. Ø>öÍm Ø>¹>_ ¨[Å ¶]ïV«D z¤©Ãm.
Tn
A) Îò sçªçBß ØÄFB Îòkì >z]lçª WìðlÝ>_ Ãu¤Bm.
B) WçéBuÅçk ¨çk ¨[Ãç> Ø>¹kVï ¨|Ý]BDAkm.
C) ØÄFB©Ã⦠¼kõ½B sçªïçáÝ Ø>öÍm ¶kuçÅ ]ÅDæ WçżkuÅ_
D) ¨©Ãz]lªòÂzD Ωà å¦ÂzD xçÅ Ø>öÍmØïV^>_
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16. "¼>«V[ Ø>¹¡D Ø>¹Í>V[ïõ n¥Å¡D
y«V Ö|Dçà >òD" ‡ ÖÂzÅ^ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ¶]ïV«D
A) ¶¤¡ç¦ç\ B) Ø>öÍm ØÄB_kçï
.m
5
24. clò¦[ ÖòÂþÅVì ¨[Ãç>Ý >s« ¼k® ¨Í> ÃBÐD Ök«V_ Ö_çé ¨ª k^Ókì BVç«Â
z¤©¸|þÅVì?
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A) ï_éV>kì B) koç\BuÅkì C) οÂï\uÅkì D) ¶[¸éVì
25. ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.céþ_ c^á clìïçá ïV©Ãm Š¶«Äì
2.z½\ÂïáV_ #uÅ©Ãâ| sç«Ím ¶aÃk[ Š ØïV|ÞØÄV_ ¶«Ä[
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3.¼ïáV>kç«¥D ¼ïâïÝ #õ|km Š ¼Ã·Ãkö[ ]Å[
4.ïuÅkö[ ï_s ØÃòç\ ¶ç¦¥D Ö¦D Š ¶¤Qì WçÅÍ> ¶çk
A) 1, 3 >k® 2, 4 Äö B) 1 >k® 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) 3 >k® 1, 2, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
26.
27.
A) ØÄV_o[ B) ØÃVò¹[ Tn
ØÄV_káxD åuÃõAD cç¦Bkìï^ >VD¼Ã·D ......................>z] ¶¤Ím ¼ÃÄ ¼kõ|D.
Øk_KDØÄV_ Ö[ç\ ¶¤Ím' Š ¨[Å zŹ_ ¨©Ã½©Ã⦠ØÄVuïçá ¼>ì¡ ØÄFm ¼ÃÄ ¼kõ|D
¨ª k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
e/
A) ÖMBØÄV_ B) ÃõÃVªß ØÄV_
C) ¶¤kVìÍ> ØÄV_ D) EÅÍ> ØÄV_
''ïéDyç\ BV_]öÍm ¶u®'' Š ¨[Ãm ¨ç>© ¼ÃV[Åm?
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28.
A) ¶[¸_éV>k[ ØÃuÅß ØÄ_kD B) Ãõ¸_éV>k[ ØÃuÅß ØÄ_kD
C) ï_éV>k[ ØÃuÅß ØÄ_kD D) A_é¤kVá[ ØÃuÅß ØÄ_kD
29. ØÃVòÝmï.
a.Ö[ÃD >òkm Š 1. åuÃõ¸_éV>k[ ØÃuÅ ØÄ_kD
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A)
3 2 4 5 1
B)
5 3 2 4 1
C)
2 4 3 1 5
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D)
5 4 2 3 1
30. BVì Ö_çé ¨[ÅV_ ÖË¡éïD ''\VõAÂz \VFkm \[''?
A) ¶[Aç¦Bkì B) ¶¤¡ç¦Bkì C) ÃõAç¦Bkì D) ÄV[¼ÅVì
31. zuźï½>_ ¨ª k^Ók[ sáÂzkm
A) zuźï^ ÖçkØBª ¶¤>KD ¶kuçÅ ÀÂzkmD
B) zuźïçá ¶¤km \â|D
C) zuźïçá ÀÂzkm \â|D
D) zuźïçá °uï \®©Ãm \â|D.
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ÃV«] E[ª© ÃB_.
A) ØÄslu ·çk¥ð«V kV¥ðìs[ \VÂï^
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¶slÐD kVaÐD ¨[
B) tz]BV[ tÂïçk ØÄF>Vç«Ý >VD>D
>z]BV[ Øk[® s¦_
C) zðDåV½Â zuÅxD åV½ ¶ku®^
ps
tçïåV½ tÂï ØïVá_.
D) ØÃòç\ÂzD °çªß E®ç\ÂzD >Ý>D
ïò\¼\ ïâ¦çá ï_
34. ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï. g
Tn
1.]òÂzŹ_ Ö¦DØîD μ« sç> Š ØåòÞE
2.]òÂzÅÓÂz x>[x>o_ cç« ¨¿]Bkì Š \ðÂz¦kì
3.]òÂzŹ_ ÖòxçÅ kòD ¶]ïV«D Š z¤©Ã¤>_
4.]òÂzŹ_ Ö¦DØÃuÅ Öò \«ºï^ Š Ãçª, Jºþ_
ïV
i
A) 1, 2 >k® 3, 4 Äö B) 1 >k® 2, 3, 4 Äö
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C) 2 >k® 1, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
35. »a© ØÃBöÐD >VD ØÃB«Vì Š BVì?
A) »ÂïD ¨[ÐD ï¦KÂz ïç« ¼ÃV[Åkì
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a b c
A) 1 2 3
tp
B) 2 3 1
C) 1 3 2
D) 3 1 2
ht
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3.Öͱ_ ïoØkõÃVkV_ ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
4.Öͱçé© Ã]©¸Ý>kì c.¼k.ÄV (1930)
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A) 1 >k® 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k®
C) 2 >k® 1, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
42. ''cðkVF cá>t¼w! {ìͼ>[; À ÃVâ|Â
ïðkVF kakòD ïVu®'' Š ¨ª© ÃV½Bkì?
ps
A) ïõð>VÄ[ B) kVo C) çk«xÝm D) åV. xÝmÂz\Vì
43. >tµ ι ¨¿>V> ±_ïÓ^ Î[®? g
A) ïsQö[ ïV>_ B) WçéØÃuÅ Eçé
C) \V>s ïVsBD D) ïâ¦uÅ ïsç> ïV
44.
45.
¶½Bkì ØÃòç\çB {«½l_ í®D ±_?
A) ]òÝØ>Võ¦ì ]òkÍ>V]
C) ]òÝØ>Võ¦Ý Ø>Vçï
ØÃVòÝmï.
Tn B) ]òÝØ>Võ¦ì A«VðD
D) ØÃöBA«VðD
a b c
i
e/
a. ·Í>«ì Š 1. ]òÝØ>Võ¦ì ]òkÍ>V] A) 3 1 2
b. åD¸BVõ¦Vì Š 2. ]òÝØ>Võ¦Ý Ø>Vçï B) 2 1 3
c. ¼ÄÂþwVì Š 3. ]òÝØ>Võ¦ì A«VðD C) 3 2 1
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D) 1 2 3
46. ''cõ½ x>u¼Å cðs[ ¸õ¦D
cðØkª© Ã|km WéÝØ>V| À¼«;
¨[Å ÃV¦é½ï^ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_?
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5
3. 354 ¶½ï^, \mç« Ãu¤Â z¤©¸¦©Ãâ|^ám.
4. Ö>[ ÃVâ|ç¦Ý >çék[ Š xmz|t© ØÃòk¿]
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A) 1 >k® / 2, 3, 4 Äö B)2 >k® / 1, 3, 4 Äö
C) 3 >k® / 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 4 >k®/ 1, 2, 3 Äö
55. ''Ö«Vkð ïVsBD'' ±çé ÖBu¤Bkì?
A) >tµÎ¹ B) Aékì zwÍç> C) å.¸ßÄJìÝ] D) ïs\è
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56. ¨ç> ¶¤BV\_ ¨Í>ß ØÄBçé¥D Ø>V¦ºï¡D, Öïw¡D í¦Vm?
A) ïVéD B) sçª C) ów_ D) Ö¦D
57. ÿµïõ¦ku®^ ÖçÄ ±_ï¹_ ¶_éV>m?
A) xmåVç« B) xmzòz C) xm\«A D) ÃÞÄÃV«yBD
58.
59.
ækï EÍ>V\è ±o_ c^á ''ÖéDÃïD''
A) ''ÖéDÃïD
Tn
B) 12 ÖéDÃïD
''AmÂïsç>l[ >Íç>'' ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|Ãkì?
A) ÃV«]BVì B) ÃV«]>VÄ[
C) 13 ÖéDÃïD
C) å. ¸ßÄJìÝ]
D) 14 ÖéDÃïD
D) >tµÎ¹
e/
60. ''åçÄ ØÃöm cç¦Bkì; å_ïKD å_zkì
¸½ÃE ïçáÖB ØÃòºçï ¼kwD'' Š ¨[ÐD ÃV¦é½ Ö¦D ØÃu®^á ]çð?
A) z¤ÞE B) \ò>D C) ØåF>_ D) ÃVçé
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
ÄöBVª sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ï_s Îò xu¼ÃVÂïVª Äx>VBÝ][ ¶½Ý>á\Vï sáºzþÅm.
2.''¼k>D'' ¨[Å þ¼«Âï ØÄV_ouz ¶¤¡ ¨[® ØÃVò^.
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3.''sÝ'' ¨[Å ØÄV_o[ ØÃVò^ ¶¤>_ gzD.
A) 1, 3 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 \â|D Äö C) 2, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
62. Which of the following has written and gave evidences about medical practices?
ps
1.Panini 2.Katyayana 3. Aryabhata
4. Charaka 5.Patanjali 6.Susruthar
A) 1, 4, 6 correct B) 2, 4 correct C) 4, 5, 6 correct D) 4, 6 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ BVì \òÝmk z¤©Aï^ Ãu¤B g>V«ºïçá ¨¿]¥^áªì?
1.ÃVèM
5.Ã>VÞÄo
2.ïVÝBVBªV
6.·üÔ>ì
A) 1, 4, 6 \â|D Äö
3.gìBÃâ¦V
B) 2, 4 \â|D Äö
Tn 4.Ä«ïì
C) 4, 5, 6 \â|D Äö D) 4, 6 \â|D Äö
63. Statement 1: Takshashila , which was an ancient Indian city, is located in Northwest Pakistan at
e/
present.
Statement 2: Takshashila was declared a World Heritage Site was 1980.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: Ãõç¦B ÖÍ]B åï«\Vï ÖòÍ> >âÄæéD >u¼ÃVm k¦¼\uz ÃVþü>VM_ c^ám.
.m
5
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
69. Who introduced education in vernacular languages in India?
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A) Portuguese B) French C) English D) Danish
ÖÍ]BVs_ kâ¦V« Ø\Val_ ï_s ïuÅçé ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]Bkìï^?
A) ¼ÃVìß·ÂÿEBìï^ B) ¸Ø«Þ·ÂïV«ìï^ C) gºþ¼éBìï^ D) ¼¦MBìï^
70. Missionary College started at ________in India
ps
A) Cochin B) Goa C) Calcutta D) Delhi
ÖÍ]BVs_ t´ªö ï_Ùö Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠֦D ¨m?
A) ØïVßE[ B) ¼ïVkV C) ï_ïÝ>V D) ئ_o
A) Four B) Three Tn
71. The educational history of India can be divided into ______ sections, during the British rule?
C) Five
gºþ¼éBì gâE ïVéÝ]_ ÖÍ]BVs[ ï_s k«éVuçÅ ¨Ý>çª ¸ö¡ïáVï ¸öÂïéVD?
A) åV[z B) J[® C) nÍm D) Ö«õ|
D) Two
72. Assertion A : The Charter Act, 1813 established the responsibility for the education of Indians.
e/
Reason R : This act is known as the Magna carta of Indian Education.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
.m
75. Which of the following scheme focused on state education, excluding the policies and culture of
Indians?
A) Wardha Scheme of Basic Education (1937)
B) Woods Despatch (1854)
C) Sergeant Report (1944)
D) Hunter Education commission (1882)
ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ]â¦D ÖÍ]Bìï¹[ ØïV^çïïçá¥D ïéVßÄV«Ýç>¥D séÂþ çkÝm \VWéÂ
ï_sl[ *m x¿ç\BVª ïkªÝç> ØÄKÝ]Bm?
A) kVì>V ï_sÝ ]â¦D (1937)
5
B) câü ï_s ¶¤Âçï (1854)
C) ÄVìÛõ¦ ¶¤Âçï (1944)
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D) Çõ¦ì ï_s z¿ (1882)
76. What is the main purpose of Wardha education scheme?
A) Primary education B) English Education
ps
C) Vernacular Education D) Ahimsa education
kVì>V ï_sÝ ]â¦Ý][ xÂþB\Vª ¶ßÄVè (¶) ¼åVÂïD ¨[ª?
A) Ø>V¦Âï ï_s B) gºþ¼éB ï_s
C) kâ¦V«Â ï_s D) ¶þDçÄ ï_s
Radhakrishnan. Tn
77. Assertion A : In 1948, an Educational Committee was setup under the chairmanship of
Statement 2: Kothari Committee proposed free & compulsory primary education to all children up to
the age of 14 years across the country.
Statement 3: In 1976, Education was transferred from the Central List to the State List
s:
íu® 2: ¼ïVÝ>Vö ï_sÂz¿ 14 kBm kç«léVª ¶çªÝm zwÍç>ïÓÂzD ÖékÄ (\) ïâ¦VB
Ø>V¦Âï ï_sçB åV| x¿kmD ØïVõ|kÍ>m.
íu® 3: 1976gD gõ| ï_s mçÅ \Ý]B Ãâ½Bo_ ÖòÍm \VWé Ãâ½BKÂz \VuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
ht
5
x[¼ªuÅ ÃöÍmç«Ý>_
B) Îò WçéBVª Äx>VBÝç> ¼\DÃVâ|¦[ í½B m½©ÃVª Äx>VB\Vï \Vu®k>VzD
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C) ¼>ÄÝ][ x[¼ªuÅÝç> »Âzs©Ã¼>V|, ØÃVmkVª z½¥öç\, ïéVßÄV«D (\) ¼>EB
Îòç\©ÃVâ½çª káìÝ>_ ¼ÃV[Åçk gzD
D) ¼>EB ïçéÝ]â¦Ýç> k½kç\Ý>_, Ãèlç¦Â ï_sçB ko¥®Ým>_ ¼ÃV[Åçk gzD
ps
81. On Arasu Cable, Kalvi TV telecasted on which channel Number?
A) 100 B) 150 C) 200 D) 250
¶«· ¼ï¸^ kaBVï ï_s Ø>VçéÂïVâEBVªm ¨Í> ¼Äª_ ¨õè_ ιë©Ã©Ã|þÅm?
A) 100 B) 150 C) 200 D) 250
A) Kanyakumari B) Kanchi
Ãõç¦B >tµåVâ½[ ïuÅo[ ç\B\Vï sáºþBm?
A) ï[MBVz\ö B) ïVÞE C) ]òßE
Tn
82. Which was the center of learning in ancient Tamil Nadu?
C) Trichy D) Madurai
D) \mç«
e/
83. The levels of education in India are
A) Seven B) Five C) Six D) Four
ÖÍ]BVs_ ï_s ¨[Ãm ¨Ý>çª Wçéïçá ØïVõ¦m?
A) °¿ B) nÍm C) g® D) åV[z
.m
A) >ì\ÃVéì B) ÄVìéü¡â
C) Çõ¦ì D) >V\ü \[¼ÅV
85. Assertion A : When Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India, Raleigh Commission was set up.
s:
Reason R : The Indian Universities Act was enacted in 1904 as per the Report of Raleigh
Commission.
tp
D) A correct, R incorrect
íu® : ïìÄ[ ¸«A ÖÍ]BVs[ çkE«VBVï ÖòÍ>¼ÃVm «V¼é ït−[ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : «V¼é ït−[ ¶¤Âçï©Ã½ ÖÍ]B Ã_ïçéÂïwïºï^ Äâ¦D 1904gD gõ|
ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂï\VzD
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
86. Statement 1: The Three language formula was implemented in Tamil Nadu in 1965.
Statement 2: In 1953, Secondary Education Committee was constituted under the chairmanship of
A. Lakshmanasamy Mudaliar.
Statement 3: The Blackboard Project was launched in 1986.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 only correct C) 2, 3 only correct D) All correct
íu® 1: 1965gD gõ| >twïÝ]_ xDØ\VaÝ ]â¦D åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: 1953gD gõ| A.éâ·\ðÄVt x>oBVì >çéç\l_ Öç¦WçéÂ
ï_sÂz¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 3: ïòDÃéçïÝ ]â¦D 1986gD gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
5
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 \â|D Äö
C) 2, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
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87. National Education commission formed in 2017 under ______
A) Vijayakumar B) Surjit Singh Barnala
C) Muthukumaran D) Kasturi Rangan
2017gD gõ| BVì >çéç\l_ ¼>EB ï_sÂz¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m?
ps
A) sÛBz\Vì B) ·ì÷ÝEº ÃìªVéV C) xÝmÂz\«[ D) ïü#ö «ºï[
88. Which policy aimed at providing education to the Depressed Classes?
A) Karkum Bharatam Project – 2009 B) New Education Policy - 2019
C) New Education Policy – 1986
91. Match a b c d
a.Lord Connemara Library - 1. 1854 A) 3 1 4 2
b.Directorate of Public instruction - 2. 1890 B) 2 1 4 3
ht
5
1.ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B x>[x>éVï >tµåVâ½_>V[ ØÃVm±éïß Äâ¦D còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
2.''ÖÍ]B ±éïsBo[ >Íç>'' ¨ª ¶såVEoºïD ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅVì.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
94. When is National Education Day celebrated and in which year did the Government of India declare
National Education Day?
ps
A) November 11, 1988 B) November 11, 1998
C) November 11, 1968 D) November 11, 2008
¼>EB ï_s åV^ ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|D åV^? ¼\KD ÖÍ]B ¶«· ¼>EB ï_s åVçá ¶¤sÝ> gõ|?
A) åkDÃì 11, 1988 B) åkDÃì 11, 1998 C) åkDÃì 11, 1968 D) åkDÃì 11, 2008
95. Choose the correct answer.
1.Tamilnadu Education Development Day
2.Free Education Program
3. National Library Day
Tn - July 15
- Kamarajar
- August 12
e/
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 3 correct D) All correct
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.>twïÝ][ ï_s káìßE åV^ Š Éçé 15
2.ÖékÄ ï_sÝ]â¦Ýç> còkVÂþBkì Š ïV\«VÄì
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97. Constitutional amendment, which makes education a fundamental right in India is enacted in the year
A) 2009 B) 2010 C) 2002 D) 1976
ÖÍ]BVs_ ï_sçB ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\BVÂzD ¶«EB_ ÄVĪÝ][ Äâ¦Ý]òÝ> \¼ÄV>V
WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠gõ|?
ht
5
100. Tamil Nadu Fisheries University was separated from which university?
A) Tamil Nadu Marine biology University
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B) Tamil Nadu Maritime University
C) Tamil Nadu Veterinary and Animal Sciences University
D) Tamil Nadu Animal rearing University
>tµåV| *[ká© Ã_ïçéÂïwïD ¨Í> Ã_ïçéÂïwïÝ]_ ÖòÍm ¸öÝm còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
ps
A) >tµåV| ï¦_ clöªºï^ Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
B) >tµåV| ï¦_ Ø>Va_OâÃD Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
C) >tµåV| ïV_åç¦ \òÝmk ¶¤sB_ Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
D) >tµåV| clöªºï¹[ káì©A Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
B) Annai Theresa
Tn
101. International Textile and Management School established in Coimbatore is named after ___
A) Gandhi C) Periyar
BVòç¦B ØÃBö_ ¼ïVBDAÝ#ö_ ¼>EB Û¡¹ ¼\éVõç\ ï_s W®kªD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m?
D) Vallabhai Patel
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 14
103. Nobel Laureate Chandrasekhar belongs to the field of _______
A) Space B) Mathematics C) Physics D) Technology
¼åVÃ_ Ãö· ØÃuÅ ÄÍ]«¼Äïì ¨Í> mçÅçB ÄVìÍ>kì?
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D) All correct
ÄöBVª ÖçðçBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ¶bÄÂ] z¿ Š 1948
ht
5
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
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1.Ö«õ¦VD Ä«¼ÃV÷ ¨[Ãk«V_ >ÞçÄ Ä«ük] \ïV_ 1824gD gõ| W®k©Ãâ¦m.
2.ïVÍ>jì ï_s ÄVçé ÃVõ½Bìï^ gâEÂïVéÝ]_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
108. Which committee created the Department of Public instruction in the Madras Province?
ps
A) Hunter commission B) Raleigh Commission
C) Woods despatch D) Macaulay committee
\>«Vü \VïVðÝ]_ ØÃVm kaïVâ|D mçÅçB °uÃ|Ý]B ]â¦D ¨m?
A) Çõ¦ì z¿ B) «V¼é ït−[ C) câü z¿
Tn D) Ø\ÂïV¼é z¿
109. Which is the Primary Education Programme of the Government of India?
A) Samagra Shiksha
C) Secondary Education for All
B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
D) B &C
ÖÍ]B ¶«E[ x>[ç\ ï_s ]â¦D ¨m? g
e/
A) Ä\« EÂ−V
B) ¶çªkòÂzD ï_s ÖBÂïD (SSA) ïV
C) ¶çªkòÂzD Öç¦Wçé ï_s ]â¦D (RMSA) i
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D) B \u®D C
110. Choose the incorrect option.
A) Educational institutions were known as Kadigai during the Pallava period
B) Pandya period is known as the most intellectual and innovative period in the history of Tamil
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literature
C) Veerarajendra Chola's Tiruvaduthurai inscription also mentions about the medical school
s:
z¤©¸|þÅm
D) åVBÂïìï¹[ gâEl_ ]õçð© Ã^¹Âí¦D W®k©Ãâ¦m
111. Who passed a resolution in favour of introducing western education system in India?
A) Sir Thomas Munro B) Sir Charles Wood
C) Lord Macaulay D) William Bentinck
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¼\uïÝ]B ï_s xçÅçB ¶¤xï©Ã|Ýmk>uz g>«kVï Îò yì\VªÝç>
Wçżku¤Bkì?
A) Äì >V\ü \[¼ÅV B) Äì ÄVìéü ¡â
C) Ø\ÂïV¼é ¸«A D) s_oBD ØÃõ½º
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼Ãì ¶«·©Ãèl_, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
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D) >tµåV| ¦V¦ì MGR \òÝmk Ã_ïçéïwïD ‡ 1994 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 02
113. Nutritious Meal Programme was introduced in the year
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A) 1956 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1986
ÄÝmð¡Ý ]â¦D ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1956 B) 1972 C) 1982 D) 1986
114. Match : a b c d e
ps
a.Bharathiyar University - 1. Salem A) 2 3 5 1 4
b.Thiruvalluvar University - 2. Coimbatore B) 2 4 3 1 5
c.Alagappa University - 3. Karaikudi C) 2 5 3 1 4
d.Periyar University - 4. Chennai D) 2 5 4 1 3
e.Tamil Virtual Academy
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.ÃV«]BVì Ã_çéÂïwïD
b.]òk^Ókì Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
c.¶wï©ÃV Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
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2.
3.
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¼ïVçk
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B)
C)
a
2
2
2
b
3
4
5
c
5
3
3
d
1
1
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e
4
5
4
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d.ØÃöBVì Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 4. ØÄ[çª D) 2 5 4 1 3
e.>tµ ÖçðBÂ ï_sÂïwïD Š 5. ¼kÙì
115. The age limit of the “National Literacy mission” is
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A) 5 years to 35 years
C) 25 years to 35 years
B) 15 years to 35 years
D) 10 years to 35 years
g
''¼>EB ¨¿Ý>¤¡ ]â¦Ý]['' kBmk«DA ¨[ª? ïV
A) 5 kBm x>_ 35 kBm kç« B) 15 kBm x>_ 35 kBm kç«
C) 25 kBm x>_ 35 kBm kç« D) 10 kBm x>_ 35 kBm kç« i
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5
4. Central electrochemistry Research Centre – Kovai
A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1
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ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. ¼>EB Ø>Va_ OâàïwïD ŠØÄ[çª
2. \Ý]B ¼>V_ g«VFßE W®kªD Š¼kÙì
3. ÖÍ]B ¼\éVõç\Â ïwïD Š]òßE
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4. \Ý]B t[¼k]lB_ g«VFßE WçéBD Š¼ïVçk
A) 3 B) 2 C) 4 D) 1
ïè>D / MATHS
B) 400 sq.cm
Tn
121. If the volume of a cube is 1000 cu.cm, then find its surface area?
A) 100 sq.cm C) 500 sq.cm
Îò ïªÄm«Ý][ ïª ¶á¡ 1000 ï.ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶>[ Aũ멸çªÂ ïVõï?
D) 600 sq.cm
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A) 100 Ä.ØÄ.* B) 400 Ä.ØÄ.* C) 500 Ä.ØÄ.* D) 600 Ä.ØÄ.*
122. The volume of a solid hemisphere is 29106 cm3. Another hemisphere whose volume is two – third of
the above is carved out. Find the radius of the new hemisphere.
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A) 21.5 cm B) 12 cm C) 21 cm D) 23 cm
Îò ]õ\ ¶ç«Â¼ïVáÝ][ ïª ¶á¡ 29106 ï.ØÄ.*. J[¤_ Ö«õ| úz ïª ¶á¡^á \u¼ÅVì
¶ç«Â¼ïVáD Ö]oòÍm ØÄmÂï©Ã|\VªV_ A]B ¶ç«Â¼ïVáÝ][ g«D ¨[ª?
A) 21.5 ØÄ.* B) 12 ØÄ.* C) 21 ØÄ.* D) 23 ØÄ.*
//t
123. A metallic sphere of radius 16 cm is melted and recast into small spheres each of radius 2 cm. how
many small spheres can be obtained?
A) 412 B) 512 C) 521 D) 421
s:
124. If the ratio of volumes of two cones is 2:3 and the ratio of the radii of their bases is 1:2, then the ratio
of their heights will be?
A) 3:8 B) 8:3 C) 9:2 D) 8:1
ht
Öò íDAï¹[ ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D 2:3 \u®D ¶ku¤[ ¶½©ÃÂï g«ºï¹[ sþ>D 1:2
gï¡D ÖòÍ>V_ ¶ku¤[ cB«ºï¹[ sþ>D?
A) 3:8 B) 8:3 C) 9:2 D) 8:1
125. If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and height is doubled then the volume is made
A) 6 times B) 12 times C) 18 times D) unchanged
Îò íD¸[ g«D xD\¦ºïVï¡D cB«D Öò\¦ºïVï¡D \V¤ªV_ ïª ¶á¡ ¨Ý>çª \¦ºïVï
\V®D?
A) 6 \¦ºz B) 12 \¦ºz C) 18 \¦ºz D) \VuÅt_çé
5
\Vu¤ªV_ ¨Ý>çª ¼ïVáºï^ þç¦ÂzD?
A) 4096 B) 512 C) 1024 D) 2048
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128. The ratio of the volume of a cone, a sphere and a cylinder if each has the same radius and same height is
A) 1:4:3 B) 1:3:4 C) 4:3:1 D) 3:4:1
Ä\\Vª g«D \u®D cB«D cç¦B íDA, ¼ïVáD, còçá gþBku¤[ ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D
A) 1:4:3 B) 1:3:4 C) 4:3:1 D) 3:4:1
ps
129. Base area of the right circular cylinder is 30 sq.cm and its height is 6 cm then the volume of the
cylinder is
A) 60 cu.cm B) 90 cu.cm C) 120 cu.cm D) 180 cu.cm
Îò ¼åìk⦠còçál[ ¶½©Ã«©A 30 ØÄ.*2 \u®D ¶>[ cB«D 6 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶>[ ïª ¶á¡
BVm?
A) 60 ï.¶ B) 90 ï.¶ C) 120 ï.¶
Tn D) 180 ï.¶
130. A hemi spherical bowl of radius 30 cm is filled with soap paste. If this paste is made into cylindrical
soap cakes each of diameter 10 cm and height 2 cm how many cakes do we get?
e/
A) 90 B) 360 C) 720 D) 180
30 ØÄ.* g«x^á ¶ç«Â¼ïVá k½k z©¸ ¼ÄV©A íwV_ W«©Ã©Ãâ|^ám. ÖÍ> ¼ÄV©A íçwÂ
ØïVõ| 10 ØÄ.* sâ¦xD, 2 ØÄ.* cB«xD c^á còçá k½k ¼ÄV©AÂïâ½ï^ ¨Ý>çª
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ØÄFBéVD?
A) 90 B) 360 C) 720 D) 180
131. If V is the volume of the cone of radius r and V1 is the volume of the cone when the radius is doubled
then
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A) V = 4V1 B) V = 2V1 C) V1 = 2V D) V1 = 4V
íD¸[ g«D r ¨[ÅV_ ¶>[ ïª ¶á¡ V gzD. íD¸[ g«Ýç> Ö«â½Ý>V_ ¶>[ ïª ¶á¡
V1 gzD. ¶ËkVØÅ[ÅV_,
s:
A) V = 4V1 B) V = 2V1 C) V1 = 2V D) V1 = 4V
132. Find the height of a cuboid whose base area is 180 cm and volume is 900 cm3
2
A) 5 cm B) 6 cm C) 7 cm D) 0.2 cm
tp
Îò ïª ØÄËkïÝ][ ¶½©Ã«©A \u®D ïª ¶á¡ï^ xçżB 180 Ä.ØÄ.* \u®D 900 ï.ØÄ.* ¨M_
¶>[ cB«D ¨[ª?
A) 5 ØÄ.* B) 6 ØÄ.* C) 7 ØÄ.* D) 0.2 ØÄ.*
ht
133. A rectangular sheet of metal foil with dimension 66 cm × 12 cm is rolled to form a cylinder of height
12 cm. Find the volume of the cylinder.
A) 2772 cm3 B) 5148 cm3 C) 4185 cm3 D) 4158 cm3
66 ØÄ.* ×12 ØÄ.* ¨ÐD ¶á¡Â ØïVõ¦ Îò c¼éVïÝ >ïâ½çª 12 ØÄ.* cB«x^á Îò
còçáBVï \Vu¤ªV_ þç¦ÂzD còçál[ ïª ¶á¡ ïVõï.
A) 2772 ï.ØÄ.* B) 5148 ï.ØÄ.* C) 4185 ï.ØÄ.* D) 4158 ï.ØÄ.*
134. A cone of height 24 cm is made up of modeling clay. A child reshapes it in the form of a cylinder of
same radius as cone. Find the height of a cylinder.
A) 42 cm B) 48 cm C) 8 cm D) 21 cm
ï¹\õ ØïVõ| ØÄFB©Ã⦠24 ØÄ.* cB«x^á Îò íDçà Îò zwÍç> ¶¼> g«x^á {ì
còçáBVï \Vu®þÅm ¨M_ còçál[ cB«D ïVõï.
A) 42 ØÄ.* B) 48 ØÄ.* C) 8 ØÄ.* D) 21 ØÄ.*
135. Volume of a hollow sphere is cm3. If the outer radius is 8 cm, find the inner radius of the sphere?
A) 6 cm B) 5 cm C) 7 cm D) 8 cm
5
Îò c^C¦uÅ ¼ïVáÝ][ ïª ¶á¡ ï.ØÄ.* \u®D ¶>[ Øk¹ g«D 8 ØÄ.* ¨M_
¶Â¼ïVáÝ][ c^g«Ýç> ïVõï.
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A) 6 ØÄ.* B) 5 ØÄ.* C) 7 ØÄ.* D) 8 ØÄ.*
136. If the circumference of a conical wooden piece is 44 cm then find its volume when its height is
12 cm.
A) 616 cm3 B) 528 cm3 C) 512 cm3 D) 576 cm3
ps
44 ØÄ.* ·uÅá¡^á Îò \«ÂíD¸[ cB«D 12 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶ÂíD¸[ ïª ¶á¡ BVm?
3 3 3 3
A) 616 ØÄ.* B) 528 ØÄ.* C) 512 ØÄ.* D) 576 ØÄ.*
137. A solid sphere of radius 9 cm is melted and cast into a shape of solid cone of same radius, find the
height of the cone.
A) 9 cm B) 81 cm TnC) 27 cm
9 ØÄ.* g«x^á Îò ]õ\ ¼ïVáÝç> ØïVõ| ¶¼> g«x^á íDA ØÄFB©Ãâ¦V_ ¶ÂíD¸[
cB«D BVm?
D) 36 cm
14* sâ¦D \u®D 20* g«x^á Îò þð® còçá k½s_ Øk⦩Ã|þÅm. ¶ËkV® Økâ|D
¼ÃVm ¼>Võ½ØB|Âï©Ã⦠\õ æ«Vï ë©Ã©Ãâ| 20* ×14* ¶á¡ï¹_ ¶½©ÃÂï\Vï ØïVõ¦
Îò ¼\ç¦BVï ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦V_, ¶D¼\ç¦l[ cB«D ïVõï.
A) 11 * B) 22* C) 77 * D) 33 *
//t
139. The volume of a sphere of radius r is obtained by multiplying its surface area by
A) B) C) D) 3r
s:
142. The ratios of the respective heights and the respective radii of two cylinders are 1:2 and 2:1
respectively. Then their respective volumes are in the ratio.
A) 4:1 B) 1:4 C) 2:1 D) 1:2
Ö«õ| còçáï¹[ cB«ºï^ xçżB 1:2 \u®D ¶ku¤[ g«ºï^ xçżB 2:1 gþB
sþ>ºï¹oò©¸[, ¶ku¤[ ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D
A) 4:1 B) 1:4 C) 2:1 D) 1:2
143. The ratio of volumes of two cubes is 8:1, then the ratio of its sides is
A) 8:1 B) 2√2:1 C) 2:1 D) 64:1
Ö«õ| ïª Äm«ºï¹[ ïª ¶ás[ sþ>ºï^ xçżB 8:1 ¨M_ ¶>[ ÃÂï ¶á¡ï¹[
5
sþ>Ýç>Â í®.
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A) 8:1 B) 2√2:1 C) 2:1 D) 64:1
3
144. The volume of the hemisphere is 1152 cm , then the curved surface area of the hemisphere is
A) 242 cm2 B) 208 cm2
C) 288 cm2 D) 338 cm2
ps
{ì ¶ç«Â¼ïVáÝ][ ïª ¶á¡ 1152 ØÄ.*3 ¨M_ ¶>[ kçáÍ> Øk¹Ã«©¸[ ë©Ãá¡?
2 3
A) 242 ØÄ.* B) 208 ØÄ.*
C) 288 ØÄ.*3 D) 338 ØÄ.*3
145. If the volume of two cones are in the ratio 1:4 and their diameters are in the ratio 4:5 then the ratio of
their heights is
A) 1:5 B) 5:4 Tn C) 5:16
Öò íDAï¹[ ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D 1:4 \u®D ¶ku¤[ s⦺ï¹[ sþ>D 4:5 ¨M_ ¶ku¤[
cB«ºï¹[ sþ>D ¨[ª?
D) 25:64
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A) 1:5 B) 5:4 C) 5:16 D) 25:64
3
146. The volume of the cube is 729 cm . What is the length of the diagonal?
A) 9√2 cm B) 9√3 cm C) 18 cm D) 18√3 cm g
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3
Îò ïªßÄm«Ý][ ïª ¶á¡ 729 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶>[ Jçésâ¦D ¨Ëká¡?
A) 9√2 ØÄ.* B) 9√3 ØÄ.* C) 18 ØÄ.* D) 18√3 ØÄ.*
ïV
147. The volume of a cone is 216 cu.cm. If the base radius is 9 cm. Find the height of the cone. i
A) 7 cm B) 8 cm C) 6 cm D) 5 cm
//t
Îò ¼åìkâ¦Â íD¸[ ïª ¶á¡ 216 ï.ØÄ.*. ¶ÂíD¸[ g«D 9 ØÄ.* ¨M_ ¶>[ cB«Ýç>Â
ïVõï.
A) 7 ØÄ.* B) 8 ØÄ.* C) 6 ØÄ.* D) 5 ØÄ.*
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31 A 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 D 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 D
41 C 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 C 49 D 50 C
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51 C 52 A 53 B 54 D 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 C 59 C 60 D
61 A 62 D 63 C 64 A 65 D 66 C 67 D 68 A 69 B 70 C
71 A 72 D 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 D 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 B 86 B 87 D 88 C 89 D 90 D
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91 B 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 C
101 D 102 C 103 C 104 A 105 D 106 B 107 C 108 C 109 B 110 B
111 D 112 D 113 C 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 D 118 C 119 A 120 A
121 D 122 C 123 B 124 B 125 C 126 A 127 A 128 A 129 D 130 B
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1 A 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 A 9 D 10 C
11 C 12 A 13 C 14 C 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 C 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 D 30 C
s:
31 A 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 D 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 D
41 C 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 C 49 D 50 C
51 C 52 A 53 B 54 D 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 C 59 C 60 D
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61 A 62 D 63 C 64 A 65 D 66 C 67 D 68 A 69 B 70 C
71 A 72 D 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 D 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 B 86 B 87 D 88 C 89 D 90 D
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91 B 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 C
101 D 102 C 103 C 104 A 105 D 106 B 107 C 108 C 109 B 110 B
111 D 112 D 113 C 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 D 118 C 119 A 120 A
121 D 122 C 123 B 124 B 125 C 126 A 127 A 128 A 129 D 130 B
131 D 132 A 133 D 134 C 135 B 136 A 137 D 138 A 139 B 140 D
141 C 142 C 143 C 144 C 145 D 146 B 147 B 148 B 149 C 150 D
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UNIT – 8, UNIT – 9, MATHS
C) Marudhu Brothers
Tn
1. Who launched Gorilla warfare system to evaded from british?
A) Veerapandya Kattabomman B) DheeranChinnamalai
D) Pulithevar
gºþ¼éBö¦D ¸½ÃV¦\oò©Ã>uïVï ''ØïVö_éV'' ¼ÃVì xçÅïçá çïBVõ¦kì BVì?
A) T«ÃVõ½B ïâ¦ØÃVD\[ B) y«[E[ª\çé
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C) \òmļïV>«ìï^ D) ¯oݼ>k[
2. Who helped the Harvey Mill workers to form the Madurai Workers Union in 1918?
A) Yakub Hassan B) George Joseph C) Satyamurthy D) Thyagarayar
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6. Statement 1:In 1891, G Subramaniam started a national periodical in Tamil called Swadesamitran.
Statement 2: In 1899, the periodical became a daily.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1 : G. ·©«\èBD 1891Š_ ·¼>ÄtÝ«[ ¨[Å ØÃBö_ >ta_ Îò ¼>EB Ãòk
Ö>çw¥D Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
íu® 2 : 1899ŠÖ_ ¶Ës>µ åV¹>wVï \V¤Bm.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
7. Who was the first Chairman of the Madras Mahajana Sabha which was started on May 16, 1884?
A) P.Rangaiya B) M.Veeraragavachari
5
C) Ananthacharlu D) G.Subramaniam
1884, ¼\ 16 Š Ö_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠ØÄ[çª \ïVÛª ÄçÃl[ x>_ >çékì BVì?
c8
A) P. «ºçïBV B) M. T««VïkVßÄVö C) ¶ªÍ>VßÄVìK D) G. ·©«\èBD
8. “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection”said by
A) Subarayalu B) Annie besant C) Raja of Panagal D) Satyamoorthy
''¶]åTª kÄ]ïÓ¦[ Ä\B Ö«lo_ ¶½ç\ïáVï Öò©Ãç>s¦ ·>Í]«Ým¦[ í½B \Vâ|
ps
kõ½¼B EÅÍ>m'' ¨ª í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ·©Ã«VBK B) ¶[MØÃÄ[â C) êï_ ¶«Äì D) ÄÝBJìÝ]
9. Which is Incorrect?
A) Tamil
B) Telugu
C) English
- Dravidian
- Andhra Prakasika
- Justice
D) None of the above
Tn
ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
e/
A) >tµ Š ]«Vs¦[
B) Ø>Kºz Š gÍ]«¸«ïVEïV
C) gºþéD Š Ûü½ü
.m
D) ¨m¡t_çé
10. Who was the first Chief Minister of the Justice Party to win the 1920 elections?
A) Suburayalu B) Raja of Panagal C) Ananthacharlu D) Suburayan
1920ŠÖ_ åç¦ØÃuÅ ¼>ì>o_ Øku¤ØÃuÅ À]ÂïâEl[ x>éVkm x>éç\ßÄì BVì?
//t
Statement 2: " No changers " - wanted to contest elections, " Pro changers " wanted to continue
boycott of legislature.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
tp
5
ØïV½çB °u¤ªVì.
3. N.M.R.·©Ã«VB[ \mç« ïVÍ] ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅVì.
c8
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
14. Find the incorrect option
1.1939 - Temple Entry Authorization and Indemnity Act
ps
2.1937 - Neil Statue Removal Struggle
3.1929 - Poorna swaraj
A) 1, 2 Incorrect B) 2 only incorrect C) 1, 3 incorrect D) 1, 2, 3 incorrect
ØÃVòÍ>Vç> ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. 1939
2. 1937
3. 1929
- ¼ïVs_ Oçw¡ Ö½©Ã| Äâ¦D.
- À_ Eçé ¶ïu®D ¼ÃV«Vâ¦D
- ¯«ð ·B«Vë÷BD
A) 1, 2 >k® B) 2 >k®
TnC) 1, 3 >k® D) 1, 2, 3 >k®
15. Who is the author of these two books, How India Wrought for Freedom and India: A Nation?
e/
A) Annie besant B) C. Nadesanar C) T.M. Nair D) P. Thyagarayar
''s|>çéØÃÅ ÖÍ]BV ¨©Ã½ mBòuÅm, ÖÍ]B Îò ¼>ÄD'' ¨ÐD Öò AÝ>ïºï¹[ gEBöBì BVì?
A) ¶[MØÃÄ[â B) C.弦Ä[ C) T.M.åVBì D) P.]BVï«VBì
.m
16. Statement 1 : The 72 palayams created by the Nayakars were divided into two parts as East and
West.
Statement 2: The eastern palayams were Sathur, Nagalapuram, Ettayapuram, Panchalankurichi and
//t
17. Assertion: Kuyili a faithful friend of velunachiyar is said to have led the unit of women soldiers
named after Udaiyal
ht
Reason: Udaiyal was a shepherd girl name who was killed for not divulging information on kuyili
A) Assertion is true ,Reason is false B) Assertion and Reason are false
C) Assertion is false, Reason is true D) Assertion and Reason are true
íu® : ¼kKåVßEBVö[ åD¸ÂçïÂzöB ¼>VaBVï ]ïµÍ> zlo ''cç¦BV^'' ¨[Å ØÃõè[
Ã禩¸öçk >çéç\¼Bu® kaå¦Ý]ªVì.
ïV«ðD : cç¦BV^ ¨[Ãm zlo Ãu¤ cá¡ íÅ \®Ý>>V_ ØïV_é©Ã⦠¼\FÝ>_ Ø>Va_AöÍ>
ØÃõè[ ØÃB«VzD.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼Ãì ¶«·©Ãèl_, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
5
A) 1 is true B) 2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D) 1and 2 are false
íu® 1 : E[ª\òm åVßEBVö[ g¼éVÄï«Vï¡D, ØÃöB \òm åVßEBVö[ Ãç¦Ý>áÃ]BVï¡D
c8
WBtÂï©Ã⦪ì.
íu® 2 : 1783-_ gºþ¼éBì EkïºçïÂz *õ|D Ãç¦ØB|Ým kÍ>ªì. ÖDxçÅ \òm
ļïV>ìï^ Eé Ö«VÛ>Í]« å¦k½ÂçïïáV_ Ekïºçïl[ ÃVmïV©çà c®] ØÄF>ªì.
A) 1 Äö B) 2 Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
ps
20. How many rupees is equal to one Pagoda?
A) Rs.1 B) Rs.2 C) Rs.5 D) Rs.4
Ô.1 üïV¦V ¨Ý>çª ÔÃVF.
A) 11 2 ÔÃVF B) 21 C) 51 2 ÔÃVF D) 41 2 ÔÃVF
(a) Cauvery
(b) Odanilai
- 1. 1804
- 2. 1802
2 ÔÃVF
Tn
21. Match the following:(Three important wars of Chinnamalai)
A)
B)
a
2
3
b
1
2
c
3
1
e/
(c) Arachalur - 3. 1801 C) 1 3 2
D) 1 2 3
ØÃVòÝmï.(E[ª\çél[ ¼ÃVìï¹_ xÂþB\Vªçk J[®). a b c
.m
a. ïV¼kö Š 1. 1804 A) 2 1 3
b. ΦWçé Š 2. 1802 B) 3 2 1
c. ¶«ßÄÙì Š 3. 1801 C) 1 3 2
D) 1 2 3
//t
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. Ø>[ªVâ½[ ÛV[E«Vè Š 1. ¶DAÛÝ>D\V^
b. ïVÍ]B½ïáV_ >ÝØ>|Âï©Ã⦠\ï^ Š 2. ¶ÞÄçéBD\V^
ht
5
b. 1886 Š 2. ØÄ[çª B) 3 1 2 4
c. 1887 Š 3. ÃDÃVF C) 1 3 2 4
c8
d. 1893 Š 4. éVíì D) 1 2 4 3
24. The first meeting of the Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in 1885. A total of 72
delegates participated. How many of the delegates are from Chennai?
A) 54 B) 48 C) 22 D) 36
ps
ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«L[ x>_íâ¦D 1885 Š ÃDÃVl_ åç¦ØÃuÅm. Ö]_ Ø\VÝ>D ïéÍmÂ
ØïVõ¦ 72, ¸«]W]ï¹_ ØÄ[çªçB ¼ÄìÍ>kìï^ ¨Ý>çª ¼Ãì?
A) 54 B) 48 C) 22 D) 36
25. The third Conference of the Indian National Congress (1887) in Chennai was headed by
A) Badruddin Tyabji
C) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
A) ÃÝòy[ ]BV©÷
Tn B) Dadabai Naoroji
D) Bipin Chandrapal
ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«E[ J[ÅVkm \VåV| ØÄ[çªl_ BVì >çéç\l_ åç¦ØÃuÅm.
B) >V>VÃVF ØåἫV÷
e/
C) ¼ïVÃVéþòið ¼ïVï¼é D) ¸¸[ ÄÍ]«ÃV_
26. Who published the English magazine 'Bala baratham'?
A) G. Subramaniam B) Bharathiar C) P. Rangaiya D) Subramania Siva
.m
29. In Which year Dr.Muthulakshmi Reddy elected as legislative council member of Tamilnadu?
A) 1924 B) 1927
C) 1928 D) 1926
¨Í> gõ| >twï Äâ¦\[Å ¼\éçk c®©¸ª«Vï ¦V¦ì.xÝméâ·t Ø«â½ WB\ªD
ØÄFB©Ãâ¦Vì.
A) 1924 B) 1927
C) 1928 D) 1926
30. Statement 1: All India Women Conference meet held at Pune in 1930
Statement 2: To provide empowerment of orphanagers, AvvaiIllam was started at Santhome.
A) 1 is true B) 2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D) 1and 2 are false
íu® 1 : 1930ŠgD gõ| ¯ªVs_ ¶çªÝ]Í]B ØÃõï^ \VåVâç¦ å¦Ý]ªVì.
íu® 2 : g>«ku¼ÅVì \®kVµ¡ >òD ØÃVòâ| ''¶Ëçk Ö_éD'' ¨[Å ¶ç¦Âïé WçéBÝç>
ÄVͼ>Vt_ Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
31. Assertion: Dr.S.Dharambal started a movement called EzhavuVaaram as till 1940 the tamil teachers
had no recognition in the society and they were also not paid equal salary like other
5
teachers.
Reason: As a result the Educational Minister Thiru Avinasalingam Chettiar announced equal pay to
c8
tamil teachers like other teachers
A) Assertion is false, Reason is true
B) Assertion and Reason are true
ps
C) Assertion and Reason are false
D) Assertion is true, Reason is false
íu® : 1940 Š gD gõ| kç« Äx>VBÝ]_ >twVEöBìïÓÂz \]©A Ö_çé, »]BD
cBìÝ>©Ã¦s_çé. ¨ª¼k, ''Öw¡ kV«D'' ¨[Å ¼ÃV«Vâ¦Ýç> Ø>V¦ºþªVì
¦V¦ì.¨ü.>ò\VDÃV^.
Tn
ïV«ðD : Ö>[ sçákVï ï_s ¶ç\ßÄ«Vï ÖòÍ> ]ò.¶såVEoºïD ¸Å gEöBìïÓÂz
ÖçðBVª »]BÝç> >tµ gEöBìïÓÂz kwºï cÝ>«sâ¦Vì.
A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
e/
C) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
32. Devadasi act was enacted on which year?
.m
37. Statement 1: He expressed the view that “those who lack compassion for suffering beings are
hard hearted their wisdom clouded.
Statement 2: He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants.
Above lines are denoted?
A) Iyothithasa Pandithar B) Vallalar
C) Vaigunda Swamigal D) Ramagopal
íu® 1 : ''mB«©Ã|D clöªºïçá© ÃVìÝm Ö«ÂïD ØïV^áV>kìï^ ï_ ØåÞÄÂïV«ìï^,
¶kìï¹[ QVªD ¼\ïºïáV_ J¦©Ãâ½òÂzD'' ¨ÐD ïòÝ]çª x[çkÝ>Vì.
íu® 2 : ¶kì >[Ðç¦B ¶[çÃ¥D Ö«ÂïÝç>¥D ØĽ ØïV½ï^ câæ ¶çªÝm
5
clöªºï¹¦xD ïV⽪Vì.
BVç«©Ãu¤B íu®?
c8
A) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄ Ãõ½>ì B) k^áéVì
C) çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^ D) Ö«V\¼ïVÃV_
38. Who said “Jeevakarunya?”…………….
A) Vallalar B) VaigundaSwamigal
ps
C) IyotheeThasar D) E.V.Ramasamy
ýkïVòõBD Š ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) k^áéVì B) çkzõ¦·kVtï^
C) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì
A) E.V.Ramasamy
C) IyotheeThasar
Tn
D) ~.Øk.«V\ÄVt
39. Who preached the British Rule and Travancore ruler as “White devil rule and Black Devil rule”?
B) VaigundaSwamigal
D)Vallalar
çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^ gºþé gâEçB¥D ]òs>Vºíì ¶«Äö[ gâEçB¥D xçżB ''Øk^çá
e/
¸ÄV·ï¹[ gâEØB[®D'' ''ïò©A ¸ÄV·ï¹[ gâEØB[®D'' ¨[® s\ìEÝ>kì BVì?
A) ~.¼k.«V. B) çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^
C) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì D) k^áéVì.
.m
40. Who organized the first ever celebration of May day in 1923?
A) M.C.Raja B) M.Singaravelar C) P.Rangaih D) Anandacharlu
1923-_ x>_ x>éVï ¼\ ]ª swVçk °uÃV| ØÄF>kì BVì?
A) ¨D.E.«VÛV B) \.EºïV«¼kéì C) P. «ºçïBV D) gªÍ>ßÄVìK
//t
3. He is called as Thatha.
A) 1, 2, 3 are true B) 1 only true C) 2 only true D) 1,2,3 are false
tp
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. Ö«âç¦ \çé æMkVÄ[ >VÝ>V ¨ª ëkéVï ¶¤B©Ã⦠Ökì 1859-gD gõ| ïVÞEA«Ý]_
¸ÅÍ>Vì.
2. 1893ŠÖ_ g]]«Vs¦ \ïVÛª Äçà ¨ÐD ¶ç\©çà còkVÂþªVì.
ht
5
Statement 2: He participated in the first and second round table conferences held in London
(1930 &1931) and voiced the opinion of the marginalized sections of the society
c8
A) Statement 1 only true
B) Statement 1 and 2 are true
C) Statement 1 is false
ps
D) Statement 1and 2 are false
íu® 1 : ¸.gì.¶D¼ÃÝïVö[ ØåòÂï\Vªk«Vª Ö«âç¦ \çé æMkVÄ[ gkVì.
íu® 2 : Ökì éõ¦M_ 1930 \u®D 1931 åç¦ØÃuÅ x>_, Ö«õ¦VD k⦼\çÛ \VåVâ½_ ïéÍm
ØïVõ| ÄJïÝ][ s¹DAWçé \Âï¹[ ïòÝmÂïÓÂïVï z«_ ØïV|Ý>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1 >k®
46. Who wrote the book “Aghilathirattu Ammanai”?
A) Ramagopal
C) Vallalar
Tn D) 1, 2 >k®
B) VaigundaSwamigal
D) Periyar
¶þéÝ]«â| ¶D\Vçª BV«V_ ¨¿>©Ãâ¦m.
e/
A) Ö«V\¼ïVÃV_ B) çkzõ¦·kVtï^
C) k^áéVì D) ØÃöBVì
47. Pick out the correct statement:
.m
Magazine - Year a b c d
(a) Democracy (Kudiyarasu) - 1. 1935 A) 2 4 1 3
(b) Revolution (Puratchi ) - 2. 1925 B) 4 1 3 2
ht
49. Assertion : To practice equality, Vaikunda Swamy organized “Samathuva Samaj” movement.
Reason : To success in his movement ,he organized inter-dining among different castes.
A) Assertion True and Reason is False B) Assertion false and Reason is true
C) Assertion and Reason are true D) Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : Ã_¼k® ÄV]ïçáß ¼ÄìÍ> \Âïçá Îòºþçð©Ã>uïVï çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^
''Ä\Ýmk Ä\VÛD'' ¨ÐD ¶ç\©çà còkVÂþªVì.
ïV«ðD : ¶Í¼åVÂïÝ]_ Øku¤Øîk>uïVï ¶çªÝm ÄV]\ÂïÓD ¼Ä«ÍmõbD Ä\ÃÍ]
sòÍmïçá å¦Ý]ªVì.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
5
C) íu®D, ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu® ïV«ðD >k®
50. Who founded the “AdvaidanandaSabha”?
c8
A) John Driviyam B) Iyotheethasar
C) Ramalingaswamigal D) Vaigundaswamigal
''¶ÝçkªÍ> ÄÃV'' ¨ÐD ¶ç\©çà W®sBkì?
A) ÛV[ ]«sBD B) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì
ps
C) Ö«V\oºï ·kVtï^ D) çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^
51. Pick out the correct statement regarding Vaigunda Swamigal.
1. Avoid Idol Worship
2. Offer food to the needy
3. Not Sacrifice animal life to the god
4. Approach Joint Prayer
A) 1 and 2 are true
Tn
B) 3 and 4 are true
e/
C) 1,2,3 are true D) All are true
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|. (çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^ ØïV^çïï^)
1. còk kaÃV| í¦Vm. 2. ¶[ª>VªD kwºï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D.
3. clìÃo í¦Vm. 4. íâ| kaÃV| ØÄFB ¼kõ|D.
.m
5
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 3, Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
56. The journal Gnanasagaram was renamed as Arivukadal was established by
c8
A) Ayodhidasar B) Maraimalaiadigal
C) EV Ramasamy D) TM Nair
BVòç¦B QVªÄVï«D ¨[Å ÃÝ]öÂçï ¶¤¡Âï¦_ ¨ª© ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
A) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì B) \çÅ\çé ¶½ï_ C) ~.¼k.«V\ÄVt D) ½.¨D åVBì
ps
57. Choose the incorrect option :
1. Suburayalu - 1925 2. Panagal Raja - 1921
3. P.Subburayan - 1926 4. P. Munusamy - 1930
A) 1 only incorrect
ØÃVòÍ>VkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|
1. ·©A«VBÙ Š 1925
3. ¸. ·©A«VB[ Š 1926
B) 1, 2 incorrect
TnC) 1, 3 incorrect
2. êï_«VÛV Š 1921
4. ¸. xÐÄVt Š 1930
D) 1, 2, 3, 4 incorrect
63. In which year did the Government of Tamil Nadu create Anna centenary library?
A) 2009 B) 2010 C) 2011 D) 2012
¨Í> gõ| >tµåV| ¶«· ¶õðV ±uÅVõ| ±éïÝç> còkVÂþBm?
A) 2009 B) 2010 C) 2011 D) 2012
64. We don't need books that spoil people's wisdom, We need distinct literatures that spark Tamils, said
by
A) Kamarajar B) Periyar C) Annadurai D) MG Ramachandran
""\Âï¹[ \]çB Øï|ÂzD °|ï^ å\Âz ¼>çkl_çé, >twç« >â½ ¨¿©AD >[\Vª
ÖéÂþBºï^ ¼>çk'' - ¨[® í¤Bkì BVì?
5
A) ïV\«Vë B) ØÃöBVì C) ¶õðVmç« D) ¨D.÷.«V\ßÄÍ]«[
65. Assertion A :The Justice Party Conference was held in 1944 at Salem. Anna changed the name of
c8
Justice Party to DravidarKazhagam in the conference..
Reason R :It was changed to DravidaMunnetraKazhagam in 1949
A) A correct R incorrect B) A & R correct
C) A incorrect R correct D) A & R incorrect
ps
íu® Š 1944 D gõ| ¼ÄéÝ]_ åç¦ØÃuÅ À]ÂïâE \VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅm. ¶D\VåVâ½_ ¼Ã«¤Qì
¶õðV Š ""À]ÂïâE Š ]«Vs¦ì ïwïD'' ¨ª ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD Š 1949 ]«Vs¦ x[¼ªuÅ ïwïD ¨ª \VuÅØÃuÅm.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
Tn
D) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
66. As per the Article 313, Hindi was made as the official language of the country on
A) 1965, January 26 B) 1965, February 24 C) 1965, January 29 D) 1965, February 29
s] 313 [ ý ÖÍ]Ø\Va åVâ½[ ¶Kk_ Ø\VaBVï ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m?
e/
A) 1965 Ûªkö 26 B) 1965 ¸©«kö 24 C) 1965 Ûªkö 29 D) 1965 ¸©«kö 29
67. Who introduced Kulakalvi scheme to take hereditary profession and to study in part time in schools ?
A) Annadurai B) Rajaji C) Kamaraj D) Raja of Panagal
.m
A]B Ã^¹Âí¦ºï¹_ Ãz] ¼å«\Vï ïuÃ>uz ëDÃçÅ Ø>Va_ ¨ª©Ã|D ""zéÂï_s'' ]â¦Ýç>
ØïVõ|kÍ>kì BVì?á
A) ¶õðVmç« B) Ö«VÛV÷ C) ïV\«Vë D) êï_ ¶«Äì
68. In which year was the name of the Madras state changed to “Tamil Nadu”?
//t
70. Assertion A: Amma baby care Kit Scheme is functioning since 2014.
Reason R: Under this scheme, mothers who give birth to children in government hospitals will get
16 items worth Rs.1000
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ¶D\V zwÍç>ï^ åé© ØÃâ¦ïÝ ]â¦D 2014gD gõ| x>_ ØÄB_Ã|þÅm.
ïV«ðD : ÖÝ]â¦Ý][ JéD ¶«· \òÝmk\çªï¹_ zwÍç>ïçá© ØÃuØÅ|ÂzD >VF\Vìï^
Ô.1000 \]©¸éVª 16 kçïBVª ØÃVòâïçá (¶) ïòsïçá© ØîkVìï^.
5
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö. ïV«ðD íu®Âz ÄöBVª sáÂï\VzD
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö. ïV«ðD íu®Âz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
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C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
71. Which is not related to Salem district’s industrial cluster of Tamil Nadu?
1.Powerloom 2.Engineering Industries
ps
3.Cassava 4.Lorry body work 5.Bore well
A) 2, 5 only incorrect B) Only 2, 4 incorrect
C) Only 2, 4, 5 incorrect D) Only 2, 3, 4 incorrect
>tµåVâ½[ Ø>Va_ ØïVÝm ¶ç\©Aï¹_ ''¼ÄéD'' \Vkâ¦Ým¦[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦B]_ >kÅVªm?
1.sçÄ>¤
3.\«k^¹
A) 2, 5 \â|D >k®
C) 2, 4, 5 \â|D >k®
2.ØÃV¤lB_ Ø>VauÄVçéï^
Tn
4.éVö ïéÝØ>Vz] 5.gµmçál|D Ãèï^
B) 2, 4 \â|D >k®
D) 2, 3, 4 \â|D >k®
72. Choose the correct answer.
e/
A) Tamil Nadu ranks 3rd in industrial production in India
B) Tamil Nadu ranks second in Per capita investment
.m
5
D) A \u®D C
76. Match. a b c d e
c8
a.Little Japan - 1. Erode A) 4 3 2 5 1
b. Yarn bowl - 2. Tamil Nadu B) 4 2 3 5 1
c. Gateway of Tamil Nadu - 3. Thoothukudi C) 4 5 3 1 2
ps
d. Knitting city - 4. Sivakasi D) 3 5 4 1 2
e. Turmeric City - 5. Tirupur
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a.zâ½ Û©ÃV[ Š 1. ~¼«V| A) 4 3 2 5 1
b.±_ þõðD
c.>twïÝ][ Oçw¡kVl_
d.¸[ªéVç¦ åï«D
e.\ÞÄ^ åï«D
Š
Š
Š
Š
2.
3.
4.
5.
Tn
>tµåV|
#ÝmÂz½
EkïVE
]ò©¯ì
B)
C)
D)
4
4
3
2
5
5
3
3
4
5
1
1
1
2
2
e/
77. Which district is the major textile market for wholesale and retail readymade garments in South
India?
A) Tirupur B) Coimbatore C) Erode D) Chennai
.m
¨Í> \Vkâ¦D Ø>[MÍ]BVs[ Ø\VÝ> \u®D E_éçÅ gBÝ> gç¦ïÓÂïVª xÂþB Û¡¹
ÄÍç>BVï c^ám?
A) ]ò©¯ì B) ¼ïVçk C) ~¼«V| D) ØÄ[çª
78. Choose the correct answer.
//t
1. BHEL, one of the largest manufacturers of Electronic products globally, is located in Trichy and
Ranipet districts.
2. Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited (TNPL), the world's largest paper maker, is located in
s:
Karur district.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
tp
\Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
79. Statement 1: Chennai, Ennore and Thoothukudi are the largest ports in Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2: There are four major international airports in Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3: There are more than 20 hydro power stations in Tamil Nadu.
A) Only 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 only correct
C) 1, 3 only correct D) All correct
5
ÄJï \u®D ï_sl_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªì ¶_ém Ãâ½B_ ÄV] \u®D Ãwºz½lªö[
x[¼ªuÅÝ]uïVª EÅ©AÝ ]⦺ï^ còkVÂzk>uz ¶«Äç\©A >ç¦BVï ÖòÂïVm ¨ª
c8
í®D s] ¨m?
A) s] Š 16(4) B) s] Š 29(2) C) s] Š 23(4) D) s] Š 23 (2)
81. Assertion A : The First Commission was constituted in 1953 for the development of backward
classes in the country.
ps
Reason R: This is the first Backward Classes Commission of independent India headed by Kaka
Kalelkar.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A & R correct
C) A incorrect, R correct
Tn
D) A & R incorrect
íu® : åVâ½_ ÖòÂzD ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠¸ösªö[ ¼\DÃVâ½uïVï x>_ gçðBD 1953gD gõ|
¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : ïVïV ïV¼é_ïì ¶kìï¹[ >çéç\l_ ¶ç\B©ØÃuÅ Öm¼k ·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_
¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì gçðBD gzD.
e/
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD >k®
82. Which is the least populated state in India?
.m
5
C) Human Development Index D) Per capita income
c¦_ \u®D ÃðD ÄVìÍ> ¼\DÃVâç¦ z¤©¸|km?
c8
A) ØÄF]Å[ z¤Xâئõ B) Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]
C) \M> ¼\DÃVâ| z¤X| D) >MåÃì kò\VªD
87. Biswajeet Guha said "The scope of human development index can be expanded by adding _______
three factors".
ps
A) Life expectancy, education, urbanization
B) Quality of life, poverty alleviation, urbanization
C) Life expectancy, infant mortality rate, Literacy Rate
Tn
D) Life expectancy, Per capita income, Urbanization
''¨Í> J[® ÃöðV\ºïçá ¼Äì©Ã>[ JéD \M> ¼\DÃVâ| z¤Xâç¦ sö¡Ã|Ý> x½¥D'', ¨ª
¸ükýÝ zÇV í¤¥^áVì?
A) kVµåV^ ¨]ìÃVì©A, ï_s, åï«\V>_
B) kVµÂçïÝ>«D, k®ç\ Îa©A, åï«\V>_
e/
C) ¨]ìÃVì©A g¥âïVéD, zwÍç> ÖÅ©A T>D, ¨¿Ý>¤¡ T>D
D) ¨]ìÃVì©A g¥âïVéD, >MåÃì kò\VªD, åï«\V>_
88. Which district has the lowest child sex ratio in Tamil Nadu?
.m
A) Cuddalore B) Ariyalur
C) Theni D) Perambalur
>tµåVâ½_ zçÅkVª zwÍç> ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D ¨m?
A) ï¦Ùì B) ¶öBÙì
//t
C) ¼>M D) ØëDÃÙì
89. Which was formed by Ayodhyadasar to raise his voice in support of the temple entry of the
oppressed people?
s:
5
''°çwïáVï¡D, Öçðl_éV> å[\]©çÃ¥D, ïçá©Ãç¦Í> Ö>BÝç>¥D ØïVõ|^á
¶D\Âïçá åV[ ÃVìÂþ¼Å[, åV[ ÃéTªD ¶ç¦þ¼Å['' ¨ª í¤Bkì?
c8
A) x½ó|D ØÃò\V^ B) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì
C) ØÃöBVì D) «V\oºï ¶½ï^
92. Who questioned Hindu religious conservatism?
A) Periyar B) Parithimar Kalaignar
ps
C) Abraham Pandithar D) Ramalinga adigal
ÖÍm Ä\B Ãwç\kV>Ýç> ¼ï^sÂz^áVþBkì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) Ãö]\Vu ïçéQì
C) g¸«ïVD Ãõ½>ì
A) Purananuru
C) Sivakasinthamani
Tn
D) Ö«V\oºï ¶½ï^
93. Which book was published by U.Ve.Sa. in 1895?
B) Puraporul venba malai
D) Silappathikaram
c.¼k.ÄV 1895gD gõ| Ã]©¸Ý> ±_ ¨m?
e/
A) AÅåVû® B) AÅ©ØÃVò^ ØkõÃV \Vçé
C) ækïEÍ>V\è D) Eé©Ã]ïV«D
94. Choose the correct answer.
.m
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
95. Public Service Commission formed in the year?
ht
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.ÖÍ]BVs_ A«VðïVéÝm \«A EÍ>çªïáV_ Ämì kòð ¶ç\©A ¸[ÃuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
2.Ö>uz ¶©ÃVuÃâ¦çkïçá ÃÞÄ\ì Š ¶Í>ðì Š óÝ]«ì ¨ª ÎmÂþ çkÝ>ªì.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 1, 2 Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
97. Only English would be adopted as the official language throughout India, announced during the
British rule in the year ______
A) 1920 B) 1881 C) 1835 D) 1946
gºþ¼éB gâEïVéÝ]_ ÖÍ]BV x¿kmD ¶«· WìkVï Ø\VaBVï gºþéD \â|¼\
5
¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|D ¨ª ¶¤sÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1920 B) 1881 C) 1835 D) 1946
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98. Examine the Statements.
Statement 1 : In 1910, the Government of Madras announced financial assistance schemes for the
DepressedClasses.
Statement 2: Chengalpattu District Collector Tremancare filed a report on the Depressed Classes of
ps
Chengalpattu
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 correct 2 Incorrect
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
Tn
íu® 1: ØÄ[çª \VïV𠶫· >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂïVª W] c>sÝ]⦺ïçá 1910_
¶¤sÝ>m.
íu® 2: Øĺï_Ãâ| \Vk⦠gâEBì ]öØ\[ÿ¼« Øĺï_Ãâ½uïVª >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\Âï^
z¤Ým Îò ¶¤Âçï >VÂï_ ØÄF>Vì.
e/
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
99. The King of Mysore gave proportional representation to appointments in government services as
.m
¸«]W]ÝmkÝç> kwºþªVì?
A) ü¼¦[o z¿ B) \Vݼ«V z¿
C) «VÛV ØÄ_çéBV z¿ D) t_éì z¿
s:
101. The British officer who was responsible for the formation of panchami land
A) Ellis B) Smats C)Tremancare D) Thomas munro
ÃÞÄt WéD còkVï ïV«ð\Vï ¶ç\Í> gºþ¼éB gâEBVáì?
A) ¨_Üü B) ü\âü C) ]öØ\[ÿ¼« D) >V\ü \[¼ÅV
102. Who said that Panchamar schools should be called as Adidravidar schools?
1. Ayodhidasa Pandithar 2. Singaravelar 3.Jothirao Phule 4.Bharatiyar
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 1, 3, 4 correct D) 2, 3 correct
5
A) Arignar Anna B) Kamarajar C) Baktavachalam D) M. Karunanidhi
Äâ¦åV>[ gçðBD BVì ¶ç\ßÄ«çkl_ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m?
c8
A) ¶¤Qì ¶õðV B) ïV\«VÛì C) ÃÂ>kßÄéD D) x. ïòðVW]
105. ______ clauses incorporated into the Constitution as per the first amendment Act by Prime Minister
Nehru
A) 15 (4), 16 (4) B) 16 (1), 16 (3) C) 19 (f), 17 D) 14 (2), 15 (3)
ps
¸«>\ì ¼åò ØïVõ| kÍ> x>éVkm Äâ¦]òÝ>Ý][ ý ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ÖçðÂï©Ãâ¦
câ¸ö¡ï^?
A) 15(4), 16(4) B) 16(1), 16(3) C) 19(f), 17 D) 14(2), 15(3)
106. What percent of Reservation implemented in 1951 after the first amendment Act in Tamilnadu?
A) Backward 30% Oppressed 25%
C) Backward 25% Oppressed 16% Tn B) Backward 25% Oppressed 30%
D) Backward 16% Oppressed 25%
>twïÝ]_ x>_ Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý]uz ¸Åz 1951_ åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠֦ÎmÂÿ|?
A) ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì 30% >VµÝ>©Ã⼦Vì 25%
e/
B) ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì 25% >VµÝ>©Ã⼦Vì 30%
C) ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì 25% >VµÝ>©Ã⼦Vì 16%
D) ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì 16% >VµÝ>©Ã⼦Vì 25%
.m
Statement 3: Sir P. Thyagaraya written and published a report called "White Paper"
A) 1, 2, 3 incorrect B) Only 1 2 correct C) Only 1, 3 correct D) 2, 3 correct only
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
tp
íu® 1: 1913ŠgD gõ| ¶ØéÂÄVõ¦ì ïVì½R >çéç\l_ «VB_ gçðBD ÖÍ]BV kÍ>m.
íu® 2: Ö]_ «ºí[ ]«Vs¦ ĺïD c^æ Ãé ¶ç\©Aï^ sõð©Ãºïçá ¶¹Ý>ªì.
íu® 3: Äì.¸. ]BVï«VBì ¨¿] Øk¹l⦠¶¤Âçï ''Øk^çá ¶¤Âçï'' ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ht
110. Statement 1: Indira Sahani vs Indian Union case is known as Mandal case.
Statement 2: The Second Commission for the Backward Classes was established in 1979.
Statement 3: In 1990, the V.P. Singh government adopted the Mandal Commission report by an
order
A) All correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 3 correct
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
íu® 1: ÖÍ]«V ÄïVM Vs ÖÍ]B RMB[ kwÂz \õ¦_ z¿ kwÂz ¨ª¡D ¶çwÂï©Ã|D.
íu® 2: 1979gD gõ| Ö«õ¦VD ¸[>ºþB kz©¸uïVª gçðBD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 3: 1990gD gõ| s.¸.Eº ¶«ÄVºïD Îò gçðl[ JéD \õ¦_ gçðB ¶¤ÂçïçB
5
°u®ÂØïVõ¦m.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) íu® 1, 2 Äö
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C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1, 3 Äö
111. Statement 1: In 1913, the Executive Committee member of the Governor, Alexander Gordon
Cardew filed a census report.
Statement 2: It was said that the Brahmins, who constitute only 6% of the population, took great
ps
advantage of the opportunities.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct 2 Incorrect
C) 1, 2 Incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
Tn
íu® 1: 1913gD gõ| gÓåö[ ØÄBuz¿ c®©¸ªì ]ò. Äì ¶ØéÂÄVõ¦ì ¼ÛVì¦ì ïVì½Ë
\Âï^Ø>Vçï A^ásk« ¶¤Âçï Î[çÅ >VÂï_ ØÄF>Vì.
íu® 2: Ö]_ \Âï^ Ø>Vçïl_ 6% \â|D ¶ºïD kþÂzD ¸«V\ðìï^ kVF©Aïçá ØÃömD
¨|Ým ØïVõ¦ªì ¨ª íÅ©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
e/
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö
112. Panagal Raja became the Chief Minister of Madras after the death of?
A) Munusamy Naidu B) Thiagarayar C) A. Subburayalu D) Rangaiya Naidu
.m
ØÃVòÝmï.
x>_kìï^ Ã>sÂïVéD
a.ÃÂ>kßÄéD Š 1. 1988
b.ÛVªþ «V\ÄÍ]«[ Š 2. 2001 - 2002
c.Ã[Ìì ØÄ_kD Š 3. 1963 - 1967
d.z\V«ÄVt «VÛV Š 4. 1949 - 1952
a b c d
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 1 2 3 4
5
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 2 1 4
c8
116. Achievements of Dravidian Party under the leadership of C.N. Annadurai is correct?
1.Rice provided at subsidized rates for poor people
2.First World Tamil Conference was held
3. Nationalized bus routes over a distance of 75 miles.
ps
4. He changed the name of Madras state to Tamil Nadu in 1968
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 4 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) Only 1 correct
E.¨[. ¶õðVmç«l[ >çéç\l_ ]«Vs¦ ïâEl[ ÄV>çªï¹_ ÄöBVªçk?
1.°çw \ÂïÓÂz \VMB sçél_ ¶öE
2.x>_ céï >tµ \VåV| å¦Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 4 Äö
Tn
3.75 ç\_ Ø>Vçésuz ¼\_ c^á ¼ÃòÍm >¦ºïçá ¼>EB\B\VÂþBm.
4.Ø\â«Vü \VWéÝ][ ØÃBç« >tµåV| ¨ª 1968_ \Vu¤Bm.
C) 1, 3 Äö D) 1 \â|D Äö
e/
117. Choose the incorrect option.
A) In 1909, the Madras Non-Brahmin Association was formed to help non-Brahmin students
B) Madras Non-Brahmin Association was later renamed as Madras Dravidar Sangam.
.m
ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
C) À]ÂïâE¼B åVâ½_ ¸«V\ðì ¶_éV>kìï¹[ JéV>V«\VF ¶ç\Í>m
D) 1916 ½ÄDÃö_ s¼¦VöBV ØÃVm ¶«ºþ_ åç¦ØÃuÅ íâ¦Ý]_ ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì ¶¤Âçï
tp
Øk¹l¦©Ãâ¦m
118. Which organization was established in 1916?
A) South Indian Liberal Federation
ht
5
C) 1, 4, 5 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2, 5 \â|D Äö
120. In tamilnadu, Value added Tax was introduced during the period of ?
c8
A) 2007, DMK B) 2011, DMK C) 1992, ADMK D) 1996, DMK
>tµåVâ½_ \]©AÂíâ| kö BVòç¦B gâEÂïVéÝ]_ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) 2007, ].x.ï B) 2011, ].x.ï C) 1992, ¶.].x.ï D) 1996, ].x.ï
121. Gandhi Wardha Scheme of Education in School was introduced during the Period of?
ps
A) Kamarajar B) Karunanithi C) Rajaji D) MGR
BVòç¦B gâEÂïVéÝ]_ ïVÍ]l[ kì>V ï_s ]â¦D ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) ïV\«VÛì B) ïòðVW] C) «VÛV÷ D) ¨D.÷.gì
Tn
122. Statement 1 : Pathupattu is the ninth group in Sangam literature.
Statement 2: The literature that emerged after the Sangam period is Pathinenkeel kanakku noolgal.
Statement 3: The book 'Yapparungalakarigai' is a grammatical book.
A) 2, 3 correct only B) 1, 3 only correct C) 1, 2 only correct D) All correct
íu® 1: ĺï ÖéÂþBÝ]_ Î[Ã>Vkm z¿kVï ÃÝm©ÃVâ| sáºzþÅm.
e/
íu® 2: ĺï ïVéÝ]uz ¸[ còkVª ÖéÂþBºï^ Ã]ت[ÿµÂïðÂz ±_ï^ gzD.
íu® 3: 'BV©ÃòºïéÂïVöçï'' ¨[ÐD ±_ ÖéÂïð kçïçB ÄVìÍ> ±_ gzD.
A) íu® 2, 3 \â|D Äö B) íu® 1, 3 \â|D Äö
.m
124. Which was the first magazine published with a political cartoon in Tamilnadu?
A) Swadesamithiran B) India C) Vijaya D) Balabharatham
¶«EB_ ¼ïoß EÝ]«Ým¦[ Øk¹l¦©Ã⦠>tµåVâ½[ x>_ Ö>µ ¨m?
ht
5
A) Vivekanandar B) Bharathiar C) Singaravelar D) Periyar
''¼>EB kV>D'' ¨[Ãm \ÂïÓÂz Îò \BÂïÝç>¥D cð졯ìk\Vª Øk¤çB¥D z¤ÂzD
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ØÄV_éVþ sâ¦m ¨ª í¤Bkì?
A) s¼kïVªÍ>ì B) ÃV«]BVì C) EºïV«¼kéì D) ØÃöBVì
129. Who created the food house called "Nizhal thangal "?
A) Ramalinga adigal B) Ayodhidasa Pandithar
ps
C) Vaikunda Swamigal D) Periyar
''Ww_ >Vºï_'' ¨[Å cð¡ í¦Ýç> °uÃ|Ý]Bkì?
A) Ö«V\oºï ¶½ï^ B) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄ© Ãõ½>ì
C) çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^
A) 675 km
ïVsö gu¤[ Ø\VÝ> ÀáD ¨Ëká¡?
D) ØÃöBVì
130. The total length of the Cauvery River is
B) 598 km
Tn C) 765 km D) 342 km
A) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k® B) 2, 3 Äö 1 >k®
C) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k®
132. Tamil Nadu Women's Commission established in Tamil Nadu in the year
tp
133. Assertion A : Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Memorial Marriage Assistance Scheme was
launched in June 1989.
Reason R : This scheme was created to improve the educational status of poor women.
A) A correct, R incorrect
B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R correct
D) A & R incorrect
íu®: JkÙì «V\Vtì>D ¶Dç\BVì W窡 ]ò\ð c>sÝ ]â¦D É[ 1989gD gõ|
Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD: ÖÝ]â¦D °çw ØÃõï¹[ ï_s WçéçB cBìÝmD ØÃVòâ| còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
134. Which scheme to establish libraries in orphanages where more than 1000 orphan children live ?
A) Satya Ammaiyar Memorial scheme B) Satya Vani Muthu Ammaiyar Memorial scheme
C) Anandam scheme D) Annapurna scheme
1000ÂzD ¼\uÃ⦠¶ªVç> zwÍç>ï^ kEÂzD ¶ªVç> Ö_éºï¹_ ±éïºïçá °uÃ|ÝmD
5
]â¦D?
A) ÄÝBV ¶Dç\BVì W窡 ]â¦D
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B) ÄÝ]B kVè xÝm ¶Dç\BVì W窡 ]â¦D
C) gªÍ>D ]â¦D D) ¶[ª¯ìðV ]â¦D
135. The first Uzhavar Sandhai established ______ in Tamil Nadu and in the Year ___
A) Salem, 1999 B) Madurai, 1999 C) Chennai, 1999 D) Coimbatore, 1999
ps
>twïÝ]_ x>_ cwkì ÄÍç> ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠֦D? gõ|?
A) ¼ÄéD, 1999 B) \mç«, 1999 C) ØÄ[çª, 1999 D) ¼ïVçk, 1999
136. Which scheme was launched in August 2006?
A) Vazhndhu Kattuvom Project
B) Anaithu Grama Anna Marumalarchi Thittam Tn
C) Chief Minister's Solar Powered Green House Scheme
D) Thai project
ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ]â¦D gïüâ 2006gD gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m?
e/
A) kVµÍm ïVâ|¼kVD ]â¦D
B) ¶çªÝm þ«V\ ¶õðV \®\éìßE ]â¦D
C) x>éç\ßÄö[ óöB guÅ_ ÷ç\ T|ï^ ]â¦D
.m
D) >VF ]â¦D
137. Amma seeds scheme launched in the year
A) January 26, 2014 B) January 1, 2012 C) January 2, 2016 D) June 26, 2014
''¶D\V sç>ï^ ]â¦D'' Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
//t
139. Which poem of Bharathiar was distributed freely to the people at the Chennai meeting held in 1908?
A) Vande Mataram B) Jayabharatam C) Enthaiyum thayum D) All
ÃV«]BVö[ ¨Í> ïsç> 1908gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ØÄ[çª íâ¦Ý]_ \ÂïÓÂz ÖékÄ\Vï
sW¼BVþÂï©Ãâ¦m?
ht
141. Statement 1: The Tamil Nadu Reservation System is included in the 9th Schedule through the 76th
Amendment.
Statement 2: Tamil Nadu Reservation System was approved by the President on 19.07.1992.
A) Only 1 correct B) Only 2 correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: >tµåV| Ö¦ÎmÂÿâ| xçÅ 76km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý][ JéD 9km ¶â¦kçðl_
c^ám.
íu® 2: >tµåV| Ö¦ÎmÂÿâ| xçÅ 19.07.1992 ¶[® ¶[çÅB z½B«· >çék«V_ ΩA>_
¶¹Âï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
5
142. Match. a b c d
a. SIPCOT - 1. 1949 A) 3 4 1 2
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b.TIIC - 2. 1965 B) 2 1 3 4
c.TIDCO - 3. 1971 C) 3 2 1 4
d. TANSIDCO - 4. 1970 D) 3 1 2 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
ps
a.SIPCOT Š 1. 1949 A) 3 4 1 2
b.TIIC Š 2. 1965 B) 2 1 3 4
c.TIDCO Š 3. 1971 C) 3 2 1 4
d.TANSIDCO Š 4. 1970
Tn
143. Nanguneri Special Economic Zone is known for
A) Information Technology Park
C) Medical Research Organization
D) 3 1 2 4
B) Multipurpose Manufacturing
D) Poison Control Centre
åVºz¼åö EÅ©A ØÃVòáV>V« \õ¦éD ¨>uz ØÃBì ØÃuÅm?
e/
A) >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ¯ºïV B) Ã_ ¼åVÂz cuÃÝ]
C) \òÝmk g«VFßE ¶ç\©A D) s−Âïâ|©ÃVâ| ç\BD
144. Which district is famous for silk and handloom sarees?
.m
5
A) 1 only correct B) 3 only correct
C) 1 and 3 only correct D) All the above are correct
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ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï. (2011[ ý)
1.>tµåVâ½_ zçÅkVª ¨¿Ý>¤¡ sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D >ò\Aö gzD.
2.>tµåVâ½_ zçÅkVª ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D >ò\Aö gzD.
3.>tµåVâ½_ ¶]ï zwÍç> ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D Àéþö gzD.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 3 \â|D Äö C) 1 \u®D 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
150. What is the average life expectancy of the people of Tamilnadu? (according to 2011)
A) 69.6 years B) 67.9 years C) 72.7 years D) 70.6 years
>twï \Âï¹[ Ä«VÄö g¥âïVéD ¨[ª? (2011[ ý)
A) 69.6 gõ|ï^ B) 67.9 gõ|ï^ Tn
C) 72.7 gõ|ï^
151. Which organisation has been publishing Human development Index Report?
A) United Nation Organisation
D) 70.6 gõ|ï^
India’s average.
A) 1,2 are correct B) 1 wrong 2,3 are correct
C) 1 correct 2,3 are wrong D)All are correct.
1. >tµåVâ½[ >MåÃì kò\VªD 2200 ¦Véì gzD.
s:
3. >tµåVâ½[ >éV kò\VªD 2018_ c^á A^¹ sëºï¹[ ý ÖÍ]B Ä«VÄö ¶áçk s¦
1.75 \¦ºz ¶]ï\Vï c^ám.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 >k®, 2, 3 Äö C) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
153. During whose period, State planning commission was established in Tamilnadu?
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A) DMK
B) ADMK
C) Justice Party
D) Congress Party
>tµåVâ½_ BVòç¦B gâEÂïVéÝ]_ \VWé ]â¦Âz¿ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) ].x.ï B) ¶.Ö.¶.].x.ï
C) À]ÂïâE D) ïVºþ«ü ïâE
154. Who is called as forerunner of communal reservation and he was in whose ministry?
A) P. Theagarayar Chettiyar, Subbarayalu Reddiar
B) Munusamy, Subbarayalu Reddiar
C) Muthaiyah, Subbarayan
D) C. Natesanar, Subbarayan
kz©AkVö Ö¦ ÎmÂÿâ½[ x[¼ªV½ ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ãâ¦kì? ¶kì BVòç¦B ¶ç\ßÄì
¶çkl_ ¶ç\ßÄ«Vï ÖòÍ>kì?
A) ¸. ]BVï«VB ØÄâ½BVì, ·©Ã«VBK Ø«â½BVì
B) xÐÄVt, ·©Ã«VBK Ø«â½BVì
5
C) xÝç>BV, ·©Ã«VB[
D) E.弦ĪVì, ·©Ã«VB[
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155. Which commission recommended to divide the 50% of BC reservation to provide 20% of it to most
Back ward class reservation?
A) Sattanathan Commission B) Kaka Kalelkar
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C) J.K. Koyalo D) Amba shankar
"">tµåVâ½_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦VòÂz kwºï©Ã⦠50% Ö¦ ÎmÂÿâç¦ ¸öÝm 20%
Ö¦ÎmÂÿâç¦ tï¡D ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦VòÂz kwºï ¼kõ|D'' ¨ª í¤B gçðBD ¨m?
A) Äâ¦åV>[ gçðBD
B) ïVïV ï¼é_ïì gçðBD
C) J.K. ØïVF¼éV gçðBD
D) ¶DÃV ĺïì gçðBD
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156. When did president of India gave assent for Tamilnadu reservation bill of 69%
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A) 30.12.1993 B) 16.11.1992 C) 19.07.1994 D) 18.09.1996
>tµåVâ½_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã⦠69% Ö¦ÎmÂÿâ½uz ÖÍ]B z½B«· >çékì ΩA>_ ¶¹Ý> åV^?
A) 30.12.1993 B) 16.11.1992 C) 19.07.1994 D) 18.09.1991
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159. Who Said “British Government Viewing the Indian people through the Brahmanical Mirror?
A) Cornish B) C.Nadesanar
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160. Who Propagated Communal Representation for non brahmins in London legislative assembly?
A) T.M.Nair B) Theagarayar
C) Natesanar D) Singaravelar
Öéõ¦[ ØÄ[® Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]_ ¸«V\ðì ¶_éV¼>VòÂz ¼>ì>o_ kz©AkVö
¸«]W]ÝmkD kwºï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D ¨ª ¸«ßÄV«D ØÄF>kì?
A) ½.¨D.åVBì B) ]BVï«VBì C) 弦ĪVì D) EºïV«¼kéì
161. Ranjith Bought a washing machine for rupees 16150 and paid 1350 for its transportation then he
sold rupees 19250. Find his gain or loss percentage
A) 10% loss B) 15% Profit C) 15% loss D) 10% profit
Ö«ÞEÝ Îò mè mçkÂzD ÖBÍ]«Ýç> Ô.16150Âz kVºþªVì. ¼\KD, ¶>[ ¼ÃVÂzk«Ýmß
ØÄé¡ÂïVï Ô.1350n ØÄKÝ]ªVì. ¸Åz, ¶>çª ¶kì Ô.19250Âz suÅVì ¨M_ ¶kö[ ÖéVÃD
¶_ém åâ¦ß Ä>T>Ýç> ïVõï.
A) 10% åâ¦D B) 15% ÖéVÃD C) 15% åâ¦D D) 10% ÖéVÃD
162. By selling a bicycle for rs,4275,a shopkeeper loses 5%.for how much should he sell it to have a
profit of 5%
5
A) Rs.4625 B) Rs.4725 C) Rs.4825 D) Rs.4925
t]kõ½ Î[çÅ Îò ïç¦ÂïV«ì Ô.4275Âz suÃ>V_ ¶kòÂz 5% åâ¦D °uÃ|þÅm. 5% ÖéVÃD
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ØÃÅ ¼kõ|Ø\M_ ¶kì t]kõ½çB ¨[ª sçéÂz suï ¼kõ|D?
A) Ô.4625 B) Ô.4725 C) Ô.4825 D) Ô.4925
163. If a the profit earned on selling an article for Rs.810 is the same as loss on selling it for Rs.530, then
find the cost price of the article.
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A) Rs.680 B) Rs.630 C) Rs.670 D) Rs.650
Îò ØÃVòçá Ô.810Âz suÅ>V_ þç¦Ý> ÖéVÃxD ¶¼> ØÃVòçá Ô.530Âz suÅ>V_ °uÃâ¦
åâ¦xD Ä\D ¨M_ ¶Í>© ØÃVò¹[ ¶¦ÂïsçéçB ïVõï.
A) Ô.680 B) Ô.630 C) Ô.670
TnD) Ô.650
164. Some articles are bought at 2 for Rs.15 and sold at 3 for Rs.25. Find the gain percentage.
A) 10 % B) 11 % C) 12 %
2 ØÃVòâï^ Ô.15 T>D ¨ª Eé ØÃVò^ï^ kVºï©Ãâ| ¶çk 3 ØÃVò^ï^ Ô.25 T>D ¨ª
D) 17 %
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suï©Ãâ¦V_ ÖéVÃD Ä>T>Ýç> ïVõï.
A) 10 % B) 11 % C) 12 % D) 17 %
165. The time taken for Rs.4400 to become Rs.4851 at 10%, compounded half yearly is _________
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C) 15% D) 10%
P Ö[ kò\VªD Qn ïVâ½KD 25% ¶]ïD ¨M_ Q Ö[ kò\VªD Pn ïVâ½KD ¨Ý>çªß
Ä>T>D zçÅ¡?
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168. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 50% and the denominator is decreased by 20%, then it
becomes Find the original fraction.
A) B) C) D)
Îò ¸[ªÝ][ Ø>Vz]çB 50% ¶]ïöÝmD Ãz]çB 20% zçÅÝ>V_, ¶Í> ¸[ª\Vªm gï
\V®þÅm ¨M_ ¶Ä_ ¸[ªÝç> ïVõï.
A) B) C) D)
169. Gopi sold a laptop at 12% gain. If it had been sold for Rs.1200 more, the gain would have been
5
20%. Find the cost price of the laptop.
A) Rs.10000 B) Rs.25000 C) Rs.20000 D) Rs.15000
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¼ïV¸ Îò \½ÂïèMçB 12% ÖéVÃÝ]uz suÅVì. ¼\KD, ¶ç> Ô.1200Âz í|>éVï su¤òÍ>V_
ÖéVÃD 20% gï ÖòÍ]òÂzD. \½ÂïèMl[ ¶¦Âï sçéçB ïVõï.
A) Rs.10000 B) Rs.25000 C) Rs.20000 D) Rs.15000
170. Ramu scored 20 out of 25 marks in English, 30 out of 40 marks in Science and 68 out of 80 marks
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in mathematics. In which subject his percentage of marks is best?
A) Maths, 85% B) Science, 85% C) Maths, 95% D) Science, 95%
«Vx ¨[Ãkì gºþé© ÃV¦Ý]_ 25Âz 20 \]©ØÃõïÓD, ¶¤sB_ ÃV¦Ý]_ 40Âz 30
A) ïè>D, 85%
C) ïè>D, 95%
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\]©ØÃõïÓD, ïè>© ÃV¦Ý]_ 80Âz 68 \]©ØÃõïÓD ØÃuÅVì ¨M_ ¶kì ¨Í>© ÃV¦Ý]_
EÅÍ> Ä>T>D ØÃu®^áVì?
B) ¶¤sB_, 85%
D) ¶¤sB_, 95%
171. Roja earned Rs.18,000 per month. She utilized her salary in the ratio 2:1:3 for education, savings
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and other expenses respectively. Express her usage of income in percentage.
A) Education – 33.33%, Savigs – 16.66%, Other expenses – 50%
B) Education – 35.33%, Savigs – 20.66%, Other expenses – 75%
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Ä>T>\Vï í®ï.
A) ï_s – 33.33%, ¼Ät©A – 16.66%, ¸Å ØÄésªºï^– 50%
B) ï_s – 35.33%, ¼Ät©A – 20.66%, ¸Å ØÄésªºï^– 75%
s:
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A) 2, 1 B) -1, 2 C) 1, 1 D) 2, -1
32 \u®D 60 gþBku¤[ *©ØÃò ØÃVm kzÝ] d ¨[ï. d = 32x+60y ¨M_ x \u®D y
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¨[Å x¿Âïçá ïVõï.
A) 2, 1 B) -1, 2 C) 1, 1 D) 2, -1
177. Find the greatest number consisting of 6 digits which is exactly divisible by 24, 15, 36?
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A) 998720 B) 989730 C) 988710 D) 999720
24, 15, 36 gþB ¨õïáV_ *]l[¤ kzÃ|D tï©ØÃöB g¤éÂï ¨õçð ïVõï.
A) 998720 B) 989730 C) 988710 D) 999720
178. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Six years hence the age of father will be four times his
A) 7, 42 B) 10, 60 Tn
son’s age. Find the present ages (in years) of the son and father.
C) 9, 54
>Íç>l[ kB>Vªm \ïM[ kBç>© ¼ÃVé g®\¦ºz gzD. g® kò¦ºïÓÂz© ¸Åz
>Íç>l[ kB>Vªm \ïM[ kBç>©¼ÃV_ åV[z \¦ºz ¶]ïD. >Íç> \u®D \ïM[
D) 8, 48
grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now ?
A) 24, 51, 84 B) 84, 51, 24 C) 51, 24, 81 D) 22, 54, 84
>VÝ>V, >Íç> \u®D kVè gþB Jkö[ Ä«VÄö kBm 53. >VÝ>Vs[ kB]_ ÃV], >Íç>l[
kB]_ J[¤_ Îò úz \u®D kVèl[ kB]_ åV[þ_ Îò úz gþBku¤[ í|>_ 65.
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åV[z gõ|ïÓÂz x[ >VÝ>Vs[ kBm kVèl[ kBç>©¼ÃV_ åV[z \¦ºz ¨M_ Jkö[
>u¼ÃVç>B kBç> ïVõï?
A) 24, 51, 84 B) 84, 51, 24 C) 51, 24, 81 D) 22, 54, 84
s:
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2
182. The product of Kumaran’s age (in years) two years ago and his age four years from now is one
more than twice his present age. What is his present age?
A) 2 years B) 3 years C) 5 years D) 6 years
z\«M[ >u¼ÃVç>B kB][ Öò\¦º¼ïV| Î[çÅ í⽪V_ þ禩Ãm, z\«M[
Ö«õ¦Võ|ïÓÂz xÍç>B kBç>¥D ¶kö[ 4 gõ|ïÓÂz© ¸Íç>B kBç>¥D ØÃòÂïÂ
þ禩Ã>uzß Ä\D ¨M_, ¶kö[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBç> ïVõï.
A) 2 gõ|ï^ B) 3 gõ|ï^ C) 5 gõ|ï^ D) 6 gõ|ï^
183. A girl is twice as old as her sister. Five years hence, the product of their ages (in years) will be 375.
Find their present ages.
5
A) 5, 10 B) 20, 10 C) 15, 30 D) 20, 40
Îò ØÃõè[ kBm ¶k«m ļïV>öl[ kBç>© ¼ÃVé Öò\¦ºz gzD. nÍm gõ|ïÓÂz©
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¸[ Öò kBmï¹[ ØÃòÂïuÃé[ 375 ¨M_, ļïV>öï¹[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBç> ïVõï.
A) 5, 10 B) 20, 10 C) 15, 30 D) 20, 40
184. W hich of the following should be added to make x4 +64 a perfect square
A) 4x2 B) 16x2 C ) 8 x2 D) -8x2
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x4 +64 x¿ kìÂï\Vï \VuÅ ¶>Ц[ ¸[kòkªku®^ ¨ç> í⦠¼kõ|D?
A) 4x2 B) 16x2 C ) 8 x2 D) -8x2
185. The monthly income of A and B are in the ratio 3:4 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio
A) 40 B) 35 C) 45 D) 42
Ö«V\M[ kBm ¶kòç¦B Öò \ï[ïÓç¦B kBmï¹[ í|>çé© ¼ÃV_ J[® \¦ºïVzD.
nÍ>Võ|ï^ ïaÝm ¶kö[ kBm >ªm \ï[ïÓç¦B kBmï¹[ í|>ç驼ÃV_ Öò \¦ºïVzD
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A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
√80 = #√5, ¨M_ k =?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
189. Which one of the following is an irrational number
A) √25 B) % C) D) &
¸[kòkªku®^ ¨m sþ>xÅV ¨õ?
A) √25 B) % C) D) &
A) , B) , C) , D) ,
5
A) 17 B) 18 C) 15 D) 20
+ = √5 + 2¨M_, + + Ö[ \]©A ïVõï.
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A) 17 B) 18 C) 15 D) 20
192. Simplify the following: √63 − √175 + √28
A) 0 B) 2 C) 10 D) 4
·òÂzï. √63 − √175 + √28
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A) 0 B) 2 C) 10 D) 4
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193. Convert the following decimal numbers in the form of 0, where p and q are integers and : 0.35
A)
ÿµÂïVbD >Ä\ ¨õïçá
A)
B)
1
2
B)
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C)
¨[Å k½s_ \Vu®ï. 0.35
C)
D)
D)
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194. In an examination 50% of the students passed in Mathematics and 70% of students passed in
Science while 10% students failed in both subjects. 300 students passed in both the subjects. Find
the total number of students who appeared in the examination, if they took examination in only two
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subjects.
A) 500 B) 250 C) 750 D) 1000
Îò ¼>ìs_ ïè>Ý]_ 50% \Vðkìï^ ¼>ìßE ØÃuŪì \u®D 70% \Vðkìï^ ¶¤sBo_
¼>ìßE ØÃuŪì. ¼\KD 10% Ö«õ½KD ¼>ìßE ØÃÅV¼>Vì, 300 \Vðkìï^ Öò ÃV¦ºï¹KD
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A) 28 B) 25 C) 29 D) 30
2 2 2
(x+y+z) = 9 \u®D (xy+yz+zx) = 26 ¨M_ x +y +z Ö[ \]©çàïVõï.
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A) 28 B) 25 C) 29 D) 30
3 3
196. Find 27a +64b , if 3a+4b = 10 and ab = 2
A) 277 B) 280 C) 275 D) 279
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3 3
3a+4b = 10 \u®D ab = 2 ¨M_ 27a +64b Ö[ \]©A ïVõï.
A) 277 B) 280
C) 275 D) 279
3 3
197. Find x – y , if x – y = 5 and xy = 14
A) 335 B) 330 C) 325 D) 320
3 3
x – y = 5 \u®D xy = 14 ¨M_ x – y Ö[ \]©A ïVõï.
A) 335 B) 330 C) 325 D) 320
5
A) ±5, ±120 B) ±5, ±125 C) ±5, ±110 D) ±4, ±120
200. If 67 − 8 = 27 then find the value of 7 −
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4
A) 35 B) 30 C)38 D) 36
67 − 8 = 27 ¨M_ 7 − 4 Ö[ \]©A ïVõï.
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A) 35 B) 30 C)38 D) 36
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¶|Ý>Ý ¼>ì¡ (ÖB_ Š 8) ÂïVª ÃV¦Ý]â¦D
(GR – II TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH) – 13.08.2021 / Friday
1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| :
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• Tamil Literature from Sangam age till contemporary times.
(6th & 7th standard - Tamil Seiyul & Thirukkural)
• ĺï ïVéD x>_ ÖÂïVéD kç«léVª >tµ ÖéÂþB k«éV®
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Where to Study
ÖB_ Š 8:
13.08.2021 (Øk^¹):
köçÄ ÃV¦D kz©A
¨õ
1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV|
ĺï ïVéD x>_ ÖÂïVéD kç«léVª >tµ ÖéÂþB k«éV®
(ĺï
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(6 (\) 77ŠgD kz©A ØÄF¥^ & ]òÂzÅ^)
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2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD
ÄJï À]¥D ÄJï å_oðÂïxD ÄJï© ØÃVòáV>V« ¼\DÃVâ½[ JéV>V«ºï^)
(ÄJï JéV>V«ºï^
1. ÄJï À] 11D kz©A ¶«EBéç\©A
(Ø>Vz] Š 2)
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2. Ã[xï>[ç\lçª ¶¤¼kVD 6D kz©A ÄJï ¶¤sB_
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3. Ä\ÝmkD 7gD kz©A ÄJï ¶¤sB_
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4.
5. Tn
Unit – 9 Government Material PDF
z¤©A : ¼\uzöB ¶çªÝm >ïk_ïÓD Î[ÅVï ]«â½ gïVi AÝ>ïD (>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D
ÃõÃV| \u®D >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD) AÝ>ïÝ]_ Ø>VzÂï©Ãâ|^ám. Ö©AÝ>ïD
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\Vðkìï^ åéM_ ÎòkaïVâ½BVï ÖòÂzD. (gïVi AÝ>ï >çé©Aï^) ¸[kò\V®.
1. ÄJï À] ÃV¦D Š 3 UNIT - 9
3. ïè>D
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1. ¶áT|ï^ Š ë©A
(Ã^¹©AÝ>ïD \u®D ÃV¦Ý]â¦D)
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s:
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61 B 62 C 63 B 64 C 65 B 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 D 70 A
71 C 72 A 73 D 74 D 75 C 76 B 77 C 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 B 82 C 83 D 84 C 85 D 86 C 87 B 88 A 89 C 90 D
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91 D 92 D 93 B 94 C 95 C 96 A 97 C 98 B 99 D 100 A
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 D 105 A 106 C 107 B 108 B 109 A 110 A
111 B 112 C 113 A 114 C 115 A 116 C 117 B 118 D 119 C 120 A
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121 C 122 D 123 C 124 B 125 D 126 B 127 D 128 D 129 C 130 C
131 D 132 C 133 C 134 C 135 B 136 A 137 C 138 B 139 D 140 C
141 A 142 D 143 B 144 B 145 B 146 B 147 C 148 B 149 D 150 D
151 C 152 D 153 A 154 C 155 D 156 C 157 B 158 D 159 A 160 A
161
171
181
191
D
A
D
B
162
172
182
192
B
A
B
A
163
173
183
193
C
B
B
A
164
174
184
194
B
D
B
D
165
175
185
195
Tn
B
A
A
C
166
176
186
196
A
D
B
B
167
177
187
197
C
D
C
A
168
178
188
198
A
C
B
A
169
179
189
199
D
A
D
C
170
180
190
200
A
C
A
D
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GR–II TAF MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – IYAL - 7 ANS KEY – 09.08.2021
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1 B 2 B 3 B 4 B 5 C 6 C 7 A 8 B 9 D 10 A
11 B 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 C
21 B 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 B 27 D 28 B 29 D 30 C
31 B 32 C 33 A 34 B 35 C 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 B
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41 A 42 D 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 A 47 A 48 A 49 C 50 B
51 D 52 D 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 B 57 A 58 A 59 B 60 C
61 B 62 C 63 B 64 C 65 B 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 D 70 A
s:
71 C 72 A 73 D 74 D 75 C 76 B 77 C 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 B 82 C 83 D 84 C 85 D 86 C 87 B 88 A 89 C 90 D
91 D 92 D 93 B 94 C 95 C 96 A 97 C 98 B 99 D 100 A
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101 C 102 B 103 B 104 D 105 A 106 C 107 B 108 B 109 A 110 A
111 B 112 C 113 A 114 C 115 A 116 C 117 B 118 D 119 C 120 A
121 C 122 D 123 C 124 B 125 D 126 B 127 D 128 D 129 C 130 C
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131 D 132 C 133 C 134 C 135 B 136 A 137 C 138 B 139 D 140 C
141 A 142 D 143 B 144 B 145 B 146 B 147 C 148 B 149 D 150 D
151 C 152 D 153 A 154 C 155 D 156 C 157 B 158 D 159 A 160 A
161 D 162 B 163 C 164 B 165 B 166 A 167 C 168 A 169 D 170 A
171 A 172 A 173 B 174 D 175 A 176 D 177 D 178 C 179 A 180 C
181 D 182 B 183 B 184 B 185 A 186 B 187 C 188 B 189 D 190 A
191 B 192 A 193 A 194 D 195 C 196 B 197 A 198 A 199 C 200 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 411 þçáï^...
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
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TNPSC GROUP – II
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(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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5
TAF
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 4) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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UNIT 8, UNIT 9, MATHS
5. Which articles has Provision of certain special laws and privileges to socially and economically
backward classes ?
A) Article 15 and 16 B) Article 11 and 12 C) Article 13 and 14 D) Article 9 and 10
ÄJï Z]lKD ØÃVòáV>V« Z]lKD ¸[ >ºþBkìïÓÂzß Eé EÅ©Aß Ä⦺ï^ \u®D ÄKçïï^
kwºzD Ä⦩¸ö¡?
A) ¸ö¡ 15 \u®D 16 B) ¸ö¡ 11 \u®D 12
C) ¸ö¡ 13 \u®D 14 D) ¸ö¡ 9 \u®D 10
6. Find the incorrect Statements about Bindheshwari Prasad Mandal Commission?
1. Mandal Commission was set up in the year - 1980.
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2. Second Commission for the Backward Classes.
3. Secretary of the Commission - VP Singh
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4. Date of Acceptance of the recommendation of the Commission - 13.08.1990.
5. The reservation given to the backward class by this commission - 27%
A) 2, 4 B) 1, 3 C) 4, 5 D) All correct
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¸Í¼>ükö ¸«ÄVÝ \õ¦_ ït−[ Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm?
1. \õ¦_ ït−[ ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ| Š 1980.
2. ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªòÂïVª Ö«õ¦Vkm gçðBD.
3. ÖËkVçðBÝ][ ØÄBéVáì Š s.¸.Eº
B) 1, 3 C) 4, 5
Tn
4. ÖËkVçðBÝ][ ÃöÍmç«çB °u®ÂØïVõ¦ åV^ Š 13.08.1990.
5. ÖËkVçðÝ>V_ ¸u©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªòÂz kwºï©Ã⦠֦ ÎmÂÿ| Š 27%
A) 2, 4 D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
7. Who was assigned as the English officer to examine the Ryotwari system ?
A) Francis Ellis B) Thomas Munro
e/
C) Tremancare D) William Bentinck
«BÝmkVö xçÅ *m gF¡ ØÄF¥\V® ¶[çÅB gºþ¼éB ¶]ïVöBVï ------------- ÃèÂï©Ãâ¦Vì.
A) ¸«V[Eü ¨_oü B) >V\ü \[¼ÅV
.m
A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 4, 5 D) None
>VµÝ>©Ã⼦VòÂïVª x[Ðöç\ï¹_ ÄöBVªm?
1. >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂïVª W] c>sÝ]⦺ï^ ¶¤s©A Š 1885.
tp
5
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
11. Assertion A : Like efforts of the depressed classes and backward classes in Tamil Nadu were
c8
initiated, there was also educational awareness in Maharashtra.
Reason R : Mahatma Jyotirao Phule, Annai Savitribhai Phule and others made great efforts
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
ps
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
íu® : >twïÝ]_ Î|Âï©Ã⼦Vì \u®D ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì x[ت|Ý> xBuEïçá ¼ÃVé¼k
\ïV«Vi½«VsKD ï_s sa©AðìßE °uÃâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : \ïVÝ\V ¼ÛV]«V˯¼é, ¶[çª ÄVsÝöÃVF ¯¼é ¼ÃV[¼ÅVì ØÃòD xBuEïçá
12. Match .
¼\uØïVõ¦Vì.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
Tn
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
a b c d
a. Theory of justice - 1. 1971 A) 4 3 2 1
e/
b. Justice as fairness - 2. 1985 B) 1 2 3 4
c. Political Liberalism - 3. 1993 C) 3 2 1 4
d. The law of People - 4. 1993 D) 1 3 4 2
.m
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. À] ¼ïVâÃV| Š 1. 1971 A) 4 3 2 1
b. ¼åìç\BVª À] Š 2. 1985 B) 1 2 3 4
//t
Reason R : In 1916, Sir P. Thyagarayar & Dr. T. M. Nair startedSouth Indian Liberal Federation
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
tp
íu® : ¦V¦ì E.弦Ä[ ¨¿] Øk¹l⦠¶Í> ¶¤Âçï ''¸«V\ð«_éV>Vì ¶¤Âçï'' ¨[®
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ïV«ðD : 1916-gD gõ| ''Ø>[MÍ]Bì ·>Í]« ĺïD'' ¨[Å ÖBÂïÝç> Äì.¸.]BVï«VBì,
¦V¦ì. ½. ¨D. åVBì Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
ht
15. Who moved a resolution that the order should remain in force for up to 7 years until it reaches 75%
of the population if the job is paid more than one hundred rupees ?
A) Ambedkar B) Munusamy
C) Sir RK Shanmugam D) TM Nair
±® ÔÃVFÂz ¼\_ ÄDÃáD kVºzD cÝ]¼BVï\Vï ÖòÍ>V_ 75% ¶á¡ \Âïçá ¶m ¶ç¦¥D
kç« 7 gõ| kç« ÖËkVçð ¶\o_ ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D ¨ÐD yì\VªÝç> ØïVõ| kÍ>kì.
A) ¶D¼ÃÝïì B) xÐÄVt C) Äì.gì.¼ï.ÄõxïD D) ½.¨D.åVBì
16. The Magazine published by South Indian Liberal Federation is
A) Vivekavartini B) Kudiarasu C) Justice D) Revolt
5
Ø>[MÍ]B ·>Í]« ĺïÝ][ ÄVì¸_ Øk¹kÍ> Ö>µ
A) s¼kïkìÝ]M B) z½B«· C) Ûü½ü D) ö¼kV_â
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17. In which year, Shenbagam Durairajan filed a case in the High Court , since he did not get a place in
the Medical college. ?
A) 1950 B) 1951 C) 1952 D) 1953
\òÍm ï_Ùöl_ >ªÂz Ö¦D þç¦Âïs_çé ¨ªÂí¤ ØÄõÃïD mç««VÛ[ ¨[Ãkì ¨Í>
ps
gõ| cBìÀ]\[ÅÝ]_ Ø>V¦ìÍ>Vì.
A) 1950 B) 1951 C) 1952 D) 1953
18. Who is not a part of Constitutional amendment to makecommunal representation permanent ?
1. Thanthai Periyar
4. VP Singh
A) 1, 2 B) 3, 4
5. T M Nair Tn
2. K. Kamaraj
C) 4, 5
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
6. BR Ambedkar
kz©A kVö ¸«]W]ÝmkD À½ÂzD kçïl_ ¶«Äç\©A Äâ¦Ý]_ ]òÝ>D ØïVõ| kÍ>kìïÓ^
D) None
ØÃVòÍ>V>kì?
e/
1. >Íç> ØÃöBVì 2. z.ïV\«Vë 3. ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò
4. s.¸.Eº 5. ½.¨D.åVBì 6. ¸.gì.¶D¼ÃÝïì
A) 1, 2 B) 3, 4 C) 4, 5 D) ¨kòt_çé
.m
19. Which articles has Provision of certain special laws and privileges to socially and economically
backward classes ?
A) Article 15 and 16 B) Article 11 and 12 C) Article 13 and 14 D) Article 9 and 10
ÄJï Z]lKD ØÃVòáV>V« Z]lKD ¸[ >ºþBkìïÓÂzß Eé EÅ©Aß Ä⦺ï^ \u®D ÄKçïï^
//t
kwºzD Ä⦩¸ö¡?
A) ¸ö¡ 15 \u®D 16 B) ¸ö¡ 11 \u®D 12 C) ¸ö¡ 13 \u®D 14 D) ¸ö¡ 9 \u®D 10
20. Who introduced the First Amendment in Parliament?
s:
22. Assertion A : In 1979, the Second Commission for Backward Classes was constituted by the
Government of India under the chairmanship of B.P. Mandal.
Reason R : The Commission recommended 27 per cent of government posts should be given to
socially and economically weaker Articles of the backward classes.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
íu® : 1979 Š gD gõ| ÖÍ]B ¶«ÄºïVÝ>V_ ¸[>ºþB kz©¸uïVª Ö«õ¦Vkm gçðBD
¸.¸.\õ¦_ >çéç\l_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : ÖÍ> gçðBD ¶«Ä Ã>sï¹_ 27 Ä>T>D ÄJï \u®D ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_ åokç¦Í>
5
¸[>ºþB kz©çà ÄVìÍ> \ÂïÓÂz ¶¹Âï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D ¨[® ÃöÍmç«Ý>m.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö
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B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
ps
23. When was the Royal Commission headed by Alexander Cardew formed?
A) 1911 B) 1916 C) 1913 D) 1914
¶ØéÂÄVõ¦ì ïVì½R >çéç\l_ «VB_ gçðBD ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1911 B) 1916 C) 1913 D) 1914
C) M.G.R.
BVì x>_ ¶ç\ßÄ«Vï ÖòÍ> ¼ÃVm ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì åé[ z¤Ým g«VFÍ]¦ Äâ¦åV>[
D) Kamarajar
A) 42 B) 44 C) 76 D) 81
--------------km ¶«EB_ Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>][ JéD >twï ¶«E[ Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| Äâ¦D ÖÍ]B ¶«EB_
Äâ¦Ý][ IX km ¶â¦kçðl_ ÖçðÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 42 B) 44 C) 76 D) 81
//t
26. Which article empowers the President to set up a Commission for the Backward Classes ?
A) 340 B) 312 C) 360 D) 272
¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì gçðBD ¶ç\Ý]¦ z½B«·Ý>çékòÂz ¶]ïV«D ¶¹ÂzD Ä⦩¸ö¡
s:
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) \õ¦_ z¿ kwÂz B) ïVïV ï¼é_ïì
C) ¸Ý¼>ükö ¸«ÄVÝ \õ¦_ ït−[ D) ÄìÂïVöBV z¿
28. Who wrote the book An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations?
A) Keynes B) Adamsmith C) Rousseau D) Bodin
¼>ĺï¹[ káD Ãu¤B {ì gF¡ ¨[Å ±çé ¨¿]Bkì?
A) ÿ[ü B) g¦DütÝ
C) Ô¼ÄV D) ¼ÃV½[
29. Assertion A : Non-Brahmins were appointed to Government posts during the British period.
Reason R : The Communal Representation Act of 1921 was passed.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
íu® : ¸«V\ð«_é¼>Vì gºþ¼éBì ïVéÝ]_ ¶«Ä Ã>sï¹_ ¶\ìÝ>©Ã⦪ì.
ïV«ðD : 1921 ŠgD gõ| kz©A kVö ¸«]W]Ýmk Äâ¦D ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
30. “If fair representation is not provided for our people, we will not pay taxes” said by
5
A) Dr. C. Nadesan B) Sir P. Thiagarayar C) T M Nair D) M. Singaravelar
¨ºï^ \ÂïÓÂz ¼kçéï¹_ ÄöBVª ¸«]W]ÝmkD >«©Ã¦Vsâ¦V_ åVºï^ kö ØÄKÝ>
c8
\V⼦VD ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) ¦V¦ì. E. 弦Ä[ B) Äì.¸.]BVï«VBì C) ½.¨D.åVBì D) \.EºïV«¼kéì
31. Assertion A : The Congress Conference was held in 1925 at Kanchipuram.
ps
Reason R : Periyar moved a resolution demanding communal representation in government,
educational employment opportunities in the conference.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
ÄJï \u®D ï_sB_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªì ¶_ém Ãâ½B_ ÄV] \u®D Ãwºz½lªö[
x[¼ªuÅÝ]uïVª EÅ©A ]⦺ï^ còkVÂzk>uz ¶«Äç\©Aß Ä⦠s] 29(2) >ç¦BVï
ÖòÂïVm ¨[® í®D Ä⦩¸ö¡
A) ¸ö¡ 15 (4) B) ¸ö¡ 16(4) C) ¸ö¡ 15 (1) D) ¸ö¡ 19 (1)
//t
33. _________does not hinder the provision of reservation in appointments to all backward classes who
are not adequately represented in Government service.
A) Article15 (4) B) Article 16 (4) C) Article 15 (1) D) Article 19 (1)
s:
5
19.09.1994 ¶[® z½B«·Ý>çékì ΩA>_ ¶¹Ý>Vì.
A) 66% B) 67% C) 68% D) 69%
c8
37. Assertion A : In the 1960s, Affirmation action were introduced in the United States of America.
Reason R : The first affirmation order was issued by President John F. Kennedy in 1961.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
ps
íu® : 1960-ï¹_ ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï¹[ \VWéºï¹_ c®]Ã|ÝmD å¦k½Âçïï^
¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : x>_ c®] Ã|ÝmD gçð z½B«· >çékì ÛV[ ¨à© Øï[ª½ ¶kìïáV_ 1961-_
Øk¹l¦©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
Tn
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
38. A study conducted in ______on affirmative action implemented in the United States in five years
founded that black employees in jobs was significantly (0.8%) increased.
e/
A) 2015 B) 2016 C) 2017 D) 2018
¶Ø\öÂïVs_ nÍm gõ|ï¹_ ¶\éVª c®]©Ã|ÝmD å¦k½Âçïï^ *m ---------- _
¼\uØïV^á©Ã⦠gFs_ ïò©¸ªÝ>kì ¼kçékVF©A Øîkm ¶>Vkm Ãèï¹_
.m
41. Assertion A : In 1882, William Hunter and Jyoti Rao Phule were the first to consider the concept of
caste-based reservation.
Reason R : British Prime Minister Ramsay McDonald presented the "Communal Award" in 1930
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A correct R incorrect D) A incorrect R correct
íu® : 1882-_ s_oBD Çõ¦ì \u®D ¼ÛV] «VË A¼é gþ¼BVì ÄV] ¶½©Ãç¦léVª Ö¦
ÎmÂÿ| xçÅl[ ïòÝç> x>o_ ïò]ªì.
ïV«ðD : 1930-_ ¸öâ½i ¸«>\ì «VD¼Ä Ø\ÂئVªV_â ''kz©A kV> sòç>'' kwºþB ¼ÃVm
°uÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
5
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
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42. Who signed the Poona pact with Ambedkar?
A) Gandhi B) Periyar C) TM Nair D) Kamaraj
¶D¼ÃÝïò¦[ ¯ªV ΩÃÍ>Ý]_ çïØB¿Ým Öâ¦kì?
A) ïVÍ] B) ØÃöBVì C) ½.¨D.åVBì D) ïV\«VÛì
ps
43. Initially reservation was given to SCs and STs. Then, OBC were given reservation on the
recommendation of the Mandal Commission in the year _____
A) 1990 B) 1991 C) 1992 D) 1993
B) 1991 C) 1992
Tn
g«DÃÝ]_ Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| ¨ü.E \u®D ¨ü.½.ïÓÂz kwºï©Ãâ¦m. \õ¦é gçðBÝ][
ÃöÍmç«l[ ¼Ãö_ ¨Í> gõ| Ö¦ ÎmÂÿâ½_ OBC Âï^ ¼ÄìÂï©Ã⦪.
A) 1990 D) 1993
44. Recently, the Constitution (103rd Amendment Act, 2019) provided _________% reservation in
e/
government jobs and educational institutions in an unreserved category for economically backward
class
A) 10% B) 5% C) 0% D) 1%
Ä*ÃÝ]_ 2019ŠgD gõ½[ ¶«EBéç\©A (103-km ]òÝ>D) Äâ¦D, ¶«ÄVºï ¼kçéï^ \u®D
.m
(BC).
Statement 2 : Caste List in Depressed Classes created by the Mandal Commission is 2108.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
s:
5
4. ¶«EBéç\©¸[ 85Škm ]òÝ>D Š 2001
A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3
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C) 2, 3, 4 D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
48. Which articles provide specific representation by allocating SC and ST seats in state legislatures in
Parliament
ps
A) Article 330 and Article 338 B) Article 220 and Article 232
C) Article 400 and Article 430 D) None
¨Í> Ä«ÝmÂï^ ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ \VWé Äâ¦\[źï¹KD ¨üE \u®D ¨ü½ Ö¦ºïçá
ÎmÂzk>[ JéD z¤©¸¦© ¸«]W]ÝmkÝç> kwºzþÅm.
A) Ä«Ým 330 \u®D Ä«Ým 338
C) Ä«Ým 400 \u®D Ä«Ým 430 Tn
B) Ä«Ým 220 \u®D Ä«Ým 232
D) ¨m¡t_çé
49. What percentage of Internal reservation given for denotified communities.
A) 10.5% B) 7% C) 10% D) 2%
æì\«¸ªòÂïVª c^ Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| ¨Ý>çª Ä>T>D kwºï©Ãâ|^ám?
e/
A) 10.5% B) 7% C) 10% D) 1%
50. Select the incorrectoption.
A) Reservation of seats in Government Services to SC and ST –Article 15(4) and 16(4)
.m
A) ¨ü.E \u®D ¨ü.½ c®©¸ªìïÓÂz ¶«· ¼Äçkï¹_ Ö¦ºïçá ÎmÂzD ¸ö¡ Š 15(4)
\u®D 16(4)
B) ÎËØkVò ÃÞÄVBÝ]KD ¨ü.E \u®D ¨ü.½ ŠÂz Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| ØÄF¥D ¸ö¡ Š 243 D
s:
51. Which was the first Indian state to implement law providing 10 per cent reservation to
economically backward in the general category ?
A) Uttar Pradesh
ht
B) Bangalore
C) Gujarat
D) Arunachal Pradesh
ØÃVm ¸ös_ ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_ ¸[ >ºþBkìïÓÂz 10 Ä>T>D Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| kwºzD Äâ¦D x>[
x>o_ ¶\KÂz kÍ> ÖÍ]B \VWéD?
A) cÝ]«¸«¼>ÄD B) Øúïjì
C) zÛ«VÝ D) ¶òðVßÄé© ¸«¼>ÄD
52. In December 1978, President appointedthe Backward Classes Commission under the chairmanship
of B P Mandal under article ____ of constitution
A) 340 B) 320 C) 350 D) 330
¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨Ý>çªBVkm ¸ös[ ÿµ kwºï©Ã⦠¶]ïV«ºïçá ÃB[Ã|Ý] ÛªV]Ã]
¸.¸. \õ¦_ >çéç\l_ 1978 ½ÄDÃö_ ¸[ >ºþB kz©¸ªì gçðBÝç> WBtÝ>Vì.
A) 340 B) 320 C) 350 D) 330
53. South Africa became democratic in the year _____
A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1993 D) 1994
Ø>[ g©¸öÂïV ÄJïD \ÂïáVâEÂz \V¤B gõ|?
5
A) 1991 B) 1992 C) 1993 D)1994
54. Assertion A : In 1915, a petition was submitted to the government by Justice Party opposing the
c8
admission of English and Sanskrit alone in higher education and to allow ancient
languages including Tamil.
Reason R : In 1917, 54 organizations from Madras Presidency met the delegation to India and
ps
demanded representation of non-Brahmins and minorities.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
C) A incorrect R correct D) A correct R incorrect
íu® : cBìï_sl_ gºþéD Ä\üþò>D \â|D ¶Ð\]Âï©Ã|kç> ïõ½ÝmD >tµ
¶«·Âz \Ð ¶¹Âï©Ãâ¦m. Tn
c^¹â¦ Ãwç\BVª Ø\Vaïçá¥D ¶Ð\]Âï ¼kõ|D ¨[® À]ÂïâE ÄVì¸_ 1915_
57. In 1979, Social Welfare Department of Tamilnadu Government issued an order (MS No.1156,
02.02.1979) , as per this,annual family income of backward class was fixed as
A) Rs.9000 B) Rs.10000 C) Rs.8000 D) Rs.7000
ht
5
>tµåVâ½_ 2021ŠgD gõ| k[MBìïÓÂz c^ Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| ¨Ý>çª Ä>T>D kwºï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 10.5% B) 7% C) 10% D) 1%
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>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| (UNIT – 8)
ps
61. Which organization fulfilled the objectives of the Madras Native Association?
A) Madras Mahajana Sangam B) Home Rule Movement
C) Madras Swadeshi Sangam D) Indian National Congress
ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ¶ç\©A ØÄ[çªkVEï^ ĺïÝ][ z¤¼ïV^ïçá WçÅ¡ ØÄF>m?
A) ØÄ[çª \ïVÛª ĺïD
C) ØÄ[çª ·¼>E ĺïD
Tn
B) >[ªVâE ÖBÂïD
D) ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü
62. On which day was the inaugural meeting of the Madras Mahajana Sangam held?
A) 1884 April 16 B) 1884 May 16 C) 1884 March 16 D) 1884 January 16
e/
ØÄ[çª \ïVÛª ĺïÝ][ Ø>V¦Âï swV åç¦ØÃuÅ åV^ ¨m?
A) 1884 °©«_ 16 B) 1884 ¼\ 16 C) 1884 \Vìß 16 D) 1884 Ûªkö 16
63. Choose the incorrect answer.
.m
A) The lower middle classes, peasants, artisans and workers could play a very important role in the
national movement - Balagangadhar Tilak
B) The Grand old man of Indian nationalism - Dadabai Naoroji
C) 1947 Indian National Congress conference took place in - Bombay
//t
5
C) 1935 D gõ| Äâ¦D D) ¼\uïõ¦ °mt_çé
67. In which year was the Madras United League formed?
c8
A) 1909 B) 1910 C) 1912 D) 1916
\>«Vü nÂþB ïwïD ¨ÐD ¶ç\©A còkVÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1909 B) 1910 C) 1912 D) 1916
ps
68. Which of the following statements about Bharathiyar is Incorrect?
A) He published a book criticizing the measures taken by the British during the Parsal (Calcutta)
Congress in 1906 AD
B) His enthusiasm towards Tilak, after the Surat Conference of the Congress (1907) increased.
Tn
C) Bharathi translated Tilak's book Tenets of new party into Tamil.
D) He also published a pamphlet in 1910 entitled “The Journey to surat Marked the radical
Nationalists of Chennai province”
ÃV«]BVì Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm ¨m?
e/
A) þ.¸ 1906 _ ÃìÄV_ (ï_ïÝ>V) ïVºþ«ü \VåVâ½[¼ÃVm gºþ¼éBìï^ ¼\uØïVõ¦
å¦k½Âçïïçá s\ìEÝm Îò AÝ>ïÝç> Øk¹lâ¦Vì.
B) ïVºþ«L[ ó«Ý \VåVâ½uz© ¸[ªì (1907) ]éïì *m ¶kì ØïVõ½òÍ> gìkxD Ãu®D
¼\KD ØÃòþBm.
.m
C) ]éïö[ Tenets of new party ¨ÐD ±çé ÃV«] >ta_ Ø\VaBVÂïD ØÄF>Vì.
D) ''1910_ ó«Ý ØÄ[® kÍ> ÃBðD ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ ys« ¼>EBkV]ï^ z¤Ý>m'' ¨ÐD E®
AÝ>ïD Î[çÅ Øk¹lâ¦Vì.
//t
B) (A) and (R) are both correct and (R) is not a correct Explanation of (A)
C) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct D) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
íu® : 1924_ ØÃöBVì ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝç> Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
tp
71. During the reign of Rajaji in Tamil Nadu, by whose attempt was an inquiry committee set up to
look into the status of the tenants which was the Parts of the Zamindars ?
A) P. Thiagarayar B) T. Prakasam C) C. Nadesanar D) None of the above
>twïÝ]_ «VÛV÷l[ gâEl[¼ÃVm BVì ¼\uØïVõ¦ xBuElªV_ Û*[>Vìï¹[ Ãz]ïçá
¼ÄìÍ> zÝ>çï>V«ìï¹[ Wçé z¤Ým sÄV«çð ØÄFB sÄV«çðÂz¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m?
A) P. ]BVï«VBì B) T. ¸«ïVÄD
C) C. 弦ĪVì D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¨kòt_çé
72. Which freedom fighter called as Silambu Selvar?
A) Silambu Selvan B) Ma.Pa.Sivagnanam
5
C) Marshal Nesamani D) Ilangoadigal
EéDAßØÄ_kì ¨[Å ¶çwÂï©Ã⦠·>Í]« ¼ÃV«V⦠T«ì?
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A) EéDA ØÄ_k[ B) \V.ØÃV.EkQVªD
C) \Vì−_ ¼åÄ\è D) ÖẼïVk½ï^
73. Match. a b c d
ps
a) Hindu religious Endowment Act - 1. 1916 A) 4 3 2 1
b) Annamalai University - 2. 1921 B) 4 3 1 2
c) The right of women to vote - 3. 1929 C) 3 4 2 1
d) Non-Brahmin Report - 4. 1926 D) 3 4 1 2
ØÃVòÝmï.
a) ÖÍm Ä\B ¶ÅWçéBÝmçÅ Äâ¦D
b) ¶õðV\çé Ã_ïçéÂïwïD
c) ØÃõïÓÂz kVÂï¹ÂzD cöç\
Š
Š
Š
Tn
1. 1916
2. 1921
3. 1929
A)
B)
C)
4
4
3
a
3
3
4
b
2
1
2
c d
1
2
1
e/
d) ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì ¶¤Âçï Š 4. 1926 D) 3 4 1 2
74. Which Chief Minister introduced the Mid – day Meal Scheme in independent India?
A) N.T. Rama Rao
.m
B) V. S. Achuthananthan
C) M.G. Ramachandran
D) K. Kamaraj
·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs_ \]B cð¡Ý ]â¦Ýç> ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B x>éç\ßÄì BVì?
//t
5
B) Ø>Vâ½_ zwÍç>Ý ]â¦D Š z. ïV\«Vë
C) Ä\ÝmkA«D Š ïV.å. ¶õðVmç«
c8
D) ÄÝmð¡Ý ]â¦D Š \.¼ïV. Ö«V\ßÄÍ]«[
78. Which of the following is/are the correct statements regarding Perarignar Anna with regard to the
early days of Dravidian Movement?
ps
1.He Understood that medium is the message.
2.He understood that affirmative action will lead to progress.
3.He used theatre and cinema as effective instruments of communication.
4.He was a non believer in distributive justice.
A) 1 only B) 2 and 3
Tn C) 4 only
]«Vs¦ ÖBÂïÝ][ Ø>V¦Âï ïVéºïçá© ØÃV®Ý>\â½_ ¼Ã«¤Qì ¶õðV Ãu¤B ÿµÂïVbD
íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m/¨çk?
1.»¦ï¼\ ØÄF] ¨[Ãç> ¶kì ¶¤Í]òÍ>Vì.
D) 1, 2 and 3
5
Ö¦ÎmÂÿâç¦ ¨]ìÝm ¸«ßÄV«D ØÄF>m?
A) ]«Vs¦ì x[¼ªuÅ ïwïD B) ]«Vs¦ì ïwïD
c8
C) À]ÂïâE D) ØÃVm¡ç¦ç\ ïâE
84. Choose the correct statement about the Justice Party.
1. The South Indian Liberal federation ran an English newspaper called Justice.
ps
2.Justice Party formed District Associations.
3. It created Non-Brahmin youth League
A) All correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) 1, 3 correct
À]ÂïâE Ãu¤B ÄöBVª íuçÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
å¦Ý] kÍ>m.
2.Ûü½ü ïâE \Vk⦠¶ç\©Aïçá còkVÂþBm.
3.¸«V\ð«_éV> ÖçáQì ¶èçB ¼>Vu®sÝ>m.
Tn
1.Ø>[MÍ]B åé cöç\ ĺïD Ûü½ü ¨[Å ØÃBö_ Îò gºþé Ø\Va ØÄF]>Vçá
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 3 Äö
e/
85. How many seats did the Justice Party win and formed the government in 1920?
A) 63 B) 64 C) 84 D) 73
1920_ ¨Ý>çª Ö¦ºï¹_ Øku¤ ØÃu® À]ÂïâE gâE ¶ç\Ý>m?
.m
A) 63 B) 64 C) 84 D) 73
86. Statement 1 : The Justice Party formed the government for 13 years.
Statement 2: The Merits of the Justice Party are Social Justice and Social Reforms
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
//t
5
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 Correct
c8
íu® 1: xïD\m Öü\Vl_ >tµØ\VaçB åVâ½[ gâE Ø\VaBVï ¶¤sÂï ¼kõ|Ø\ª
ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ ÃöÍmç«Ý>Vì.
íu® 2: ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A còkVÂï z¿ c®©¸ª«Vï¡D ÃèBVu¤ªVì.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
ps
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
92. Which movement did Quaid-e-Millath participate in the freedom struggle?
A) Quit India movement B) Non-cooperation movement
C) Salt satyagraha
good man.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 Correct
íu® 1: >twï ¶«EB_ kVM_ ïËslòÍ> ïVöòçá ¶ïuÅ kÍ> ιÂï]«Vï ïVl¼> t_éÝ
xï\m Öü\Vl_ ¶kìï^ ]ïµþÅVì ¨[® í¤Bkì Š ¶¤Qì ¶õðV.
//t
íu® 2: ֩ý©Ã⦠>çékì þ禩Ãm ¶öm. ¶kì å_é cÝ>\\Vª \M>ì ¨ª ïVl¼> t_éÝ
xï\m Öü\Vl_çB ÃV«Vâ½Bkì Š ØÃöBVì.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
s:
D) None
ÖÍ]B s|>çé© ¼ÃV«V⦠k«éVu¤_ 1906gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ Wïµs_ ØÃVòÍ>V> Î[çÅÂ
ïVõï.
A) ïVÍ]B½ï^ ÄÝ]BVþ«ïD ¨[Å ¶Å©¼ÃVì xçÅçB Ø>[ªV©¸öÂïVs_ Ø>V¦ºþ çkÝ>Vì.
B) k.c.E>DëªVì gºþ¼éBìïÓÂz ¨]«Vï ·¼>E ï©Ã_ W®kªÝç> Ø>V¦ºþªVì
C) EuÅï_ ι \.ØÃV. EkQVªD ¸ÅÍ> gõ|
D) ¨m¡t_çé
5
B) \.ØÃV.EkQVªÝ][ ØÃu¼ÅVì ØÃV[ÐÄVt EkïVt ¶Dç\BVì
C) ÖkòÂz ØÃu¼ÅVì çkÝ> ØÃBì QVª©¸«ïVÄD
c8
D) ¸[ªV¹_ ØÃu¼ÅVì EkQVM ¨[® ¶çwÝ>ªì
96. Find the correct statement.
1. He fought for social liberation at a young age
ps
2. He led the kumari district agitation
3. The Government of Tamil Nadu by honouring his memory, laid a statue with manimandapam at
Nagercoil
A) Ma.Po.Sivagnanam B) Marshall A. Nesamani
C) Quaid-e-Millat
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu¤uz ØÃVòÝ>\Vªkç« ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ÖáD kB]¼é¼B ÄJï s|>çéÂïVï ¼ÃV«V½Bkì
2.z\ö \Vk⦩ ¼ÃV«Vâ¦Ýç> x[¼ª|Ýmß ØÄ[Åkì
Tn D) Periyar
97. Kanyakumari district joined and become the southern border of Tamil Nadu in the year
A) 1955 November 1 B) 1954 November 1
C) 1986 November 1 D) 1956 November 1
ï[MBVz\ö \Vkâ¦D >tµåVâ|¦[ ÖçðÍm >twïÝ][ Ø>[ ¨_çéBVï \V¤B gõ|?
//t
C) BS Mani D) M. Sankaralingam
Ø>uØï_çé þáìßEl_ ]òs>Vºíì gâE å¦Ý]B m©ÃVÂþß ó| ïV«ð\Vï clìÀÝ>
>tw«·Â ïwïÝç>ß ¼ÄìÍ>kì?
ht
5
A) 1974 B) 1978 C) 1966 D) 1956
\.ØÃV.EkQVªD 'k^áéVì ïõ¦ Îòç\©ÃV|' ¨[ÐD ±KÂïVï ÄVþÝ]B ¶ïVØ>t sòm
c8
ØÃuÅ gõ|?
A) 1974 B) 1978 C) 1966 D) 1956
101. Who was initially acted as a Gandhian, then a self-respect movement fighter and a leader of the
communist movement ?
ps
A) Ma.Po.Sivagnanam B) Marshal Nesamani
C) Jeevanandham D) Chellaiah
Ø>V¦ÂïÝ]_ ïVÍ]BkV]BVï¡D ¸Åz ·B \öBVç> ÖBÂï© ¼ÃV«V¹BVï¡D ØÃVm¡ç¦ç\
ÖBÂïÝ >çék«Vï¡D ØÄB_Ãâ¦kì?
A) \.ØÃV.EkQVªD
C) Ã.ýkVªÍ>D D) ØÄ_çéBV
102. Which is not a reform seeds sown by Periyar?
Tn
B) \Vì−_ ¼åÄ\è
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R Correct
íu® : åVâ| s|>çéçB s¦, ØÃõ s|>çé>V[ x>[ç\BVªm ¨ª ØÃöBVì í¤ªVì.
ïV«ðD : ¶Í> ïVéÝ]KD ¶çªÝmÝ mçÅï¹KD ØÃõï^ Î|Âï©Ãâ½òÍ>ªì.
ht
5
"Socrates of South Asia" title to Periyar in the year
A) 27.05.1970 B) 27.06.1971 C) 27.06.1970 D) 27.04.1971
c8
nÂþB åV|ï^ ï_s ¶¤sB_ \u®D ÃõÃVâ| W®kªD (¥Øªü¼ïV) ØÃöBVç«Ý ''Ø>uz
gEBVs[ ÄV«Ïü'' ¨ª© ÃV«Vâ½ Ãâ¦D kwºþ EÅ©¸Ý> gõ|?
A) 27.05.1970 B) 27.06.1971 C) 27.06.1970 D) 27.04.1971
109. EVR was conferred the title of Periyar on 13 November 1938 at a conference held at ______?
ps
A) Salem B) Trichy C) Chennai D) Erode
1938 åkDÃì 13Ö_ ¨ºz åç¦ØÃuÅ \VåVâ½_ ~.Øk.«Vsuz ØÃöBVì ¨[ÐD Ãâ¦D kwºï©Ãâ¦m?
A) ¼ÄéD B) ]òßE C) ØÄ[çª D) ~¼«V|
A) Bharathiyar B) Bharathidasan
B) ÃV«]>VÄ[
Tn
110. ''Ø>Võ| ØÄFm ÿÝ> ÃwD #B>V½ \Vì¸_ s¿D'' whose sang these lines of Periyar?
C) ïõð>VÄ[
C) Kannadasan
D) kVè>VÄ[
D) Vanidasan
''Ø>Võ| ØÄFm ÿÝ> ÃwD #B>V½ \Vì¸_ s¿D'' ¨[® ØÃöBVç«© Ãu¤ í¤B köïÓÂzöBkì?
A) ÃV«]BVì
111. MGR was conferred Bharat Ratna award in the year
e/
A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1987 D) 1988
¨D.÷.gòÂz ÃV«> «ÝªV (ÖÍ]B \V\è) sòm kwºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1987 D) 1988
.m
114. Which bus stations have been named after MGR by the Government of Tamil Nadu on the occasion
of MGR centenary celebrations
A) Chennai, Trichy B) Trichy, Madurai
C) Chennai, Madurai D) Chennai, Coimbatore
¨D.÷.gì ±uÅVõ| swVçk Îâ½ >twï ¶«ÄV_ ¨Í> ¼ÃòÍm WçéBºïÓïz ¨D.÷.óì ØÃBì
ó⦩Ãâ|^ám?
A) ØÄ[çª, ]òßE B) ]òßE, \mç« C) ØÄ[çª, \mç« D) ØÄ[çª, ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì
115. Find the incorrect statements. (MGR)
A) MGR implemented some of Thanthai Periyar’s letter reforms and simplified the Tamil writing
5
system.
B) He hosted the Fourth World Tamil Conference in Madurai City
c8
C) He established a Tamil University with Thousand Acres campus at Tanjore
D) None
¸[kòD íu®ï¹_ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ïVõï. (¨D.÷.gì)
ps
A) >Íç> ØÃöBVì còkVÂþB ¨¿Ýmß æì]òÝ>ºïÓ^ EékuçÅ åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý] >tµ ¨¿Ým
xçÅçB ¨¹ç\©Ã|Ý]ªVì.
B) \mç« \Våïö_ åV[ïVD céïÝ >tµ \VåVâç¦ EÅ©ÃVï å¦Ý]ªVì
C) >ÞçÄl_ gl«D °Âïì ë©Ãás_ >tµ© Ã_ïçéÂïwïÝç>Ý ¼>Vu®sÝ>Vì
D) ¨m¡t_çé
Tn
116. Statement 1: The Madras University awarded a Doctorate in recognition of MGR's work.
Statement 2: The Government of Tamil Nadu has established MGR Medical University to honour
his memory.
e/
A) 1 Correct 2 incorrect B) 1 incorrect, 2 Correct
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1: ØÄ[窩 Ã_ïçéÂïwïD ¨D.÷.gö[ Ãèïçá© ÃV«Vâ½ ¦V¦ì Ãâ¦D kwºþBm.
íu® 2: >twï ¶«· ¶kì Wçªçk© ¼ÃVu®D kçïl_ ¨D.÷.gì \òÝmk© Ã_ïçé ïwïÝç>
.m
W®s¥^ám.
A) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k® B) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1, 2 Äö
117. Government of India conferred title ________for Best Actor on MGR
//t
íu® 1: 30.09.1932Ö_ '>twV m^¹ ¨¿' ¨[ÐD >çé©Aç¦B mõ¦¤Âçï Î[çÅ ï¦uïç«l_
z¿tlòÍ> \Âï¹ç¦¼B kwºþB>uïVï \.ØÃV.E EçÅéç¦Âï©Ãâ¦Vì.
íu® 2: 1942 gïü| 8gD åV^ ''ÖÍ]BVçk sâ| Øk¹¼B®'' ¨[Å yì\VªD 鼪Vs_
WçżkuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
C) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
120. Which book says that the northern end of Tamil Nadu is Venkata hill and the southern end is
Kumarimunai?
A) Thirukkural, Purananuru B) Silappathikaram, Manimegalai
5
C) Purananuru, Silappathikaram D) Naladiyar, Thirukkural
>twïÝ][ k¦ÂØï_çé ¼kºï¦ \çéBVï¡D, Ø>uØï_çé z\öxçªBVï¡D íÅ©Ã|D ±_ï^?
c8
A) ]òÂzÅ^, AÅåVû® B) Eé©Ã]ïV«D, \è¼\ïçé
C) AÅåVû®, Eé©Ã]ïV«D D) åVé½BVì, ]òÂzÅ^
ps
121. The monthly salary of A, B,C is in the proportion of 2 : 3: 5, If Cs monthly salary is Rs. 1,200 more
than that of A, then B’s annual salary is
A) Rs..14,400 B) Rs. 24,000
Tn C) Rs.1,200
A, B,C gþB Jkìï¹[ \V> ÄDÃá sþ>D 2:3:5gzD. CŠ[ \V> ÄDÃáD A çB ïVâ½KD
Ô.1,200 ¶]ïD ¨M_ Bl[ gõ| ÄDÃáD ¨[ª?
D) Rs.2,000
A) 26 B) 28 C) 24 D) 22
4, 16, 7Š[ åV[ïVkm sþ>Ýç> ïõ|¸½.
A) 26 B) 28 C) 24 D) 22
s:
124. In a school of 720 students the ratio of boys and girls is 7:5. How many more girls are to be
admitted to make the ratio 1:1?
tp
125. Gold is 19 times as heavy as water and copper is 9 times as heavy as water. In what ratio should
these be mixed to get an alloy 15 times as heavy as water?
A) 1:1 B) 2:3 C) 1:2 D) 3:2
>ºïD >õ§ç«© ¼ÃV_ 19 \¦ºz ïª\Vï¡D, >Vt«D >õ§ç«© ¼ÃV_ 9 \¦ºz ïª\Vï¡D
c^ám. >õ§ç«© ¼ÃV_, 15 \¦ºz ïª\Vï c¼éVï ïéçk ØÃÅ, Öçkï^ ¨Ësþ>Ý]_
ïéÂï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D?
A) 1:1 B) 2:3 C) 1:2 D) 3:2
126. In a school, there are 800 students and 25 teachers. If the student is increased to 960 how many
more teachers should be appointed to maintain the student – teacher ratio?
A) 4 B)5 C) 6 D)30
Îò Ã^¹l_ 800 \VðkìïÓD \u®D 25 gEöBìïÓD c^áªì. \Vðkì ¨õèÂçï 960 gzD
gªV_, \Vðkì Š gEöBì sþ>D \VÅV\_ ÖòÂï Ö[ÐD ¨Ý>çª gEöBìï^ WBtÂï©Ã¦
¼kõ|D?
A) 4 B)5 C) 6 D)30
127. An alloy is to contain copper and zinc in the ratio 9:4. The zinc required to be melted with 24kg of
copper is:
5
A) 10 kg B) 10 kg C) 9 kg D) 9 kg
c8
Îò c¼éVï ïéçkl_ 9:4 sþ>Ý]_ >Vt«xD mÝ>åVïxD c^áª. 24 þ.þ >Vt«Ým¦[
¼ÄìÍm còï í½B mÝ>åVïD ¨Ëká¡ ¼>çk
A) 10 þ.þ B) 10 þ.þ C) 9 þ.þ D) 9 þ.þ
128. The ratio of three numbers is 3:4:7 and their product is 18144. The numbers are
ps
A) 7,16,13 B) 18, 24, 42 C) 12, 18, 19 D) 11, 13, 16
J[® ¨õï¹[ sþ>D xçżB 3:4:7 ¼\KD ¶ku¤[ ØÃòÂïuÃé[ 18144 ¨M_ ¶ËØkõï^.
A) 7,16,13 B) 18, 24, 42 C) 12, 18, 19 D) 11, 13, 16
number is
A) 17 B)12
Tn
129. Two numbers are in the ratio 1:2. If 7 is added to both their ratio changes to 3:5 then the greatest
C)28
Öò ¨õï¹[ sþ>D 1:2 ÖËsò ¨õïÓ¦[ 7Šn í⽪V_ sþ>\Vªm 3:5 ¨ª \V®þÅm ¨M_
D) 36
Ö>[ tï©ØÃöB ¨õ
e/
A) 17 B)12 C)28 D) 36
130. The product of three number with the ratio 1:2:3 is 750 then the sum of their squares is
A) 350 B) 600 C) 450 D) 400
.m
J[® ¨õï¹[ ØÃòÂzÝ Ø>Vçï 750 ¶çkï¹[ sþ>D 1:2:3 ¨M_ ¶ËØkõï¹[
kìÂïºï¹[ í|>_
A) 350 B) 600 C) 450 D) 400
131. Divide Rs.680 among A, B, C so that A gets 3 times more to B and B gets 4 times to C.
//t
A ŠÂz B Šn© ¼ÃV_ 3 \¦ºzD, B ŠÂz C Šn© ¼ÃV_ 4 \¦ºzD þç¦ÂzDý Ô.680Š n ¸öÝ>V
_, ¶kìï^ ØîD Ø>Vçï xçżB?
A) Ô.160, Ô.40, Ô.480 B) Ô.480, Ô.160, Ô.40
tp
134. The present ages of Reena and Usha are 24 years and 36 years respectively what was the ratio
between the ages of Usha and Reena, 8 years ago?
A) 4:7 B) 6: 5 C) 2: 3 D) 7: 4
ZðV \u®D c−Vs[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBmï^ xçżB 24 kò¦ºï^ \u®D 36 kò¦ºï^ ¨M_ 8
gõ|ïÓÂz x[A c−V \u®D ZðVs[ kBmï¹[ sþ>D ¨[ªkVï ÖòÍ]òÂzD?
A) 4:7 B) 6: 5 C) 2: 3 D) 7: 4
135. The sum of the present ages of a father and his son is 60 years. Six years ago, father’s age was five
times the age of the son. After 6 years, what is the son’s age?
A) 12 years B) 14 years
5
C) 18 years D) 20 years
>Íç> \u®D \ïM[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBmï¹[ í|>_ 60 kò¦ºï^. 6 kò¦ºïÓÂz x[A,
c8
>Íç>l[ kBm \ïM[ kBç>©¼ÃV_ 5 \¦ºz ¨M_ 6 kò¦ºïÓÂz© ¸Åz \ïM[ kBm
¨[ª?
A) 12 years B) 14 years
C) 18 years D) 20 years
ps
136. The age of a man is 4 times the sum of the ages of his two sons. Ten years hence, his age will be
double of the sum of the ages of his sons. The father’s present age is ?
A) 50 years B) 55 years C) 60 years D) 65 years
A) 50 years B) 55 years
Tn
Îòkö[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBm ¶kö[ Öò \ï[ï¹[ kBmï¹[ íâ|ÝØ>VçïçB© ¼ÃVéD 4 \¦º
z c^ám. 10 kò¦ºïÓÂz© ¸Åz ¶kö[ kBm Öò\ï[ï¹[ kBmï¹[ íâ|Ý
Ø>VçïçB©¼ÃV_ 2 \¦ºz gzD ¨M_ ¶kö[ >u¼Ãç>B kBm?
C) 60 years D) 65 years
137. The ratio of the ages of son and his father in 2015 and 2023 are 1: 4 and 3: 8 respectively. Find the
e/
sum of the ages of son and father in 2010?
A) 40 B) 30 C) 35 D) 45
2015 \u®D 2023_ Îò \ï[ \u®D >Íç>l[ kBm sþ>D xçżB 1:4 \u®D 3:8 ¨M_ 2010-_
.m
Í>¸[ ¶Âz|DÃÝ][ Ä«VÄö kBmD ¶¼> >V[ ¨M_ ¶ÂzwÍç>l[ >u¼ÃVç>B kBm
A) 1 years B) 1 years
C) 2 years D) 3 years
tp
139. The ratio of the volume of a cone, a sphere and a cylinder if each has the same radius and same
height is?
A) 1:4: 3 B) 1: 3: 4 C) 4: 3: 1 D) 3: 4: 1
ht
Ä\\Vª g«D \u®D cB«D cç¦B íDA, ¼ïVáD, còçá gþBku¤[ ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D
A) 1:4: 3 B) 1: 3: 4 C) 4: 3: 1 D) 3: 4: 1
140. If (a+b) : (b:c) :(c+a) = 6: 7: 8 and a+b+c = 14 then the value of C is ?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 14 D)7
(a+b) : (b:c) :(c+a) = 6: 7: 8 \u®D a+b+c = 14¨M_ C l[ \]©A?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 14 D)7
141. In what proportion must a grocer mix wheat at Rs. 2.04 per kg and Rs. 2.88 per kg so as to make a
mixture of worth Rs. 2.52 per kg?
A) 2:3 B) 3:2 C) 5: 3 D) 3:4
Îò ïç¦ÂïV«ì Ô.2.04/ þ.þ. ¼ïVmç\çB¥D Ô.2.88/ þ.þ. ¼ïVmç\«ïÝç>¥D ¨Í>
sþ>Ý]_ þ¼éV þ«Vtuz Ô. 2.52 Øî\Vª ¼ïVmç\çBÝ >BVì Ã|Ý> x½¥D?
A) 2:3 B) 3:2 C) 5: 3 D) 3:4
142. What is biggest ratio?2:3, 3:5, 4:7, 5:8
A) 3:5 B) 4:7 C) 5:8 D) 2:3
2:3, 3:5, 4:7, 5:8 Öku¤_ ØÃöBm ¨m?
5
A) 3:5 B) 4:7 C) 5:8 D) 2:3
143. If x: y: z = 1: 2: 3 and x + y + z = 224 then the value of x + y + z is
c8
A) 576 B) 1728 C) 2304 D) 2240
: : = 1: 2: 3 \u®D + + = 224 ¨M_ + + Š[ \]©A ¨[ª?
A) 576 B) 1728 C) 2304 D) 2240
ps
144. Ramesh and Meena divide a sum of Rs. 25,000 in the ratio 3:2 respectively. If Rs.5,000 is added to
each of their shares. What is the new ratio Meena and Ramesh’s Share?
A) 4 : 3 B) 3 : 4 C) 3 : 2 D) 2 : 3
«¼\i¥D, *ªV¡D Ô.25,000 n 3:2 ¨[Å sþ>Ý]_ ¸öÝm ØïVõ¦ªì.
C) 3 : 2
145. 20% of A + B = 50% A − B . Find the ratio of A and B.
D) 2 : 3
e/
A) 7 : 3 B) 3 : 7 C) 3 : 8 D) 8 : 3
20% A + B = 50% A − B ¨M_ A \u®D Šl[ sþ>D ïVõï.
A) 7 : 3 B) 3 : 7 C) 3 : 8 D) 8 : 3
.m
A) 18 : 45 B) 16 : 45 C) 8 : 45 D) 16 : 18
149. If % : & = & : . % then find the value of x
A) 1.5 B) 2 C) 2.5 D) 3.5
ht
5
• >twïÝ][ ØÃVòáV>V« ¼ÃVÂzï^
Economic trends in Tamil Nadu
c8
3. ïè>D : >Mkâ½
Simple interest
ps
Where to Study
ÖB_ Š 5:
01.08.2021 (QVl®):
köçÄ
¨õ
ÃV¦D
Tn kz©A
z¤©A : ¼\uzöB ¶çªÝm >ïk_ïÓD Î[ÅVï ]«â½ gïVi AÝ>ïD (>twï k«éV® \«A
\u®D ÃõÃV| \u®D >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD) AÝ>ïÝ]_ Ø>VzÂï©Ãâ|^ám. Ö©AÝ>ïD
\Vðkìï^ åéM_ ÎòkaïVâ½BVï ÖòÂzD. (gïVi AÝ>ï >çé©Aï^) ¸[kò\V®.
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 A 42 A 43 B 44 A 45 A 46 B 47 A 48 A 49 B 50 D
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 A 55 B 56 C 57 A 58 B 59 C 60 A
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61 D 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 D 69 C 70 D
71 B 72 B 73 A 74 D 75 B 76 B 77 D 78 D 79 B 80 A
81 C 82 D 83 B 84 A 85 A 86 A 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 B
91 A 92 B 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 D 98 A 99 B 100 C
ps
101 C 102 D 103 C 104 A 105 B 106 D 107 B 108 C 109 C 110 B
111 D 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 C
121 A 122 D 123 B 124 C 125 D 126 B 127 A 128 B 129 C 130 A
131 B 132 B 133 B 134 D 135 D 136 C 137 A 138 C 139 A 140 A
141 D 142 D 143 C 144 B 145
Tn
A 146 C 147 D 148 B 149 C 150 D
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11 A 12 B 13 D 14 A 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 A 30 A
31 A 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 D 37 A 38 C 39 A 40 B
41 A 42 A 43 B 44 A 45 A 46 B 47 A 48 A 49 B 50 D
s:
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 A 55 B 56 C 57 A 58 B 59 C 60 A
61 D 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 D 69 C 70 D
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71 B 72 B 73 A 74 D 75 B 76 B 77 D 78 D 79 B 80 A
81 C 82 D 83 B 84 A 85 A 86 A 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 B
91 A 92 B 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 B 97 D 98 A 99 B 100 C
ht
101 C 102 D 103 C 104 A 105 B 106 D 107 B 108 C 109 C 110 B
111 D 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 C
121 A 122 D 123 B 124 C 125 D 126 B 127 A 128 B 129 C 130 A
131 B 132 B 133 B 134 D 135 D 136 C 137 A 138 C 139 A 140 A
141 D 142 D 143 C 144 B 145 A 146 C 147 D 148 B 149 C 150 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 411 þçáï^...
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
//t
ØïV^çïï^
5
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 6) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
>tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD (TAMILNADU ADMINISTRATION)
1961.
Tn
1. Statement 1: The Tamilnadu Land reforms (Fixation of ceiling land) Act was passed in the year
Statement 2: This act said the maximum limit of ceiling land is 30 hectare
Statement 3: The Tamilnadu Land reforms (Fixation of ceiling land) Act was created by Kamarajar.
e/
A) Statement 1, 2 and 3 are true B) Statement 1 and 2 are true, 3 is false
C) Statement 1 is false, 2 and 3 are true D) Statement 2 is false, 1 and 3 are true
íu® 1: Wé cßÄk«DA Äâ¦D 1961Š_ ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
.m
5
A) 1981 B) 1991 C) 1971 D) 1961
1. nÍ>Vkm céï>tµ \VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅ gõ|.
2. >ÞçÄ >tµ Ã_ïçéïwïD mkÂï©Ã⦠gõ|.
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A) 1981 B) 1991 C) 1971 D) 1961
7. M.G.R Nutritious Meal scheme was started in the year……………………
A) 1992 B) 1982 C) 1972 D) 1962
ps
¨D.÷.gì ÄÝmð¡ ]â¦D mkÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1992 B) 1982 C) 1972 D) 1962
8. Recently How much money was announced for corona welfare by our honorable Chief Minister
M.K.Stalin?
A) Rs.6000 B) Rs.4000
TnC) Rs.1000
x>_kì x.ï ü¦Vo[ ¶kìï^ ØïV«¼ª WkV«ð Ø>VçïBVï ØïV|Ý> Ø>Vçï?
A) Ô.6000 B) Ô.4000 C) Ô.1000 D) Ô.2000
D) Rs.2000
10. How much amount is given for women during pregnancy under “Amma Scheme (From 2018)”?
(Before 2018 this scheme is called Dr.Muthulakshmi Pregnancy Scheme).
A) Rs.12,000 B) 18,000 C) 16,000 D) Rs.15,000
""¶D\V ]â¦D"" JéD ¸«ÄkÝ][ ¼ÃVm >VF\VìïÓÂz kwºï©Ã|D »Âï Ø>Vçï ¨Ëká¡?
//t
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï a b c d
a. 1969 Š 1. Ø>Vâ½_ zwÍç> ]â¦D A) 3 1 4 2
b. 1992 Š 2. >tµåV| ÃÞÄVBÝ Äâ¦D B) 3 1 2 4
c. 1956 Š 3. «VÛ\[ªVì z¿ C) 4 2 1 3
d. 1958 Š 4. \VWé \®æ«ç\©A D) 2 1 4 3
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼Ãì ¶«·©Ãèl_, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
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memorable of birth anniversary of former chief minister of Tamilnadu M.Karunanidhi. Name the
award?
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A) IlakkiyaMaamani B) Bharat Ratna C) Padmashree D) Padma Bhushan
Ä*ÃÝ]_ >twï x>_kì ¶kìï^, ïçéQì ïòðVW] ¸ÅÍ>åVçáØBVâ½ >tµ ¨¿Ý>Váì
"3 ¼ÃòÂz" ¨[ª sòm kwºïÃ|D ¨[® ¶¤sÝ>Vì?
A) ÖéÂþB \V\è B) ÃV«> «ÝªV C) ÃÝ\p D) ÃÝ\ ¯−[
ps
15. Recently Under which leader birth anniversary, Tamilnadu government announced several Welfare
schemes to people?
A) SelviJayalalitha B) M.Karunanidhi C) M.K.Stalin D) None of these
C) x.ï. ü¦Vo[
B) x.ïòðVW]
D) ¨kòt_çé
Tn
Ä*ÃÝ]_ BVòç¦B ¸ÅÍ> åVçá x[Mâ| >twï ¶«· Ãé åé]⦺ïçá ¶¤sÝm^ám? (2021)
A) ØÄ_s ØÛBéo>V
16. During Which party period, Second World Tamil Conference meet held at Tamilnadu?
e/
A) Congress B) ADMK C) DMK D) None of these
Ö«õ¦Vkm céï >tµ \VåV| BVòç¦B gâE ïVéÝ]_ >twïÝ]_ åç¦ØÃuÅm?
A) ïVºþ«ü ïâE B) ¶.].x.ï ïâE C) ].x.ï ïâE D) ¨m¡t_çé
17. Which party introduced first a free Noon Meal scheme for school children?
.m
5
23. SUVIDHA Scheme is related to?
A) Education B) Napkins C) Sports D) None
SUVIDHA ]â¦D ¨>Ц[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm?
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A) ï_s B) åV©þ[ C) sçáBVâ| D) ¨m¡t_çé
24. Tamilnadu Village Habitation Improvement (THAI) scheme was started in the year………………
A) 2010-2011 B) 2011-2012 C) 2012-2013 D) 2014-2015
ps
>VF (THAI) ]â¦D Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 2010 - 2011 B) 2011 - 2012 C) 2012 - 2013 D) 2014 - 2015
25. Free Laptop Scheme started in the year…………………………….
A) 2010 B) 2006 C) 2011 D) 2016
ÖékÄ \½ïèM kwºzD ]â¦D Ø>V¦ºïÃ⦠gõ|?
A) 2010 B) 2006 C) 2011
B) 2000
TnC) 2002
D) 2016
26. Tamilnadu Tribal welfare board formed in the year…………………….
A) 2007 D) 2004
e/
>tµåV| Ãwºz½lªì åé kVöBD ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 2007 B) 2000 C) 2002 D) 2004
27. Statement 1: Cradle Baby Scheme was launched in Salem in 1992.
.m
Statement 2: The Government of Tamil Nadu inaugurated this scheme for the first time in the
country to prevent the practice of female infanticide.
A) 1 only correct B) 1,2 correct
C) 2 only correct D) 1,2 incorrect
//t
Scheme?
A. Encourage parents to take family planning after the birth of two daughters.
B. Protection of the rights of girl children
ht
29. Which scheme provides scholarships to poor women to improve their education and in poor
parent’s daughter’s marriage?
A) MuvalurRamamirthamAmmaiyar Memorial Marriage Assistance Scheme.
B) E.V.R. Maniammaiyar Memorial Poor Widow Daughter Marriage Assistance Scheme.
C) Dr. DharmambalAmmaiyar Memorial Widow Remarriage Assistance Scheme.
D) Mother Teresa Memorial Marriage Assistance Scheme for Destitute Women.
°çw© ØÃõï¹[ ï_s WçéçB cBìÝ>¡D, °çw© ØÃu¼ÅVìï^ >ºï^ ØÃõï¹[ ]ò\ðÝç>
å¦Ý>¡D c>sÝ Ø>Vçï kwºzD ]â¦D?
A) JkÙì Ö«V\Vtì>D ¶Dç\BVì W窡 ]ò\ð c>sÝ ]â¦D.
5
B) ~.Øk.«V. \èBDç\BVì W窡 °çw s>çk \ï^ ]ò\ð W]¥>s ]â¦D.
C) ¦V¦ì >ì\VDÃV^ ¶Dç\BVì W窡 s>çk \®\ð W]¥>s ]â¦D.
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D) ¶[çª Ø>«ÄV W窡 g>«kuÅ ØÃõï^ ]ò\ð W]¥>s ]â¦D.
30. Assertion A : A scheme 'Sakhi', an integrated service centre, being implemented by the Central
Government.
ps
ReasonR : A scheme to help women affected by violence in private & public places, family,
community and workplace.
A) A correct R incorrect B) A incorrect R correct
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect.
íu®
]â¦\VzD. Tn
; ÎòºþçðÍ> ¼Äçk ç\B\Vª ’ Äþ’ \Ý]B ¶«ÄVºïÝ>V_ ØÄB_Ã|Ý>©Ãâ| kòD
violence
A) 180 B) 181 C) 182 D) 183
k[xçÅBV_ ÃV]Âï©Ã⦠ØÃõïÓÂz 24 \è ¼å«xD c>¡k>uïVï \Ý]B ¶«ÄV_ ÎmÂÿ|
ØÄFB©Ã⦠\ï¹ì c>s ¨õ?
//t
C) Providing free rice for the elderly. D) Supply of medicines to pregnant women.
¶[ª¯ìðV ]â¦Ý][ ¼åVÂïD?
A) zwÍç>ïÓÂz »â¦ßÄÝm kwºz>_.
tp
33. Varumun kappom Scheme for the purpose of detecting and preventing diseases before infection,
implementedin the year
A) 1992 B) 1994 C) 1996 D) 1998
¼åVFïçá Ø>Vu®k>uz x[ÃVï¼k ïõ¦¤Ím ¶>çªÝ >|ÂzD ¼åVÂïÝ]uïVª kòx[
ïV©¼ÃVD ]â¦D ØÄB_Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1992 B)1994
C) 1996 D) 1998
5
A) Coimbatore B) Chennai C) Tirupur D) Dharmapuri
Ø>Kºz ïºçïÝ ]â¦D Jé\Vï gÍ]« \VWéD þòiðV å]loòÍm ¨Í> åïòÂz >õ§ì
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ØïVõ| kòk>uïVï Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m?
A) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì B)ØÄ[çª C) ]ò©¯ì D) >ò\Aö
36. Statement1 : Disaster Management Department merged with Revenue Department in the year-2005
ps
Statement 2 : Revenue department renamed as Revenue and Disaster Management
Department - 15.9.2017
A) 1 only correct B) 1,2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1,2 incorrect
íu® 1. kòkVF mçÅ¥¦[ ¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\ mçÅ ¼ÄìÂï©Ã⦠gõ| ‡ 2005
D) None
>tµåV| kòkVFÝmçÅl[ ¸«>Vª©Ãèï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄF?
A) Ãé>«©Ã⦠¶«·Ý]⦺ïçáÝ ]Åç\BVïß ØÄB_Ã|Ým>_.
B) ¶«· WéºïÓÂz ïV©ÃVá«Vï ÖòÝ>_.
//t
40. Statement 1: The word police is derived from the Latin word Politia.
Statement 2 : The term was used in subjects such as civil, administrative and civil constitution.
A) 1 only correct B) 1,2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1,2incorrect
íu® 1. ïVk_ ¨[Å ØÄV_ ÖéÝy[ Ø\Vaß ØÄV_éVª ØÃVo¼¦VBVsoòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦>VzD.
íu® 2. ÖßØÄV_ z½ç\, WìkVïD, z½ç\ ¶«Äç\©A ¼ÃV[Å ØÃVò^ï¹_ ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 1,2 Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1,2 >k®
41. 1. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme launched on 2.2.2006.
5
2. This scheme was started under the name of Rural Employment Schemein the year 2006.
3. It was renamed as Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme in the
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year 2009
A) 1,2correct 3 incorrect B) 1,3 correct 2 incorrect
C) 2,3correct 1 incorrect D) All correct
1.\ïVÝ\V ïVÍ] ¼>EB »«ï ¼kçé c®]Ý ]â¦D 2.2.2006 _ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
ps
2.2006 gD gõ| þ«V\©AÅ ¼kçékVF©AÝ ]â¦D ¨[Å ØÃBö_ ÖÝ]â¦D mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
3.2009 gD gõ| \ïVÝ\V ïVÍ] ¼>EB »«ï ¼kçé c®]Ý]â¦D ¨ª© ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1,2 Äö 3 >k® B) 1,3 Äö 2 >k® C) 2,3 Äö 1 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
42. Total Sanitation Campaign was renamed as Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan in the year ?
A) 2010 B) 2011
Tn
C) 2012
¨Í> gõ| x¿ ·ïV>V« ]â¦D Wì\_ ëVÝ ¶¸BV[ ¨ª© ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m?
A)2010 B) 2011 C)2012 D) 2014
D) 2014
43. Assertion A : Swachh Bharat Mission was launched by Government of India on October 2, 2014.
e/
ReasonR : To provide universal health facilities and achieve clean India by 2019
A) A correct R incorrect B) A & R incorrect
C) A incorrect R correct D) A & R correct.
.m
íu®: \Ý]B ¶«ÄV_ 2014 D gõ| ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2 D åV^ #Fç\ ÃV«> ÖBÂïD Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD: ¶çªkòÂz\Vª ·ïV>V« kÄ]ï^ °uÃ|Ý] 2019 D gõ½uz^áVï #Fç\ ÃV«>D
¨[Å WçéçB ¶ç¦>_.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®. C) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö.
//t
2. The Corporation was brought under the administrative control of Rural Development and
Panchayati Raj in July 2006.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1,2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1,2incorrect
tp
1. >tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD 1983 gD gõ| mkÂï©Ãâ| 2006 kç« ÄJïåéÝmçÅl[
ÿµ ØÄB_Ãâ¦m.
2. 2006 Éçé \V>D ÖÂïwïD »«ï káìßE \u®D ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë ÖBÂïÝ][ WìkVïÂ
ht
ïâ|©ÃVâ½[ ÿµ ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1,2 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1,2 >k®
45. Which Monthly Magazine published exclusively Tamilnadu Corporation for Development of
Women since 1998 ?
A) Sakthi B)Muttram C) Magalirmattum D) Pengalnalam
>tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªÝ>V_ 1998 gD gõ½oòÍm ¸«Ý]¼Bï\Vï Øk¹l¦©Ã|D
\V> Ö>µ?
A) ÄÂ] B) xuÅD C) \ï¹ì \â|D D) ØÃõï^ åéD
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼Ãì ¶«·©Ãèl_, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
46. Wakf act enacted in the year______for proper maintenance of Wakf Board assets
A) 1990 B) 1992 C) 1995 D) 1997
kÂà© kVöB ØÄVÝmÂïçáß ÄöBVª xçÅl_ ëV\ö©Ã>uïVï kÂà© Äâ¦D ÖBuÅ©Ã⦠gõ|?
A)1990 B) 1992 C) 1995 D) 1997
47. Entrepreneurship Development InstituteEDI was formed in the year
A) 2000 B) 2001 C) 2002 D) 2003
EDI ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|D Ø>Va_ x窼kVì; ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD ¼>Vu®sÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A)2000 B) 2001 C) 2002 D) 2003
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48. Assertion A :The Chief Minister's Girl Child Protection Scheme was launched in 1992.
ReasonR : The government directly helps in preventing gender discrimination and protecting
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the girl child’s rights
A) A correct R incorrect B) A & R incorrect
C) A incorrect R correct D) A & R correct
íu® : x>éç\ßÄö[ ØÃõ zwÍç>© ÃVmïV©AÝ ]â¦D 1992 gD gõ| mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
ps
ïV«ðD : ØÃõzwÍç> ÃVoª ÃVzÃVâç¦ >|Ým ¶kìï¹[ cöç\ïçá ÃVmïV©Ã>uz ¶«ÄV_
¼å«½BVï c>s Aök>VzD.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®. B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD >k®.
C) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö. D) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö.
A) 2012 B) 2013
Tn
49. BetiBachao, BetiPadhao( Save girl child, educate girl child) was launched in the year
C) 2015
ØÃõ zwÍç>ïçá ÃVmïV©¼ÃVD ØÃõ zwÍç>ïÓÂz ïu¸©¼ÃVD ]â¦D \Ý]B ¶«ÄV_
mkºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
D) 2016
e/
A) 2012 B) 2013 C) 2015 D) 2016
50. BetiBachao, BetiPadhao( Save girl child, educate girl child) objective of the scheme is
A) Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination
.m
¼åVÂïD?
A) ÃVoª ÃVzÃV| ¶½©Ãç¦l_ zwÍç>ï¹[ ÃVoªD ¶¤Ím ØïV_é©Ã|kç> >|Ý>_.
B) ØÃõ zwÍç> clì kVµkç>¥D ¶kìï¹[ ÃVmïV©çÃ¥D c®] ØÄF>_.
s:
53. Statement 1: Tamil Nadu State Commission for Women was established in 1993.
Statement2 : This Commission has 1 Chairman and 9 members.
A) 1 only correct B) 1,2 correct C) 2 only correct D) 1,2 correct
íu® 1. >tµåV| \VWé \ï¹ì gçðBD 1993 gD gõ| ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2. ÖÍ> gçðBD 1 >çékì \u®D 9 c®©¸ªìïçá ØïVõ¦m.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 1,2 Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1,2 >k®
54. Tamil Nadu Commission for Protection of Child Rights was constituted under ____ of the
5
Protection of Child Rights Act
A) Section 15 B) Section 16 C) Section 17 (1) D) Section 19
zwÍç> cöç\ï^ ÃVmïV©A gçðBºï^ Äâ¦Ý]_ c^á ¨Í> ¸ös[ ý >tµåV| zwÍç>
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cöç\ï^ ÃVmïV©A gçðBD °uÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) ¸ö¡ 15 B) ¸ö¡ 16 C) ¸ö¡ 17 (1) D) ¸ö¡ 19
55. Which of the following is not the Special Economic Zones of Tamil Nadu?
ps
A) Chennai B) Coimbatore C) Madurai D) Tirupur
>tµåVâ½_ ¶ç\Ím^á EÅ©A© ØÃVòáV>V« \õ¦éºïÓ^ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄF?
A) ØÄ[çª B) ¼ïVçk C) \mç« D) ]ò©¯ì
56. Overseas Manpower Corporation Limited by Government of Tamil Nadu established in the year
A) 1949 B) 1956
Tn
C) 1965
>twï ¶«ÄV_ ¶B_åVâ| ¼kçékVF©A W®kªD Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1949 B) 1956 C) 1965 D) 1970
D) 1970
57. Recently, who was appointed as special officer to implement the scheme called Chief Minister in
e/
your Constitutency?
A) J. Vijaya Rani B) S. Divyadharshi
C) Gayathri Krishnan D) Shilpa Prabhakar Sathish
.m
58. Recently Tamilnadu Government reduced Avin Milk price per Litre by?
A) Rs.2 B) Rs.3 C) Rs.4 D) Rs.5
Ä*ÃÝ]_ >twï ¶«· gs[ ÃV_ sçé oâ¦òÂz ¨Ëká¡ ÔÃVF zçÅÝ>m?
s:
5
62. Statement 1: In 1921 Thanjavur Congress, Periyar again moved a communal resolution.
Statement 2: In 1922, He was imprisoned for being involved in toddy shop riot.
c8
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: 1921 - gD gõ| ØÃöBVì >ÞÄVÆì ïVºþ«ü *õ|D kz©Aöç\Ý yì\VªÝç>
ØïVõ|kÍ>Vì.
íu® 2: 1922 - gD gõ| ï^ÓÂïç¦ \¤Bo_ ~|©Ãâ¦>uïVï EçÅl_ ¶ç¦Âï©Ãâ¦Vì.
ps
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
63. Who is also known as Rousseau of Tamil Nadu?
A) Periyar B) Anna
>tµåVâ½[ Ô¼ÄV ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|Ãkì BVì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) ¶õðV
64. Who called EVR as Periyar?
C) ¨D.÷.gì
Tn
C) M.G.R. D) Singaravelar
D) EºïV«¼kéì
5
A) Brahmin domination gradually declined in Tamil Nadu
B) Register marriages made unpopular
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C) Festivals, fasting, religious rituals lost its specialty
D) During the people's vote, shout as every citizen is an Indian.
·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝ][ ÄV>çªï¹_ Ö_éV>m?
ps
A) >tµåVâ½_ ¸«V\ðì g]ÂïD ý©Ã½BVï zçÅÍ>m
B) Ã]¡ ]ò\ðºï^ ¸«Ãé\ç¦Bs_çé
C) Ãõ½çïï^, s«>ºï^, Ä\Bß Ä¦ºzï^, EÅ©¸wÍ>ª
D) \Âï^ kVÂØï|©¸[ ¼ÃVm ÎËØkVò z½\ïÐD ÖÍ]B[ ¨[® xwºï¼kõ|D ¨[ÅVì
A) 1938 B) 1942
ÖÍ] ¨]ì©A þáìßE åç¦ØÃÅV> gõ|?
A) 1938 B) 1942
Tn
73. Which of the following year anti-Hindi agitation not happened?
C) 1950
C) 1950
D) 1952
D) 1952
e/
74. Assertion A : Self-respect movement stated that the low status of women is because of illiteracy.
Reason R : The self-respect movement took up the task of providing compulsory primary education
for all
.m
¼\uØïVõ¦m
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD >k®
s:
75. What was the main theme of the self-respect movement conferences?
A) Language B) Race C) Religion D) Class
tp
77. Statement 1: On November 21, 1925, he demanded representation for non-Brahmins in the
Assembly, at the Committee Conference in Kanchipuram.
Statement 2: He left the conference with some other non-Brahmin leaders after the resolution
proposed by him got failed.
A) 1, 2 incorrect B) 1 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 2 only correct
íu® 1: þ.¸. 1925 åkDÃì 21_ ïVÞEA«Ý]_ ïtâ½ \VåVâ½_ ¶kì Äâ¦ÄçÃl_
¸«V\ð«_éV¼>VòÂz ¸«]W]ÝmkD ¼kõ|D ¨[® ¼ïVöÂçï x[çkÝ>Vì.
íu® 2: Ökì x[Ø\VaÍ> yì\VªD ¼>V_s ¶ç¦Í>>V_ ¼k® Eé ¸«V\ð«_éV> >çékìïÓ¦[
\VåVâç¦ sâ| Øk¹¼B¤ªVì.
5
A) íu® 1, 2 >k® B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
c8
78. Which of the following is incorrect about Self-Respect movement?
1. The Higher caste Muslims considered Muslims of Tamil Nadu as Dravidians.
2. It supported Self-respect marriages.
ps
3. Rationalism and self-respect were the birthright of all human beings.
A) Only 1 incorrect B) 2 only incorrect C) 3 only incorrect D) None
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ·B\öBVç> Ãu¤ >kÅVªm ¨m?
1.xüÜD cBìz½lªì >tµåVâ| xüÜDïçá ]«Vs¦ìïáVï¼k ïò]ªì.
2.æì]òÝ> ]ò\ðºïçá g>öÝ>m.
A) 1 \â|D >k®
C) 3 \â|D >k®
B) 2 \â|D >k®
D) ¨m¡t_çé
Tn
3.ÃzÝ>¤¡D ·B\öBVç>¥D ¶çªÝm \M>ìï¹[ ¸Å©Aöç\ ¨[Åm.
79. Who said Dravidian Muslims should follow Mustafa Kamal Badsha of Turkey and Amanullah of
e/
Afghanistan?
A) Periyar B) Anna C) Kamaraj D) Syed Ahmed Khan
mòÂþçBß ¼ÄìÍ> xü>ÃV ï\V_ ÃVâÄö, g©ïVMü>VªÝç> ¼ÄìÍ> ¶\VÐ_éV gþ¼BVç«
.m
C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: ÖÍm ÄJïÝ][ Î|Âï©Ã⦠¸ö¡ïçáß ¼ÄìÍ> \Âï^ ÖüéV>Ý]_ Öçðk>[ JéD
Ä\ÝmkD ļïV>«ÝmkÝç>¥D ¶ç¦þÅVìï^ ¨[® ïò]Bm.
tp
íu® 2: xüÜD ØÃõï^ Ãì>V ¶èkm ¼ÃV[® Eé ÃwÂï kwÂïºïçá ØÃöBVì s\ìĪD
ØÄFBs_çé.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
ht
5
íu® 2: ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïD ¼>V[Å ïV«ðD «VÛV÷l_ ÖÍ] ØïV^çï¼B gzD.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
c8
84. Who is the author of the book “why were women enslaved”?
A) Periyar B) Anna C) MGR D) Bharathidasan
''ØÃõ °[ ¶½ç\BVªV^'' ¨[Å ±o[ gEöBì BVì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) ¶õðV C) ¨D.÷.gì D) ÃV«]>VÄ[
ps
85. Statement 1: Periyar was the founder of the self-respect movement.
Statement 2: He understands the importance of media in spreading rational ideas among people
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1 2 incorrect
íu® 1: ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝç> ¼>Vu®sÝ>kì ØÃöBVì.
c.Puratchi - 3. 1928 C) 1 3 4 2
d)Viduthalai - 4. 1935 D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï.
ØÄF]Ý>V^ gõ| a b c d
//t
a.z½B«· Š 1. 1925 A) 1 3 2 4
b.ö¼kV_â Š 2. 1933 B) 1 2 3 4
c.A«âE Š 3. 1928 C) 1 3 4 2
s:
d.s|>çé Š 4. 1935 D) 2 3 4 1
87. Periyar wrote article under the penname ______
tp
89. Periyar began to speak about the poor condition of women at self-respect conferences held in the
year
A) 1929 B) 1930 C) 1931 D) 1932
¨Í> gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ·B\öBVç> \VåV|ï¹_ ØÃõï¹[ ¼\VÄ\Vª Wçé z¤Ým z«_ØïV|Âï
Ø>V¦ºþªVì?
A) 1929 B) 1930 C) 1931 D) 1932
90. Statement 1: Women's freedom is one of the main objectives of the self-respect movement.
Statement 2: Self Respect Movement and its members led by Periyar improved gender equality in
the society.
5
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: ØÃõï¹[ s|>çé ¨[Ãm ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝ][ xÂþB ¼åVÂïºï¹_ Î[ÅVzD.
c8
íu® 2: ØÃöBVö[ >çéç\léVª ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝç> ¼Äìͼ>Vì ÃVoª Ä\ÝmkD z¤Ý>
ÄJïÝ][ cðì¡ïçá ¼\DÃ|Ý]ªì.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
ps
91. Periyar moved his last communal resolution at ______Congress conference
A) Kanchipuram B) Erode C) Chengalpattu D) Virudhunagar
ïç¦EBVï ØÃöBVì ¨Í> ïVºþ«ü \VåVâ½_ kz©Aöç\ yì\VªÝç> x[Ø\VaÍ>Vì?
A) ïVÞEA«D B) ~¼«V|
Tn
C) Øĺï_Ãâ| D) sòmåïì
92. Where did Periyar meet Gandhi and discuss anti-Brahmin policy?
A) Bangalore B) Chennai C) Mangalore
ØÃöBVì ïVÍ]çB ¨ºz ÄÍ]Ým ¸«\èB ¨]ì©A ØïV^çïçB Ãu¤ skV]Ý>Vì?
D) Kanchipuram
1937gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ Äâ¦\[Å ¼>ì>o_ ØÃöBVì ¨Í> ïâEÂïVï ¸«ßÄV«D ØÄF>Vì?
A) À]ÂïâE B) ïVºþ«ü C) ·B«Vë÷BïâE D) ØÃVm¡ç¦ç\ ïâE
95. Statement 1: Till 1929, the self-respect movement was a pioneer movement in the Madras
s:
Presidency.
Statement 2: In 1930, its popularity began to fade in the Madras Presidency.
tp
5
1. Reforming dravidian society and making it rational.
2. Teaching the ancient Tamil culture of the Dravidians
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3.Protecting dravidian society from the domination of Aryan culture
4.Reforming Hinduism by eliminating superstitious practices and reducing the influence of
Brahmins.
ps
A) All correct B) 1, 2, 3 correct C) 2, 3, 4 correct D) 1, 2, 4 correct
·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝ][ ¼åVÂïºï^ ¨çk?
1.]«Vs¦ Äx>VBÝç> æì]òÝmkm \u®D ¶>çª cõç\BVª ÃzÝ>¤¡ç¦B>VÂz>_.
2.]«Vs¦ìï¹[ Ãõç¦B >tµ ÃõÃVâ½çª ¶kìïÓÂz ïu¸Ý>_
C) 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 4 Äö
e/
100. What are the reasons for the decline of the Justice Party?
1. This movement lost support among the depressed and minority people.
2.Secondly, the self-respect movement led by Periyar was a very revolutionary reform movement
.m
3.Finally, Higher caste and pro-English outlook contributed significantly to its decline.
A) All correct B) 1, 2 correct
C) 2, 3 correct D) 1, 3 correct
À]ÂïâEl[ TµßEÂïVª ïV«ðºï^ ¨çk?
//t
3.Ö®]BVï, cBìz½lª \u®D gºþé g>«¡ ïõ¼ðVâ¦D gþBçk ØÃò\á¡ ¶>[ TµßEÂz
z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï úï¹Ý>ª.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 3 Äö
tp
5
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1 \u®D 2 Äö C) 3 \u®D 2 Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
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104. Madras State renamed as Tamil Nadu in the year
A) 1966 B) 1967 C) 1968 D) 1969
ØÄ[çª \VWéD, >tµåV| ¨ª ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1966 B) 1967 C) 1968 D) 1969
ps
105. Who introduced the Self-Respect Marriage Protection Act?
A) Periyar B) Anna C) Karunanidhi D) Gopalsamy
·B\öBVç> ]ò\ð© ÃVmïV©Aß Äâ¦D ¶¤xïD ØÄF>kì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) ¶õðV C) ïòðVW] D) ¼ïVÃV_ÄVt
106. Find the correct Statement. (Anna)
Tn
1) In 1968, Anna announced a bilingual policy with Tamil &English.
2) He held the first World Tamil Conference in Chennai in 1968
3) He changed Madras state to Tamil Nadu in 1969.
e/
4) He was appointed as general secretary of DMK in 1969
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 3 and 4 correct C) 1 and 3 correct D) all correct
ÄöBVª íuçÅ ïVõï. (¶õðV)
.m
íu®ïçá ïVõï.(ïòðVW])
1) >tµ káìßEÂØïª >MBVï ¶ç\ßÄïD còkVÂþªVì.
2) >tµåV| ¶«· sç«¡© ¼ÃòÍmï^ ¨[Å ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ïwïÝç> còkVÂþªVì.
ht
109. After the death of Arignar Anna in 1969, the temporary Chief Minister was
A) Kalaignar Karunanidhi B) Navalar Nedunchezhiyan
C) MG Ramachandran D) Natarajan
1969D gõ| ¶¤Qì ¶õðV \«ð\ç¦Í>mD >uïVoï x>_k«Vï ÃèBVu¤Bkì
A) ïçéQì ïòðVW] B) åVkéì Øå|ÞØÄaB[
C) ¨D.÷.Ö«V\ÄÍ]«[ D) 妫VÛ[
110. Who said that reading good histories will bring a new turn in the young’s soul?
A) Kamaraj B) Gandhi C) Periyar D) Anna
å_é k«éV®ïç᩠ýÝ>V_>V[ ÖáD c^áÝ]¼é Am x®Âz °uÃ|D ¨[® í¤Bkì.
5
A) ïV\«VÛì B) ïVÍ] C) ØÃöBVì D) ¶õðV
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111. Choose the incorrect options of the achievements of C.N. Annadurai Government
A) Nationalization of bus routes over a distance of 75 miles
B) He renamed madras state as Tamil Nadu in 1969
C) He conducted first World Tamil Conference
ps
D) Rice was provided to the poor people of Tamil Nadu at subsidized rates.
E.¨[. ¶õðVmç«l[ >çéç\léVª ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ xÂþB ÄV>çªï¹_ >kÅVªç>Ý
¼>ì¡ ØÄF?
A) 75 ç\_ Ø>Vçésuz ¼\_ c^á ¼ÃòÍm >¦ºïçá ¼>EB\VÂþBm
112. Self-Respect Marriage Protection Act introduced by Anna came into force on
e/
A) 1966, January 23 B) 1968, January 23 C) 1964, January 21 D) 1968, January 20
¶õðV ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B ·B\öBVç>Ý ]ò\ð© ÃVmïV©Aß Äâ¦D åç¦xçÅÂz kÍ>
åV^?
.m
5
C) ØÄ_s. ØÛ. ØÛéo>V D) M.G. «V\ßÄÍ]«[
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118. Blackboard Project implemented in the year
A) 1993 B) 1995 C) 1992 D) 1997
ïòDÃéçïÝ ]â¦D ¨Í> gõ| åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1993 B) 1995 C) 1992 D) 1997
ps
th
119. Statement 1: Self-respect marriage act was passed on 20 January ,1968
Statement 2: Second World Tamil conference meet held at Coimbatore.
A) Statement 1 and 2 are true B) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
C) Statement 1 and 2 are False D) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
íu® 1: ·B\öBVç> ]ò\ð ÃVmïV©A Äâ¦D 1968 Ûªkö 20.
íu® 2: Ö«õ¦Vkm céï >tµ \VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅ Ö¦D ¼ïVçk.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 >k®
Tn
B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
D) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö
e/
120. Statement 1: Madras state was renamed as Tamilnadu on 14th June,1969
Statement 2: Two language Formula implemented by Anna on 13th January 1968
A) Statement 1 and 2 are true B) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
.m
5
122. A sum of Rs. 12,000 deposited at compound interest becomes double after 5 years. After 20 years it
will become
c8
A) Rs.1,20,000 B) Rs.1,92,000 C) Rs.1,24,000 D) Rs.96,000
Ô.12,000 íâ| kâ½l_ 5 gõ|ïÓÂz Öò \¦ºïVþÅm. ¼\KD 20 gõ|ï^ ïaÝm ¨Ëká¡
þç¦ÂzD.
A) Rs.1,20,000 B) Rs.1,92,000 C) Rs.1,24,000 D) Rs.96,000
ps
123. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% per annum is Rs. 4, 347. The Period (years) is
A) 2 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
ÔÃVF. 30,000 Âz 7% gõ|Âz þç¦ÂzD Ø>Vçï íâ| kâ½l_ Ô.4,347 ¨[ÅV_ Ø\VÝ>
gõ| ¨Ëká¡?
A) 2 B) 2 Tn C) 3 D) 4
124. Find the compound interest on Rs.16,000 at 20% per annum for 9 months compounded quarterly
A) Rs. 18,522 B) Rs. 17, 640 C) Rs. 16, 800 D) Rs.2, 522
e/
kò¦ íâ| kâ½ 20% gï ÖòÂzD¼ÃVm ïVéVõ|Âz kâ½ ïðÂþ¦©Ã|þÅm ¨M_
ÔÃVF 16,000Âz 9 \V>ºïÓÂz þç¦ÂzD íâ| kâ½ ¨Ëká¡?
A) Rs. 18,522 B) Rs. 17, 640 C) Rs. 16, 800 D) Rs.2, 522
.m
125. If the difference between compound interest and simple interest for 3 years at the rate of 10% p.a. is
Rs. 155 then the principle is
A) 3000 B) 4000 C) 5000 D) 6000
kò¦Ý]uz 10% kâ½ sþ>Ý]_ íâ| kâ½ÂzD >M kâ½Âz\Vª sÝ]BVÄD J[ÅVõ|ïÓÂz
//t
A) 7.5% B) 6.5% C) 7% D) 6%
Ô. 1,200 gªm Ö«õ| kò¦Ý]_ Ô.1,348.32 gï \VÅ íâ| kâ½ sþ>D BVm?
A) 7.5% B) 6.5% C) 7% D) 6%
128. A sum of money becomes 1.331 times in 3 years as compound interest. The rate of interest is
A) 50% B) 8% C) 7.5% D) 10%
Îò Ø>Vçï J[® kò¦Ý]_ íâ| kâ½ sþ>Ý]_ 1.331 \¦ºïVþÅm ¨[ÅV_ ¶>[ kâ½ sþ>D
¨Ëká¡?
A) 50% B) 8% C) 7.5% D) 10%
129. A sum invested under compound interest doubles itself in 10 years. In how many years will it
become 8 times of the initial amount?
A) 80 years B) 40 years C) 30 years D) 20 years
íâ| kâ½ xçÅl_ x>Ü| ØÄFB©Ã⦠Îò Ø>VçïBVªm 10 gõ|ï¹_ ֫⽩ÃVþÅm
¨M_ Ø>V¦Âï ¶Äçé© ¼ÃV_ 8 \¦ºïVï ¨|Ým ØïV^ÓD kò¦D ¨Ëká¡?
A) 80 years B) 40 years C) 30 years D) 20 years
130. Find the compound interest on Rs. 50,000 at 16% per annum for 2 years compounded annually
A) Rs. 17,280 B) Rs. 16,280 C) Rs. 15,280 D) Rs. 14,280
Ô.50,000 ¶ÄKÂz 16% kâ½ T>Ý]uz 2 gõ|ï¹[ íâ|kâ½ ¨[ª?
5
A) Rs. 17,280 B) Rs. 16,280 C) Rs. 15,280 D) Rs. 14,280
131. A sum of money invested at compound interest amount to Rs.800 in 3 yrs. And to 840 in 4 yrs. find
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the rate of interest per annum?
A) 2 % B)4% C) 5% D) 6 %
Ô.800n íâ| kâ½ T>D 3 gõ|ïÓÂzD, Ô.840n 4 gõ|ïÓÂzD Îò kºþl_ ØÄKÝ]ªV_
ps
þç¦ÂzD kâ½ T>D ¨Ëká¡?
A) 2 % B)4% C) 5% D) 6 %
132. Calculate the compound interest on Rs.9,000 in 2 years when the rate of interest for successive
years are 10% and 12% respectively
A) Rs. 1,188 B) Rs.2,088 Tn C) Rs.4,396
Îò Ø>VçïÂz ¶|Ý>|Ý> gõ|ïÓÂz xçżB 10% \u®D 12% kâ½ T>Ý]_ Ô.9,000Âz 2
gõ|ïÓÂz Ø>V¦ì kâ½ ¨Ëká¡?
D) Rs.2,596
gõ| kâ½ ïðÂþ|D xçÅl_ ÔÃVF 9,600 ¶ÄKÂz 12% kâ½ T>Ý]_ 2 gõ| 4 \V>Ý]uz
þç¦ÂzD Ø>Vçï BVm?
A) Ô.12,253 B) Ô.12,524 C) Ô.12,853 D) Ô.12,653
ht
136. The compound interest on Rs.24,000 compounded half yearly for1 years at the rate of 10% per
annum is
A)Rs.3,483 B) Rs. 3,783 C) Rs.3,873 D) Rs. 3,973
¶ç«BVõ½uz Îò xçÅ kâ½ íâ|D xçÅl_Ô.24,000Âz gõئV[®Âz 10% kâ½ T>D 1
gõ|ï¹_ þç¦ÂzDíâ| kâ½
A) Ô.3,483 B) Ô.3,783 C) Ô.3,873 D) Ô. 3,973
137. The Principal that will yield a compound interest of Rs. 1632 in 2 years at 4% rate of interest per
annum is Rs.
A) 20,000 B) 25,000 C) 30,000 D) 35,000
4% gõ| kâ½ T>©Ã½ 2 gõ|ï¹_ Ô.1632 íâ| kâ½ >òD ¶Ä_ Ô.ŠŠŠŠgï ÖòÂzD.
A) 20,000 B) 25,000 C) 30,000 D) 35,000
138. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs.5,000 for 1 years at 4% per annum
compounded yearly and half- yearly?
A) Rs..2.04 B) Rs.3.06 C) Rs.4.80 D) Rs.8.30
5
4% gõ| kâ½ sþ>Ý]_, 1 gõ|ïÓÂz Ô.5,000ŠÂz gõ½uz Îò xçÅ ïðÂþ¦©Ã|D
c8
íâ| kâ½ÂzD, gõ½uz Ö«õ| xçÅ ïðÂþ¦©Ã|D íâ| kâ½ÂzD c^á sÝ]BVÄD ¨[ª?
A)Ô.2.04 B) Ô.3.06 C) Ô.4.80 D) Ô.8.30
139. At the rate of compound interest, a sum of money triples in two years. Then in how many years it
will become 27 times?
ps
A) 4 years B) 6 years C) 8 years D) 9 years
íâ| kâ½ ØÃòD Îò Ø>Vçï Ö«õ| kò¦Ý]_ J[® \¦ºïVþÅm. ¨M_ ¶m ¨Ý>çª
kò¦Ý]_ 27 \¦ºïVzD?
A) 4 gõ|ï^ B) 6gõ|ï^ C) 8 gõ|ï^ D) 9 gõ|ï^
B) 2361
Tn
140. Principal = 10000, r = 8% p.a, n = 2 years, interest compounded annually
A) 2363 C) 2362
Ô. 10,000 Âz 8% gõ| kâ½l_, 2 gõ|ïÓÂz Îò xçÅ kâ½Â ïðÂþ¦©Ãâ¦V_ þç¦ÂzD
D) 2360
e/
íâ| k⽊ŠŠŠŠŠ
A) 2363 B) 2361 C) 2362 D) 2360
141. The annual rate of growth in population of a town is 10%. If its present population is 26620, then
.m
144. Find the C.I on Rs.15000 for 3 years if the rates of interest are 15% , 20% and 25% for the I, II and
III years respectively
A) 10874 B) 10873 C) 10875 D) 10872
1,2,3 \u®D gõ|ïÓÂïVª kâ½T>ºï^ xçżB 15%, 20%, \u®D 25%, ¨M_ Ô. 15000Âz
3 gõ|ïÓÂz þç¦ÂzD íâ| kâ½çB ïVõï.
A) 10874 B) 10873 C) 10875 D) 10872
145. The bacteria in a culture grows by 5% in the first hour, decreases by 8% in the second hour and
again increases by 10% in the third hour. Find the count of the bacteria at the end of 3 hours, if its
5
initial count was 10000.
A) 10625 B) 10624 C) 10623 D) 10626
c8
Îò kçïBVª ÃVÂÏöBV x>éVkm 1 \è ¼å«Ý]_ 5% káìßE¥D 2km \è ¼å«Ý]_ 8% káìßE
z[¤¥D 3km \è ¼å«Ý]_ 10% káìßE¥D ¶ç¦þÅm Ø>V¦ÂïÝ]_ ¶>[ ¨õèÂçï 10,000
gï ÖòÍ>m ¨M_ 3 \è ¼å«Ý]uz ¸Åz ¶>[ ¨õèÂçï ïVõï.
A) 10625 B) 10624 C) 10623 D) 10626
ps
146. A sum of Rs. 12000 it becomes 13230 in an compound interest for 2 years. Find the rate of interests
A) 6% B) 4% C) 3 % D) 5%
íâ| kâ½l_ Ô.12,000 Ø>VçïBVªm 2 kò¦ºï¹_ Ô. 13,230 gï \VÅ gzD kâ½T>D ¨[ª?
A) 6% B) 4%
Tn C) 3 % D) 5%
147. Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest for Rs. 3000 at the rate interest
10% for 4 years
A) Rs. 192 B) Rs. 180 C) Rs. 194 D) Rs. 190
e/
Ô. 3000 Š ÂïVª 10% kâ½T>Ý]_ åV[z kò¦Ý]uz ïðÂþ¦©Ã|D íâ|kâ½ÂzD, >Mkâ½ÂzD
c^á sÝ]BVÄD ¨[ª?
A) Ô. 192 B) Ô. 180 C) Ô. 194 D) Ô. 190
.m
148. A sum of money invested at compound interest amount to Rs.4840 in 2 yrs. And to 5324 in 3 yrs.
find the rate of interest per annum?
A) 10% B) 5% C) 7. 5% D) 12%
Îò z¤©¸â¦ ¶Ä_ íâ| kâ½ xçÅl_ 2 gõ|ï¹_ 4840 gï¡D, 3 gõ|ï¹_ 5324 gï¡D
//t
5
5. A 5. D
23. C 23. A
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26. C 26. A
84. A 84. C
ps
¶|Ý>Ý ¼>ì¡ (ÖB_ Š 7) ÂïVª ÃV¦Ý]â¦D
(GR – II TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH) – 09.08.2021 / Monday
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1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| :
• ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 6 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD :
• ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 6 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
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3. ïè>D : ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 6 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
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s:
tp
ht
5
41 D 42 C 43 D 44 B 45 B 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 D
51 D 52 C 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 B 57 D 58 B 59 B 60 A
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61 C 62 A 63 A 64 A 65 D 66 B 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 D
71 A 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 D 79 A 80 A
81 B 82 A 83 D 84 A 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 A 90 A
91 A 92 A 93 C 94 A 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 D 99 A 100 A
ps
101 B 102 D 103 D 104 D 105 B 106 C 107 A 108 B 109 B 110 D
111 C 112 D 113 C 114 D 115 C 116 D 117 D 118 C 119 B 120 C
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 C 126 A 127 D 128 D 129 C 130 A
131 C 132 B 133 D 134 C 135 B 136 B 137 A 138 A 139 B 140 A
141 A 142 C 143 A 144 C 145
Tn
D 146 D 147 A 148 A 149 A 150 D
e/
.m
11 A 12 C 13 A 14 A 15 B 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 C
21 B 22 D 23 B 24 B 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 C
31 B 32 C 33 C 34 B 35 B 36 A 37 D 38 A 39 B 40 C
41 D 42 C 43 D 44 B 45 B 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 D
s:
51 D 52 C 53 B 54 C 55 D 56 B 57 D 58 B 59 B 60 A
61 C 62 A 63 A 64 A 65 D 66 B 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 D
tp
71 A 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 D 79 A 80 A
81 B 82 A 83 D 84 A 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 A 90 A
91 A 92 A 93 C 94 A 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 D 99 A 100 A
ht
101 B 102 D 103 D 104 D 105 B 106 C 107 A 108 B 109 B 110 D
111 C 112 D 113 C 114 D 115 C 116 D 117 D 118 C 119 B 120 C
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 C 126 A 127 D 128 D 129 C 130 A
131 C 132 B 133 D 134 C 135 B 136 B 137 A 138 A 139 B 140 A
141 A 142 C 143 A 144 C 145 D 146 D 147 A 148 A 149 A 150 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 1
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 10 / åV^ Š 21.08.2021
1.08.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
sªVÂï^ (150)
s:
5
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH – OFFLINE/ONLINE
c8
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 10) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
UNIT 8, UNIT 9, MATHS
3. k_éVìÂ
zöç\ cç¦Ý]Ë ¡éz ‡ ÖÂzŹ_ BVòÂz ÖË¡éïD cöç\
cç¦BØ>ª zÅ^ z¤©¸|þÅm.
A) À]Øå¤çB ¸[Ãu¤ 妩ÃkòÂz
B) \Â﹦D ¶ÅØå¤çB ë©AkòÂz
5
C) \ªÝ]_ ç>öBD cç¦BkìÂz
c8
D) å|WçéBVï ï¦ç\ >kÅV\_ Ö«ÂïD ïVâ|ÃkòÂz
ps
A) À]Øå¤ W[® sáºzÃkìï^
B) sòDÃÝ>zÍ> Ö«Âï ÖB_çàØïVõ¦kìï^
C) >Dt¦D c^á ØÄ_kÝç> ¶¹Ým ¸ÅòÂz c>¡Ãkìï^
D) yB ¨õðD ØïVõ¦kìï^ Tn
5. ÄöBVª xçÅl_ ¶ç\Í> zÅçá ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï.
e/
A) åV^¼>V®D åV½ \[ªk[ xçÅØÄFBV
åV^Ø>V®D Øï|D åV|.
.m
6.
s¦_' ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃV cðìÝmD ØÄF] BVm?
A) Ã鼫V| ÃçïØïVõ¦V_ Ãé\¦ºz yç\ cõ¦VzD.
ht
5
8. ¨Í> \[ª[ Ãçïkì Ö[¤¥D >V¼ª Øï|kV[ ¨ª k^Ókì
c8
z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) EÅÍ> gâEÝ]Åç\ Ö_éV>k[
B) EÅÍ> ¶ç\ßÄìï^ ØÃÅV> \[ª[
ps
C) >[ zuÅÝç> ïõ½Ým ]òÝmD ØÃöBVç«Ý mçðØïV^áV>
\[ª[.
D) ÄV[¼ÅVìïçá ÄöBVï \]ÂïV> \[ª[.
9. 'ïV\D
Tn
Økz¹ \BÂïD ÖçkJ[Å[' ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃVs_ \BÂïD ¨[ÐD
ØÄV_o[ ØÃVò^ BVm?
e/
A) Ø>¹¡ B) ¶¤¡ç¦ç\
C) EÅ©A D) ¶¤BVç\
.m
5
14. s_¼éì cwkì ÃçïØïV¹ÐD ØïV^áuï
c8
ØÄV_¼éì cwkì Ãçï” ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃVs_ BVòç¦B ÃçïçB
ØÃÅÂí¦Vm ¨ª k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) s_T«ö[ ÃçïçB
ps
B) ØÃòÞØÄ_kÍ>ö[ ÃçïçB
C) ØÄV_k[ç\ cç¦B ¶¤Qö[ ÃçïçB
D) guÅ_ WçÅÍ> T«ö[ ÃçïçB
15. “ c®©¸Ð^
Tn
BVm ØïV|ÝmD ØïVá_” ‡ Öºz BVç« ¨Í> ØÃV®©çÃÂ
e/
ØïV|Ý>Vkm mçðBVÂþÂ ØïV^á ¼kõ|Ø\ª ]òk^Ókì
z¤©¸|þÅVì?
A) >ªÂz c>sBVï Öò©Ãkç«
.m
16. “ \u®D>V[
s:
5
D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªkòD
c8
18. “ ¶kVØk[ÐD
m[ÃÝm^ m[ÃD Øï½[” ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃV cðìÝmD ØÃVò^ BVm?
ps
A) ¼Ã«VçÄ ØÃòÍm[ÃD cõ¦VÂzD
B) ¼Ã«VçÄ Ã|Ãk[ m[éÃ|kV[
C) ¼Ã«VçÄ Ø>VçéÍm¼ÃVªV_ Ö[ÃD Öç¦s¦V\_ kòD
Tn
D) ¼Ã«VçÄ Ã_¼k® m[úïÓÂz ïV«ð\Vï ¶ç\¥D
19. “BV>M[ BV>M[ ÀºþBV[ ¼åV>_” ‡ ¼\uïõ¦ zÅâÃVs_
¶½Â¼ïV½â¦ ØÄV_o[ ØÃVò^ >òï?
e/
A) m[ÃD B) \þµßE C) Ö[ÃD D) ¼ÄVì¡
.m
5
c8
23. “>VáVu¤Ý >Í> >ÂïVìÂz
ØÄF>_ ØÃVòâ|”. ‡ ¼\uïõ¦ zÅâÃVs_ ¼ïV½â¦ Ö¦Ýç>
W«©Aï.
ps
A) ØÄ_kØ\_éVD, c>s¦
B) ØÃVòØá_éVD, c>s¦
C) ØÄ_kØ\_éVD, ¼káVõç\
D) ØÃVòØá_éVD, ¼káVõç\
25. “ ¼>VuÅD
//t
5
¼káVõç\ ¨[ÐD ØÄòÂz Š ÖÂzŹ_ ¼káVõç\ ¨[ÐD ØÄV_
c8
z¤ÂzD ØÃVò^?
A) cw¡ B) c>s
C) gõç\l[ tz] D) c>kVÝ>[ç\
ps
29. Ã鼫V| Ãçïç\ ØïV^kç> ïVâ½KD ÃÝm \¦ºz yç\Ý >òkm?
A) ¶¤¡ç¦BVì åâçàçïs¦_
B) ¼Ãç>BVò¦[ åâA ØïVá_
C) å_ékì åâçàçïs¦_
D) ÄV[¼ÅVì åâçàçïs¦_
Tn
e/
30. Ãé ïu®D ï_éV>k«Vï ïò>©Ã|Ãkì?
A) οÂïD Ö_éV>kì
.m
B) ÃõA Ö_éV>kì
C) céïݼ>V| ÎÝm kVwV>kì
D) ØÃVÅVç\ zðD ØïVõ¦kì
//t
A) ÃVl«sB_ B) Ö_éÅsB_
C) ØÃVò¹B_ D) mÅsB_
tp
5
c8
34. xBuE Ö_éV>kö¦Ý]_ kÍm ¼Äìkm?
A) m[ÃD B) k®ç\
ps
C) ¼ÄVDÃ_ D) Öa¡
A) 1, 3 >k® 2, 4 Äö B) 2, 4 >k® 1, 3 Äö
C) 1, 3, 4 Äö 2 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
s:
tp
±_ï^
A) \è¼\ïçé B) Eé©Ã]ïV«D
C) \çéÃ|ï¦VD D) ØÃòDÃVðVu®©Ãç¦
5
39. ''ïVo[ °w½© ¸[ ØÄ[®'' ¨[Å ÃV¦_ ¶½ï^ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_?
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A) ØÃòDÃVðVu®©Ãç¦ B) ØÃVòå«Vu®©Ãç¦
C) AÅåVû® D) x_çé©ÃVâ|
ps
40. ¶]T««V\[ Ãu¤B íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.xÝm z¹ÂzD ØïVuçïl[ ¶«Äì Š ¶]T««V\ ÃVõ½Bì
2.Ökì ÖBu¤B ±_ Š å®ÍØ>Vçï
3.æké\VÅ[ ¨ª¡D ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅVì
A) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k®
C) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k®
TnB) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k®
D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
e/
41. ''kVáV_ ¶®Ým ·½ÐD \òÝmk[ ÃV_
\VáV> ïV>_ ¼åVBVá[ ¼ÃV_ \VBÝ>V_''
.m
A) 22 B) 23 C) 24 D) 25
tp
B) ÖçÅkM¦D zé¼Äï«VµkVì
C) \òÝmkö¦D ¼åVBV¹
D) ¼åVBV¹l¦D \òÝmkì
5
A) 61 B) 62 C) 63 D) 64
c8
46. ¼ïV©Ã«¼ïÄö ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|Ãkì?
A) x>éVD Ö«V¼ÛÍ]«[ B) x>éVD ëVÍ>ï[
ps
C) Ö«õ¦VD Ö«VÛÖ«VÛ[ D) sÛBVéB ¼ÄVw[
48.
A)3610 B) 3615 C) 3620 D) 3625
A) ¶ïÝ]BD B) Ø>V_ïV©¸BD
C) Ã[Mò æéD D) BV©ÃòºïéD
s:
51. ¶wþB ØÃöBk[ ¨¿]B ±o_ >twï ¶«· sòm ØÃuÅ A]ªD
A) zÅ| B) ØåöÂïâ|
C) >ï©Ã[ ØïV½ D) *^¼ïVðD
5
C) AéÝmçÅ xu¤B í¦Ùì þwVì
c8
D) Ã[ªV| >Í> ÃVõ½B[ \VÅ[ k¿]
ps
BVµkç«Ý >ºþ BVºz'' ¨[Å ÃV¦_ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_
A) ¶ïåVû® B) AÅåVû®
C) åu¤çð D) ïoÝØ>Vçï
54.
A) AÅåVû®
Tn
cç«BVEöBìï^ Ãé«VKD ¶]ï\Vï ¼\u¼ïV^ ïV⦩Ã⦠±_?
B) ¶ïåVû®
C) åu¤çð D) z®ÍØ>Vçï
e/
55. ''Aïµ ¨M[ clòº ØïV|Âzkì; ÃaØBM_
.m
A) \V>ºÿ«ªVì B) ¼ÃV>ªVì
C) ØÃòºïõðªVì D) >M\ïªVì
ht
5
A) ï.Ã. Äͼ>VÄD B) \çÅ\çé ¶½ï^
c8
C) k.c.E D) ØÄ_k ¼ïÄk«VB x>oBVì
60. ''ýkªVDÄD'' ¨[Å ±çé ¨¿]Bkì
A) ØÛBïVÍ>[ B) Amç\©¸Ý>[
ps
C) ¶w. k^¹B©ÃV D) E.·. ØÄ_é©ÃV
Tn
>tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD (TAMILNADU ADMINISTRATION)
5
c8
63. Select the incorrect option.
1. The directorate of Family Welfare was started in 1956.
2. The unit for dental treatment was started in 1970.
ps
A) 1 only incorrect B) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 2 only incorrect D) None of these
ØÃVòÍ>V>kuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
Tn
1. 1956-D gõ| z|Dà åé ÖBÂïD Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
2. 1970 Ã_ EþßçÄÂïVª >M¸ö¡ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D >k® B) 1, 2 >k®
e/
C) 2 \â|D >k® D) ¨m¡t_çé
.m
64. The amount of iodine required for the human body per day
A) 100 - 120 micro iodine
B) 100 - 150 micro iodine
//t
5
nd
66. Madras Medical College was started as the 2 medical college in India in
c8
the year
A) 1834 B) 1835 C) 1836 D) 1837
ÖÍ]BVs_ Ö«õ¦Vkm \òÝmk ï_ÙöBVï ØÄ[çª \òÝmk ï_Ùö
ps
¨Í> gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1834 B) 1835 C) 1836 D) 1837
67. Match :
A) 1 4 2 3
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 2 1 4 3
//t
D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï a b c d
s:
69. In 1994, the AIDS Control Society was formed for the first time at ________
in India
A) Kerala B) Punjab
C) Tamil Nadu D) Haryana
1994 ŠD gõ| ÖÍ]BVs_ x>[ xçÅBVï ¨Fâü ïâ|©ÃV| ĺïD
¨Í> \VWéÝ]_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) ¼ï«áV B) ÃÞÄV©
5
C) >tµåV| D) ÇöBVªV
c8
70. Statement1 :In 1639, Military Hospital was established in madras to treat the
wounded soldiers of the East India Company.
ps
Statement 2 :Medical and Rural health services was formed in 1999.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
Tn
íu® 1 Š 1639 ŠD gõ| þwÂþÍ]B ïDØÃMl[ Ãç¦T«ìïÓÂz ïVBD
°uÃâ¦V_ EþßçÄ ØÃÅ Ö«Vbk \òÝmk\çª ØÄ[çªl_
Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
e/
íu® 2 Š \òÝmkD \u®D »«ï åéÃè ÖBÂïD 1999 Š _
còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
.m
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
//t
71. Match
a) Tamil Nadu State Health Transport Department - 1. 2019
b) Tamil Nadu Medical Services Corporation - 2. 1981
s:
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
ht
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï
a) >tµåV| \VWé ·ïV>V« ¼ÃVÂzk«ÝmçÅ Š 1. 2019
b) >tµåV| \òÝmk Ãèï^ ïwïD Š 2. 1981
c) \òÝmk ÃèBVáì ¼>ì¡ kVöBD Š 3. 1994
d) >VF ¼ÄF åé©ØÃâ¦ïD Š 4. 2012
5
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
c8
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 1 2 3 4
ps
72. The scheme for pregnant mothers to identify and treat medicines and
diseases free of cost from the time of pregnancy till1 year age of the child
Tn
A) Rashtriya BalSwasthyaKaryakram(RBSK)
B) JananiShishuSurakshaKaryakaram(JSSK)
C) JananiSurakshaYojana (JSY)
e/
D) RashtriyaKishorSwasthyaKaryakram(RKSK)
.m
A) Dr.Kalaignar B) Dr.A.K.Shivan
C) Dr.Selvi. Jayalalithaa D) Dr. MyilsamyAnnathurai
""Ø>Vçé¼åVÂz >tµåV| 2023'' BVò¦[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm?
A) Dr. ïçéQì B) Dr.A.K. Ek[
C) Dr. ØÄ_s ØÛBéo>V D) Dr. \l_ÄVt ¶õðVmç«
5
c8
75. National Health Insurance Scheme "AyushmanBharat " offers insurance
coverage upto______lakhs
A) 2 lakhs B) 4 lakhs C) 5 lakhs D) 7 lakh
ps
¼>EB \òÝmk ïV©¬|]â¦\Vª ""g¥i\V[ ÃV«Ý]â¦D'' ¨Ý>çª éâÄD
kç« ïV©¬| ØÃÅ x½¥D
A) 2 éâÄD B) 4 éâÄD C) 5 éâÄD D) 7 éâÄD
A) 90: 70: 80
Tn
76. Global HIV targets should be achieved by 2020
B) 90: 90: 90 C) 90: 60: 80 D) 70: 80: 90
e/
HIV /Äìk¼>Ä ÖéÂzïçá 2020 ¨Ëká¡ ¶ç¦>_ ¼kõ|D?
A) 90 : 70 : 80 B) 90 : 90 : 90 C) 90 : 60 : 80 D) 70 : 80 : 90
.m
77. The Ayushman Bharat scheme was launched by Prime Minister Modi on
September 23, 2017 in the state
A) Kerala B) Haryana
//t
C) Jharkhand D) Punjab
g¥i\V[ ÃV«Ý]â¦D ØÄ©¦DÃì 23, 2017 ¶[® ¸«>\ì ¼\V½ ¶kìïáV_
¨Í> \VWéÝ]_ mkºþçkÂï©Ãâ¦m?
s:
A) ¼ï«áV B) ÇöBVªV
C) ÛVìïõâ D) ÃÞÄV©
tp
78. Which is the first state to have a separate Directorate for Public Health and
Preventive Medicine ?
ht
79. Statement1 : The Government of Tamil Nadu has been awarded for being the
leading State for Organ Donation5 consecutive years (2015 to 2019)
Statement 2 : The Government of Tamil Nadu was awarded by the Indian
Express Group on 05.10.2018 in appreciation of the maternal
and child health services.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
5
C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
íu® 1 Š c¦K®©A >VªD x>[ç\ \VWé\Vï sáºþB>uïVï
c8
Ø>V¦ìßEBVï 5 gõ|ï^ >tµåV| ¶«· sòm ØÃu®^ám
(2015 x>_ 2019 kç«)
íu® 2 Š >tµåV| ¶«E[ >VF ¼ÄF åé Ãèïçá ÃV«Vâ½ 05.10.2018 Š_
ps
Indian Express z¿\Ý>V_ sòm kwºï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
A) 1, 2 B) 3 C) 1, 4, 2 D) 1, 2, 3
81. Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act(COTPA) was enacted in the
ht
year
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2004
(COTPA) EïØ«â \u®D Ö>« Açïlçé© ØÃVòâï^ >|©A Äâ¦D
ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 2001 B) 2002 C) 2003 D) 2004
5
íu® Š ¼ÃV−[ ¶¸BV[ ]â¦D \Vìß 08, 2018 _ ÖÍ]B ¶«ÄV_
c8
mkºï©Ãâ¦m. \Ý]B ØÃõï^ \u®D zwÍç>ï^ ¼\DÃVâ|
¶ç\ßÄïD Ö>uz ØÃV®©ÃVzD.
ïV«ðD Š ÖÍ> ]â¦Ý][ ¼åVÂïD zõ¦Vï ÖòÂzD zwÍç>ïçá
ps
¨ç¦ zçÅ©Ãm, ¨ç¦ zçÅÍ> zwÍç>ï^ ¸Å©çà zçÅ©Ãm
gzD.
A) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
ØÃVòÍ>V>kuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
s:
5
íu® 1 Š \Ý]B ¶«E[ ·ïV>V« \u®D z|Dà åé ¶ç\ßÄïD EÅ©A
c8
""t−[ ÖÍ]«>Ði'' ¨ÐD ]â¦Ýç> Ø>V¦ºþBm.
íu® 2 Š ÖÝ]â¦Ý][ ¶çªÝm \Vk⦺ï¹KD s|©Ãâ¦
zwÍç>ïÓÂz >|©¯E kwºzD EÅ©A ]â¦D åV[z
ps
ï⦺ïáVï >twï ¶«ÄV_ ¶çªÝm \Vk⦺ï¹KD
WçżkuÅ©Ãâ|^ám.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö
C) 1, 2 >k® Tn
D) 2 \â|D Äö
85. Which year did the National Informatics Center, functioning under the
e/
Department of Electronics and Information Technology, created an app
called ArogyaSetu that provided awareness on coronavirus to the people?
.m
86. The scheme of Government of India that provide quality medicines to the
ht
5
87. World Health Organization has certified the eradication of RanaJanni or
c8
Tetanus from Tamil Nadu in the year
A) 2004 B) 2005 C) 2006 D) 2007
céï ·ïV>V« W®kªD >tµåVâ½_ ÖòÍm «ðÛ[M ¶ïuÅ©Ãâ½uz
ps
¨Í> gõ| ÄV[® ¶¹Ý>^ám?
A) 2004 B) 2005 C) 2006 D) 2007
eradicate polio.
Tn
88. Statement 1 :Polio camp was introduced in the state in 1995-1996 to
5
C) ¸.çkÂïVü D) ¸.μk_
c8
90. National Malaria Eradication Program launched in Tamil Nadu in the year
A) 1951 B) 1952 C) 1953 D) 1954
ps
>tµåVâ½_ ¼>EB \¼éöBV Îa©AÝ]â¦D ¨Í> gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1951 B) 1952 C) 1953 D) 1954
confirmed it on
A) December 27, 2019
Tn
91. China realized the spread of a new type of viral infection called corona and
93. Corona virus infection has been detected first in_______district of Tamil
Nadu
A) Kanyakumari B) Salem
C) Kanchipuram D) Chennai
94. Which state topped the health index released by NITI Aayog in 2019?
A) Delhi B) Tamil Nadu
5
C) Kerala D) Punjab
c8
2019-_ W] g¼BV Øk¹l⦠·ïV>V« ¶¤Âçïl_ x>_ Ö¦D ¸½Ý>
ÖÍ]B \VWéD?
A) ئ_o B) >tµåV|
ps
C) ¼ï«áV D) ÃÞÄV©
95. Which Scheme provide Nutritious food kit for pregnant and lactating women
in Tamil Nadu?
A) Amma Baby care kit Tn
B) Amma Maternity Nutrition Kit Scheme
C) Mother Baby Disease Prevention Program
e/
D) Amma Arogya scheme
.m
96. Which scheme aiming at early diagnose and treat 30 types of diseases from
birth to 18 years of age of a child?
A) Janani Suraksha Yojana
ht
5
97. Choose the incorrect option.
c8
1. National Tb Prevention Program was launched in 1999.
2. The Toll free mobile number that provide transport facilities during
childbirth is 104.
ps
A) 1 only incorrect B) 2 only incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) None of these
C) 1, 2 >k® D) ¨m¡t_çé
D) Ministry of Agriculture
¼ÃV−[ ¶¸BV[ ]â¦Ýç> ØÄB_Ã|ÝmD \Ý]B ¶ç\ßÄïD?
tp
5
C) ØïV¼«VªV D) ئºz
c8
100. Choose the correct answer
1. TAMPCOL – 1983
ps
2. World Health day – April 27
3. Mobile medical units - 2016
A) 2 & 3 true B) 1 only true
C) 2 only true
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. TAMPCOL - 1983
Tn D) All are true
e/
2. céï ØÃVm ·ïVV« åV^ Š °©«_ 27
3. å¦\V|D \òÝmk\çª ]â¦D Š 2016
.m
A) 2, 3 \â|D Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
//t
101. When did Chief minister Health care insurance scheme merged with
Ayushman Bharath scheme?
s:
ÖçðÂï©Ãâ¦gõ| ¨[ª?
A) 2019 B) 2017 C) 2016 D) 2018
ht
5
103. The Birth and Death in India should be registered within.
c8
A) 25 days B) 14 days C) 7 days D) 21 days
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¸Å©A \u®D ÖÅ©A Wïµçk ¨Ý>çª åVâï¹_ Ã]¡ ØÄFB
¼kõ|D?
ps
A) 25 åVâï^ B) 14 åVâï^ C) 7 åVâï^ D) 21 åVâï^
ØÄFï.
1. 24, \Vìß 2020_ åV| x¿km 144 >ç¦ cÝ>«¡ ¶\_Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
2. ÖÍ]BVs_ x>[ x>o_ ØïV¼«VªV çk«ü ÃV]©A Ûªkö 17, 2020
s:
¶[® ïõ¦¤B©Ãâ¦m.
3. \Ý]B ¶«· ¼åVF Ø>Vu® ¶]ï\Vªç> Ø>V¦ìÍm 14 \Vìß, 2020 ¶[®
tp
5
åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m
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B) 2005 \VWé åékVµ¡ mçÅ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m
C) 2011 cð¡ ÃVmïV©A mçÅ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m
D) 2012 ¼>EB åékVµ¡ z¿\D >tµåVâ½_ åç¦xçÅÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦m
ps
106. Statement: Transplant authority was formed in 2014.
Explanation: Without the Recommendation of transplant Authority, No
Tn
organ transplantation operation will takes place in Tamilnadu
A) Both statement & Explanation are true
B) Statement is true, explanation in wrong
e/
C) Both statement & explanation are false.
D) Statement is false, explanation is true
íu® : 2014gD gõ| ¨[Å c¦K®©A \Vu®ÂïVª gçðÂz¿
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còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
sáÂïD : TRASTAN gçðBÝ][ ÃöÍmçÅ Ö_éV\_ >tµåVâ½[
¨Í>ØkVò c¦K®©A \Vu® ¶®çk EþßçÄ¥D å¦Ý> ÖBéVm.
A) íu®, sáÂïD Äö B) íu® Äö, sáÂïD >k®
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
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a. ¶D\V g¼«VÂþB ]â¦D ‡ 1. 2012 A) 2 4 3 1
b. \V>s¦VF ïVé ·ïV>V« ]â¦D ‡ 2. 2016 B) 2 1 4 3
c. å¦\V|D \òÝmk\çª ]â¦D ‡ 3. 8.9.2015 C) 3 2 1 4
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d. ¶D\V zwÍç> åé Ãö· ØÃâ¦ïD ‡ 4. 2011-12 D) 4 1 2 3
109. TAMPCOL related to?
A) Birth control scheme B) AIDS control society
C) Family welfare directorate
Homeopathy Directorate
Tn D) India medical and
C) z|DÃ åé ÖBÂïïD
D) ÖÍ]B \òÝmk, ¼ÇVt¼BVÃ] ÖBÂïïD
110. Choose the correct answer
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2025. .
D) all are true
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ÄöBVªç> ¼>ìÍØ>|:
A) 2025Âz^, 5 kBmÂzâÃ⦠zwÍç>ï¹[ ÖÅ©A sþ>Ýç> 23 gï
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zçÅÝ>_
B) ØÃõï¹[ \塚î sþ>Ýç> 2020Âz^ 100 gï zçÅÝ>_
C) 2025Âz^, 28 åVâïÓÂz^ ÖÅÂzD zwÍç>ï¹[ ÖÅ©A
sþ>Ýç> ÎuçÅ ÖéÂï\Vï \Vu®>_.
D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
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g¥ü\V[ ÃV«Ý ]â¦D ¨ºz, ¨Í> gõ| mkºï©Ãâ¦m?
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A) ÛVìïõâ 23, ØÄ©¦DÃì 2017
B) cÝ]«¸«¼>ÄD 23 ØÄ©¦DÃì 2017
C) ÄâÏüïì 22 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2017
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D) ¬ïVì 21 åkDÃì 2017
zçÅÝ>_
C) yÂïVBÝ]ªV_ °uÃ|D clöw©çà 3-_ 2 úïVï zçÅÝ>_
D) s−©¯ßEï^ ゥÃ>V_ °uÃ|D clöw©Aïçá 3_ 2 úïVï
s:
zçÅÝ>_
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ØÃVòÝmï.
kBm >|©A \òÍm
a. 1 - 6 kV«D ‡ 1. ØÃ[¦V¼kéõâ, ¼ÃVo¼BV ¼«â¼«V
b. 10 km \V>D ‡ 2. >â¦Dç\, ÔØÃ_éV, JçáïVFßÄ_
c. 5 kBm ‡ 3. ½.¸.½
d. 10 kBm ‡ 4. ½½
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a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
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B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
ps
114. The Mission of “Indira Dhanush” is
A) To Impart training to differently abled children.
B) Scholarship for women.
C) To Protect the abandoned baby.
Tn
D) To vaccinate the abandoned baby.
e/
't−[ ÖÍ]«>Ði' ]â¦Ý][ ¼åVÂïD?
A) \Vu® ]ŪV¹ zwÍç>ïÓÂz ÃluE
B) ØÃõïÓÂz ï_s c>sÝ Ø>Vçï
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ðÍm
ØÄB_Ã|þÅm?
A) ·ïV>V«D, z|Dà åé ¶ç\ßÄïD
B) \òÝmk ï_s ÖBÂïïD
C) \òÝmkD \u®D »«ï åéÃè ÖBÂïïD D) \VWé å_kVµ¡ mçÅ
116. Which organization provide learn, teach and training to the medical college
students?
A) Directorate of Medical Education
B) Directorate of Medical Rural Health services
C) Directorate of Public Health and Prevention
D) Directorate of Family Welfare.
\òÝmk ï_Ùö \VðkìïÓÂz ïuÅ_, ïu¸Ý>_, ÃluE kwºïÂí½B
5
¶ç\©A ¨m?
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A) \òÝmk ï_s ÖBÂïïD
B) \òÝmkD \u®D »«ï åéÃè ÖBÂïïD
C) ØÃVm ·ïV>V«D \u®D ¼åVF >|©A ÖBÂïïD
ps
D) z|DÃ åé ÖBÂïïD
117. By which the birth and death was registered in municipality before the birth
and death registration act 1969?
A) Madras Panchayat Act 1899
B) Municipality Act, 1920
Tn
C) Corporation Act, 1919
e/
D) Registration Act, 1961
¸Å©A ÖÅ©A Ã]¡ Äâ¦D 1969 ØïVõ| kòk>uz x[¼Ã ¼ÃÔ«VâE
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118. Recently Tamilnadu government increased the period of maternity leave for
s:
C) 13 month D) 14 month
Ä*ÃÝ]_ >twï ¶«· \ï¹ì ¶«· »aBìïjÂïVª ¼Ã®ïVé s|©A
9 \V>ºï¹_ ÖòÍm ¨Ý>çª \V>ºïáVï cBìÝ]Bm?
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A) 11 \V>ºï^ B) 12 \V>ºï^
C) 13 \V>ºï^ D) 14 \V>ºï^
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A) þòiðþö B) ]ò©¯ì C) ïVÞEA«D D) >ì\Aö
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120. Which is/are the reason/s for the success for “The Tamil Nadu Model” of
ps
Public Health?
1.Tamil Nadu was the first state to enact a Public Health Act in 1939.
2.Creation of distinctive Public Health System at district level.
Tn
3.Good Political commitment and leadership in Health sector.
4.Heavily Centralized Health systems.
A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only
e/
C) 4 only D) 1, 2 and 3 only
.m
ïè>D / MATHS
121. A can finish a job in 3 days where as B finishes it in 6 days. The time taken
to complete the job together is __________days.
A)1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
A ¨[Ãkì Îò ¼kçéçB 3 åV^ï¹KD B ¨[Ãkì 6 åV^ï¹KD
5
x½©Ãì ¨M_, ÖòkòD Î[ÅVïß ¼ÄìÍm ¶Í> ¼kççB ‡‡‡‡‡‡‡x½©Ãì
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A)1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
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________ days.
A)5 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
5 åÃìï^ 5 ¼kçéïçá 5 åV^ï¹_ ØÄFmx½©Ãì ¨M_, 50 åÃìï^ 50
¼kçéïçᇇ‡‡åVâï¹_ ØÄFm x½©Ãì
A)5 B) 2
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e/
123. A can do a work in 24 days. A and B together can finish the work in 6 days.
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A)5 B) 7 C) 6 D) 8
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124. A alone can do a piece of work in 35 days. If B is 40% more efficient than
A, then B will finish the work in ___________days.
A) 25 days B) 24 days C) 23 days D) 21 days
ht
125. A soap factory produces 9600 soaps in 6 days working 15 hours a day. In
how many days will it produce 14400 soaps working 3 hours more a day?
A) days B) days C) days D) days
5
è¼å«D ¼kçé ØÄFm 14400
¼ÄV©Aïçá >BVöÂï ¶>uz ¨Ý>çª åV^ï^ gzD?
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A) åV^ï^ B) åV^ï^ C) åV^ï^ D) åV^ï^
ps
126. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, while B and C can do it in 15
days whereas A and C can do it in 20 days. How long would each take to do
the same work?
Tn
A) a – 20 days, b – 20 days, c- 20 days
B) a – 40 days, b – 10 days, c- 50 days
C) a – 10 days, b – 30 days, c- 40 days
e/
D) a – 30 days, b – 20 days, c- 60 days
A \u®D b gþ¼BVì Îò ¼kçéçB 12 åV^ï¹KD b \u®D c gþ¼BVì
¶ç> 15 åV^ï¹_ a \u®D cgþ¼BVì ¶ç> 20 åV^ï¹KD x½©Ãì
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127. A man takes 10 days to finish a job where as a woman takes 6 days to finish
tp
the same job. Together they worked for 3 days and then the woman left . In
how many days will the man complete the remaining job?
ht
128. 5 boys or 3 girls can do a science project in 40 days. How long will it take
for 15 boys and 6 girls to do the same project?
A) 8 days B) 2 days C)4 days D) 5 days
5\Vðkìï^ ¶_ém 3 \Vðsï^ Îò ¶¤sB_ ]â¦D ØÄBçé
40 åV^ï¹_ x½©Ãì.15 \Vðkìï^\u®D 6 \Vðsï^ ¶¼>
]â¦ßØÄBçé x½Âï ¨Ý>çª åV^ïáVzD
A) 8 åVâï^ B) 2 åVâï^ C)4 åVâï^ D) 5 åVâï^
5
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129. A mat of length 180 m is made by 15 women in 12 days. How long will it
take for 32 women to make a mat of length 512 m?
A) 16 B) 24 C)36 D) 14
ps
180* Àáx^á Îò ÃVlçª 15 ØÃõïá[ 12 åV^ï¹_ ØÄF>ªì. 512 *
Àáx^á Îò ÃVlçª 32 ØÃõï^ ØÄFB ¨Ý>çª åV^ï^ gzD?
A) 16 B) 24 C)36 D) 14
Tn
130. If 48 men working 7 hours a day can do a work in 24 days, then in how
many days will 28 men working 8 hours a day can complete the same work?
e/
A) 16 B) 24 C)36 D) 14
48 gõï^ Îò ¼kçéçB åVØáV[®Âz 7 \è ¼å«D ¼kçé ØÄFm
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131. P and Q can do a piece of work in 20 days and 30 days respectively. They
started the work together and Q left after some days of work and P finished
s:
the remaining work in 5 days. After how many days from the start did
Q leave?
tp
A) 9 B) 18 C)21 D) 15
P \u®D Q gþ¼BVì Îò ¼kçéçB xçżB 20 \u®D 30 åV^ï¹_
ht
5
\è¼å«Ý]_ x½©Ãì?
A) 6 B) 4 C)5 D) 3
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133. P and Q can do a piece of work in 12 days and 15 days respectively. P
started the work alone and then after 3 days, Q joined him till the work
ps
was completed. How long did the work last?
A) 8 days B) 4 days C)5 days D) 3 days
P \u®D q gþ¼BVì Îò ¼kçéçB xçÅçB 12 \u®D 15
Tn
åV^ï¹_ x½©Ãì pgªkì ¶Í> ¼kçéçBÝ >M¼BÝ Ø>V¦ºþB ¸Åz,
3 åV^ï^ ïaÝm qgªkì kò¦[ ¼ÄìÍm ¼kçéBVªm x½¥D kç«
¶kò¦[ ÖòÍ>Vì ¨M_ ¼kçéBVªm ¨Ý>çª åV^ï^ x½Í>m?
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A) 8 åV^ï^ B) 4 åV^ï^
C)5 åV^ï^ D) 3 åV^ï^
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134. A can do a work in 45 days. He works at it for 15 days and then, B alone
finishes the remaining work in 24 days. Find the time taken to complete
//t
A) 8 åV^ï^ B) 4 åV^ï^
C)16 åV^ï^ D) 36 åV^ï^
135. If a company pays `6 lakh for 15 workers for 20 days, how much would it
need to pay for 5 workers for 12 days?
A) 1.2 lakh B) 1.1 lakh
C) 1.5 lakh D) 1.3 lakh
5
5 ¼kçéBV^ïÓÂz 12 åV^ïÓÂz »]B\Vï kwºï ¨Ëká¡Ý
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Ø>Vçï ¼>çk?
A) 1.2 ÖéâÄD B) 1.1 ÖéâÄD
C) 1.5 ÖéâÄD D) 1.3 ÖéâÄD
ps
136. X, Y and Z can do a piece of job in 4, 6 and 10 days respectively. If X,Y
137. In a camp there are 420 kg of rice sufficient for 98 persons for 45 days.
The number of days that 60 kg of rice will last for 42 persons is _____.
A) 14 B) 15 C) 17 D) 9
Îò xïVt_ 98 åÃìïÓÂz 45 åV^ïÓÂz ¼ÃVm\Vª 420 þ.þ. ¶öE
c^ám ¨M_, 42 åÃìïÓÂz 60 þ.þ. ¶öBVªm ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ åV^ïÓÂz
\â|¼\ ¼ÃVm\Vª>VzD.
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A) 14 B) 15 C) 17 D) 9
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138. 276 men had provision for 20 days, How many men leave so that the
provision may last for 46 days.
ps
A) 156 B) 120 C) 152 D) 150
276 ¼ÃòÂz 20 åVâïÓÂz ¼>çkBVª cð¡ ØÃVòâï^ çkÝ]òÍ>ªì.
¶Í> ØÃVò^ 46 åV^ï^ À½Âï ¼kõ|D ¨M_ ¨Ý>çª ¼Ãì Øk¹¼B
ØÄ_é ¼kõ|D.
A) 156 B) 120 Tn C) 152 D) 150
139. A man, a women and a boy can do a piece of work in 6, 9 and 18 days
e/
respectively. How many boys must assist one man and one woman to the
work in 1 day?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 9
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D)13
{ì ¼kçéçB Îò gõ, Îò ØÃõ \u®D Îò çÃB[ xçżB 6, 9
\u®D 18 åVâï¹_ x½©ÃVìï^¨M_ Îò gbD \u®D Îò ØÃõbD
¨Ý>çª çÃB[ï^ mçðAöÍ>V_ Îò åV¹_ ¼kçéçB x½Âï x½¥D?
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A) 5 B) 6 C) 9 D)13
s:
140. If 12 men and 16 boys can do a piece of Work In 5 days. 13 men and 24
boys can do it in 4 days. The ratio of the daily work done by a man to that of
tp
a boy is
A)2:1 B) 3:1 C) 3:2 D) 5:4
ht
141. Two taps can fill a tank in 30 minutes and 40 minutes respectively. Another
tap can empty it. In 24 minutes, If the tank is empty and all the three taps are
kept open in how much time the tank will be filled?
A) 1 hour B) 3 hours C) 2 hours D) 4 hours
Îò Ø>Vâ½çB Öò zwVFï^ >MÝ>M¼B xçżB 30 Wt¦ºï^,
40 Wt¦ºï¹_ W«©Aþ[Åm. \uØÅVò zwVF Àì W«D¸B Ø>Vâ½çB
5
24 Wt¦ºï¹_ ïVo ØÄF¥D Ø>Vâ½ ïVoBVï ÖòÍm ÖDJ[®
zwVFï¹_ μ« Ä\BÝ]_ ]ÅÍm s¦©Ãâ¦V_ ¶ÝØ>Vâ½ ¨Ý>çª
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Wt¦ºï¹_ W«DAD
A) 1 \è B) 3 \èï^
C) 2 \èï^ D) 4 \èï^
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142. A can do a piece of work in 7 days of 9 hours each and B can do it in 6 days
of 7 hours each. How long will they take to do it, Working together
8 hours a day?
A) 4 days
Tn B) 5 days
e/
C) 3 days D) 4 days
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C) 3 åVâï^ D) 4 åVâï^
tp
143. A alone can do a work in 10 days and B alone in15 days. They
undertook the work for 20,000. The amount that A will get is ________.
A) 11000 B) 12000 C)13000 D)10000
ht
144. P alone can do of a work in 6 days and Q alone can do of the same work
in 4 days. In how many days will they finish of the work, working
together?
A) 8 days B) 4 days C) 3 days D) 36 days
5
P ¨[Ãkì >M¼B Îò ¼kçél[ Ãz]çB 6 åV^ï¹KD Q ¨[Ãkì
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>M¼B ¶¼> ¼kçél[ Ãz]çB 4 åV^ï¹KD x½©Ãì, ÖòkòD
ÖçðÍm ¶Í> ¼kçél[ Ãz]çB ¨Ý>çª åV^ï¹_ x½©Ãì
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A) 8 åV^ï^ B) 4 åV^ï^ C)3 åV^ï^ D) 36 åV^ï^
145. X alone can do a piece of work in 6 days and Y alone in 8 days. X and Y
A) 600 B) 800
Tn
undertook the work for 4800. With the help of Z, they completed the work in
3 days. How much is Z’s share?
C) 500 D) 300
e/
X ¨[Ãkì >M¼B Îò ¼kçéçB 6 åV^ï¹KDy ¨[Ãkì >M¼B
¶¼> ¼kçéçB 8 åV^ï¹KD x½©Ãì x\u®Dy gþ¼BVì ÖÍ> ¼kçéçB
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146. 120 men had provision for 200 days, after 5 days 30 men died. the
remaining food will last for.
s:
147. 2 men and 7 boys can do a piece of work in 14 days, 3 men and 8 boys can
do the same in 11 days. 8 men and 6 boys can do 3 times the amount of this
work in
A) 21 åVâï^ B) 18 åVâï^
C) 24 åVâï^ D) 36 åVâï^
5
2 gõï^ \u®D 7 E®kìï^ Îò ¼kçéçB 14 åVâï¹_ ØÄFm
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x½Âþ[Ūì. \u®D 3 gõï^ \u®D 8 E®kìÂá ¶¼> ¼kçéçB
11 åVâï¹_ ØÄFm x½Âþ[Ūì. ¨M_ 8 gõï^ \u®D 6
E®kìï^ ¶Í> ¼kçéçB© ¼ÃV_ 3 \¦ºz ¼kçéçB ¨Ý>çª
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åVâï¹_ ØÄFm x½©Ãì?
A) 21 days B) 18 days
C) 24 days D)36 days
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148. A,B and C can do a piece of work in 36, 54 and 72 days respectively. They
started the work but A left 8 days before the completion of work
While B left 12 days before the completion. The number of days for
e/
which C worked.
A) 24 B) 26 C) 28 D) 30
A,B,C ¨[Å J[® ¼Ãì Îò ¼kçéçB xçżB 36, 54, 72 åVâï¹_
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A)24 B) 26 C) 28 D) 30
149. A works 3 times as fast as B and is able to complete a work in 24 days less
s:
than the days taken by B. Find the time in which they can complete the work
together.
tp
A) 9 B) 10 C) 20 D) 11
A gªkì B ¨[Ãkç«Â ïVâ½KD ¼kçé ØÄFk]_ 3 \¦ºz ¼kï\Vªkì.
¶k«V_ ¶Í> ¼kçéçB B ¨|Ým ØïVõ¦ ¼å«Ýç> s¦ 24 åV^ï^
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150. If 32 men working 12 hours a day can do a work in 15 days, then how many
men working 10 hours a day can do double that work in 24 days?
A) 32 B) 48 C)12 D) 42
32 gõï^ åVØáV[®Âz 12 \è ¼å«D ¼kçé ØÄFm Îò ¼kçéçB 15
åVâï¹_ x½©Ãì. ¨M_
¶Í> ¼kçél[ Öò \¦ºçï ¨Ý>çª gõï^ åVØáV[®Âz 10\è ¼å«
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D ¼kçé ØÄFm 24
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A) 32 B) 48 C)12 D) 42
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(GR – II TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH) – 25.08.2021 / Wednesday
1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| :
• ĺï ïVéD x>_ ÖÂïVéD kç«léVª >tµ ÖéÂþB k«éV®
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Where to Study
ÖB_ Š 11:
5
25.08.2021 (A>[ þwç\):
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köçÄ ÃV¦D kz©A
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1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV|
ĺï ïVéD x>_ ÖÂïVéD kç«léVª >tµ ÖéÂþB k«éV®
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(12ŠgD kz©A ØÄF¥^ & ]òÂzÅ^)
2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD
>twï AslB_ í®ïÓD ØÃVòáV>V«
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10-D kz©A ÄJï ¶¤sB_
10-D kz©A ÄJï ¶¤sB_
3. ïéVßÄV«D (\) ¶«EB_ AslB_ 12-D kz©A ÄJï ¶¤sB_
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UNIT – 9 GOVERNMENT MATERIAL PDF
z¤©A : ¼\uzöB ¶çªÝm >ïk_ïÓD Î[ÅVï ]«â½ gïVi AÝ>ïD (>tµåV| káìßE
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5
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31 B 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 D
41 B 42 C 43 B 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 D 48 B 49 B 50 D
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51 C 52 A 53 D 54 D 55 C 56 B 57 C 58 B 59 B 60 D
61 C 62 B 63 C 64 B 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 B 69 C 70 C
71 A 72 B 73 C 74 B 75 C 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 C
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91 B 92 B 93 C 94 C 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 B
101 D 102 D 103 D 104 C 105 D 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 D 110 D
111 A 112 C 113 A 114 D 115 A 116 A 117 B 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 A 125 A 126 D 127 B 128 A 129 A 130 C
131
141
A
A
132
142
B
C
133
143
A
B
134
144
C
C
135
145 Tn
A
A
136
146
A
B
137
147
B
A
138
148
A
A
139
149
D
A
140
150
A
B
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11 D 12 A 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 B
21 D 22 C 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 C 30 C
31 B 32 B 33 A 34 B 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 D
s:
41 B 42 C 43 B 44 C 45 D 46 C 47 D 48 B 49 B 50 D
51 C 52 A 53 D 54 D 55 C 56 B 57 C 58 B 59 B 60 D
61 C 62 B 63 C 64 B 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 B 69 C 70 C
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71 A 72 B 73 C 74 B 75 C 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 C
91 B 92 B 93 C 94 C 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 B
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101 D 102 D 103 D 104 C 105 D 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 D 110 D
111 A 112 C 113 A 114 D 115 A 116 A 117 B 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 A 125 A 126 D 127 B 128 A 129 A 130 C
131 A 132 B 133 A 134 C 135 A 136 A 137 B 138 A 139 D 140 A
141 A 142 C 143 B 144 C 145 A 146 B 147 A 148 A 149 A 150 B
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 411 þçáï^...
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
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TNPSC GROUP – II
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(ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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5
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 5) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
>tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD (TAMILNADU ADMINISTRATION)
1. Statement 1: "Entrepreneur" is an Innovator of new ideas and business processes.
C) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1: ''Ø>Va_ x窼kVì'' ¨[Ãkì A]B EÍ>çªïÓD, kèï ØÄB_xçÅïÓÂzD AÝ>VÂïD
D) 1, 2 incorrect
e/
AçªÃkì gkVì.
íu® 2: Ø>Va_ x窼kVì >ºï^ Ø>Vaçé ØÃòÂzk>uïVª ØÄB_xçÅï¼á ''Ø>Va_ x窡''
¨ª©Ã|D.
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5
3. >tµåV| Ø>Va_ ¼\DÃVâ| ïwïD
4. >tµåV| ¶«· Ø>Va_ x[¼ªuÅ ïwïD.
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A) 3 2 1 4 B) 2 3 1 4 C) 4 3 1 2 D) 1 4 3 2
5. Choose the correct answer.
1. Madras Export Processing zone is one of the seven Export Processing Zones established by the
Government of India.
ps
2. Madras Export Processing zone was established in 1984.
3. Madras Export Processing zone headquarters is located at GST Road, in Tambaram near to
Chennai.
A) Only 1 correct
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
B) 2 only correct
TnC) 1, 2 only correct D) All correct
1.Ø\â«Vü °u®\] ØÄBéVÂï ç\BD \Ý]B ¶«· ¶ç\Í> °¿ °u®\] ØÄBéVÂï \õ¦éºï¹_
Öm¡D Î[® gzD.
2.Ø\â«Vü °u®\] ØÄBéVÂï ç\BD 1984gD gõ| còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
e/
3.Ø\â«Vü °u®\] ØÄBéVÂï ç\BÝ][ >çéç\BïD ØÄ[çª ¶|Ý> >VDëD GST ÄVçél_
¶ç\Ím^ám.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
.m
6. Sivakasi is located at ______ district which specializes at crackers, matches, printing etc.
A) Tirunelveli B) Thoothukudi C) Virudhunagar D) Sivagangai
Ãâ¦V·ï^, y©ØÃâ½ï^, ¶ßE|>_ ¼ÃV[Åku¤_ EÅ©ÃVï sáºzD EkïVE åï«D ¶ç\Í> c^á
\Vkâ¦D?
//t
c. Trichy - 3. Ilandaikulam C) 1 4 3 2
d. Coimbatore - 4. Navalpattu D) 1 2 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. (>ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ØÃVòáV>V« \õ¦éD) a b c d
a.ØÄ[çª Š 1. ¼ÄVaºïå_Ùì A) 1 2 3 4
b.\mç« Š 2. sáVºz¤ßE B) 1 3 4 2
c.]òßE Š 3. ÖéÍç> záD C) 1 4 3 2
d.¼ïVBDAÝ#ì Š 4. åVk_Ãâ| D) 1 2 4 3
5
1. The Stand Up India project is a project to set up a Green field Enterprise.
2. The Stand Up India project was launched on January 16, 2016.
c8
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct
C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
ps
1.ü¦Võâ ¶© ÖÍ]BV ]â¦D ¨[Ãm ÃßçÄ A_Øk¹ W®kªD ¶ç\©Ã>uïVª ]â¦D gzD.
2.ü¦Võâ ¶© ÖÍ]BV ]â¦D Ûªkö 16, 2016gD gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
12. Which is the leading district in leather exports in India?
A) Erode B) Dindigul
Tn
¼>V_ØÃVòâï^ °u®\]l_ ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B x>[ç\ \Vkâ¦\Vï ]ïµkm?
A) ~¼«V| B) ]õ|Âï_
13. Choose the incorrect option.
C) ¼kÙì
C) Vellore
D) ØÄ[çª
D) Chennai
e/
A) Coimbatore is known as the “Manchester of South India”
B) Tamil Nadu is home to the largest weaving industries in India
C) Erode doing well in knitwear manufacturing
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b. Turmeric - 2. Erode B) 1 2 4 3 5
c. Iron - 3. Salem C) 1 2 3 5 4
d. Printing - 4. Trichy D) 1 2 5 4 3
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e. Boiler - 5 Sivakasi
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a.EØ\õâ Š 1. ¶öBÙì A) 1 2 3 4 5
ht
b.\ÞÄ^ Š 2. ~¼«V| B) 1 2 4 3 5
c.ÖòDA Š 3. ¼ÄéD C) 1 2 3 5 4
d.¶ßE|>_ Š 4. ]òßE D) 1 2 5 4 3
e.ØïV]ïé[ Š 5 EkïVE
15. Truck Body building Industry are located at _____ district
A) Salem B) Coimbatore C) Chennai D) Namakkal
·ç\ #ÂzD kVïªÂ ïâ|\Vª Ø>Va_ÄVçéï^ ¶ç\Ím^á \Vkâ¦D?
A) ¼ÄéD B) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì C) ØÄ[çª D) åV\Âï_
5
A) 1975 B) 1972 C) 1973 D) 1978
¼ÄéD ÖòDA ¨àz gçé ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ|?
c8
A) 1975 B) 1972 C) 1973 D) 1978
19. Choose the correct answer.
1. The concept of the "Industrial District" was developed by Alfred Marshall.
ps
2. The concept of the Industrial District was popularized in the year
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) Both are correct D) Both are incorrect
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.''Ø>Va_ \Vkâ¦D'' ¨[Å ïòÝç> g_หâ \Vì−_ còkVÂþªVì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö Tn
2.1980gD gõ| Ø>Va_ \Vkâ¦D ¨[Å ïòÝm ¸«Ãé\VÂï©Ãâ¦m.
C) Ö«õ|D Äö
20. The 'Start Up India Project' launched in the year
A) 5, April 2007 B) 16 Jan, 2006
D) Ö«õ|D >k®
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2
\çÅÀì °u®\]l_ céï ¶ás_ ÖÍ]BV ¨Ý>çªBVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2
tp
23. Assertion A : Northeast monsoon is the major source of water for Tamil Nadu.
Reason R : Northeast monsoon gives rainfall in Tamil Nadu in the month of October-December
ht
5
A) 1, 2 \â|D Äö B) 1, 3 \â|D Äö C) 2, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
25. What is the percentage of irrigated area out of total cultivated area in Tamil Nadu?
c8
A) 62% B) 24% C) 57% D) 48%
>twïÝ]_ Ãlì ØÄFB©Ã|D ë©Ãás_ ÃVĪ kÄ] ØîD ë©Ãás[ Ä>T>D ¨[ª?
A) 62% B) 24% C) 57% D) 48%
26. Statement 1: The net cultivated area in Tamil Nadu is 45,44,000 hectares.
ps
Statement 2: One in 100 farmers in Tamil Nadu are scheduled caste.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct
C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
A) 1 \â|D Äö
C) Ö«õ|D Äö
Tn
íu® 1: >twïÝ]_ Wï«\Vï Ãlì ØÄFB©Ã|D ë©Ãá¡ 45,44,000 ØǼ¦ìï^ gzD.
íu® 2: >twïÝ]_ skÄVBD ØÄFÃkìï¹_ ±u¤_ Îòkì Ãâ½BoªÝ>kì.
B) 2 \â|D Äö
D) Ö«õ|D >k®
27. Which food crop is cultivated in the largest area next to paddy?
e/
A) Corn B)Ragi C) Maize D) Bajra
Øå_KÂz ¶|Ý>©Ã½BVï ¶]ï ë©Ãás_ ÄVzý ØÄFB©Ã|D cð¡ Ãlì ¨m?
A) ¼ÄVáD B) ¼ïµk«z C) \ÂïVß¼ÄVáD D) ïDA
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29. Match. a b c
a. Wells - 1. 62% A) 1 2 3
b. Canals - 2. 24% B) 1 3 2
s:
C. Lakes - 3. 14% C) 2 3 1
D) 3 1 2
tp
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c
a.þð®ï^ Š 1. 62% A) 1 2 3
b.kVFÂïV_ Š 2. 24% B) 1 3 2
ht
c.°öï^ Š 3. 14% C) 2 3 1
D) 3 1 2
30. Choose the correct answer.
1. Agriculture depends heavily on ground water in Tamilnadu.
2. Crops can be classified into food crops &non-food crops.
3. Only one per cent of the total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is used for cultivation.
A) All correct B) 1, 2 only correct
C) 1, 3 only correct D) Only 2, 3 are correct
5
>tµåVâ½_ c^á ¼káVõ ïVéWçé \õ¦éºï^ ¨õèÂçï ¨Ý>çª?
A) 5 B) 3 C) 7 D) 4
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32. Choose the incorrect option.
A) Tamil Nadu is the largest producer of Loose flowers in India
B) Tamil Nadu is the second largest producer of paddy in India
C) Tamil Nadu is the third largest producer of pepper in India.
ps
D) Tamil Nadu is the fourth largest banana producer in the country
>kÅVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) >twïD ¼>EB ¶ás_ c]ö¯Âï^ cuÃÝ]l_ x>o¦Ý]_ c^ám
Tn
B) >twïD ¼>EB ¶ás_ Øå_ cuÃÝ]l_ Ö«õ¦VD Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám
C) >twïD ¼>EB ¶ás_ táz cuÃÝ]l_ J[ÅVD Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám
D) >twïD ¼>EB ¶ás_ kVçw cuÃÝ]l_ åV[ïVD Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám
33. The largest Eco-friendly paper mill in Asia is located at
A) Chennai B) Surat C) Mumbai D) Karur
e/
gEBVs¼é¼B tï©ØÃöB ·u®ßówKÂz ÃV]©¸_éV> ïVþ> W®kªD ¶ç\Ím^á Ö¦D ¨m?
A) ØÄ[çª B) ó«Ý C) xDçà D) ïÔì
34. Which district has the largest number of Sago manufacturing companies in Tamil Nadu?
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A) Ranipet B) Ambur
C) Rajapalayam D) Sankagiri
>twïÝ]_ ¶®çk EþßçÄ ØÃVòâï^ >BVöÂzD Ø>Va_ ÄVçé ¶ç\Ím^á Ö¦D?
s:
A) 3 B) 5 C) 8 D) 9
W] g¼BV 2020 Š ¶¤Âçïl[ >tµåV| ·ïV>V«Âz¤Xâ½_ ¨Ý>çªBVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
A) 3 B) 5 C) 8 D) 9
ht
37. Assertion A : Tamil Nadu is the largest textile manufacturing center in India.
Reason R : Tamil Nadu is known as the "Yarn Bowl" of India.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A & R correct
C) A incorrect, R correct D) A & R incorrect
íu®: >tµåV| ÖÍ]BVs[ tï©ØÃöB Û¡¹ cuÃÝ] ç\B\VzD.
ïV«ðD : >tµåV| ÖÍ]BVs[ ''±_ þõðD'' ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD >k®
5
3.ïVuÅ¿Ý> sçÄ zwVF Š ¼ÄéD
A) 2 \â|D >k® B) 1, 3 \â|D >k® C) 2, 3 \â|D >k® D) 1, 2 \â|D >k®
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39. Match. a b c d
a.Minor Port - 1. Trichy A) 4 1 3 2
b.International Airport - 2. 23 B) 2 1 3 4
c. Metro Rail Service - 3. Chennai C) 3 4 1 2
ps
d. State Highways - 4. 28 D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.E®mçÅxïD Š 1. ]òßE
b.Äìk¼>Ä s\Vª WçéBD
c.Ø\⼫V Ö«l_ ¼Äçk
d.\VWé Øå|ÞÄVçéï^
a b c d
Š
Š
Š
2.
3.
4.
23
ØÄ[çª
28
Tn
A) 4 1 3 2
e/
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 3 4 1
.m
45. Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Act was introduced in the year
A) 2007 B) 2006 C) 2005 D) 2010
z®, E® (\) å|Ý>« W®kªºï^ Äâ¦D ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠gõ| ¨[ª?
A) 2007 B) 2006 C) 2005 D) 2010
46. The value of Per capita income in Tamil Nadu is
A) $ 1670 B) $ 2200 C) $ 1443 D) $ 2175
>tµåVâ½[ >MåÃì kò\VªÝ][ \]©A ¨[ª?
A) 1670 ¦Véì B) 2200 ¦Véì C) 1443 ¦Véì D) 2175 ¦Véì
47. The number of rivers flows in Tamil Nadu
5
A) 17 B) 16 C) 15 D) 18
>tµåVâ½_ c^á g®ï¹[ ¨õèÂçï ¨Ëká¡?
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A) 17 B) 16 C) 15 D) 18
48. Which ore only available in Madurai district in India?
A) Bauxite B) Rutile
ps
C) Monazite D) Molybdenum
ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B \mç« \Vkâ¦Ý]_ þç¦ÂïÂí½B μ« >Vm ¨m?
A) ÃVÂçÄâ B) Ôâç¦_ C) ¼\VçÄâ D) \Vo©½ªD
49. The Government of Tamil Nadu has _______levels of health infrastructure
A) Two B) Three
Tn
C) Five
>twï ¶«· ¨Ý>çª ¶|Âz c¦_åé ¶½©Ãç¦Â ïâ¦ç\©çàØïVõ|^ám?
A) Ö«õ| B) J[®
50. Choose the correct option.
C) nÍm D) ¨â|
D) Eight
e/
1. The infant mortality rate in Tamil Nadu is 14.
2. The National Food Security Act was introduced in Tamil Nadu on November 1, 2016.
3. According to 2018, Tamil Nadu ranks 11th in the Human Development Index.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
51. Statement 1: J.C. Kumarappa called as Green Gandhi
s:
Statement 2: According to the nature of the work, the body will get the same amount of food as it
needs, if properly promoted and implemented – J.C. Kumarappa
tp
íu® 2: ¼kçél[ >[ç\Âz °uà ÄöBVï »ÂzsÝm ØÄB_Ã|Ý]ªV_ ¶¼> ¶ásuz c¦KÂz
¼>çkÂz cð¼k þç¦Âï ØÄF¥D Š J.C. z\V«©ÃV
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
52. Which is the shortest National Highway in Tamil Nadu?
A) NH-44 B) NH-47 A C) NH-785 D) NH - 3
>tµåVâ½[ tï zçÅkVª ÀáD ØïVõ¦ ¼>EB Øå|ÞÄVçé ¨m?
A) NH – 44 B) NH – 47 A C) NH – 785 D) NH – 3
53. Who said that “Hunger alone in India is not enough for political priority”?
A) J.C.Kumarappa B) Amartya Sen C) Thiruvalluvar D) Gandhiji
''ÖÍ]BVs_ ÃE ¨[Å Î[® \â|¼\ ¶«EB_ x[Ðöç\Âz ¼ÃVm\Vª>Vï Ö_çé'' ¨ª í¤Bkì?
A) J.C.z\V«©ÃV B) ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[
C) ]òk^Ókì D) ïVÍ]B½ï^
54. Match : a b c d
a. Tamil Nadu Bhoodan Yagna Act - 1. 1956 A) 4 3 1 2
b. Tamil Nadu Tenant Protection Act - 2. 1958 B) 2 4 1 3
c. Tamil Nadu Tenants Act - 3. 1969 C) 4 1 2 3
5
d. Tamil Nadu Agricultural Labourer Fair wages Act - 4. 1955 D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
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a. >tµåV| ¯>Vª BVݪV Äâ¦D Š 1. 1956 A) 4 3 1 2
b.>tµåV| zÝ>çï >V«ì ÃVmïV©A Äâ¦D Š 2. 1958 B) 2 4 1 3
c. >tµåV| zÝ>çï>V«ì Äâ¦D Š 3. 1969 C) 4 1 2 3
ps
d.>tµåV| ¼káVõ Ø>VaéVáì WBVB »]Bß Äâ¦D Š 4. 1955 D) 2 1 4 3
55. Which districts have the highest number of power looms?
A) Salem, Dharmapuri B) Salem, Kalakurichi
C) Salem, Erode D) Salem, Namakkal
¶]ï ¶áséVª t[>¤ ¶ézï^ ïVð©Ã|D \Vk⦺ï^?
A) ¼ÄéD, >ò\Aö
C) ¼ÄéD, ~¼«V|
Tn
B) ¼ÄéD, ï^áÂz¤ßE
D) ¼ÄéD, åV\Âï_
56. Which is the main manufacturing center of domestic & global carpets?
e/
A) Bhavani, Kumarapalayam B) Bhavani, Salem
C) Erode, Tirupur D) Coimbatore, Erode
c^åVâ| (\) céïáséVª >ç« sö©Aïçá cuÃÝ] ØÄF¥D xÂþB ç\BD ¨m?
.m
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
>tµåV| Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]l_ ¨Ý>çªBVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
60. SPIC is located in?
A) Thirunelveli B) Thothukudi C) Kanyakumari D) Trichy
SPIC ¶ç\Ím^á Ö¦D?
A) ]òØå_¼ko B) #ÝmÂz½ C) ï[MBVÂz\ö D) ]òßE
61. Statement 1: The Justice Party conference was held in Salem in 1944.
Statement 2 : As per the resolutions brought by Periyar ,"Justice Party" was renamed as
"Dravidar Munnetra Kazhagam".
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect
C) 1, 2 Incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
5
íu® 1: 1944gD gõ| ¼ÄéÝ]_ À]ÂïâE \VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅm.
íu® 2: ¶D\VåVâ½_ ØÃöBVì ØïVõ| kÍ> yì\Vªºï^ý ''À]ÂïâE'', '']«Vs¦ x[¼ªuÅ ïwïD''
c8
¨ª ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
62. In the 1937 elections, the Congress party won ______seats in the Legislative Assembly and _____
ps
in Legislative Council.
A) 215, 46 B) 215, 26 C) 152, 26 D) 155, 46
1937gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ¼>ì>o_ Äâ¦Äçà \u®D Ä⦼\éçkl_ ïVºþ«ü ïâE ØÃuÅ
Ö¦ºï^.................
A) 215, 46 B) 215, 26 C) 152, 26 Tn D) 155, 46
63. Find the incorrect option. (Justice Party Reforms)
A) Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani medical education was encouraged
B) Free compulsory education was introduced in Salem for the first time
e/
C) Education of the Depressed Classes was handed over to the Labour Welfare Department.
D) None
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ØÃVòÍ>V> Î[çÅ ïVõï. (À]ÂïâEl[ æì]òÝ>ºï^)
.m
64. Who pointed out that Tamils had created great civilization before the arrival of Aryans in the book,
THE TAMIL 1800 YEARS AGO?
A) Robert Caldwell B) V. Kanagasabai
s:
65. Statement 1: The forerunner of the Justice Party was the Madras United League.
Statement 2: It was renamed as Madras Dravidian association in November 1912
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
íu® 1: À]ÂïâEl[ x[¼ªV½ ØÄ[çª nÂþB ïwï\VzD.
íu® 2: Öm 1912 åkDÃì \V>Ý]_ ØÄ[çª ]«Vs¦ ĺïD ¨[® ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÃuÅm.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
66. Match. a b c d
a.Andhra University - 1. 1929 A) 1 3 2 4
b.Annamalai University - 2. 1926 B) 1 2 3 4
c.HinduReligious endowment act - 3. 1922 C) 2 1 3 4
d.Madras state to aid industries Act - 4. 1921 D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.gÍ]«© Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 1. 1929
b.¶õðV\çé Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 2. 1926
c.ÖÍm Ä\B ¶ÅWçéBßÄâ¦D Š 3. 1922
5
d.ØÄ[çª ¶«ÄVºï Ø>VauÄVçéï^ c>sßÄâ¦D Š 4. 1921
a b c d
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A) 1 3 2 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 2 1 4 3
ps
67. Examine the following statements.
1. The Justice Party came to power by winning elections in 1920 based on the Montagu-Chelmsford
reforms.
2. The Justice Party won 63 of the 98 seats in the Madras Legislative Council.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct
C) 1, 3 correct 2 Incorrect
Tn
3. A. Subbarayalu Reddiyar formed the ministry after 'Pitti Thiyagaraya Chetty' refused to lead the
cabinet.
B) 1, 2 correct 3 Incorrect
D) 1, 2, 3 incorrect
e/
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.\Võ¼¦z Š ØÄDü¼ÃVì| æì]òÝ>ºï¹[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ å¦Ý>©Ã⦠1920gD gõ| ¼>ì>_ï¹_
Øku¤ ØÃu® À]ÂïâE gâEÂz kÍ>m.
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71. Assertion A: The responsibility of ruling the province given to the Indian ministers who won and
took office in the elections.
Reason R : Provincial Autonomy was introduced under the Government of India Act, 1919
A) A & R correct B) A correct, R incorrect
C) A & R incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ¼>ì>o_ Øku¤ØÃu® Ã>s °uzD ÖÍ]B ¶ç\ßÄì﹦¼\ \VïVðÝç> gâE ØÄF¥D
ØÃV®©A ¨[Å Wçé ¼>V[¤Bm.
ïV«ðD: 1919gD gõ| ÖÍ]B ¶«· Ä⦩ý \VïVð ·BVâE ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
5
C) íu®, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
72. Statement 1: The Staff Selection Board was formed in 1924 by the Panagal ministry
c8
Statement 2: It was change into the Public service Commission in 1929.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
íu® 1: 1924gD gõ| êï_ ¶ç\ßÄ«çkBV_ ÃèBVáì ¼>ì¡Â ïwïD còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
ps
íu® 2: ÖÍ> ¶ç\©A 1929_ ÃèBVáì ¼>ì¡ gçðB\Vï \VuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
C) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
Tn
73. Statement 1: In 1916, the "South Indian Liberal Federation" was established to fulfill the political
objectives of non-Brahmin caste Hindus.
Statement 2: Other Tamil magazine that supported the Justice Party is "Justice"
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
e/
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: 1916gD gõ| ¸«V\ðì ¶_éV> ÛV] ÖÍmÂï¹[ ¶«EB_ ¼åVÂïºïçá
Wçżku®>uïVï ''Ø>[MÍ]B åé cöç\ ĺïD'' ¼>Vu®sÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: À]ÂïâEçB g>öÝ> \uØÅVò >tµ ÃÝ]öÂçï ''Ûü½ü''.
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2.The Elementary Education Act was amended in 1934 and the quality of elementary education was
improved in 1935.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
s:
2.1934gD gõ| mkÂï ï_s Äâ¦D ]òÝ>©Ãâ| 1935_ mkÂï ï_sl[ >«D ¼\DÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k® C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
75. Find the incorrect option :
ht
5
D) >twïÝ]_ ÖòØ\Va ØïV^çïçB åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý]ªVì
77. Arrange the Chief Ministers of Madras Province in Chronological order
c8
1. Raja of Bobbili 2.K.V.Reddy 3.P.Munusamy 4.P.T.Rajan 5.Panagal Raja
A) 5 4 2 3 1 B) 5 3 2 4 1 C) 4 3 5 2 1 D) 5 3 1 4 2
ØÄ[çª \VïVð x>éç\ßÄìïçá köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï.
ps
1.ØÃV©¸o «VÛV 2.¼ï.s.Ø«â½ 3.¸.xÐÄVt 4.¸.½. Ö«VÄ[
5.êï_ «VÛV
A) 5 4 2 3 1 B) 5 3 2 4 1 C) 4 3 5 2 1 D) 5 3 1 4 2
78. Assertion A : DMK decided to observe January 26, 1965 as the day of mourning.
A) A & R correct
C) A incorrect, R correct
Tn
Reason R : Hindi was made the official language of India under the Government of India Act on
26th August 1965.
B) A correct, R incorrect
D) A & R incorrect
íu®: 1965gD gõ| Ûªkö 26gD åVçá ].x.ï mÂï ]ª\Vï ¶ÐÄöÂïÝ yì\VMÝ>m.
e/
ïV«ðD : 1965gD gõ| gïü| 26gD åV^ ÖÍ]B ¶«· ¶ç\©¸[ Äâ¦Ý][ ý ÖÍ] Ø\Va
ÖÍ]B åVâ½[ ¶Kkéï Ø\VaBVï gÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
.m
81. Which is not one of the reasons for the winning of Indian National Congress in the Madras
Provincial Elections in 1937?
A) The decline of the Justice Party B) Periyar's refusal to enter politics
C) Growing Gandhi's popularity D) None
ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«çÄ 1937gD gõ| ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ ¼>ì>o_ Øku¤ØÃÅß ØÄF>
ïV«ðºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V> Î[çÅ ïVõï.
A) À]ÂïâEl[ TµßE B) ¶«EBo_ ØÃöBVì OçwB \®Ý>_
C) káìÍm kÍ> ïVÍ]l[ Aïµ D) ¨m¡t_çé
82. Congress government led by T. Prakasam formed the government in Madras Presidency in the year
5
A) 1946 B) 1947 C) 1949 D) 1942
ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ]_ >.¸«ïVÄD >çéç\léVª ïVºþ«· ¶«ÄVºïD gâE ¶ç\Ý> gõ|?
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A) 1946 B) 1947 C) 1949 D) 1942
83. Statement 1: The Madras Presidency was established for the political and administrative needs of
the British in South India.
ps
Statement 2: Madras Presidency established in 1805 AD
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1incorrect, 2correct
íu® 1: Ø>[MÍ]BVs[ ØÄ[çª \VïVðD gºþ¼éBö[ ¶«EB_, WìkVïÝ ¼>çkïÓÂïVï
¼>Vu®sÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: ØÄ[çª \VïVðD þ.¸. 1805_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 >k®
B) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k®
D) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö
Tn
84. Assertion A : Periyar was also called as Siraiparavai.
e/
Reason R : Periyar went to prison thirty-three times in fifteen years.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
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C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ØÃöBVì ''EçÅ©ÃÅçk'' ¨ª ¶ç¦Ø\Valâ| ¶çwÂï©Ãâ¦Vì.
ïV«ðD: ØÃöBVì Ã]çªÍm gõ|ï¹_ x©ÃÝm J[® xçÅ EçÅ ØÄ[ÅVì.
//t
87. After the election process, how many times did M G Ramachandran elect as the Chief Minister?
A) Once B) two times C) three times D) four times
¼>ì>_ åç¦xçÅÂz© ¸Åz ¨D.÷. Ö«V\ßÄÍ]«[ ¨Ý>çª xçÅ x>éç\ßÄì Ã>sÂz
¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ãâ|^áVì?
A) ÎòxçÅ B) Ö«õ| xçÅ C) J[® xçÅ D) åV[z xçÅ
88. In which year did the Government of Tamil Nadu function under the Governor of the State before
Independence?
A) 1945, October 20 - December 30 B) 1946, October 20- April 30
C) 1944 October 20 - April 30 D) 1943 , October 20 - December 30
5
·>Í]«Ý]uz x[ >tµåV| ¶«· \VWé gÓåö[ ÿµ ØÄB_Ã⦠kò¦D?
A) 1945 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 20 - ½ÄDÃì 30 B) 1946 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 20 - °©«_ 30
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C) 1944 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 20 - °©«_ 30 D) 1943 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 20 - ½ÄDÃì 30
89. Examine the following statements.
1. In 1944, a conference was held in Salem under the chairmanship of Periyar.
ps
2. A talented orator, C.N. Annadurai passed a historic resolution by changing justice party into
Dravidar Kazhagam
3. Periyar convened the Dravidian conference and demanded a separate state called 'Dravida Nadu “
for the Dravidians.
A) 1, 2 correct 3 incorrect
C) 1, 2, 3 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.1944gD gõ| ØÃöBVì >çéç\l_ ¼ÄéÝ]_ \VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅm.
Tn
B) 1 correct 2, 3 Incorrect
D) 1 incorrect 2, 3 correct
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1 >k® 2, 3 Äö
90. Hindi was made as the official language of India under _____article of the Constitution of the India
A) 313 B) 310 C) 311 D) 312
ÖÍ]B ¶«· ¶ç\©Aß Äâ¦Ý][ ¨Í> c®©¸[ ý ÖÍ] Ø\Va ÖÍ]B åVâ½[ ¶Kkéï
//t
Ø\VaBVï gÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 313 B) 310 C) 311 D) 312
91. The party that won the general election in 1967 was
s:
92. Match : a b c d
a.Anti-Hindi agitation - 1. 1949 A) 1 3 4 2
ht
5
C) Reforming Hinduism and increasing the influence of the Brahmins
D) Protecting Dravidian community from the domination of Aryan culture
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ÿµÂïõ¦ íu¤_ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ïVõï. (·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝ][ ¼åVÂïºï^)
A) ]«Vs¦ Äx>VBÝç> æì]òÝmkm \u®D ¶>çª cõç\BVª ÃzÝ>¤¡ç¦B>VÂz>_
B) ]«Vs¦ìï¹[ Ãõç¦B >tµ ÃõÃVâ½çª ¶kìïÓÂz ïu¸Ý>_
ps
C) ÖÍm \>Ýç> æì]òÝmkm¦[ ¸«V\ðìï¹[ ØÄ_kVÂþçª ¶]ïöÝ>_
D) göB ÃõÃVâ½[ g]ÂïÝ]_ ÖòÍm ]«Vs¦ ÄJïÝç> ïV©ÃVu®>_
95. Choose the correct reasons for the decline of the Justice Party
1. Justice party lost support from the depressed and minority people.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct
C) 1, 2 correct 3 incorrect
Tn
2. The self-respect movement led by Periyar was a very revolutionary reform movement.
3. Its inclination towards higher castes and British.
B) 1 correct 2, 3 incorrect
D) None
e/
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ À]ÂïâEl[ TµßEÂïVª ïV«ðºï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
1.Î|Âï©Ã⦠\u®D E®ÃV[ç\ ¸ö¡ \Âï¹ç¦¼B g>«çk ÖwÍ>m.
2.ØÃöBVì >çéç\l_ ÖòÍ> ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïD tï¡D A«âEï«\Vª æì]òÝ> ÖBÂï\Vªm.
3.cBìz½lª \u®D gºþé g>«¡ ïõ¼ðVâ¦D
.m
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k®
C) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® D) ¨m¡t_çé
96. Who started the Non-Brahmin movement in Maharashtra?
//t
98. Statement 1 : The name Justice Party was named after the English magazine "Justice".
Statement 2: The Justice Party was in power continuously from 1921 to 1937
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct 2 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: À]ÂïâE ¨[Å ØÃBì gºþé Ö>wVª ''Justice'' ¨[Ã>[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ØÃBö¦©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: À]ÂïâE 1921 x>_ 1937 kç« Ø>V¦ìßEBVï ¶]ïV«Ý]_ ÖòÍ>m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
C) íu® 1 >k®, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
5
A) Formation of Congress ministry under Rajaji - 1937
B) First General Election held in the year - 1955
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C) C.N. Annadurai's Death - 1969
D) Justice Party - 1917
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu¤_ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ïVõï.
ps
A) «VÛV÷l[ >çéç\l_ ïVºþ«· ¶ç\ßÄ«çk còkVÂï©Ã|>_ Š 1937
B) x>_ ØÃVmÝ ¼>ì>_ åç¦ØÃuÅm Š 1955
C) E.¨[. ¶õðVmç« ïVé\Vª gõ| Š 1969
D) À]ÂïâE Š 1917
A) 1921 B) 1922 Tn
101. Irrigation schemes created in the year ______, during the rule of the Justice Party
C) 1923
À]ÂïâEl[ gâEl[ ¼ÃVm Àì©ÃVÄªÝ ]⦺ï^ còkVÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1921 B) 1922 C) 1923 D) 1927
D) 1927
e/
102. Statement 1: Periyar started the self-respect movement in 1925.
Statement 2: The self-respect movement also acted with political motives.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
.m
5
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ÄöBVï ØÃVòÍ>V> Î[çÅ ïVõï.
A) \çéBVá© Ãz]ï^ Š ¼ï«áV B) ï[ª¦© Ãz]ï^ Š ç\óì
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C) Ø>Kºz Ãz]ï^ Š ïìåV¦ïV D) ¨m¡t_çé
107. Assertion A : Non-Brahmin leaders in madras presidency decided to start a non-Brahmin
association.
ps
Reason R : Indian National Congress, the major political party at that time, was dominated by the
Brahmins.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
Tn D) A incorrect, R correct
íu®: ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ]_ c^á ¸«V\ðì ¶_éV> >çékìï^ ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì ¶«EB_
¶ç\©A Î[¤çª mkºï WçªÝ>ªì.
ïV«ðD : ¶ÂïVéÝ]_ x>[ç\BVª ¶«EB_ ïâEBVª ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ÄVªm ¸«V\ðìï¹[
g]ÂïÝ]_ ÖòÍ>m.
e/
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD gzD
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
.m
108. In the first election in 1920, the Indian National Congress boycotted the elections because of
A) Khilafat Movement B) Non-cooperation movement
C) Salt Satyagraha D) RowlattAct
1920gD gõ| å¦Í> x>_ ¼>ì>o_ ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü ¼>ì>çé AÅÂïèÂï ïV«ðD
//t
............ gzD.
A) þéVÃÝ ÖBÂïD B) ÎÝmçwBVç\ ÖBÂïD
C) c©Aß ÄÝBVþ«ïD D) Ø«áéâ Äâ¦D
s:
109. Which language’s knowledge was the basic qualification for medical education during the Justice
Party rule ?
tp
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113. Who published the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
A) C. Nadesanar B) P. Thiagarayar C) T M Nair D) Panagal Raja
¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì ¸«ï¦ªÝç> Øk¹lâ¦kì?
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A) E. 弦ĪVì B) ¸. ]BVï«VBì C) ½.¨D.åVBì D) êï_ «VÛV
114. “No Taxation without representation” said by
A) C. Natesanar B) T.M. Nair C) P.T. Chetty D) Munusamy
¸«]W]ÝmkD Ö[¼Å_ köl_çé ¨[® í¤Bkì BVì?
ps
A) E. 弦Ä[ B) ½.¨D.åVBì C) Äì.¸â½ ]BVï«VBì D) xÐÄVt
115. After which election a New Political post called Korada was created?
A) 1920 B) 1921 C) 1923 D) 1926
¨Í> gõ| å¦Í> ¼>ì>KÂz ¸[ ïâE ØïV«¦V ¨[Å A]B ïâE© Ã>s còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1920 B) 1921 C) 1923 Tn D) 1926
116. In which year the ban on women contesting elections has been lifted?
A) 1921 B) 1920 C) 1925
¨Í> gõ| ¼>ì>o_ ¼ÃVâ½l¦ ØÃõïÓÂz s]Âï©Ãâ½òÍ> >ç¦ ÀÂï©Ãâ¦m?
D) 1923
e/
A) 1921 B) 1920 C) 1925 D) 1923
117. Match the following. a b c
a.Justice – 1. Bakthavatchalam A) 1 2 3
b.Andhra Pradesh – 2. T.M. Nair B) 3 2 1
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b.gÍ]«¸«ïVÄV Š 2. T.M.åVBì B) 3 2 1
c.]«Vs¦[ Š 3. ÃVìÝ>ÄV«] åV¥| C) 2 3 1
D) 3 1 2
118. Hindu religious Endowment Bill was Introduced in the year?
s:
121. Simple Interest on a certain sum is of the sum. The rate percent, if the percent and time (in years)
are equal, is
A) 6% B) 8% C) 10% D) 12%
Îò Ø>VçïÂïVª >Mkâ½BVªm ¶ÝØ>Vçïl[ \¦ºïVï c^ám. ¼\KD kâ½BVªm
5
¶ásuz Ä\\Vï ÖòÍ>V_ ¶Í> kâ½ ¨Ëká¡?
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A) 6% B) 8% C) 10% D) 12%
122. The simple interest on Rs.68,000 at 16 % per annum for 9 months
A) Rs. 1,200 B) Rs. 8,050 C) Rs. 8,500 D) Rs. 1,020
ps
gõ|Âz 16 % T>D 68,000Âz 9 \V>Ý]uïVª >M kâ½BVªm
A) Ô.1,200 B) Ô.8,050 C) Ô. 8,500 D) Ô.1,020
123. Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in 3 years at simple interest. If the interest rate is increased by 3%, it
would amount to
A) Rs. 1056 B) Rs. 1112
Tn C) Rs. 1182
Ô.800 gªm >Mkâ½l_ 3 kò¦Ý]_ Ô.920 gþÅm. kò¦ kâ½ 3% cBìÝ>©Ãâ¦V_ ¶¼>
ïVéÝ]_ þç¦ÂzD Ø>Vçï ¨Ëká¡?
A) Ô. 1056 B) Ô. 1112 C) Ô.1182 D) Ô. 992
D) Rs. 992
e/
124. If a sum of amount double in 9 years then the rate of interest per annum is
A) 9 % B) 10 % C) 11 % D) 12 %
Îò Ø>Vçï 9 kò¦ºï¹_ ֫⽩ÃVþ[Åm ¨M_ kâ½ sþ>\Vªm
.m
A) 9 % B) 10 % C) 11 % D) 12 %
125. At simple interest, a-sum becomes 3 times in 20 years. Find the time, in which the sum will be
double at the same rate of interest.
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126. The rate of interest on a sum of money is 4% per annum for the first 2 years, 6% per annum for the
next 4 years and 8% per annum for the period beyond 6 years. If the simple interest accrued by the
tp
5
A) 2.10 B) 0.80 C) 1.20 D) 1.50
130. The simple interest on a sum of money will be Rs. 200 after 5 years. In the next 5 year principal
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amount is tripled. What will be the total interest at the end of the 10th year?
A) Rs. 800 B) Rs. 650 C) Rs. 700 D) Rs. 600
Îò Ø>VçïÂïVª >M kâ½BVªm 5 kò¦Ý]_ Ô. 200 ¶ç¦þÅm. ¶|Ý> 5 kò¦Ý]_ x>Üâ|
Ø>VçïBVªm 3 \¦ºïVþÅm ¨M_ 10 kò¦ x½s_ þç¦ÂzD Ø\VÝ> kâ½ Ø>Vçï ¨Ëká¡?
ps
A) Ô.800 B) Ô.650 C) Ô.700 D) Ô.600
131. A sum of Rs. 48,000 was lent out at simple interest and at the end of 2 years and 3 months the total
amount was Rs. 55,560. Find the rate of interest per year.
A) 7% B) 8%
Tn C) 9%
寧Vï kwºï©Ã⦠¶Ä_ Ô.48,000Âz 2 gõ|ï^ 3 \V> ïVéÝ]uz© ¸[ >Mkâ½ JéD
ØÃÅ©Ã⦠Ø\VÝ>Ý Ø>Vçï Ô. 55,560 gï ÖòÍ>m ¨M_, kâ½ T>Ýç> ïVõï.
A) 7% B) 8% C) 9%
D) 10%
D) 10%
132. A certain sum of money in simple interest scheme amounts to Rs. 8,880 in 6 years and Rs. 7,920 in
e/
4 years respectively. Find the principal and rate percent
A) Principal = 6,000, rate = 8%
B) Principal = 6,600, rate = 8%
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135. Sathish kumar borrowed Rs. 52,000 from a money lender at a particular rate of simple interest.
After 4 years, he paid Rs.79,040 to settle his debt. At what rate of interest he borrowed the money
A) 12% B) 13% C) 11% D) 10%
Äyiz\Vì ¨[Ãkì Îò ï¦[ kwºz åÃö¦tòÍm Ô.52,000 n Îò z¤©¸â¦ >Mkâ½ T>Ý]_
寧Vï© ØÃuÅVì. 4 gõ|ï^ ïaÝm Äyiz\VìÔ. 79,040 n Ø\VÝ>Ý Ø>VçïBVïß ØÄKÝ]ªVì
¨M_, kâ½ T>Ýç>Â ïVõï.
A) 12% B) 13% C) 11% D) 10%
136. On certain sum of amount at different rate of interest 8% for parts, 6% for parts, remaining parts
5
to be at the rate of interest 8% at the end of years he paid Rs. 660 as interest. Find the sum.
A) 8800 B) 8700 C) 8600 D) 8500
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Îòkì >ªm x>Üâ½_ Ãz]çB 8% kâ½ sþ>Ý]uzD, Ãz]çB 6% kâ½ sþ>Ý]uzD,
*]çB 8% kâ½ sþ>Ý]uzD x>Ü| ØÄFþÅVì. gõ| Ö®]l_ ¶kòÂz þç¦Ý> Ø\VÝ> kâ½
Ô.660 ¨M_ ¶kì x>Ü| ØÄF> Ø>Vçï?
A) 8800 B) 8700 C) 8600 D) 8500
ps
137. Arun lent Rs. 5,000 to Balaji for 2 years and Rs.3,000 to Charles for 4 years on simple interest at
the same rate of interest and received Rs.2,200 in all from both of them as interest. Find the rate of
interest per year.
A) 10% B) 20% C) 9% D) 7%
¶òõ ¨[Ãkì ÃVéV÷ ¨[ÃkòÂz Ô. 5000n 2 gõ|ïÓÂzD ÄVìéü ¨[ÃkòÂzD Ô.3000 n
A) 10% B) 20%
Tn
4 gõ|ïÓÂzD μ« >Mkâ½ T>Ý]_ kwºþªVì. gï \ØVÝ>\Vï Ô, 2,200 n kâ½BVï ¶ò^
ØÃuÅVì ¨Mé, kâ½ T>Ýç>Â ïVõï.
C) 9% D) 7%
138. The rate of interest to be increased from 10% to 12 % at the time Rs.1250 get more on simple
e/
interest. Find the Principle
A) Rs. 42,000 B) Rs.50,000 C) Rs.45,000 D) Rs.60,000
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140. In two different banks simple interest differs by Rs. 2.50 for the amount Rs. 500 in two years.
Find the difference between the rates of interest of two banks.
A) 1% B) 0.5% C) 2.5% D) 0.25%
ht
ÔÃVF 500 Âz, 2 gõ|ï¹_ Ö«õ| kºþï¹[ >Mkâ½ÂïVª sÝ]BVÄD Ô.2.50 ¨M_
¶Ëkºþï¹[ kâ½ T>ºïÓÂþ禼BBVª sÝ]BVÄD ¨Ëká¡?
A) 1% B) 0.5% C) 2.5% D) 0.25%
141. A certain simple interest will be times of its sum for 8 years. Find the rate of interest.
A) 5% B) 4.5% C) 3% D) 2.5%
Îò Ø>VçïÂïVª >Mkâ½BVªm, 8 gõ|ï¹_ ¶Äç驼ÃV_ \¦ºïVï \V®þÅm ¨M_
kâ½T>Ý][ \]©A
A) 5% B) 4.5% C) 3% D) 2.5%
142. Rs. 60,000 lent out separately two parts at the rate of interest 5% and 4% for 1 years gave the
simple interest Rs.2560 . Find the invest amount on 4%
A) 40,000 B) 44,000 C) 30,000 D) 45,000
Ô. 60,000 Ö«õ| ÃVïºïáVï ¸öÂï©Ãâ| 5% \u®D 4% ¨ª >Mkâ½ xçÅl_ x>Ü| ØÄFB©Ãâ¦
m.{«Võ| x½s_ Ô. 2560 kâ½BVï ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m ¨M_ 4% kâ½ T>Ý]_ x>Ü| ØÄF> Ø>Vçï
¨Ëká¡?
A) 40,000 B) 44,000 C) 30,000 D) 45,000
143. Rs.7500 lent out two parts for the ratio 2:1 at the rate of interest 10% and 5% for 3 years. Find
the simple interest
A) Rs.1500 B) Rs.1875 C) Rs.1375 D) Rs.2500
5
Ô. 7500 ¶Ä_ 2 : 1 ¨[Å Ö«õ| sþ>Ý]_ ¸öÂï©Ãâ| xçżB 10%, 5% ¨[Å >Mkâ½
sþ>Ý]_ 3 gõ|ï¹_ ØïV|ÂzD kâ½ Ø>Vçï BVm?
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A) Ô.1500 B) Ô.1875 C) Ô.1375 D) Ô.2500
144. Rs. 9000 increases by 10080 in 2 years. If the rate of interest increases by 2%. Find the amount?
A) Rs.10,260 B) Rs.10,440 C) Rs.10,500 D) Rs.10,550
Ô.9000 gªm >Mkâ½ T>Ý]_ 2 gõ|ï¹_10080 gï \V®þÅm. ¶>[kâ½ sþ>D 2%
ps
¶]ïöÝ>V_ þç¦Ý> Ø\VÝ> Ø>Vçï?
A) Ô.10,260 B) Ô.10,440 C) Ô.10,500 D) Ô.10,550
145. On certain Rate of interest, Rs. 6000 in 4 years to become Rs. 7200. If the rate of interest to be 1.5
times on the same amount on 5 years. Find the total amount.
A) 8000 B) 8250
Tn C) 9250
Îò z¤©¸â¦ kâ½ T>Ý]_ 4 gõ|ï^ Ô.6000. ¶ÄéVªm Ô.7200 gï \V®þÅm. ¶>[ kâ½T>D
1.5 \¦ºïVï \V®D¼ÃVm ¶¼> ¶ÄKÂz 5 gõ|ï¹_ þç¦ÂzD Ø\VÝ> Ø>Vçï ïVõï?
A) 8000 B) 8250 C) 9250 D) 9000
D) 9000
146. A sum of money triple itself at rate of interest 8%. Find the number of years
e/
A) 25 B) 20 C) 30 D) 15
Îò z¤©¸â¦ ¶ÄéVªm 8% kâ½ T>Ý]_ J[® \¦ºïVï ¨|ÝmÂØïV^ÓD gõ|ï^?
A) 25 B) 20 C) 30 D) 15
147. A certain sum of amount doubles in 8 years then in how much years it will be 4 times?
.m
148. Find the total amount on Rs. 10000 borrowed at the rate of interest 6 % for 1 year and 6 Months
A) Rs.9,000 B) Rs.11,000 C) Rs.10666.66 D) Rs.500
Ô.10,000 Ø>VçïBVªm gõ|Âz 6 % >Mkâ½l_ 1 kò¦D 6 \V>ºïÓÂz 寧Vï ØÃÅ©Ã|þÅm.
s:
¶[® ]òDÃ ØÃÅ©Ã|þÅm. gõ| kâ½ sþ>D 7 % ¨M_ kâ½ Ø>VçïçB ïVõï?
A) Ô.225 B) Ô.223 C) Ô.273 D) Ô.288
150. On certain amount at the rate of interest 5% on simple interest gave the interest on Rs.1 per day.
Find the principle.
A) 3650 B) 6200 C) 7200 D) 7300
Îò z¤©¸â¦ ¶Ä_ Ø>Vçï 5% >Mkâ½ T>Ý]_ åVØáV[®Âz Ô.1 >Mkâ½çB ØïV|ÂþÅm
¨M_,¶Í> Ø>VçïBVªm?
A) 3650 B) 6200 C) 7200 D) 7300
5
• Dravidian movement and Principles underlying both these
movements.
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2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD :
• >twïÝ][ ÄJï ØÃVòáV>V« káìßEl_
ÄJï åéÝ]⦺ï¹[ >VÂïxD ú﹩AD
ps
• Role and impact of social welfare schemes in the Socio - economic
development of Tamil Nadu
3. ïè>D : íâ|kâ½
Compound interest
Tn
Where to Study
e/
ÖB_ Š 6:
05.08.2021 (sBVw[):
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¶½©Ãç¦ ØïV^çïï^)
1. >twïÝ][ ¶«EB_ káìßE 11ŠD kz©A ¶«EBéç\©A
ÃV¦D Š 14
s:
5
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ps
Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 D 42 A 43 D 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 B 50 D
51 A 52 C 53 B 54 B 55 C 56 A 57 C 58 D 59 B 60 B
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61 B 62 C 63 B 64 B 65 A 66 D 67 C 68 D 69 D 70 C
71 B 72 A 73 B 74 D 75 B 76 C 77 D 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 B 89 C 90 A
91 C 92 C 93 A 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 C 98 B 99 B 100 B
ps
101 C 102 B 103 A 104 C 105 B 106 D 107 A 108 B 109 C 110 C
111 D 112 A 113 B 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 C 118 A 119 B 120 B
121 B 122 C 123 D 124 C 125 B 126 B 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 A
131 A 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 A 137 A 138 B 139 C 140 D
141 D 142 B 143 B 144 B 145
Tn
B 146 A 147 D 148 B 149 C 150 D
e/
.m
11 A 12 C 13 C 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 D 18 C 19 C 20 C
21 C 22 B 23 C 24 C 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 A 30 A
31 C 32 D 33 D 34 B 35 C 36 D 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 C
41 D 42 A 43 D 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 B 50 D
s:
51 A 52 C 53 B 54 B 55 C 56 A 57 C 58 D 59 B 60 B
61 B 62 C 63 B 64 B 65 A 66 D 67 C 68 D 69 D 70 C
tp
71 B 72 A 73 B 74 D 75 B 76 C 77 D 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 B 89 C 90 A
91 C 92 C 93 A 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 C 98 B 99 B 100 B
ht
101 C 102 B 103 A 104 C 105 B 106 D 107 A 108 B 109 C 110 C
111 D 112 A 113 B 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 C 118 A 119 B 120 B
121 B 122 C 123 D 124 C 125 B 126 B 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 A
131 A 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 A 137 A 138 B 139 C 140 D
141 D 142 B 143 B 144 B 145 B 146 A 147 D 148 B 149 C 150 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 12 / åV^ Š 30
30.08.2021
.08.2021
Ø\VÝ>
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sªVÂï^ (150)
s:
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 12) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| (TAMILNADU HISTORY AND CULTURE)
1. Which is not a Timeline of the course of cultures in ancient Tamilagam?
A) Early Historic and Sangam Age
B) Iron Age
C) Neolithic Age
D) Mesolithic Age
Tn
- B.C.E 300 to 300 BC
- B.C.E 1300 - 500 B C E
- B.C.E 2000 - 1000 B C E
- B C E 20,000 to 8000 B.C. E
e/
Ãõç¦ >twïÝ]_ ÃõÃV|ï^ Ãu¤B ïVé köçÄl_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) Ãõç¦B k«éVu®Â ïVéD \u®D ØÄDA ïVéD Š ØÃV. g.x. 300 x>_ ØÃV.g. x 300 kç«
B) ÖòDAÂ ïVéD Š ØÃV.g. x 1300 - 500
.m
4. Statement 1: Thinai Method described by Tolkappiyam is the way of life for Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2: During the Sangam period, Towns with large rock-stone emerged in Tamil Nadu.
A) 1 correct, 2 incorrect B) 1incorrect, 2 correct
C) All correct D) All incorrect
íu® 1: Ø>V_ïV©¸BD sköÝm^á ]çð xçÅ >twïÝ]u¼ï cöB kVµ¡ xçÅBVzD.
íu® 2: ĺï ïVéÝ]_ ÃVçÅ ïuïçá ØïVõ¦ ØÃöB å﫺ï^ >tµåVâ½_ ¼>V[¤ª.
A) íu® 1 Äö, 2 >k® B) íu® 2 >k® 1 Äö
C) ¶çªÝmD Äö D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
5
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö, ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö, ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é
c8
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
6. Statement 1: There is written evidence for Pre historic period.
Statement 2 : There is also written evidence and archaeological evidence for historical period
ps
A) 1 incorrect, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
íu®1 : Ø>V_ ÃwºïVéÝ]uz ¨¿Ým©¯ìk ÄV[®ï^ c^áª.
íu®2 : k«éVu®Â ïVéÝ]uz ¨¿Ým©¯ìk\Vª ÄV[® \u®D Ø>V_oB_ ÄV[®ïÓD cõ|.
A) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö
C) ¶çªÝmD Äö Tn
B) íu® 2 >k® 1 Äö
D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
7. How many millions of years ago has there been evidence of people living in Tamil Nadu?
A) 1.5 - 2 million B) 2 - 1.5 million C) 2 - 1 million D) 3 - 1 million
>tµåVâ½[ x>[ x>o_ \M>ìï^ ·\Vì ¨Ý>çª t_oB[ gõ|ïÓÂz x[ kVµÍ>>>uïVª
e/
ÄV[®ï^ þç¦Ým^áª?
A) 1.5 - 2 t_oB[ B) 2 - 1.5 t_oB[ C) 2 - 1 t_oB[ D) 3 - 1 t_oB[
8. Which is considered to be the people who lived in all areas of Tamil Nadu?
.m
ïVð©Ã|þÅm?
A) z¤ÞE B) x_çé C) \ò>D D) ÃVçé
10. Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act introduced in the year
ht
5
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
c8
íu® : þ¼«Âï ¼«V\VMB, ¼\uz gEB \Âï^ c^¹â¦ ¼\uïÝ]Bìï^ Bkªìï^ ¨ª
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ïV«ðD : Bkªì ¨ÐD ØÄV_ ¨þ©m Ãz]BVª ''¶¼BVMBV'' soòÍm kÍ>m.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
ps
C) ¶çªÝmD Äö D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
14. Which part was known as SuvarnaBhumi in Tamil literature?
A) Southwestern Russia B) Southeast Asia
C) Southwest Asia
>tµ ÖéÂþBºï¹[ ·kìð¯t ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|D Ãz] ¨m?
A) Ø>[¼\uz «iBV
C) Ø>[¼\uz gEBV
Tn
B) Ø>[þwÂz gEBV
D) k¦þwÂz gEBV
D) Northeast Asia
15. Tamil Brahmi inscriptions found in Mankulam mention about ______ Pandya king
e/
A)Muthukudumi Peruvazhuthi B) Pandian Nedunchezhiyan
C) Nediyon D) Mudathirumaran
\VºzáÝ]_ ïõ¦¤B©Ã⦠>tµ ¸«Vt ï_Økâ|ï^ ¨Í> ÃVõ½B ¶«Äç« Ãu¤ z¤©¸|þÅm?
.m
A) 1978 B) 1868
C) 1878 D) 1848
ÖÍ]BVs_ c^á Ø>V_oB_ ØÃVòâïçá ÃVmïV©Ã>uz ÖÍ]B ïòÆéD \u®D Aç>B_ Äâ¦D
ht
5
21. Ashokan inscriptions datable to ________century BCE refers to the Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas and
Satyaputras outside his empire in Tamilagam
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A) B.C.E Two B) B.C.E Three C) B.C.E. Four D) B.C.E. Five
ŠŠŠŠŠŠ ±uÅVõç¦ß ¼ÄìÍ> ¶¼ÄVïö[ ï_Økâ|ï^ ¶k«m gâE© Ãz]Âz Øk¹¼B >twïÝ]_
¼Ä«, ¼ÄVw, ÃVõ½Bìï^, ÄÝ]BAÝ]«ìï^ ÖòÍ>ç> z¤©¸|þ[Ū.
A) ØÃV. g.x Ö«õ| B)ØÃV. g.x J[® C) ØÃV. g.x åV[z D) ØÃV. g.x nÍm
ps
22. Statement 1: The Iron Age and Sangam age people used the black and red colours to make pottery
Statement 2: The black and red ware pottery has a black inside and a red outside, with lustrous
surfaces.
A) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1 & 2 correct TnB) 1incorrect, 2 correct
D) 1 & 2 incorrect
íu® 1: ÖòDAÃÂïVé, ĺï ïVé \Âï^ ﮩA \u®D Ek©A Wźïçá \âÃVõ¦ïÓÂz©
ÃB[Ã|Ý]ªVìï^.
íu® 2: ﮩA \u®D Ek©A \âÃVõ¦ºï^ c^¼á ﮩÃVï¡D, Øk¹¼B Ek©ÃVï¡D ïVð©Ã|D.
e/
Øk¹©AÅD Ãá©Ãá©ÃVï ÖòÂzD.
A) íu® 1 Äö, íu® 2 >k® B) íu® 1 >k®, íu® 2 Äö
C) íu® 1, íu® 2 Ö«õ|D Äö D) íu® 1, íu® 2 Ö«õ|D >k®
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5
27. Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions have been found in ______sites in Tamil Nadu on cave surfaces and
rock shelters.
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A) More than 20 B) More than 30 C) More than 50 D) More than 40
>tµåVâ½_ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ Ö¦ºï¹_ >tµ ¸«Vt ï_Økâ|ï^ ïuÃVçÅï¹KD, zçïkVµ Ö¦ºï¹KD
ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) 20Âz ¼\uÃ⦠B) 30Âz ¼\uÃ⦠C) 50Âz ¼\uÃ⦠D)40Âz ¼\uÃâ¦
ps
28. Where was the message "Koodalur Aakol Pedu Tiyan Andavan Kal" found?
A) Muthupatti B) Pugalur C) Puliaman kombai D) Arachalur
''í¦_»ì g¼ïV^ ØÃ| ]B[ ¶Í>k[ ï_'' ¨[ÐD ØÄF] ÿµÂïõ¦ Ö¦ºï¹_ ¨ºz ïVð©Ãâ¦m?
A) xÝm©Ãâ½
A) Vandavasi
B) AïÙì
B) Polur
Tn
C) A¹B\V[ ¼ïVDçà D) ¶«ßÄÙì
29. Hero stones can be found widely in ______ of Thiruvannamalai district.
C) Sengam
]òkõðV\çé \Vkâ¦Ý]K^ኊŠŠ ¨[Ðt¦Ý]_ ëkéVï å|ïuïçá ïVðéVD.
D) None
D) Athens, Greece
·|\õ ØÃV¤©Aï^ ïõئ|Âï©Ã⦠֦ºïÓ^ >kÅVªm ¨m?
A) ¨þ©m åVâ½[ Øü«M¼ï B) ¨þ©m åVâ½[ z¼Äì ¶_ ïV]D
C) {\[ åVâ½[ ¼ïVì ¼«Vö D) þ¼«Âï åVâ½[ °>[ü
31. Ancient settlements in Tamil Nadu are called as
//t
5
Eé©Ã]ïV«Ý][ ÃVâ|ç¦Ý >çésBVª ïõðþÂz ¼ïVl_ ¨¿©¸Bkì BVì?
A) ¼Ä«[ Øĺzâ|k[ B) Ö\Bk«DÃ[ Øå|޼īéV>[
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C) Øĺ¼ïVâï[M D) Ökì BVò\_é
37. Which port is mentioned in the long poem 'Pattinapalai'?
A) Cauvery Poompattinam B) Korkai
ps
C) Musiri D) Kanyakumari
Ã⽪©ÃVçé ¨[Å Øå½B ÃV¦o_ z¤Âï©Ã|D mçÅxïD ¨m?
A) ïVsö ¯DÃ⽪D B) ØïVuçï C) xE¤ D) ï[MBVz\ö
38. Which rulers credited by Tamil literary tradition for patronizing Tamil Sangams?
A) Cheras B) Cholas
Tn C) Pandyas
>tµ ĺïºïçá W®s g>«¡ ¶¹©Ãkìï^ ¨[® >tµ ÖéÂþBºï^ BVç« ¼ÃVu®þ[Ū?
A) ¼Ä«ìï^
C) ÃVõ½Bìï^
B) ¼ÄVwìï^
D) Ã_ékìï^
D) Pallavas
e/
39. In the Sangam period literatures, which group of women have sold salt?
A) Umanar kula women B) Vennikula women
C) Mullai land women D) None of these
.m
A) Musiri B) Korkai
C) Kanyakumari D) Kaviripoompattinam
å[z k½kç\Âï©Ã⦠Bkªìï¹[ ï©Ã_ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ mçÅxïÝ]uz kÍm táçï °u¤ß ØÄ[Å>Vï
ht
5
Ø\ïVoÝ ¨[ÃmŠŠŠ ØÄV_éVzD.
A) þ¼«Âï B) ÖéÝy[ C) Ä\üþò>D D) ¶«A
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44. Adichanallur, a Megalithic and Iron age archaeological site is located in _____district in Tamilnadu
A) Tirunelveli B) Thoothukudi C) Trichy D) Kanyakumari
>twïÝ]K^á ØÃòºïuïVé/ ÖòDAÂïVé Ø>V_oB_ gFs¦\Vª g]ßÄå_Ùì ¨Í>
\Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám?
ps
A) ]òØå_¼ko \Vkâ¦D B) #ÝmÂz½ \Vkâ¦D
C) ]òßE \Vkâ¦D D) ï[MBVz\ö \Vkâ¦D
45. Pottery inscribed with Tamil-Brahmi script has been found in the excavation at _______
A) Adichanallur B) Dharmapuri C) Keezhadi D) Paiyampalli
47. In which of the following site, a pot filled with rice was found?
A) Kodumanal B) Porunthal
C) Narasingampatti D) Kummalamaruthapatti
ÿµïõ¦ ¨Í> Ö¦Ý>_ ¶öE W«D¸B ÃVçª ïõئ|Âï©Ãâ¦m?
//t
C) ØÃVòå«Vu®©Ãç¦ D) Ã]u®©ÃÝm
50. In which of the following places was the method of burial of Dolmens was found?
1. Veeraragavapuram 2. Kummala Maruthupatti 3.Narasingampatti
A) 1 & 2 B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) All
ïu]âç¦ï^ Aç>©A xçÅ ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨ÍØ>Í> Ö¦ºï¹_ ïVð©Ãâ¦m?
1. T««VïkA«D 2. zD\Vá \òm©Ãâ½ 3. å«EºïDÃâ½
A) 1 & 2 B) 2& 3 C) 1 & 3 D) ¶çªÝmD
51. _______stones are erected for the warriors who lost their lives in the battle
A) Veerakkal B) Hero stone
C) Memorial stone D) Name stone
ÖÅÍm¼ÃVª T«M[ Wçªçk ¼ÃVu®D kçïl_ 妩Ã|D ï_ ¨ËkV® ¶çwÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) T«Âï_ B) å|Âï_
C) W窡Âï_ D) ØÃBì ï_
52. Arikamedu is located near__________
A) Near Cuddalore B) Near Puducherry
C) Near Villupuram D) Near Sivagangai
5
¶öÂï¼\| ¨[Å Ö¦D ¨ºz ¶ç\Ím^ám?
A) ï¦ÙòÂz ¶òþ_ B) Amß¼ÄöÂz ¶òþ_
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C) s¿©A«Ý]uz ¶òþ_ D) EkïºçïÂz ¶òþ_
53. In British language , Men means ______and Hir means _________
A) Stone, Small B) Soft, Stone
ps
C) Stone, Long D) Strong, Stone
¸öâ½VMB Ø\Val_ Ø\[ ¨[ÅV_ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ \u®D þì ¨[ÅV_ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ ¨[® ØÃVò^.
A) ï_, E¤B B) Ø\[ç\BVª, ï_
C) ï_, Àá\Vª D) koç\BVª, ï_
A) 1 B) 2
Tn
54. Find the correct statement about Megalithic monument in Tamil Nadu?
1. People living in the later Neolithic period began to follow megalithic burial methods.
2. The large earthen pots used to bury the dead were called burial urns.
C) 1 & 2 D) None
e/
>tµåVâ½_ ØÃòºïuïVé Wçª¡ß E[ªD Ãu¤B ÄöBVª íuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|?
1. A]B ïuïVéÝ][ ï禩Ãz]l_ kVµÍ> \Âï^ ØÃòºïuïVé Aç>©A xçÅïçá ¸[ÃuÅÝ
Ø>V¦ºþªì.
2. ÖÅÍ>kìïçá© Ãç>©Ã>uïVï ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠ØÃöB \õ ÃVçªï^ xm\Âï^ >Vaï^ ¨[®
.m
¶çwÂï©Ã⦪.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 1& 2 D) ¨m¡D Ö_çé
55. Which of the following is a silver coin?
A) Krishnala ` B) Nishka C) Satmana D) Dinaras
//t
ÄÝB¼\k ÛB¼> ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ ¨[Å ØÄVuØÅV¦ì xõ¦ï cÃW−Ý ¨ÐD ±ooòÍm ¨|Âï©Ãâ¦m.
A) \ÂïáVâE B) Îu®ç\¼B cBì¡
C) EÅÍ> z½\ï[ D) kVFç\¼B Øk_KD
ht
5
1. xÝm Ãâ½, AïÙì 2. ¶ÅßÄÙì, ÛDçÃ
3. \mç«, \VºzáD 4. ØïVºïu AoBºzáD
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A) 1, 2 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 \â|D Äö C) 1, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
60. The Direct ancestor of modern man was
A) Homo habilis B) Homo erectus
ps
C) Homo sapiens D) Neanderthal man
ÃöðV\ káìßE köçÄl_ åTª \M>M[ ¼å«½ x[¼ªVì \M>ì BVì?
A) ¼ÇV¼\V ¼Ç¸oü B) ¼ÇV¼\V ¨«Â¦ü
C) ¼ÇV¼\V ¼Ä¸B[ü D) WBVõ¦ì>V_ \M>[
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
b.Annamalai University - 2. 1857 B) 1 3 4 2
c. Gandhi Rural University - 3. 1981 C) 2 3 4 1
c8
d.Tamil University - 4. 1976 D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.ØÄ[çª Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 1. 1929 A) 2 1 4 3
ps
b.¶õðV\çé© Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 2. 1857 B) 1 3 4 2
c.ïVÍ] þ«VtB Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 3. 1981 C) 2 3 4 1
d.>tµ Ã_ïçéÂïwïD Š 4. 1976 D) 1 2 3 4
63. Statement 1: Alluvial soil is found in Thanjavur, Thiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore,
A) 1 only correct
C) 2 only correct
Tn
Tirunelveli & Kanniyakumari districts.
Statement 2: Black Soil is found in Coimbatore, Madurai, Ramanathapuram and Tirunelveli
B) 1, 2 correct
D) 1, 2 incorrect
e/
íu® 1: kõ¦_ \õ Š >ÞÄVÆì, ]òkVÔì, åVï©Ã⽪D, s¿©A«D, ï¦Ùì, ]òØå_¼ko (\)
ï[MBVz\ö \Vk⦺ï¹_ ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
íu® 2: ïöÄ_ \õ Š ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì, \mç«, Ö«V\åV>A«D \u®D ]òØå_¼ko gþB Ö¦ºï¹_
ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
.m
65. In which year was Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited formed in Trichy?
A) 1977 B) 1965 C) 1960 D) 1955
tp
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.TIIC Š 1. 1965 A) 1 2 3 4
b.TACEL Š 2. 1949 B) 4 1 2 3
c.TIDCO Š 3. 1961 C) 1 2 4 3
d.TANSI Š 4. 1965 D) 2 3 4 1
68. Who is the first woman deputy Mayor of Chennai Corporation?
A) Tara Cherian B) Agalya Santhanam
C) Vijayalakshmi D) Padmini Jesudurai
ØÄ[çª \Våï«VâEl[ x>_ ØÃõ mçð ¼\Bì BVì?
5
A) >V«V ØÄöB[ B) ¶ï_BV ÄÍ>VªD
C) sÛBéâ·t D) ÃÝtM ¼Û·mç«
c8
69. Who was the first Tamil leader of the Indian National Congress before independence?
A) M.Bakthavachalam B) Suburayalu
C) Vijayaragavachari D) Kamaraj
ps
ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«E[ x>_ >twïÝ>çékì ·>Í]«Ý]uz x[ BVì?
A) ¨D. ÃÂ>kßÄéD B) ·©A«VBK
C) sÛB«VïkVßÄVö D) ïV\«VÛì
70. Who is the first woman Chief Secretary of Tamil Nadu?
A) Lakshmi Pranesh
C) Kaliammal
>tµåVâ½[ x>_ ØÃõ >çéç\ß ØÄBéVáì BVì?
A) éâ·t ¸«¼ªi
Tn
B) ÃÝtM ¼Û·mç«
B) Padmini Jesudurai
D) Fathima Beevi
e/
C) ïV¹BD\V^ D) ÃVÝ]\V ¬s
71. Statement 1: Annai Teresa University was started on 1983 in Kodaikanal.
Statement 2: Tamil Nadu Veterinary University established in Chennai on 1989
.m
5
2.ïVìïVéD, z¹ìïVéD Š g½, gè
3.x[ÃM, ¸[ÃM Š \Vìïa, ç>, \VE, úzM
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A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) ¶çªÝmD
75. When was the Madras Refineries Limited (MRL) started in Manali?
A) 1965 B) 1969 C) 1971 D) 1989
ØÄ[çª ¨õØðF ·Ý]ïö©A gçé (MRL) \ðol_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
ps
A) 1965 B) 1969 C) 1971 D) 1989
76. Which has been given Best Corporation Award for the year 2021?
A) Thanjavur B) Coimbatore C) Chennai D) Madurai
2021ÂïVª EÅÍ> \Våï«VâE sòm?
A) >ÞÄVÆì B) ¼ïVçk Tn
C) ØÄ[çª
77. The first Tamil Nadu chess player to win Grand Master title was
A) Aarthi Ramasamy B) S. Vijayalakshmi
D) \mç«
78. Tamil Nadu Corporation for Industrial Infrastructure Development Limited (TACID) was started in
the year
A) 1991 B) 1990 C) 1992 D) 1994
>tµåV| Ø>Va_ ïâ¦ç\©A káìßE W®kªD (TACID) Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
//t
80. Statement 1: Laterite Soil is found in Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur, Thanjavur, Western Ghats
& Higher part of the Eastern Ghats.
Statement 2: Saline soil is found in major areas of Vedaranyam and spread over an area of about
ht
5
çkÝ>Vì.
íu® 2: káìÍm kòD \Vk⦺ï^ Ãâ½Bo_ ''sòmåïì'' \Vkâ¦D x>o¦Ýç> ¸½Ým^ám.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
83. Assertion A: All Women Police Stations were established in 1992.
Reason R : To protect the rights of women and mothers and to prevent from dowry harassment and
ps
protect women from domestic violence & sexual assault
A) A correct R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect
íu® : ¶çªÝm \ï¹ì ïVk_ WçéBºï^ 1992gD gõ| ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
85. Tamil Nadu ranks _______ among the best states in GST revenue
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 10
÷.¨ü.½ EÅ©ÃVï çïBVÓD \VWéºï^ Ãâ½Bo_ >tµåV| ØÃu®^á Ö¦D?
s:
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 1
86. Swasth Bharat Yatra campaign launched on
tp
5
an enemy spy drone and can changes its GDP algorithm and also changing its trajectory
or landing safely.
c8
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R incorrect D) A & R correct
íu® : ¨]ö åVâ| g¹_éV cá¡ s\Vªºïçá ØÄBowÂï ØÄF¥D ØÄBuçï Oõð¤¡
ps
Ø>Va_ OâÃÝ]_ ÖBºzD g¹_éV s\VªÝç> ''Ø\â«Vü nn½ g«VFßE z¿''
k½kç\Ým^ám.
ïV«ðD : ÖÍ> g¹_éV s\VªD “Rogue Drones” ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm. ÖËs\VªD ¨]ö
åVâ| cá¡ g¹_éV s\VªÝç> ¸[Ø>V¦ìÍm ØÄ[® ¶>[ GDP W«o_
Statement 2: Tamil Nadu tops in the country for implementing solid waste management schemes
Statement 3: Chennai Central Metro Railway Station is known as the largest underground railway
station in Asia.
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A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct
C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) 1, 3correct
íu® 1: kòkVçB© ØÃòÂzk]_ >twï ¶ÞÄ_ mçÅÂz J[ÅVDÖ¦D
íu® 2: ]¦Âïa¡ ¼\éVõç\ ]⦺ïçá ØÄB_Ã|Ýmk]_ åVâ½¼é¼B >twïD x>o¦D
íu® 3: ØÄ[çª ØÄ[½«_ Ø\⼫V Ö«l_ WçéBD gEBVs¼é¼B ØÃöB ·«ºï «l_ WçéBD
¨[® ØÃBì ØÃu®^ám.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 3 Äö
5
C) 1 only correct D) Only 2 correct
íu® 1: Øå_ ØÛB«V\[ (å\m Øå_çé ïV©¼ÃVD) ¨[Å ÖBÂïÝ][ \VWé Îòºþçð©ÃVá«Vï
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ÖòÍm ¶k«m ェ xBuEBV_ 174 ÃV«DÃöB Øå_ «ïºïçá *âئ|Ým^áVì.
íu® 2: ¶k«m ¼ÄçkçB ÃV«Vâ½, >twï ¶«E[ ¸áü Š 2 >Vk«sB_ ÃV¦±o_ ¶k«m kVµÂçï
z¤©A (\) ÄV>çªï^ ¼ÄìÂï©Ãâ|^áª.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
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95. Which city mentioned by "National Crime Records Bureau” as the safest city for women in India?
A) Madurai B) Coimbatore C) Trichy D) Tirunelveli
ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B ØÃõïÓÂz ÃVmïV©ÃVª ¨Í> \Våï«D ''¼>EB zuÅ gkð ïV©ÃïD'' ]ïµk>Vï
z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) \mç«
C) ]òßE
B) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì
D) ]òØå_¼ko
Tn
96. The first ' Underground Fossil Fossil' Museum of Tamil Nadu is located in
A) Ariyalur B) Tirunelveli
e/
C) Varanavasi D) Coimbatore
>tµåVâ½[ x>éVkm ''Aç> clö©Ã½¡'' ¶òºïVâEBïD ¨Í> Ö¦Ý]_ ]ÅÂï©Ã¦ c^ám?
A) ¶öBÙì B) ]òØå_¼ko
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C) kV«ðVE D) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì
97. Assertion A :Central and State Government’s Mahila Shakti Kendra Yojana" providing various
welfare assistance including marriage and educational scholarships for women.
Reason R : But there is not enough awareness among women about the welfare assistance provided
//t
íu® : ''\þáV ÄÂ] ¼ïÍ]«V ]â¦D'' \Ý]B, \VWé ¶«·ï^ ØÃõïÓÂïVª ]ò\ð
c>sÝØ>Vçï, ï_s c>sÝ Ø>Vçï c^¹â¦ Ã_¼k® åéÝ]⦠c>sïçá kwºþ
kòþ[Ū.
tp
ïV«ðD : gªV_, \Ý]B, \VWé ¶«·ï^ ÄVì¸_ kwºï©Ã|D åéÝ]⦠c>sï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVï
ØÃõï^ \Ý]l_ ¼ÃV]B sa©Aðì¡ï^ °uæs_çé.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
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99. Statement 1: For the first time in the country, a "3D Animation" theatre has been opened at Guindy
Children's Park, Chennai.
Statement 2: A 100 kW solar power plant has been set up on the roof of Koyambedu Metro Station.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 2 only correct
íu® 1: åVâ½¼é¼B x>_xçÅBVï séºzïÓâ cÅkV|km ¼ÃV[Å ''3½ ¶M¼\−[''
]ç«B«ºïD ØÄ[çª þõ½ E®kì ¯ºïVs_ ]ÅÂï©Ãâ|^ám.
íu® 2: ¼ïVBD¼Ã| Ø\⼫V «l_ WçéBÝ][ ¼\uíç«l_ 100 þ¼éVkVâ óöBÄÂ] t[ cuÃÝ]
WçéBD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ|^ám.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 2 \â|D Äö
5
100. Where is the longest red rock painting found in India?
A) Krishnagiri B) Vellore C) Jinchupalli D) Kanchipuram
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ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B tï Àá\Vª ØÄÞÄVÍm ÃVçÅ {sBºï^ ¨ºz^ám?
A) þòiðþö B) ¼kÙì C) ÷Þ·©Ã^¹ D) ïVÞEA«D
101. How many National Awards has the Government of Tamil Nadu received for the outstanding
performance in the Rural development department in 2019?
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A) 10 B) 9 C) 8 D) 12
2019-_ »«ï káìßE mçÅl[ EÅ©ÃVª ØÄB_ÃVâ½uïVª >twï ¶«· ¨Ý>çª ¼>EB sòmïçá
ØÃu®^ám?
A) 10 B) 9 C) 8
Tn D) 12
102. What is the rank of Tamilnadu based on number of factories &workers?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
>twïD Ø>VauÄVçéï^ (\) Ø>VaéVáìï¹[ ¨õèÂçïl_ ¨Ý>çªBVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
D) 4
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
e/
103. _________hectares are covered under micro irrigation scheme in Tamilnadu
A) 1 lakh B) 1.39 lakh C) 1.49 lakh D) 2 lakh
>tµåV| ØǦì Wéºïçá OõÀì ÃVĪ ]â¦D ÿµ ØïVõ|^ám?
.m
5
2. þ«Võâ \Vü¦ì Ãâ¦D Øk[Å x>_ >twï ØÄü T«Vºïçª ‡ ¨ü.sÛBéâ·t
A) 1,2 Äö B) 1 Äö
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C) 2 Äö D) 1,2 >k®
109. Chief Minister's Green House Project
Statement 1: Launched in 2011.
ps
Statement 2: Its objective is to build solar-powered houses in rural areas
A) 1,2 Right
B) 1 Right 2 Wrong
C) 1,2 Wrong
D) 1 Wrong 2 correct
x>éç\ßÄö[ ÷ç\ T|ï^ ]â¦D
íu® 1: Öm 2011_ mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
Tn
íu® 2: þ«V\©AÅ Ãz]ï¹_ óöB guÅK¦[ í½B T|ï^ ïâ½Ý>òD ]â¦D
A) 1,2Äö B) 1Äö2>k®
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C) 1,2 >k® D) 1 >k® 2 Äö
110. Where was the first Uzhavar Santhai in Tamil Nadu established?
A) Chennai
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B) Cuddalore
C) Madurai D) Salem
>twïÝ][ x>_ cwkì ÄÍç> ¨ºz ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m
A) ØÄ[çª B) ï¦Ùì
C) \mç« D) ¼ÄéD
//t
D) No open defection & to recommend an award of Rs. 5 lakhs to the Panchayats having Clean
environment from the State Government.
#Fç\BVª þ«V\ ÖBÂï ]â¦Ý][ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
ht
112. Choose the Incorrect answer about Tamil Nadu Women Development Corporation.
A) The institute was started in 1982.
B) Tamil Nadu Women's Development Corporation operated under the Social Welfare
Department till 2006
C) In the month of July 2006, Tamil Nadu Women's Development Corporation brought under the
control of the Rural Development & Panchayat Raj
D) The reason for bringing rural development &the Panchayat Raj is to integrate many
development projects accomplished by self-help groups.
>tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD Ãu¤B >kÅVª sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
5
A) ÖÂïwïD 1982‡_ mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
B) >tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD 2006 kç« ÄJïåéÝmçÅl[ ÿµ ØÄB_Ãâ¦m.
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C) 2006 ýçé \V>D, >tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD »«ï káìßE (\) ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë
ÖBÂïÝ][ WìkVï ïâ|©ÃVâ½[ ÿµ ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m.
D) »«ï káìßE (\) ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë ÖBÂïÝ][ ÿµ ØïVõ| k« ïV«ðD ·Bc>s z¿Âï¹[
ps
JéD WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠Ãé káìßE ]⦺ïçá Îòºþçð©Ã>VzD.
113. Examine the following statements:
1) Tamil Nadu Electricity Board under Section 54 of the Electricity Act 1948 dated 1st July 1957
Established in the State.
Tn
2) Tamil Nadu Electricity Board was reorganized on 11.01.2010 as "Tamil Nadu Transmission
Corporation Ltd.,"(TANTRANSCO) and "Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution Corporation
Ltd.," (TANGEDCO)
3) Tamil Nadu Energy Development Agency was established in 1991.
e/
4) Tamil Nadu Electricity Fund &Infrastructure Development Corporation was formed in 1985.
A) 1,2 wrong 3,4 right B) 1,2 right 3,4 wrong
C) 1 right 2, 3, 4 wrong D) 1, 3 right 2, 4 wrong
.m
C) 1 Äö 2, 3, 4 >k® D) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k®
114. Where is the largest subway station in Asia?
tp
5
1.>tµåVâ½[ Ø\VÝ> \Âï^Ø>Vçïl_ 30.50% \Âï^ åïì©Aźï¹_ kEÂþ[Ūì.
2.2016Ö_ ¶þé ÖÍ]B ¶ás_ zwÍç>ï¹[ ÖÅ©A sþ> Ä«VÄö 1000Âz 34 ¨ª ÖòÂzD
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Wçél_, >tµåVâ½_ zwÍç>ï¹[ ÖÅ©A sþ>D 1000Âz 17 gï ÖòÍ>m.
3.W] g¼BVÂþ[ xu¼ÃVÂïVª ÖÍ]B ¶¤Âçï 2018Ö[ ·ïV>V« z¤Xâ| ¶¤Âçïl_ >tµåV|
x>o¦Ý]_ c^ám.
4.åVâ½[ ¼>V_ °u®\]l_ 10% ¼>V_ cuÃÝ]l_ 50% >tµåVâ½[ ú﹩ÃVï c^ám.
ps
A) 1 \â|D B) 1 \u®D 2
C) 2 \â|D D) 2 \u®D 4
118. In 2016-17 according to the directorate of Economics and statistics, Tamil Nadu, the GSDP of
Tamil Nadu is the
A) Second largest economy in India
B) Third largest economy in India
C) Fourth largest economy in India
Tn
D) Fifth largest economy in India
e/
2016 Š 17gD gõ½_ >twï ØÃVò¹B_ \u®D A^¹lB_ ÖBÂzª«ïÝ][ ý, >twïÝ][
Ø\VÝ> \VWé c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]
A) ÖÍ]BVs_ 2gD Ö¦Ýç> ¸½Ým^ám
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A) 2000 B) 2008
C) 2006 D) 2005
AmkVµ¡ ]â¦D mkºï©Ã⦠gõ|‡‡‡‡‡
s:
A) 2000 B) 2008
C) 2006 D) 2005
120. Scheme to provide free education to all girls irrespective of caste
tp
ïè>D (MATHS)
121. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
A) 36 B) 100 C) 512 D) 75
ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨õï¹_ x¿ ïª ¨õ ¨m?
A) 36 B) 100 C) 512 D) 75
122. The sum of a number and its reciprocal is then the number is
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 65
5
Îò ¨õ \u®D ¶>[ >çéÿal[ í|>_ ¨M_ ¶Í> ¨õ BVm?
A) 6 B) 8 C) 9 D) 65
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123. In an A.P the sum of first n terms is + . Find the 17th term.
A) 664 B) 84 C) 748 D) 48
Îò íâ|ÝØ>V¦ì köçÄl_ x>_ n c®©Aï¹[ í|>_ + ¨M_ 17km c®©çàïVõï.
ps
A) 664 B) 84 C) 748 D) 48
124. What is the condition that three non zero numbers a, b, c are in Arithmetic progression.
A) 2b = a+c B) 2a = b+c C) 2c = a+b D) a =
B) 2a = b+c
Tn
J[® ¯ßEB\uÅ ¨õï^ a, b, c ¨[ê Îò íâ|ÝØ>V¦ì köçÄl_ ÖòÍ>V_ WÃÍ>çª
A) 2b = a+c
125. The value of (13+23+……………..+153) – (1+2+………….+15)
C) 2c = a+b D) a =
13+23+………….k3 = 44100
A) 20 B) 21 C) 22 D) 23
k[ \]©A ïVõï.
13+23+………….k3 = 44100
//t
A) 20 B) 21 C) 22 D) 23
65 64 63 62 0
127. If A = 2 and B = 2 +2 +2 +…………+2 which of the following is true?
s:
A) B is larger than A by 1
B) A is larger than B by 1
C) A and B are equal
tp
A) B gªm An s¦ 1 ¶]ïD
B) A gªm Bn s¦ 1 ¶]ïD
C) A \u®D B Ä\D
D) B gªm An s¦ 264 ¶]ïD
128. The middle term of an finite A.P. 4, 7, 10, ………………118 is
A) 55 B) 58 C) 61 D) 64
4,7, 10, ....................118 ¨[Å x½¡® íâ|ÝØ>V¦ö_ å| c®©A
A) 55 B) 58 C) 61 D) 64
5
the tree?
A) 96 days B) 69 days C) 94 days D) 64 days
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32 xwD cç¦B Ãçª\«Ý]_, Ãß¼ÄVÍ] Î[® \« cßEçB ¶ç¦B xB_þÅm. Îò åVçáÂz
Îò ÄVõ °¤ åVK s«_ ÿ¼w ÖźzþÅm ¨M_ \« cßEçB ¶ç¦B Ãß¼ÄVÍ] ¨Ý>çª åV^ïçá
¨|ÝmÂØïV^ÓD?
A) 96 åV^ï^ B) 69 åV^ï^ C) 94 åV^ï^ D) 64 åV^ï^
ps
131. If 1+2+3+………..+n = 666. Then find n.
A) 37 B) 36 C) 38 D) 35
1+2+3+………..+n = 666¨M_ nÖ[ \]©A ïVõï.
A) 37 B) 36 C) 38 D) 35
B) 20
Tn
132. If Karkuzhali earns Rs.1800 in 15 days, then she earns Rs.3000 in _________ days.
A) 25 C) 15 D) 10
15 åVâï¹_ ïVìzwo Ô.1800 n kò\Vª\Vï© ØîþÅVì ¨M_ Ô.3000n .............åVâï¹_
kò\Vª\Vï© ØîkVì.
e/
A) 25 B) 20 C) 15 D) 10
133. A competitive exam paper has 100 questions for which 1 mark will be awarded for each correct
answer and mark will be deducted for every wrong answer, marks will be deducted for non –
.m
answering. Find the total mark scored by a candidate who answered 88 questions of which 61 are
correct.
A) 61 B) 44.5 C) 44.25 D) 54
//t
134. 10 lakh candidates write the TNPSC Exam this year. If each exam centre is allotted with 1000
candidates. How many exam centres would be needed?
A) 100 B) 1000 C) 10000 D) 100000
ht
ÎËØkVò ÃÂïÝ]KD 35 köïçá ØïVõ¦ AÝ>ïÝ][ Ø\VÝ>© ÃÂïºï^ 120 ¨M_ ÎËØkVò
ÃÂïÝ]KD 24 köïáVï ÖòÍ>V_ ¶©AÝ>ïÝ][ Ø\VÝ>© ÃÂïºï^ ¨Ý>çªBVï ÖòÂzD?
A) 170 ÃÂïºï^ B) 180 ÃÂïºï^ C) 175 ÃÂïºï^ D) 185 ÃÂïºï^
136. In a flower garden, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second row, 19 in the third row
and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. How many rows are there in the flower garden?
A) 12 rows B) 10 rows C) 11 rows D) 13 rows
Îò ¯Í¼>Vâ¦Ý]_ x>_ köçÄl_ 23 ¼«VÛVß ØĽï^, Ö«õ¦VD köçÄl_ 21 ¼«VÛVß ØĽï^,
J[ÅVD köçÄl_ 19 ¼«VÛVß ØĽï^ ¨ª Ø>V¦ì köçÄ ¶ç\©¸_ c^áª. ïç¦E köçÄl_
5 ¼«VÛVß ØĽï^ Öò©¸[ ¶©¯Í¼>Vâ¦Ý]_ ¨Ý>çª köçÄï^ c^áª?
5
A) 12 köçÄï^ B) 10 köçÄï^ C) 11 köçÄï^ D) 13 köçÄï^
137. In a theatre, there are 20 seats in the front row and 30 rows were allotted. Each successive row
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contains two additional seats then its front row. How many seats are there in the last row?
A) 58 seats B) 78 seats C) 98 seats D) 108 seats
Îò EM\V ¶«ºþ[ x>_ köçÄl_ 20 ÖòÂçïïÓD Ø\VÝ>D 30 köçÄïÓD c^áª.
¶|Ý>|Ý> ÎËØkVò köçÄlKD ¶>uz xÍç>B köçÄçBs¦ Ö«õ| ÖòÂçïï^ í|>éVï
ps
c^áª. ïç¦E köçÄl_ ¨Ý>çª ÖòÂçïï^ ÖòÂzD?
A) 58 köçÄï^ B) 78 köçÄï^ C) 98 köçÄï^ D) 108 köçÄï^
138. What is unit digit in the product 784×618×917×463?
A) 6 B) 2
Tn
784×618×917×463 ¨[Å ØÃòÂï_ï¹_ Î[ÅVkm ÖéÂïD ¨[ª?
A) 6 B) 2
C) 4
C) 4
139. Which one of the following numbers is exactly divisible by 11?
D) 8
D) 8
A) B) C) D)
Öò ¨õï¹[ í|>_ 24 \u®D ¶ku¤[ ØÃòÂï_ 108 ¨M_ ¶ËØkõï¹[ >çéÿaï¹[
í|>_ ïVõï?
//t
A) B) C) D)
141. Rs.120 is divided among A, B and C such that A’s share is Rs.20 more than B’s and Rs.20 less than
C’s. What is B’s share?
s:
A) Ô.10 B) Ô.15
C) Ô.20 D) Ô.25
142. Find the number of all 3 digit natural numbers, which are divisible by 8.
ht
144. Find the least number which must be subtracted from 3250 to make it a perfect square.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
3250 ¨[Å ¨õèoòÍm ¨Í> E¤B ¨õçð ïaÂï x¿ kìÂï\VzD?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
145. − , , − are in G.P, then the value of x is equal to
A) 1 B) -1 C) ±1 D) ±2
− , , − Îò ØÃòÂzÝ Ø>V¦ì ¨M_ x[ \]©A
A) 1 B) -1 C) ±1 D) ±2
5
146. If 2 5 8 x 2 3 7 is a multiple of 11, where x is a digit, what is the value of x?
A) 1 B) 7 C) 0 D) 9
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2 5 8 x 2 3 7 ¨[Å ¨õ 11g_ kzÃ|D ¨M_ x[ \]©A BVm?
A) 1 B) 7 C) 0 D) 9
147. Arrange in ascending order , ,
ps
A) , , B) , , C) , , D) , ,
°®köçÄl_ ¨¿mï. , ,
A) , , B) , , C) , , D) , ,
148. If a1 = -1 then find a2, a3 in an =
A) , B) ,
Tn
, n>1 ∀ n∈N.
C) , D) ,
a1 = -1 \u®D an = , n>1 ∀ n∈N ¨M_ a2, a3 ïVõï.
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A) , B) , C) , D) ,
149. The difference of the squares of two positive numbers is 45. The square of the smaller number is
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31 D 32 A 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 C 39 A 40 A
41 A 42 D 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 B 48 A 49 D 50 D
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51 B 52 B 53 C 54 C 55 A 56 D 57 A 58 C 59 D 60 C
61 B 62 A 63 B 64 C 65 C 66 B 67 D 68 B 69 C 70 A
71 B 72 C 73 A 74 B 75 A 76 A 77 B 78 C 79 B 80 C
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 A
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91 B 92 C 93 B 94 A 95 B 96 C 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 C
101 D 102 A 103 B 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 A 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 A 112 A 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 B 118 A 119 D 120 A
121 C 122 B 123 B 124 A 125 C 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 D 130 A
131
141
B
C
132
142
A
A
133
143
B
B
134
144
B
A
135
145 Tn
C
C
136
146
B
C
137
147
B
A
138
148
B
D
139
149
D
D
140
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A
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11 A 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 B 16 D 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 B
21 B 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 C 27 B 28 C 29 C 30 D
31 D 32 A 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 C 39 A 40 A
s:
41 A 42 D 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 D 47 B 48 A 49 D 50 D
51 B 52 B 53 C 54 C 55 A 56 D 57 A 58 C 59 D 60 C
61 B 62 A 63 B 64 C 65 C 66 B 67 D 68 B 69 C 70 A
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71 B 72 C 73 A 74 B 75 A 76 A 77 B 78 C 79 B 80 C
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 A
91 B 92 C 93 B 94 A 95 B 96 C 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 C
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101 D 102 A 103 B 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 A 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 A 112 A 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 B 118 A 119 D 120 A
121 C 122 B 123 B 124 A 125 C 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 D 130 A
131 B 132 A 133 B 134 B 135 C 136 B 137 B 138 B 139 D 140 A
141 C 142 A 143 B 144 A 145 C 146 C 147 A 148 D 149 D 150 B
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
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ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 113 / åV^ Š 02.09.2021
.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
• >Íç> ØÃöBVì (\) ¼Ã«¤Qì ¶õðVs[ Š
¶éz Š 8 60 sªVÂï^
ú﹩Aï^
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5
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 13) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| (TAMILNADU HISTORY AND CULTURE)
C) KrishnasamyIyer
Tn
1. Who took over as the full-time assistant editor of Kudiarasuand ViduthalaiJournal run by Periyar?
A) ThiyagarayaChettiar B) Arignar Anna
D) P.T.Rajan
ØÃöBVì å¦Ý] kÍ> ''z½B«·'' (\) s|>çé Ö>µï¹[ x¿¼å« mçð gEöB«Vï ØÃV®©¼ÃuÅkì
BVì?
e/
A) ]BVï«VB ØÄâ½BVì B) ¼Ã«¤Qì ¶õðV C) þòiðÄVt nBì D) P.T.«VÛ[
2. Who moved a resolution that everyone should wear 'Black shirts' in the DravidaKazhagam state
conference
.m
6. Annadurai and Periyar were lodged on the same floor in the same jail brought a bond of connection
between them. This was Annadurai's first imprisonment in the year ______
A) 1936 B) 1938 C) 1940 D) 1942
¶õðVmç«¥D, ØÃöBVòD μ« EçÅl_ μ« >áÝ]_ ¶ç¦Âï©Ã⦪ì. ÖÍ> EçÅkVÄD
¶õðVmç«¥D x>_ EçÅkVÄD ÖËsòkòÂzt禼BBVª Ø>V¦ìçÃ¥D, ÃVÄ© ¸çð©çÃ¥D
°uÃ|Ý]B gõ|?
A) 1936 B) 1938 C) 1940 D) 1942
7. Choose the correctoption.(Periyar)
1. He joined Pachaiyappan College, Chennai and obtained a Master's degree in Economics in 1934.
5
2. His first article was published in "Tamil Arasu" magazine.
3. His first short story was published in "AnandaVikatan”
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A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 3 correct D) All correct
ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>| (ØÃöBVì).
1.ØÄ[çª ÃßçÄB©Ã[ ï_Ùöl_ ¼ÄìÍm ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_ 1934gD gõ| xmïçé©Ãâ¦D ØÃuÅVì.
2.Ök«m x>_ ïâ|\« ''>tµ ¶«·'' ÃÝ]öÂçïl_ Øk¹BVlu®.
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3.Ök«m x>_ E®ïç> ''gªÍ> sï¦M_'' Øk¹BVlu®.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
8. Periyar published _____ pointsdemand through the resolutions passed at the Self Respect
A) 10 B) 12 Tn
Movement Conference held at Chengalpattu in 1929
C) 15
1929-Ö_ Øĺï_Ãâ½_ åç¦ØÃuÅ ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂï \VåVâ½_ WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠yì\Vªºï¹[
JéD ¨Ý>çª ¶DÄ ØïV^çïïçá Øk¹lâ¦Vì ØÃöBVì.
D) 19
A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 19
e/
9. Who gave Annadurai the opportunity to contest in Peddunaickenpettaiconstituency for Madras
Corporation ?
A) Periyar B) Subburayalu
.m
C) KumararajaMuthiahChettiar D) ThyagarayarChettiar
¶õðVmç«Âz ØÄ[çª \Våï«VâEÂz ØÃÝmåVBÂï[¼Ãâç¦Ý Ø>Vz]loòÍm ¼ÃVâ½l|k>uz
kVF©çà °uÃ|Ý]Bkì BVì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) ·©A«VBK
//t
2. Therefore, he gave Annadurai the opportunity to preside over the Self Respect Conference held
at Thuraiyur in 1937.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2correct
tp
ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. ¶õðVmç«l[ ¶¤kVuÅKD, ¨¿Ý>VuÅKD, ÃB[ïò>V© Ãè¥D ØÃöBVç«© ØÃömD ïkìÍ>ª.
2. ¨ª¼k, ¶kì mçÅRö_ å¦Ý]B ·B\öBVç> \VåVâ|Âz >çéç\ >VºzD kVF©çà 1937gD
ht
5
14. Assertion A : As the demand for Dravidanadu magazine increased manifold, the need for a printing
press arised .
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ReasonR : Many plays like Chandrodayam, OruIravu, Vellaikariand Shivaji Kanda Hindu
Rajyamwere written and performed to meet the monetary requirements.
A) A & R correct B) A & R incorrect
ps
C) A correctR incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ]«Vs¦ åVâ½[ ¼>çk Ãé\¦ºz ¶]ïöÝ>V_ ¶©ÃÝ]ÂçïÂØïª Îò ¶ßÄïD
¼>çk©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : ¶>uïVª ÃðÝ ¼>çkçB ¯ìÝ] ØÄFk>uïVï ¨¿>©Ã⦠åV¦ïºï¼á ÄÍ]¼«V>BD,
A) ØÃöBVì B) ÃV«]>VÄ[
C) ï_þ. þòiðJìÝ] D) ïs\è ¼>EB såVBïD ¸^çá
16. Who described Annadurai as the brain of the Justice Party?
A) Rajaji B) Dr.Varatharajulu Naidu
//t
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|
1. ]«Vs¦ ïwïÝ]oòÍm Øk¹¼B¤¼B ¶õðVmç«, ~.Øk. ÄDÃÝ, Øå|ÞØÄaB[, x. ïòðVW],
¨[. s. 妫VÛ[ ¼ÃV[Å x[ªM >çékìï^ 1949 ØÄ©¦DÃì 17D ¼>] ØÄ[çªl_ ÃkwÂïV«Ý
Ø>ò 7-D ¨õ Ö_éÝ]_ í½ Š ]«Vs¦ x[¼ªuÅ ïwïD ¨[ ØÃBö_ Îò A]B ïâEçB
Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
2. ¶©¼ÃVm ].x.ï s[ >çék«Vï ¶õðVmç« ØÃV®©çà °u®Â ØïVõ¦Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
19. Statement 1: Periyar cut down hundreds of coconut trees in his plantation in Dadampatti.
Statement 2: He moved the Communal Resolution again in Thanjavur in 1921.
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A) Only 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
íu® 1 : >V>DÃâ½l_ ¶kòÂz ØÄVÍ>\Vª Ø>[ªÍ¼>V©¸_ ±u®ÂïðÂïVª Ø>[çª \«ºïçá
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Økâ½ß ÄVFÝ>Vì.
íu® 2 : >ÞÄVÆö_ 1921-gD gõ| *õ|D kz©Aöç\ yì\VªÝç> ØïVõ| kÍ>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
20. In which year was EV Ramasamy Nayakar elected as President of Tamil Nadu Congress?
ps
A) 1930 B) 1921 C) 1922 D) 1923
~.¼k.«V\ÄVt åVBÂïì ¨Í> gõ| >tµåV| ïVºþ«ü >çék«Vï ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ãâ¦Vì?
A) 1930 B) 1921 C) 1922 D) 1923
21. Who is known as Dakshina Gandhi"?
A) Rajaji B) Periyar
''>âEð ïVÍ]'' ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ãâ¦kì?
A) Ö«VÛV÷ B) ØÃöBVì
Tn C) C. Subramaniam
C) E.·©«\èBD
D) V.Ve.Su.Iyer
D) k.¼k.·.nBì
22. Match . (1967 General Election --- seats won ) a b c d
e/
a. DMK - 1) 11 A) 1 3 4 2
b. Congress - 2) 138 B) 2 3 4 1
c.Swatantra party - 3) 49 C) 1 3 2 4
.m
d. Marxist Communist - 4) 20 D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. (1967 ØÃVmݼ>ì>_ Š Øk[Å Ö¦ºï^) a b c d
a. ].x.ï Š 1) 11 A) 1 3 4 2
b. ïVºþ«ü Š 2) 138 B) 2 3 4 1
//t
c. ·>Í]« Š 3) 49 C) 1 3 2 4
d. \VìÂïEB ïDRMü| Š 4) 20 D) 1 2 3 4
23. How many seats did the Communist Party of India contest in the 1967 elections?
s:
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 33
1967 åç¦ØÃuÅ ¼>ì>o_ ÖÍ]B ïDRMü| ¼ÃVâ½l⦠֦ºï^ ¨Ý>çª?
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 33
tp
26. Anna introduced the Hindu marriage Amendment Bill in the Legislative Assembly on
A) 1967 June 18 B) 1967 July 18 C) 1966 March 09 D) 1966 March 11
ÖÍm ]ò\ðºï¹_ ]òÝ> \¼ÄV>Vçk Ä⦠¼Ã«çkl_ ¶õðV ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B åV^?
A) 1967 É[ 18 B) 1967 Éçé 18 C) 1966 \Vìß 09 D) 1966 \Vìß 11
27. Bus transport wasnationalized. This ended the dominance of private transport ownerswho had
benefited unjustly. Who said that Anna had fulfilled his policy and political objective through this
one step?
A) Dr. Varatharajalu Naidu B) Dr. C. Natesan
C) R Kannan D) Kalki. Krishna Murthy
5
¼ÃòÍm ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým åVâ|ç¦BVÂï©Ãâ¦m. Ö>[ JéD Ömkç« ¶WBVB\Vï© ÃBªç¦Ím kÍ>
>MBVì ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým cöç\BVáìï¹[ g]ÂïD x½¡Âz ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m. ÖÍ> Îò
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å¦k½Âçïl_ JéD ¶õðV ¶k«m ØïV^çï \u®D ¶«EB_ z¤Â¼ïVçá Wçżku¤B>Vï
í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ¦V¦ì k«>«VÛK åV¥| B) ¦V¦ì E. 弦Ä[
C) gì. ïõð[ D) ï_þ. þòið JìÝ]
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28. The Official Languages Act was amended and enacted into law on
A) 1963 June 9 B) 1967 January 10 C) 1968 January 8 D) 1968 April 09
gâE Ø\Vaï^ Äâ¦D ]òÝ>D ØÄFB©Ãâ| Äâ¦\Vï ØïVõ|kÍ> åV^?
A) 1963 É[ 9
C) 1920 D) 1921
ØÃöBVì ïVºþ«ü c®©¸ª«Vþ ÖÍ]B s|>çé© ¼ÃV«Vâ¦Ý]_ ys« ú¼ïu©ÃVáV«Vï \V¤B gõ|?
e/
A) 1918 B) 1919 C) 1920 D) 1921
30. Assertion A : Justice Party or the South Indian Liberal federationhas been considered as a non-
Brahmin party for a quarter of century. But Brahmin media criticized it as the
.m
33. Statement 1: In Cheranmadevi gurukulam , he truly condemned the injusticedone to the Depressed
Classes
Statement 2: He supported the Hindu religious Protection Act in the justice party.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1 : ¼Ä«[\V¼>s zòzéÝ]_ >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\VðkìïÓÂz ÖçwÂï©Ã¦¦ ¶À]çB
cõç\BVï ïõ½Ý>Vì.
íu® 2 : À]ÂïâEl_ gâEl_ ¶ÅWçéB© ÃVmïV©A Äâ¦Ýç> g>öÝ>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
34. Assertion A : At the Kanchipuram Congress conference held on November 25, 1925, he finally
5
moved the communal resolution.
Reason R : Periyar and his supporters left the Congress because the resolution was adopted. Even
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after leaving it, he considered Congress as a communal party.
A) A & R correct B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R incorrect D) A correct, R incorrect
íu® : 1925 åkDÃì 25D ¼>] åç¦ØÃuÅ ïVÞEA«D ïVºþ«ü \VåVâ½_ Ö®]BVï kz©Aöç\
ps
yì\VªÝç> x[Ø\VaÍ>Vì.
ïV«ðD : ¶Ýyì\VªD °uÅ©Ãâ¦ç\BV_ ¶kòD ¶k«m g>«kVáìïÓD ïVºþ«çÄ sâ|
Øk¹¼B¤ªì. Øk¹¼B¤B ¸[ªòD ¶kì ïVºþ«çÄ Îò ''kz©AkV> ÄçÃ'' BVï¼k ïò]ªVì.
A) íu®. ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®. ïV«ðD >k® Tn
B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
D) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
35. Assertion A : In 1946, he supported the Constituent Assembly set up to frame the Constitution of
India.
Reason R : When India celebrated Independence Day across the country on August 15, 1947 but
e/
Periyar declared the day as day of mourning for Dravidians
A) A incorrect R correct B) A & R correct
C) A correct R incorrect D) A & R incorrect
.m
1. Periyar met sir Stafford cripps and spoke about the "partition of Dravidanadu ".
2. Periyar, the leader of the Justice Party, was actively involved in transforming the party into a
tp
37. Which magazine ran by Periyar to propagate the idea of self-respect among people who knew
English ?
A) Kudiarasu B) Puratchi C) Viduthalai D) Revolt
gºþéD Ø>öÍ> \Âï¹ç¦¼B ·B\öBVç> ØïV^çïçB ë©Ak>uz ¨Í> Ö>çw å¦Ý]ªVì.
A) z½B«· B) A«âE C) s|>çé D) ö¼kV_â
38. Choose the correctoption.
1. Orthodox marriages were performed by Brahmin priests. Against this, Periyar performed the
"Brahmaniya Progitha parigaram".
2. Self-respect marriage laws were enacted during the reign of C.N. Annadurai.
5
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
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1. çkyï ]ò\ðºï^ ¸«V\ð A¼«Vþ>ìïáV_ ØÄFm çkÂï©Ã⦪. Ö>uz ¨]«Vï ØÃöBVì
''ÃVì©ÃÌB A¼«Vþ>© ÃþiïV«D'' ØÄF>Vì.
2. E.¨[.¶õðVmç« gâE ïVéÝ]_ ·B\öBVç> ]ò\ð Ä⦺ï^ ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦪.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
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39. Who was the first to call EV Ramasamy as EVR Periyar?
A) P. Chidambaram Pillai B) C. Subramaniam
C) V.V.S.Iyer D) Rajaji
ØÃuÅVì.
3. ØÃöBVì >BVöÝ> ï«Ý, ¼kçéÝ]â¦ç> À]ÂïâE °u®ÂØïVõ¦>V_ 1935 gõ| ¶ÂïâEl[
g>«kVá«VªVì.
s:
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö
C) 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
41. Where did Periyar hold the Second Self-Respect Conference in 1930?
tp
A) Chennai B) Erode
C) Chengalpattu D) Kanchipuram
ØÃöBVì Ö«õ¦Vkm ·B\öBVç> \VåVâç¦ 1930-_ ¨ºz å¦Ý]ªVì?
ht
íu® : 1937 ¼>ì>o_ ïVºþ«ü Øku¤ØÃu® Ö«VÛV÷ x>éç\ßÄì gªVì. ¶kì Ã^¹ï¹_
¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B ÖÍ]çB ØÃöBVì g>öÝ>Vì.
ïV«ðD : ØÃöBVì ØÃ_éVö EçÅl_ ÖòÍ> ¼ÃVm>V[ À]ÂïâElªì >çék«Vï
¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ãâ¦Vì. >tµåVâ| ØÃõï^ \VåV| ~.¼k.«V.çk ¨©¼ÃVmD ØÃöBVì ¨[¼Å
z¤©¸¦ ¼kõ|D ¨[® ¶¤sÝ>m.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö D) íu® ïV«ðD >k®
43. Periyar declaredJustice Party as Dravidar Kazhagam officially in Salem on
A) June 20, 1944 B) August 27, 1944
5
C) January 10, 1945 D) February 11, 1945
¼ÄéÝ]_ ØÃöBVì À]ÂïâE ¨[Å ØÃBç« ]«Vs¦ì ïwïD ¨[® ¶]ïV«©¯ìk\Vï ¶¤sÝ> åV^?
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A) 1944 É[ 20 B) 1944 gïü| 27 C) 1945 Ûªkö 10 D) 1945 ¸©«kö 11
44. Who roared "Tamil Nadu is for Tamils" and said that every Tamil should have a tattoo on his hand
with this statement ?
A) Anna B) Rajaji C) Periyar D) C. Subramaniam
ps
''>tµåV| >twò¼ï'' ¨[® xwÂïtâ| ¶Í> kVÄïÝç> ÎËØkVò >twÐD çïl_ ÃßçÄ
zÝ] ØïV^á ¼kõ|D ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) ¶õðV B) Ö«VÛV÷ C) ØÃöBVì D) E.·©«\èBD
45. Karunjattai padai Conference was held in Madurai in the year
A) 1944 September B) 1945 September
\mç«l_ ïòÞÄâ禩 Ãç¦ \VåV| å¦Ý>©Ã⦠kò¦D?
A) 1944 ØÄ©¦DÃì B) 1945 ØÄ©¦DÃì C) 1946 Éçé
Tn C) 1946 July D) 1944 January
D) 1944 Ûªkö
46. Assertion A : Self-Respect Movement is a movement, unlike many parties in our country in
e/
politics, which can create real freedom, equality and self-respect by changing the
attitude of the people and to improve their knowledge without expecting any thing
from others.
.m
Reason R : That is, the self-respect movement is a movement that improves the knowledge of
Tamils, changes attitudes and creates an equal society.
A) A & R incorrect B) A & R correct
C) A incorrect R correct D) A correct, R incorrect
//t
5
1. \Âï^ ¸Å©ÃV_ ÄV]¼Ã>D ¶uÅkìï^.
2. kòðVE«\©Ã½ ¸«V\ðì, ÄÝ]öBì, çkEBì, óÝ]«ì, ÃÞÄ\ì ¨[Å ¸ö¡ïçá °u®Â ØïV^áÂí¦Vm.
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3. ¸«V\ð«_éV> ÖçáQìïÓÂz c^á >ç¦ïçá¥D, Ö¦ìÃV|ïçá¥D ÀÂï_.
4. ï_s ÄDÃÍ>\Vï >VFØ\Va, ¶«ÄVºï Ø\Va >s« ¸Å Ø\Va ï_sÂzD ØÃVm \ðD
ØÄés¦Âí¦Vm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
ps
49. "The self-respect movement was meant to cause shame, anger, and feeling to man," said by
A) Anna B) Kamarajar C) Periyar D) Rajaji
''\M>ÐÂz ØkâïxD, ¼«V−xD, \Vª cðìßE¥D, °uÃ|k>uïVï¼k ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïD
°uÃâ¦m'' Š ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) ¶õðV B) ïV\«VÄì
50. Choose the correctoption.
C) ØÃöBVì Tn D) Ö«VÛV÷
1. He toured all over Tamil nadu and started Truth seekers Association, Thinkers Association,
Rationalists Association.
e/
2. Third Self Respect Conference was held at Thanjavur in 1930
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
.m
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. >tµ åVئºzD ·u®©ÃBðD ¼\uØïVõ| cõç\ åV|¼kVì ĺïD, >V«Vá EÍ>çªBVáì
ĺïD, ÃzÝ>¤kVáì ïwïD gþB ¶ç\©Aïçá mkÂþªVì.
2. 1930-gD gõ| J[ÅVkm ·B\öBVç> \VåV| >ÞÄVÆö_ å¦Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
//t
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
51. Periyar along with famous Tamil Nadu Communist leader ______created a new socio-economic
s:
5
¶õðV Ãu¤B íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1. ]«Vs¦ì ïwïÝ]oòÍm ¸öÍm ØÄ[® þ.¸ 1949 ØÄ©¦DÃì 17 ¶[® ].x.ï ¨[Å
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ÖBÂïÝç>Ý Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
2. þ.¸ 1967 ¸©«kö 6D åV^ >tµåVâ½[ x>éç\ßÄ«VªVì
3. >tµ, gºþéD ¨[Å ÖòØ\VaÝ]â¦Ýç> þ.¸ 1968 Ûªkö 23_ ¶¤sÝ>Vì.
4. ¶õðV þ.¸ 1969 _ \«ð\ç¦Í>mD x. ïòðVW] >uïVoï x>_k«Vï© ÃèBVu¤ªVì.
ps
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k®
B) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k®
C) 1, 4 \â|D >k®
D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
B) 1934
Tn
54. Periyar focused on the implementation of the "Samadharma employment Programme" in the year
A) 1933 C) 1932
''Ä\>ì\ ¼kçéÝ]â¦Ýç>'' ØÄB_Ã|Ýmk]_ ¨Í> gõ| ïkªD ØÄKÝ]ªVì ØÃöBVì.
D) 1931
assembly elections. However, Periyar too could not save the Justice Party from electoral
defeat.
A) A incorrect R correct
B) A correct R incorrect
//t
C) A & R correct
D) A & R incorrect
íu® : ØÃöBVö[ ~¼«Vâ|Ý ]â¦Ýç> °u®Â ØïVõ¦>V_ ¶ÂïâEÂzÝ >[ x¿ g>«çk¥D
s:
ïV©ÃVuÅ x½Bs_çé.
A) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
B) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
ht
ÖÍ] ¨]ì©A Ãç¦ ØÄ[çª ¼åVÂþ ¶èkzÝm ØÄ[® ]òk_o¼ïè ï¦uïç«çB ¶ç¦Ím,
''ØÃöBVì >tµåV| >twò¼ï'' ¨[® z«_ ¨¿©¸B åV^?
A) 1938 Ûªkö 11
B) 1938 ØÄ©¦DÃì 11
C) 1938 ½ÄDÃì 22
D) 1938 åkDÃì 09
57. Who imparted self-respect, rationality, women's freedom, equal society in the minds of the people?
A) Ambedkar B) Ayothedasar
C) W.A.P. Soundara Pandian D) E.V.R.
5
\Âï^ \ª]_ ·B\öBVç>, ÃzÝ>¤¡, ØÃõ s|>çé, °uÅÝ>VµkuÅ Äx>VBD
gþBku¤uz sÝ]â¦kì BVì?
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A) ¶D¼ÃÝïVì
B) ¶¼BVÝ]>VÄì
C) W.A.P.ØÄáÍ>« ÃVõ½B[
D) ~.Øk.«V
ps
58. Who rejected the three language policy of central?
A) Annadurai B) Kamaraj
C) Karunanidhi D) Rajaji
C) ïòðVW]
Tn
\Ý]B ¶«E[ xDØ\Va ØïV^çïçB ¨]ìÝ>m BVòç¦B ÄV>çª?
A) ¶¤Qì ¶õðV B) z. ïV\«VÄì
D) «VÛV÷
59. Which of the following statements about Periyar is incorrect?
e/
A) He announced that Introducing Hindi over Tamil means denying jobs to Dravidians
B) He said that the cultural dominance of the Brahmins over the people of Chennai province
is again in Hindi form
.m
C) Thus the progress of the Tamil people and the development of the Tamil language will be
stopped
D) Holds the first anti-Hindi conference in Trichy.
ØÃöBVì Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm ¨m?
A) >t¿Âz ¼\éVï ÖÍ]çB ¶¤xïD ØÄFkm ]«Vs¦ìïÓÂïVª ¼kçékVF©Aïçá
//t
60. Who presided over the DMK's inaugural function at Robinson Park in Chennai?
A) E.V.K Sampath B) Nedunchezhiyan
C) Pethapalayam D) Palanisamy
ht
ØÄ[çªl_ «V¸[Ä[ ¯ºïV åç¦ØÃuÅ ]xï Š s[ Ø>V¦Âï swVs_ >çéç\ >VºþBkì BVì?
A) ~.Øk. þ. ÄDÃÝ B) Øå|ÞØÄaB[
C) ØÃÝ>ÃVçáBD D) ÃwMÄVt
5
A) x>[ç\ ØÄBéì, ¶ç\ßÄì, gçðBì, Öçð ÖBÂzªì
B) ¶ç\ßÄì, gçðBì, x>[ç\ ØÄBéì, Öçð ÖBÂzªì
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C) x>[ç\ ØÄBéì, gçðBì, Öçð ÖBÂzªì, ¶ç\ßÄì
D) ¶ç\ßÄì, x>[ç\ ØÄBéì, gçðBì, Öçð ÖBÂzªì
62. Pick out the correct statement:
ps
Statement 1: Smart Classrooms are technology enhanced classrooms.
Statement 2: ELCOT has so far implemented e-SCR project in 256 schools in Tamilnadu
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C)1 and 2 are False D)1 and 2 are true
ÄöBVªm ¨çk?
B) 2 \â|D Äö
63. The Expanded form of CEET is
C) 1, 2 >k®
Tn
íu® 1: ]Å[ kz©ÃçÅï^ ¨[ê ¼\DÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠Ø>Va_Oâà kz©ÃçÅï^ gzD.
íu® 2: ¨_ïVâ W®kªD Ömkç« 256 Ã^¹ï¹_ t[]Å[ kz©ÃçÅ ]â¦Ýç> ØÄB_Ã|Ý]¥^ám.
A) 1 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
e/
A) Centre of Emerging for Excellence Technology
B) Centre of Electronic for Excellence Technology
C) Centre of Excellence for Electronic Technology
D) Centre of Excellence for Emerging Technology
.m
''>tµåV| Ø>Vçé¼åVÂz© ÃVìçk 2023'', \VWé Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ] Ã_¼k® mçÅï¹_
¨Ý>çª Ä>sþ>D ÖéÂïVï WìðlÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 25% B) 11% C) 20% D) 10%
tp
66. Which Metro Railway stations in Chennai is available of electric scooter facility?
1. Alandur 2.Nandanam 3.Guindy 4.Chinnamalai
A) 1,2,3 only B)1,3 only C)2,3,4 Only D) All are true
Ö Š üíâ¦ì ¶\o_ c^á Ø\⼫V «l_ WçéBºï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.géÍ#ì 2.åÍ>ªD 3.þõ½ 4.E[ª\çé
A) 1, 2, 3 \â|D B) 1, 3 \â|D C) 2, 3, 4 \â|D D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
67. Who filed the case against Section 66 A of Information Technology Act 2008?
A) H.W.Shankar B) Shreya Shankar C)K.N.Vijayan D)A.V.Velu
>ïk_ Ø>Va_OâÃÝ ]òÝ> Äâ¦D 2008[ý ¸ö¡ 66° çk ¨]ìÝm kwÂz Ø>V|Ý>kì?
5
A) H.W.Eºïì B) ü¼«BV Eºïì C) K.N.sÛB[ D) ¨.k. ¼kK
68. Who is the current minister of Information and Technology of Tamilnadu?(From August 2021…)
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A) DuraiMurugan B)M.K.Stalin C)T.ManoThangaraj D)PalanivelThiagarajan
>twïÝ][ t[ªb (\) >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ¶ç\ßÄì BVì? (2021 gïüâ ý)
A) mç« xòï[ B) x.ï.ü¦Vo[
C) >. \¼ªV >ºï«Vë D) ÃwM¼k_ ]BVï«VÛ[
ps
69. Which state is the forerunner of e-governance of all states?
A) Tamilnadu B)Karnataka C)Maharashtra D)Manipur
å_ gÓç\l_ \uÅ \VWéºïÓÂØï_éVD x[¼ªV½BVï Öò©Ãm?
A) >tµåV| B) ïìåV¦ïV C) \ïV«Vi½«V
Tn
D) \詯ì
70. ELCOT (Electronic Corporation of Tamilnadu Limited) Started in the year________________
A) 1957 B)1977
>tµåV| t[ªb W®kªD Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
C)1997 D)1978
A) 8 B) 9 C) 12 D)6
>twïÝ]_ c^á ELCOSEZsï^ ¨Ý>çª?
tp
A) 8 B) 9 C) 12 D) 6
73. Navalpattu ELCOSEZ are situated in the______________district.
A) Tiruchirapalli B) Salem C) Coimbatore D)Madurai
ht
5
d.ïºçï ØïVõ¦V[ Š 4. ¼ÄéD D) 2 1 3 4
76. Which is the Chief agency to give Tamilnadu E-Sevai Services?
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A) ELCOT B)TACTV C)TNeGA D)NIC
>twïÝ]_ Ö Š ¼Äçk >òk]_ x>[ç\BVª xïç\ ¨m?
A) ELCOT B) TACTV C) TNeGA D) NIC
ps
77. Information Technology Park is situated in Chennai by TIDCO and ___________
A) HCL B) ELCOT C) TCS D)TNeGA
ØÄ[çªl_ >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ¯ºïV còkVÂï©Ã⦠W®kªºï^ ½â¼ïV \u®D
A) HCl B) ELCOT C) TCS D) TNeGA
78. TN-Diksha means
Tn
A) National digital platform for School Children’s.
B) National digital platform for Research Scholars
C) National digital platform for Teacher’s
e/
D) None of the above
TN – Diksha ¨[Ãm
A) Ã^¹ zwÍç>ïÓÂïVª ¼>EB t[\B ÃèÝ>áD
.m
D)ELCOT-1977 D)TACTV-2019
>kÅVª Öçð ¨m?
A) >tµØåâ Š 2017 B) TNSWAN Š 2018
ht
82. Assertion: According to Information Technology Act-2008 Section 66 A denotes that the act is
against our Constitution
Reason : This act will affect freedom of Speech of the Peoples.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true ,Reason is the correct explanation
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, Reason is not the correct explanation
C) Assertion is True, Reason is false
D) Assertion is false, Reason is true
íu® : >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ]òÝ>ß Äâ¦D 2008[ ý ¸ö¡ 66° ¶«EBéç\©¸uz ¨]«Vªm
¨ª©Ãâ¦m.
5
ïV«ðD : Öm ØÃVm \Âï¹[ ïòÝm ·>Í]«Ýç> ÃV]ÂzD kçïl_ ÖòÍ>m.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
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B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. gªV_ ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
ps
83. Which Statement is incorrect regarding PMGDISHA?
A) PMGDISHA Scheme would Cover Six crore households in rural areas to make them digitally
literate by March 2019.
B) In 40 % rural Family, this scheme empower to at least one person per household are digitally literate.
D) None of these
PMGDISHA – s[ ¼åVÂïºï¹_ >kÅVªm?
Tn
C) This scheme is very useful to below Poverty line people of SC’s and ST category
85. Technology Development and its uses related conference held on every__________
A) Thursday B)Tuesday C)Wednesday D)Friday
káìÍm kòD Ø>Va_OâÃD (\) ¶ku¤[ ÃB[ z¤Ým ïòÝ>«ºz åç¦ØîD åV^?
s:
c) Periyampatti - Karimangalam D) 1 2 3 4
d) Koneripatti - Edapadi
ØÃVòÝmï.
¶D\V Š Ö Š þ«V\D kâ¦V«D a b c d
a.kVºï_ Š 1. ïÔì A) 3 2 1 4
b.sükåV>D Š 2. EkïVE B) 3 4 2 1
c.ØÃöBVDÃâ½ Š 3. ïöB\ºïéD C) 2 4 1 3
d.¼ïV¼ªöÃâ½ Š 4. ¨¦©ÃV½ D) 1 2 3 4
5
C) TNPDS ØÄBo D) UMANG
89. Pick out the correct award received by TNeGA?
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A) Rajiv Gandhi IT award B)Web Ratna Award
C) e- BIS award D)Both B and C
TNeGA ØÃuÅ sòmï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨çk?
ps
A) «VýË ïVÍ] IT sòm B) çk© «ÝªV sòm
C) Ö Š ¸ü sòm D) B \u®D C
90. Statement 1: e-Shakti Scheme is digitization of accounts of Self Help Groups.
Statement 2: e-Scooter scheme is to buy a two wheelers at subsidized prize.
A) 1 only true B)2 only true
Tn C)1 and 2 are true
íu® 1: Ö Š ÄÂ] ]â¦D ·B c>s z¿Âï¹[ kºþÂïðÂçï t[ªb\B\VÂz>_ gzD.
íu® 2: Ö Š üíâ¦ì ]â¦D ØÃõïÓÂz \VMB sçél_ üíâ¦ì kwºzk>VzD.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
D)1 1and 2 are false
e/
91. Pick out the incorrect one?
A) Kavalan SOS-2018 B) Digicop-2019 C)Pinakin-2016 D)Uzhavan App-2017
ØÃVòÍ>V> Öçð ¨m?
.m
5
A) S-Sample B)M-Morality C)A-Accountable D)None of these
>kÅVªkuçÅ ïõ¦¤. (SMART)
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A) S – Sample B) M – Morality C) A – Accountable D) ¨m¡t_çé
97. Consider the following statements
Statement 1: TN e-Sevai Scheme was introduced by chief minister of tamilnadu in 24th February, 2004.
ps
Statement 2: TN e-Sevai Scheme was started first at Chennai.
A) Both are true B)1 only true C)2 only true D) Both are False
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
íu® 1: ¶«· Ö Š ¼Äçk ç\Bºï^ ]â¦D >twï x>_k«V_ 24.02.2014 ¶[® mkÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: ØÄ[çªl_ x>_ Ö Š ¼Äçk ]â¦D Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö Tn
B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
98. Who is the Chairman of e-governance department of Greater Chennai Corporation?
A) District Collector B) Corporation Commissioner
C) Municipality officer D) None of these
e/
ØÄ[çª \Vk⦠t[ Š gÓç\ ĺïD BVì >çéç\l_ ÖBºþ kòþÅm?
A) \Vk⦠gâEBì B) \Våï«VâE gçðBì
C) åï«VâE ¶Kkéì D) ¨kòt_çé
.m
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) kVºï_ Š ïÔì B) ØÃöBVDÃâ½ Š >ì\Aö
C) Øå|Ø\VaBûì Š >ÞÄVÆì D) sükåV>D Š sòmåïì
101. The toll free number of “Amma Call Centre” is_____________
A) 1101 B) 1001 C)0011 D)1100
¶D\V ¶çw©A ç\BD ¨õ?
A) 1101 B) 1001 C) 0011 D) 1100
5
íu® 2: gÓç\ z¤Ý> >ïk_ïçá \ÂïÓÂz ØïVõ| ¼Äì©Ã¼> ''å\m ¶«·'' ]â¦Ý][ ¼åVÂïD.
A) íu® 1, 2 >k® B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
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103. To align and implement the National e – governance plan of central government, Tamilandu e –
governance agency (TNeGA) was created as an autonomous society registered under __________
on May 18, 2006
A) Tamilnadu Societies Registration Act, 1975
ps
B) Tamilnadu Societies Registration Act, 1977
C) Tamilnadu Societies Registration Act, 1976
D) Tamilnadu Societies Registration Act, 1980
\Ý]B ¶«· ØïVõ| kÍ> ¼>EB t[ªVÓç\Ý ]â¦D ¶\_Ã|ÝmD ØÃVòâ|, ¨Í> Äâ¦Ý][ ÿµ
¼\ 18, 2006 ¶[® Ã]¡ ØÄFB©Ãâ| W®k©Ãâ¦m?
A) >tµåV| ĺïºï¹[ Ã]¡ß Äâ¦D 1975
C) >tµåV| ĺïºï¹[ Ã]¡ß Äâ¦D 1976
Tn
B) >tµåV| ĺïºï¹[ Ã]¡ß Äâ¦D 1977
D) >tµåV| ĺïºï¹[ Ã]¡ß Äâ¦D 1980
104. Which place is called as Detroit of Asia?
e/
A) Coimbatore B)Chennai C) Erode D)Tirupur
gEBVs[ ئâ«VF| ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|km?
A) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì B) ØÄ[çª C) ~¼«V| D) ]ò©¯ì
.m
105. Which of the following category is not considered for “CM award for excellence in e-governance for
students”?
A) Development of application using mobile technology
B) Development of application to Physically disabled people using AI
//t
D) ¨m¡t_çé
106. The center empanelled for enrollment activities in District Collectorates, Municipals and Revenue
ht
5
B) ç塚ÃE ¼Äçkï^/ØÃVm\Âï^ ¼Äçkïçá kwºzD EÅÍ> t[ gÓç\ Ø\[ØÃVò^
ÃB[ÃV|.
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C) ±>ª t[ gÓç\ Ø>Va_Oâà ïõ|¸½©A
D) ¨m¡t_çé
108. Which is wrong regarding highlights of e – Governance?
A) e – Governance consists a novel, Rapid and new regulating procedures
ps
B) It consists of Philosophy of worldwide
C) It’s modern changes are not accountable
D) e – Governance is expanding with the motto of “Computer to all”
t[ gÓç\l[ EÅ©ÃDĺï¹_ >kÅVª íuçÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) t[ gÓçï Amç\, mö>\Vª, A]B kaxçÅïçá ØïVõ¦m
B) t[ gÓçï céïÍ>¿sB >ÝmkÝç> ØïVõ¦>VzD
C) t[ gÓçï åTª Ø>V¦ì \Vuźïçá °uAç¦B>Vï Ö_çé
Tn
D) ''ïç¦BÐÂz ïD©Râ¦ì'' ¨[Å ÖéÂz¦[ t[ gÓçï sökVÂï©Ã|D.
e/
109. Choose the vision of Tamilnadu Information Technology department is
1.To increase the gap of bridge in technology between urban and rural bridge of gap
2.To reduce the bridge of gap in technology between urban and rural
.m
5
C) G2 G – Government to Government
D) G2 E – Government to E – Governance
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112. Recently which city is changed as electronic production centre in Tamilnadu?
A) Salem B)Tiruchirapalli C)Chennai D)Tirunelveli
>u¼ÃVm >tµåVâ½_ t[ªb cuÃÝ] ç\B\Vï \V¤¥^á åï«D?
ps
A) ¼ÄéD B) ]òßE C) ØÄ[çª D) ]òØå_¼ko
113. Match the following: a b c d
a) DeG - 1. 2007 A) 3 4 2 1
b) ELCOT - 2. 2010-2011 B) 4 3 2 1
c)
d)
TNCTV
TVA
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.DeG
-
-
–
3. 2006
4. 1977
1. 2007
Tn C)
D)
A)
3
3
a
3
2
4
b
4
4
1
c
2
1
2
d
1
e/
b.ELCOT – 2. 2010 – 2011 B) 4 3 2 1
c.TNCTV – 3. 2006 C) 3 2 4 1
d.TVA – 4. 1977 D) 3 4 1 2
.m
118. Which is funded by Ministry of Electronics and information technology (MeitY) and is functioning
under TNeGA?
A) Permanent Enrollment Centres
B) State e – mission Team
C) District e – governance society
D) Government e – Seva centres
\Ý]B ¶«E[ >ïk_ \u®D Ø>VçéÝØ>V¦ìA ¶ç\ßÄïD JéD W] ÎmÂÿ| ØÄFB©Ãâ|,
>tµåV| t[ªVÓç\ xïç\l[ ÿµ ØÄB_Ãâ| kòD xïç\
A) W«Í>«© Ã]¡ ç\Bºï^ B) \VWé t[z¤Â¼ïV^ z¿
5
C) \Vk⦠t[ gÓç\ ĺïD D) ¶«· Ö Š ¼Äçk ç\Bºï^
119. Which of the following act rules have been framed under sections 6 and 6A of the information
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technology Act, 2000
A) Tamilnadu Information Technology Rules, 2016
B) Tamilnadu Information Technology Rules, 2015
ps
C) Tamilnadu Information Technology Rules, 2013
D) Tamilnadu Information Technology Rules, 2017
>ïk_ Ø>Va_OâÃsB_ 2000 (21 \Ý]B Äâ¦D 2000) ¸ö¡ï^ 6 \u®D 6° Š[ ÿµ ¨Í> s]ï^
còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) >tµåV| >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà s]ï^ 2016
Tn
B) >tµåV| >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà s]ï^ 2015
C) >tµåV| >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà s]ï^ 2013 D) >tµåV| >ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà s]ï^ 2017
120. Which is considered as an important basic Revenue Department Document for calculating the
agricultural Production?
e/
A) Madangal B) Tax receipt C) Patta D) Adangal
>twï ¶ás_ skÄVB cuÃÝ]çB ïðÂþ|D Îò xÂþB ¶½©Ãç¦ kòkVF mçÅ gkð\Vï
ïò>©Ã|km?
A) \¦ºï_ B) kö «æm C) Ãâ¦V D) ¶¦ºï_
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
ïè>D (MATHS)
121. At what time between 7 and 8 will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line, but not
together?
A) 5 minutes past 7 B) 5 minutes past 7
C) 5 minutes past 7 D) 5 minutes past 7
ï½ïV«Ý]_ 7ÂzD 8ÂzD Öç¦l_ ï½ïV«Ý][ xâï^ ¨Ý>çª \èl_ ¨]ì ¨]¼« μ«
5
¼åì¼ïVâ½_ WuzD?
A) 7 x½Ím 5 Wt¦ºï^ B) 7 x½Ím 5 Wt¦ºï^
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C) 7 x½Ím 5 Wt¦ºï^ D) 7 x½Ím 5 Wt¦ºï^
122. January 1, 2009 was a Thursday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 2010?
A) Thursday B) Wednesday C) Friday D) Saturday
ps
2009gD gõ| Ûªkö 1D ¼>] sBVwÂþwç\ ¨M_ 2010D gõ| Ûªkö 1D ¼>] ¨[ª
þwç\?
A) sBVw[ B) A>[ C) Øk^¹ D) ÄM
123. STUDENT : MARKS : : ________ : __________
A) Teacher :Class
C) Scholar : Book
\Vðk[ : \]©ØÃõ :: ________ : __________
A) gEöBì : kz©ÃçÅ
Tn
B) Pen : Nib
D) Waiter : Tip
B) ¼ÃªV : xçª
e/
C) g«VFßEBVáì : AÝ>ïD D) ïVÝ]ò©Ãkì : ½©ü
124. If DIAMOND is coded as GLDPRQG, then SYSTEM is coded as
A) VBVWHP B) VBVWOP
.m
C) VBWVPH D) VBOWPV
DIAMOND ¨[Ãm GLDPRQG ¨ªÂ z¤X| ØÄFB©Ãâ¦V_ SYSTEM ¨[Ã>[ z¤X|
A) VBVWHP B) VBVWOP
C) VBWVPH D) VBOWPV
//t
125.
4 2 9 3 20 5
6 6 ?
s:
3 2 7
The missing number is
A) 12 B) 28 C) 35 D) 100
tp
4 2 9 3 20 5
6 6 ?
ht
3 2 7
s|Ã⦠¨õðVªm
A) 12 B) 28 C) 35 D) 100
th th
126. Find the number of days between 12 January 2004 and 7 March 2004.
A) 54 days B) 53 days C) 55 days D) 52 days
12 Ûªkö 2004ÂzD 7 \Vìß 2004ÂzD Öç¦l_ c^á åV^ïçá ïðÂþ|ï.
A) 54 åV^ï^ B) 53 åV^ï^ C) 54 åV^ï^ D) 52 åV^ï^
A) S B) T C) U D) V
s|Ã⦠¨¿Ý>Vªm
G J P
5
B K L
F N ?
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A) S B) T C) U D) V
128. Find the next diagram?
ps
A) B) C) D)
1
6 2 5
s:
3
4
tp
A) 1 and 3 B) 6 and 5
C) 2 and 4 D) 1 and 4
>kÅVª Öçð ¨m?
ht
1
6 2 5
3
4
A) 1 \u®D 3 B) 6 \u®D 5
C) 2 \u®D 4 D) 1 \u®D 4
131.
1. 2.
3. 4.
5
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
132.
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ps
?
A) B)
Tn
C) D)
e/
133.
5 15 10
.m
4 17 9
10 ? 10
//t
s:
A) 11 B) 12 C) 15 D) 10
4 5 6
tp
134.
2 3 7
ht
1 8 3
21 98 ?
A) 16 B) 73 C) 76 D) 94
135.
A M B N
R C S D
E U F ?
A) T B) F C) R D) V
5
136. How many straight lines are given in the picture?
c8
ÿ¼w c^á æÝ]_ ¨Ý>çª ¼åì¼ïV|ï^ c^áª?
ps
A) 9 B) 15
137. How many squares are given in the following picture?
¸[kòD æÝ]_ ¨Ý>çª Äm«ºï^ c^᪠¨ª ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï
Tn
C) 11 D) 48
e/
A B C D
F G
.m
E H
J K
I L
//t
N O
M P
s:
A) 9 B) 14 C) 13 D) 10
138. Rohan is taller than Anand but shorter than Seema.
Krishna is taller than Pushpa but shorter than Anand.
tp
139. A started from a place. After walking for a kilometer in a direction, he turns to the left, then
walking for a half kilometer, he again turns to the left, Now he is going eastwards, in what direction
did he originally started?
A) West B) East C) North D) South
A ¨[Ãkì {ö¦Ý]oòÍm Îò ]çÄçB ¼åVÂþ Îò þ¼éV*â¦ì å¦Í> ¸Åz Ö¦©ÃÂïD
]òD¸ þ¼éV*â¦ì å¦Ím ¸Åz *õ|D Ö¦©ÃÂïD ]òD¸ å¦Ím ØÄ_þÅVì. >u¼ÃVm ¶kìþwÂz
]çÄ ¼åVÂþ å¦Ím ØÄ[ÅV_, Ø>V¦ÂïÝ]_ ¶kì ¨Í> ]çÄçB ¼åVÂþ å¦ÂïÝ
Ø>V¦ºþªVì?
5
A) ¼\uz B) þwÂz C) k¦Âz D) Ø>uz
140. Choose the correct option to complete the alphabet letter series.
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AB___B, BC___C, AB____, AB___B
A) CCAAC B) CBABC C) CACAC D) BCCAB
ØïV|Âï©Ã⦠gºþé ¨¿Ým Ø>V¦ìköçÄçB WçÅ¡ ØÄF¥D ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ
¼>ìÍØ>|Âï.
ps
AB___B, BC___C, AB____, AB___B
A) CCAAC B) CBABC C) CACAC D) BCCAB
141. Introducing a girl, Raj said, “Her mother is the only daughter of my mother – in – law”. How is raj
related to the girl?
A) Uncle B) Father
Tn C) Brother
Îò ØÃõçð «Vë ¨[Ãkì ''¶kÓç¦B ¶D\V ¨ªm \VtBVòÂz μ« \ï^'' ¨ª
¶¤xï©Ã|ÝmþÅVì ¨M_ ¶©ØÃõèuz «Vë ¨[ª cÅ¡?
A) \V\V B) >Íç> C) ļïV>«ì D) ïðkì
D) Husband
e/
142. Choose the correct option to complete the alphabet letter series.
___ABA____CABC___DCBA____BAB____A
A) ABDCA B) BCADC C) ABCDD D) CBDAA
.m
he turns towards East and walks 5m. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point.
A) 15m, South B) 17m, North – West C) 7m, East D) 13m, South – East
«Vý ¨[Ãkì Ø>uz ¼åVÂþ å¦ÂïÝ Ø>V¦ºzþÅVì. 20* #«D å¦Í> ¶kì k¦Âz ¼åVÂþ ]òD¸
s:
8* #«D å¦ÂþÅVì. \®Ã½¥D þwÂz ¼åV ]òD¸ 5* #«D å¦ÂþÅVì ¨M_, g«Dà ֦Ý]oòÍm
¨Ëká¡ #«D ¨Í>Ý ]çÄl_ ¶kì Öò©ÃVì?
A) 15*, Ø>uz B) 17*, k¦¼\uz
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is the costliest?
A) B B) C C) D D) E
Î[®ÂØïV[® Ä\t_éV sÝ]BVÄ\Vª sçéïçá ØïVõ¦ nÍm ØÃVò^ï^ A,B, C, D
\u®D EŠÖ_ CŠ[ sçé Ô.100 gzD. AŠ[ sçé CŠ n s¦ zçÅ¡ gªV_ B Šn s¦
¶]ïD EŠ [ sçé C Šn s¦ ¶]ïD gªV_ DŠn s¦ zçÅ¡ ¨M_ Öku®^ tï¡D
¶]ï sçé¥^á ØÃVò^ ¨m?
A) B B) C C) D D) E
5
students are there in the class?
A) 31 B) 32
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C) 33 D) 34
Îò kz©¸_ ¼«Vï[ ¼\oòÍm °wVkm >«Ý]KD ÿ¼wlòÍm ÖòÃÝ] gÅVkm >«Ý]KD
¼>ìßE ØÃuÅV_ ¶Í> kz©¸_ c^á \Vðkìï¹[ ¨õèÂçï ¨Ëká¡?
A) 31 B) 32
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C) 33 D) 34
147. Which of the following diagrams correctly represent the three words : English, Latin, Greek?
A) B)
Tn C) D)
gºþéD, éÝy[, þ¼«ÂïD gþB J[® kVìÝç>ïçá ÄöBVï Øk¹©Ã|ÝmD ÿ¼w c^á
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æD ¨m?
A) B) C) D)
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148. Which number is in all the geometrical figures in the following diagram?
s:
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A) 2 B) 3
C) 5 D) 8
5
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A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 8
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1 5
2 4 2 6
A) 1 B) 3
2 3 4 5
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1 3 1 5 2 3 1 6
A) 1 B) 6 C) 5 D) 2
//t
5
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ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
31 A 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 D 38 C 39 A 40 D
41 B 42 C 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 A
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51 C 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 D 60 C
61 D 62 D 63 D 64 B 65 B 66 D 67 B 68 C 69 A 70 B
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 C 76 C 77 B 78 C 79 C 80 D
81 A 82 A 83 D 84 B 85 D 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 A
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91 D 92 A 93 A 94 D 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 B 99 C 100 C
101 D 102 C 103 A 104 B 105 C 106 C 107 D 108 C 109 C 110 C
111 D 112 C 113 D 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 D 122 C 123 D 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 A 128 C 129 C 130 D
131
141
D
B
132
142
D
A
133
143
D
D
134
144
D
C
135
145 Tn
D
B
136
146
C
B
137
147
C
D
138
148
B
A
139
149
A
A
140
150
C
A
e/
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11 B 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 A 19 C 20 D
21 A 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 B 30 B
31 A 32 B 33 D 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 D 38 C 39 A 40 D
s:
41 B 42 C 43 B 44 C 45 B 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 C 50 A
51 C 52 A 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 D 60 C
61 D 62 D 63 D 64 B 65 B 66 D 67 B 68 C 69 A 70 B
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71 C 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 C 76 C 77 B 78 C 79 C 80 D
81 A 82 A 83 D 84 B 85 D 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 A
91 D 92 A 93 A 94 D 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 B 99 C 100 C
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101 D 102 C 103 A 104 B 105 C 106 C 107 D 108 C 109 C 110 C
111 D 112 C 113 D 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 D 122 C 123 D 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 A 128 C 129 C 130 D
131 D 132 D 133 D 134 D 135 D 136 C 137 C 138 B 139 A 140 C
141 B 142 A 143 D 144 C 145 B 146 B 147 D 148 A 149 A 150 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 1
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¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 114 / åV^ Š 06.09.2021
.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (200)
¶éz Š 8 85 sªVÂï^
tp
5
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TIME: 3 HRS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 14) TOTAL MARKS: 200
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>twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| (TAMILNADU HISTORY AND CULTURE)
1. cò¡ïõ| ¨^áVç\ ¼kõ|D cò^ ØÃòͼ>ìÂz
A) mè¡
C) sçªÝ]âÃD
Tn
¶ßÄVè ¶[ªVì cç¦Ým Š ¨ÐD zÅâÃV Ö¦D ØÃu®^á ¶]ïV«D ¨m?
B) g^sçª cç¦ç\
D) Eu¤ªD ¼Ä«Vç\
2. mÞEªVì ØÄÝ>Vö[ ¼k®¶_é슊ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ
e/
åÞ·cõÃVì ï^cõ Ãkì Š s|Ã⦠ØÄV_çé ïõ¦¤ï.
A) ¶m¼ÃVé B) ¨ÞQV[®D C) Öò¼k® D) ¶Ëkm
3. kV^¼ÃV_ Ãçïkç« ¶ÞÄuï ¶Þ·ï Š ¨ÐD zÅâÃVs_ T
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D) ¼\uïõ¦ °mt_çé
4. ]òk^Ókì Ã_ïçéÂïwïD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ|^á Ö¦D ¨m?
A) ØÄ[çª B) ]òk^jì C) ¼kÙì D) ïVÞEA«D
s:
6. ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. çkBÝm^ kVµkVºz kVµÃk[ Š 1. ¼ÄìÍ>Vç«Â ØïV_o A) 4 3 2 1
b. ÃB[#ÂïVì ØÄF> c>s Š 2. QVéÝ][ \Vð©ØÃöm B) 3 4 1 2
c. EªD Š 3. Ø>FkÝm^ çkÂï©Ã|D C) 3 4 2 1
d. ïVéÝ]ªVu ØÄF> å[¤ Š 4. å[ç\ ï¦o[ ØÃöm D) 1 2 3 4
7. ]ª_ØÃVòâ¦V_ ØïV_éVm céz ¨M_ Š ¨ÐD zÅâÃV Ö¦DØÃu®^á ¶]ïV«D ¨m?
A) ØïV_éVç\ B) Ö«kßÄD C) AéV_ \®Ý>_ D) ïBç\
5
11. ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. Økz¹ Š 1. ïæ\uÅkì A) 1 2 3 4
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b. Açª Š 2. ÃVmïV©A B) 1 3 2 4
c. °\D Š 3. Ø>©ÃD C) 2 3 4 1
d. ]ò Š 4. ØÄ_kD D) 2 4 3 1
12. å|ºzD ýBVª m[ÃD Ö_éV>kì BVì?
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A) k«©¼ÃVkç> x[ª¼« ¶¤Ím ïVÝmÂØïV^á í½Bkì
B) \ªÝ]âÃD cç¦Bkì
C) ¶«Äç«ß ÄVìÍm kVµþ[Åkì
D) ó>V|t¦Ý]_ ïVéD ïa©Ãkì
B) EªD
Tn
13. '>ͼåVF¼ÃV_ ¼ÃVuÅV ïç¦' ‡ ÖÂzŹ_ ¼åVF ¨[Ãm ¨>çª z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) ¸è
14. ¨çªÝ>VÐD BVìÂzD ¨ÞQV[®D \ªÝ>VªVD
C) Ö[ÃD D) m[ÃD
g
e/
\VðVØÄF >çé BVç\. ‡ æìïçá xçÅ©Ã|Ý] ¨¿mï.
A) ¨çªÝ>VÐD ¨ÞQV[®D \ªÝ>VªD BVìÂzD
>çé \VðV ØÄFBVç\
ïV
i
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5
21. ÖçÅ\VâE ¨[Ãm
A) ÖçÅkçª ØÃòç\BVï í®km
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B) åõÃM[ zðºïçá ØÃòç\BVï í®km
C) ¶«·ÂzöB ØÃòç\ zðºïçá í®km
D) gEöBö[ zðºïçá ØÃòç\BVï í®km
22. ïuï ¼kõ½BkuçÅ ¸çw Ö_éV\_ ïuï ¼kõ|D ïuŸ[ ïuÅ kal_ å¦Âï ¼kõ|D ‡
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¨[® í®D zÅ^ ¨m?
A) ¨õØð[à °çª ¨¿ÝØ>[à ÖËs«õ|D
ïVõØð[à kV¿D clìÂz
B) ïuï ïĦÅ ïuÃçk ïuŸ[
Wuï ¶>uzÝ >ï. Tn
C) Ø>Vâ¦çªÝm »®D \ðuïè \VÍ>ìÂzÂ
ïuÅçªÝm »®D ¶¤¡.
D) ¼ï½_ s¿ßØÄ_kD ï_s Îòkuz
e/
\V¦_é \uçÅ Bçk.
23. ¼ï½_ s¿ßØÄ_kD ï_s Îòkuz ‡ ÖÂzŹ_ Ãl[® kÍm^á ÃV_, ÖB_, ¶]ïV«D ¨m?
A) ØÃVòâÃV_, ¶«EB_, ï_s B) ØÃVòâÃV_, ¶ºïsB_, ï_s
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C) ïVïD D) ÃòÍm
26. '\½çB \½BV οï_' ¨[Å zŹ_ >D z½çBß EÅ©Aç¦B z½BVï ØÄFB sòDA Ãkì
¨ËkV® kVµ>_ ¼kõ|D ¨ª k^Ókì z¤©¸|þÅVì?
ht
5
¶>çª ¶k[ïõ s¦_. ‡ ÖÂzŹ[ ¶]ïV«D ¨m?
A) Ø>öÍm sçªBV¦_ B) ØÃVßÄVkVç\ C) ØÄV_k[ç\ D) ¶çkB¤>_
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31. '¨ç>¥D å[z g«VFÍm ÎòÃÂïD ÄVBVm å|¡Wçél_ W[® å¦Ýmkç> EÅÍ> gâE
gzD' ¨[Å ïòÝç> ØïVõ¦ k^Ókì í®D zÅ^ ¨m?
A) z½AÅD ïVݼ>VD¸Â zuÅD ï½>_ B) {ìÍmïõ ¼ðV¦Vm ÖçÅAöÍm BVì\â|D
k|k[® ¼kÍ>[ Ø>Va_. ¼>ìÍmØÄF kà¼> xçÅ
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C) å[¼Å >öÐD å|sïÍ>VD gÂïÝç> D) ¶Í>ðì ±uzD ¶ÅÝ]uzD g]BVF
¼>ìÍmØÄF kà¼> xçÅ W[Åm \[ªk[ ¼ïV_
32. Økò kÍ> ØÄFBVç\ ¨[ÐD ¶]ïV«Ý]_ ¶«ÄM[ ï¦ç\BVï zÅ^ z¤©¸|km ¨m?
A) Îòkì ØÄF¥D zuÅÝç> ïõ¦¤Ím ¶kç« #Âþo|km.
Tn
B) åVâ禩 ÃVmïVÂï ¼ÃVòÂz ¸ÅåV⼦[ ØÄ_km
C) Îòkì ØÄF¥D zuÅÝç> g«VFÍm, *õ|D ¶ÂzuÅÝç> ¶kì ØÄFBV>kV® >õ½©Ãm.
D) åVâ½_ ¶ÅÝç> WçéW®Ýmkm.
33. Ãé±_ïçá ïuÅkö[ ï_s ¨©¼ÃVm ØÃòç\B禥D ¨ª zÅ^ í®þÅm?
e/
A) ¶«Äö¦D >[ ïòÝç> ¨|Ýmç«ÂzD ¼ÃVï,
B) ØÄVuïçá g«V¥D ¶¤Qì WçÅÍ> ¶çkl_ ¼Ã·D ¼ÃVm
C) ï_s ¶¤¡ ØÃÅV>kö¦D >[ ïòÝç> Aé©Ã|ÝmD ¼ÃVm,
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A) >[ z½ Øïâ¦a¥D
B) WçªÝ>kòÂz Øï|>_ ØÄFB ¶ÅD WçªÂzD.
C) WçªÝ>kM[ ¨õð¼\ ¶kçª ¶aÂzD.
D) ¼ï| W窩ÃV[ Øï|kV[
37. ''ØÄ_kÝm^ ØÄ_kD ØÄsßØÄ_kD'' ¨ªÝ Ø>V¦ºzD ]òÂzÅ^ Ö¦D ØîD
¶]ïV«D, ÖB_, ÃV_?
A) ï_s, ¶ç\ß·ÖB_, ØÃVòâÃV_ B) ï_s, ¶«EB_, ØÃVòâÃV_
C) ¼ï^s, ¶«EB_, ØÃVòâÃV_ D) ¼ï^s, ¶ç\ß·ÖB_, ØÃVòâÃV_
5
¶ßØÄBKÂz ØÃòç\>òD.
C) å_éªkuçÅ ¼ïâ¦V_ ¼ïâzD ¶ásuz ØÃòç\ cõ¦VzD.
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D) sçªÝ]â¦D cç¦Bk«m ØÄB_ åVâç¦ gÓD ¶«Äçª
¶ç¦Ím ØÃòç\çB cõ¦VÂzD.
40. "¼>«V[ Ø>¹¡D.........
y«V Ö|Dçà >òD" ‡ ÖÂzŹ_ y«V> m[ÃÝç> >òD BVòÂz?
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A) g«VBV\_ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFB©Ãâ¦kªÂz
B) g«VBV\_ Îòkçª ¼>ì¡ ØÄF>kÐÂz
C) ÖòkòÂzD
D) Ö|Dçà ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¼\uïõ¦ J[® xçÅlÐD ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã¦s_çé.
41. {Î>_, g¶mD ¨[ê xçżB,
A) s|>_, cB« WçªÝ>_
C) Øî>_, cB« WçªÝ>_
Tn B) s|>_, >Vw WçªÝ>_
D) Øî>_, >Vw WçªÝ>_
g
ïV
42. '¶öBku®^ ¨_éVD ¶ö¼> ØÃöBVç«©
e/
¼ÃèÝ >\«V ØïVá_' ‡ ÖÂzÅâÃV Ö¦DØÃu®^á ¶]ïV«D? i
A) ØÃöBVç«Ý mçð¼ïV¦V_ B) Ø\Fcðì>_
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5
A) ÖẼïVk½ï^ B) ïDÃì C) ÎáçkBVì D) ]òJéì
52. ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ >kÅVª ÖçðBÝ ¼>ìï.
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A) kék[ °kV kVª »ì] Š AÅåVû® B) ""{ì ¨Í]« Æì]Ö Bu®t['' Š ækïEÍ>V\è
C) >tµs| #m ¨[ÐD ±çé c.¼k.ÄV 1936 Ö_ x>[ x>o_ Ã]©¸Ý>Vì
D) "kðÂïD k^Ók' ¨[ÐD ïsç> ±KÂz 2004 gD gõ|ÂïVª ÄVþÝ]B ¶ïVØ>t sòm
kwºï©Ãâ¦m.
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53. ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá ïVõï.
1. \mç«ÂïVÞE 782 ¶½ïçá ØïVõ¦m. ¶ku®^ 345 ¶½ï^ \mç«çB© Ãu¤ \â|D
EÅ©¸Ým í®þ[Ū.
2. \Vºz½ \ò>ªVì ¨â|ÝØ>Vçïl_ Ã][J[® ÃV¦_ïçá© ÃV½¥^áVì.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö Tn
54. ¨â|ÝØ>Vçï ±_ïÓ^ ¶ïxD AÅxD ÄVìÍ> ±_ ¨m?
A) ¶ïåVû® B) ÃöÃV¦_
C) 2 \â|D Äö
C) Ã]u®©ÃÝm
D) 1, 2 >k®
D) ïoÝØ>Vçï
55. íu® Š ÃVçé >M©Ã⦠Wé\[®
e/
ïV«ðD Š z¤ÞE WéxD x_çé WéxD >[ ÖB_¸_ \VuÅD ØÃuÅ>V_ ¼>V[¤Bm ÃVçé.
A) íu®D Äö ïV«ðxD Äö B) ïV«ðD \â|D Äö
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® \â|D Äö
.m
56. ""å[®D ymD gF>KD ¶[AD ¶ÅÐD ïVÝ>KD ¶ç\ßÄì ï¦ç\'' ¨[® í®D ±_ ¨m?
A) AÅåVû® B) åu¤çð C) ïoÝØ>Vçï D) \mç«ÂïVÞE
57. ''Eu¤_ åuGõ Ãu¤ W[\ï[ ..............'' ¨ªÝ Ø>V¦ºzD ÃV¦_ ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ±o_
Ö¦DØÃu®^ám?
//t
5
65. ØïVuçïl_ ØÄ_kì °¤kòD z]ç«l[ záDAïÓÂz^ \Vâ½ÂØïV^ÓD ¶ásuzÂ
ï竼BV«ºï¹_ ØÃVò^ï^ zsÍ]òÍ>ª ¨[® z¤©¸|D ÃV¦_ ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ±o_
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ïVð©Ã|þÅm?
A) ¶ïåVû® B) AÅåVû®
C) Ãâ½ð©ÃVçé D) \mç«ÂïVÞE
66. C.N. Annadurai was born on
ps
A) September 15, 1909 B) September 20, 1909 T
C) March 09, 1910 D) March 21, 1910
C.N.¶õðVmç« ¸ÅÍ> kò¦D A
A) 1909 ØÄ©¦DÃì 15 B) 1909 ØÄ©¦DÃì 20
C) 1910 \Vìß 09
Tn D) 1910 \Vìß 21
67. 1. When Annadurai joined the Justice Party, the Justice Party was declining
2. E.V.R. Periyar was running self-respect movement, without joining the Justice Party.
F
3. Indian National Congress was fighting for Indian independence as a national movement
e/
A) 1, 3 correct B) 2 Only correct C) 2, 3 correct D) All correct
1.¶õðVmç« À]ÂïâEl_ ¼ÄìÍ> ¼ÃVm À]ÂïâE Äö¡ ÃVç>l_ ÃBèÝm ØïVõ½òÍ>m.
2.À]ÂïâEl_ ¼Ä«V\_ ØÃöBVì ~.Øk.«V ·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝç> å¦Ý] ØïVõ½òÍ>Vì.
.m
ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.1936gD gõ| À]ÂïâEl[ ÄVìÃVï ïVºþ«ü ¼kâÃVáòÂz ¨]«Vï ¼ÃVâ½l⦠¶õðVmç«
Øku¤ ØÃuÅVì.
tp
2.¼ÃßÄVuÅ_ \â|D ¼>ì>o_ Øku¤ ØÃÅ ¼ÃV>Vm ¨[Å ¶«EB_ cõç\çB cðìÍ>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
ht
69. Dravida Kazhagam’s State Conference was held on 29th& 30th September 1945 in
A) Madurai B) Tirupur C) Trichy D) Kanchipuram
1945 ØÄ©¦DÃì 29 - 30 ¼>]ï¹_ ]«Vs¦ ïwïD \VWé \VåV| ¨ºz åç¦ØÃuÅm.
A) \mç« B) ]ò©¯ì C) ]òßE D) ïVÞEA«D
70. Periyar become the Chairman of Erode municipality in the year
A) 1919 - 1920 B) 1921 - 1922 C) 1918 - 1919 D) 1923 - 1924
ØÃöBVì ~¼«V| åï« \[Å >çék«Vï Ã>s kþÝ> kò¦D?
A) 1919 - 1920 B) 1921 - 1922 C) 1918 - 1919 D) 1923 - 1924
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
5
3. >V>DÃâ½l_ ¶kòÂzß ØÄVÍ>\Vª 500 Ø>[çª \«ºïçá Økâ½ß ÄVFÝ>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
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72. The Dravidian Movement rejuvenated under the leadership of
A) Anna B) Periyar C) Kalaignar D) Kamaraj
BVòç¦B >çéç\l[ ÿµ ]«Vs¦ ÖBÂïD >tµåVâ½_ AÝmlì ØÃuÅm?
A) ¶¤Qì ¶õðV B) ØÃöBVì
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C) ïçéQì ïòðVW] D) z. ïV\«VÄì
73. Whose period did Second World Tamil Conference was held?
A) Periyar B) Annadurai
C) MGR
A) ØÃöBVì
C) ¨D.÷.gì
B) ¶¤Qì ¶õðV
D) ØÛBéo>V
Tn D) Jayalalitha
BVòç¦B gâE ïVéÝ]_ Ö«õ¦Vkm céïÝ >tµ \VåV| å¦Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
75. According to Pliny's book Natural History, Who controlled the port of Bacare on the Kerala coast?
A) Cheras B) Cholas C) Pandyas D) Pallavas
¸¹Ml[ ÖBuçï k«éV® ¨[ÐD ±o[ ý, ¼ï«á ï¦uïç«l_ ÖòÍ> ÃÂïV¼« mçÅxïD
BVòç¦B ï⦩ÃVâ½_ ÖòÍ>m?
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5
C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
íu®1 : Ø>V_ ÃwºïVéÝ]uz ¨¿Ým©¯ìk ÄV[®ï^ c^áª.
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íu®2 : k«éVu®Â ïVéÝ]uz ¨¿Ým©¯ìk\Vª ÄV[® \u®D Ø>V_oB_ ÄV[®ïÓD cõ|.
A) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö B) íu® 2 >k® 1 Äö
C) ¶çªÝmD Äö D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
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81. Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act introduced in the year
A) 1958 B) 1960 C) 1968 D) 1948
Ãwç\ kVFÍ> W窡 E[ªºï^ Ø>V_oB_ gF¡ ïáºï^ \u®D ¨ÞEB ØÃVòâï^ Äâ¦D
ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠gõ| ¨m?
A) 1958 B) 1960
82. Post sangam Age is ________
A) Approx.CE. 300 - 500CE
C) Approx. CE. 500 - 300CE
C) 1968
Tn
D) 1948
A) 1978 B) 1868
C) 1878 D) 1848
ÖÍ]BVs_ c^á Ø>V_oB_ ØÃVòâïçá ÃVmïV©Ã>uz ÖÍ]B ïòÆéD \u®D Aç>B_ Äâ¦D
¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠gõ| ¨m?
A) 1978 B) 1868 C) 1878 D) 1848
5
ÃwM\çé Ãu¤B >ïk_ï¹_ ÄöBVªm?
1.kV_ÃVçÅ \çékVa¦D ¶ç\Ím^ám.
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2.]õ|Âï_ \Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám.
3.ØïVç¦ÂïVª_ \çékVa¦D ¶ç\Ím^ám.
4.ÖD\çél[ tï cB«\Vª Eï«D ¼kDÃw ¼ÄVçé gzD.
A) 2, 4 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 \â|D Äö C) 3, 4 \â|D Äö D) 2, 3, 4 \â|D Äö
ps
87. Arrange :
1.Banasura hill 2.Vandaravu 3. Mukuruthi 4. Vembadi shola 5.Perumal malai
A) 34 251 B) 2 3 4 51 C) 3 2 451 D) 3 5 4 2 1
köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï.
1.ÃïV·«V
4.¼kDÃw¼ÄVçé
A) 3 4 2 5 1
2.kÍ>«VË
5.ØÃò\V^ \Vçé
B) 2 3 4 5 1
3.xÂzòÝ]
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C) 3 2 4 5 1
88. Statement 1: Palani hills is the eastern part of the Western Ghats.
D) 3 5 4 2 1
e/
Statement 2: Nilgiris hills has 24 peaks above 2000 metres high.
Statement 3: Western Ghats covers an area of 2500 sq km
A) All correct B) 1, 2 only correct
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A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 3 \â|D Äö D) 2, 3 \â|D Äö
89. Kadamparai Hydro electric power plant is located in ________hills
s:
90. The highest peak of the Western Ghats in Tamil Nadu is _____ and its height _____
A) Dodabetta, 2554 B) Dodabetta, 2837 C) Dodabetta, 2864 D) Dodabetta, 2637
>tµåVâ½[ ¼\uz Ø>V¦ìßE \çél[ cB«\Vª Eï«D ¨m (\) cB«D?
ht
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D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
93. "Grizzled Squirrel Wildlife Sanctuary" is located in __________district
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A) Dindigul B) Tirunelveli C) Virudhunagar D) Kanyakumari
''\çé ¶è_ Ä«ðVéBD'' ¨Í> \Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám?
A) ]õ|Âï_ B) ]òØå_¼ko C) sòmåïì D) ï[MBVz\ö
ps
94. Statement 1: Kavalur Astronomical observatory which was established in 1967 is located on
Jawadhu Hills.
Statement 2: Most of Jawadhu hills are made up of blue basalt rocks
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
Tn
íu® 1: 1967gD gõ| W®k©Ã⦠ïVkÙì kVªsB_ Ø>Vçé¼åVÂþ ç\BD ÛËkVm \çél_
¶ç\Ím^ám.
íu® 2: ÛËkVm \çél[ ØÃòDÃV[ç\BVª Ãz] ÀéWÅ ÃVÄ_â ÃVçÅïáV_ còkVªm.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
e/
95. Yercauduknown as Poor man’s ooty is located in
A) Javadu Hill B) Servarayan Hill C) Kolli Hill D) Kalvarayan Hill
T
''°çwï¹[ »â½'' ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|D °uïV| ¨Í> \çél_ ¶ç\Ím^ám?
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C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : þwÂz Ø>V¦ìßE \çél[ cB«\Vª Eï«D ¼\_Ãâ| gzD.
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98. Match : a b c d e
a.Sivan Hills - 1. Kanyakumari A) 4 3 5 1 2
b.Agasthiyar Hills - 2. Perambalur B) 4 5 3 1 2
c. Marunthuvazh Hills - 3. Villupuram C) 4 5 1 3 2
d. Kalvarayan Hills - 4. Erode D) 4 5 3 2 1
e.Pachaimalai Hills - 5. Tirunelveli
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a.Ek[ \çé Š 1. ï[MBVz\ö A) 4 3 5 1 2
b.¶ïÝ]B \çé Š 2. ØëDÃÙì B) 4 5 3 1 2
5
c.\ò>kVµ \çé Š 3. s¿©A«D C) 4 5 1 3 2
d.ï_k«VB[ \çé Š 4. ~¼«V| D) 4 5 3 2 1
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e.ÃßçÄ \çé Š 5. ]òØå_¼ko
99. Which mountain runs parallel to the east coast of South India?
A) Pachaimalai Hills B) Agasthiya Hills
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C) Kolli Hills D) Marunthuvazh Hills
Ø>[MÍ]BVs[ þwÂz ï¦uïç«Âz ÖçðBVï ØÄ_KD \çé ¨m?
A) ÃßçÄ \çé B) ¶ïÝ]B \çé
C) ØïV_o \çé D) \òmkVµ \çé
100. Choose the incorrect answer.
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A) Baramahal Plateau located in Dharmapuri &Krishnagiri district in Tamilnadu
B) Sigur Plateau in Coimbatore district is intermountain plateau
C) Coromandal Plain is a coastal plain of Tamil Nadu
e/
D) Sand dunes called Teri are found in Ramanathapuram district.
>kÅVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) >tµåVâ½_ ¶ç\Ím^á ÃV«\ÇV_ ¬¦¯t >ì\Aö (\) þòiðþö \Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám
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103. Match. a b c d
a. Winter - 1. June - September A) 1 2 3 4
b.Summer - 2. March - May B) 3 2 1 4
c. Southwest monsoon - 3. January - February C) 3 4 1 2
d. Northeast monsoon - 4. October - December D) 1 4 3 2
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.z¹ìïVéD Š 1. É[ Š ØÄ©¦DÃì
b.¼ïVç¦ÂïVéD Š 2. \Vìß Š ¼\
c.Ø>[¼\uz ÃòkÂïVu® ïVéD Š 3. Ûªkö Š ¸©«kö
5
d.k¦þwÂz ÃòkÂïVu® ïVéD Š 4. ¶Â¼¦VÃì Š ½ÄDÃì
a b c d
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A) 1 2 3 4
B) 3 2 1 4
C) 3 4 1 2
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D) 1 4 3 2
104. Chinnakallar is _______ wettest place in India.
A) Second B) Third C) Fifth D) Fourth
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¶] \çwØîD Ãz]BVï E[ªÂï_éVì ¨Ý>çªBVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
A) Ö«õ¦Vkm B) J[ÅVkm C) nÍ>Vkm
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D) åV[ïVkm
105. Statement 1: Soil is a non-renewable resource.
Statement 2: Soil is divided into five types in Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3: Black soil is formed by the decomposition of igneous rocks. T
e/
A) Only 1 correct B) 2, 3 only correct
C) 3 only correct D) All correct A
íu® 1: \õ {ì Am©¸Âï ÖBéV> ká\VzD.
F
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106. Statement 1 :Social conflicts arise when ethnic, religious, linguistic, caste and cultural groups try to
deprive other communities social rights to gain social dominance.
Statement 2: The concept of social justice refers to an equally fair relationship between the
s:
íu® 1: ÄJï ¼\éV]Âï cðìs窩 ØÃÅ Öª, \>, Ø\Va, ÄV] \u®D ÃõÃVâ| z¿sªì
\uÅ z¿sªö[ ÄJï cöç\ïç᩠äÝØ>|Âï xBKD ¼ÃVm (¶) >|ÂzD¼ÃVm ÄJï©
Ãçï x«õï^ còkVþ[Ū.
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108. Who opposed caste, religion, gender discrimination by birth through his social thinking and
emphasized the concept of humanity & self-respect
A) Anna B) Kamarajar C) Periyar D) M.Singaravelar
¸Å©ÃV_ ÛV], \>D, gõ, ØÃõ ÃVzÃV| gþBkuçÅ >[ ÄJï EÍ>çªBV_ ¨]ìÝ>kì. \u®D
\M> ¼åBD (\) ·B\öBVç> ïòÝç> ko¥®Ý]Bkì BVì?
A) ¶õðV B) ïV\«VÛì C) ØÃöBVì D) \V.Eºï«¼kéì
109. Statement 1:Through social justice, the government& Non-governmental organization ensures its
right and duty in a society and benefits, burdens of society are not shared.
Statement 2: Social justice is not just caste based. Social justice is about helping all the victims of
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society wherever they are.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2correct
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íu® 1: ÄJï À] JéD Îò ÄJïÝ]_ c^á ¶«· (¶) ¶«· ÄV«V W®kªºï¹[ cöç\çB¥D
ï¦ç\çB¥D c®]ØÄFþÅm. ÄJ>VBÝ][ g>VBºïçá¥D ·ç\ïçá¥D ÃþìÍm
ØïV^áÃ|k]_çé.
íu® 2: ÄJï À] ¨[Ãm Øk®D ÄV] ¶½©Ãç¦léVªm ¶_é. ÄJïÝ][ Îâ| Ø\VÝ>\Vï
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ÃV]Âï©Ãâ¦kìï^ ¨ºØï_éVD ÖòÂþÅVìï¼éV ¶kìïÓÂz c>¡k¼> ÄJïÀ].
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
110. Assertion A : Periyar is a social reformer, activist and thinker of Tamil Nadu. Social justice, anti-
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superstition, denial of God, Rationalistic , women's progress and education are called
as Periyar's policies or Periyar thoughts.
Reason R : UNESCO described him a visionary of the new age by appreciating his social
contribution.
A) A, R correct B) A incorrect, R correct
e/
C) A correct, R incorrect D) A & R incorrect
íu®: ØÃöBVì >twï ÄJï æìÝ]òÝ>kV], ØÄBuÃVâ¦Váì, EÍ>çªBVáì gkVì. ¶kì ÄJï À],
ÄV]B ¨]ì©A J¦åD¸Âçï ¨]ì©A, ÖçÅ \®©A, ÃzÝ>¤¡, ØÃõï^ x[¼ªuÅD, ï_s
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113. The socio-economic and political justice of the Constitution of India available to all the people of
India is expressed in
A) Fundamental Rights B) Fundamental Duties
C) Preamble D) DPSP
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ ÄJï ØÃVòáV>V« (\) ¶«EB_ À] ÖÍ]B \Âï^ ¶çªkòÂïD þç¦Âï
¼kõ|D ¨[Å ¼åVÂïÝç> Ø>¹kVï Øk¹Ã|ÝmþÅm.
A) ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ B) ¶½©Ãç¦ ï¦ç\ï^
C) xï¡ç« D) ¶«· Øå¤xçÅ ¼ïVâÃV|ï^
114. Which provision of the Constitution shall not prevent for the creation of special schemes for the
5
upliftment of backward classes, scheduled castes, scheduled tribes of social & educational rights?
A) 29 (2) B) 26 C) 25 D) 24
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ÄJï (\) ï_sl_ ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠kz©¸ªì (¶) Ãâ½B_ ÄV] (\) Ãwºz½lªö[
x[¼ªuÅÝ]uïVª EÅ©A ]⦺ï^ còkVÂzk>uz ¶«Äç\©A Äâ¦s] ¨Í>s] >ç¦BVï
ÖòÂïVm?
A) 29 (2) B) 26 C) 25 D) 24
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115. United Nation’s Declaration - December 18, 1992 Important Resolutions
1. Minority people are entitled to freely practice their culture, religion, propagate and use language
freely without any discrimination or interference in private and public life.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 3 correct
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2. Minority people have the right to create and conduct their own organizations.
3. Minorities should be given the opportunities to develop knowledge about their history, traditions,
language & culture and to learn about society as a whole.
C) Only 2 correct D) 1, 2, 3correct
nÂþB åV| ¸«ï¦ªD Š ½ÄDÃì 18, 1992 xÂþB ¶Dĺï^
e/
1. E®ÃV[ç\ \Âï^ >M©Ã⦠xçÅlKD ØÃVmkVµsKD ¨Í> kçïBVª ÃVzÃV|D z®Âÿ|D
Ö[¤ ·>Í]«\Vï >ºï^ ÃõÃVâç¦ ¸[ÃuÅ¡D \>Ýç> ï禸½Âï¡D ¸«ßÄV«D ØÄFB¡D,
Ø\VaçB© ÃB[Ã|Ý>¡D cöç\ ØÃuÅkìï^ gkì.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
116. Choose the correct option.
1. The Constitution of India does not protect the socio-economic life of all victims according to
s:
democratic principles.
2. Social liberation and social justice are ensured by adopting social development and process.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2correct
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ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍÝØ>|.
1. ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©Aß Äâ¦D \ÂïáVâE Øå¤xçÅï¹[ý ÃV]Âï©Ã⦠¶çªkòÂzD
¶>ïV«Ýç> ÃþìÍ>¹Ým ¶kìï¹[ ÄJï ØÃVòáV>V« kVµÂçïlçª ÃVmïVÂïs_çé.
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A) Thoothukudi B) Ramanathapuram
C) Kanyakumari D) Chennai
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>tµåVâ½_ ¶ç\Ím^á ¨oBâ ï¦uïç« ¨Í> \Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám?
A) #ÝmÂz½ B) Ö«V\åV>A«D C) ï[MBVz\ö D) ØÄ[çª
120. Statement 1: Our Constitution proposes a several guidelines to improve the lives of the weaker
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sections of the society to embrace and develop them.
Statement 2: The Government has provided special schemes for regions where there is no natural
resources or industrial development as per the guidelines of the Constitution.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
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íu® 1: °uÅÝ>Vµ¡ïáV_ åo¡uÅ ¸ösªö[ kVµÂçï ¼\Dæ, ¶kìïçá¥D ¶«kçðÝm
káìßE ØÃu¤¦, å\m ¶«Äç©Aß Äâ¦D Ã_¼k® s>\Vª kaïVâ| Øå¤xçÅïçá
x[Ø\VaþÅm.
íu® 2: ÖBuçï káºï¼áV Ø>Va_ káìßE¼BV Ö_éV> Ãz]ïÓÂz °uà EÅ©A]⦺ïçá
\VWé ¶«· còkVÂþ ØïV^á ¶«Äç\©Aß Äâ¦D kaïVâ|>o[ý¼B ¶«· kwºþ
e/
c^ám.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
121. The Author of Political Liberalism (1993) is
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educational development.
Reason R : According to the Charter Act of 1813, present status changed and there was a new
beginning in the development of education.
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124. Where was the first Uzhavar Santhai in Tamil Nadu established?
A) Chennai B) Cuddalore C) Madurai D) Salem
>twïÝ][ x>_ cwkì ÄÍç> ¨ºz ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m
A) ØÄ[çª B) ï¦Ùì C) \mç« D) ¼ÄéD
125. Statement 1: Board of Public Education was formed in 1820 and government schools were
established in each district. It was also encouraged to open schools in all zones
Statement 2: Due to Munro's efforts, nearly 70 schools were established in the Madras Presidency.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
íu® 1: ØÃVmÂï_s kVöBD (Board of Public Instruction) Î[® 1820Š_ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ|,
5
ÎËØkVò \Vkâ¦Ý]KD ¶«·©Ã^¹ï^ W®k©Ã⦪. ¼\KD k⦺ï¹KD Ã^¹ï^
]Å©Ã>uz »ÂzsÂï©Ã⦪.
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íu® 2: \[¼ÅVs[ xBuElªV_ ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ]_ °ÅÝ>Vw 70 Ã^¹ï^ W®k©Ã⦪.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
126. School Book Society started in the year
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A) 1819 B) 1820 C) 1821 D) 1822
"Ã^¹Âí¦ AÝ>ï ĺïD" ¨Í> gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m,
A) 1819 B) 1820 C) 1821 D) 1822
127. Macaulay education committee established in the year
A) 1834
Ø\ÂïV¼é ï_sÂz¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ|
A) 1834 B) 1835
B) 1835
Tn C) 1836
C) 1836
D) 1837
D) 1837
128. Statement 1: In 1830, the English East India Company introduced downward filtration theory
Statement 2: So education was first given to the people belonging to the upper classesonly. They
e/
should impart the acquired knowledge to the public.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
íu® 1: 1830ŠD gõ| gºþé þwÂþÍ]B ïDØÃM þµ¼åVÂþ ë¡D ]â¦Ýç>
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¶¤xïÃ|Ý]Bm.
íu® 2: ¶>[ý ï_s ¼\_ \⦠¸öçk ÄVìÍ> \ÂïÓÂz \â|D x>o_ ¶¹Âï©Ãâ¦m.
¶kìï^ >VD ØÃuÅ ¶Âï_s ¶¤çk ØÃVm\ÂïÓÂz ¶¹Âï ¼kõ|D.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
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A) 9 B) 6 C) 16 D) 4
130. Statement 1:Thiruvidaikalai inscription mentions about the library.
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5
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¼\çéåVâ| ï_s káìßEÂïVï gºþé ÃV«Ó\[ÅD gõ| Î[®Âz 1 éâÄD ÔÃVF
ÎmÂþBm Ãâ¦BßÄâ¦D ¨m?
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A) 1813 B) 1833 C) 1853 D) 1793
133. Find incorrect statement about Macaulay education committee?
A) Macaulay education Committee was formed in 1835.
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B) Macaulay supported English medium of education.
C) English was introduced in the courts instead of Persian.
D) Tamil medium of education was introduced in higher education.
Ø\ÂïV¼é ï_sz¿ Ãu¤Bku¤[ >kÅVªm?
A) 1835ŠD gõ| Ø\ÂïV¼é ï_sz¿ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
B) Ø\ÂïV¼é gºþ¼éB ka ï_sçB g>öÝ>Vì. Tn
C) À]\[źï¹_ ÃV«æï Ø\VaÂz Ã]éVï gºþéD ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
D) cBìï_sl_ >tµ ka ï_sBVªm ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
T
A
134. In which year was the Neonatal Orientation and Education Program (NOEP) launched?
e/
A) 2013 B) 2014 C) 2015
¼>EB ÃßEáºzwÍç> ÃVmïV©A (\) ï_s ]â¦D ¨Í> gõ| ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m?
D) 2016 F
A) 2013 B) 2014 C) 2015 D) 2016
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135. Statement 1: The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act in India was enacted by the Government of
India in 1954.
Statement 2: In 2006, Food Safety and Standards Act was enacted by the Government of India to
//t
replace this
A) 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1: ÖÍ]BVs_ cð¡ ïé©Ã¦Ý >ç¦ß Äâ¦D 1954Š_ \Ý]B ¶«ÄV_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: 2006Š_ ÖÍ> Äâ¦Ý]uz Ã]éVï cð¡ ÃVmïV©A (\) >« WìðBß Äâ¦D ÖÍ]B ¶«ÄV_
s:
ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1 Äö B) íu® 2 Äö
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137. Find the incorrect Statements about the Kothari education Committee?
A) The Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly was formed on July 14, 1964 under the chairmanship of
D.S Kothari.
B) The Committee submitted its report on July 29, 1966.
C) This report introduced 10 + 2 + 3 education system across the country.
D) None
¼ïVÝ>Vö ï_sz¿ Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm?
A) >twï Äâ¦\[ÅD ýçé 14, 1964Š_ D.S ¼ïVÝ>Vö ¶kìï^ >éç\l_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
B) ÖÂz¿ ýçé 29, 1966Š_ >ªm ¶¤ÂçïçB Ä\ì¸Ý>m.
5
C) ¶Ëk¤Âçï åV| x¿kmD 10+2+3 ï_s xçÅçB åV| x¿kmD ØïVõ| kÍ>m.
D) ¨m¡t_çé
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138. Statement 1: Karkum Bharatam Scheme was launched by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in 2009.
Statement 2: National Education Committee constituted under the chairmanship of Kasturirangan in
2017
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A) 1, 2 Correct B) 2 Correct, 1 Incorrect
C) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect D) 1, 2 Incorrect
íu® 1: ïuzD ÃV«>D ]â¦D Š 2009 gõ| ¸«>\ì \[¼\Vï[ Eº ¶kìïáV_ mkºïÃâ¦m.
íu® 2: 2017ŠD gõ| ïü#ö «ºï[ >çéç\l_ ¼>EB ï_s z¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö
C) íu® 1Äö, 2 >k®
139. Find the incorrect option
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B) íu® 2 Äö, 1 >k®
D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
A) National council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established on Sep 1,
e/
1961.
B) Tamil was introduced as the language of instruction in 1970 in colleges in Tamil Nadu.
C) National education policy introduced vocational education in the year 1978.
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D) The progress of primary education in Tamil Nadu is mainly due to former Chief Minister Rajaji
ÿµïõ¦ku®^ >kÅVªç> ïVõï.
A) ¼>EB ï_s g«VFßE \u®D ÃluE W®kªD (NCERT) 1961Š Sep 1-_ còkVÂïÃâ¦m.
B) >twïÝ]_ c^á ï_Ùöï¹_ 1970ŠD gõ| Ãlu® Ø\VaBVï >tµ ¶¤xïÃ|Ý>Ãâ¦m.
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D) Tamil Nadu Urban Habitation Improvement
144. Choose the wrong ones.
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1) The Tamil Nadu Backward Classes Commission was started on March 14, 1995.
2) This Commission was created on the instruction of the Supreme Court.
3) The main function of this Commission is to consider and recommend who can be included in the
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list of the Backward Classes andMost Backward Classesto the Government.
A) 1 Wrong B) 2 wrong C) 3 wrong D) All wrong
>kÅVªkuçÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1) >tµåV| ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì gçðBD \Vìß 14,1995_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
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2) ÖÍ> gçðBD cßÄÀ]\[ÅÝ][ ¶¤¡®Ý>o[ ¼Ãö_ g«D¸Âï©Ãâ¦m.
3) ÖÍ> gçðBÝ][ ¸«>Vª Ãè ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì tï¡D ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì Ãâ½Bo_ ¨Í>
kz©¸ªç« ¼ÄìÂïéVD ¨[Ãm Ãu¤ ÃöæoÝm ¶«·Âz ÃöÍmç«©Ã>VzD.
A) 1 >k® B) 2 >k®
C) 3 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
e/
145. Assertion A: Uzhavar Santhai was introduced in the year 1999.
Reason R : This scheme is for the convenience of Farmers to sell their produce directly in the
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A) 1 Äö B) 2 Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
147. The application of Information and communication and technology for delivery of public services
to people
A) Coalition B) E – Governance
C) Social Justice D) Socialism
ØÃVm\ÂïÓÂz >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA \u®D Ø>Va_OâÃÝ][ JéD ¼Äçk kwºz>_ ¨[Ãm ŠŠŠŠŠŠ
A) ¶«EB_ íâ¦è B) t[ gÓçï C) ÄJï À] D) Ä\>ì\D
5
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 3, 4 Äö
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149. Which scheme that provides a container of nutritious food items to the mother who have given
birth?
A) Amma baby nutrition kit B) Amma Baby care kit
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C) Amma Baby Disease Prevention Program D) Amma Arogya scheme
¸«ÄkD åç¦ØÃuÅ >VFÂzD zwÍç>ÂzD »â¦ßÄÝm WçÅÍ> cð¡© ØÃVòâï^ ¶¦ºþB
ØÃâ¦ïD kwºzD ]â¦D ¨m?
A) ¶D\V zwÍç> åé Ãö· ØÃâ¦ïD B) >VF ¼ÄF åé©ØÃâ¦ïD
C) >VF ¼ÄF ¼åVFï^ >|©AÝ ]â¦D
A) Tuberculosis B) HIV
90:90:90 ]â¦D ¨Í> ¼åVF c¦[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm?
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D) ¶D\V g¼«VÂþB ]â¦D
150. 90:90:90 strategy is associated with _________disease
C) Covid19 D) Polio
a b c d
A) 1 2 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
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C) 2 1 3 4
D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
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5
C) Family Welfare &Health Department
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D) Department of Information Technology
\Ý]B ¶«E_ ï_s ¨Í> ¶ç\ßÄïÝ][ ÿµ ØÄB_Ã|þÅm?
A) \Ý]B ï_s mçÅ B) \M> ká ¼\DÃVâ|mçÅ
C) z|Dà åé (\) ·ïV>« mçÅ D) >ïk_ Ø>Va_ OâÃmçÅ
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156. Examine the following statement about the Chief Minister's Comprehensive Health Insurance
Scheme.
1. This scheme was launched in 2012 by the Government of Tamil Nadu with United India
Insurance Company.
A) All correct
Tn
2. Based on this, insurance cover up to Rs.2 lakh can be availed.
3. It was incorporated into National Health Insurance Scheme, Ayushman Bharat in 2018.
4. This will enable to get insurance upto 5 lakh at present.
B) 1, 2, 3 correct C) 2, 3, 4 correct D) 1, 3, 4 correct
e/
x>éç\ßÄö[ sökVª \òÝmk ïV©¬â|Ý ]â¦D z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ >ïk_ïçá g«VFï.
1. ÖÝ]â¦D >tµåV| ¶«· (\) ¥çªØ¦â ÖÍ]BV ïV©¬â| W®kªD ÖçðÍm 2012Š_
Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
.m
Reason R : No organ transplant in Tamil Nadu can be performed without its recommendation
A) A & R correct B) A correct, R incorrect
s:
å¦Ý> ÖBéVm.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
ht
5
ØÃVòÝmï. ( TNSWAN Öçð©A) a b c
a. ØĺzÝm Öçð©A Š 1. kVتVo ïVâE ¼Äçkï^ A) 3 2 1
c8
b. þç¦\⦠Öçð©A Š 2. >tµåV| Tâ|kÄ] kVöBD B) 2 1 3
c. Ã]o Öçð©A Š 3. BDO ¶KkéïD C) 1 2 3
D) 3 1 2
ps
160. What are the reasons for the success of Tamil Nadu model in public health?
1. Tamil Nadu was the first State to enact the Public Health Act, 1939.
2. It established a unique public health system at the district level.
3. Government’s commitment and leadership in the field of health.
4. Highly centralized health system
A) Only 1 B) 1, 2 only Tn C) 1, 2, 4 only
ØÃVm ·ïV>V«Ý]_ "">tµåV| \V]ö""l[ Øku¤ÂïVª ïV«ðºï^ BVçk?
1. 1939 gD gõ½_ ØÃVm ·ïV>V«ß Äâ¦Ýç> ÖBu¤B x>_ \VWéD >tµåV|.
D) 1, 2, 3 only
e/
2. \Vk⦠¶ás_ >MÝmk\Vª ØÃVm ·ïV>V« xçÅçB °uÃ|Ý]Bm.
3. ·ïV>V«Ý mçÅl_ ¶«Äl_ Z]BVª ¶ì©Ãè©A (\) >çéç\ÝmkD.
4. ØÃömD ç\B©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠·ïV>V« ¶ç\©Aï^.
A) 1 \â|D B) 1, 2 \â|D C) 1, 2, 4 \â|D D) 1, 2, 3 \â|D
.m
164. During maternity,Medicinal herbs containing ______ type herbal medicines are given through
'Amma Magapperu Sanjeevi’ program to improve the health of women.
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13
¶D\V \塚î ÄÞæs ]â¦Ý][ kaBVï \塚î ïVéÝ]_ ØÃõï¹[ g¼«VÂþBÝç>
ïVÂ‡‡‡‡kçï Joçï \òÍmï^ ¶¦ºþlòÂzD \òÝmk zðx^á Joçïï^ >«©Ã|D
A) 10 B)11 C) 12 D) 13
165. EVR Maniammaiyar Ninaivu Poor Widows Daughters Marriage Assistance Scheme :
Statement 1: This scheme is to help poor widow for marriage
Statement 2: Must apply 40 days before marriage and for exceptional reasons can apply till the first
5
day of marriage
A) 1,2 right B) 1,2 wrong
c8
C) 1 right 2 wrong D) 1 wrong 2 right
~¼k«V \èBDç\BVì W窡 °çw s>çk \ï^ ]ò\ð W]¥>s ]â¦D, g«VFï
íu® 1: °çw s>çkl[ ]ò\ðÝç> å¦Ý> c>¡D ]â¦D
íu® 2: ]ò\ðÝ]uz 40 åVâïÓÂz x[ª>Vï sõð©¸Âï ¼kõ|D Eé EÅ©A ïV«ðºïÓÂïVï
ps
]ò\ðÝ]uz x>_ åV^ kç« sõð©¸ÂïéVD
A) 1,2Äö B) 1,2>k®
C) 1 Äö 2 >k® D)1>k® 2Äö
Reason R: According to the recommendations of this scheme, the Government of Chennai has
created the Department of Public Education
e/
A) A correct, R is the correct interpretation of A
B) A correct, R Wrong
C) A and R wrong
.m
A) 1 correct B) 3 correct
C) 1, 2 correct D) All correct
ÄöBVª sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. ¼\_ EþßçÄ åV^ Š ÄM
2. Ã^¹ ·ïV>V« åV^ Š sBVw[
3. >tµåV| ØÃVmß ·ïV>V«ß Äâ¦D Š 1939
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 3 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
168. Choose the Incorrect answer about Tamil Nadu Women Development Corporation.
A) The institute was started in 1982.
B) Tamil Nadu Women's Development Corporation operated under the Social Welfare
Department till 2006.
C) In the month of July 2006, Tamil Nadu Women's Development Corporation brought under the
control of the Rural Development & Panchayat Raj
D) The reason for bringing rural development &the Panchayat Raj is to integrate many
development projects accomplished by self-help groups.
>tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD Ãu¤B >kÅVª sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
5
A) ÖÂïwïD 1982‡_ mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
B) >tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD 2006 kç« ÄJïåéÝmçÅl[ ÿµ ØÄB_Ãâ¦m.
c8
C) 2006 ýçé \V>D, >tµåV| \ï¹ì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD »«ï káìßE (\) ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë
ÖBÂïÝ][ WìkVï ïâ|©ÃVâ½[ ÿµ ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m.
D) »«ï káìßE (\) ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë ÖBÂïÝ][ ÿµ ØïVõ| k« ïV«ðD ·Bc>s z¿Âï¹[
ps
JéD WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠Ãé káìßE ]⦺ïçá Îòºþçð©Ã>VzD.
169. Choose the correct option
1. National Tobacco Control Program was launched in 2003.
2. National Tuberculosis Elimination Program was launched in 1999.
A) 1, 3 only correct
B) All correct
C) 2, 3 correct
Tn
3. Toll free number for transportation facility during pregnancy is 102.
T
A
F
e/
D) Only 2 correct
ÄöBVª sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. ¼>EB Açïlçé ïâ|ÃVâ| ]â¦D 2003Š_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
2. ¼>EB ïVļåVF >|©AÝ ]â¦D 1999Š_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
.m
ïè>D (MATHS)
172. A cone of height 24 cm is made up of modeling clay. A child reshapes it in the form of a cylinder of
same radius as cone. Find the height of the cylinder.
A) 8 cm B) 10 cm C) 12 cm D) 9 cm
ï¹\õ ØïVõ| ØÄFB©Ã⦠24 ØÄ.* cB«x^á Îò íDçà Îò zwÍç> ¶¼> g«x^á {ì
còçáBVï \Vu®þÅm ¨M_ còçál[ cB«D ïVõï.
A) 8 ØÄ.* B) 10 ØÄ.* C) 12 ØÄ.* D) 9 ØÄ.*
5
173. A right circular cylindrical container of base radius 6 cm and height 15 cm is full of ice cream. The
ice cream is to be filled in cones of height 9 cm and base radius 3 cm, having a hemispherical cap.
c8
Find the number of cones needed to empty the container.
A) 10 B) 12 C) 11 D) 13
6 ØÄ.* g«D \u®D 15 ØÄ.* cB«D ØïVõ¦ {ì còçá k½k© ÃVÝ]«D x¿km\Vï ÃMÂíµ
c^ám. ¶Í>© ÃMÂíwVªm, íDA \u®D ¶ç«Â¼ïVáD ÖçðÍ> k½kÝ]_ W«©Ã©Ã|þÅm.
ps
íD¸[ cB«D 9 ØÄ.* \u®D g«D 3 ØÄ.* ¨M_, ÃVÝ]«Ý]_ c^á ÃMÂíçw W«©Ã ¨Ý>çªÂ
íDAï^ ¼>çk?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 11 D) 13
174. The volume of a solid right circular cone is 11088 cm3. If its height is 24 cm then find the radius of
the cone.
A) 21 cm B) 22 cm
Tn C) 25 cm
Îò ¼åìkâ¦Â íD¸[ ïª ¶á¡ 11088 ï.ØÄ.* gzD. íD¸[ cB«D 24 ØÄ.* ¨M_, ¶>[ g«D
ïVõï.
D) 20 cm
e/
A) 21 ØÄ.* B) 22 ØÄ.* C) 25 ØÄ.* D) 20 ØÄ.*
175. The ratio of the volumes of two cones is 2:3. Find the ratio of their radii if the height of second cone
is double the height of the first.
.m
A) √2 ∶ √3 B) 2 ∶ √3 C) 3 ∶ 2 D) √2 ∶ 3
Öò íDAïÓç¦B ïª ¶á¡ï¹[ sþ>D 2:3 gzD. Ö«õ¦VD íD¸[ cB«D x>_ íD¸[
cB«Ýç>© ¼ÃV_ Öò\¦ºz ¨M_, ¶ku¤[ g«ºï¹[ sþ>D ïVõï.
A) √2 ∶ √3 B) 2 ∶ √3 C) 3 ∶ 2 D) √2 ∶ 3
//t
176. The volume of a cylindrical water tank is 1.078 × 106 litres. If the diameter of the tank is 7 m, find
its height.
A) 25m B) 30 m C) 26m D) 28m
s:
6
{ì còçá k½k >õ§ì Ø>Vâ½l[ ïª ¶á¡ 1.078×10 oâ¦ì gzD. Ø>Vâ½l[ sâ¦D 7*
¨M_, ¶>[ cB«D ïVõï.
tp
A) 25 * B) 30 * C) 26 * D) 28*
177. Find the volume of the iron used to make a hollow cylinder of height 9 cm and whose internal and
external radii are 21 cm and 28 cm respectively.
A) 9750 cm3 B) 9702 cm3 C) 9707 cm3 D) 9700 cm3
ht
{ì c^C¦uÅ còçál[ cB«D, câAÅ \u®D Øk¹©AÅ g«ºï^ xçżB 9 ØÄ.*, 21 ØÄ.*
\u®D 28 ØÄ.* gzD. còçáçB còkVÂïÝ ¼>çk©Ã|D ÖòD¸[ ïª ¶áçk ïVõï.
A) 9750 ï.ØÄ.* B) 9702 ï.ØÄ.* C) 9707 ï.ØÄ.* D) 9700 ï.ØÄ.*
178. Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154 m2.
A) 7m B) 9m C) 10m D) 6m
Îò ¼ïVáÝ][ AÅë©A 154 Ä.* ¨M_ ¶>[ sâ¦D ïVõï.
A) 7* B) 9* C) 10* D) 6*
179. The radius of a spherical balloon increases from 12 cm to 16 cm as air being pumped into it. Find
the ratio of the surface area of the balloons in the two cases.
A) 16:9 B) 8:9 C) 12:9 D) 9:16
Îò ¼ïVá k½k k¹Âíõ½Ð^ ïVu® cÍ>©Ã|D¼ÃVm ¶>[ g«D 12 ØÄ.* ŠoòÍm 16 ØÄ.* gï
cBòþÅm. Öò Aũë©Aï¹[ sþ>D ïVõï.
A) 16:9 B) 8:9 C) 12:9 D) 9:16
180. The radius of a conical tent is 7 m and the height is 24 m. Calculate the length of the canvas used to
make the tent if the width of the rectangular canvas is 4 m?
A) 137m B) 139.5m C) 137.5m D) 136.5m
5
þÝ>VçªÂ ØïVõ| 7* g«xD 24* cB«xD cç¦B Îò íDA k½k í¦V«D còkVÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ØÄËkï k½k þÝ>VM[ ¶ïéD 4* ¨M_, ¶>[ ÀáD ïVõï.
c8
A) 137 * B) 139.5 * C) 137.5 * D) 136.5*
181. A farmer has a field in the shape of a rhombus. The perimeter of the field is 400m and one of its
diagonal is 120m. He wants to divide the field into two equal parts to grow two different types of
ps
vegetables. Find the area of the field.
A) 9600 m2 B) 9500 m2 C) 9000 m2 D) 9700 m2
skÄVl Îòkì ÄVFÄm« k½séVª WéÝç> çkÝm^áVì. ¶Í> WéÝ][ ·uÅá¡ 400* \u®D
¶>[ Îò Jçésâ¦Ý][ ¶á¡ 120* gzD. Ö«õ| Øk˼k® kçïBVª ïVFï¤ïçá© Ãlö¦
B) 15100 litres
Tn
¶kì WéÝç> Öò Ä\Ãz]ïáVï© ¸öÂþÅVì ¨M_ ¶Í> x¿ WéÝ][ ë©çàïVõï.
D) 9700 *2
182. The dimensions of a fish tank are 3.8 m × 2.5 m × 1.6 m. How many litres of water it can hold?
A) 15500 litres C) 15000 litres D) 15200 litres
Îò *[ Ø>Vâ½BVªm 3.8*×2.5*×1.6* ¨[Å ¶á¡ïçá cç¦Bm. ÖÍ>Ý Ø>Vâ½BVªm ¨Ý>çª
e/
oâ¦ì >õ§ì ØïV^ÓD?
A) 15500 oâ¦ì B) 15100 oâ¦ì C) 15000 oâ¦ì D) 15200 oâ¦ì
183. The side of a metallic cube is 12 cm. It is melted and formed into a cuboid whose length and
.m
cB«Ýç>Â ïVõï.
A) 7 ØÄ.* B) 6 ØÄ.* C) 8 ØÄ.* D) 10 ØÄ.*
184. The lengths of sides of a triangular field are 28 m, 15 m and 41 m. calculate the area of the field.
s:
Find the cost of levelling the field at the rate of Rs.20 per m2.
A) Rs.2570 B) Rs.2520 C) Rs.2530 D) Rs.2540
tp
Îò x¼ïVð k½k kBo[ ÃÂï Àáºï^ 28*, 15* \u®D 41*. ¨M_ kBo[ ë©ÃáçkÂ
ïðÂþ|ï. ¼\KD kBçéß Ä\©Ã|Ý> Îò Äm« *â¦òÂz Ô.20 ØÄékVzD ¨M_, kBçéß
Ä\©Ã|Ý> gzD Ø\VÝ>ß ØÄéçk ïðÂþ|ï.
A) Ô.2570 B) Ô.2520 C) Ô.2530 D) Ô.2540
ht
185. The radius of a sector is 21cm and its central angle is 120°. Find the length of the arc, area of the
sector
A) 44 cm, 462 cm2 B) 42 cm, 464 cm2 C) 40 cm, 462 cm2 D) 45 cm, 468 cm2
Îò kâ¦Â¼ïVð© Ãz]l[ g«D 21 ØÄ.* \u®D ¶>[ ç\B¼ïVðD 120° ¨M_ ¶>[
s_o[ ÀáD, ë©Ãá¡ ïVõï.
A) 44 ØÄ.*, 462 ØÄ.*2 B) 42 ØÄ.*, 464 ØÄ.*2
C) 40 ØÄ.*, 462 ØÄ.*2 D) 45 ØÄ.*, 468 ØÄ.*2
186. A circular shaped gymnasium ring of radius 35cm is divided into 5 equal arcs shaded with different
colours. Find the length of each of the arcs.
A) 17π cm B) 12π cm
C) 13π cm D) 14π cm
35 ØÄ.* g«x^á k⦠k½séVª ÷DªVü½Â kçáB\Vªm 5 Ä\ ¶á¡^á suïáVï©
¸öÂï©Ãâ| Øk˼k® Wźï¹_ kõðt¦©Ãâ|^ám ¨M_, ÎËØkVò k⦠s_o[
ÀáÝç>¥D ïVõï.
A) 17π ØÄ.* B) 12π ØÄ.* C) 13π ØÄ.* D) 14π ØÄ.*
187. A floor is 10 m long and 8 m wide. A carpet of size 7 m long and 5 m wide is laid on the floor. Find
5
the area of the floor that is not covered by the carpet.
A) 42 m2 B) 45 m2 C) 40 m2 D) 46 m2
Îò >áD 10* ÀáxD, 8* ¶ïéxD c^ám. ¶>[*m 7* ÀáxD, 5* ¶ïéxD c^á sö©A
c8
söÂï©Ãâ|^ám. ¶Í> sö©ÃV_ J¦©Ã¦V> Ãz]l[ ë©Ãáçk ïVõï.
2 2 2 2
A) 42 * B) 45 * C) 40 * D) 46 *
188. A picture of length 23 cm and breadth 11 cm is painted on a chart, such that there is a margin of
ps
3 cm along each of its sides. Find the total area of the margin.
A) 165 cm2 B) 170 cm2
C) 168 cm2 D) 166 cm2
23 ØÄ.* ÀáxD, 11 ØÄ.* ¶ïéxD c^á {ì ¶âç¦l_, ¶çªÝm© ÃÂïºï¹KD 3 ØÄ.* s¹DA
C) 168 ØÄ.*2
B) 170 ØÄ.*2
D) 166 ØÄ.*2
Tn
ÖòÂzD kçïl_ {ì {sBD kç«B©Ãâ|^ám. ¶Í> s¹DA© Ãz]l[ ë©Ãáçk ïVõï.
A) 165 ØÄ.*2
189. A park is circular in shape. The central portion has playthings for kids surrounded by a circular
e/
walking pathway. Find the walking area whose outer radius is 10 m and inner radius is 3 m.
A) 285 m2 B) 288 m2 C) 287 m2 D) 286 m2
Îò ¯ºïV k⦠k½s_ c^ám. ¶>[ ç\B©Ãz]l_ zwÍç>ïÓÂïVª sçáBVâ|© Ãz]¥D,
¶>çªß ·u¤ k⦠k½k å禩ÃluE© ÃVç>¥D ¶ç\Ím^ám. ¶Í>© ¯ºïVs[ Øk¹kâ¦
.m
g«D 10* \u®D c^k⦠g«D 3* ¨M_, å禩ÃluE© ÃVç>l[ ë©Ãá¡ ïVõï.
A) 285 *2 B) 288 *2 C) 287 *2 D) 286 *2
190. Find the length of the rope by which a cow must be tethered in order that it may be able to graze an
//t
191. The radius of a tractor wheel is 77 cm. Calculate the distance covered by it in 35 rotations?
A) 16930 cm B) 16935 cm C) 16945 cm D) 16940 cm
tp
192. The floor of an office building consists of 200 rhombus shaped tiles and each of its length of the
diagonals are 40 cm and 25 cm. Find the total cost of polishing the floor at 45 per sq.m.
A) Rs.400 B) Rs.420 C) Rs.440 D) Rs.450
{ì ¶Kkéï ïâ½¦Ý >ç«l_ 200 ÄVFÄm« k½séVª {|ï^ Ã]Âï©Ãâ|^áª. {|ï¹[
Jçés⦺ï¹[ ¶á¡ï^ 40 ØÄ.* \u®D 25 ØÄ.* ¨M_, >ç«çB Ø\òíâ¦ß Äm«*â¦òÂz
Ô.45 T>D Ø\VÝ>ß ØÄéçk ïVõï.
A) Ô.400 B) Ô.420 C) Ô.440 D) Ô.450
193. The area of a trapezium is 352 sq. cm and the distance between its parallel sides is 16 cm. If one of
the parallel sides is of length 25 cm then find the length of the other side.
A) 20 cm B) 16 cm C) 19 cm D) 15 cm
ë©Ãá¡ 352 Ä.ØÄ.* \u®D Öò Öçð©ÃÂïºïÓÂþ禼BBVª Ø>Vçé¡ 16 ØÄ.* ØïVõ¦
ÄökïÝ][ Öçð© ÃÂïºï¹_ Î[¤[ ¶á¡ 25 ØÄ.* ¨M_ \uØÅV[çÅ ïVõï.
A) 20 ØÄ.* B) 16 ØÄ.* C) 19 ØÄ.* D) 15 ØÄ.*
194. There are 1000 soldiers in an army camp. There is enough provisions for them for 70 days. If 400
more soldiers join the camp, for how many days will the provisions last?
A) 40 days B) 50 days C) 45 days D) 55 days
5
Îò Ö«Vbk xïVt_ 1000 T«ìï^ ÖòÂþÅVìï^. ¶kìïÓÂz 70 åVâïÓÂz ¼ÃVm\Vª \¹çï©
ØÃVòâï^ c^áª. ¶Í> xïVtuz ¼\KD 400 T«ìï^ kÍm ¼ÄìÍ>Vìï^ ¨M_ ¨Ý>çª
c8
åVâïÓÂz ¶Í> \¹çï©ØÃVòâï^ ¼ÃVm\Vª>Vï ÖòÂzD?
A) 40 åVâï^ B) 50 åVâï^ C) 45 åVâï^ D) 55 åVâï^
195. Working hours of an office is morning 9:30 to evening 5:30. There will be a Lunch break between
12 noon and 1.15 p.m. If the office functioning 6 days in a week, what is the total working hours of
ps
the office during a week?
A) 39 hours 10 minutes B) 36 hours
C) 40 hours 30 minutes D) 38 hours
A) 39 \è 10 Wt¦D B) 36 \è
Tn
Îò ¶KkéïD ïVçé 9:30 \èloòÍm \Vçé 5:30 \è kç« ÖBºzþÅm. åõÃï_ 12:00
\èloòÍm ¸uÃï_ 1:15 \è kç« cð¡ Ö禼kçá. ¶KkéïD kV«Ý]_ 6 åVâï^
ÖBºþªV_, Îò kV«Ý]_ ¶KkéïD ÖBºzD Ø\VÝ> \è¼å«D ¨Ëká¡?
C) 40 \è 30 Wt¦D D) 38 \è
T
196. Three men, four women and six children can complete a work in seven days. A women
A
e/
double the work a man does and child does half the work a man do. How many women
can complete the work in 7 days? F
A) 7 B) 8 C) 12 D) 9
.m
A) 7 B) 8 C) 12 D) 9
197. Sita and Geetha can do a job in 15 days and 10 days respectively. They began to work together but
Sita leaves after some days and Geetha finishes remaining job in 5 days. After how many days did
s:
Sita leave?
A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10
Îò ¼kçéçB æ>V 15 åVâï¹KD, ÿ>V 10 åVâï¹KD x½©ÃVìï^. ÖòkòD ¼ÄìÍm ¼kçéçB
tp
Ø>V¦ºþBmD Eé åVâïÓÂz© ¸Åz æ>V ØÄ[® sâ¦V^. *>D c^á ¼kçéçB ÿ>V 5 åVâï¹_
x½Ý>V^ ¨[ÅV_, æ>V ¨Ëká¡ åVâï^ ïaÝmß ØÄ[ÅV^?
A) 3 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10
ht
198. A can do a certain job in 12 days. B is 60% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone
take to do the same job?
A) 8 days B) 7 days C) 7 days D) 8 days
A Îò ¼kçéçB 12 åVâï¹_ ØÄFBÂí|D. B ¨[Ãkì A n s¦ 60% ¶]ï ]Åç\¥ç¦Bkì.
¶¼> ¼kçéçB B \â|D x½Âï ¨Ý>çª åVâï^ ¨|Ým ØïV^kVì?
A) 8 åVâï^ B) 7 åVâï^ C) 7 åVâï^ D) 8 åVâï^
199. In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four
numbers.
A) 1, 4, 9 and 13 B) 1, 5, 9 and 13
C) 1, 4, 5 and 9 D) 1, 4, 9 and 11
Îò íâ|ÝØ>V¦ì köçÄl_ ¶|Ý>|Ý> åV[z c®©Aï¹[ í|>_ 28 \u®D ¶ku¤[
kìÂïºï¹[ í|>_ 276. ¶Í> åV[z ¨õïçá ïVõï.
A) 1, 4, 9 and 13 B) 1, 5, 9 and 13
C) 1, 4, 5 and 9 D) 1, 4, 9 and 11
200. A mother divides Rs.207 into three parts such that the amount are in A.P. and gives it to her three
5
children. The product of the two least amounts that the children had Rs.4623. Find the amount
received by each child.
c8
A) Rs.67, Rs.69 and Rs.71
B) Rs.60, Rs.72 and Rs.75
C) Rs.68, Rs.69 and Rs.70
ps
D) Rs.66, Rs.70 and Rs.71
Îò >VF >[M¦D c^á Ô.207n íâ|ÝØ>V¦ì köçÄl_ ¶ç\¥D J[® ÃVïºïáVï© ¸öÝmÝ
>ªm J[® zwÍç>ïÓÂzD ØïV|Âï sòD¸ªVì. ¶ku¤_ Öò E¤B Ø>Vçïï¹[ ØÃòÂïuÃé[
Ô.4623 gzD. ÎËØkVò zwÍç>¥D ØîD Ø>VçïlçªÂ ïVõï.
A) Ô.67, Ô.69 \u®D Ô.71
B) Ô.60, Ô.72 \u®D Ô.75
C) Ô.68, Ô.69 \u®D Ô.70
D) Ô.66, Ô.70 \u®D Ô.71
Tn
201. Find the sum of all natural numbers between 300 and 600 which are divisible by 7.
e/
A) 19244 B) 19254
C) 19264 D) 19274
300ÂzD 600Âz Ö禼B 7g_ kzÃ|D ¶çªÝm ÖB_ ¨õï¹[ í|>_ ïVõï.
.m
A) 19244 B) 19254
C) 19264 D) 19274
//t
1. >twï k«éV® \«A \u®D ÃõÃV| : x¿ ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡ / FULL REVISION TEST
tp
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
61 D 62 C 63 D 64 A 65 A 66 A 67 D 68 C 69 C 70 C
71 B 72 B 73 B 74 C 75 C 76 B 77 A 78 D 79 A 80 A
c8
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 A 89 C 90 D
91 A 92 C 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 B
101 A 102 C 103 B 104 B 105 D 106 D 107 A 108 C 109 B 110 A
111 C 112 D 113 C 114 A 115 D 116 B 117 D 118 D 119 D 120 C
ps
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 C 125 B 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 B 130 A
131 D 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 D 136 B 137 D 138 A 139 D 140 D
141 D 142 D 143 A 144 A 145 A 146 D 147 B 148 A 149 B 150 B
151 A 152 A 153 B 154 B 155 B 156 A 157 A 158 A 159 C 160 D
161
171
181
191
B
A
D
D
162
172
182
192
D
B
B
C
163
173
183
193
C
A
B
B
164
174
184
194
B
B
A
C
165
175
185
195
Tn
D
D
D
A
166
176
186
196
A
B
B
A
167
177
187
197
D
A
C
C
168
178
188
198
A
D
D
B
169
179
189
199
A
C
A
A
170
180
190
200
D
A
D
C
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – IYAL - 14 ANS KEY– 06.09.2021
.m
1 C 2 B 3 C 4 C 5 D 6 B 7 C 8 B 9 D 10 B
11 B 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 D 20 A
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 B 29 C 30 A
31 B 32 C 33 B 34 D 35 B 36 B 37 C 38 C 39 C 40 B
//t
41 A 42 A 43 B 44 B 45 C 46 A 47 C 48 A 49 D 50 A
51 C 52 C 53 C 54 B 55 A 56 D 57 B 58 D 59 C 60 B
61 D 62 C 63 D 64 A 65 A 66 A 67 D 68 C 69 C 70 C
71 B 72 B 73 B 74 C 75 C 76 B 77 A 78 D 79 A 80 A
s:
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 C 86 B 87 C 88 A 89 C 90 D
91 A 92 C 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 B
tp
101 A 102 C 103 B 104 B 105 D 106 D 107 A 108 C 109 B 110 A
111 C 112 D 113 C 114 A 115 D 116 B 117 D 118 D 119 D 120 C
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 C 125 B 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 B 130 A
ht
131 D 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 D 136 B 137 D 138 A 139 D 140 D
141 D 142 D 143 A 144 A 145 A 146 D 147 B 148 A 149 B 150 B
151 A 152 A 153 B 154 B 155 B 156 A 157 A 158 A 159 C 160 D
161 B 162 D 163 C 164 B 165 D 166 A 167 D 168 A 169 A 170 D
171 A 172 B 173 A 174 B 175 D 176 B 177 A 178 D 179 C 180 A
181 D 182 B 183 B 184 A 185 D 186 B 187 C 188 D 189 A 190 D
191 D 192 C 193 B 194 C 195 A 196 A 197 C 198 B 199 A 200 C
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 1
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖB_ Š 15 / åV^ Š 09.09.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶éz Š 8
160 sªVÂï^
tp
x¿ ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
¶éz Š 9
ïè>D 40 sªVÂï^
ht
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 1 (ÖB_ Š 15) TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
2. >tµåV| káìßE WìkVïD : x¿ ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
3. ïè>D : x¿ ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: 1972gD gõ| ¨D.÷. Ö«V\ßÄÍ]«[ >[Ðç¦B ]«Vs¦ ïâEçBÝ Ø>V¦ºþªVì.
íu® 2: 1977gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ¼>ì>o_ gâEçB ¨D.÷. «V\ßÄÍ]«[ çï©Ãu¤ªVì.
tp
5
6. President and Vice President of Madurai Harijan Sevak Sangam respectively?
A) L.N. Gopalsamy and A.Ramasamy
c8
B) S. Kasturi Rangar and A. Ramasamy
C) T.Rengachari and Kasturi Rangar
D) Vaithiyanathar and L.N. Gopalsamy
\mç« ÇöÛª ¼Äk ĺïÝ][ >çékì \u®D ØÄBéì xçżB
ps
A) L.N. ¼ïVÃV_ÄVt \u®D A. «V\ÄVt
B) S. ïü#ö «ºïì \u®D A. «V\ÄVt
C) T. Ø«ºïVßÄVö \u®D ïü#ö «ºïì
D) çkÝ]BåV>ì \u®D L.N. ¼ïVÃV_ÄVt
B) Thanjavur
Tn
7. The Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu that received great attention and support took place at
A) Chennai C) Tirunelveli
>tµåVâ½_ ¨ºz åç¦ØÃuÅ ·¼>EB ÖBÂïD ØÃòD ïkªÝç>¥D g>«çk¥D ØÃuÅm.
D) Erode
9. In which year was F.W. Ellis established College at Fort St. George?
A) 1814 B) 1815 C) 1816 D) 1817
AM> ÛVìë ¼ïVâç¦l_ F.W.¨_oü ï_Ùölçª W®sB gõ|?
ht
5
A) 1 \â|D >k® B) 1, 2 \â|D >k® C) 2 \â|D >k® D) ¨m¡t_çé
12. Match.
c8
1. Viduthalai - 1. 1935
2. Pagutharivu - 2. 1934
3. Revolt - 3. 1928
ps
4. Puratchi - 4. 1925
5. Kudiarasu - 5. 1933
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 5 C) 2, 4, 5 D) 2, 3
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
1. s|>çé
2. ÃzÝ>¤¡
3. ö¼kV_â
4. A«âE
Š
Š
Š
Š
1. 1935
2. 1934
3. 1928
4. 1925
Tn
5. z½B«· Š5. 1933
e/
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4, 5 C) 2, 4, 5 D) 2, 3
13. Find the correct statement (About Maraimalai Adigal)
1. Father of Pure Tamil Language
.m
A) 1, 3 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 2 D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
14. Who published the book Annihilation of caste written by B.R. Ambedkar in Tamil in 1936?
A) MaraimalaiAdigal B) Periyar
tp
C)Thiru vi ka D) Bharathidasan
B.R.¶D¼ÃÝïVì ¨¿]B ÄV] Îa©A ¨[ÐD ±çé 1936_ >ta_ Ã]©¸Ý>kì?
A) \çÅ\çéB½ï^ B) ØÃöBVì
ht
C) ]ò.s.ï D) ÃV«]>VÄ[
15. Who said, "The world will be better in knowledge and intelligence only if men and women are
treated equally"
A) Periyar B) Vivekananda C) M. Singaravelar D) Bharathiyar
''gbD ØÃõbD Ä\\Vï ïò>©Ãâ¦V_ \â|¼\ ÖË¡éïD ¶¤¡ (\) AÝ] íìç\l_ EÅ©A®D''
¨ª í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) s¼kïVªÍ>ì C) \.EºïV«¼kéì D) ÃV«]BVì
16. Match. a b c d
a. Jeeviya saritha surukkam - 1. M. Singaravelar A) 1 2 3 4
b. Revolt - 2. Maraimalai Adigal B) 4 3 2 1
c. Gnanasagaram - 3. Rettaimalai Srinivasan C) 3 4 2 1
d. Thozilalan - 4. Periyar D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. ÷sB Äö> ·òÂïD Š 1. \.EºïV« ¼kéì A) 1 2 3 4
b. ö¼kV_â Š 2. \çÅ\çéB½ï^ B) 4 3 2 1
5
c. QVªÄVï«D Š 3. Ö«âç¦\çé æMkVÄ[ C) 3 4 2 1
d. Ø>VaéVá[ Š 4. ØÃöBVì D) 2 1 4 3
c8
17. Who first brought Christian faith into South India?
A) Martin Luther B) Ignatius Loyola
C) St. Francis Xavier D) St. Thomas
x>[ x>o_ þ¤Ýmk åD¸ÂçïçB Ø>[MÍ]BVsuz ØïVðìÍ>kì BVì?
ps
A)\Vì½[ Ù>ì B)Ö¼ªEBü é¼BVéV
C)AM> ¸«V[Eü ¼ÄsBì D)AM> >V\ü
18. Who represented Tamil Nadu at the All India Congress Committee meeting held in 1922?
A) Bharatiyar B) Periyar C) Thiruvika D) Singaravelanar
ØïVõ¦kì?
A) ÃV«]BVì B) ØÃöBVì C) ]ò.s.ï
Tn
1922gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ¶þé ÖÍ]B ïVºþ«· íâ¦Ý]_ >twï© ¸«]W]BVï ïéÍm
D) EºïV«¼kéªì
19. Where and when was the first Non-Brahmin District Conference of the Justice Party held?
e/
A) Chennai, 1917 B) Chengalpatu,1917 C) Coimbatore, 1917 D) Salem, 1917
À]ÂïâEl[ x>_ ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì \Vk⦠\VåV| åç¦ØÃuÅ Ö¦D \u®D gõ|?
A) ØÄ[çª, 1917 B) Øĺï_Ãâ|, 1917
.m
1920gD gõ| å¦Í> x>_ ¼>ì>o_ ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü ¼>ì>çé AÅÂïèÂï ïV«ðD....... gzD.
A) þéVÃÝ ÖBÂïD B) ÎÝmçwBVç\ ÖBÂïD
C) c©Aß ÄÝBVþ«ïD D) Ø«áéâ Äâ¦D
s:
21. Who declined to form the ministry under the Justice party following the elections of 1920?
A) A.Subbarayan B) P.T.Theagaraya Chetti
C) A.Subbarayalu Reddiar D) Raja of panagal
tp
22. The reservation orders issued in the year ____led to reservation for non-Brahmins in local bodies
and educational institutions.
A) 1920, 1923 B) 1920, 1924
C) 1921, 1922 D) 1919, 1920
¨Í> gõ| ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠֦ÎmÂÿâ| ¶«ÄVçðï^, c^áVâE ¶ç\©Aï¹KD ï_s
W®kªºï¹KD ¸«V\ðì ¶_éV>kìïÓÂz Ö¦ÎmÂÿâ|Âz kakzÝ>ª?
A) 1920, 1923 B) 1920, 1924
C) 1921, 1922 D) 1919, 1920
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
23. Find correct statements about the priorities of the Depressed Classes?
1. Announcement of Financial Assistance Schemes for the Depressed Classes - 1885.
2. Tremancare filed a report on the Depressed Classes of Chengalpattu District.
3. In 1898, 12 lakh acres of land was distributed to the Depressed Classes.
4. Schools for Children of the Depressed Classes - Panchamar Schools
A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4
>VµÝ>©Ã⼦VòÂïVª x[Ðöç\ï¹_ ÄöBVªm?
1. >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂïVª W] c>sÝ]⦺ï^ ¶¤s©A Š 1885.
2. Øĺï_Ãâ| \Vk⦠>VµÝ>©Ã¦¦ \Âï^ z¤Ý> ¶¤Âçï >VÂï_ ØÄF>kì Š ]öØ\[ÿ¼«.
5
3. 1898 Š Ö_ >VµÝ>©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂz ¸öÝm kwºzD WéD Š 12 éâÄD °Âïì.
4. >VµÝ>©Ã⼦Vö[ zwÍç>ïÓÂïVª Ã^¹ï^ Š ÃÞÄ\ì Ã^¹ï^.
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A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4
24. Who was the Chief Minister, when Commission headed by Sattanathan was constituted to look into
the welfare of backward classes?
A) M. Karunanidhi B) Anna C) M.G.R. D) Kamarajar
ps
BVì x>_ ¶ç\ßÄ«Vï ÖòÍ> ¼ÃVm ¸uÃ|Ý>©Ã⼦Vì åé[ z¤Ým g«VFÍ]¦ Äâ¦åV>[
>çéç\l_ Îò gçðBD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m?
A) x.ïòðVW] B) ¶õðV C) ¨D.÷.gì D) ïV\«VÛì
A) Keynes B) Adamsmith
¼>ĺï¹[ káD Ãu¤B {ì gF¡ ¨[Å ±çé ¨¿]Bkì?
A) ÿ[ü B) g¦DütÝ C) Ô¼ÄV
Tn
25. Who wrote the book An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations?
C) Rousseau D) Bodin
D) ¼ÃV½[
26. Initially reservation was given to SCs and STs. Then, OBC were given reservation on the
e/
recommendation of the Mandal Commission in the year _____
A) 1990 B) 1991 C) 1992 D) 1993
g«DÃÝ]_ Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| ¨ü.E \u®D ¨ü.½.ïÓÂz kwºï©Ãâ¦m. \õ¦é gçðBÝ][
.m
year
A) 1929 B) 1930 C) 1931 D) 1932
¨Í> gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ·B\öBVç> \VåV|ï¹_ ØÃõï¹[ ¼\VÄ\Vª Wçé z¤Ým z«_ØïV|Âï
Ø>V¦ºþªVì?
ht
5
A) Îòkì zuÅÝç> g«VB ¼kõ|D.
B) Îòkì Ö_éV> ¼ÃVm ¶kç«© Ãu¤ Aźí®>_ í¦Vm.
c8
C) Îòkì yç\léV> ØÄVuïçá© ¼ÃÄÂí¦Vm.
D) c^áÝ]_ ØÃVF Ö_éV\_ kVw ¼kõ|D.
33. ''cõ½ x>u¼Å cðs[ ¸õ¦D
cðØkª© Ã|km WéÝØ>V| À¼«;
ps
¨[Å ÃV¦é½ï^ Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_?
A) ]òÝØ>Võ¦ì A«VðD B) AÅåVû®
C) ¶ïåVû® D) z®ÍØ>Vçï
34. ØÃBÂïõ|D åÞ·õ ¦ç\kì ‡ ¨ª zÅ^ z¤©¸|D ÃõÃVáì BVì?
A) À]Øå¤ W[® sáºzÃkìï^
B) sòDÃÝ>zÍ> Ö«Âï ÖB_çàØïVõ¦kìï^
C) >Dt¦D c^á ØÄ_kÝç> ¶¹Ým ¸ÅòÂz c>¡Ãkìï^
D) yB ¨õðD ØïVõ¦kìï^
Tn
e/
35. “\òÍØ>ª ¼kõ¦VkVD BVÂçïÂz ¶òÍ]Bm
” ‡ ¼\uïõ¦ zÅâÃVs_ ¶|Ý> ¶½çB W«©Aï.
A) kVFåV½ kVF©Ãß ØÄB_ B) ¶uÅm ¼ÃVu¤ cè[
.m
3. On January 23, 1968, he announced the bilingual policy- Tamil and English.
A) 1, 2 right 3 wrong B) 1, 3 Right 2 Wrong
C) 2, 3 right 1 wrong D) All right
ht
40. When anti-Hindi army marched towards Chennai, reached Triplicane beach and raised their voices
and said "Tamil nadu is for Tamils" by Periyar on
A) January 11, 1938 B) September 11, 1938
C) December 22, 1938 D) November 09, 1938
ÖÍ] ¨]ì©A Ãç¦ ØÄ[çª ¼åVÂþ ¶èkzÝm ØÄ[® ]òk_o¼ïè ï¦uïç«çB ¶ç¦Ím,
''ØÃöBVì >tµåV| >twò¼ï'' ¨[® z«_ ¨¿©¸B åV^?
A) 1938 Ûªkö 11 B) 1938 ØÄ©¦DÃì 11 C) 1938 ½ÄDÃì 22 D) 1938 åkDÃì 09
41. Periyar was imprisoned for his involvement in a toddy shop riot in the year
A) 1922 B) 1923 C) 1929 D) 1925
5
ØÃöBVì ï^ÓÂïç¦ \¤Bo_ ~|Ãâ¦>uïVï EçÅl_ ¶ç¦Âï©Ã⦠kò¦D?
A) 1922 B) 1923 C) 1929 D) 1925
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42. How many seats did the Communist Party of India contest in the 1967 elections?
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 33
1967 åç¦ØÃuÅ ¼>ì>o_ ÖÍ]B ïDRMü| ¼ÃVâ½l⦠֦ºï^ ¨Ý>çª?
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32 D) 33
ps
43. Who described Annadurai as the brain of the Justice Party?
A) Rajaji B) Dr.Varatharajulu Naidu
C) Dr. C. Natesan D) Periyar
44.
¶õðVmç«çB À]ÂïâEl[ Jçá ¨[® kìèÝ>kì BVì?
A) Ö«VÛV÷
C) Dr. C.弦Ä[
""ØÄ_kÝm© ÃB¼ª ~>_'' ¨[® íÅD ±_ ¨m?
Tn
B) Dr.k«>«VýK åV¥|
D) ØÃöBVì
e/
A) åu¤çð B) AÅåVû® C) z®ÍØ>Vçï D) ¶ïåVû®
45. ""záDØ>Vâ| ¼ïV| Ã]Ým kaæÝm
cáD Ø>Vâ| c¿kB_ gÂþ'' ¨[ÐD Ø>V¦ì Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_ ¨m?
A) \è¼\ïçé B) ØÃöBA«VðD C) E®ÃÞÄ JéD D) AÅåVû®
.m
46. ~[Å ØÃV¿][ ØÃömkÂzD >[\ïçªß ÄV[¼ÅV[ ¨ªÂ¼ï⦠>VF ‡ ÖÂzÅ^ Ö¦D ØÃu®^á ÃV_
\u®D ÖB_ z¤©¸|ï?
A) ¶ÅÝm©ÃV_,Ö_éÅsB_ B) ØÃVòâÃV_, Ö_éÅsB_
//t
5
b) Agnew – 2. Military Sepoy B) 1 3 4 2
c) John Cradock – 3. Madras governor C) 3 1 4 2
c8
d) Mustafa Bec – 4. Chief Commander D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a) s_oBD ØÃõ½º Š 1. c>sÝ >áÃ] A) 3 1 2 4
b) ¶ÂM¥ Š 2. Ö«Vbk E©ÃVF B) 1 3 4 2
ps
c) ÛV[ þ«¦V Š 3. ØÄ[çª gÓåì C) 3 1 4 2
d) xü>ÃV ØàŠ 4. >çéç\Ý >áÃ] D) 4 3 2 1
54. ''ÖçÅïVÂzD çkBïD ¨_éVD ¶kçª
xçÅïVÂzD xâ¦Vß ØÄl['' ¨Í> ¶]ïV«Ý]_ Ö¦DØÃu®^ám?
A) ØÄV_k[ç\
55. æìïçá xçÅ©Ã|Ý] ¨¿mï.
B) ¶çkB¤>_
56. Choose the correct one from the statements about George Joseph.
1 Played a key role in establishing the Home rule movement in Madurai& in carrying, its purpose to
draw the attention of the people
s:
2. Born in Chengannur (Alappuzha district, Kerala) but wanted to live in Madurai and worked as a
people's lawyer.
3. Became the protector of criminal trives in Tamil Nadu.
tp
5
¼ï«á \VWéÝ]K^á çkÂïÝ]_ ¼ïVsçé ·u¤lòÍ> T]ï¹_ s]Âï©Ãâ½òÍ> >ç¦ ¨©¼ÃVm
ÀÂï©Ãâ¦m?
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A) 1925 É[ B) 1925 Éçé C) 1925 gïüâ D) 1925 ØÄ©¦DÃì
59. UNESCO designates PERIYAR as Socrates of Southeast Asia in the Year?
A) June 27, 1970 B) June 27, 1980 C) July 27, 1970 D) July 27, 1980
n.åVs[ UNESCO W®kª\Vªm ØÃöBVòÂz Ø>[þwÂz gEBVs[ ÄV«Ïü ¨ª Ãâ¦D kwºþB
ps
gõ|?
A) 1970 É[ 27 B) 1980 É[ 27 C) 1970 Éçé 27 D) 1980 Éçé 27
60. {Î>_ ¼kõ|D ι\VµzD Š ¨ÐD zÅâÃVs[ JéD kVµs_ cB« W窩Ãkì .................n
Øï|ÂzD ØÄB_ïçá© AÅD >^á ¼kõ|D.
A) Ãa B) Aïµ
61. ÄV[¼ÅVìÂz© Ãçïkç«¥D åâÃVÂzD ïòs ¨m?
A) ¶¤¡, ØÃV®ç\
C) åâA Tn D) yºz
63. The Minister of Education who ordered that Tamil teachers be paid the same as other teachers, as a
result of the struggle by Dr. S. Dharmambal,?
A) Srinivasa Lingam B) C. Subramaniam C) M.V. Krishna Rao D) Avinashilingam
¦VÂ¦ì ¨ü. >ì\VDÃV^ å¦Ý]B ¼ÃV«Vâ¦Ý][ sçákVï ¸Å gEöBìïÓÂz ÖçðBVª
s:
¨ü. ÄÝBJìÝ] >MåÃì ÄÝBVþ«ïD ØÄF>>V_ þ.¸ 1942_ çïm ØÄFB©Ãâ| ¨Í> EçÅl_
¶ç¦Âï©Ãâ¦Vì?
A) °«kV¦V EçÅ B) ØúïjìEçÅ
C) ØÃ_éVö EçÅ D) ¶\«Vk] EçÅ
65. Who is the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu associated with the Operation Cocoon?
A) M.G.Ramachandran B) Karunanidhi C) J.Jayalalithaa D) Anna
Ãâ|©¯ßE í| gü«−[ ]â¦Ým¦[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦B >twï x>_kì BVì?
A) M.G.«V\ßÄÍ]«[ B) ïòðVW] C) ØÛ.ØÛBéo>V D) ¶õðV
66. Choose the correct one from the statements about Rajaji.
1. On December 10, 1878 at Thorapalli in Salem (present day Krishnagiri) district, he was born.
2. He was involved in radical politics (since 1921 AD) to drive the non-cooperation of Gandhiji and
expressed support for the Khilafat movement.
3. He ran a magazine called "Vimosanam" for the anti-alcohol campaign.
4. Appointed Governor of West Bengal (1946 - 1947) and Governor General of Independent India.
A) 1 and 4 true B) 1 and 2 true C) 1, 2, 4 true D) All are true
Ö«VÛV÷ Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|
1. ¼ÄéD (>u¼ÃVç>B þòiðþö) \Vkâ¦Ý]K^á Ø>V«©Ã^¹ ¨[Å »ö_ ½ÄDÃì 10, 1878_
5
¸ÅÍ>Vì.
2. ys« ¶«EBo_ ~|Ã⦠Ökì (þ.¸ 1921 x>_) ïVÍ]B½ï¹[ ÎÝmçwBVç\ ÖBÂïÝ]uzD,
c8
þéVÃÝ ÖBÂïÝ]uzD g>«¡ Ø>ösÝ>Vì.
3. \mséÂz© ¸«ßÄV«Ý]uØï[¼Å ""s¼\VĪD'' ¨[Å Ö>çw å¦Ý]ªVì.
4. ¼\uz kºï gÓå«Vï¡D (þ.¸ 1946 Š 1947), ·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ ïkìªì ØÛª«éVï¡D Ã>s
kþÝ>Vì.
ps
A) 1 \u®D 4 Äö B) 1 \u®D 2 Äö C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
67. ØÃVòÝmï.
A) ¶öBku®^ ¨_éVD ¶ö¼> Š 1. åVïöïD ¼kõ|Ãkì
B) ØÃBÂïõ|D åÞ·õ ¦ç\kì Š 2. Ö«©Ãkö[ c^áÝ]_ \þµßE ØÃVºzD
C) zuÅD ÖéVªVF z½ØÄFm
D) ÖïµÍØ>^áV ykVç«Â ïVè[
a b c d
Tn
Š 3. ØÃöBVç«© ¼ÃVu¤ mçðBVÂþ ØïV^Ó>_
Š 4. ·uÅ\VFß ·u®D céz
A) 4 3 1 2
e/
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
.m
68. In which literature mentioned that King Uthayan cheralathan gave food to the soldiers during the
Bharat War?
A) Akananuru B) Purananuru C) Pathitrupathu D) Nattrinai
ÃV«>© ¼ÃVö[ ¼ÃVm c>B[ ¼Ä«éV>[ ¨[ÐD \[ª[ T«ìïÓÂz cð¡ ØïV|Ý> ØÄF]ï^
//t
Ö¦DØÃu®^á ±_ ¨m?
A) ¶ïåVû® B) AÅåVû® C) Ã]u®©ÃÝm D) åu¤çð
69. ''sçªko¥D >[ko¥D \VuÅV[ ko¥D
s:
70.
k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) xïÂz¤©çà ¶¤Ãkì B) ¶ïÂz¤©çà ¶¤Ãkì
C) ¶¤¡ç¦¼BVç« D) xïÂz¤©ÃV_ ¶ïÂz¤©çà ¶¤Ãkì
ht
73. ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ¨Ý>çïB ¶öB ØÄBçéß ØÄFÃk¼« ¶ç\ßÄì gkVì ¨ª k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) °uÅ ïVéD, ØÄBo[ >[ç\, ØÄF¥D xçÅ, Ø>Va_ ØÄF¥D ïòs
B) \ªkoç\, z½ïçá ïVÝ>_, ±_ïçá ïuÅ_, s¦VxBuE
C) \ªÝ]_ mè¡, ¶¤kKD, ÃõAD, ¸ÅìÂz ØïV|©ÃkòD.
D) Ø>Va_ ØÄF¥D ïòs, °uÅ ïVéD, s¦VxBuE, ØÄBo[ >[ç\
74. ''Øåòå_ cáتVòk[ ---------------------- ¨[ÐD
ØÃòç\ cç¦ÝmÖË ¡éz'' Š s|Ã⦠֦Ýç> W«©Aï.
A) ¼åu¤_çé B) Ö[¤_çé C) Ö_çé D) cç¦BV[
75. kV^¼ÃV_ Ãçïkç« ¶ÞÄuï ¶Þ·ï Š ¨ÐD zÅâÃVs_
5
BVòÂz ¶Þļkõ|D ¨ª k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) kVçá ïVâ½ m[ÃD ØÄF¥D ÃçïkòÂz
c8
B) cÅsªìïÓÂz
C) cÅsªì ¼ÃV_ å½Ým câÃçï ØïVõ¦kö[ Ø>V¦ìAÂz
D) ¼\uïõ¦ °mt_çé
76. Ã_éVì ÃçïØïVáo[ ÃÝ>|Ý> yç\ݼ> Š ÖÂzŹ_ >MØBVòkªVï W[® Ã鼫V| Ãçï
ps
¼\uØïV^kç> ïVâ½KD Ãé\¦ºz yç\ >òkm ¨m ¨ª k^Ókì í®þÅVì?
A) z½\Â﹦D ¶]ï kö kóo©Ãm
B) Ãéö[ ØÃVòâïÓÂz gçÄ ØïV^km
77.
C) åuÃõA禼BVö[ åâçà çïs|km
D) ¸Åì ØÃVòçá sòDAkm
\òÝmkÝ][ ¸ö¡ïáVï zÅ^ í®kª BVçk?
Tn
A) ¼åVBV¹, ¼åVBV¹l[ kBm, \òÝmkì, \òÍm
B) \òÝmkì, ¼åVBV¹l[ kBm, ¼åVl[ ¶á¡, \òÝmkÝ][ ïVéD
e/
C) ¼åVBV¹, \òÝmkì, \òÍm, \òÍ>VÓåì
D) ¼åVBV¹, \òÝmkì, ØÄsoBì, \òÍm
78. ïu¤é[ glÐD ¼ïâï ¶àØ>Vòkuz
.m
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D
C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
82. ØkâE x>_ ÃV¦Võ kç« c^á ]çðï¹_ íũæV> ØÄF]ïçá í®km?
ht
5
88. 2019‡[ \M> ¼\DÃVâ| ¶¤Âçïl_ x>_ J[® Ö¦ºï¹_ c^á åV|ïçá
köçÄ Ã|Ýmï:
c8
A) åVì¼k, ·sâÄìéVÍm, ¶BìéVÍm B) åVì¼k, ¶BìéVÍm, ·sâÄìéVÍm
C) åVì¼k, gü]¼«oBV, ·sâÄìéVÍm D) åVì¼k, ·sâÄìéVÍm, gü]¼«oBV
List the top three countries in 2019 UN Human development Index Report?
A) Norway, Switzerland, Ireland B) Norway, Ireland, Switzerland
ps
C) Norway, Australia, Switzerland D) Norway, Switzerland, Australia
89. ÖÍ]B ¶ás_ \M> ¼\DÃVâ½[ ¶â¦kçðl_ >tµåVâ½[ >«D ¨[ª? (2018[ ý)
A) 9 B) 3 C) 6 D) 11
report)?
A) 9 B) 3
Tn
What is the position of Tamilnadu in the India’s human development index (according to 2018
C) 6
90. >tµåVâ½[ cBìï_sÂïVª Ø\VÝ> ¼ÄìÂçï sþ>D 2018 - 2019 gõ½[ ý ¨Ëká¡?
D) 11
95. >twïÝ][ \Âï^ Ø>Vçï 2001_ ÖòÍ>ç> s¦ 2011_ ¨Ëká¡ Ä>T>D ¶]ïöÝm^ám.
A) 10.6% B) 15.61% C) 17.6% D)14.61%
The population of Tamil nadu increased in 2011 as compared to 2001 by ____ percentage
A) 10.6% B) 15.61% C) 17.6% D) 14.61%
96. Choose the correct statement.
A) First modern hospital was inaugurated in Chennai, 1639
B) Dental department was formed in Government hospital, 1835
C) Public Health and preventive medicine was started in 1923
D) Family welfare association was formed in 1966
5
ÄöBVªç> ¼>ìÍØ>|:
A) 1639_ x>[ x>o_ åTª \òÝmk\çª mkºï©Ã⦠֦D ØÄ[çª
c8
B) 1835_ ¶«· \òÝmk\çªl_ Ã_ EþßçÄÂïVª >M¸ö¡ mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
C) 1923_ ØÃVm ·ïV>V«D, ¼åVF >|©A ÖBÂïD mkºï©Ãâ¦m
D) 1966_ z|Dà åé ÖBÂïïD mkºï©Ãâ¦m
ps
97. GNH kVìÝç> ¨©¼ÃVm còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m
A) 1970 Š ¯â¦V[ B) 1972 Š ¯â¦V[
C) 1972 Š ¼åÃVáD D) 1975 Š ¼åÃVáD
The word GNH was coined on
A) 1970 - Bhutan
C) 1972 - Nepal Tn B) 1972 – Bhutan
D) 1975 - Nepal
98. 2019[ \M> ká ¼\DÃVâ| ¶¤Âçïl[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ÖÍ]BVs[ ÃöðV\Âz¤X|
A) 0.624 B) 0.642 C) 0.647 D) 0.641
e/
India’s dimensional index based on the 2019 Human Development report
A) 0.624 B) 0.642 C) 0.647 D) 0.641
99. kVµÂçïÝ>« z¤Xâ½_ 100 ¨[Å WçéçB 1973 D gõ¼¦ ¶ç¦Í> åV| ¨m?
.m
A) ¸«V[ü B) üT¦[
C) üØÃl[ D) ¸öâ¦[
Which country reached 100 in Physical Quality Life Index in the year 1973?
A) France B) Sweden C) Spain D) Britain
//t
¶]ï\Vï c^ám.
3. >tµåVâ½[ >éV kò\VªD 2018_ c^á A^¹ sëºï¹[ ý ÖÍ]B Ä«VÄö ¶áçk s¦
1.75 \¦ºz ¶]ï\Vï c^ám.
tp
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 >k®, 2, 3 Äö
C) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
Consider the following Statements.
ht
5
ÃþìÍ>¹Âï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D ¨[Ãm ¨Í> ¼ïVâÃV|?
c8
A) cöç\ ¶¹Ý>_ ¼ÃVâÃV| B) ØÃVm cöç\BVáì ¼ïVâÃV|
C) ÛV[ «V_ü À] ¼ïVâÃV| D) >õ½ÂzD À] ¼ïVâÃV|
All social values including liberty, opportunity, income, wealth and self-respect are to be distributed
equally belongs to
ps
A) Entitlements Theory B) Common Ownership Theory
C) John Rawls Theory of Justice D) Retributive Justice
103. ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> ¶«EBéç\©A s] ÄJï À] Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm ¶_é?
A) ¶«EBéç\©A s] 14 \u®D 15 B) ¶«EBéç\©A s] 18
C) ¶«EBéç\©A s] 29 \u®D 30
Tn D) ¶«EBéç\©A
Which of the following article does not related to social Justice?
A) Article 14 and 15
C) Article 29 and 30
B) Article 18
D) Article 17
s] 17
e/
104. Match it: a b c d
a. Kamaraj university (1976) – 1. Chennai A) 1 2 3 4
b. Tamilnadu Agriculture university (1971) – 2. Dindugal B) 2 3 4 1
.m
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4 A
B) 2 3 4 1
tp
C) 3 4 2 1 F
D) 4 3 2 1
105. Which university formed by Gajendra Gadkar recommendation?
ht
A) Periyar University
B) Manonmaniam Sundaranar University
C) Bharathiyar University
D) Tamil Virtual University
ï¼ÛÍ]« ïâïì ÃöÍmç«l[ ý còkVª Ã_ïçé ïwïD?
A) ØÃöBVì Ã_ïçé ïwïD B) \¼ªV[\èBD ·Í>«ªVì Ã_ïçé ïwïD
C) ÃV«]BVì Ã_ïçé ïwïD D) >tµ ÖçðB ï_s ïwïD
5
107. ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ >twïD ¨]_ x>_ Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám?
A) cBìWçé© Ã^¹ \Vðkì ¼ÄìÂçï T>Ý]_
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B) Ø>V¦Âï© Ã^¹ \Vðkì ¼ÄìÂçï T>Ý]_
C) cBìï_sÂïVª \Vðkì ¼ÄìÂçï T>Ý]_
D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
In which of the following category Tamilnadu reserves first position?
ps
A) High school enrollment ratio B) Elementary school enrollment ratio
C) Higher education Enrollment ratio D) All the above
108. Which is considered as an important basic Revenue Department Document for calculating the
agricultural Production?
A) Madangal B) Tax receipt Tn C) Patta
>twï ¶ás_ skÄVB cuÃÝ]çB ïðÂþ|D Îò xÂþB ¶½©Ãç¦ kòkVF mçÅ gkð\Vï
ïò>©Ã|km?
D) Adangal
A) ¸©«kö 28, 1976 B) \Vìß 22, 1977 C) \Vìß 21, 1978 D) \Vìß 21, 1977
110. To align and implement the National e – governance plan of central government, Tamilandu e –
governance agency (TNeGA) was created as an autonomous society registered under __________
//t
111. Under which scheme Light emitting diode and wireless service provided in Tamil Nadu?
A) Amma E – Village B) Amma e - Service
C) Amma e – Nagar D) Amma e–Ma Nagar
>tµåVâ½_ ι ct¿D 禼BV| \u®D ïD¸l_éV ¼Äçk ¨Í> ]â¦Ý][ ÿµ
ØÄB_Ã|Ý>©Ãâ| kòþÅm?
A) ¶D\V Ö Š þ«V\D B) ¶D\V Ö Š ¼Äçk
C) ¶D\V Ö Š åïì D) ¶D\V Ö Š \Våïì
112. Under which organization, the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Credit Societies are functioning in
Tamil Nadu ?
A) TACTV B) IFAD C) PACCS D) VPRC
>twïÝ]_ Ø>V¦Âï ¼káVõç\ íâ|Å¡ ï¦[ kwºzD ĺïºï^ ¨>[ ÿw ØÄB_Ãâ| kòþÅm?
A) TACTV B) IFAD C) PACCS D) VPRC
113. Which is incorrect about Tamil Nadu Electronics Corporation?
A) To make Tamil Nadu a better and better state.
B) Promoting Tamil Nadu as an IT hub
C) Prohibition of Foreign Investment
5
D) To provide Technical Products and Services to Government Departments and Institutions by
being optional vendor.
c8
>tµåV| t[ªb W®kªÝ][ z¤Â¼ïV^ï¹[ >kÅVªçk?
A) >twïÝç> Îò EÅ©Aç¦B \u®D EÅÍ> \VWé\Vï còkVÂz>_.
B) >twïÝç> >ïk_ Ø>Va_OâÃÝ]uz cïÍ> Ö¦\Vï cBìÝm>_
ps
C) ¶ÍWB x>Üâç¦ >ç¦ ØÄF>_
D) ¶«·Ý mçÅï^ \u®D W®kªºïÓÂz Ø>Va_ Oâé ØÃVòâï^ \u®D ¼ÄçkïÓÂïVª
sò©Ã suÃçªBVá«VïÝ ]ïµ>_
114. Which of the following is correct regarding Robert Caldwell?
with Sanskrit
b.TIIC - 2. 1965 B) 3 4 2 1
c. TIDCO - 3. 1965 C) 4 3 2 1
d.TANSIDCO - 4. 1970 D) 2 1 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.TANSI Š 1. 1949 A) 1 2 3 4
b.TIIC Š 2. 1965 B) 3 4 2 1
c.TIDCO Š 3. 1965 C) 4 3 2 1
d.TANSIDCO Š 4. 1970 D) 2 1 3 4
118. After linguistic partition, How many districts were there in Madras province?
A) 13 B) 20 C) 21 D) 18
Ø\VakVö ¸ösçªÂz ¸Åz \>«Vü \VïVðÝ]_ ¨Ý>çª \Vk⦺ï^ ÖòÍ>ª.
A)13 B)20 C) 21 D)18
119. Which Pass not found in the Western Ghats
A) Palakkad Pass B) AchanKovil Pass
C) Aralvoymozhi Pass D) Podhigaimalai Pass
¼\uz Ø>V¦ìßE \çél_ ïVð©Ã¦V> ïðkVF
A)ÃVéÂïVâ| ïðkVF B) ¶ßÄ[ ¼ïVs_ ïðkVF
5
C)g«_kVFØ\Va ïðkVF D)ØÃV]çï \çé ïðkVF
c8
120. Match : a b c d
A) Cauvery - 1. SuruliRiver A) 1 4 3 2
B) Palaru - 2. Pamban B) 4 3 2 1
C) Thenpennaiyaru - 3. Ponni C) 1 3 4 2
ps
D) Vaigai - 4. Simsa D) 4 2 1 3
ØÃVòÝmï:‡ a b c d
a) ïVsö ‡ 1. ·ò¹ g® A) 1 4 3 2
b) ÃVéV® ‡ 2. ÃVDÃ[ B) 4 3 2 1
c) Ø>[ØÃõçðBV®
d) çkçï
‡
‡
3.
4.
ØÃV[M
EDÄV
121. The largest bus station in Asia is located in
Tn C)
D)
1
4
3
2
4
1
2
3
e/
A) Coimbatore B) Trichy
C) Madurai D) Chennai (Koyambedu)
gEBVs¼é¼B tï©ØÃöB ¼ÃòÍm WçéBD‡‡
.m
A) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì B)]òßE
C) \mç« D) ØÄ[çª(¼ïVBD¼Ã|)
122. Telecommunication service used to broadcast educational programs to schools and universities?
A) INSAT B) EDUSAT C) IRS D) GSAI
//t
123. Statement 1: All small ports in Tamil Nadu are under the purview of the Tamil Nadu Maritime
Board
Statement 2: The SethuSamudra Canal project is to build a shipping lane from the Indian Ocean via
tp
the Gulf of Mannar, Adams Bridge, Palk bay and Palk strait to the Bay of Bengal.
A) 1,2 Correct B) 1,2 False
C) 1 right 2 wrong D) 1 wrong 2 right
ht
124. How was the Samarasa sanmarga sangam of Maraimalai adigal changed?
A) Samarasa nilai kazhagam B) Sanmarga kazhagam
C) Arivu kadal sangam D) Pothunilai kazhagam
\çÅ\çé ¶½ïáVö[ Ä\«Ä Ä[\VìÂï ĺïD ¨ËkV® ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m?
A) Ä\«Ä WçéÂïwïD B) Ä[\VìÂï ïwïD
C) ¶¤¡Âï¦_ ĺïD D) ØÃVm WçéÂïwïD
125. Which gave the sense of freedom and self-respect for the oppressed people during the Vaikunda
Swamigal period?
A) Kappu kattuthal B) Doing rituals
5
C) Wearing a turban D) A (&) B
çkzõ¦ ·kVtï^ ïVéÝ]_ Î|Âï©Ã⦠\ÂïÓÂz ·>Í]« cðìçk¥D, ·B\öBVç> ÄVìÍ>
c8
»ÂïÝç>¥D ¶¹Ý>m ¨m?
A) ïV©A ïâ|>_ B) Ħºzï^ ØÄF>_
C) >çé©ÃVçï ¶è>_ D) A (\) B
ps
126. What is the Rank of Tamil Nadu in the GDP contribution?
A) Fourth B) First C) Second ` D) Third
Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ] ú﹩¸_ >tµåVâ½[ Ö¦D ¨m?
A) åV[ïVkm Ö¦D B) x>éVkm Ö¦D
C) Ö«õ¦Vkm Ö¦D
Tn
D) J[ÅVkm Ö¦D
127. Assertion A: The Cauvery Delta region in Tamil Nadu is the largest paddy producing region
(undivided Thanjavur)
Reason R: So Thanjavur is called the rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
e/
A) A and R false B) A correct, R does not explain A
C) A correct, R wrong D) A correct, R explains A.
íu® : >tµåVâ½_ ïVsö ئ_¦V Ãz] ¶]ï Øå_ cuÃÝ] ØÄF¥D Ãz]BVzD
.m
(¸öÂï©Ã¦V> >ÞÄVÆì)
ïV«ðD: ¨ª¼k >ÞÄVÆì >tµåVâ½[ ØåuïáÞEBD ¨[ÅçwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂïs_çé
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂzþÅm.
//t
128. A separate department of Agriculture was organised in the year_____, based on the
recommendations of the Indian Famine Commission .
A) 1892 B) 1985 C) 1884 D) 1882
s:
130. Statement 1: The Parambikulam Azhiyaru project was developed in a joint venture between the
states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Statement 2: The Parambikulam Azhiyar project is the result of a future project to get water from
seven rivers and connect with the seven reservoirs.
A) 1,2 wrong B) 1 right, 2 wrong C) 1,2 Right D) 1 Wrong, 2 Right
íu® 1: ëD¸ÂzáD gaBV® ]â¦D >tµåV| (\) ¼ï«áV \VWéºï¹[ íâ| xBuEl_
còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: ëD¸ÂzáD (\) gaBV® Ãz]l_ c^á °¿ g®ï¹[ Àö窩 ØÃu® ¶ºz^á
°¿ Àìݼ>Âïºïçá¥D Î[¼ÅVئV[® ÖçðÂzD ¨]ìïVé ¼åVÂïÝ][ sçákV
5
còkVª ]â¦\VzD.
A) 1,2 >k® B) 1 Äö, 2 >k® C) 1,2 Äö D)1 >k®, 2 Äö
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131. Match
Dams District a b c d
A) Thirumurthy Dam - 1. Virudhunagar A) 4 1 3 2
ps
B) Veerapandi Dam - 2. Coimbatore B) 2 3 1 4
C) PilavakkalDam - 3. Theni C) 2 3 4 1
D) Papanasam Dam - 4. Tirunelveli D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï:‡
¶çðï^
a) ]òJìÝ] ¶çð
b) T«ÃVõ½ ¶çð
‡
‡
1.
2.
\Vkâ¦D
sòmåïì
¼ïVBDAÝ#ì
Tn A)
B)
a
4
2
b
1
3
c
3
1
d
2
4
c) ¸ákÂï_ ¶çð ‡ 3. ¼>Ì C) 2 3 4 1
e/
d) ÃVÃåVÄD ¶çð ‡ 4. ]òØå_¼ko D) 1 2 3 4
132. Assertion: Ayothedasar founded the Advaitananda Sabha in 1896.
.m
Reason: This sabha was set up to raise a voice in support of oppressed people, those were denied to
enter into the temple..
A) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
B) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
//t
134. Match :
Waterfalls Rivers a b c d
A) Thirumurthy - 1. Kollimalai Stream A) 4 1 2 3
B) AgayaGangai - 2. Pambaru B) 4 3 2 1
C) Kumbakkarai - 3. Kothaiyaru C) 1 2 3 4
D) Thirparappu - 4. Amravati D 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï:‡
¶òsï^ g®ï^ a b c d
5
a) ]òJìÝ] ‡ 1. ØïV_o\çé Eu¼ÅVç¦ï^ A) 4 1 2 3
b) gïVBïºçï ‡ 2. ÃVDÃV® B) 4 3 2 1
c8
c) zDÃÂïç« ‡ 3. ¼ïVç>BV® C) 1 2 3 4
d) ]uë©A ‡ 4. ¶\«Vk] D) 2 1 4 3
135. Which is correct?
1. The first Tamil daily - Swadesamithiran
ps
2. First Radio - Chennai
3. First Railway Line - Royapuram to Walajah
4. First Commercial Bank -Indian Bank
A) 1,2 Right
ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1. x>_ >tµ åV¹>µ
2. x>_ kVتVo
B) 1, 3 Right
‡
‡
Tn
C) All Right
·¼>ÄtÝ]«[
ØÄ[çª
D) 1,2,3 Right
139. EVR Maniammaiyar Ninaivu Poor Widows Daughters Marriage Assistance Scheme :
Statement 1: This scheme is to help poor widow for marriage
Statement 2: Must apply 40 days before marriage and for exceptional reasons can apply till the first
day of marriage
A) 1,2 right B) 1,2 wrong
C) 1 right 2 wrong D) 1 wrong 2 right
~¼k«V \èBDç\BVì W窡 °çw s>çk \ï^ ]ò\ð W]¥>s ]â¦D, g«VFï
íu® 1: °çw s>çkl[ ]ò\ðÝç> å¦Ý> c>¡D ]â¦D
íu® 2: ]ò\ðÝ]uz 40 åVâïÓÂz x[ª>Vï sõð©¸Âï ¼kõ|D Eé EÅ©A ïV«ðºïÓÂïVï
5
]ò\ðÝ]uz x>_ åV^ kç« sõð©¸ÂïéVD
A) 1,2Äö B) 1,2>k®
c8
C) 1 Äö 2 >k® D) 1>k® 2Äö
140. Statement 1: The old age pension scheme was started in 1962
Statement 2: Senior citizens over 60 are given Rs.1000 per month
ps
A) 1,2 Right B) 1, 2 Wrong C) 1 right 2 wrong D) 1 wrong 2 right
íu® 1: x]¼BVì {FÆ]B ]â¦D 1962ŠD gõ| mkºï©Ãâ¦m
íu® 2: 60 kB]uz ¼\uÃ⦠JÝ> z½\ÂïÓÂz \V>ͼ>V®D 1000 ÔÃVF kwºï©Ã|þÅm
A) 1,2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k®
C) 1 Äö 2 >k®
Tn
D) 1 >k® 2 Äö
141. Choose the wrong one of the Clean village campaign.
A) The Clean Village campaign was launched in the year 1999.
B) Personal Hygiene Improvement &Safe disposal of waste without polluting the environment is
e/
the purpose of this project.
C) The project was launched in an effort to create a health revolution in Tamil Nadu.
D) No open defection & to recommend an award of Rs. 5 lakhs to the Panchayats having Clean
.m
>z]BVª>VzD.
142. Revenue Department renamed as Revenue & Disaster Management Department in the Year?
tp
5
D) EÝ>V, ¥ªVM, g¥ì¼k>D ¼ÃV[Å \òÝmk mçÅÂz \òÍm >BVì ØÄF¥D ¶ç\©A
145. When was Kanyakumari district formed and integrated with Tamil Nadu?
c8
A) 1 November 1956 B) 1 November 1950
C) 1 November 1959 D) 1 November 1948
ï[MBVz\ö \Vkâ¦\Vï còkVÂï©Ãâ| >twïݼ>V| ÖçðÂï©Ã⦠åV^?
ps
A) 1 åkDÃì 1956 B) 1 åkDÃì 1950 C) 1 åkDÃì 1959 D) 1 åkDÃì 1948
146. The Government of Tamil Nadu sets a target to eliminate Tuberculosis in the year?
A) 2022 B) 2023 C) 2028 D) 2025
¨Í> gõ½çª ïVļåVF Ö_éV> \VWé\Vï >twïD còkVzD ¨ª >twï ¶«· ÖéÂz
WìðBÝm^ám?
A) 2022 B) 2023
147. Dimensional Index is:
C) 2028 Tn D) 2025
150. Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the ____________ tools at
Pallavaram near Chennai.
A) Microlithic B) Paleolithic
C) Mesolithic D) Neolithic
Äì Ö«VÃìâ AÔü à¯â ¨[Å ÖºþéVÍm WésBáVéì ØÄ[çªÂz ¶òþ_ c^áÃ_éVk«Ý]_ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ
ïòsïçá x>[xçÅBVï ïõ|¸½Ý>Vì.
A) ïuïVéD B) ÃwºïuïVéD
C) Öç¦Â ïuïVéD D) A]B ïuïVéD
151. The name of the script used in the Sangam Age
5
A) English B) Devanagari
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C) Tamil-Brahmi D) Granta
ĺï ïVéÝ]_ ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠¨¿ÝmxçÅ BVm?
A) gºþéD B) ¼>kåVïö C) >tµ Š ¸«Vt D) þ«Í>D
152. Choose the correct statement.
ps
A) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
B) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
C) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
D) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï¡D.
Tn
A) ÖòDçà còÂþB>uïVª ÄV[®ï^ ØïV|\ð_, zâùì gþB Öºï¹_ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
B) ¨öÝöB[ ï¦o[ ØÃö©jü ÖÍ]BV c¦ªVª táz kèïD z¤Ým í®þÅm.
C) ÖÍ]BVs_ Ø>V¦Âï ïVéÝ]_ ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠åVðBºï¹_ còkºï^ ØÃV¤Âï©Ãâ½òÍ>ª
e/
åVðBºï^ ØÃòDÃVKD >ºïÝ>V_ ØÄFB©Ãâ½òÍ>ª
D) ĺï ïVéD Økõïé ïVéÝ]_ ¼kÔ[ÅÝ Ø>V¦ºþBm
153. Choose the correct answer.
.m
154. Who was the first Palayakkarars to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial
aggrandizement?
A) Marudhu brothers B) Puli Thevar
ht
5
B) 4 1 5 3 2
C) 3 5 2 1 4
c8
D) 2 1 5 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.ï_Økâ½B_ Š 1. xÂþB\Vª k«éVu® Wﵡï¹[ Ø>Vz©A
b.ïVéköçÄ z¤©Aï^ Š 2. ĺï ïVéÝ mçÅxïD
ps
c.¼\FßÄ_ kVµÂçï Š 3. sçé¥BìÍ> ï_o_ ØÄFB©Ã⦠gëðD
d.A禩A \èï^ (cameo) Š 4. ï_Økâ| z¤©Aïçá g«VFkm
e.¶öÂï¼\| Š 5. ïV_åç¦ïçá káìÝm© ¸çwÂzD åV¼¦V½ \Âï^
a
A) 1
B) 4
b
4
1
c
2
5
d
5
3
e
3
2
Tn
e/
C) 3 5 2 1 4
D) 2 1 5 4 3
157. i) Under Colonel Campbell, the English Army went along with Mahfuzkhan’s army.
.m
ii) After Muthu Vadugar’s death in Kalaiyar Kovil battle, Marudhu Brothers assisted Velunachiyar
in restoring the throne to her.
iii) Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous Dindigul League.
iv) In May 1799 Cornwallis ordered the advance of Company armies to Tirunelveli.
//t
ØÄ[Ū.
2.ïVçáBVì¼ïVs_ ¼ÃVö_ xÝmk|ïåV>ì ØïV_é©Ã⦠¸[ ¼kKåVßEBVì *õ|D ¶öBçðçB©
Øîk>uz \òm ļïV>«ìï^ mçðAöÍ>ªì.
ht
5
B) >tµåVâ½_ ïVð©Ã|D íâ|Å¡ ±uÃVçéï¹[ ¨õèÂçï Š °¿
C) >tµåVâ½_ ïVð©Ã|D ¼>EB mè ±_ïwï gçéï¹[ ¨õèÂçï Š g®
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D) ÖÍ]BVs_ ïVð©Ã|D Ø\VÝ> ¸[ªéVç¦Ý Ø>Va_ W®kªºï¹[ ¨õèÂçï Š 13,000
159. Which of the following is correct?
1. State Transport Corporation in Tamil Nadu - Chennai
ps
2. Entrepreneurship Development Corporation (EDI) established in the year - 2001
3. Cradle baby scheme - 1992
4. State women’s Resource center in Tamil Nadu - 2014
A) Only 1 Correct
B) 2 only Correct
C) 1, 2, 3 Correct
D) All correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
Tn
e/
1.>tµåVâ½_ \Våï«© ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ïwïD ïVð©Ã|km Š ØÄ[çª
2.Ø>Va_ x窼kVì ¼\DÃVâ| W®kªD (EDI) ¼>Vu®sÂï©Ã⦠gõ| Š 2001
3.Ø>Vâ½_ zwÍç>Ý ]â¦D mkºï©Ã⦠gõ| Š 1992
4.>tµåVâ½_ \VWé ØÃõï^ káç\BD mkºï©Ã⦠gõ| Š 2014
.m
A) 1 \â|D Äö
B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö
D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
//t
160. Assertion (A):Puli Thevar tried to get the support of Hyder Ali and the French.
Reason (R): Hyder Ali could not help Puli Thevar as he was already in a serious conflict with the
s:
Marathas.
A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
tp
C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
íu® : ¯oݼ>kì, çÇ>ì ¶o \u®D ¸Ø«Þ·ÂïV«ìï¹[ c>sçB© ØÃÅ xB[ÅVì.
ht
MATHS
161. The Monthly income of 6 families are Rs.3,500, Rs.2,700, Rs.3,000, Rs.2,800, Rs.3,900
And Rs.2,100. Find the mean income.
A) Rs.2,700 B) Rs.3,900 C) Rs.3,000 D) Rs.3,500
g® z|Dúï¹[ \V> kòkVF xçżB Ô.3,500, Ô.2,700, Ô.3,000, Ô.2,800, Ô.3,900
\u®D Ô.2,100 ¨M_ kòkVl[ Ä«VÄöçBÂ ïVõï.
5
A) Rs.2,700 B) Rs.3,900 C) Rs.3,000 D) Rs.3,500
162. If (x-2) is one of the factor of the polynomial 2 − 9 +7 + 6 then the other two factors are
c8
A) (2x+1) (x+3) B) (2x-1) (x+3) C) (x+3) (x-1) D) (2x+1) (x-3)
(x-2) ¨[Ãm2 − 9 +7 + 6 ¨[Å Ã_K®©A ¼ïVçkl[ Îò ïV«è ¨M_
\uÅ Öò ïV«èï^
ps
A) (2x+1) (x+3) B) (2x-1) (x+3) C) (x+3) (x-1) D) (2x+1) (x-3)
163. The mean mark of 100 students was found to be 40. Later on it was found that a score of 53 was
misread as 83. Find the correct mean corresponding to the correct score.
A) 39.7 B) 3970 C) 3.97 D)397
165. The Probability of getting a job for a person is . If the probability of not getting the job is then
//t
the value of x is
A) 1.5 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
Îò åÃòÂz ¼kçé þ禩Ã>uïVª Wïµ>ï¡ . ¼kçé þç¦ÂïV\_ Öò©Ã>uïVª Wïµ>ï¡ ¨
s:
M_, [ \]©A
A) 1.5 B)1 C) 2 D)3
tp
Value: 1 2 3 4 5 6
f: 1 3 2 4 8 2
A) 4.5 B) 9 C)5 D)4
5
õðVï Öò©Ã>uïVª WïµïsçªÂ ïVõï.
A) B) C) D)
c8
169. The Cost of a T.V. is Rs.30,000. The company offers it in 24 months, but charges 10% interest.
Find the monthly instalment the purchaser has to pay.
A) Rs.1500 B) Rs. 1200 C) Rs.1600 D) Rs.1400
ps
Îò Ø>VçéÂïVâE© ØÃâ½l[ sçé Ô.30,000. Îò W®kªD ÖÝØ>VçïçB 10% kâ½¥¦[ 24 \V>Ý
>kçðBVïÝ >«éVD ¨[þ[Åm. Öç> kVºzÃkì ØÄKÝ> ¼kõ½B \V>Ý >kçð ¨Ëká¡?
A) Rs.1500 B) Rs. 1200 C) Rs.1600 D) Rs.1400
170. The average height of 10 students in a class was calculated as 166cm. On verification it was found
A) 165 cm B) 160 cm Tn
that one reading was wrongly recorded as 160 cm, instead of 150 cm. Find the correct mean height.
C) 155 cm
Îò kz©¸_ c^á 10 \Vðkìï¹[ Ä«VÄö cB«D 166 ØÄ.*, ¨ªÂ ïðÂþ¦©Ãâ¦m.
>ïk_ïçáß ÄöÃVìÂzD ¼ÃVm Îò \]©A 150 ØÄ.* Âz Ã]éVï 160 ØÄ.* ¨ª
D) 170 cm
e/
z¤©¸¦©Ãâ¦m ïõ|¸½Âï©Ãâ¦m ¨M_ ÄöBVª Ä«VÄö cB«D ïVõ
A) 165 ØÄ.* B) 160 ØÄ.* C) 155 ØÄ.* D) 170 ØÄ.*
171. The HCF of 4 x 27 x 3125, 8 x 9 x 25 x 7 and 16 x 81 x 5 x 11 x 49 is
.m
175. In a T – 20 cricket match, Raju hit a “six” 10 times out of 50 balls he played. If a ball was selected
at random. Find the probability that he would not have hit a “six”.
A) B) C) D)
T – 20 \â禩ÃÍm ¼ÃVâ½l_ «V· 50 ÃÍmïçá ¨]ì ØïVõ| 10 xçÅ ""g®""
{⦺ïçá ¨|Ý>Vì. ¶kì ¨]ìØïVõ¦ ÃÍmï¹_ Îò ÃÍç> Ä\kVF©A xçÅl_
¼>ìÍØ>|ÂzD ¼ÃVm ¶]_ ¶kì ""g®"" {⦺ï^ ¨|ÂïV\_ Öò©Ã>uïVª Wïµ>ï¡
¨[ª?
A) B) C) D)
5
176. For which set of numbers do the mean, median and mode all have the same values?
A) 2,2,2,4 B) 1,3,3,3,5 C)1,1,2,5,6 D) 1,1,2,1,5
c8
¸[kòD ¨õ Ø>Vz]ï¹_ Ä«VÄö, Öç¦Wçé \u®D xï| μ« \]©ÃVï ¶ç\¥D
Ø>Vz] ¨m?
A) 2,2,2,4 B) 1,3,3,3,5 C)1,1,2,5,6 D) 1,1,2,1,5
177. The median of the data 24,29,34,38,35 and 30 is
ps
A)29 B)30 C)34 D) 32
>«¡ï^ 24,29,34,38,35 \u®D 30 Ö[ Öç¦WçéBá¡
A)29 B)30 C)34 D) 32
B) Tn
178. What is the probability of getting an even number when a die is thrown?
A) C)
Îò Ãïç¦çB còâ|DØÃV¿m {ì Ö«â禩Ãç¦ ¨õ þ禩Ã>uïVª Wïµ>ï¡ BVì?
D)
A) B) C) D)
e/
179. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A’s share is
Rs.855, then the total profit is
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A) ±2 B) 2 C) −2 D)
ht
yìÂï: − = ×
A) ±2 B) 2 C) −2 D)
182. Three numbers are in the ratio 3:5:7 and their average is 60. Find the smallest number?
A) 36 B) 12 C)15 D) 48
J[® ¨õï^ 3:5:7 ¨[Å sþ>Ý]_ c^áª. ¶ku¤[ Ä«VÄö 60 ¨M_, ¶ËØkõï¹_ tïßE¤B
¨õ BVm?
A) 36 B) 12 C)15 D) 48
183. A shop keeper marked the price of an article as 15% more on its cost price and then offered 15%
reduction for the article, then he got
A) Profit B) Loss
C) Neither Profit nor Loss D) Profit as well as Loss
Îò ïç¦ÂïV«ì Îò ØÃVò¹[ ¶¦Âï sçél_ 15 Ä>T>D ¶]ï\VÂþ ¶>[ z¤Ý> sçé
gÂzþÅVì. ¶]_ 15 Ä>T>D >^Óý >Ím suÃçª ØÄFþÅVì ¨M_ ïç¦ÂïV«ì ¶ç¦Í>m.
A) éVÃD B) åâ¦D
C) éVÃxD Ö_çé åâ¦xD Ö_çé
5
D) éVÃ\Vï¡D ÖòÂzD åâ¦\Vï¡D ÖòÂzD
184. If the variance of a data is 6.25 find its standard deviation
A) 2.5 B) 0.25 C) 3.25
D) 3.5
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Îò A^¹ sk«Ý][ séÂï kìÂï Ä«VÄö 6.25 ¨M_ ¶>[ ]⦠séÂïD ïVõï.
A) 2.5 B) 0.25 C) 3.25 D)3.5
185. The product of Arun’s age (in years) two years ago and his age three years from now is three less
than thrice his present age what is his present age?
ps
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
¶òè[ >u¼ÃVç>B kB][ J[® \¦º¼ïV| 3çB ïaÝ>V_ þ禩Ãm ¶òè[ Ö«õ| gõ|
xÍç>B kBç>¥D J[ÅVõ|ï^ ¸Íç>B kBç>¥D ØÃòÂï þ禩Ã>uz Ä\D ¨M_ ¶òè[ >
u¼ÃVç>B kBm?
A) 3
A) 3/4
B) 4 C) 5
B) 1/4
Tn
D) 6
186. Three unbiased coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most two heads?
C) 3/8
J[® æ«Vª åVðBºï^ ·õ¦©Ã|þ[Ū ¨M_ ¶]ïÃâÄD Öò >çéï^ þç¦Âï
Wïµ>ï¡ BVm?
D) 7/8
e/
A) 3/4 B) 1/4 C) 3/8 D) 7/8
187. The largest four digit number which when divided by 4,7 and 13 leaves a remainder 3 in each case
is
.m
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
Öò Ãïç¦ï^ cò⦩Ã|D¼ÃVm ¶ku¤[ xï \]©Aï¹[ í|>_ 8Šgï Öò©Ã>uïVª kVF©Aï¹
[ ¨õèÂçï
s:
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
189. The highest number which divides the product of any three consecutive even natural number is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16
tp
5
A) 35 B) 36 C)25 D)26
18,41,x,36,31,24,37,35,27,36 Öku¤[ Ä«VÄö 31 ¨M_ x Ö[ \]©A ¨[ª?
c8
A) 35 B) 36 C)25 D)26
0
195. Supplementary angle of 88 is --------
A) 20 B) 920 C) 800 D) 980
0
88 [ tçï W«©A ¼ïVðD ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ
A) 20 B) 920 C) 800 D) 980
ps
196. Arun drives 120 miles at 60 miles/hr and then drives the next 120 miles at 40 miles/hr. What is his
average speed for the entire trip?
A) 42 B) 48 C) 50 D) 54
¶òõ ¨[Ãkì Îò kVïªÝç> 60 ç\_ï^/\è ¨[Å ¼kïÝ]_ 120 ç\_ï^ {â|þÅVì.¸[ªì 40
ç\_ï^/\è ¨[Å ¼kïÝ]_ ¶|Ý> 120 ç\_ï^ {â|þÅVì ¨M_
Ø\VÝ>Ý]_ ¶k«m Ä«VÄö ¼kïD ¨[ª?
A) 42 B) 48 C) 50
TnD) 54
197. The Probability a red marbel selected at a random from a Jar containing p red, q blue and “r” green
marbles is
e/
) * *+) *+,
A) B) C) D)
*+)+, *+)+, *+)+, *+)+,
-ŠEk©A, .ŠÀéD, /ŠÃßçÄ WÅ íwVºïuï^ c^á Îò z|çkl_ ÖòÍm Îò Ek©AWÅ íwVºï_
.m
þ禩Ã>uïVª Wïµ>ïkVªm
) * *+) *+,
A) B) C) D)
*+)+, *+)+, *+)+, *+)+,
198. Find the mean and variance of first 10 natural numbers
00 0
//t
A) , B) , C) , D) ,
x>_ 10 ÖB_ ¨õï¹[ Ä«VÄö \u®D séÂï kìÂïß Ä«VÄöçB ïVõï.
00 0
A) , B) , C) , D) ,
s:
199. Cricket player Dhoni’s average in first 30 matches was 72 runs. After 31st match, his average raised
as 73 runs. How many runs did he make in 31st match?
tp
5
194. C 194. A
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¶|Ý>Ý ¼>ì¡ (ÖçÄ Š 1) ÂïVª ÃV¦Ý]â¦D
ps
(GR – II TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH) – 13.09.2021 / Monday
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 6 x>_ 8 kz©A kç« / 6th - 8th std full
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 6 x>_ 8 kz©A kç« / 6th - 8th std full
ÃòkWçé \VuÅD
Tn
3. AslB_ : ¶ç\s¦D, ÖBuçï ¶ç\¡ï^, Ãòk\çw, \çw©ØÃVa¡,
ÖçÄ Š 1:
13.09.2021 (]ºï^):
köçÄ ÃV¦D kz©A
//t
¨õ
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 6 x>_ 8 kz©A kç«
1. z½ç\lB_ (6 x>_ 8 gD kz©A kç« c^á ¶çªÝm ÃV¦©Ãz] x¿kmD).
s:
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
61 B 62 D 63 D 64 D 65 C 66 D 67 B 68 B 69 B 70 D
71 B 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 C 76 C 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 C
c8
81 A 82 D 83 B 84 A 85 D 86 B 87 A 88 A 89 D 90 C
91 D 92 B 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 C 97 B 98 C 99 B 100 D
101 D 102 C 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 B 107 C 108 D 109 D 110 A
111 A 112 C 113 C 114 A 115 D 116 C 117 D 118 A 119 D 120 B
ps
121 D 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 C 126 C 127 D 128 D 129 B 130 C
131 B 132 B 133 D 134 A 135 D 136 A 137 A 138 C 139 D 140 A
141 A 142 B 143 B 144 D 145 A 146 D 147 C 148 C 149 C 150 B
151 C 152 A 153 D 154 B 155 A 156 B 157 B 158 D 159 D 160 A
161
171
181
191
C
A
A
A
162
172
182
192
D
C
A
B
163
173
183
193
A
A
B
C
164
174
184
194
C
B
A
C
165
175
185
195
Tn
B
B
A
B
166
176
186
196
D
B
D
B
167
177
187
197
A
D
D
B
168
178
188
198
D
C
B
A
169
179
189
199
A
C
D
B
170
180
190
200
A
C
D
A
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – IYAL - 15 ANS KEY– 09.09.2021
.m
1 B 2 B 3 C 4 A 5 D 6 D 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 B
11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 C 20 B
21 B 22 C 23 D 24 A 25 B 26 B 27 A 28 A 29 B 30 B
31 D 32 B 33 B 34 B 35 B 36 A 37 B 38 B 39 B 40 B
//t
41 A 42 C 43 B 44 B 45 C 46 A 47 C 48 D 49 C 50 C
51 C 52 B 53 C 54 D 55 A 56 C 57 C 58 A 59 A 60 B
61 B 62 D 63 D 64 D 65 C 66 D 67 B 68 B 69 B 70 D
s:
71 B 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 C 76 C 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 C
81 A 82 D 83 B 84 A 85 D 86 B 87 A 88 A 89 D 90 C
91 D 92 B 93 B 94 B 95 B 96 C 97 B 98 C 99 B 100 D
tp
101 D 102 C 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 B 107 C 108 D 109 D 110 A
111 A 112 C 113 C 114 A 115 D 116 C 117 D 118 A 119 D 120 B
121 D 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 C 126 C 127 D 128 D 129 B 130 C
ht
131 B 132 B 133 D 134 A 135 D 136 A 137 A 138 C 139 D 140 A
141 A 142 B 143 B 144 D 145 A 146 D 147 C 148 C 149 C 150 B
151 C 152 A 153 D 154 B 155 A 156 B 157 B 158 D 159 D 160 A
161 C 162 D 163 A 164 C 165 B 166 D 167 A 168 D 169 A 170 A
171 A 172 C 173 A 174 B 175 B 176 B 177 D 178 C 179 C 180 C
181 A 182 A 183 B 184 A 185 A 186 D 187 D 188 B 189 D 190 D
191 A 192 B 193 C 194 C 195 B 196 B 197 B 198 A 199 B 200 A
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – IYAL - 11 ANS KEY– 25.08.2021
1 A 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 B
11 A 12 B 13 D 14 C 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 D
5
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 D
41 A 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 A 46 C 47 D 48 B 49 B 50 D
c8
51 D 52 A 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 B 58 D 59 A 60 B
61 B 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B 66 C 67 A 68 B 69 B 70 D
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 C 79 B 80 C
81 B 82 C 83 A 84 B 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 C 90 B
ps
91 C 92 B 93 D 94 A 95 C 96 D 97 A 98 B 99 D 100 A
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 A 107 B 108 C 109 D 110 B
111 A 112 C 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 B 117 A 118 C 119 D 120 A
121 B 122 B 123 C 124 D 125 B 126 C 127 C 128 D 129 D 130 B
131
141
D
D
132
142
C
B
133
143
A
D
134
144
A
D
135
145 Tn
B
A
136
146
A
D
137
147
B
B
138
148
A
C
139
149
A
D
140
150
D
D
e/
.m
1 A 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 B
11 A 12 B 13 D 14 C 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 A 23 B 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 D
s:
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 D
41 A 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 A 46 C 47 D 48 B 49 B 50 D
51 D 52 A 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 B 58 D 59 A 60 B
tp
61 B 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B 66 C 67 A 68 B 69 B 70 D
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 C 79 B 80 C
81 B 82 C 83 A 84 B 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 C 90 B
ht
91 C 92 B 93 D 94 A 95 C 96 D 97 A 98 B 99 D 100 A
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 A 107 B 108 C 109 D 110 B
111 A 112 C 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 B 117 A 118 C 119 D 120 A
121 B 122 B 123 C 124 D 125 B 126 C 127 C 128 D 129 D 130 B
131 D 132 C 133 A 134 A 135 B 136 A 137 B 138 A 139 A 140 D
141 D 142 B 143 D 144 D 145 A 146 D 147 B 148 C 149 D 150 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 1 / åV^ Š 13.09.2021
.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
sªVÂï^ (150)
s:
AslB_ 0 sªVÂï^
40
Ãòk\çw, \çw©ØÃVa¡, ÃòkWçé \VuÅD
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 1) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
¶«EBéç\©A
B) Socrates Tn
1. A famous French Philosopher who propounded the idea of an independent judiciary
A) Montesquieu C) Cornwallis
'Îò ·>Í]«\Vª À]ÝmçÅ' ¨[Å ïòÝç> x>o_ x[çkÝ> ¸Ø«Þ· >Ýmk QVM
A) \V[¼¦üÂR B) ÄV«Ïü C) ïV«[kVoü D) °mt_çé
D) None
g
2. Coast Guard Day celebrated on ïV
e/
A) February 1 B) March 9
寮éV«Â ïVk_Ãç¦ ]ªD ¨Í> åV^ ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|þÅm?
C) April 21 D) May 14
i
A) ¸©«kö 1 B) \Vìß 9 C) °©«_ 21 D) ¼\ 14
.m
3. Who said that India will be a land of many faiths, equally honoured and respected, but of one
national outlook.
A) Ambedkar B) Rajendra Prasad C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Mahatma Gandhi
ÖÍ]BV Ã_¼k® åD¸Âçïïçáß Ä\\Vï ¼ÃVu¤ \]Âï©Ã|D Ö¦\Vï Öò©Ã¼>V| μ« ¼>EB
//t
1. National Human Rights Commission of India was established on October 12, 1993.
2. It is headquartered in Mumbai.
tp
3. The Prime Minister appoints the Chairman and other members of the National Human Rights
Commission
4. Their term is 5 years
ht
5. “Religion does not teach us animosity; We are Indians and India is our home ”said by
A) A.L. Basham B) Iqbal C) Nehru D) Ambedkar
''Ä\BD å\Âz© Ãçïç\çB© ¼ÃV]Âïs_çé; åVD ¶çªkòD ÖÍ]Bìï^ (\) ÖÍ]BV å\m T|''
¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) A.L.ÃV−D B) ÖÂÃV_ C) ¼åò D) ¶D¼ÃÝïVì
6. Which district has the lowest sex ratio as per 2011 census?
A) Ramanathapuram B) Dharmapuri C) Salem D) Krishnagiri
2011gD gõ| \Âï^Ø>Vçï ïðÂØï|©¸[ý zçÅÍ> ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D?
A) Ö«V\åV>A«D B) >ò\Aö C) ¼ÄéD D) þòiðþö
5
7. According to the governor's report, the President uses which article of the Constitution to establish
President's Rule in a State
c8
A) 353 B) 354 C) 356 D) 357
gÓåö[ ¶¤Âçïl[ý z½B«· >çékì ¶«EBéç\©A Ä⦩¸ö¡ ¨Í> ¸öçk ÃB[Ã|Ý] Îò
\VWéÝ]_ z½B«·Ý >çékì gâEçB °uÃ|ÝmþÅVì?
A) 353 B) 354 C) 356 D) 357
ps
8. Choose the correct statements about Governor.
1. The Governor acts as the Chancellor of the state Universities.
2. Governor has the power not only to convene and adjourn the state assembly meeting but also to
dissolve the legislature
3.\VWé ¶«E[ >çéç\ kwÂï¤Qì, \VWé ¶«· ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðBÝ][ >çékì (\)
c®©¸ªìïçá WB\ªD ØÄFþÅVì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
9. Match. (Year) a b c d
//t
b. cöç\ \Ð Š 2. 1215B) 4 3 2 1
c. gºþé cöç\ï^ \¼ÄV>V Š 3. 1789C) 1 2 3 4
d. \M>[ (\) z½\Âï¹[ cöç\ï^ Ãu¤ Š 4. 1689D) 4 3 1 2
ht
12. Which of the following qualifications is necessary to become a Judge of the High Court?
1. He/ She should be a citizen of India.
2.He/ She should have at least 5 years experience as a lawyer in one or more High Courts.
3. A High Court Judge will hold the post till the age of 62 years.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 3 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) All correct
cBìÀ]\[ÅÝ][ À]Ã] ¸[kòD ¨Í> >z]ïçá ïâ¦VBD ØïVõ½òÝ>_ ¼kõ|D?
1.ÖÍ]B z½\ïªVï ÖòÝ>_ ¼kõ|D.
2.Î[® ¶_ém ¶>uz ¼\uÃ⦠cBìÀ]\[źïáV_ kwÂzç«Q«Vï zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD 5 gõ|ï^
¶ÐÃkD ØÃu¤òÝ>_ ¼kõ|D.
5
3.cBìÀ]\[Å À]Ã] 62 kBm kç« ¶©Ã>sl_ Öò©ÃVì.
¼\uØïVõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
c8
13. As per the Constitution, who is the Head of State of India?
A) Chief Minister B) Ministers C) Governor D) All
ÖÍ]BVs_ \VWé ¶«E[ >çék«Vï BVì Öò©ÃVì ¨ª ¶«EBéç\©A í®þÅm?
ps
A) x>éç\ßÄì B) ¶ç\ßÄìï^
C) gÓåì D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
14. 1. The High Court empowered to issue writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo
warranto and certiorari to emphasize fundamental rights and other objectives
C) 1, 2 incorrect
1.¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ \u®D Ö>« ¼åVÂïºïçá ko¥®Ý> cBìÀ]\[ÅD gâØïVðì¡ À]©
D) 1, 2 correct
e/
¼Ã«Vçð, >z] xçÅ sª¡D À]©¼Ã«Vçð, ïâ¦çál|D À]©¼Ã«Vçð (\) gkðºïçá
>VÂï_ ØÄFB ko¥®ÝmD À]©¼Ã«Vçð gþBkuçÅ ¸Å©¸Âþ[Ū.
2.cBì À]\[ÅD \VWéÝ]_ c^á ¶çªÝm ÄVì þçá À]\[źïçá¥D ïâ|©Ã|ÝmþÅm.
¼\uí¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
.m
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. gÓåì Š 1. cõç\BVª >çékì A) 1 3 4 2
b. x>éç\ßÄì Š 2. ØÃB«á¡Ý >çékì B) 2 1 4 3
tp
A) 1 to 4 B) 5 to 11 C) 11 to 14 D) 14 to 19
z½¥öç\ Ãu¤ ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A ¨ÍØ>Í> s]ï^ z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 1 x>_ 4 kç« B) 5 x>_ 11 kç«
C) 11 x>_ 14 kç« D) 14 x>_ 19 kç«
17. Pravasi Bharatiya Divasis celebrated on
A) February 10 B) March 21 C) January 9 D) April 14
Øk¹åV| kVµ ÖÍ]BV ]ªD (¸«kVE ÃV«]B ]ªD) ¨Í> åV^ ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|þÅm?
A) ¸©«kö 10 B) \Vìß 21 C) Ûªkö 9 D) °©«_ 14
5
2.Ökì 1927 ¨D.°. Ãâ¦Ýç> ØÃuÅVì. ¸[ªì 1915_ ØïVéD¸B Ã_ïçéÂïwïÝ]_ ¸.¨ß.½ Ãâ¦Ýç>
ØÃuÅVì.
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3.Ökì ·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ Ä⦠¶ç\ßÄì gkVì.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
19. Who designed the Indian National Flag?
A) Pingali Venkaiah B) Kanishkar C) Venkata Suburayan D) D. Udayakumar
ps
ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ØïV½çB k½kç\Ý>kì BVì?
A) ¸ºïVo ØkºçïBV B) ïMiïì
C) Økºï¦ ·©Ã«VB[ D) ½.c>Bz\Vì
A) 40 B) 41 Tn
20. The fundamental duties of citizens of India are defined by ________amendment
C) 42
ÖÍ]B z½\ÂïÓÂïVª ¶½©Ãç¦ ï¦ç\ï^ ¨Í> Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý][ JéD kç«B®Âï©Ãâ|^áª?
A) 40 B) 41 C) 42 D) 43
D) 43
residing in India
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
Ã]¡ ØÄF>_ JéD z½¥öç\ Øî>_ Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íu¤çª ïõ|¸½.
1.ÖÍ]B kDÄVk¹çBß ÄVìÍ> Îò åÃì ¨Í> Îò åVâ½_ kEÝ>VKD ¶_ém ¸öÂï©Ã¦V>
//t
A) 15 B) 14 C) 16 D) 19
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ØÃVm ¼kçékVF©Aï¹_ Ä\\Vª kVFùÝ>_ ¨Í> s] z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 15 B) 14 C) 16 D) 19
24. Which provision of the Constitution of India prohibits child labor?
A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 25
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A ¨Í> s] zwÍç> Ø>VaéVáì xçÅçB >ç¦ ØÄFþÅm?
A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 25
5
c®]ØÄFþÅm.
3. ¨Í> Ä\BÝ]uzD ¶«· x[Ðöç\ ÄKçï ¶¹©Ã]_çé.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
26. Which article mentioned about the right to abstain from religious teachings or worship activities of
certain educational institutions in the Constitution of India
ps
A) 29 B) 28 C) 27 D) 26
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ Eé ï_s W®kªºï^ \>D ÄVìÍm åç¦ØîD Ä\B ¼ÃV>çªï^ (¶) Ä\B
kaÃV| WïµßEï¹_ ïéÍm ØïV^áV\_ ÖòÂzD cöç\ ¨Í> s] z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 29 B) 28 C) 27 D) 26
Tn
27. What are the objectives required for secular education?
1.To overcome narrow-mindedness, to create a powerful and intelligent purpose
2.To create Moral &humanitarian vision
g
ïV
3. To train young people to be a good citizen
i
e/
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 3 only correct D) All correct
Ä\BßÄVìÃuÅ ï_s ÿµïVbD ¨Í> ¼åVÂïºï^ ¼>çk©Ã|þÅm?
1. z®þB \ª©ÃV[ç\çB© ¼ÃVÂzk>uzD, ÄÂ]kVFÍ> guÅ_ (\) ¶¤kVª ¼åVÂïÝ]çª
.m
còkVÂzk>uzD
2. >ì*ï (\) \M> ¼åB ÃVìçkçB còkVÂzk>uzD
3. ÖçáQìïçá å_é z½\ïªVï ÃluEB¹©Ã>uzD
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
//t
32. Match a b c d
a. Hindu Marriage Act - 1. 1856 A) 2 1 4 3
b. Hindu Succession Act - 2. 1961 B) 3 2 4 1
c. Dowry Prohibition Act - 3. 1956 C) 4 3 2 1
d. Hindu Widow Remarriage Act - 4. 1955 D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. ÖÍm ]ò\ðß Äâ¦D Š 1. 1856 A) 2 1 4 3
b. ÖÍm kVö· Äâ¦D Š 2. 1961 B) 3 2 4 1
c. k«>âÄçðÝ >ç¦ Äâ¦D Š 3. 1956 C) 4 3 2 1
5
d. ÖÍm s>çk \®\ðß Äâ¦D Š 4. 1955 D) 1 2 3 4
33. Setu Bharatham project launched in the year
c8
A) 2019 B) 2018 C) 2017 D) 2016
¼Äm ÃV«>D ]â¦D Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 2019 B) 2018 C) 2017 D) 2016
ps
34. Choose the correct statement:
1) The highest position in the defense organization is held by the Prime minister of India
2) President is the head of state, he is the supreme commander of the Armed forces in India
A) Both 1 & 2 Correct B) Only 1 is correct C) Only 2 is correct D) None of the above
B) 1 \â|D Äö
35. Choose the correct answer
C) 2 \â|D Äö
Tn
1.ÃVmïV©A ¶ç\©¸[ tï cBìÍ> Ã>s ÖÍ]BVs[ ¸«>\«V_ kþÂï©Ã|þÅm.
2.ÛªV]Ã] ¶«· >çékì, ¶kì ÖÍ]BVs[ g¥>© Ãç¦ï¹[ cßÄ >áÃ] gkVì.
A) 1, 2 Äö D) ¨m¡t_çé
extends to aliens also. This was pointed out by Supreme Court in 1954 at which case?
A) Kesavanandha Bharathi B) Berubari case
s:
íu® : ÄVçé ÃVmïV©AÂïVª ¸¼«EoBV ¸«ï¦ªD Öm n.åV. céï ·ïV>V« ¶ç\©A ÖçðÍm
å¦Ý]B ÄVçé ÃVmïV©¸uïVª Ö«õ¦Vkm céïáVsB cBì\⦠\VåV| gzD.
ïV«ðD : ÄVçé ÃVmïV©¸çª tï xÂþB\Vª>Vï ïò] ÖÍ]B ¸¼«EoBV ¸«ï¦ªÝ]_
2015gD gõ| çïØB¿Ý]â¦m.
A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
39. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with citizenship?
A) Part 1 B) Part II C) Part III D) Part IV
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©Aß Äâ¦Ý][ ¨Í> Ãz] z½¥öç\çB© Ãu¤ z¤©¸|þ[Ū?
5
A) Ãz] I B) Ãz] II C) Ãz] III D) Ãz] IV
40. The foreign citizens residing in India is
c8
A) NRI B) PIO C) OCI D) All of these
ÖÍ]BVs_ kEÂzD Øk¹åVâ| z½¥öç\ ØÃuÅkìï^ BVì?
A) NRI B) PIO C) OCI D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
41. Choose the correct statement about the objectives of secularism.
ps
1. Non-dominance of one religious group against another
2. Some members of one religion do not dominate the members of the same religion.
3. The State will interfere with the religious freedom of individuals and insist on following any
particular religion
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct Tn
Ä\BßÄVì¸[ç\l[ ¼åVÂïºï^ Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
C) 1, 3 correct
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
42. Which provision of the Constitution of India prohibits discrimination in government aided
educational institutions?
A) 28 B) 29 (2) C) 30 2 D) 31
//t
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨Í> s] ¶«· c>s ØîD ï_s W®kªºï¹_ ÃVzÃV| >ç¦ ØÄF>_
Ãu¤ z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 28 B) 29(2) C) 30 D) 31
s:
43. Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna in the year
A) 1989 B) 1990 C) 1991 D) 1992
¦VÂ¦ì ¬D«VË «VD÷ ¶D¼ÃÝïVì ¶kìïÓÂz ¨Í> kò¦D ÃV«> «ÝªV sòm kwºï©Ãâ¦m?
tp
A) 15 (1) B) 16 C) 17 D) 18
¨Í>ØkVò z½\ïÐÂzD ¨]«Vï \>D, ÖªD, ÄV], ÃVoªD, ¸Å©¸¦D ¨[Å ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ÃVzÃV|
ïVâ¦í¦Vm ¨[® ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A ¨Í> Ä⦩¸ö¡ ko¥®ÝmþÅm?
A) 15(1) B) 16 C) 17 D) 18
45. The literacy rate of Chennai as per 2011 census is
A) 91.75% B) 86.16% C) 90.18% D) 85.20%
2011gD gõ| ïðÂØï|©¸[ý ØÄ[çªl[ ¨¿Ý>¤¡ sþ>D ¨[ª?
A) 91.75% B) 86.16% C) 90.18% D) 85.20%
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
5
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect
íu® : 1929gD gõ| éVíö_ í½B ïVºþ«ü \VåVâ½_ x¿ ·B«VëBÝç> ¶ç¦km ¨[Å
c8
xwÂïD kK©ØÃuÅm.
ïV«ðD : ¶>çª Ø>V¦ìÍm 1930 Ûªkö 26 ¶[® x¿ ·>Í]« åVáVï ØïVõ¦V¦©Ãâ¦m.
¶m¼k å\m z½B«· ]ª\Vï gªm.
A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
ps
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
48. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India is
A) Ambedkar B) Rajendra Prasad
C) BN Roy
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A WìðB ÄçÃl[ W«Í>«Ý >çékì BVì?
A) ¶D¼ÃÝïVì
C) ¸.¨[.«VF
Tn
B) «V¼ÛÍ]«¸«ÄVÝ
D) ÄßE>VªÍ> E[ÇV
D) Sachithanantha Sinha
51. 1. The Courts that hear civil cases at the district level are called District Courts
2. The Revenue courts deal with the cases of land records. It also assesses and collects land revenue
from the land holders
s:
sÄVöÂþÅm.
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
52. How many fundamental rights are there in the Constitution of India?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ ¨Ý>çª kçï©Ã|D?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
53. How many times has the Constitution been amended till 16.09.2016?
A) 100 B) 101 C) 102 D) 103
¶«Äç\©Aß Äâ¦D 16.09.2016 kç« ¨Ý>çª xçÅ ]òÝ>©Ãâ|^ám?
A) 100 B) 101 C) 102 D) 103
54. An eight member Constitutional Drafting Committee was formed and who was elected as its
Chairman ?
A) Ambedkar B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Rajendra Prasad D) B.N.Rao
¨â|¼Ãì ØïVõ¦ ¶«Äç\©Aß Ä⦠kç«¡Âz¿ còkVÂï©Ãâ| ¶>[ >çék«Vï BVì
5
¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ãâ¦Vì?
A) ¶D¼ÃÝïVì B) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò
c8
C) «V¼ÛÍ]« ¸«ÄVÝ D) ¸.¨[.«VË
55. Who was the first and the only office of the Indian Air Force to be promoted to Five Star Rank as
Marshal ?
ps
A) Sam Manekshaw B) KM Cariappa
C) Arjan Singh D) None
ÖÍ]B s\Vª©Ãç¦l_ nÍm åâÄÝ]« ¶Í>üm ØïVõ¦ \Vì−_ Ã>sÂz cBì¡ ØÃuÅ x>_
¶]ïVö BVì?
A) ÄVD \VªÂ−V
C) ¶ìý[Eº
B) ¼ï.¨D.ïöB©ÃV
D) Öku¤_ BVòt_çé
56. Indian Coast Guard established in the year
A) 1977 B) 1978
Tn C) 1979 D) 1980
ÖÍ]B 寮éV« ïVk_Ãç¦ ¨Í> gõ| W®k©Ãâ¦m?
e/
A) 1977 B) 1978 C) 1979 D) 1980
57. The Calcutta High Court established in the year
A) 1860
.m
C) åV¦VÓ\[ÅD D) ¸«>\ì
59. Match.
tp
60. Assam Rifles which was established by the British in the year
A) 1835 B) 1836 C) 1837 D) 1938
¶üvVD 竸^ü ¨Í> gõ| ¸öâ½−«V_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1835 B) 1836 C) 1837 D) 1938
61. Assertion A : A foreign policy is a set of political goals that define how a sovereign country will
interact with other countries in the world
Reason R : It does not seek to protect the interests of the people and the economy of the country.
A) A incorrect, R correct B) A correct, R incorrect
C) A & R correct D) A &R incorrect
5
íu® : Øk¹¥Å¡Â ØïV^çï ¨[Ãm ÖçÅBVõç\ ØïVõ¦ Îò åV| céþ[ \uÅ åV|ïÓ¦[
¨ËkV® Ø>V¦ìA ØïV^ÓD ¨[Ãç> kç«B®ÂzD ¶«EB_ ÖéÂzï¹[ Ø>Vz©ÃVzD
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ïV«ðD : Öm åVâ| \Âï¹[ åé[ïçá¥D åVâ½[ ØÃVòáV>V«Ýç>¥D ÃVmïVÂï xBés_çé.
A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
62. India shares its borders with _____country in the north
ps
A) China B) Nepal C) Bhutan D) All countries
ÖÍ]BV k¦Âþ_ >[ ¨_çéïçá ¨Í> åVâ|¦[ ÃþìÍm ØïV^þÅm?
A) æªV B) ¼åÃVáD
C) ¯¦V[
A) Bombay
åVâ½[ tï©ØÃöB À]\[ÅD ¨m?
D) ¶çªÝmD åV|ïÓ¦[
63. Which is the largest court in the country?
B) Madras
Tn C) Allahabad D) Calcutta
- 2. 1860 B) 2 3 4 1
c.Criminal Procedure Law - 3. 1861 C) 4 3 2 1
d.Government of India Act - 4. 1935 D) 1 2 3 4 i
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.cöç\lB_ åç¦xçÅßÄâ¦D Š 1. 1859
//t
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
tp
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 1 2 3 4
ht
65. Which article of the Constitution of India mentions about the function &power of the Supreme
Court of India
A) 124 to 147 B) 147 to 151
C) 151 to 153 D) 154 to 162
ÖÍ]B cßÄ À]\[ÅÝ][ ¶ç\©A (\) ¶]ïV«D Ãu¤ ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A ¨Í> s]
z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) 124 x>_ 147 kç« B) 147 x>_ 151 kç«
C) 151 x>_ 153 kç« D) 154 x>_ 162 kç«
5
2.>u¼ÃVç>B ÃVoª ÃV«ÃâÄÝç>© Ãu¤ Ø>öÍm ØïV^Ó>_
3.\uÅ \>ºïçá Ãu¤ Ø>öÍm ØïV^Ó>_, Øk¹©Ãç¦BVª \ªWçé káìÝ>_.
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4.ÃVoª °uÅÝ >Vµ¡ïçá ¶ïu®k>uïVï ØÃVm kVµs_ \u®D W®kªÝ]_ ØÃõï¹[
]Å[ïçá Øk¹©Ã|Ým>_.
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö
ps
C) 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
67. When was the National Anthem adopted by our Constituent Assembly?
A) January 14, 1950 B) January 24, 1950
C) August 15, 1950
AslB_
71. The precipitation which consists of round pellets of ice which are larger than 5 mm in diameter is
called as___________
A) Snow B) Freezing Rain C) Hail D) Sleet
\çw ØÃVakVªm 5 t.* sâ¦Ýç> s¦ ØÃöB còõç¦BVª ÃMÂïâ½ïçá ØïVõ½òÂzD
¶>uz ¨[ª ØÃBì?
A) ÃM B) cçÅÃM\çw C) géºïâ½ \çw D) ï_\çw
5
72. The ice crystals is formed by deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object is
known as__________
c8
A) Snow B) Frost C) Fog D) Mist
z¹ìÍ> ØÃVòâï¹[ ¼\uë©Aï¹[ *m À«Vs ýÍm ÃM©Ã½ïºïáVï \V®k>uz ¨[ª ØÃBì?
A) ÃM B) cçÅÃM C) ¶¦ìJ|ÃM D) J|ÃM
73. Western Disturbances cause Rainfall in ____________
ps
A) Punjab B) Tamil Nadu
C) Kerala D) Madhya Pradesh
¼\uþÍ]B Öç¦R®ïáV_ \çw©ØÃVaçk© ØîD Ãz]
A) ÃÞÄV© B) >tµåV| C) ¼ï«áV D) \Ý]B©¸«¼>ÄD g
A) 6100 K.M B) 7516.6 K.M
Tn
74. The total length of the coastline of India including the islands is__________________
C) 6200 K.M
ÖÍ]BVs[ ï¦uïç«l[ Ø\VÝ> ÀáD \u®D y¡Â í⦺ïçá¥D ¼ÄìÝm ¨Ëká¡ þ.*?
A) 6,100 þ.* B) 7516.6 þ.* C) 6200 þ.* D) 7500 þ.*
D) 7500 K.M ïV
i
e/
75. Pick out the correct statement
1. India has 15,200 K.m long land boundary
2. India share its boundary with China, Nepal, and Bhutan in the North –West and Pakistan and
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 1 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
76. India shares its longest boundary with which country?
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77. Trans Himalayas lies in Jammu and Kashmir and Tibetan Plateau. As its area extends is more in
tibet is known as____________
A) Tibetan Plateau B)Puravanchal Hills
C)East Himalayas D) All of these
â«V[ü Ö\B\çéï^ ÛDx Š ïVi*ì \u®D yØÃÝ ¬¦¯tl_ ¶ç\Ím^ám. Ö>[ ë©Ãá¡
]ØÃÝ]_ ¶]ï\Vï Öò©Ã>V_ Öçk ¨ËkV® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm?
A) ]ØÃÝ]B[ Ö\B\çé B) ¯ìkVÞÄ_ z[®ï^
C) þwÂz Ö\B\çé D) ¼\uí¤B ¶çªÝmD
78. Statement 1: India along with the countries of Myanmar, Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan and
Srilanka is called a subcontinent.
Statement 2: India is known as sub-continent because it possesses a distinct continental
characteristics in physiography, climate, natural vegetation ,minerals and Human
resources.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false
íu® 1 Š ÃVþü>V[, tBV[\ì, kºïVá¼>ÄD, ¼åÃVáD, ¯¦V[ \u®D Öéºçï gþB åV|ïÓ¦[
ÖçðÍm ÖÍ]BV Îò mçðÂïõ¦D ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
íu® 2 Š ÖBuçï Wé ¶ç\©A, ïVéWçé ÖBuçïÝ >Vk«D, ïM\ºï^ \u®D \M> káºï^
5
¼ÃV[Åku¤_ Îò ïõ¦Ý]_ ïVð©Ã¦Âí½B ¼k®ÃV|ïçá ØïVõ|^á>V_ ÖÍ]BV
Îò mçðÂïõ¦D ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
79. India has been physiographically divided into ___________divisions
A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six
ÖÍ]BVs[ Wé©Ãz] ¨Ý>çª ØÃòD ¸ö¡ïáVï ¸öÂïéVD
ps
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
80. The longitudinal differences between Gujarat in the west and Arunachal Pradesh in the east is ____
A) 20 degree B) 30 degree C) 40 degree D) 45 degree
¼\uþ_ c^á zÛ«VÝ x>_ þwÂþ_ c^á ¶òðVßÄé ¸«¼>ÄD kç« ÖÍ]BV °ÅÝ>Vw ¨Ý>çª
yìÂï ¼ïV|ïçá ØïVõ|^ám?
A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 TnD) 45
81. Statement 1: India extends its boundary from Indira Col in Ladakh in North to Kanniyakumari in
south with 2933 K.M
e/
Statement 2: India extends its stretches from Rann of Kutch in west to Arunachal Pradesh with east
with 3214 K.M
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
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A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are False D) Both are True
íu® 1 Š ÖÍ]BV, k¦Â¼ï é¦VÂþK^á ÖÍ]«V¼ïV_ x>_ Ø>u¼ï ï[MBVz\ö kç« 2933 þ.*.
ÀáÝç> ØïVõ¦^ám.
íu® 2 Š ÖÍ]BV, ¼\u¼ï zÛ«VÝ]é^á «V[ g© ïâß x>_ þwÂ¼ï ¶òðVßÄé ¸«¼>ÄD kç«
//t
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11
Ö\B\çé céþK^á 14 cB«\Vª E﫺ï¹_ ¨Ý>çª Eï«D >[ªïݼ> ØïVõ|^ám?
tp
A) 8 B) 9 C) 10 D) 11
83. Assertion: The wind blows from Indian Ocean towards south Asia as southeast winds.
Reason : The wind turn towards right due to Coriolis Effect and blows as southwest winds
ht
84. The Great wall of India Himalayas can be classified into______________main divisions.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
ÖÍ]BVs[ ØÃòD ¶«ðVï c^á Ö\B\çé ¨Ý>çª câ¸ö¡ïáVï ¸öÂïéVD
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
85. Assertion: In India Arunachal Pradesh is towards east it will have sunrise about 2 hours earlier than
the sunrise at Gujarat which is in the west.
Reason : India Central meridian is 82̊ 30’ E longitude. The local time of the central meridian of
India is the standard time of India
A) Assertion is false and Reason is true B) Assertion is true and Reason is false
5
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true D) Both Assertion and Reason are False
íu® Š ÖÍ]BVs[ þwÂþK^á ¶òðVßÄé ¸«¼>ÄÝ]_ ¼\uþK^á zÛ«VÝç> ïVâ½KD
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Ö«õ| \è ¼å«D x[ª>Vï¼k óöB[ c>B\VþÅm.
ïV«ðD Š ÖÍ]BVs[ \Ý]B yìÂKçïBVª 82°30′ þwÂz yìÂKçïl[ >é¼å«D, ÖÍ]B
]⦠¼å«\Vï ¨|ÝmÂØïV^á©Ã|þÅm.
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A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
86. The height of the Kanchenjunga in metres is_______________
A) 8586 B) 8848 C) 8844 D) 8687
ïÞÄ[ ÛºïV Eï«Ý][ cB«D(*) ¨[ª?
A) 8586
A) Nathula
B) 8848
B) Khyber
Tn
C) 8844
C) Jhelepla
D) 8687
87. Name the passes which connects Pakistan and Afghanistan is___________
D) Zojila
g
ïV
i
e/
ÃVþü>V窥D, g©ïVMü>V窥D ÖçðÂzD ïðkVF ¨m?
A) åVméV B) çïÃì C) ØÛo©éV D) ØÛV´éV
88. Choose the correct statement regarding the importance of Himalayas.
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1. Himalayas blocks southwest monsoon winds and causes heavy rainfall to North India.
2.Himalayas forms a natural barrier to the sub-continent.
3.Himalayas prevents the cold wind blowing from the central Asia and protects India from severe
cold.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) 1, 2 are true D) All are true
//t
Ö\B\çél[ xÂþBÝmkD,
1. Ø>[¼\uz ÃòkÂïVuçÅÝ>|Ým k¦ ÖÍ]B Ãz]Âz ïª\çwçB ØïV|ÂþÅm.
2. ÖÍ]B mçðÂïõ¦Ý]uz ÖBuçï ¶«ðVï ¶ç\Ím^ám.
s:
90. The new alluvium tracts along the courses of the rivers are known as the___________
A) Khadar B) Bet C) Both A and B D) None of these
g®ïáV_ ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ| ýBçkÂï©Ã|D A]B kõ¦_ \õ ¨[ª ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) ïV>ì B) ØÃâWéD C) A & B D) Öku¤_ ¨m¡t_çé
91. The upper portion of the thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred
as__
A) Heterosphere B) Ionosphere C)Homosphere D)All of these
Øk©Ã ¶|Âþ[ ¼\_Ãz]l_ c^á kV¥Âï¹[ ¶á¡ æ«u® ïVð©Ã|k>V_ ¶©Ãz] ¨[ª ¨[®
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
5
A) ØÇ⼫Vü¸Bì B) ¶B¼ªVü¸Bì C) ¼ÇV¼\üBì D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
92. The word “Tropos “ means turn or change is derived from the ____________language
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A)Latin B) Arabic C) Greek D) Japanese
"⼫V¼ÃVü' ¨[® ØÄV_ ¨Í> Ø\Val_ \V®>_ ¨ª ØÃVò^Ã|D.
A) éÝ][ B) ¶«¸ C) þ¼«ÂïD D) Û©ÃVMB g
93. Pick out the correct statement:
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1. In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in atmosphere ïV
2.In 1774 CE Joseph Priestly discovered Oxygen in atmosphere.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false i
ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|
Tn
1. ¼¦MB_ Ô>ì à¼ÃVì| ØÃV.g.1772 D gõ| k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ çåâ«Û[ kV¥ c^áØ>[Ãç>
ïõ¦¤Í>Vì.
2. ØÃV.g.1774 ŠD ¶õ| ¼ÛVÄ© ¸öüâo gÂEÛ[ k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ c^áØ>[Ãç> ïõ¦¤Í>Vì.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
e/
94. Stratosphere lies above the trophosphere. It extends to a height of about 50 KM above earth surface.
Since this layer is a concentration of molecules is known as______________
A) Ozonosphere B) Homosphere C) Heterosphere D) Magnetosphere
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A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
96. Statement 1: A wind Vane records wind speed while Anemometer measures the direction of the wind
tp
ïòsïáVï ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã|þ[Ū.
íu® 2 Š ïVu¤çª ¶áÂï ÃB[Ã|ÝmD ¶éz þ.*/\è ¶_ém ï¦_ç\_ gzD.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
97. The word “Cyclone” is derived from which language?
A) Latin B) Arabic C) Greek D) All of these
"çļáV[' ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¨Í> Ø\Val_ ÖòÍm ØÃBìÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) éÝ][ B) ¶«¸ C) þ¼«Âï D) ¼\uí¤B ¶çªÝmD
98. The region where both trade wind systems meet is known as__________________
A) Broad wind B) Inter tropical Convergent Zone
C) Monsoon Wind D) Secondary Winds
Ö«õ| sBVÃV«Â ïVu® ¶ç\©Aï^ ÄÍ]ÂzD Ãz]çB ¨[ª ¨[þ¼ÅVD?
A) Øå|kç« ïVu® ¶çÅ B) Øk©Ã \õ¦é Öçð©A© Ãz]
C) ÃòkïVu® D) Ö«õ¦VD Wçé ïVu®ï^
99. Which is the first state to receive rainfall from the South west monsoon in India?
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Karnataka C) Kerala D) Tamilnadu
ÖÍ]BVs_ Ø>[¼\uz ÃòkïuÅV_ \çwçB© ØÃòD x>_ \VWéD ¨m?
5
A) gÍ]«V B) ïìåV¦ïV C) ¼ï«áV D) >tµåV|
100. Which statement is/are correct regarding the North East Monsoon?
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1. During winter the Indian Subcontinent becomes colder than the Indian Ocean.
2. As a result the wind blows from Northeast to Southwest direction.
3. This is dry wind system and it does not produce rainfall in the coastal region of south Asia except
the Coromandel Coast of India and Sri Lanka.
ps
A) 1, 2 are true B) 2, 3 are true C) 1, 2 are False D) All are true
k¦þwÂz ÃòkÂïVuz Ãu¤ ¨m/¨çk ÄöBVªçk
1. z¹ìïVéÝ]_ ÖÍ]B mçð ïõ¦\Vªm ÖÍ]B ØÃòºï¦çé s¦ z¹«Vï c^ám.
2. Ö>ªV_ ïVu® k¦þwÂz ]çÄl_ ÖòÍm Ø>[¼\uz ]çÄçB ¼åVÂþ T·þÅm.
B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2 >k®
Tn
3. Öm kÅõ¦ ïVuÅVï ØÄ_k>V_ Ø>uïVEBVs[ 寮éV« Ãz]BVï ÖÍ]BVs[ ¼ÄVw \õ¦éÂ
ï¦uïç« \u®D Öéºçï Ãz]ïçá >s« \uÅ Ãz]ïÓÂz \çwçB ØïV|©Ã]_çé.
A) 1, 2 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
101. Hot and dry wind which blows over plains of India and Pakistan is____________
e/
A) Mistral B) Loo C) Fohn D)Harmattan
ÖÍ]BV \u®D ÃVþü>VM[ Ä\Øk¹ï¹_ T·D Øk©Ã \u®D kÅõ¦ ïVu® ¨[ª?
A) tüâ«_ B) Ù C) àÃV[ D) Çì\V©¦[
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102. Name the wind which blows south easterly from North Africa to the eastern Mediterranean_____
A) Khamsin B) Karaburan C)Fohn D) Chinook
k¦þwÂz g©¸öÂïVsoòÍm þwÂz \Ý]B >ç«Âï¦çé ¼åVÂþ Ø>[þwÂïVï T·D ïVu® ¨[ª?
A) ïVDE[ B) ïV«¯«[ C) àÃV[ D) EûÂ
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103. Which is helps in quick ripening of Mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka?
A) Norwester B) Jet stream C) Loo D) Mango showers
¼ï«áV \u®D ïìåV¦ïV ï¦uïç«© Ãz]ï¹_ sçá¥D \VºïVFï^ sç«s_ x]ìk>uïVª ¨Í> ï
Vu®ï^ c>¡þ[Ū?
s:
106. The __________Channel separates Lakshadweep Islands from the Maldives Islands.
A) Ten degree B) Six degree C) Nine degree D) Eight degree
ÖéâÄÝy¡Â í⦺ïçá ----------------- ïV_kVF \VéÝysoòÍm ¸öÂþÅm.
A) ÃÝm ½þö B) g® ½þö C) Î[Ãm ½þö D) ¨â| ½þö
107. Which Range is the oldest Mountain system in India?
A) Karakoram B) Vindhyas C) Ladakh D) Aravalli
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÖÍ]BVs[ Ãwç\BVª \çéÝØ>V¦ì ¨m?
A) ïV«¼ïV«D B) sÍ]BVü C) é¦V D) g«k_o
108. ________ plains are formed by the older Alluviums.
5
A) Bhangar B) Khadar C) Tarai D) Bhabar
ÃçwB kõ¦_ ý¡ïáV_ còkVª Ä\Øk¹ ----------------- gzD.
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A) ÃVºïì B) ïV>ì C) >«VF D) ÃVÃì
109. What is Normal lapse Rate?
A) When the altitude increases, the temperature decreases, at the rate of 6.5℃ for every 1000 meters
ps
of ascent
B) When the Altitude decreases, the temperature increases, at the rate of 7℃ for every 100 meters of
ascent.
C) It’s is the normal temperature of 6℃
D) None of these
ÖB_A Øk©Ã TµßE ¨[Ãm Tn
A) As©Ã«©¸oòÍm cB¼« ØÄ_é ØÄ_é, k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ ÎËØkVò 1000 *â¦ì
cB«Ý]uzD 6.5°C ¨[Å ¶ás_ Øk©ÃWçé zçÅ¥D.
g
ïV
B) As©Ã«©¸oòÍm ÿ¼w ØÄ_é ØÄ_é, k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ ÎËØkVò 100 *â¦ì cB«Ý]uzD
e/
7°C ¨[Å ¶ás_ Øk©ÃWçé cBòD. i
C) Öm Îò Ä«VÄöBVª 6°C Øk©ÃWçéBVzD.
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D) Öçk ¨m¡t_çé.
110. The Palkstrait and Gulf of Mannar separates India from _________
A) Goa B) Kanyakumari C) Srilanka D) Maldives
ÃV ÀìÄÍ] \u®D \[ªVì kçáz¦V ------------------- n ÖÍ]BVs¦tòÍm ¸öÂþÅm.
//t
ØÃVòáV>V«D (ECONOMICS)
s:
113. Which activities are concerned with the production of raw materials for food stuff and industrial use?
A) Secondary activities B) Small scale industries
C) Services D) Primary activities
cð¡Ý¼>çkÂzD Ø>Va_ cuÃÝ]ÂzD ¼>çkBVª Jé©ØÃVòâïçá cuÃÝ] ØÄFkm,
A) Ö«õ¦VD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ B) E¤B ¶áséVª Ø>VauÄVçéï^
C) ¼Äçkï^ D) x>_WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^
114. The finished goods which are brought from the market to fulfill the daily needs of the consumer is
called______________
A) Sales goods B) Consumer goods C) Total sales D) Barter system
5
¶[ÅV¦Ý ¼>çkïçá ¯ìÝ] ØÄFB \Âï^ ¶ºïV½l_ ÖòÍm kVºþ ÃB[Ã|ÝmD ØÃVòâï^?
A) suÃ窩 ØÃVòâï^ B) Oïì¼kVì ØÃVòâï^
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C) Ø\VÝ> sBVÃV«D D) Ãõ¦ \Vu® xçÅï^
115. Tax levied by organization and industrial organization is____________
A) Individual income tax B) Commercial tax
C) Customs tax D) objective tax
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Ã]¡ ØÄFB©Ã⦠W®kªºï^ \u®D Ø>Va_ W®kªºï^ *m s]Âï©Ã|D kö
A) >MåÃì kò\Vª kö B) Ø>Va_kö C) ·ºï kö D) ØÄFØÃVò^ kö
116. Which of the following is not an example of Direct Taxes?
A) Taxes on income B) Taxes on Property
C) Taxes on heir
ÿµÂïõ¦çkïÓ^ ¨çk ¼åìxï köÂïVª ¨|ÝmÂïVâ| ¶_é?
A) kòkVl[ *>Vª köï^
C) kVö·öç\ï^ *>Vª köï^
Tn D) Taxes on entertainment
D) kºþÝmçÅ
118. The chairman of the GST Council________________
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119. Who is the chairman of the five member committee constituted by government of India in 1996
august for the return of shares of Public sector undertakings?
A) C.Rangarajan B) P.Chidambaram C) G.V.Ramakrishnan D) C.P.Chandrasekar
gïüâ 1996 gD gõ| ÖÍ]B ¶«ÄVªm, ØÃVmÝ mçÅ W®kªºï¹[ úzïçá ]òDé ØîD
å¦k½ÂçïïÓÂïVï nÍm åÃì z¿ Î[çÅ ¶ç\Ý>m.
¶Âz¿s[ >çékì BVì?
A) C. «ºï«VÛ[ B) P. E>DëD
C) G.V. Ö«V\þòið[ D) C.P. ÄÍ]«¼Äïì
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Statement 2: The Indian rupee is derived from Hindi word.
Statement 3: “Rupya” means silver coin
c8
A) Statement 1,2 are true but 3 is false
B) Statement 1 is true but 2 and 3 are false
C) Statement 1 is false but 2 and 3 are true
D) Statement 3 is true but 1 and 2 are false
ps
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï?
íu® 1 : ÃðD ¨[Å ØÄV_ þ¼«Âï kVìÝç>BVª Ø\V¼ªâ¦V ÷¼ªVsoòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m,
íu® 2 : ÖÍ]BVs[ ''ÔÃVF'' ¨[Å ØÄV_ NÍ] kVìÝç>loòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 3 : ''Ô¸BV'' ¨[Å ØÄV_o[ ØÃVò^ Øk^¹ åVðBD.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö 3 >k®
C) íu® 2, 3 Äö 1 >k®
122. Match the following:
a) Carolina - 1. Copper coins
Tn
B) íu® 1 Äö 2, 3 >k®
D) íu® 3 Äö, 1, 2 >k®
A)
a
1
b
2
c
4
d
3
g
e/
b) Angelina - 2. Tin coins B) 3 4 1 2
c) Cupperoon - 3. Gold coins C) 3 1 4 2
d) Tinny - 4. Silver coins D) 2 4 3 1 ïV
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. KVoªV Š 1. ØÄDA åVðBD A) 1 2 4 3 i
b. °Þ¼ÛoªV Š 2. Økõïé åVðBD. B) 3 4 1 2
c. ï©Ô[ Š 3. >ºï åVðBD C) 3 1 4 2
//t
5
1. Ãõ¦ºïçá ÎòkòÂØïVòkì \Vu¤Â ØïV^ÓD ¼ÃVm, Ãõ¦ºï¹[ \]©¸_ ¼k®ÃV| ÖòÍ>ª.
2. Îòkö[ Ãõ¦ \Vu® ØÃVò^ \uØÅVòkòÂz ¶©ØÃVò^ ¼>çkBVª>Vï ÖòÍ>V_ \â|¼\
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Ãõ¦\Vu® xçÅ åç¦ØîD.
3. Ãõ¦ºï¹[ \]©¸_ °uÃ|D ¼k®ÃV|ïçá ïçáB °uÃ⦠Öç¦X| ïòs ÃðD.
A) 1, 2 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 \â|D Äö C) 1, 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
126. Match the following: a b c d
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a) Agro based industries - 1. Iron industries A) 2 3 1 4
b) Forest based industries - 2. Food processing B) 4 3 1 2
c) Mineral based industries - 3. Paper mills C) 3 1 2 4
d) Marine based industries - 4. Sea food processing D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
Reason : Production in economics refers to the creation of those goods and services which have
exchange value.
A) Assertion is true,Reason is false B) Assertion is False,Reason is true
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
//t
¼Äçkïçá¥D còkVÂzþÅm.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
tp
128. _______________is the process of changing the raw materials into finished product.
A) Capital B) Consumer C)Production D)Economics
------------------ ¨[Ãm, Jé©ØÃVò^ïçá \Vu¤Bç\Ým åD ÃB[ÃVâ½uz °uÅkV® x¿ç\BVÂzD
ht
ØÄBéVzD.
A) Jé>ªD B) Oïì¼kVì C) cuÃÝ] D) ØÃVòáV>V«D
129. Pick out the correct statement regarding characteristics of Capital.
1. Capital is an active factor of production
2.Capital is a dispensable factor of a production.
3.Capital has the highest mobility and lasts over time.
4.Capital give future benefits.
A)1,3 are true B)3,4are true C)1,2 are true D)All is true
5
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : Ø>Va_x窼kVì ¨[Ãkì WéD, cçw©A, Jé>ªD ÎòºþçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|kì.
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ïV«ðD : ÖÂïV«èï^ Ö_éV\KD Ø>Va_ x窼kV«V_ cuÃÝ]çB ¶]ïöÂï ÖBKD.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
131. Pick out the correct statement regarding objectives of public sector
ps
1. To promote rapid economic development through creation and expansion of infrastructure.
2. To accelerate export substitution basis mixed economy.
3. To generate financial resources for development.
4. To encourage the development of small scale and ancillary industries.
A) 1,3 is true but 2,4 is false
C) 2,3 is true but 1,4 is false
ÿµÂïVbD ØÃVmÝmçÅl[ ¼åVÂïºï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
Tn
B) 1,3,4 is true but 2 is false
D) All is true
A) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k® B) 1, 3, 4 Äö 2 >k®
C) 2, 3 Äö 1, 4 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
132. Match the following: a b c d
A) National Thermal Power Corporation - 1. Navaratna A) 2 3 4 1
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. ¼>EB ¶ª_ t[ ïwïD Š 1. åk«ÝªV A) 2 3 4 1
b. ÖÍ]B ï©Ã_ W®kªD Š 2. tM «ÝªV Š 2 B) 4 1 3 2
tp
A) Dual economy
B) Tax evasion,therey loss of revenue to the government
C) Effects on production
D) Less liquidity
ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_ ïò©A ÃðÝm¦[ skïV«ºï¹[ ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
A) Ö«âç¦ ØÃVòáV>V«D B) cõç\ ¶áçk zçÅÝm \]©¬| ØÄF>_.
C) cuÃÝ] *>Vª sçá¡ï^ D) zçÅÍ> Àìç\
134. ___________refers to the prices are falling,the value of money will rise.
A) Inflation B) Deflation C) Savings D) Stock exchange
sçéï^ zçÅÍm, ÃðÝ][ \]©A cBìkm
A) ÃðTÂïD B) Ãð kVâ¦D C) ¼Ät©Aï^ D) úz kìÝ>ïD
135. Which one of the following is primary/main function of money?
A) Measure of Value B) Measures of Savings
C) Change of Value D) Helps to share in National income
t[kòkªku®^ ¨Í> Î[® ÃðÝ][ x>[ç\BVª Ãè?
A) \]©¸çª ¶ás|D ¶á¡¼ïV_ B) \]©¸çª ¼ÄtÂï c>¡þÅm.
5
C) \]©Aïçá \Vu¤¦ c>¡þÅm D) ¼>EB kòkVF Ãþìs_ c>¡þÅm.
136. Deflation affect indirectly___________________
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A) Profiters B) Fixed income earners
C) Engage in speculation D) Investors
ÃðTÂïÝ>V_ ¨]ì \çÅBVï ÃV]Âí½Bkìï^
A) éVÃD ~|Ã|¼kVì B) WçéBVª kòkVF ~|¼kVì
ps
C) »ï kVèÃÝ>½_ ~|Ã|¼kVì D) x>Üâ¦Váì
137. The highest revenue earning tax for the state of tamilnadu before goods and service tax is__________
A) Entertainment Tax B) Liquid assets C) State Excise duty D) Sales tax
Ãõ¦ºï^ \u®D ¼Äçk köïÓÂz x[ªì >tµåV| ¶«·Âz ¶]ï\Vª kòkVF ¶¹Ý> kö?
A) ¼ï¹Âçï kö B) WéÝyìçk
138. Match the following:
A) Anti-Corruption act
Tn
C) \VWé ïéV_ kö D) ØÃVm suÃçª kö
- 1. 2016 A) 1
a b
2
c
3
d
4
B)Real estate (Discipline and Development act) - 2. 2002 B) 4 3 1 2
e/
C)Real estate bank - 3. 1988 C) 3 1 4 2
D)Money laundering Prevention act - 4. Internet bank D) 2 4 1 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
.m
2. In Primary production, only agriculture sector takes more importance. So it is called as Agricultural
production
A) Both are true B) 2 only true C) Both are false D) 1 only true
tp
A) 1, 2 Ö«õ|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 1, 2 Ö«õ|D >k® D) 1 \â|D Äö
140. Pick out the incorrect statement
1.Labour is an active factor of production.
2.Labour is homogeneous.Withoutcapital,Labour gives high production.
3.Labour is the human input into the production process.
4.Labour is not mobile and also not cause any danger.
A) 1, 3, 4 false B) 2, 4 False C) 3, 4 false D) 1, 2 False
5
C) Income tax - 3. 1963 C) 3 4 2 1
D) Value added tax - 4. Adam Smith D) 1 4 2 3
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ØÃVòÝmï a b c d
a. \Ý]B kò\VªßÄâ¦D Š 1) 2005 A) 1 2 3 4
b. kö s]©A ØïV^çï Š 2. ¼åìxï kö B) 4 3 1 2
ps
c. kò\Vª kö Š 3) 1963 C) 3 4 2 1
d. \]©A íâ| kö Š 4. g¦D ütÝ D) 1 4 2 3
142. Assertion :Regressive taxation is in opposition to a progressive tax
Reason :Regressive taxation affect a larger percentage of income from low income earners than from
high income earners.
A) Assertion is false, Reason is true
C) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Tn
íu®: kö s]©¸_ ¼>F¡ T> köBVªm, káìT> köÂz ¨]«Vï c^ám.
B) Both assertion and reason are true
D) Assertion is true ,Reason is false
g
ïV«ðD: ¶]ï\Vª kò\VªD ~|Ãkìïçá s¦ zçÅkVª kò\VªD ~â|Ãkìï^ ¶]ï kö
e/
sþ>Ý>V_ ÃV]Âï©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD Äö
ïV
i
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c®]©ÃVâ| s]
A) íu® 1, 2, 3 B) íu®2, 3 C) íu® 1, 4 D) íu® 2, 4, 3
144. Pick out the correct statement.
1.Production and Consumption are two main activities in an economy, production and consumption.
2.Well being is made possible by efficient production and by the interaction between producers and
Consumer
3.The consumers act only as buyers from a producers
4.In an economics all are not consumers.
A) 1,2 is true B) 3,4 is true C) 1,3 is true D) 3,4 is true
5
Reason : Production in economics refers to the creation of those goods and services which have
exchange value.
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A) Assertion is false,Reason is true B) Assertion is true,Reason is false
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : Jé©ØÃVò^ïçá¥D, Jé©ØÃVò^ ¶_éV>çkïçá¥D Î[¤çðÝm Îò ØÃVòçá
còkVÂzD ØÄB_ cuÃÝ].
ps
ïV«ðD : ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_ cuÃÝ] ¨[Ãm, \VuÅÝ>Âï \]©Aç¦B ØÃVò^ïçá¥D,
¼Äçkïçá¥D còkVÂzþ[Ū.
A) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD ¶>uïVª sáÂïD
146. Choose the correct statements
1. The initial supply price of land is zero.
Tn
D) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k®
2. When land, labour and capital are combined in order to produce something is called as entrepreneurship.
3. The inputs of production is converted into to produce goods.
e/
4. When land used in production, it becomes scarce. Therefore it fetches a price accordingly.
A) 1,2 true B) 3,4 true C) 1,2,3 is true D) All are true
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
.m
ØîþÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
147. Choose the incorrect statement
s:
5
2. ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE
3. ÄJï À]
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4. ¶«· k«¡ Š ØÄé¡ ]â¦Ý][ ÃuÅVÂzçÅçB zçÅ©Ã>.
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \u®D 3 \â|D
C) 1, 2 \u®D 3 \â|D D)4 \â|D
149. The final stage of cash evolution of applications for treasury inventory,securities,debt securities and savings
ps
securities are_________________
A) Savings Loan Money B) Net Money
C) Check Loan Money D) Future Payments
ïòÆéï Ãâ½B_, ÃÝ]«D, ï¦[ ÃÝ]«ºï^, ¼Ät©A ÃÝ]«ºï^ gþBku¤[ g
ÃB[ÃV|ï¹[ Ãð ÃöðV\ káìßEl[ Ö®] Wçé
A) ¼Ät©A ï¦[ ÃðD
C) ïV¼ÄVçé ï¦[ ÃðD
150. Match the following:
B) Wïì ÃðD Tn
D) ¨]ìïVé ØÄKÝmçï
a b c d
ïV
i
e/
A) Material resources - 1. Entrepreneur A) 3 2 1 4
B) Changing agent of the society - 2. Tools B) 2 4 3 1
C) Primary factor of production - 3. Warehouse C) 2 1 4 3
.m
WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 2:
16.09.2021 (sBVw[):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 9D kz©A x¿kmD
5
1. z½ç\lB_ (9 gD kz©A ¶«EBéç\©A ÃV¦©Ãz] x¿kmD ýÂï ¼kõ|D).
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2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 9D kz©A x¿kmD
1. ØÃVòáV>V«D (9-D kz©A ¶çªÝm ØÃVòáV>V« Ãz] x¿kmD ýÂï ¼kõ|D)
3. AslB_ : kVMçé (\) ïVéWçé
ps
1. kVMçé¥D ïVéWçé¥D 8-gD kz©A
2. ÖÍ]BV Š ïVéWçé (\) ÖBuçï >Vk«ºï^ 10-gD kz©A
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
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ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
31 A 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 B 40 D
41 A 42 B 43 B 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 D 50 B
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51 C 52 C 53 B 54 A 55 C 56 B 57 C 58 B 59 C 60 A
61 B 62 D 63 C 64 D 65 A 66 D 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 A
71 C 72 B 73 A 74 B 75 B 76 D 77 A 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 A 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 B 88 D 89 D 90 C
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91 A 92 C 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 B 97 C 98 B 99 C 100 D
101 B 102 A 103 D 104 C 105 B 106 D 107 D 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 B 112 B 113 D 114 B 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 C 119 C 120 B
121 D 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 D 126 A 127 C 128 C 129 B 130 A
131
141
B
C
132
142
B
B
133
143
D
C
134
144
B
A
135
145 Tn
A
C
136
146
B
D
137
147
D
D
138
148
C
C
139
149
D
B
140
150
B
C
e/
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1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 B 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 C
11 D 12 B 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 C
21 A 22 D 23 C 24 C 25 D 26 B 27 D 28 C 29 C 30 D
s:
31 A 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 C 39 B 40 D
41 A 42 B 43 B 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 D 50 B
51 C 52 C 53 B 54 A 55 C 56 B 57 C 58 B 59 C 60 A
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61 B 62 D 63 C 64 D 65 A 66 D 67 B 68 A 69 B 70 A
71 C 72 B 73 A 74 B 75 B 76 D 77 A 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 C 82 B 83 A 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 B 88 D 89 D 90 C
ht
91 A 92 C 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 B 97 C 98 B 99 C 100 D
101 B 102 A 103 D 104 C 105 B 106 D 107 D 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 B 112 B 113 D 114 B 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 C 119 C 120 B
121 D 122 B 123 A 124 D 125 D 126 A 127 C 128 C 129 B 130 A
131 B 132 B 133 D 134 B 135 A 136 B 137 D 138 C 139 D 140 B
141 C 142 B 143 C 144 A 145 C 146 D 147 D 148 C 149 B 150 C
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 2
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 2 / åV^ Š 16.09.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶«EBéç\©A 9D kz©A x¿kmD 70 sªVÂï^
tp
AslB_ 40 sªVÂï^
5
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TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 2) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
¶«EBéç\©A
B) China
Tn
1. The Indian electoral system adapted the electoral system of
A) Russia C) UK D) United States
ÖÍ]B ¼>ì>_ xçÅ, ¨Í> åVâ| ¼>ì>_ xçÅçB ¸[Ãu®þÅm?
e/
A) «iBV B) æªV C) ÖºþéVÍm D) ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^
2. National Voter's Day celebrated in India on
A) January 25 B) February 25 C) March 24 D) April 4
.m
Reason R : At present, the commission consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election
Commissioners.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
s:
ïV«ðD : >u¼ÃVm ¼>ì>_ gçðB\Vªm Îò >çéç\ ¼>ì>_ gçðBì (\) Ö«õ| ¼>ì>_
gçðBìïçá c^á¦Âþ¥^ám.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
ht
5. Statement 1: The word Democracy is derived from two Greek words 'DEMOS' and 'CRATIA'.
Demos means people and Cratia means power of the people
Statement 2: Democracy is a system of government that allows people to elect their representatives.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2incorrect
íu® 1: \ÂïáVâE (Democracy) ¨ÐD ØÄV_ ‘DEMOS’ \u®D ‘CRATIA’ ¨ÐD Öò þ¼«Âï
ØÄVuï¹oòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦>VzD. ئ\Vü ¨[ÅV_ '\Âï^' þ«L ¨[ÅV_ ¶]ïV«D
(power of the people) ¨[® ØÃVò^Ã|D.
íu® 2: \ÂïáVâE ¨[Ãm \Âï^ >ºï^ gâEBVáìïçá >Vºï¼á ¼>ìÍØ>|Ým ØïV^á
¶Ð\]B¹ÂzD gâExçżB \ÂïáVâE gzD.
5
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
6. “True democracy cannot be worked by twenty men sitting at the centre. It has to be worked from
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below by the people of every village. “ said by
A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
''Îò cõç\BVª \ÂïáVâEçB, 20 ¼Ãì z¿kVï ¶\ìÍm ØïVõ| ØÄB_Ã|Ý> x½BVm. Öm
ps
ÿµWçélK^á ÎËØkVò þ«V\ \ÂïáVKD ØÄB_Ã|Ý>©Ã|k>VzD'' ¨[® í¤Bkì BVì?
A) Dr. B. R.¶D¼ÃÝïì B) \ïVÝ\V ïVÍ]
C) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò D) Dr.«V¼ÛÍ]« ¸«ÄVÝ
7. Choose the correct option about Democracy
Tn
1. Empowerment of the poor and illiterates to enjoy the goodness of democracy.
2. Willingness among the elected people to misuse their powerful position and public wealth.
3. Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers
e/
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 2correct
ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|. (\ÂïáVâEçB Ãu¤)
1.°çwï^ \u®D ¨¿Ý>¤ku¼ÅVòÂz \ÂïáVâEl[ Ãé[ïçá þç¦Âïß ØÄFB ¶]ïV«D
¶¹Ý>_
.m
A) 益V B) ÖÍ]BV
C) ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^ D) æªV
tp
11. Statement 1: An option called None of the above (NOTA) can be selected in the voting machine.
Rule 49-O in the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, of India describes this procedure
Statement 2: Voters Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) was introduced by the Election
Commission in the general election in 2012.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1: None of the above (NOTA) ¨ÐD {ì ØÃVÝ>Vçª kVÂz ÖBÍ]«Ý]_ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFBéVD.
ÖÍ]B ¼>ì>_ å¦Ýç> s]ï^ 1961 ¨ÐD Äâ¦Ý][ s] ¨õ 48 Š O ÖDxçÅçB
Ãu¤ sköÂþÅm.
íu® 2: (VVPAT) 2012gD gõ| ØÃVmÝ ¼>ì>o_ ¼>ì>_ gçðBD Ö>çª ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]Bm.
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Voters Verified Paper Audit.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 >k® D) 1, 2 Äö
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12. Elections are mentioned in _____part of the Constitution of India
A) XI B) XII C) XII D) XV
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Í> Ãz]l_ ¼>ì>_ï^ z¤©¸¦©Ãâ|^áª?
ps
A) XI B) XII C) XII D) XV
13. In Tamil Nadu, Gramsabha members were elected through "Kudavolai" system in the period
A) Cheras B) Pandyas C) Cholas D) Pallavas
>tµåVâ½_ BVì ïVéÝ]_ ''z¦¼kVçé'' xçũý þ«V\Äçà c®©¸ªìï^ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦪ì?
A) ¼Ä«ìï^ B) ÃVõ½Bìï^
Tn
C) ¼ÄVwìï^ D) Ã_ékìï^
14. When the people express their will on public affairs, through their elected representatives, the type
of government is called indirect or representative democracy. This type of democracy was followed
in
e/
A) England B) India C) United States D) All
ØÃVm skïV«ºï¹_ \Âï^ >ºïám sò©ÃÝç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠¸«]W]ï¹[ JéD
Øk¹©Ã|ÝmD ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ xçżB \çÅxï \ÂïáVâE ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm. Öm ¨Í>
åVâ½_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|þÅm?
.m
A) ÖºþéVÍm B) ÖÍ]BV
C) ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^ D) ¶çªÝmD
15. In the 1952 parliamentary elections, the Indian National Congress won _____seats and formed the
//t
government.
A) 489 B) 364 C) 389 D) 454
1952gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ åV¦VÓ\[Å ¼>ì>o_ ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü ¨Ý>çª Ö¦ºïçá
çï©Ãu¤ gâE ¶ç\Ý>m?
s:
5
¨Í> Äâ¦Ý][ JéD \VïVðºï¹_ >[ªVâEçB ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]Bm?
A) ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë Äâ¦D B) ÖÍ]B ¶«· Äâ¦D 1935
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C) ¬â ÖÍ]B Äâ¦D D) ¨m¡t_çé
19. Who monitors the administration of Town Panchayats?
A) Executive Officer B) Municipal Commissioner
ps
C) Corporation Commissioner D) Project Officer
¼ÃÔ«VâEï¹[ WìkVïÝ]çªÂ ïõïVè©Ãkì BVì?
A) ØÄB_ ¶Kkéì B) åï«VâE gçðBì
C) \Våï«VâE gçðBì D) ]⦠¶Kkéì
A) 6 B) 7 Tn
20. The number of recognized national parties till the year 2017 is
C) 8
2017l[ Wék«©Ã½ ¶ºÿïöÂï©Ãâ|^á ¼>EB ïâEï¹[ ¨õèÂçï ¨Ëká¡?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
D) 9
e/
21. The term ‘pressure group’ originated in
A) Russia B) Japan C) China D) United States
''¶¿Ý>Âz¿'' ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¨Í> åVâ½_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) «iBV B) Û©ÃV[ C) æªV D) ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^
.m
C) Collective leadership
D) President is not accountable to parliament
åV¦VÓ\[Å gâE xçÅl_ >kÅVªm ¨m?
s:
C) Gandhi D) Malala
""Îò \M>Ðç¦B cöç\ ¶ß·®Ý>©Ã|D ¼ÃVm, ÎËØkVò \M>Ðç¦B cöç\¥D
zçÅÂï©Ã|þÅm'' ÖÂíuçÅ í¤Bkì?
A) ¶D¼ÃÝïVì B) ÛV[ ¨à© Øï[ª½ C) ïVÍ] D) \éVéV
24. Fundamental rights can be classified into _______types
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ ¨Ý>çª kçï©Ã|D?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
25. Assertion (A): SHRC have one chairman and four members.
Reason (R): It has a power of a civil court.
A) Both A & R are true and R explains A
B) Both A & R are true and R does not explains A
C) A is correct and R is false
D) A is false and R is correct
íu® : >tµåV| \VWé \M> cöç\ gçðBD Îò >çékì \u®D åV[z c®©¸ªìïçá
ØïVõ|^ám.
ïV«ðD : Öm Îò z½ç\l_ À]\[Å ¶]ïV«Ýç> ØÃu®^ám.
5
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂzþÅm
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂïs_çé
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C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
26. If party is recognized in the Legislative Assembly or Lok Sabha elections , atleast in the four states
ps
with a ______ minimum percentage of total valid votes recorded
A) 5% B) 6% C) 7% D) 8%
Îò ïâE ¶ºÿïV«D ØÃÅ \Âïáçk ¼>ì>o¼éV (¶) \VWé Äâ¦Äçà ¼>ì>o¼éV zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD
åV[z \VWéºï¹_ Ã]kVª Ø\VÝ> ØÄ_éÝ>zÍ> kVÂzï¹_ zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD ¨Ý>çª Ä>T>D
ØÃu¤òÂï ¼kõ|D?
A) 5% B) 6%
27. Select the Incorrect pair.
A) Single party system - China
C) 7% Tn D) 8%
31. Assertion A : A person who has not completed the age of 18 years is a child as per UNO. This
principle is exhibited in Articles 25 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
Reason R : The declaration of the Rights of the child was accepted and adopted in the UN General
Assembly on 20th November, 1989.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect
íu® : nÂþB åV|ï^ Äçà 18 kBmkç«¥^á ¶çªkç«¥D zwÍç>ï^ ¨ª kç«B®ÂþÅm.
Öm céïáVsB \M> cöç\ï^ ¸«ïª¦Ý][ ¸ö¡ 25_ ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
ïV«ðD : n.åV. Äçà 1989gD gõ| åkDÃì 20 ¶[® zwÍç>ï^ cöç\ï^ ¸«ïª¦Ýç>
5
°u®Â ØïVõ¦m.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
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C) íu®D, ïV«ðxD Äö D) íu®D, ïV«ðxD >k®
32. Right to Free and Compulsory Education Act introduced in the year
A) 2008 B) 2009 C) 2010 D) 2011
ÖékÄ \u®D ïâ¦VB ï_s cöç\ß Äâ¦D ØïVõ| kÍ> kò¦D?
ps
A) 2008 B) 2009 C) 2010 D) 2011
33. Oldest form of government is
A) Russia B) China C) United Kingdom D) Japan
tï¡D Ãwç\BVª ¶«ÄVºïD ¨m?
A) «iBV B) æªV Tn C) nÂþB ¼Ã««· D) Û©ÃV[
34. Statement 1: The Central and State Governments have the power to make laws but the powers vary.
The Central Government has the power to legislate for certain matters. These are
included in the Central List.
e/
Statement 2: The State Government has the power to legislate for certain subjects. The laws for
these subjects will be enacted by the State Governments. These are included in state
list
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38. Which article mentions about Free and compulsory education for all children until they attain the
age of 14 years?
A) 44 B) 45 C) 46 D) 470
Ã]ªV[z kBm WçÅk禥D kç« ÖékÄ \u®D ïâ¦VB ï_s ¶çªÝm zwÍç>ïÓÂzD
¶¹Âï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D ¨[® í®D s]?
A) 44 B) 45 C) 46 D) 47
39. Statement 1: In Tamil Nadu, ancestral property rights were given to women through Hindu
Succession (Tamil Nadu Amendment) Act 1989.
Statement 2 : The Central Government amended the Hindu Succession Act in 2005. By this
5
amendment, women are now given equal shares in inheritance of the undivided
property.
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A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 correct D) Only 2 correct
íu® 1: >tµåV| ÖÍm kVö· cöç\ (>tµåV| ]òÝ>ß) Äâ¦D 1989n Wçżku¤ J>Vç>Bö[
ØÄVÝmï¹_ ØÃõïÓÂzD Ä\ cöç\ cõ|.
ps
íu® 2: \Ý]B ¶«· ÖÍm kVö·öç\ß Äâ¦D 2005_ ]òÝ>ºïçá ¼\uØïVõ¦m. Ö]_
J>Vç>Bö[ ¸öÂï©Ã¦V> ØÄVÝ]_ kVö· cöç\ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ØÃõïÓÂz Ä\
cöç\lçª ¶¹Ý>m.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 >k®
Tn
C) 1, 2 Äö
40. Right to Information Act introduced in the year
A) December 2004
C) November 2005
D) 2 \â|D Äö
B) October 2005
D) January 2004
>ïk_ ¶¤¥D cöç\ßÄâ¦D ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠åV^?
e/
A) ½ÄDÃì 2004 B) ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2005 C) åkDÃì 2005 D) Ûªkö 2004
41. Choose the correct option about Dr. B.R. Ambedkar contribution to laborers.
1. Reduction of working hours in the factory
.m
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
42. Save Childhood Movement founded by
A) KailashSatyarthi B) Arunarai C) Nikaldev D) All
ht
44. Match.
Countries Names of Parliament a b c d
a.United States - 1. Parliament A) 4 3 2 1
b. Britain - 2. Congress B) 2 1 4 3
c. Germany - 3. Folketing C) 1 2 3 4
d. Denmark - 4. Bundestag D) 1 4 2 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
åV|ï^ åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ØÃBìï^ a b c d
a.nÂþB ¶Ø\öÂï åV|ï^ Š 1. ÃVìoØ\[â A) 4 3 2 1
5
b.¸öâ¦[ Š 2. ïVºþ«ü B) 2 1 4 3
c.ØÛì\M Š 3. ¼ÃV½º C) 1 2 3 4
c8
d.ئ[\Vì Š 4. ÃÍØ>ü¦V D) 1 4 2 3
45. The term 'Gross National Happiness' was coined by Jigme Singye Wangchuck in the year
A) 1969 B) 1968 C) 1967 D) 1970
ps
(Gross National Happiness Index) Ø\VÝ> ¼>EB \þµßE ÷¼\ Eºþ¼B kV[·º ¶kìïáV_
ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1969 B) 1968 C) 1967 D) 1970
46. Which article speaks about legislative relations?
A) 256 – 263 B) 245 - 255
Äâ¦\[Å cÅ¡ï^ Ãu¤ í®D s]ï^ BVçk?
A) 256 Š 263 B) 245 - 255 C) 268 - 294
47. How many subjects are in the state list?
Tn C) 268 - 294 D) 232 - 234
D) 232 - 234
e/
A) 61 B) 52 C) 90 D) 100
\VWé Ãâ½Bo_ ¨Ý>çª mçÅï^ c^ám?
A) 61 B) 52 C) 90 D) 100
.m
50. Which committee recommended two-tier system and political parties should participate at all levels
in the elections in the year 1977-1978?
A) Balwanthrai Mehta Committee
B) GVK. Rao Committee
C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
D) Ashok Mehta Committee
(1977 - 1978) Ö«õ| ¶|Âz xçÅ \u®D ¶«EB_ ïâEï^ ¶çªÝm Wçé ¼>ì>_ï¹_
úzØÃżkõ|D ¨[® ¨Í> z¿ ÃöÍmç« ØÄF>m?
A) Ã_kÍ>«VF ¼\Ý>V z¿ B) ÷.s.¼ï. «VË z¿
5
C) ¨_.¨D. Eºs z¿ D) ¶¼ÄV ¼\Ý>V z¿
51. Gram sabha meetings held ______times every year?
c8
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
ÎËØkVò kò¦Ý]uzD ¨Ý>çª xçÅ þ«V\Äçà í⦺ï^ å¦Ý>©Ã|D?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7
ps
52. Who realized that ‘India’s soul lives in the village'?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) Gandhiji
C) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar D) Netaji
''ÖÍ]BVs[ g[\V þ«V\ºï¹_ kVµþÅm'' ¨[Ãç> cðìÍ>kì?
A) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò
C) Dr.B.R.¶D¼ÃÝïVì
B) ïVÍ]B½ï^
D) ¼å>V÷ Tn
53. E.V. Ramasamy, the Chairman of Erode Municipality, took initiative in providing proper drinking
water and sanitation facilities to the people in the year
e/
A) 1917 B) 1918 C) 1919 D) 1920
~¼«V| åï«VâEl[ ØÃòÍ>çék«Vï ÖòÍ> ~.Øk.Ö«V\ÄVt ~¼«V| åï«VâE \ÂïÓÂïVª xçÅBVª
z½Àì kÄ] \u®D ·ïV>V« kÄ]ïçá °uÃ|Ý] >òk]_ x窩A ïVâ½ ØÄB_Ã|Ý]B gõ|?
A) 1917 B) 1918 C) 1919 D) 1920
.m
54. How many articles are mentioned in the Universal Declaration of Human rights?
A) 29 B) 30 C) 15 D) 20
\M> cöç\ï^ Ãu¤ céïáVsB ¼Ã«¤Âçïl_ ¨Ý>çª c®©Aï^ c^áª?
A) 29 B) 30 C) 15 D) 20
//t
2. It contains the rights of basic necessities in the real life. They cannot be taken away.
3. Human Rights are recognized only at domestic level
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 3 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) All correct
tp
57. Statement 1: The basic rights of the citizens of a country, which are listed in the constitution and
enforceable under the law is known as fundamental rights.
Statement 2: Fundamental rights include rights that are basic to normal life.
Statement 3: Fundamental rights are not guaranteed by the Constitution of our country
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) All correct
íu® 1: ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ïVð©Ã|D z½\Âï¹[ g>V« cöç\ïçá ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^
¨ª©Ã|D. Öçk Äâ¦Ý][ JéD åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>éVD.
íu® 2: \Âï^ ÖB_A kVµÂçïÂz g>«V\Vï c^á cöç\ïÓD, ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï¹_
¶¦ºzD.
5
íu® 3: ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ å\m åVâ½[ ¶«EBéç\©Aß Äâ¦Ý][ JéD cÝ]«kV>D
¶¹Âï©Ã¦s_çé.
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A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
58. How many types of democracy?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
\ÂïáVâE ¨Ý>çª kçï©Ã|D?
ps
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
59. How many members does the President nominate in the Upper House of Parliament (Rajyasabha)?
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13
åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ¼\éçkBVª («VëB ÄÃV)s_ ¨Ý>çª c®©¸ªìïçá z½B«·Ý >çékì
WB\ªD ØÄFþÅVì?
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12
Tn
D) 13
60. Who was the first Prime Minister of independent India to be elected by the people?
A) Indira Gandhi B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Rajendra Prasad D) Rajaji
e/
·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ \ÂïáV_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠x>_ ¸«>\ì BVì?
A) ÖÍ]«V ïVÍ] B) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò
C) «V¼ÛÍ]« ¸«ÄVÝ D) «VÛV÷
.m
61. General elections were held by the British India in the year _______ to elect members to the
Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial Councils.
A) 1918 B) 1919 C) 1920 D) 1921
ÖD¸öB_ ï¡[E_ ¨ÐD \Ý]B Äâ¦ÄçÃÂzD \VïVð Äâ¦ÄçÃÂzD ¼>çkBVª c®©¸ªìïçá
//t
5
A) 1, 2 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 \â|D Äö C) 2 \â|D >k® D) 3 \â|D Äö
65. Match the following. a b c d
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a.Zilla Parishad – 1. Mayor A) 1 2 4 3
b.Ward Committees – 2. Chairman B) 3 4 1 2
c.Panchayat Union – 3. District Collector C) 2 1 4 3
ps
d.Corporation – 4. Municipalities D) 3 4 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a) \Vk⦠»«VâE Š 1. ¼\Bì A) 1 2 4 3
b) Ãz] z¿Âï^ Š 2. ØÃòÍ>çékì B) 3 4 1 2
c) »«VâE Î[¤BD Š 3. \Vk⦠gâEBì C) 2 1 4 3
d) \Våï«VâE Š 4. åï«VâEï^
66. What is the tenure of USA President?
A) 6 years B) 4 years
USA ¶]Ãö[ Ã>s ïVéD ¨Ý>çª gõ|ï^?
Tn D)
C) 5 years
3 4 2
D) 10 years
1
e/
A) 6 gõ|ï^ B) 4 gõ|ï^ C) 5 gõ|ï^ D) 10 gõ|ï^
67. In which country has democracy originated
A) India B) Switzerland C) USA D) Athens
.m
AslB_
71. The average of maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called
A) Measuring temperature B) Temperature
C) Mean temperature D) All of these
{ì Ö¦Ý]_ 24 \è ¼å«Ý]uz^ Wé¡D ¶]ïÃâÄ \u®D zçÅÍ>ÃâÄ Øk©ÃWçéÂzD
Ö禼B¥^á Ä«VÄö ¨[ª?
A) Øk©ÃWçéçB ¶ás|>_ B) Øk©ÃWçé
5
C) Øk©ÃWçé Tß· D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
72. The differences between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year is called
c8
A) Annual range of temperature B) Mean Temperature
C) Temperate Zone D)Torrid Zone
Îò gõ½[ ¶]ï Øk©Ã\Vª Ä«VÄö \V>Ý]uzD zçÅÍ> Øk©Ã\Vª Ä«VÄö \V>Ý]uzD
Ö禼B¥^á ¼k®ÃVâ½uz gõ|Âz ¨[ª ØÃBì?
A) gõ| Øk©Ã sBV©] B) Øk©ÃWçé Tß·
ps
C) t>Øk©Ã \õ¦éD D) Øk©Ã \õ¦éD
73. Statement 1: During South East Monsoon The Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India
and Myanmar. The wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely garo, khasi and
Tn
Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at mawsynram located in
Meghalaya
Statement 2: Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in increase in rainfall from West
to East.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true
e/
C) Both are true D) Both are false
íu® 1: Ø>[þwÂz ÃòkÂïVéºï¹_ kºïVá söz¦V þçá, k¦þwÂz ÖÍ]BV (\) tBV[\ç«
¼åVÂþ T·þÅm. Öm ïVE, ïV¼«V, ØÛBÍ]BV z[®ïáV_ Î|Âï©Ãâ| ¼\ïVéBVs_ c^á
.m
Reason : In India the sun rays are vertical over the central part of India during the mid-June, the
summer season ends in India by the end of May. It is because the onset of southwest
monsoon brings down the temperature of the entire India and causes moderate to heavy
s:
76. The delats of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna rivers are also known as tidal forests. These are also
known as
A) Alpine forest B) Seashore forest
C) Mangrove forest D) All of these
\ïVå], ¼ïV>Vkö (\) þòiðV å]ï¹[ ئ_¦V Ãz]ï¹KD {>ÂïV| ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū. Öçk
¨[ª ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þ[Ū?
A) g_ØÃ[ ïV|ï^ B) ï¦uï竼BV«Â ïV|ï^
C) \Vºz¼«VË ïV|ï^ D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
77. “Blackbuck” is the state animal of
5
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Haryana C) Punjab D) All of these
''ïçé\V['' ¨Í> \VWéÝ]uz \VWé séºïVï c^ám?
c8
A) gÍ]«V B) ÇöBVªV C) ÃÞÄV© D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
78. Project tiger was launched in the year
A) 1970 B) 1971 C) 1972 D) 1973
Aoï^ ÃVmïV©A ]â¦D ¨Í> gõ| Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m?
ps
A) 1970 B) 1971 C) 1972 D) 1973
79. How many biosphere reserves in India?
A) 10 B) 15 C) 16 D) 18
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¨Ý>çª clì¼ïVá ïV©Ãïºï^ c^áª?
A) 10 B) 15 C) 16 D) 18
80. Match the following.
a)Sunderban
b)Cold desert
c)Seshachalam
-
-
-
Himachal Pradesh
West Bengal
Madhya Pradesh
Tn A)
B)
C)
a
4
2
1
b
3
1
2
c
2
4
4
d
1
3
3
e/
d)Panna - Andhra Pradesh D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
clì¼ïVá ïV©Ãïºï^ \VWéD A) 4 3 2 1
.m
a.·Í>«kªD Š 1. Ö\VßÄ驸«¼>ÄD B) 2 1 4 3
b.z¹ì ÃVçékªD Š 2. ¼\uzkºïD C) 1 2 4 3
c.¼Ä−VÄéD z[®ï^ Š 3. \Ý]B©¸«¼>ÄD D) 1 2 3 4
d.Ã[ªV - 4. gÍ]«©¸«¼>ÄD
//t
82. Statement 1: Sovereignty over the use of biological resources by nations has been recognized at the
1992 United Nations conference on biodiversity.
tp
Statement 2: To preserve the country rich and diverse wildlife a network of 102 national parks and
about 515 wildlife sanctuaries across the country have been created.
A) Both are true B) Both are false C) 1 only true D)2 only true
íu® 1: 1992Ö_ åç¦ØÃuÅ nÂþB åV|ï¹[ ÄçÃl_ clöB_ Ã[ç\ \«A ¨[Å ïòÝ>«ºþ_
ht
5
å] kª©Ãz] (¶) guźïç«Â ïV|ï^ Ãu¤ ¨m/¨çk ÄöBVªçk?
1.ÖÂïV|ï^ ïºçï, Bxçª å] ÃV¥D Ãz]ïçá z¤©ÃVï ïV>ì Ãz]ï¹_ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
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2.Öm ÷ç\BVª A>ì >Vk«ºï^ ØÃBì ¼ÃVªçk.
3.k¦ØÃòD Ä\Øk¹ Ãz]ï¹K^á gu®©Ãz]ï¹_ ÖËkçïÝ >Vk«ºï^ ¶]ïD
ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
ps
86. How much annual rainfall is received by Tropical deciduous forest?
A) 50 cm – 100 cm B)100 cm-200 cm C) 200 cm-300 cm D)300 cm-400 cm
¶Bª \õ¦é Öçé¥]ì ïV|ï¹_ gõ| Ä«VÄö \çw©ØÃVa¡ ¨Ëká¡?
A) 50 ØÄ.* x>_ 100 ØÄ.* kç« B) 100 ØÄ.* x>_ 200 ØÄ.* kç«
C) 200 ØÄ.* x>_ 300 ØÄ.* kç« D) 300 ØÄ.* x>_ 400 ØÄ.* kç«
Tn
87. Assertion: Weather is the day to day conditions of the atmosphere at any place regards sunshine,
temperature, cloud cover, wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and
such other elements.
Reason : Weather refers to short periods like a day, a week, a month or a little longer.
e/
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Assertion is false, but reason is true
C) Assertion is true but reason is false D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : kVMçé ¨[Ãm Îò z¤©¸â¦ Ö¦Ý][ k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ Wé¡D óöB Øk¹ßÄD, Øk©ÃD,
.m
C) Inclination D) Triangle
''þçá¼\V'' ¨[ÅV_ >ta_ ¨[ª ØÃVò^?
tp
5
D) 3 2 4 1
90. Statement 1: The fact that the earth is spherical in shape results in different parts of the earth getting
c8
heated differently.
Statement 2: Based on the heat received from the sun, earth is divided into two heat zones.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true
C) Both are true D) Both are false
ps
1.Asl[ ¼ïVá k½k¼\ Øk˼k® Ö¦ºï¹_ Øk˼k® Øk©ÃWçéçB© Øîk>uz ïV«ð\Vï
¶ç\þÅm.
2.¶>çª ¶½©Ãç¦BVï ØïVõ| As Ö«õ| Øk©Ã \õ¦é\Vï ¸öÂï©Ãâ|^áª. Asl[ Øk©Ã
\õ¦éºï^ Ãu¤ ¼\uí¤B íu®ï¹_ ¨m/¨çk ÄöBVªçk?
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö
Tn
D) 1, 2 >k®
91. Pick out the correct statement regarding frigid zone
1. The Frigid Zone lies between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole and between the Antarctic
Circle and the South Pole.
e/
2. Frigid zone receives the extremely low temperature throughout the year, these regions are
covered with snow.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false
z¹ì \õ¦éÝç> Ãu¤ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
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A) June 10, 1910 B)July 10, 1913 C)January 14, 1914 D)July 09, 1912
Asl_ Ömkç« Ã]kVª tï ¶]ïÃâÄ Øk©ÃWçé 56.7℃ (134℉) Öm ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åVâ½[
ïo¼ÃVìMBVsK^á ÿö[éVÍm \çéÝØ>V¦ö_ ¨Í> åV¹_ Ã]kVþ¥^ám?
tp
1.The horizontal movement of air is called air current whereas the vertical movement of air is called
wind.
2.The wind moves from high pressure to low pressure.
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|
1.þç¦\â¦\Vï åïòD kV¥suz ïVu¼ÅVâ¦D ¨[® ØÃBì. ØĺzÝ>Vï åïòD kV¥suz ïVu®
¨[® ØÃBì.
2.ïVu® ¨©ØÃV¿mD cBì ¶¿Ý>©Ãz]ï¹oòÍm zçÅÍ> ¶¿Ý> Ãz]çB ¼åVÂþ T·D.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
94. Name the wind which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
A) Planetary winds B) Seasonal winds
C) Local winds D) None of the above
gõ| x¿kmD μ« ]çÄç ¼åVÂþ T·D ïVu®Âz ¨[ª ØÃBì?
A) ¼ïV^ ïVu®ï^ B) Ãòk ïVu®
C) >é ïVu®ï^ D) ¼\uí¤B ¨m¡t_çé
95. The ratio of water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis is called
A) Absolute Humidity B) Relative humidity
C) Specific humidity D) Pressure winds
5
Îò z¤©¸â¦ ¨ç¦ÂØïVõ¦ ïVu¤K^á À«Vsl[ ¨ç¦ ~«©Ã>D ¨[ª ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm?
A) cõç\BVª ~«©Ã>D B) ΩA ~«©Ã>D
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C) ·B ~«©Ã>D D) ïVuÅ¿Ý>D
96. When the altitude increases, the temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5 ̊ C for every 1000 metres of
ascent is called
A) Seasonal Change B) Normal lapse rate
ps
C) Normal Temperature D) Seasonal winds
As©Ã«©¸oòÍm cB¼« ØÄ_é ØÄ_é k¹\õ¦éÝ]_ ÎËØkVò 1000 *â¦ì cB«Ý]uzD 6.5℃
¨[Å ¶ás_ Øk©ÃWçé zçÅþÅm. Ö>uz ¨[ª ØÃBì?
A) Ãòk\VuÅD B) ÖB_A Øk©ATµßE
C) ÖB_A Øk©ÃWçé
A) Monsoon wind
C) Jet streams
D) ÃòkïVu®
Tn
97. What is/are the factors affected the climate of India?
B) Relief features
D) All of these
ÖÍ]BVs_ ïVéWçéçB ÃV]ÂzD ïV«èï^ BVçk?
e/
A) ÃòkÂïVu® B) Wéݼ>VuÅD
C) ØÛâ ïVu®ï^ D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
98. Which are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper atmosphere?
.m
Reason : The Himalayas act as a barrier to the freezing cold wind blows from central Asia and
keep the Indian Subcontinent warm. As such the North India experiences tropical
climate even during winter.
A) Assertion is true but reason is false B) Assertion is false but reason is true
ht
C) Both Assertion and reason are true D) Both Assertion and reason are false
íu® : ÖÍ]BVs[ Wéݼ>VuÅD, ïVéWçél[ xÂþB í®ïáVª Øk©ÃWçé, k¹\õ¦é
¶¿Ý>D, ïVu¤[ ]çÄ (\) \çwBáçk ØÃò\ás_ ÃV]Âþ[Åm.
ïV«ðD : Ö\B\çéï^ \Ý]B gEBVsoòÍm T·D ï|D z¹ì ïVuçÅ >|Ým, ÖÍ]B
mçðÂïõ¦Ýç> Øk©Ã Ãz]BVï, çkÝ Ö>ªV_ z¹ì ïVéÝ]KD k¦ ÖÍ]BV
Øk©Ã \õ¦é ïVéWçéçB ØïVõ|^ám.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
5
D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï.
c8
a.z¹ìïVéD Š 1. \Vìß x>_ ¼\ kç«
b.¼ïVç¦ÂïVéD Š 2. Ûªkö x>_ ¸©«kö kç«
c.Ø>[¼\uz \çwÂïVéD Š 3. ¶Â¼¦VÃì x>_ ½ÄDÃì kç«
d.k¦þwÂz ÃòkïVu® ïVéD Š 4. É[ x>_ ØÄ©¦DÃì kç«
ps
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 4 3 2 1
Tn
102. 1. During winter season period, the vertical rays of the sun falls over seashores which is far away
from India. Hence India receives vertical sunrays.
2.The cold weather season is characterized by clear skies, fine weather, light northerly winds, low
e/
humidity and large day time variations of temperature
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false
1.óöBM[ ØĺzÝm ï]ìï^ ÖÍ]BVsoòÍm ØkzØ>VçésK^á ï¦uïç«l[ *m ØĺzÝ>Vï
s¿þÅm. Ö>ªV_ ÖÍ]B Ãz] ØĺzÝ>Vï óöBÂï]ìïçá ØîþÅm.
.m
2.Ø>¹kVª kVªD, EÅÍ> kVMçé, Ø\[ç\BVª k¦Âz ïVu®ï^, zçÅÍ> ~«©Ã>D \u®D
tzÍ> ]ªÄö Ãï_¼å« Øk©Ã ¼k®ÃV|ï^ gþBª Ö©ÃòkÝ][ zðV]ÄBºï^.
z¹ì ÃòkÝç> Ãu¤ ¨m/¨çk ÄöBVªç> ïõ¦¤ï.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
//t
103. Assertion: In Summer Season because of the atmospheric pressure conditions, the wind blow from
southwest to Northeast direction in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal.
Reason : It brings the pre monsoon showers to the west coast during the month of may and also a
s:
few thunder showers called “Mango showers” which helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the
coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
tp
5
Statement 2: Low pressure systems are also called as depressions and cyclones
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
c8
íu® 1: zçÅkVª ïVuÅ¿Ý> \õ¦éD H ¨[Å ¨¿Ý>VKD, ¶]ï ïVuÅ¿Ý> \õ¦éÝç>
L ¨[Å ¨¿Ý>VKD kVMçé kç«Ã¦Ý]_ z¤Âï©Ã|þÅm.
íu® 2: zçÅÍ> ¶¿Ý> \õ¦éD ïVuÅ¿Ý> >Vµ¡ \õ¦éD ¨[®D, óÅVk¹ ¨[®D
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ps
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
106. How many types are classified the wind systems?
A)4 B)2 C)3 D)5
ïVu¤[ ¶ç\©Aï^ ¨Ý>çª ØÃòD ¸ö¡ïáVï ¸öÂï©Ãâ|^áª?
A) 4 B) 2 C) 3
107. Beaufort Scale is used to measure
A)Humidity
Tn B)Heat
D) 5
e/
C)Relative Humidity D)Wind speed
¸¼BV¼ÃVì| ¶áçk ¨[Å ïòs ¨ç> ¶ás¦ ÃB[Ã|þÅm?
A) ~«©Ã>Ýç> B) Øk©ÃD
C) ΩA ~«©Ã>D D) ïVu¤[ ¼kïÝç>
.m
A) ÃÞÄV© B) >tµåV|
C) ¼ï«áV D) \Ý]B©¸«¼>ÄD
109. Which is helps in quick ripening of Mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka?
s:
C) 30 – 35 years D) 15 months
ïVéWçé ¨[Ãm Îò z¤©¸â¦ Ãz]l[ ·\Vì ----------------- Ä«VÄö kVMçéçB z¤©Ã>VzD.
A) 13 gõ|ï^ B) 30 gõ|ï^
C) 30 - 35 gõ|ï^ D) 15 \V>ºï^
ØÃVòáV>V«D
111. Find the correct statements
1. Most of the transactions in the world are in the US dollar value.
2.Only the United States runs world’s trade
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect C) 1 only correct D) 2 only correct
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ïçá ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
1.céï åV|ï¹_ ØÃòDÃV[ç\BVª Ãð©Ãö\Vuźï^ ¶Ø\öÂï ¦Véì \]©¸¼é¼B åç¦ØîþÅm
5
2.céï kèïÝç> ¶Ø\öÂïV \â|¼\ å¦ÝmþÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
c8
112. Match. a b c d
a .Nasik - 1. 1974 A) 1 2 3 4
b. Dewas - 2. 1925 B) 2 1 4 3
c. Mysore - 3. West Bengal C) 3 4 2 1
ps
d. Salboni - 4. 1990 D) 4 3 1 2
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.åVEÂ Š 1. 1974 A) 1 2 3 4
b.¼>kVü
c.ç\óì
d.Ä_ÃVM
Š
Š
-
2.1925
3. ¼\uz kºïVáD
4. 1990
113. Find the correct statements.
Tn B)
C)
D)
2
3
4
1
4
3
4
2
1
3
1
2
115. Which Sultan of Delhi had set up an ‘Employment Bureau’ to solve the unemployment problem ?
A) Mohammad bin Tughlaq B) AlauddinKhilji
tp
5
activity and small-scale industry.
Reason R : Jobs are low paid and often not regular.
c8
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
ps
íu® : οºz©Ã|Ý>©Ã¦V> mçÅl[ ØÃVòáV>V« ÃõA ¨[Ãm Tâ½Ð^ cuÃÝ]
å¦k½Âçï \u®D E®Ø>Va_ ØÄFk>VzD.
ïV«ðD : Öºz zçÅkVª »]BxD \u®D ¼kçéï^ xçÅBVï kwºï©Ã|k]_çé.
A) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD íu®ÂïVª ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
year
A) Net Domestic Product B) Gross Domestic Product
tp
5
D) Ø\VÝ> Wé©Ã«©A / Ø\VÝ> \Âï^Ø>Vçï
122. Find the correct option in the following statements.
c8
Statement 1: India is the fourth largest economy in terms of purchasing power parity.
Statement 2: Purchasing power parity is defined as the number of units of a country’s currency
required to buy the same amount of goods and services in the domestic market as one
ps
dollar would buy in the US.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 correct
C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç> ïVõï.
Tn
íu® 1: kVºzD ]Å[ Ä\Wçé ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ÖÍ]BV åV[ïVkm ØÃöB ØÃVòáV>V« åV|.
íu® 2: kVºzD ]Å[ Ä\Wçé ¨[Ãm Îò åVâ½Ðç¦B åVðBºï¹[ ¨õèÂçïÂz ÖçðBVï,
Îò ÄÍç>l_ ¶Ø\öÂï ¦Véö_ kVºzk>uz °uÅkV®, c^åVâ| ÄÍç>l_ ¶¼> ¶áséVª ØÃV
òâïçá kVºzk>uz ¼>çk©Ã|D.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 1, 2 Äö
e/
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
123. Find incorrect option about Human development index
A) Lifespan
.m
B) Average education
C) Standard of living D) Gender
\M> ká ¼\DÃVâ| z¤Xâئõï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ïVõï?
A) g¥âïVéD B) Ä«VÄö ï_s ¶á¡
C) kVµÂçïÝ>«D D) ÃVoªD
//t
124. Match. a b c d
a.Wildlife Protection Act - 1. 2010 A) 1 2 3 4
s:
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.kª séºzï^ ÃVmïV©AßÄâ¦D Š 1. 2010
b.kª ÃVmïV©A Äâ¦D Š 2. 1972
ht
5
D) ¶«E[ ØÄB_ÃV|ï^ Eé mçÅï¹_ ÎòºþçðÍmD, séþ¥D ¼Ã>D ïVâ|>_
126. Assertion A : Organized sector works according to certain rules and regulations given in the law.
c8
The employees in this sector are provided with job security
Reason R : Once registered, there are employees and employee unions following government rules
and regulations.
ps
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A& R incorrect D) A &R correct
íu® : Äâ¦Ý]K^á z¤©¸â¦ s]ï^ (\) οºz xçÅï¹[ ý ØÄB_Ã|km,
»aBìïÓÂz© Ãè ÃVmïV©A cõ| Öçk Îòºïç\Âï©Ã⦠mçÅï^
b.ØÃVmÝmçÅ Š 2. skÄVBÝmçÅ B) 2 3 4 1
c.ÄVìAÝmçÅ Š 3. ÖéVà ¼åVÂïD C) 2 1 4 3
d.>MBVìmçÅ Š 4. Ø>VçéÝØ>V¦ìA D) 3 4 2 1
s:
informal sectors.
C) The non-agriculture sectors generated enough employment to affect a shift of labour force.
D) None of the above
ht
5
A) 12 - 60 B) 15 - 60 C) 21 - 65 D) 5 - 14
131. Find the correct option in the following statements.
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1. The term Virtual water was introduced by Tony Allen.
2. The water consumed in the production process of an agricultural or industrial product is called
'virtual water'.
ps
3. India is the largest global fresh water user in the world.
4. India is the third largest virtual water exporter in the world.
A) 1, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2, 3 correct C) 2, 4 correct D) 1, 2 correct
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
Tn
1.\çÅÀì ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¼¦V[ gé[ ¨[Ãk«V_ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
2.skÄVBD ¶_ém Ø>VauÄVçé cuÃÝ]l[ ¼ÃVm Oï«©Ã|D Àì \çÅÀì
3.céï ¶ás_ ÖÍ]BV tï ¶]ï\Vï å[Ìì ÃB[ÃVâ¦áV«Vï c^ám.
4.céþ[ J[ÅVkm tï©ØÃöB \çÅÀì °u®\]BVá«Vï ÖÍ]BV sáºzþÅm.
A) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö B) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö
e/
C) íu® 2, 4 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 Äö
132. What is the percentage of irrigated area under cultivation in Tamil Nadu?
A) 67% B) 49% C) 57% D) 82%
.m
>twïÝ]_ Ãlì ØÄFB©Ã|D Ø\VÝ> ë©Ãás_ ÃVĪ kÄ] ØÃuŠë©Ãás[ s¿ÂïV|?
A) 67% B) 49% C) 57% D) 82%
133. Paddy Production in the year 2014-15 is
A) 3039 kg B) 4429 kg C) 2775 kg D) 3519 kg
//t
D) ¶ÐÃkÝç>© Øîk>uïVï
135. Find the incorrect statement about factors of migration.
1. Employment is the main factor that determines the migration of men.
2. The extent and nature of migration in any society is basically determined by the nature of the
development process experienced by that society.
3. Population mobility in rural is more than urban areas.
4.Migration is calculated based on the place of origin and population
A) 4 incorrect B) 2, 3 incorrect C) 1, 4 incorrect D) 3 only incorrect
5
A) Work or Employment B) Rural Development Plan
C) Education D) Marriage
c8
ÖÍ]BVs_ Ö¦DØÃBì>KÂïVª ïV«ðºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) ¼kçé, Ø>Va_ B) þ«V\ káìßE ]â¦D
C) ï_s D) ]ò\ðD
137. Which is not among the districts which has lowest number of emigrants?
ps
A) Ramanathapuram B) Dharmapuri
C) Salem D) Vellore
tïÂzçÅÍ> ¶áséVª Øk¹ Š z½¼BuÅ ¨õèÂçï zçÅkVï c^á \Vk⦺ï¹_
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) Ö«V\åV>A«D B) >ò\Aö C) ¼ÄéD Tn
D) ¼kÙì
138. Which acts as a strategy of poor people to rescue livelihoods from their plight in rural areas.
A) Education B) Work C) Migration D) Marriage
°çw \Âï^ þ«V\©Aźï¹_ WéskòD >ºï¹[ mB« WçéloòÍm kVµkV>V«Ýç>
e/
*â|Â ØïV^ÓD cÝ]BVï ÃB[Ã|Ýmkm
A) ï_s B) ¼kçé
C) Ö¦DØÃBì¡ D) ]ò\ðD
.m
139. Match :
a.Chennai - 1. October - December
b. Migration Policy - 2. Maximum number of emigration
c. Small holders - 3. To improve the living standards
//t
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 3 4 1 2
tp
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.ØÄ[çª Š 1. ¶Â¼¦VÃì Š ½ÄDÃì
b.Ö¦©ØÃBì¡ ØïV^çï Š 2. Øk¹z½¼BuÅD ¶]ïD
ht
140. Assertion A :Both agricultural productivity and food production in Tamil Nadu have increased.
Reason R : The area under which food grain production reduced. The reason for the decrease in
Area of production, the total amount of production has been maintained because of
increase in productivity.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A & R incorrect
C) A incorrect, R correct D) A & R correct
íu® : >twïÝ][ ¼káVõ cuÃÝ]Ý ]Å[ \u®D cð¡ cuÃÝ] ]Å[ gþB
Ö«õ|¼\ ¶]ïöÝm^ám.
ïV«ðD : cð¡ >VMB cuÃÝ] ØÄFB©Ã|D ë©Ãá¡ zçÅÍm^ám. ë©Ãá¡ zçÅÍ>
5
¼ÃV]KD cuÃÝ] zçÅBVm ¶]ïöÝ>uz cuÃÝ]Ý]Å[ cBì¼k ïV«ðD.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
c8
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö
141. Which is not among the primary sectors?
A) Agriculture B) Mining
ps
C) Production D) Fisheries
x>[ç\ mçÅï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ïVõï.
A) ¼káVõç\ B) ·«ºïÝØ>Va_
C) cuÃÝ] D) *[¸½ÝØ>Va_
Tn
142. Find the correct Statements about the employment system in India.
1. In developing countries like India, a large number of workers are in primary sector.
2. Small groups are also involved in secondary and tertiary industries.
3. In developed countries, agriculture has the highest number of workers and people engaged in
e/
industry and service is less
4. Employment is an important factor in India’s development policy.
A) 2, 3, 4 Correct, 1 Incorrect B) 1, 4 correct, 2, 3 Incorrect
.m
145. Match. a b c d
a. Credit card - 1. European Banks A) 3 1 4 2
b.Mobile Banking - 2. Automated Teller Machine B) 1 2 3 4
c.NFC - 3. John Biggins C) 2 3 1 4
d.ATM - 4. Currency Transaction Method D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.ï¦[ ¶âç¦ Š 1. n¼«V©¸B kºþï^
b.Ø\VçÃ_ ¼ÃºÂ Š 2. >VMBºþ ÖBÍ]«D
c.NFC Š 3. ÛV[ ¸Âþ[ü
5
d.ATM Š 4. Ãð©ÃökìÝ>çª xçÅ
a b c d
c8
A) 3 1 4 2
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 3 1 4
ps
D) 4 3 2 1
146. Find the correct option in the Statement
1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar’s written a thesis in his Ph.D. on ‘The Problem of the Rupee - Its origin and
solution’
A) 1 only
íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç> ïVõï.
B) 2 only Tn
2. It acted as the reference tool and provided guidelines for the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934.
C) 1, 2 correct
147. Find the incorrect statements about land use in Tamil Nadu
1. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is 1,30,33,000 hectares of which only one third is
cultivated.
2. 17% of the land is used for non-agricultural use.
//t
149. Assertion A :Human resources are essential for the development of any country.
Reason R : Investing in education and people's welfare will result in a greater benefits in their
future.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ¨Í> Îò åVâ½[ ¼\DÃVâ½uzD, \M> káD ¶Ý]BVkEBD.
ïV«ðD : ï_s \u®D \Âï^ åéÝ]_ x>Ü| ØÄFk>[ sçákVï ¶kìï¹[
5
¨]ìïVéÝ]_ ¶]ï ¶á¡ Ãé[ þç¦ÂzD.
A) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD íu®ÂïVª ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
c8
B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD íu®ÂïVª ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
ps
150. Find the correct statements about the Reserve Bank of India.
1. It regulates cash flow in India.
2. It started functioning on April 1, 1937.
3. It was nationalised in 1949.
4.85% of printed money is in circulation
A) 1, 3, 4 correct
C) 2, 3, 4 correct
ÖÍ]B öÄìË Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçk ïVõï.
Tn B) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct
D) 1, 2, 3 correct
A) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö B) íu® 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) íu® 2, 3, 4 Äö D) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö
//t
WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 3:
23.09.2021 (sBVw[):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
5
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 10D kz©A x¿kmD
c8
1. z½ç\lB_ (10 gD kz©A ¶«EBéç\©A ÃV¦©Ãz] x¿kmD ýÂï ¼kõ|D).
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 10D kz©A x¿kmD
1. ØÃVòáV>V«D (10-D kz©A ¶çªÝm ØÃVòáV>V« Ãz] x¿kmD ýÂï
ps
¼kõ|D)
3. AslB_ : Àìkáºï^ Š ÖÍ]B g®ï^, ïM\ káºï^ (\) ÖBuçï káºï^
1. Àì¼ïVáD 9-gD kz©A
2. Àì¼ïVáD Tn 11-gD kz©A
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
31 C 32 B 33 C 34 C 35 C 36 B 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 B
41 D 42 A 43 D 44 B 45 D 46 B 47 A 48 C 49 C 50 D
c8
51 A 52 B 53 C 54 B 55 A 56 C 57 B 58 A 59 C 60 B
61 C 62 D 63 B 64 D 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 C 69 C 70 B
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 B
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 D 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 A
ps
91 C 92 B 93 B 94 A 95 C 96 B 97 D 98 C 99 B 100 C
101 B 102 B 103 A 104 B 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 A 109 D 110 C
111 C 112 B 113 B 114 C 115 C 116 C 117 B 118 D 119 B 120 A
121 B 122 C 123 D 124 D 125 A 126 D 127 C 128 C 129 D 130 B
131
141
B
C
132
142
C
C
133
143
B
C
134
144
A
D
135
145 Tn
A
A
136
146
B
C
137
147
A
D
138
148
C
C
139
149
B
A
140
150
D
A
e/
.m
11 A 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 B 16 B 17 C 18 B 19 A 20 B
21 D 22 D 23 B 24 C 25 D 26 B 27 D 28 A 29 B 30 A
31 C 32 B 33 C 34 C 35 C 36 B 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 B
s:
41 D 42 A 43 D 44 B 45 D 46 B 47 A 48 C 49 C 50 D
51 A 52 B 53 C 54 B 55 A 56 C 57 B 58 A 59 C 60 B
61 C 62 D 63 B 64 D 65 D 66 B 67 D 68 C 69 C 70 B
tp
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 B
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 D 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 C 92 B 93 B 94 A 95 C 96 B 97 D 98 C 99 B 100 C
ht
101 B 102 B 103 A 104 B 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 A 109 D 110 C
111 C 112 B 113 B 114 C 115 C 116 C 117 B 118 D 119 B 120 A
121 B 122 C 123 D 124 D 125 A 126 D 127 C 128 C 129 D 130 B
131 B 132 C 133 B 134 A 135 A 136 B 137 A 138 C 139 B 140 D
141 C 142 C 143 C 144 D 145 A 146 C 147 D 148 C 149 A 150 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 2
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 3 / åV^ Š 23
23.09.2021
.09.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶«EBéç\©A 10-D kz©A x¿kmD 70 sªVÂï^
tp
AslB_ 40 sªVÂï^
ïM\ káºï^ (\) ÖBuçï káºï^
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS 30 MINS
GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 3) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
B) Bangladesh
Tn
1. Which country acts as India’s gateway to Southeast Asian Nations?
A) Indonesia C) Myanmar D) Nepal
ÖÍ]BVsuzD, Ø>[þwÂïVEB åV|ï¹[ íâ¦ç\©¸uzD ÃVé\Vï c^á åV|?
e/
A) Öͼ>V¼ªEBV B) kºï¼>ÄD C) tBV[\ì D) ¼åÃVáD
2. Which state does not share its border with Myanmar?
A) Nagaland B) Manipur C) Mizoram D) Tripura
g
.m
2. India has built a 204 km long Mahendra Raj Marg to connect India and Kathmandu.
3. ONGC Videsh Limited is one of the Indian companies that has invested in Myanmar's
energy sector.
s:
4. The Government of India has set up three hydroelectric projects in Bhutan till now.
A) 1, 2 Incorrect 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2, 3 Correct 4 Incorrect
tp
5
A) 1949 December 6 B) 1946 December 9 C) 1948 December 6 D) 1948 December 9
¶«EBéç\©A WìðB ÄçÃl[ x>_ íâ¦D?
c8
A) 1949 ½ÄDÃì 6 B) 1946 ½ÄDÃì 9 C) 1948 ½ÄDÃì 6 D) 1948 ½ÄDÃì 9
6. Which is the shortest session of the Parliament?
A) Budget Session B) Monsoon session C) Winter session D) All of the above
åV¦VÓ\[Å í⦠Ø>V¦ö_ z®þB ïVé íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ì ¨m?
ps
A) ÃâØÛâ íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ì B) \çwÂïVé íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ì
C) z¹ìïVé íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ì D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
7. Which constitutional provision provides exemption from taxation for religious institutions?
A) Article 25 B) Article 26
Tn C) Article 27
¨Í> ¶«EBéç\©A Ä⦩¸ö¡ \> W®kªºïÓÂz kös]©¸oòÍm séÂz ¶áÂþÅm?
A) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 25 B) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 26 C) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 27 D) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 28
D) Article 28
8. Which constitutional amendment under Article 39A of the Constitution provides free legal aid to
the poor ?
e/
A) 42 B) 97 C) 44 D) 46
¶«Äç\©A Ä⦩¸ö¡ 39A[ ý °çwïÓÂz ÖékÄ Ä⦠c>s kwºï ¼kõ|Ø\[® ¨Í>
Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý]_ ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m?
.m
A) 42 B) 97 C) 44 D) 46
9. Which of the following was introduced in the 42nd Amendment in 1976?
A) Protecting workers in factories
B) Providing a healthy opportunity for children
//t
5
13. Which article refers to the formation or removal of the Legislative Council ?
A) Article 169 B) Article 171 (1) C) Article 170 D) Article 168
c8
Ä⦼\éçk còkVÂïD ¶_ém ÀÂïD Ãu¤ z¤©¸|D −«Ým ¨m?
A) −«Ým 169 B) −«Ým 171(1) C) −«Ým 170 D) −«Ým 168
14. Which writ can be issued to prevent the decision of lower courts from acting beyond its
jurisdiction?
ps
A) Judicial Review B) Quo warranto C) Prohibition D) Certiorari
ÿµ À]\[źï^ >ªm ¶]ïV« ¨_çéçB >Võ½ ØÄB_Ãâ¦V_ >|Âï kakçï ØÄF¥D
À]©¼Ã«Vçð?
A) À]Að«VF¡ ¶]ïV«D
C) >禥®ÝmD À]©¼Ã«Vçð
15. How many High Courts are there in India?
A) 24 B) 25
Tn
B) >z] sª¡D À]©¼Ã«Vçð
D) gkð ¼ïâA À]©¼Ã«Vçð
C) 26 D) 27
ÖÍ]BVs_ Ø\VÝ>D ¨Ý>çª cBìÀ]\[źï^ c^áª? g
e/
A) 24 B) 25 C) 26 D) 27
16. Which of the methods of electing members of the Legislative Council is incorrect ? ïV
A) 1/12 of the members are elected by Graduates of the universities in the State.
i
.m
17. Match. a b c d
a. 1963 - 1. M.M. Punchchi Commission A) 4 1 2 3
b. 2000 -2. M.N. Venkatachaliah commission B) 1 2 3 4
ht
18. Match. a b c d
a.1977 - 1. Farakka agreement A) 1 2 3 4
b.1954 - 2. Look east policy B) 2 1 4 3
c.1992 - 3. Panchsheel Agreement C) 3 2 1 4
d.1974 - 4. India’s first nuclear test D) 1 3 2 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.1977 - 1. ëVÂïV ΩÃÍ>D A) 1 2 3 4
b.1954 - 2. þwÂz ¼åVÂz ØïV^çï B) 2 1 4 3
c.1992 - 3. ÃÞÄæé ØïV^çï C) 3 2 1 4
5
d.1974 - 4. ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ ¶b ¼ÄV>çª D) 1 3 2 4
19. The foreign Service Training Institute, New Delhi established in the _____ year which provides
c8
training for officers of Indian Foreign Services
A) 1983 B) 1986 C) 1989 D) 1898
ÖÍ]B Øk¹¥Å¡ ¼Äçk ¶]ïVöïÓÂz ÃluE ¶¹Âï ÖÍ]B Øk¹åVâ| ¼Äçk ÃluE
ps
W®kªD ¨Í> gõ| ئ_ol_ W®k©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1983 B) 1986 C) 1989 D) 1898
20. Which of the following is not among the states that has bicameral legislature ?
A) Bihar B) Maharashtra C) Telangana D) Jammu &Kashmir
~«çk Äâ¦\[źïçá ØïVõ¦ \VWéºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) ¬ïVì B) \ïV«Vi½«V C) Ø>KºïVªV
21. The concept of constitution was first originated in
A) Britain B) Russia
Tn
C) India
D) ÛDx ïVi*ì
A) XX B) XVI C) XVII D) XV
¶Kkéï Ø\Va ¨Í> Ãz]l_ kçï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ|^ám?
A) XX B) XVI C) XVII D) XV
23. Match.
//t
c. Telugu - 3. 2008 C) 1 3 2 4 5
d. Sanskrit - 4. 2005 D) 1 2 3 5 4
e.Odia - 5. 2014
tp
ØÃVòÝmï. (ØÄDØ\Va)
Ø\Vaï^ gõ|ï^ a b c d e
a.>tµ Š 1. 2004 A) 1 2 4 3 5
ht
b.\çéBVáD Š 2. 2013 B) 1 2 3 4 5
c.Ø>Kºz Š 3. 2008 C) 1 3 2 4 5
d.Ä\üþò>D Š 4. 2005 D) 1 2 3 5 4
e.νBV Š 5. 2014
24. National emergency not declared in the year
A) 1962 B) 1971 C) 1975 D) 1972
¼>EB ¶kÄ« Wçé ¶¤sÂï©Ã⦠gõ|ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
A) 1962 B) 1971 C) 1975 D) 1972
5
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ >kÅVªm ¨m?
A) ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©çà >[ çï©Ã¦ ¨¿]Bkì Š ¸¼«D ¸ÇVö 弫[ ç«Û¦V g
c8
B) ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A °u®ØïV^á©Ã⦠gõ| Š 1949 åkDÃì 26
C) åkDÃì 26 - Äâ¦]ª\Vï ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|þÅm ïV
D) ¶«EBéç\©A åç¦xçÅÂz kÍ> gõ| Š 1949 Ûªkö 26
i
ps
27. Find the incorrect option
A) Central Government is divided into three parts
B) Speaker has the power to decide whether a Bill is a Finance Bill or other Bill
C) Article 77 states that executive action of the Union shall be taken in the name of the President
30. Statement 1:Any state bill (except finance bill) needs approval in rajya sabha to become law.
Statement 2: Rajya Sabha has the power to create and remove all India services with a majority of
two-thirds of the members in the Rajya Sabha.
ht
5
D) ¨m¡t_çé
32. Who has the power to alter the boundaries of Indian states?
c8
A) President B) Prime Minister C) State Government D) Parliament
ÖÍ]B \VWéºï¹_ ¨_çéïçá \Vu¤Bç\ÂzD ¶]ïV«D ØÃuÅm?
A) z½B«· >çékì B) ¸«>\ì C) \VWé ¶«· D) åV¦VÓ\[ÅD
ps
33. Which article says about Vice President Casting vote?
A) 98 B) 99 C) 100 D) 101
¨Í> −«Ým mçð z½B«·Ý>çékì x½¡ kVÂz Ãu¤ í®þÅm?
A) 98 B) 99 C) 100 D) 101
Tn
34. Which of the following is correct about the Privileges of the Governor
1. Governor is not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and
duties of his office
2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State, in any
g
e/
court during his term of office
3. No arrest or imprisonment of the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court
during his term of office
ïV
i
.m
4. Civil cases can only be filed against the Governor of the State
A) 1, 4 Correct B) 1, 2, 3 Correct
C) 1, 2, 4 Correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Correct
gÓåö[ EÅ©Aöç\ ¶]ïV«ºï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
//t
3.gÓåö[ Ã>sÂïVéÝ][ ¼ÃVm ¶kç« çïm ØÄFB ¨Í> À]\[ÅxD cÝ>«¡ ¸Å©¸Âï x½BVm.
4.\VWé gÓåòÂz ¨]«Vï cöç\lB_ kwÂzïçá Ø>V¦« \â|¼\ x½¥D.
A) 1, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
tp
35. Which article states that the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a State shall
not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly ?
ht
5
c.352 - 3. z½B«· >çékö[ WìkVï ¶]ïV«ºï^ C) 1 2 3 4
d.356 - 4. mçð z½B«· >çékö[ ¶]ïV«ºï^ D) 4 3 2 1
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38. How many recommendationsof the Sarkaria Committee were implemented by the Government of India?
A) 247 B) 180 C) 201 D) 170
ÄìïVöBV z¿ ÃöÍmç«ï¹_ ¨Ý>çª ÃöÍmç«ïçá \Ý]B ¶«· ØÄB_Ã|Ý]Bm?
ps
A) 247 B) 180 C) 201 D) 170
39. Find the incorrect option :
A) BBIN - For energy development
B) EAS - To promote peace & stability
C) MGC
D) BCIM Tn
- Focus on agriculture, education, energy trade, culture &defence
- To respond to threat such as Natural Disaster and State Breaches and protect Business
Court
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1 only correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
íu® 1: 1976gD gõ| WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠42km ¶«EBéç\©A Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D cBìÀ]\[Å
À]©Aª«VF¡ ¶]ïV«Ýç> zçÅÝ>m.
íu® 2:1978gD gõ| 44km Äâ¦]òÝ>D *õ|D cBìÀ]\[ÅÝmÂz À]Aª«VF¡ ¶]ïV«Ýç>
kwºþBm.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1 \â|D Äö D) íu 1, 2 >k®
43. Kaladan Multiple Model Transit Transport Project connects ___city of India with ____country
A) Calcutta – Bangladesh B) Calcutta - Myanmar
C) Sikkim – Nepal D) Sikkim - Bhutan
ïé¦[ Ã[xï \V]ö ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ]â¦D ÖÍ]BVs[ ¨Í> åïç« ¨Í> åVâ|¦[ Öçð©Ã>uïVª
]â¦D?
A) ï_ïÝ>V Š kºïVá¼>ÄD B) ï_ïÝ>V Š tBV[\ì
C) EÂþD Š ¼åÃVáD D) EÂþD Š ¯¦V[
44. Examine the following statement.
1. The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by V. Krishna Menon in his speech at theUnited Nations
5
in 1953
2. The Non-Aligned Movement was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as
c8
observers and 10 international organisations.
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1 only Correct C) 2 only Correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.¶è¼ÄV ÖBÂïD ¨[Å ØÄV_1953_ n.åV. ÄçÃl_ cç«BVu¤B s.þòið¼\ª[ ¨[Ãk«V_
ps
còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
2.¶è¼Ä«V ÖBÂï\Vªm 120 c®©A åV|ïçá¥D 17 ÃVìçkBVáì åV|ïçá¥D 10 Äìk¼>Ä
W®kªºïçá¥D ØïVõ|^ám.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö
45. Find incorrect option :
A) Article 76
B) Article 63
- Attorney General
Tn
C) 2 \â|D Äö
- President Removal
D) 1, 2 >k®
g
ïV
C) Article 51 A - Fundamental duties
i
e/
D) Article 72 – Pardoning power of President.
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 76 - >çéç\ kwÂï¤Qì
.m
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.¸«>\ì åVâ½[ xÂþB ØÄF] Ø>V¦ìÃVá«Vï ØÄB_Ã|þÅVì.
2.Øk¹åV|ïÓÂïVª ¶çªÝm c¦[ýÂçïïÓD ΩÃÍ>ºïÓD z½B«· >çékö[ ØÃBö¼é¼B
tp
åç¦Øîþ[Ū.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
47. National Emergency declared in India ______ no of times
ht
5
50. Nehru-Wangchuk Scholarship is being awarded _______ nationals to undertake studies in Indian
educational institutions
c8
A) Bhutan B) Nepal C) Myanmar D) Bangladesh
¼åò Š kVº·Â ï_s c>s Ø>VçïBVªm ¨Í> åV⽪òÂz ÖÍ]B ï_s W®kªºï¹_ ï_s
Ãlé kVF©A ¶¹ÂþÅm?
A) ¯¦V[ B) ¼åÃVáD C) tBV[\ì D) kºïVá¼>ÄD
ps
51. Based on the recommendation of ____committee, the fundamental duties were incorporated in the
Constitution
A) Mannar Committee B) Lakdawala Committee
C) Dhar Committee
A) \[ªVì ïtâ½
C) >Vì ïtâ½
Tn
B) é¦kVéV ïtâ½
D) ük«[ Eº ïtâ½
D) Swaran Singh Committee
¨Í> ïtâ½ ÃöÍmç«l[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¶½©Ãç¦ ï¦ç\ï^ ¶«EBéç\©A¦[ ÖçðÂï©Ãâ¦m?
52. Which article of the Constitution states that the President can withdraw the Ordinance ?
e/
A) Article 120 B) Article 123 C) Article124 D) Article 125
¶kÄ« Äâ¦Ý]çª z½B«· >çékì ]òDà ØÃÅx½¥D ¨ÐD ¶«Äç\©¸[ Ä⦩¸ö¡?
A) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 120 B) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 123 C) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 124 D) Ä⦩¸ö¡ 125
.m
Statement 1 : The Prime Minister act as the link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
Statement 2 : The Prime Minister is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
tp
Statement 3 : The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various
departments.
A) 1 ,2 correct B) 2 ,3 correct
C) All are correct D) 1 , 3 correct
ht
5
WB\ªD ØÄFþÅVì.
A) 1, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) ¶çªÝmD Äö D) 2, 3 Äö
56. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court M. Hidayatullah became the President of the Republic in the year
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A) 1967 B) 1968 C) 1969 D) 1970
cßÄÀ]\[Å >çéç\ À]Ã] M.N>Bm_éV ¨Í> gõ| z½B«· >çék«Vï ØÃV®©¼ÃuÅVì?
A) 1967 B) 1968 C) 1969 D) 1970
ps
57. Elected member of the parliament from Tamil Nadu
1. Rajya sabha – 18 members
2. Lok Sabha – 39 members
A) 1 correct B) 2 correct C) both are correct D) both are incorrect
>twïÝ]oòÍm åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]uz ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D c®©¸ªìï^.
1. \VWéºïáçk Š 18 c®©¸ªìï^
2. \Âïáçk
A)1 Äö
Š 39 c®©¸ªìï^
B) 2 Äö C) Ö«õ|D Äö
Tn
D) Ö«õ|D >k®
g
e/
58. Inter-State council was constituted in the year?
A) 1990 B) 1983 C) 1969 D) 1992
\VWéºïÓÂþ禼BBVª z¿ ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠gõ|? ïV
.m
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 4 1 3 2
D) 4 1 2 3
tp
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.s] 171 Š 1. Ä⦼\éçk còkVÂï©Ã⦠\u®D ïçéÂï©Ã⦠s]
b.s] 169 - 2. gÓåö[ WìkVï ¶]ïV«D
ht
5
3.\VWé Äâ¦\[ż\V (¶) cBìÀ]\[ż\V gÓåö[ Ã>s ÀÂïÝ]_ úz ØÃÅéVD.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1,3 >k® D) 1 Äö
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61. Statement 1: Duration of Raja sabha member is 6 years.
Statement 2: However, 1/3rd of members retire every second year.
A)1, 2 correct B) 1 Only correct C) 2 Only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: \VWéºïáçk c®©¸ªìï¹[ Ã>sÂïVéD 6 gõ|ï^.
ps
íu® 2: \VWéºïáçk c®©¸ªìï^ J[¤_ Îò Ãz]lªì Ö«õ| gõ|ïÓÂz Îò xçÅ {F¡
Øîþ[Ūì.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
62. Match
a.
b.
c.
P.S. Kumarasamy Raja
M. Bakthavachalam
O. Panner Selvam
-1) 2001-2002
-2)2006-2011
-3)1949-1952
Tn A)
B)
C)
a
1
1
4
b
2
2
3
c
4
3
2
d
3
4
1
d. Karunanidhi -4)1963-1967 D) 3 4 1 2
e/
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.P.S.z\V«ÄVt «VÛV Š 1. 2001 - 2002
A) 1 2 4 3
b.M.ÃÂ>kßÄéD Š 2. 2006 - 2011
B) 1 2 3 4
.m
Statement 2: But he /she should be elected to the state legislature within six months from the date of
his/her appointment.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 Only correct
ht
66. Statement 1: To be eligible for election as vice president a person should not have completed 35
years of age.
Statement 2: He should be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha.
Statement 3: He should not hold any office of profit under the union government or any state
government.
A) 2 only correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 3 only correct D) All are correct
íu® 1: mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì Ã>sÂz 35 kBmÂz ÿµ ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
íu® 2: \VWéºïáçk c®©¸ª«Vk>uïVª \uÅ >z]ïçá© ØÃu¤òÝ>_ ¼kõ|D.
íu® 3: \Ý]B ¶«E¼éV, \VWé ¶«E¼éV (¶) c^áVâE ¶ç\©Aï¹¼éV »]BD ØîD Ã>sl_
5
ÖòÂï í¦Vm.
A) 2 \â|D Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
c8
67. Statement 1: President is elected by the system of proportional representation by means of the
single transferable vote by the electoral college.
Statement 2: The oath of office to the President is administered by the chief justice of India.
ps
Statement 3 : He is also eligible for re election to that office beyond his term of five years
A)1, 2, 3 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 1 only correct D) 1, 3 correct
íu® 1: z½B«·Ý >çékì ÎuçÅ \Vu® sþ>VßÄV« ¸«]W]ÝmkÝ][ ý kVÂïVáì z¿\Ý>V_
¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|þÅVì.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö
Tn
íu® 2: z½B«·Ý >çék«Vï ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D ÎòkòÂz ÖÍ]B cßÄÀ]\[Å >çéç\ À]Ã]
íu® 3: Ök«m Ã>sÂïVéD 5 gõ|ï^ x½Í>¡¦[ ¶kì *õ|D ¼>ìÍØ>|Âïæ >z] cç¦Bkì.
C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 1, 3 Äö
68. Who is the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
e/
A) Morarji Desai B) Charan Singh C) Jagajeevan Ram D) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ mç𠸫>\ì BVì?
A) Ø\V«Vì÷ ¼>ÄVF B) Ä«õEº C) Ûïýk[ «VD D) Äì>Vì k_éÃVF Ã⼦_
.m
69. Statement 1 : Right to property was included under the provision of article 300A
Statement 2 : In 1976, 42nd Amendment act removed the right to property from the list of
fundamental rights
Statement 3 : Acticle 23 provides for prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
//t
A) 1, 3 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
70. Which one is correct?
1. Centre list – 100 items
ht
5
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false
ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. WéD \u®D Àì©Ã«ko[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ k¦ ¶ç«Â¼ïVáD Wé ¶ç«Â¼ïVáD ¨[®D,
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Ø>[ ¶ç«Â¼ïVáD, Àì ¶ç«Â¼ïVáD ¨[®D ¶çwÂï©Ã|þ[Ū
2. ¶]ï ¶áséVª cð¡ (\) ïM\ káºïçá ØïVõ½ò©Ã>V_ ï¦_ïÓD ØÃòºï¦_ïÓD
As¼ïVáÝ][ káþõð\Vï ïò>©Ã|þÅm.
ps
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
72. A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental land mass into
the sea is called as
A) Continenetal shelf B) Continental Rise
C) Ocean Deep
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm?
A) ïõ¦Ý]â| B) ïõ¦ cBìßE C) ï¦_ Ã^áD
Tn D) Continental slope
WéÝ]oòÍm ï¦çé ¼åVÂþ Ø\[Äö¡¦[ ï¦o_ Jµþ¥^á gw\uÅ Ãz]¼B ¨[ª ¨[®
D) ïõ¦ßÄö¡
73. Which is known as the “ Land of thousand lakes”?
e/
A) Finland B)China C)Srilanka D)Bangladesh
gl«D °öï¹[ WéD ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|D åV| ¨m?
A) ¸[éVÍm B) æªV C) Öéºçï D) gü]¼«oBV
.m
74. The underwater feature found between continental slope and abyssal plains is called the
A) Ocean Deep B) Continental rise C) Continental shelf D) Oceanic Ridge
ïõ¦ÄösuzD ï¦é½ß Ä\Øk¹ÂzD Öç¦l_ ïVð©Ã|D Wéݼ>VuÅD
A) ï¦_ Ã^áD B) ïõ¦ cBìßE C) ïõ¦]â| D) ï¦é½ \çéÝØ>V¦ì
//t
A)1,2 are true B) 3 only true C)2 only true D)1 only true
ïõ¦ßÄöçk Ãu¤ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. ïõ¦Ý]â½[ s¹D¸oòÍm k[ Äö¡¦[ gµï¦çé ¼åVÂþ ÄöÍm ïVð©Ã|D Ãz]¼B
ht
ïõ¦ßÄökVzD.
2. k[ÄösçªÂ ØïVõ½ò©Ã>V_ Öºz ý¡ï^ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
3. ïõ¦ßÄös_ ï¦_kVµ clöªºï¹[ káìEç> \VuÅD tï ¼kï\Vï åç¦ØîþÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 3 \â|D Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1 \â|D Äö
76. Rann of Kutch in India is salt_______
A) Marsh B) Swamp C)Wet lands D) Sea
ÖÍ]BVsK^á ïâß kçáz¦V Ãz] Îò ckì .....................Wé\VzD.
A) ¼Äu® B) Äm©A C) ~«WéD D) ï¦_
5
3. Ä\ ckì©A¼ïV| Š μ« ¶áséVª c©AÝ>[ç\ ØïVõ¦ Ãz]ïçá kç«Ã¦Ý]_ ÖçðÂzD
ïuÃçªÂ¼ïV|.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö
C) 3 \â|D Äö D) 2, 3 \â|D Äö
78. Pick out the correct statement regarding oceanic ridge.
1. Oceanic ridge is a continuous submarine mountain chain.
ps
2. Oceanic ridge is formed when two tectonic plates moves apart.
3.Mid Oceanic ridge is made up of young basaltic rocks.
A) 1,2 are true B) 1,3 are true g
C) 2,3 are true
ï¦é½ \çéÝØ>V¦ìïçá Ãu¤ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|. Tn D) All are true
80. The periodic rise and fall of sea water due to the gravitational pull of the sun and moon on the
earth are called
A) Tides B) Waves
s:
83. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the conservation of marine resources?
1.Ocean is the life blood of planet earth and mankind.
2.The humankind depends on the marine resources for its survival.
3. Marine resources are also essential for the economic prosperity, social wellbeing and quality of
life.
A)1,2 are true B)2,3 are true C)3 only true D)All are true
ï¦_ káºïçá© ÃVmïVÝ>_ Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. As \u®D \M> zéÝ][ cl¼«Vâ¦\Vï© ØÃòºï¦_ï^ sáºzþ[Ū.
2. \M> zéÝ][ kVµkV>V«D ï¦_káºïçá¼B ÄVìÍm^ám.
5
3. ØÃVòáV>V« ¼\DÃV|, ÄJï åékVµ¡ (\) kVµÂçï >«D gþBku¤uzD ï¦_ káD
¼>çk©Ã|þÅm.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 3 \â|D Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
84. Name of the current in Indian ocean?
A) West Australian Current B)California Current
C) Kuroshio Current D)Oyashio Current
ps
ÖÍ]B ØÃòºï¦o[ À¼«Vâ¦Ý][ ØÃBì ¨[ª?
A) ¼\uz gü]¼«oBV B) ïo¼ÃVìMBV À¼«Vâ¦D
C) z¼«V´¼BV À¼«Vâ¦D D) μéV´¼BV À¼«Vâ¦D
A)First B)Second Tn
85. The river Amazon in south America isthe__________longest river in the world.
C)Third
Ø>[ ¶Ø\öÂïVs_ ¶¼\ÄV[ g® céþ[ ¨Ý>çªBVkm Àá\Vª å]BVzD?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
D)Fourth
86. 1. A swamp is found in low lying area beside slow moving rivers.
e/
2. A swamp is dry land
3. A swamp has lush trees and Vines.
A) 1 only true B)1,3 is true C) 2 is true D)All are true
.m
89. Which of the following is surrounded on three sides by land and the fourth side wide open towards
an ocean?
A) Bay B) Gulf C)Strait D)Enclosed seas
J[® ÃÂïxD WéÝ>V_ ów©Ãâ| Îò ÃÂïD Îò ØÃòºï¦çé ¼åVÂþ ØÃöB ]Å©çÃÂ
ØïVõ½òÂzD Àì Ãz] ¨[ª?
A) söz¦V B) kçáz¦V C) ÀìÄÍ] D) ów©Ãâ¦ï¦_
90. Statement 1: Gulf is a large body of water ,with a narrow mouth ,that is almost completely
surrounded by land.
Statement 2: The world largest gulf is the Gulf of Mexico
5
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C) Both are true D)Both are false
íu® 1: kçáz¦V ¨[Ãm z®þB ]Å©çàØïVõ| ¶çªÝm ÃÂïÝ]KD WéÝ>V_ ów©Ãâ¦
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ØÃöB ¶áséVª Àì©Ãz]BVzD.
íu® 2: céþ[ tï©ØÃöB kçáz¦V ''Ø\ÂL¼ïV'' kçáz¦VkVzD.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
91. 1.Isthmus is a narrow channel of water connecting two larger bodies of water.
ps
2.Strait is a narrow strip of land connecting two larger land masses
Which of the following statement is correct?
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C) Both are true D)Both are false
D) 1, 2 >k®
e/
92. Pick out the correct statement regarding The Southern Ocean
1.The Southern Ocean is the world’s fourth largest ocean.
2.The Southern Ocean is the youngest ocean
g
3.The Southern Ocean was formed 30 million years ago when south America moved ïV
.m
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
93. Choose the correct statement regarding the Natural Vegetation
1. Natural vegetation refers to a plant community unaffected by man either directly or indirectly.
tp
5
A) t>Øk©Ã\õ¦é \çwÂïV|ï^ B) Øk©Ã\õ¦é \çwÂïV|ï^
C) ¼ÄVçéÂïV|ï^ D) A & B
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96. Statement 1: Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things
including humans is called a natural resource.
Statement 2: Time and Technology are two important factors that determine whether a
ps
substance is a resource or not
A) Statement 1 is true B) Statement 2 is true C) Both are True D) both are False
íu® 1: ÖBuçïloòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ| clöªºïáV_ ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã|D ¶çªÝm káºïÓD
ÖBuçï káD ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
Tn
íu® 2: Îò ØÃVòçá ká\Vï \Vu®k>uïVª ïV«èï^ ïVéxD Ø>Va_OâÃxD gzD.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
97. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the major challenges of Indian industries?
1. Shortage and fluctuation in power supply
e/
2. Low rate of interest for borrowed loan
3. Poor access to credit
A) 1, 2 is true B) 2, 3 is true C) 1, 3 is true D) All are true
ÖÍ]BÝ Ø>Vaéïºï^ ¨]ìØïV^ÓD xÂþB ÄkV_ïÓ^ ¨m ÄöBVªçk?
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5
d.Eâç«â Š 4. 72.4% D) 1 2 3 4
101. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the uses of metallic minerals?
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1. Manganese is used in the manufacturing of bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.
2. Bauxite is used in the manufacture of cement and chemicals.
3. Copper is used in the manufacture of aircraft.
ps
A) 1, 2 is correct B) 2, 3 is correct
C) 1, 3 is correct D) All are correct
c¼éVï ïM\ºï¹[ ÃB[ÃV|ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ØkÓÂzD #^, ¯ßEÂØïV_oï^, kõð©¯ßEï^, t[ïé[ï^ ¼ÃV[ÅçkÝ
>BVö©Ã>uz \VºïÌ· ÃB[Ã|þÅm.
C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
e/
102. Pick out the wrongly matched.
A) First hydroelectric power station – Darjeeling
g
ïV
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103. Statement 1: Indian coal is mostly associated with Gondwane series of rocks and is primarily
found in Peninsular India
Statement 2: Petroleum is inflammable liquid that is composed of hydrocarbons which
tp
5
d.ÖÍ]BVs[ t[MB_ >çéåï«D Š 4. ØÄ[çª D) 2 4 3 1
105. Consider the following statements.
c8
1.Kamuthi solar power project is a photovoltaic power station spread over an area of 2500
acres.
2.The project was commissioned by Ambani Power
3.The Solar panels are cleaned daily by a self charged robotic system.
ps
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 3 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) All are correct
ÿµÂïVbD íuçÅ gF¡ ØÄFï.
1.ïx] óöB guÅ_ ]â¦D ¨[Ãm 2500 °Âïì ë©Ãás_ ¶ç\Ím^á Îò ιt[ª¿Ý>
t[WçéBD.
2.ÖÍ> t[ ]â¦D ¶DÃVMBV_ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö
Tn
3.óöB ¼Ãª_ï^ >VMBºþ ¼«V¼ÃVâ½Â xçÅ JéD ]ªÄö ·Ý>©Ã|Ý>©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
106. Statement 1: The mines near the earth crust are known as open pit mines while the deep
e/
mines are known as shaft mines
Statement 2: Minerals is smaller occurrence are called a ‘vein’ and a larger occurrence is
called a ‘lode’.
.m
b.Gold – 2. Chile B) 2 1 4 3
c.Bauxite – 3. Mexico C) 4 3 2 1
d.Silver – 4. Australia D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. (céþ_ ¶]ï ¶ás_ cuÃÝ]) a b c d
a.>Vt«D Š 1. æªV A) 3 4 1 2
b.>ºïD Š 2. Eo B) 2 1 4 3
c.ÃVÂçvâ Š 3. Ø\ÂL¼ïV C) 4 3 2 1
d.Øk^¹ Š 4. gü]¼«oBV D) 1 2 3 4
5
D) ¼\uí¤B ¶çªÝmD
110. Which of the following is correctly matched regarding the most devastating nuclear accidents?
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1.Three mile Island – USA
2.Chernobyl – Russia
3.Fuckshima Daiich - China
ps
A) 1, 2 is correct B) 2, 3 is correct C) 1, 3 is correct D) All are correct
tï¡D ¶]ï\Vª ¶a¡ïçá °uÃ|Ý]B ¶bÄÂ] sÃÝmï¹_ ÄöBVï ØÃVòÍ]BkuçÅÝ
¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.J[® ç\_ y¡ Š ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^
2.ØÄ켪V¸_ Š «iBV
3.Az´\V ¦VFßE Š æªV
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö
Tn
D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
\]©çàïðÂþ¦éVD
A) ØÄé¡ xçÅ B) \]©A íâ| xçÅ C) kò\Vª xçÅ D) åVâ| kò\VªD
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112. Which of the following statement is not matched with importance of gross domestic product?
A) Study of economic growth
B) Estimating the purchasing power
C) Guide to economic planning
ps
D) The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally.
Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]l[ xÂþBÝmkD Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ïVõï?
A) ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE Ãu¤B gF¡ïçá ¶¤Ím ØïV^á©ÃB[Ã|þÅm
B) kVºzD ]Åçª \]©¬| ØÄFk>uz c>¡þÅm.
C) ØÃVòáV>V« ]â¦t¦ kaÂïVâ½BVï ÃB[Ã|þÅm.
Tn
D) Îò åVâ½_ Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]BV_ sç«kVï káòk>V_, kò\VªD Ä\\Vª
xçÅl_ ÃþìÍ>¹Âï©Ã|þ[Ū.
113. Which Indian organization released the Index of Industrial production and Consumer price Index?
e/
A) International Monetary Fund B)Human development index
C) Central Statistical Organization D)Statistical Department
Ø>Va_mçÅ cuÃÝ] z¤X|, Oïì¼kVì sçé z¤X| ¼ÃV[Å z¤X|ïçá Øk¹l|D ÖÍ]B
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¶ç\©A?
A) Ã[ªVâ| W] W®kªD B) \M> ¼\DÃVâ| x窡
C) \Ý]B A^¹lB_ ¶ç\©A D) A^¹lB_ mçÅ
114. Which of the following terms is not associated with measuring of national income?
//t
d) Manufacturing - 4. 2.7% D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. (2018 -2019 gõ½[ ÖÍ]BVs_ c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]l_ mçÅZ]BVª ú﹩A)
a b c d
a) ¼káVõç\ mçÅ Š 1. 16.83% A) 1 2 3 4
b) Ø>VaumçÅ Š 2. 15.87% B) 2 3 1 4
c) ·«ºïD \u®D zkVö Š 3. 29.73% C) 3 4 2 1
d) cuÃÝ] Š 4. 2.7% D) 2 3 4 1
116. Who defined a tax as “a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray the
expenses incurred in the common interest of all, without reference to special benefits conferred”?
A)Alfred Marshal B) Adam Smith
C) Sir James Wilson D) Professor Seligman
kö ¨[Ãm Îò z½\ï[ ¶«·Âz ïâ¦VB\Vï ØÄKÝmD ØÄKÝmçïBVzD. ¶«E¦tòÍm ¨Ës>
¼å«½ å[ç\¥D ¨]ìÃVÂïV\_ ïâ¦VB\Vïß ØÄKÝ> ¼kõ½Bm ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) g_¸Ø«â \Vì−_ B) g¦DütÝ
C) Äì ¼ÛDü s_Ä[ D) ¼Ã«VEöBì ØÄo¼\[
117. What does it mean to pay income tax?
5
A) Traditional Personality B) Rational legal personality
C) Leadership personality with special qualities D) All the above
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kò\Vª köçBß ØÄKÝm>_ ¨[Ãm ¨>çªÂ¦ z¤ÂþÅm
A) ÃV«DÃöB gÓç\ B) ÃzÝ>¤¡ Ä⦠gÓç\
C) EÅ©A ÖB_Aïçá¥ç¦B >çéç\ gÓç\ D) ¼\uí¤B ¶çªÝmD
ps
118. Which one of the following is not a problem in estimating the national income of India?
A)Double Counting B) Unreliable data
C)Unaccounted income D)Presence of large number of enterprises
¸[kòkªku®^ ÖÍ]BVs_ ¼>EB kò\VªÝç> ¶ás|k]_ EÂï_ ¶_éV> Î[® ¨m?
A) ÖòxçÅ ïðÂþ|>_
B) åDÃÝ>ïV> A^¹ sk«ºï^
C) ïðÂþ_ ïV⦩æV> kòkVF
D) ¶]ï ¨õèÂçïléVª W®kªºï^
Tn g
e/
119. Rearrange the stages of economic growth
1.The mature of stage
2.The take off stage
ïV
i
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120. Which of the following taxes have been subsumed under GST?
A) Corporate tax, Customs duty, Service tax
ht
121. Assertion: The International Monetary fund came up with a guideline that there should not be a
deficit above 3% GDP.
Reason : The government aims to increase revenue by targeting expenditure in decision making.
The government has been proactive in raising public funds and reducing public spending.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are false
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) Both A & R are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
D) Both A & R are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
íu® Š Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]l_ 3% ¼\_ W]©ÃuÅVÂzçÅ ÖòÂï í¦Vm ¨[Å Îò
5
kaÂïVâ|>çé Ã[ªVâ| Ãð W]BD ØïVõ| kÍ>m.
ïV«ðD Š ¶«ÄVªm x½¡ ØÄé¡Ý]â¦Ý]_ ØÄé¡ïçá ÖéÂïVï ØïVõ| kòkVçB©
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ØÃòÂzD. ØÃVmW]çB íâ|k]KD, ØÃVmßØÄéçk zçÅ©Ã]KD ¶«ÄVºïD
x窩ÃVï ÖòÍ>m.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k®
B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
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C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂzþÅm.
D) íu® ïV«ðD Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂïs_çé.
122. Who said the nutrition security is “Physical, economic and social access to a balanced diet, safe
A) AmartyaSen Tn
drinking water, environmental hygiene, primary health care and primary education”?
A) ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[
B) nÂþB åV|ï¹[ cð¡ (\) ¼káVõ ¶ç\©A
C) kìÿü óöB[
D) M.S. ·kVtåV>[
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123. Assertion: As the demand for a commodity increases, so does the price of commodity, thus
affecting the purchasing power.
Reason : When the production and supply of goods decreases, the price of goods also
s:
increases.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are false
tp
5
D) sõØk¹ \u®D ÃVmïV©A Š Îóì
125. Consider the following statement regarding Agricultural Policy in India
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1.The new agricultural policy based on the export of agricultural goods was announced by the
central government in 2018.
2.Remove export restriction on most organic and raising the agricultural production and
ps
productivity.
3. To feed the high yielding varieties seeds, fertilisers and to upgrade the modern technology.
4.To give more power to the farmers’ cooperative societies and Self-help institutions.
A) All are true B) 2,3,4 is true
C) 1,2,4 is true
ÖÍ]BVs[ skÄVB ØïV^çï© Ãu¤B íu®ïçá ïVõï. Tn
D)1,2,3 is true
b) TNPL
c) Start up India
-
-
2. April 5,2016
3. Karur ïV
d) Special Economic Zone - 4. January 16,2016
a b c d i
s:
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 2 3 4 1
tp
D) 2 3 1 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a) ü¦Võâ ¶© ÖÍ]BV Š 1. 2000 A) 4 3 1 2
ht
128. Assertion: Factories that produce raw materials for other industries such as cement and steel are
basic commodity industries.
Reason: If the consumer uses the final output of one product as consumer goods, then the final
output of one product is used for another product, as capital goods.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are false
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) Both A & R are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
D) Both A & R are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
íu® Š EØ\õâ \u®D ¨àz ¼ÃV[Å ¸Å Ø>Va_ïÓÂz Jé©ØÃVò^ >BVöÂzD Ø>VauÄVçéï^
5
¶½©Ãç¦ Ãõ¦ºï^ Ø>Va_ï^.
ïV«ðD Š Îò cuÃÝ]l_ Ö®] Øk¹X|ïçá Oïì¼kVì ÃB[Ã|Ý]ªV_ Oïì¼kVì Ãõ¦ºï^
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¨ª¡D Îò cuÃÝ]l[ Ö®] Øk¹X|ïçá ØïVõ| \uØÅVò cuÃÝ]Âz
ÃB[Ã|Ýmkm Jé>ª©Ãõ¦ºï^
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂzþÅm.
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D) íu® ïV«ðD Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂïs_çé.
129. Which of the following rates of GST is incorrect?
A) 5 % B)12% C)25% D)18%
Ãõ¦ºï^ \u®D Ãèï^ köl[ sþ>ºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
A) 5% B) 12% C) 25% Tn D) 18%
130. Which tax is an any duty on manufactured goods levied at the movement of manufacture rather
than the at sale?
A) Excise duty B)GST C)Entertainment tax D)Stamp duty
e/
suÃçªçB s¦ cuÃÝ]l[ ÖBÂïÝ]K^á ¨Í>ØkVò cuÃÝ] ØÃVòâï¹[ *m
s]Âï©Ã|D kö?
A) ïéV_ kö
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1.Area under food grain cultivation has grown to 122 million hectares, with an increase of fivefold
increase in food grain production.
2.This scheme introducing a fertilizer responsive high yielding varieties of rice and wheat.
s:
3.It ensured the availability of subsidized chemical fertilizers for the farmers.
4.Cheaper farm credit was disbursed to farmers through cooperative banks and societies.
tp
132. Which Indian state has adopted a universal public distribution system?
A) Kerala B)Puducherry C)Tamilandu D)Andhra Pradesh
céïáVsB ØÃVm kwºï_ xçÅçB °u®Â ØïVõ¦ ÖÍ]B \VWéD
A) ¼ï«áV B) Amß¼Äö C) >tµåV| D) gÍ]«V
133. Match the following :
a) Expenditure approach - 1. GNP-Depreciation
b) The Income approach - 2. GDP-Depreciation
c) Value added approach - 3. Wage + rent + interest + profit
d) Net domestic Product - 4. Value of final goods
5
e)Net National Product - 5. adding expenditure on all the final goods and services.
a b c d e
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A) 1 2 3 5 4
B) 2 3 1 4 5
C) 5 3 4 2 1
ps
D) 3 2 1 5 4
ØÃVòÝmï.
a) ØÄésªxçÅ Š 1. Ø\VÝ> åVâ| cuÃÝ] Š ¼>F\VªD
b) kò\Vª xçÅ Š 2. Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ] Š ¼>F\VªD
c) \]©A íâ|xçÅ
d) Wï« c^åVâ| cuÃÝ]
e) Wï« åVâ| cuÃÝ]
a b c
Š
Š
Š
d
3.
4.
5.
Tn
ío + kV«D + kâ½ + ÖéVÃD
Ö®] Ãõ¦Ý][ Ø\VÝ> \]©A
Ö®] Ãõ¦ Ãèï¹[ ØÄé¡ï¹[ íâ|ÝØ>Vçï
e
g
ïV
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A) 1 2 3 5 4
B) 2 3 1 4 5 i
C) 5 3 4 2 1
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D) 3 2 1 5 4
134. Assertion : GDP and GNP are the two important measures of economic growth.
Reason : Economic growth is a measure of a country’s output over a period of time measured by
material monetary value.
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D) Both A & R are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
íu® Š Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ], Ø\VÝ> ¼>EB cuÃÝ] Ö«õ|D ØÃVòáV>V« káìßEçB
¶ás|D ¶á¡¼ïV_.
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5
2. ØÄékVªm, kö kòkVçB s¦¶]ï\Vï ÖòÂzD ¼ÃVm, Îò ¶«ÄVºïD ï¦çª ]«â|þÅm.
3. ÖÍ]BVs_ kös]©¸[ ¼kìï^ \Ðütò] \u®D ¶ìÝ> ÄVü]«D, \ïVÃV«>D ¼ÃV[Å
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Ö]ïVÄÝ]oòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m.
4. >uïVé ÖÍ]B kö xçÅBVªm Ãõç¦B ïVé köxçÅçB ¶½©Ãç¦BVï ØïVõ¦m.
A) íu® 1, 2, 4 Äö B) íu® 2, 3, 4 Äö C) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö D) íu® ¶çªÝmD Äö
137. Who granted the “Golden fireman “to the English?
ps
A) Jahangir B) Sultan of Golconda
C) Akbar D) Aurangazeb
gºþ¼éBìïÓÂz ""¼ïV_¦[ àÃBì\V['' kwºþBkì BVì?
A) ÛÇVºÿì
C) ¶ÂÃì
138. Pick out the correct statement
D) Î᫺ïæ© Tn
B) ¼ïV_ØïVõ¦V ·_>V[
5
A) ¼Äçk kö B) ïéV_ kö
C) suÃçª kö D) \Ý]B suÃçª kö
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143. Assertion :Purchasing power increases when prices fall and vice versa.
Reason :Purchasing power suffers as productivity declines and prices rise.
g
A) Assertion True and Reason is false ïV
ps
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) Both A & R are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion i
D) Both A & R are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
íu® Š sçé zçÅÍ>V_ kVºzD ÄÂ] ¶]ïöÂþÅm \u®D Öm ¼åì\VÅVªm.
Tn
ïV«ðD ŠØÃVò^ï¹[ cuÃÝ] zçÅÍm, sçé ¶]ïö©Ã>V_ kVºzD ]Å[ ÃV]Âï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂzþÅm.
D) íu® ïV«ðD Äö, ïV«ðD íuçÅ ÄöBVï sáÂïs_çé.
e/
144. Match the following :
a) Canon of equity - 1. Denotes the tax amount pay during a year
b) Canon of certainty - 2. Tax payer cost + Tax collector cost
.m
c) Canon of economy and convenience - 3. Choose the tax that can fetch more tax revenue
d) Canon of productivity and elasticity - 4. Equity is the cardinal principle of imposing tax
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 1 2
//t
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï.
s:
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 1 2 3
D) 1 2 3 4
145. Which year income tax was introduced in India for the first time?
A) 1860 B)1870 C)1880 D)1850
ÖÍ]BVs_ kò\Vª kößÄâ¦D x>[ x>o_ ---------- gD gõ¦ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1860 B) 1870 C) 1880 D) 1850
5
3. Smuggling also an important causes of black money.
A) 4 only B) 1, 2 &3 C) 2, 3 D) 1 Only
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ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m/¨çk ïVõï
1. ÖBuçïBVï¼kV ¶_ém ØÄBuçïBVï¼kV Ãõ¦ºï¹[ ÃuÅVÂzçÅ ïò©Ã ÃðÝ]uz xÂþB
ïV«ðD.
2. ïò©A ÃðD ¼>V[®k>uz tï xÂþB úz kþ©Ãm Ø>VaumçÅ.
3. ïò©A ÃðD còkVk>uz ï¦Ý>_ Îò xÂþB JéD.
ps
A) 4 \â|D B) 1, 2 & 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1 \â|D
148. A successful industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is
A) Hosur B)dindugul C)Kovilpatti D)Tirunelveli
ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ Ö_ Îò Øku¤ï«\Vª Ø>Va_mçÅ Ø>Vz©A xu¤KD >tµåVâ¦V_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m
A) Îóì B) ]õ|Âï_
Tn
C) ¼ïVs_Ãâ½ D) ]òØå_¼ko
149. Pick out the correct statement regarding Human Development Index
1. In 1990-2017 the HDI value of India increased from 0.427 to 0.640.
2. In this HDI value should be increased approximately 80%
e/
3.The country’s remarkable achievement in lifting millions of people out of poverty.
4.The HDI is the composite index of life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate and standard of
living measured as logarithmic function of GDP, adjusted to purchasing power parity.
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A) Portuguese,Dutch,English,Danish,French
B) Dutch,English,Danish,French
C)Portuguese,Danish,Dutch,French,English
ht
D)Dansih,Portuguese,French,English,dutch
ÖÍ]BVs_ ïVéMBV]Âï kòçï
A) ¼ÃVìß·ÿEBì, ¦ß·, gºþ¼éBì, ¼¦Mi, ¸Ø«Þ·
B) ¦ß·, gºþ¼éBì, ¼¦Mi, ¸Ø«Þ·
C) ¼ÃVìß·ÿEBì, ¼¦Mi, ¦ß·, ¸Ø«Þ·, gºþ¼éBì
D) ¼¦Mi, ¼ÃVìß·ÿEBì, ¸Ø«Þ·, gºþ¼éBì, ¦ß·
5
35. C. 268 TO 274 35. C. 268 TO 293
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43. D 43. C
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(GR – II TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH) –27.09.2021 / Monday
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 3 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 3 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
Tn
3. AslB_ : ¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 3 kç« ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
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s:
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Tn
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s:
tp
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31 D 32 D 33 C 34 D 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 B
41 C 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 B 46 A 47 C 48 B 49 C 50 A
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51 D 52 B 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 D
61 A 62 D 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 A 68 D 69 A 70 C
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 D 76 A 77 C 78 D 79 C 80 A
81 D 82 A 83 D 84 A 85 B 86 B 87 D 88 C 89 A 90 C
ps
91 D 92 D 93 D 94 C 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 A
101 A 102 D 103 C 104 B 105 B 106 D 107 A 108 B 109 D 110 A
111 B 112 D 113 C 114 B 115 D 116 D 117 B 118 D 119 B 120 B
121 C 122 D 123 C 124 C 125 D 126 C 127 D 128 C 129 C 130 A
131
141
B
B
132
142
C
C
133
143
C
C
134
144
B
C
135
145 Tn
A
A
136
146
A
D
137
147
B
B
138
148
B
A
139
149
C
D
140
150
B
A
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11 A 12 D 13 A 14 C 15 B 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 B 20 D
21 D 22 C 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 C 30 A
31 D 32 D 33 C 34 D 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 B
s:
41 C 42 C 43 B 44 A 45 B 46 A 47 C 48 B 49 C 50 A
51 D 52 B 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 C 58 A 59 C 60 D
61 A 62 D 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 A 68 D 69 A 70 C
tp
71 C 72 A 73 A 74 B 75 D 76 A 77 C 78 D 79 C 80 A
81 D 82 A 83 D 84 A 85 B 86 B 87 D 88 C 89 A 90 C
91 D 92 D 93 D 94 C 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 A
ht
101 A 102 D 103 C 104 B 105 B 106 D 107 A 108 B 109 D 110 A
111 B 112 D 113 C 114 B 115 D 116 D 117 B 118 D 119 B 120 B
121 C 122 D 123 C 124 C 125 D 126 C 127 D 128 C 129 C 130 A
131 B 132 C 133 C 134 B 135 A 136 A 137 B 138 B 139 C 140 B
141 B 142 C 143 C 144 C 145 A 146 D 147 B 148 A 149 D 150 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 43
4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
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ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 10 / åV^ Š 18.10.2021
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¶«EBéç\©A 8 sªVÂï^
80
tp
AslB_ 6 sªVÂï^
60
5
c8
TIME: 3 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 10) TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
C) United States
Tn
1. The direct democracy in practiced in ________
A) Federal Republic of Switzerland B) Russia
D) China
e/
¼å«½ \ÂïáVâE ¨ºz åç¦xçÅl_ c^ám?
A) ·sâÄìéVÍm íâ¦VâE z½B«· B) «iBV
C) ¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB åV|ï^ D) æªV
.m
2. Which flagship programme of Government of Tamil Nadu followed by all other states in India
A) Noon Meal Scheme B) Rainwater harvesting
C) Gold for Marriage D) Bicycle for school students
>twï ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ ¨Í> >çéEÅÍ> ]â¦D ÖÍ]BVs[ ¸Å \VWéºï¹_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|þÅm?
//t
people?
A) Ashok Mehta committee B) Balwantarai Mehta committee
C) G.V.K.Rao committee D) L.M. Singhvi committee
\Vk⦠ÃÞÄVBÝm ¼åöç¦BVï \ÂïáV_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠¶ç\©ÃVï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D ¨ª ¨Í>
ïtâ½ ÃöÍmç« ØÄF>m.
A) ¶¼ÄV ¼\Ý>V z¿ B) Ã_kÍ>«VF ¼\Ý> z¿
C) G.V.K.«VË z¿ D) L.M. Eºs z¿
5
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ÄöBVª sáÂï\VzD
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö ¼\KD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
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C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
6. Why did the framers of the Indian Constitution adopt a parliamentary system of government?
1. Familiarity with the parliamentary system of government
2. Preference to More Responsibility
ps
3. To avoid problems between the legislature and the executive
4. The nature of Indian society
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) All
ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©¸çª còkVÂþBkìï^ °[ åV¦VÓ\[Å ¶«ÄVºï xçÅlçª °uŪì?
1.åV¦VÓ\[Å ¶«ÄVºï xçÅ¥¦ªVª ÃößÄBD
2.¶]ï ØÃV®©Aðì¡ÂïVª sò©Aöç\
Tn
3.Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]uzD ØÄBéVâEÂzD Ö禼BBVª ¸«ßÄçªïçáÝ >sìÂï ¼kõ½Bm
¶kEB\VzD
e/
4.ÖÍ]B Äx>VBÝ][ >[ç\
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) ¶çªÝmD
7. Find the incorrect statements about the Correct to Information Act
.m
\Vu¤¥^ám
C) ¶«ÄVºïD \ÂïÓÂz ï¦ç\©Ãâ¦>Vï \Vuũæs_çé
D) ÖßÄâ¦D 2005D gõ| ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
tp
5
2. Maintenance, according to the Act, pertains to “provision for food, clothing, residence and
medical attendance and treatment’’.
c8
3. The only condition for claiming maintenance under this Act is that the persons must be unable to
maintain themselves from their own earnings and property
4. The Act mandates that the maximum maintenance paid will be 10,000/- per month. The
maintenance amount is determined by the needs of the claimant and the aim is provide
ps
maintenance for the person to lead a normal life.
A) 1, 3, 4 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 3 D) All
kB>Vª ØÃu¼ÅVì x]¼BVì ëV\ö©A \u®D åé[ ÄVìÍ> Äâ¦D Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.x]¼BVòÂz mö>\Vï¡D ÃBÐ^á>Vï¡\Vª WkV«ðÝç> kwºï ''ëV\ö©A
yì©ÃVBÝ]çª'' (Maintenance Tribunal) W®sBm. Tn
2.ÖßÄâ¦Ý][ý ëV\ö©A ¨[Ãm cð¡, c|Ý> cç¦, Öò©¸¦D \u®D \òÝmk EþßçÄçB¥D
c^á¦ÂþB>VzD.
3.ÖßÄâ¦Ý][ μ« WÃÍ>çªBVï, ¨kØ«_éVD >[ ØÄVÍ> kò\VªÝ]KD cç¦ç\l[
e/
JéxD >[çª Ã«V\öÂï ÖBéV>kìïáVï ÖòÂþÅVìï¼áV ¶kìï^ ֩ëV\ö©¸[ ÿµ
câÃ|kVìï^.
4.ÖßÄâ¦Ý][ JéD ÃV]Âï©Ãâ¦kìïÓÂz ¶]ïÃâÄ Ã«V\ö©Aß ØÄékVï \V>D Ô.10,000
.m
5
ïâEÝ>Vk_ >ç¦Äâ¦D Ãu¤B ÿµïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1. 52km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D 1985-[ ý ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m.
c8
2. ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ 10km ¶â¦kçðl_ c^ám.
3. Îò ïâEloòÍm \uØÅVò ïâEÂz \V®D åV¦VÓ\[Å/ Äâ¦\[Å c®©¸ªìïçá
>z]lw©A ØÄFþÅm.
4. ïâE ¸á¡òD ówoKD ïâE>Vk_ Äâ¦Ý][ ¶½©Ãç¦ï^ ØÃVòÍmþÅm.
5. ïâEÝ>Vk_ >ç¦Äâ¦D 2002 gD gõ| ]òÝ>D ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
ps
A) 1, 2, 5 Äö B) 1, 2, 3, 5 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
15. Assertion A : Madras High Court ruled that the Communal representation decree followed in
Tamilnadu is against the constitution
Reason R : Shenbagam Durairajan case was filed in 1951.
Tn
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A & R incorrect
e/
íu® : >twïÝ]_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|D kz©AkVö gçðBVªm ¶«EBéç\©A Äâ¦Ý]uz
¨]«Vªm ¨ª \>«Vü cBìÀ]\[ÅD yì©Ã¹Ý>m.
ïV«ðD : ØÄõÃïD mç««VÛ[ kwÂz 1951 D gõ| >VÂï_ ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
.m
16. Man is by nature a political animal and he, who by nature and not by mere accident is without state
is either above humanity or below it” said by
A) Garris B) Aristotle C) Wheare D) Laski
s:
5
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
19. Examine the following statements.
c8
1. The first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India, Mr. Harilal J. Kaniya.
2. Justice K.G. Balakrishnan became the first Dalit Chief Justice of Supreme Court in 2000.
3. The Supreme Court started functioning on January 28, 1950under the present Constitution
A) All correct B) 1, 3 correct 2 Incorrect
ps
C) 1, 2 correct 3 Incorrect D) All incorrect
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.ÖÍ]B cßÄÀ]\[ÅÝ][ x>_ >çéç\ À]Ã] ]ò.ÇöéV_ ØÛ. ïMBV.
2.À]Ã] K.G.ÃVéþòið[ 2000gD gõ| Ãâ½BoªÝç> ¼ÄìÍ> x>_ cßÄÀ]\[Å
>çéç\ À]Ã]BVï cBìÍ>Vì.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k®
Tn
3.>u¼ÃVç>B ¶«Äç\©¸[ ÿµ cßÄÀ]\[ÅD Ûªkö 28, 1950 x>_ ØÄB_Ã¦Ý Ø>V¦ºþBm.
C) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
20. Match. a b c d
e/
a.Highest Court of Appeal - 1. Diwan - e - Siyasat A) 2 1 4 3
b.State’s Chief Justice Court - 2. Diwan-al-Mazalim B) 3 1 4 2
c. Highest Court for Civil Case - 3. Sadre Jagan’s Court C) 2 3 4 1
.m
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 2 3 4 1
tp
D) 3 2 4 1
21. Find the correct statements about Governor's discretionary powers
1) Appointing a new Chief Minister in a situation where no single party or leadercommands
ht
majority support.
2) Dismissing a ministry where it refuses to resign even after losing majority support inthe house or
after being defeated on a non-confidence motion.
3) Dissolution of assembly on the advice of a Chief Minister who has lost majoritysupport.
4) Sending report to the President about the failure of constitutional machinery and toimpose
President’s rule in the state.
5) Giving assent to bills passed by the legislature
A) 1, 3, 5 correct B) 2, 4, 5 correct C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) All correct
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 43 þçáï^...
gÓåö[ sò©Ã ¶]ïV«ºï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.¨Í>ØkVò ïâE ¶_ém >çékì Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]_ ØÃòDÃV[ç\ g>«çk© ØÃÅV> óµWçél_ Îò
A]B x>éç\ßÄç« WBtÝ>_.
2.¶çkl[ ØÃòDÃV[ç\ g>«çk ÖwÍ>¼ÃVmD ¶_ém åD¸Âçï kVÂØï|©¸_ ¼>Vuï½Âï©Ãâ¦
¸[ªòD Ã>s séï \®ÂzD Wçél_ ¶ç\ßÄ«çkçB Ã>s ÀÂïD ØÄFkm.
3.ØÃòDÃV[ç\ g>«çk ÖwÍ> Îò x>éç\ßÄö[ g¼éVÄçªl[ ¼Ãö_ Äâ¦ÄçÃçB ïçéÝm
s|>_
4.¶«Äç\©A ÖBÍ]«ß æìzçékm Ãu¤ z½B«·Ý>çékòÂz ¶¤Âçï ¶Ð©A>_ \u®D z½B«·Ý
>çékì gâEçB \VWéÝ]_ ØïVõ|kò>_
5
5.Äâ¦\[ÅÝ>V_ WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠x[kç«¡ïÓÂz ΩA>_ ¶¹Ý>_
A) 1, 3, 5 Äö B) 2, 4, 5 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
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22. Find the incorrect judiciary powers of the Governor
1. She/ He determines the questions of appointments, postings, promotions, etc. of subordinate
courts like district courts and munsiff courts
2. She/He may be consulted by the President of India, while making appointments of the judges of
ps
the high court
3. She/He has the power to reduce and pardon the conviction of any accused person in cases under
the jurisdiction of the Central Government
4. She/He has the power to reduce and pardon the conviction of any accused person in cases under
the jurisdiction of the State Government
A) 3 only B) 4 only
gÓåö[ À]ÝmçÅ Ø>V¦ìÃVª ¶]ïV«ºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
Tn C) 3 and 4
23. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to?
A) Lok Sabha B) Rajya Sabha
s:
C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
¶ç\ßÄ«çkl[ c®©¸ªìï^ ¨ºz íâ¦Vï ØÃV®©¼ÃuþÅVìï^?
A) \Âïáçk B) \VWéºïáçk
tp
1. Generally 5 years
2. Governor will hold office as long as the President wishes
3. She/ He remains in office until succeeded by someone else.
A) 1 only B) 1, 3 only C) 2, 3 only D) 1, 2, 3
gÓåö[ Ã>sÂïVéD Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.ØÃVmkVï 5 gõ|ï^
2.z½B«·Ý>çékì sòDADkç« Ã>sl_ Öò©ÃVì
3.¶kç«Ý Ø>V¦ìÍm ¼kØÅVòkì Ã>sl_ ¶\ìÝ>©Ã|D kç« Ã>sl_ ÖòÂïéVD.
A) 1 \â|D B) 1, 3 \â|D C) 2, 3 \â|D D) 1, 2, 3
5
A) 1, 3, 4, 5 Äö B) 1, 2, 5 Äö C) 2, 3, 4, 5 Äö D) 1, 3, 4 Äö
26. Choose the correct recommendations of P.V Rajamannar Committee
c8
i) Article 263 of the Constitution should be implemented immediately.
ii) Articles 256, 257, 339 (2) of the Constitution should be eliminated.
iii) Residuary powers which are not in the three lists should be transferred from the Central
Government to the State Governments.
ps
iv) All Indian services should be removed from the Constitution.
v) The power to levy taxes should also be transferred from the Central Government to the State
Governments.
A) i, ii, iii correct B) ii, iii, iv correct C) iii, iv, v correct D) All correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ P.V «VÛ\[ªVì z¿s[ ÃöÍmç«ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m? Tn
i) ¶«Äç\©¸[ 263 c®©A c¦ª½BVï ¶\_ Ã|Ý>©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D.
ii) ¶«Äç\©¸[ c®©Aï^ 256, 257, 339(2) gþBçkïçá ÀÂï ¼kõ|D.
iii) J[® Ãâ½B_ï¹_ Ö_éV> Ö>« ¶]ïV«ºï^ \Ý]B ¶«E¦tòÍm \VWé ¶«·ïÓÂz
e/
\Vuũæ ¼kõ|D.
iv) ¶çªÝ> ÖÍ]B© Ãèïçá ¶«Äç\©¸oòÍm ÀÂï ¼kõ|D.
v) kö s]ÂzD ¶]ïV«xD \Ý]B ¶«E¦tòÍm \VWé ¶«·ïÓÂz \Vuũæ ¼kõ|D.
.m
2. V. Ramachandran took over as the chairman of the first Administrative Reforms Committee after
Moraji Desai.
3. The Second Administrative Reforms Committee was constituted in 2005 under the chairmanship
s:
of Veerappa Moily.
4. After Veerappa Moily, K. Hanumanthaiah took over as chairman of the Second Administrative
tp
Reforms Committee.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2. 3 correct C) 2, 4 correct D) 1, 3 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.x>_ WìkVïß æì]òÝ>Âz¿ Ø\V«V÷ ¼>ÄVF >çéç\l_ 1966_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
ht
5
2. \Ý]B ÃVmïV©A mçÅ ¶ç\ßÄì Ö>[ ØÃVmÝ >çék«Vï c^áVì.
3. g«DÃÝ]_ 5 \õ¦é z¿Âï^ ÖòÍ>ª.
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4. >u¼ÃVm 6 \õ¦é z¿Âï^ c^áª.
A) 1, 3 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö C) 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
29. According to any of the following statements, the Lok Sabha is superior to the state legislatures
A) Lok Sabha is a directly elected house
ps
B) The Council of Ministers is accountable to it
C) The Lok Sabha controls the Budget
D) All the above
ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> íu¤[ ý \Âïáçk \VWéºïáçkçB s¦ cBìÍ>m gzD
A) \Âïáçk ¼å«½BVï ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠¶ç\©A gzD.
B) ¶ç\ßÄ«çk z¿ \ÂïáçkÂz ïâ|©Ãâ¦m gzD.
C) \Âïáçk W]Wçé ¶¤ÂçïçB ïâ|©Ã|Ýmþ[Åm.
D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD.
Tn
e/
30. Find the incorrect recommendations of the Sarkaria Committee regarding the Governor?
1) The office of Governor should be abolished.
2) There is no need to consult the concerned State Government before appointing the Governor.
.m
5
1.¶ç\ßÄìï¹[ ØïV^çïBVÂïD \u®D åV¦VÓ\[Åß ØÄB_ÃV|ï¹_ c>s Aö>_.
2.¶ç\ßÄïÝ][ ØÄésªºï^ \u®D W]Wçé ¶¤Âçï ÄVìÍ> Ãèï^.
c8
3.ØïV^çïï^ \u®D ]⦺ï^ åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ýmkç> ¼\uÃVìçkl|>_ ïâ|©Ã|Ým>_.
4.¶ç\ßÄïD \u®D mçÅ ÃèBVáö[ Ãèïçá ¼\DÃ|Ýmk>uïVª kaxçÅïçá còkVÂz>_.
5.¶ç\ßÄïÝ][ ¶çªÝm mçÅïçá¥D ÎòºþçðÝm ¼\uÃVìçkl¦_ \u®D \VWé
WìkVïÝm¦[ Ø>V¦ì¸_ ÖòÝ>_.
ps
A) 1, 3, 5 Äö B) 2, 4, 5 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
33. Match. a b c d
a) Cauvery River water Tribunal - 1. 1969 A) 3 2 4 1
b) Madan Mohan Punchhi Commission - 2. 2007 B) 1 2 3 4
c) R.S. Sarkaria Commission
d) P.V. Rajamannar Commission
ØÃVòÝmï.
a) ïVsö å]Àì å|kì \[ÅD Š 1. 1969
Tn - 3. 1991
- 4. 1983
A)
a
3
C)
D)
b
2
2
4
c
4
3
3
d
1
4
2
1
1
e/
b) \>[ ¼\Vï[ A[ßE z¿ Š 2. 2007 B) 1 2 3 4
c) R.S. ÄìïVöBV z¿ Š 3. 1991 C) 2 3 4 1
d) P.V. «VÛ\[ªVì z¿ Š 4. 1983 D) 4 3 2 1
.m
34. “I am well aware, when I speak of India, that I speak of a country containing a congeries of races,
religions and languages, and I know well all the difficulties thereby created. But those difficulties
can only be overcome by Indians. We are very mindful of the rights of minorities and minorities
should be able to live free from fear.” said by
//t
1.Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of
India.
2. Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme
Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general
3. Approval of the ordinances issued by the President.
4.Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public
Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general.
A) 1, 2, 4 correct B) 1, 3, 4 correct C) 2, 3, 4 correct D) All correct
5
A) 1, 2, 4 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö C) 2, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
36. Find the correct statement regarding Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c8
1. The Administrative head of the Parliament Secretariat is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. It is the duty of the Speaker to move a motion of thanks for the President's speech.
3. The Speaker's permission should be obtained to propose an Amendment Act. It is up to the
speaker to decide whether the amendment bill to be moved or not
ps
4. The Speaker will decide on granting recognition of the Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha.
A) 1, 2 only B) 3, 4 only C) 1, 3, 4 only D) All correct
\Âïáçk ÄÃVåVBïì Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.åV¦VÓ\[Å >çéç\ß ØÄBéïÝ][ WìkVïÝ >çékì \Âïáçk ÄÃVåVBïì gkVì.
Tn
2.z½B«·Ý>çékì cç«Âz å[¤ Ø>ösÂzD yì\VªÝç> x[Ø\Vakm ÄÃVåVBïö[ ï¦ç\BVzD.
3.Îò ]òÝ>ßÄâ¦D x[Ø\Vak>uz ÄÃVåVBïö[ ¶Ð\] ØÃũæ¼kõ|D. ¶Í> ]òÝ>ßÄâ¦D
x[kç«çk ¶Ð\]©Ã>V Ö_çéBV ¨[Ãç> ÄÃVåVBïì >V[ yì\VM©ÃVì.
4.\Âïáçkl[ ¨]ìÂïâEÝ >çékòÂz ¶ºÿïV«D ¶¹©Ãm z¤Ým ÄÃVåVBK x½¡ ØÄFkVì.
e/
A) 1, 2 \â|D B) 3, 4 \â|D
C) 1, 3, 4 \â|D D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
37. Which of the following is not a part of local government?
.m
39. Which of the following are not a part of urban local bodies?
A) District B) Corporation, Municipality
C) Township, Town Panchayats D) Cantonment Boards
ht
5
A) John Ruskin B) Socrates C) Thomas Pogge D) John Rawls
káòD åV|ï¹_ k®ç\ ¶]ïöÝm kòk>uz káìÍ> åV|ï¼á ØÃV®©¼Ãuï ¼kõ|D ¨[®
c8
í®Ãkì BVì?
A) ÛV[ «üþ[ B) ÄV«Ïü C) >V\ü ØÃV¼ï D) ÛV[ «V_ü
43. Choose the correct answer from the following statements.
1. Many people were refused opportunities on the basis of caste and it is believed as natural one in
ps
the society
2.Social inequality had been hardened by long-held traditions based on likes and dislikes
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 Incorrect C) 1 correct D) 2 Only correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
ØÄV_é©Ã|þÅm.
Tn
1.ÄV]l[ ØÃB«V_ kVF©A \®Âï©Ã⦠Ãé«m Wçé ''ÖBuçïBVªm'' ¨[Ãm ¼ÃVé å\Âzß
2.sò©A Š Øk®©¸[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ Àõ¦ ïVé\Vï ÖòÍm kÍ> \«AïáV_ ÄJï Ä\Ýmkt[ç\
Ö®þ©¼ÃVFsâ½òÍ>m.
e/
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
44. Choose the correct answer from the following statements.
1. The dominant groups intend to misuse the social rights of other groups that may end in
.m
2.>ºï^ *>Vª ¼\éV]ÂïÝç> \®Ým >ºïÓÂz cöB cöç\ïçá Ä\\Vï ØÃu¤¦ å¦ÝmþÅ
¼ÃV«V⦠cðìs窼B ÄJï À] ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
tp
45. The process and social arrangement of different groups of religion, race and other factors can live
with their social identity, tolerance and shared power called
A) Industrial Revolution B) Trade Union
ht
5
49. Choose the correct answer from the following statements.
1. The Brahmins were identified as "Aryans" and custodians of the Sanskrit civilization.
c8
2. Non-Brahmins were considered "Dravidians" and custodians of Tamil language, culture and
civilization.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect C) 1 only correct D) 2 only correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
ps
1.¸«V\ðìï^ ''göBìï^'' ¨ª¡D k¦Ø\Va åVïöïÝ][ ÃVmïVkéì ¨ª¡D
¶ç¦BVá©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦪ì.
2.¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì '']«Vs¦ìï^'' ¨ª¡D ¶kìï^ >tµØ\Va, ÃõÃV| \u®D åVïZïÝ][
ÃVmïVkéì ¨ª¡D ïò>©Ã⦪ì.
A) 1, 2 Äö
C) 1 \â|D Äö
Tn
B) 1, 2 >k®
D) 2 \â|D Äö
50. Which movement was started in Madras province to protect and promote the Tamil identity,
culture, socio-political and economic interest of non-Brahmins?
e/
A) Swatantra Party B) Madras native association
C) South Indian Liberal Federation D) Dravidian movement
ØÄ[çª \VïVðÝ]_ ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vö[ >tµ ¶ç¦BVáD, ÄJï ¶«EB_ \u®D ØÃVòáV>V«
.m
5
·B\öBVç> ÖBÂïÝ]çª, ÄJï À]ïâE ¨[® ØÃBì \Vu¤Bkì BVì?
A) EºïV«¼kéì B) ~.Øk.«V. ØÃöBVì
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C) JkÙì Ö«V\Vtì>D D) Ökìï^ BVòt_çé
56. What among the following strived by Nationalism, during the colonial rule?
1.Territorial integration 2.Constitutionalism
3. Democratization 4.Education
ps
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 2, 3, 4
ïVéM gâEÂïVéÝ]_ còkVª å\m ¼>EBÝ>[ç\ ¸[kòkªku®^ ¨>uïVï ¼ÃV«V½
kÍm^ám?
1.Ã_¼k® Ãz]ï¹[ Îòºþçð©A 2.¶«Äç\©A ç\B\V>_
3.\ÂïáVâE\BD
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3
57. Choose the correct option :
4.ï_s
C) 2, 3
Tn
D) 2, 3, 4
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.Îò åVâ½[ \Âï¹[ Eé z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï ¶½©Ãç\ cöç\ïçá Îò ¶«Äç\©A ÃVmïVÂþÅm.
2.Îò åVâ½[ Eé z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï z½\Âïçá Îò ¶«Äç\©A ÃVmïVÂþÅm.
//t
3.Îò åVâ½[ \Ý]B ¶«·ÂzD ¶ÍåVâ½[ \VWé ¶«·ïÓÂzD Ö禼BBVª cÅs窥D, Ã_¼k®
\VWéºïÓÂþ禼BBVª cÅs窥D ØïVõ¦ Îò Äâ¦ïÝ]窥D ¶m còkVÂzþÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
s:
3. All the high posts of the country are reserved for the followers of the state religion.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.\>ßÄVì¸[ç\ ¼ïVâÃVâ½çª ¸[ÃuÅV> ¶«· \>ßÄVìA ¶«· ¨ª©Ã|D.
ht
5
1.{ì ¶«Äç\©A ¨ËkV® åç¦xçÅÂz kÍ>m. ¶ç> BVì còkVÂþBm, ¶>[ ¶]ïV« ¶ç\©Aï^
¨[ª ¨[ê ¼ÃV[Å >ïk_ï^ ''¶«Äç\©A còkVÂïD'' ¨[Å ØÃB«V_ z¤Âï©Ã|þÅm.
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2.¶Ø\öÂï nÂþB \VWéºï¹[ ¶«E[ ¶«Äç\©A ¶ºz ¼>EB ÖBÂïD Øku¤Bç¦Í>ç>Ý
Ø>V¦ìÍm WìðBÄçÃBV_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
3.\Âï^ ¸«]W]ïçá ØïVõ¦ Îò ¶«Äç\©A WìðBÄçÃBV_ còkVÂï©Ã⦠Ä⦩¯ìk
¶«Äç\©A ¨[Å EÅ©A, ¶Ø\öÂï ¶«Äç\©AÂz cõ|.
ps
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1,2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
61. Choose the correct option :
1. Referendum is a method of referring a question or set of questions to the electorate.
2. It is not used to determine issues of morality which divide a government of party and to settle
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2
Tn
Local matters which it is thought are best left to individual areas to decide
3. It is seen as conferring legitimacy and popular approval on an individual and sanctions absolute
authority.
C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
e/
¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.Î[® ¶_ém Ãé ¼ï^sï¹[ Ø>Vz©¸[ *m kVÂïVáìï¹[ ΩA>_ØÃÅ ¼å«½ kVÂØï|©A
å¦Ýmkm ØÃVmkVÂØï|©A gzD.
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
62. Choose the correct option :
1. Legislature is one of most important institution for the functioning of representative democracy.
s:
2. The basic objective of the Legislature is to make its representatives united and welfare oriented.
3. Legislature is generally referred as the highest law-making body, having elected representation
from all the constituents of the state to make or change the laws of the country.
tp
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2
C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
Äâ¦\[ÅD Ø>V¦ìÃVª ¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
ht
5
\u®D Amß¼Äö gzD)
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D C) 1 \u®D 2 D) Ö«õ|D >k®
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64. Choose the correct answer :
1. The Parliament is known as Union Legislature or National Legislature,
2. It is a supreme body of decision making and symbol of democratic governance
3. Parliament is the most powerful platform with accountability for debating on the issues regarding
ps
welfare of the country and its people and enacting laws and making changes to the constitution
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.åV¦VÓ\[ÅD, Î[¤Bß Äâ¦\[ÅD ¶_ém ¼>EB Äâ¦\[ÅD ¨[® ¶¤B©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3
Tn
2.¶m¼k x½¡ïçá ¨|ÂïÂí½B cßÄ ¶ç\©A \u®D \ÂïáVâEl[ ¶ç¦BVáD.
3.åé[ ÄVìÍ> ¸«ßÄçªï^ *>Vª skV>Ý]uzD, ¶«EB_ ¶ç\©¸_ Ä⦺ïçá ÖBu®k>uzD,
]òÝmk>uzD, Ã]é¹Âï ï¦ç\Ã⦠tï¡D ÄÂ] kVFÍ> >á\Vï åV¦VÓ\[ż\ c^ám.
D) 1, 3
e/
65. Which of the following is the period of Monsoon session?
A) February - May B) July - August
C) November - December D) August - September
.m
parliament
2. It is the future course of action of the parliament in view of giving framework for new policies,
Programmes and initiatives of the government
s:
5
1.Äâ¦D, WìkVïD, À] \u®D g¥>©Ãç¦ gþB mçÅï¹[ ØÄB_ÃV|ïçá z½B«·Ý>çékì
¼\uÃVìçkl|þÅVì.
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2.¶«Äç\©Aß Ä⦺ïÓÂzâÃâ| ÖÝmçÅï^ ØÄB_Ã|kç> Ökì c®]©Ã|ÝmþÅVì.
3.ÖÍ]B åVâ½[ x¿ ¶«Äç\©A, ¸«]W]ÝmkD \u®D \VWé ØÄB_ÃV|ïçá ÎËØkVò
\õ¦éÝ]KD z½B«·Ý>çékì Wçé W®ÝmþÅVì.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
ps
69. Find the correct option from the following
1. The Republic of India is different from the Republic of the United States.
2.In practice, all real powers are vested with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
3. The Prime Minister acts as a symbol of national unity, integrity and solidarity .
A) 1, 2, 3
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVª íu® ¨m?
B) 1, 2
70. Choose the correct answer from the following regarding the Presidential Election.
1. The candidate must be nominated by at least 50 electors as proposers for the post of President.
2.The candidate should be endorsed by another 50 members of the Electoral college.
3.Each candidate has to pay Rs.20,000 as deposit in the Reserve Bank of India.
//t
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
z½B«·Ý >çékì ¼>ì>_ Ø>V¦ìÃVª ¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.z½B«·Ý>çékì Ã>sÂïVª zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD 50 ¼>ì¡Âz¿ kVÂïVáìïáV_ x[Ø\Va¡ ØÄFB©Ã¦
s:
¼kõ|D.
2.¼kâÃVáì ¼>ì¡Â z¿s[ 50 c®©¸ªìï^ JéD kaØ\VaB©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D.
3.ÎËØkVò ¼kâÃVáòD Ô.20,000 n ÖÍ]B öÄìË kºþl_ çk©A Ø>VçïBVï ï⦠¼kõ|D.
tp
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
71. The President is elected by members of Electoral College consisting of
1. Elected Members of both the Houses of Parliament
ht
5
2.JÝ> À]Ã] Ö_éV>¼ÃVm cßÄ À]\[ÅÝ][ >çéç\ À]Ã] ¶©Ã>s ¸«\VðÝç> ØÄFm
çkÂþÅVì.
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A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D
C) 1 \u®D 2 D) Ö«õ|D >k®
73. When did the court order to recite Thirukural verses for granting bail to three college students in
Mettupalayam?
ps
A) January 2018 B) March 2018
C) February 2019 D) October 2019
¼\â|©ÃVçáBÝ]_ J[® ï_Ùö \VðkìïÓÂz ¸çðBVï ]òÂzÅ^ ΩAsÂï ¼kõ|Ø\[®
WÃÍ>çª s]Ým À]\[ÅD ¨©¼ÃVm cÝ>«sâ¦m?
A) Ûªkö 2018
C) ¸©«kö 2019
B) \Vìß 2018
Tn
D) ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2019
74. Statement 1: Smritis were invoked in trial as well as in awarding punishments in Kingdoms which
came under Brahmanical influence,.
e/
Statement 2: Narada Smriti was held as the core smriti
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct
C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
.m
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
75. Choose the correct option.
1.Diwan - e - Qaza - Arbitrator
s:
C) 2, 3 correct D) 1, 3 correct
ÄöBVª ÖçðçBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.]kV[ Š Ö Š zkVÄV Š å|kì
ht
5
yì\VªxD °u®ÂØïV^á©Ã|þÅm.
2.\VWé ¶«ÄVºïD Öm Ø>V¦ìÃVï x[kç«¡ Wçżku¤ z½B«·Ý>çékö[ ΩA>KÂz
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¶Ð©AD¼ÃVm ¸«>\ì Öm Ø>V¦ìÃVª >M x[kç«¡ Î[¤çª ÖBuÅ ÃöÍmç« ØÄFkVì.
3.¸Åz åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ x[kç«¡ ÖBu¤ >ªÂz ¶Ð©Ã©Ã|D¼ÃVm gÓåì ΩA>_ ¶¹©ÃVì.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
78. Choose the correct answer about Nation.
ps
1. The word "Nation" comes from Latin
2. This concept conveyed the idea of common blood ties.
3. According to the older view, a nation need not necessarily be a State
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
¼>ÄD z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
Tn
1.¼>ÄD ¨[® ØÃVò^Ã|D “nation” ¨[Å ÖéÝy[ Ø\ValoòÍm kÍ>>VzD.
2.¶çªkòD Îò Ö«Ý> ÃÍ>D cç¦Bkì ¨ªÅ ØÃVò¹_ ÖÍ> ïòÝmò còkVªm.
3.Ãwç\ ïòÝm©Ã½ Îò ¼>ÄD ¶«Ä«Vï ÖòÂï ¼kõ½B ¼>çk Ö_çé ¨[Ã>VzD.
e/
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1. 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
79. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of a Nation?
1. Race and language community 2. The resultant of many forces
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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2, 3, 4 D) 3, 4
80. Which is correct statement about Governor?
1.Governor is appointed on the advice of Central Cabinet Ministers.
tp
5
D) Chambal valley project - Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
ÖÍ]BV Š Ã_¼åVÂz gu®© Ã^áÝ>VÂzÝ ]â¦D \u®D ¶>[ ÃBªç¦¥D \VWéºï^ ÄVìÍ>
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>ïk_ï¹_ >kÅVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ¼ïVE ]â¦D Š ¬ïVì \u®D ¼åÃVáD
B) é>þö ¶çð Š cÝ>«ïVõâ
C) åVïVìɪÄVïì ]â¦D Š gÍ]«©¸«¼>ÄD
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D) ÄVDÃ_ Ã^áÝ>VÂzÝ ]â¦D Š gÍ]«©¸«¼>ÄD \u®D ïìåV¦ïV
82. Choose the correct pair regarding the seasons
1.Winter season - January-February
2.Summer season
3.Southwest monsoon
4.Northeast monsoon
A)1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3
-
-
-
Tn
March, April, May
June-September
October-December
C) 1 2 4 D) 2 3 4
ïVéWçé Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
e/
1.z¹ìïVéD Š Ûªkö \u®D ¸©«kö
2.¼ïVç¦ÂïVéD Š \Vìß, °©«_, ¼\
3.Ø>[¼\uz© ÃòkÂïVu® Š É[ x>_ ØÄ©¦DÃì kç«
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B) The trees in this forest shed their leaves during the dry season
C) This forest type is found in the regions that receives heavy rainfall.
D) It is found in the upper slopes of Western Ghats of Tirunelveli, Kanniyakumari , the Nilgiris and
s:
Coimbatore districts.
>twïÝ][ ÷ç\ \VÅV ïV|ï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª kVÂþBºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) ÖËkçï ïV|ï^ ¼Äìk«VB[ \çé, ØïV_o\çé, ÃßçÄ\çé gþB Ãz]ï¹_
tp
ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū
B) ÖÂïV|ï¹_ c^á \«ºï^ ¼ïV禩 Ãòkºï¹_ >ºïám Öçéïçá c]ìÝm s|þ[Ū.
C) ÖËkçï ïV|ï^ ¶]ï \çw ØîD Ãz]ï¹_ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū
ht
5
ïV«ðD Š ÖD\çéï¹_ ¶]ï\Vª ¶á¡ °éÂïVF Ãlö¦©Ã|k>V_.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é.
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B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö ¼\KD íu¤Âz ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD gzD.
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö.
86. The state in which Nilgiri, Gulf of Mannar and Agasthiyarmalai biosphere reserve are situated at
ps
A) Kerala B)Punjab C)Sikkim D)Tamilnadu
Àéþö, \[ªVì kçáz¦V \u®D ¶ïÝ]Bì clì¼ïVá© ØÃâ¦ïD ¶ç\Ím^á \VWéD ¨m?
A) ¼ï«áV B) ÃÞÄV© C) EÂþD D) >tµåV|
87. Choose the correct statement regarding the disaster
Tn
Statement 1: A great damage or loss to lives and properties is called a disaster
Statement 2: A collapse of a mass of earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called a landslide
Statement 3: Tamilnadu is a tropical state. The high temperature during summer leads to occasional
forest fire in deciduous and thorn forests
e/
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 2
¼Ãö¦ìï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
íu® 1 Š clìïÓÂzD, c¦ç\ïÓÂzD ÖBuçïlªV_ °uÃ|D ¼Ã«a¡>V[ ¼Ãö¦ì ¨ª©Ã|þÅm.
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íu® 2 Š \çéï^ ¶_ém z[®ï¹_ Îò Ãz]¼BV ¶_ém ÃVçÅï¼áV ÄöÍm Tµ>_ WéßÄö¡
¨ª©Ã|þÅm.
íu® 3 Š >tµåV| Îò Øk©Ã \õ¦éÝ]_ c^á \VWéD ¼ïVç¦ÂïVéÝ]_ ¶]ï Øk©ÃD
ïV«ð\Vï Öçé¥]ì \u®D xâA>ì ïV|ï¹_ ¶Ëk©ØÃV¿m ïVâ|Ý y °uÃ|þÅm.
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 2
88. Pick out the international airports in tamilnadu
1.Chennai 2.Salem 3.Madurai 4.Trichy 5.Tuticorin
s:
A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 1 3 4 C) 1 2 3 D) 2 3 4 5
>tµåVâ½_ c^á s\Vª WçéBºï¹_ Äìk¼>Ä s\Vª WçéBºïçá ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. ØÄ[çª 2. ¼ÄéD 3. \mç« 4. ]òßE 5. #ÝmÂz½
tp
A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 1 3 4 C) 1 2 3 D) 2 3 4 5
89. Assertion : Goat rearing can be made by Small and marginal farmers
Reason :Due to very low investments, High profit motive due to goat rearing
ht
5
a) Tamilnadu Newsprint and Papers limited - 1. Silk weaving centre
b) Tamilnadu cement corporation - 2. Chennai
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c) Nanguneri - 3. SEZ
d) Arani - 4. TNPL
e) Central Leather research institute - 5. TANCEM
a b c d e
ps
A) 4 5 3 2 1
B) 5 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4 5
D) 4
ØÃVòÝmï.
5 3 1 2
Tn
a) >tµåV| ØÄF]Ý>V^ \u®D ïVþ> W®kªD Š 1. Ãâ|ØåÄ¡ ç\BD
b) >tµåV| EØ\õâ ïwïD Š 2. ØÄ[çª
c) åVºz¼åö Š 3. SEZ
e/
d) g«è Š 4. TNPL
e) \Ý]B ¼>V_ g«VFßE W®kªD Š 5. TANCEM
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a b c d e
A) 4 5 3 2 1
B) 5 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4 5
//t
D) 4 5 3 1 2
92. Choose the correct and incorrect statements of types and regions of agriculture practices in
Tamilnadu
s:
A) 1 is false 2, 3 is true
B) 1, 2 is false 3 is true
C) 1, 2 is true 3is false
ht
D) 1 is true 2, 3 is false
>tµåVâ½[ ¼káVõ xçÅï^ \u®D Ãz]ï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm \u®D
>kÅVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
íu® 1 Š ys« >[MçÅ¡ ¼káVõç\ Š >tµåV| x¿kmD
íu® 2 Š ¼>V⦠¼káVõç\ Š ¼\uz þwÂzÝ Ø>V¦ìßE \çéßÄö¡ï^
íu® 3 Š ïé©A ¼káVõç\ Š ïVsö \u®D Ø>[ ØÄ[çª gu®©Ã|çïï^.
A) 1 >k® 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® 3 Äö
C) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® D) 1 Äö 2, 3 >k®
5
94. Assertion :Activities which by themselves do not produce goods, but support the process of
production are called tertiary activities
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Reason : People engaged in tertiary activities are fully active in the favour of environment
A) Both assertion and statements are true
B) Both assertion and statements are false
C) Assertion is true reason is false
ps
D) Assertion is false reason is true
íu® Š J[ÅVD WçéÝ Ø>Vao_ ØÃVòâï^ ¼å«½BVï cuÃÝ] ØÄFB©Ã¦V\_ cuÃÝ]
ØÄFk>uïVª ØÄB_ xçÅï¹_ c®mçðBVï c^ám.
ïV«ðD Š J[ÅVD WçéÝ Ø>Vao_ ~|Ã|D \Âï^ x¿ç\BVï ·u®ß ówKÂzß ÄV>ï\Vï
ØÄB_Ã|þ[ÅVìï^.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
Tn
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
95. Choose the correct and incorrect statements of classification of Urban settlements
e/
Statement 1:Town -It has a population of less than 1 lakh
Statement 2: City -The population in cities are estimated to more than 1 lakh
Statement 3:Metropolitan cities-It has a population between five lakhs to ten lakhs
.m
96. According to the quality of living rankings by Consultancy mercer in 2016, Which city offering the
best quality of life?
A) Zurich B) Vienna C) Denmark D) Canada
ht
2016 gD gõ½[ UNESCO s[ Ø\ìÄì >ïko[ ý \Âï^ EÅÍ> kVµÂçïÝ >«Ýç>© ØÃu®
kVµÍm kòk]_ ¨Í> åV| x>o¦D kþÝ>m.
A) óöß B) sB[ªV C) ئ[\Vì D) 益V
97. India share of tribal people to total population is_________%
A) 8 B) 9 C)8.2 D) 8.4
ÖÍ]BVs[ Ø\VÝ> \Âï^ Ø>Vçïl_ Ãwºz½lªì ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ Ä>T>D gzD.
A) 8 B) 9 C) 8.2 D) 8.4
5
A) ¼>V¦ìï^, ¶ºïVt, ïVE B) ïVE, ¼>V¦ìï^, ¶ºïVt
C) ¶ºïVt, ïVE, ¼>V¦ìï^ D) ïVE, ¶ºïVt, ¼>V¦ìï^
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99. Which of the following languages is not associated with eighth schedule of the Indian constitution?
A) Kannada B) Tamil
C) English D) Urdu
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨â¦Vkm ¶â¦kçðl_ z¤©¸â¦ Ø\Vaï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç> ïõ¦¤ï.
ps
A) ï[ª¦D B) >tµ
C) gºþéD D) còm
100. Which of the following information is incorrect regarding the characteristics of races of Mongoloid
A) Skin Colour - Saffron to Yellow brown, Reddish brown
B) Stature
C) Blood group
D) Body build
- More A than B
Tn
- Medium tall to medium short
C) Ö«Ý>kçï Š B n s¦ A ¶]ïD
D) c¦_ ¶ç\©A Š ÃÂïkVâ½_ ¶ç\Í>, ¼å«Vª
101. Match the following hazards based on their origin
a) Hydrologic hazard - 1. Lightning
//t
B) 5 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4 5
ht
D) 4 1 2 5 3
¼>VuÅÝ][ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ còkVzD Ö¦ìïçá ÄöBVï ØÃVòÝmï.
a b c d e
a) ÀöB_ Š 1. t[ª_ A) 4 1 2 3 5
b) k¹\õ¦éD Š 2. ïV¦a©A B) 5 4 3 2 1
c) ·u®ßów_ Š 3. ¶çðï^ C) 1 2 3 4 5
d) clöB_ Š 4. ï¦uïç« ¶ö©A D) 4 1 2 5 3
e) Ø>Va_OâÃD Š 5. s− ¼>ÌÂï^
5
3. \M> ïV«èï^ Š xçÅBuÅ ¼káVõ xçÅï^, ¶çðï^ cç¦>_
A) 1 3 B) 1 2 3 C) 2 D) 2 3
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103. Assertion :Drought in India occur in the event of failure of monsoon
Reason : Generally monsoon rainfall is uneven in India
A) Assertion is true reason is false
B) Assertion and reason are true
ps
C) Assertion is false reason is true
D) Assertion and reason are false
íu® Š ÖÍ]BVs_ Ãòk\çw ØÃVF©Ã>V_ kÅâE °uÃ|þÅm.
ïV«ðD Š ØÃVmkVï ÖÍ]BVs_ Ãòk\çw Ä\ßæ«uÅ Wçél_ ØÃVaþÅm.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
Tn
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
D) íu®D ïV«ð\D >k®
104. Which of the following is not associated with Natural Hazards?
A) Storms B) Cyclones C) Drought D) Oil leakage
e/
ÖBuçïBV_ °uÃ|D Ö¦ìï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) óÅVk¹ B) AB_ï^ C) kÅâE D) ¨õØðF ïE¡
105. Match the following
.m
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 2 4 3
s:
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
tp
5
2.Bangalore - Karnataka
3.Gurgaon - New Delhi
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4.Jaipur - Rajasthan
A) 1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C)1 3 4 D) 1 2 4
ÖÍ]BVs_ 8 ØÃò å﫺ï¹_ Ø\⼫V Ö«ÃV_ ¼Äçk kwºï©Ã|þÅm ¶]_ ÄöBVï
ØÃVòÝ>©Ãâ|^áç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
ps
1. ØïV_ïÝ>V Š ¼\uz kºïáVD
2. Øúïjì Š ïìåV¦ïV
3. zìï¼BV[ Š Amئ_o
4. ØÛF¯ì Š Ö«VÛü>V[
A) 1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C) 1 3 4
Tn D) 1 2 4
108. Which of the following statement is correct and incorrect about population?
Statement 1:Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India.
Statement 2: Bihar is the most densely populated state of India.
e/
Statement 3:Goa is the least populous state in India.
Statement 4:Sikkim is the least densely populated state in India.
A) 1, 2, 3 is true 4 is false B) 1, 2 is false 3, 4 is true
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C) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k® D) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
109. Assertion : Urbanization is the most important problem in India.
Reason :Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas.
tp
5
B) South Central railway - Secunderabad
C) West Central railway - Hazipur
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D) South eastern railway - Kolkatta
ÿ¼w ØÃVòÝ>©Ãâ|^á Ö«l_¼k \õ¦éºï¹[ >çéç\l¦ºï¹_ Î[® >kÅVï c^ám ¶m
¨m ¨[Ãç> ÄöBVï ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï
A) ¼\uz Ö«l_¼k Š xDçÃ
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B) Ø>[ \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k Š ØÄ[çª
C) ¼\uz \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k Š ÇE©¯ì
D) Ø>[þwÂz Ö«l_¼k Š ØïV_ïÝ>V
112. Which one of the following is correct about the headquarters of railway zones?
1.Northern Railway
2.North-central railway
3.Eastern railway
-
-
-
Newdelhi
Jaipur
Kolkatta
Tn
4.North eastern railway - Gorakhpur
e/
A) 1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C) 1 3 4 D) 2 3 4
ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á Ö«l_¼k \õ¦éºï¹[ >çéç\l¦ºï¹_ ¨m ÄöBVï
ØÃVòÝ>©Ãâ|^ám.
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A) 1 2 3 4 B) 1 2 3 C) 1 3 4 D) 2 3 4
113. Match the following
a) Nationalization of railways - 1. 1972
s:
a b c d
A) 4 2 3 1
B) 3 4 1 2
ht
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 2 3 1 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a) Ö«l_¼k ¼>EB \B\VÂïD Š 1. 1972 A) 4 2 3 1
b) AAI mkºï©Ã⦠kò¦D Š 2. 1995 B) 3 4 1 2
c) NHAI Š 3. 1995 C) 1 2 3 4
d) ¶ÞÄ_ z¤Xâ| ¨õ ¶¤xïD Š 4. 1952 D) 2 3 1 4
5
A) 1 2 3 Äö B) 1 2 Äö C) 2 3 Äö D) 1 3 Äö
115. Which of the following are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose?
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A) KALPANA-1 B) EDUSAT C) HAMSAT D)All the above
>ïk_ Ø>V¦ì¸uïVï ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã|D xÂþB ØÄBuçï¼ïV^ ¨çk?
A) ï_êV 1 B) ¨ýÄVâ
C) ¼ÇDÄVâ D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
ps
116. Which one of the following is wrong about major problems of urbanization in India?
A) It creates water scarcity
B) It decreases the traffic congestion
C) It creates drainage problem
Tn
D) It poses the problem of solid waste management
ÖÍ]BVs_ åï«\B\VÂïéV_ °uÃ|D ¸«ßÄçªï¹_ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) z½Àì ÃuÅVÂzçÅçB °uÃ|Ýmþ[Åm. B) ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ØåöÄçé zçÅÂþÅm.
C) k½ïV_ ¸«ßÄçªï^ cõ¦Vþ[Ū. D) ]¦Âïa¡ ¼\éVõç\çB EÂïéVÂþÅm.
e/
117. Assertion : Unemployment is gradually increase in India.
Reason :Growing population is one of the major factor.
A) Assertion is true reason is false
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which is correct?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 1, 2 D) None of the above
1. ØÃVmÝ >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA Š ÖÍ> ¶ç\©A μ« ¼å«Ý]_ éâÄÂïðÂïVª \Âï^ >ïk_ïçá
Øîk>VzD Öm ï_s \u®D ØÃV¿m ¼ÃVÂz ¶Dĺïçá kwºzD EÅÍ> kaBVzD.
2. >M\M> >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA Š ÖÍ> ¶ç\©A >M åÃìïÓÂþ禼BBVª >ïk_ Ãö\VuÅD gzD.
Ö> ¶ÞÄ_ ¼Äçk, >Í], Ø>Vç驼ÃE, ç塚ÃE ¼ÃV[Åçkïçá c^á¦ÂþBm.
¼\uïõ¦ kVÂþBºï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 1, 2 D) ¨m¡D Ö_çé
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 43 þçáï^...
119. Match the following
a) Bilateral trade - 1. Domestic territory of country trade
b) Internal trade - 2. Domestic trade
c) Local trade - 3. Trade between two countries
d) Multilateral trade - 4. Trade between many countries
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
5
D) 3 1 2 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
c8
a) Bilateral Trade Š 1. c^åVâ| kèïD A) 3 2 1 4
b) Internal trade Š 2. c^jì kèïD B) 1 2 3 4
c) Local trade Š 3. ÖòÝ>«©A kèïD C) 4 3 2 1
ps
d) Multilateral trade Š 4. Ã_>«©A kèïD D) 3 1 2 4
120. Assertion :Irrigation is important to carry out agricultural activities.
Reason :Being a hot country with seasonal and irregular rainfall,it always need irrigation.
A) Both assertion and reason are true ,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true
Tn
C) Both assertion and reason are true ,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
D) Both assertion and reason are false
íu® Š ¼káVõ å¦k½Âçïïçá ¼\uØïV^á Àì©ÃVĪ ¶Ý]BVkEB\Vª Î[ÅVï ÖòþÅm.
e/
ïV«ðD Š ÖÍ]BVs_ ¶]ïýBVª Øk©ÃxD \u®D æ«uÅ \çw©ØÃVa¡D Öò©Ã>V_ Àì©ÃVĪD
¶kEB\Vï c^ám.
A) íu®D Äö ïV«ðxD Äö ¼\KD ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂzþÅm.
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B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö ¼\KD íuçÅ ïV«ðD sáÂïs_çé.
D) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
121. Match the following:
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A) 1 4 5 2 3
B) 1 4 5 3 2
C) 5 4 3 2 1
ht
D) 1 2 3 4 5
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a) ØÄD\õ Š 1. 28 A) 1 4 5 2 3
b) kõ¦_ \õ Š 2. 1.29 B) 1 4 5 3 2
c) Ä«çá \õ Š 3. 29.69 C) 5 4 3 2 1
d) ïöÄ_ \õ Š 4. 22.16 D) 1 2 3 4 5
e) c©AÂïV«\õ Š 5. 2.62
5
íu® 2 Š ¶ç\©AÄVì ïV«èï^ Š ¼káVõ WéÝ][ ¶á¡, Wé cöç\ xçÅ \u®D
WéßæìÝ]òÝ>ºï^
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íu® 3 Š câïâ¦ç\©A ïV«èï^ Š TöB sç>ï^, Ö«ÄVBª c«ºï^, ¯ßE ØïV_oï^
A) 1 2 3 B) 2 3
C) 1 2 D) 1 3
123. Which of the following is correct and incorrect regarding the different names of shifting agriculture
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in different regions of India?
1.Assam - Jhum
2.Podu - Madhya Pradesh
3.Poonam - Kerala
4.Penda - Andhra Pradesh
A) 1,2 is true 3,4 is false
C) 1,2,3 is true 4 is false
Tn B) 1,3 is true 2,4 is false
D) 1,3,4 is true 2 is false
ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á ¼káVõç\l[ Ã_¼k® ØÃBìï¹_ >k® \u®D ÄöBVªç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
e/
1. ¶ÄVD Š ýD 2. ØÃV| Š \Ý]B©¸«¼>ÄD
3. ØÃV[ªD Š ¼ï«áV 4. ØÃõ¦V Š gÍ]«©¸«¼>ÄD
A) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k® B) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k®
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C) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® D) 1, 3, 4 Äö 2 >k®
124. First livestock census in India was conducted with the title of Dairy Cattle census in ________
A) 1918 B) 1920
C) 1919 D) 1923
//t
ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ ïV_åç¦ ïðÂØï|©A ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ Ö_ tï zçÅÍ> ÃV_ Ãõçð ïV_åç¦ïÓ¦[
¨|Âï©Ãâ¦m
A) 1918 B) 1920 C) 1919 D) 1923
s:
125. Assertion: Tribal people will leave their place in the forest and go to another place.
Reason :Due to declining soil fertility, after two or three years of cultivation in the wild.
A) Both assertion and reason are true, reason not explains the assertion
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íu® Š Ãwºz½ Öª \Âï^ ïV|ï¹_ >ºï^ Öò©¸¦Ýç> sâ| ¼kØÅVò Ö¦Ý]uzß ØÄ_kì.
ïV«ðD Š ïV|ï¹_ Ö«õ¦ ¶_ém J[® gõ|ï^ ÄVz©Ã½Âz© ¸Åz \õè[ káD
zçÅk>V_.
A) íu®D ïV«ð\D Äö ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂïs_çé.
B) íu®D ïV«ð\D >k®
C) ïV«ðD Äö íu® >k®
D) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
5
d) ¼>Vâ¦Âïçé© Ãlìï¹_ Š 4. ¼ïVmç\ D) 1 3 4 2
127. Which of the following is correct regarding the list of important agricultural revolutions in India?
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1.Blue revolution - Fish Production
2.Goldenfibre revolution - Jute Production
3.Grey revolution - Fertilizers
4.Silver revolution - Cotton
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5.White revolution - Milk production
A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 1 2 3 5 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 2 3 4 5
ÖÍ]BVs[ xÂþB ¼káVõ A«âEï^ ÄVìÍ> >ïk_ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. Àé©A«âE Š *[ï^ cuÃÝ]
2. ïºï ±oçw©A«âE Š Äð_ cuÃÝ]
3. ÄVDÃ_ A«âE Š c«ºï^
4. Øk^¹©A«âE Š ÃòÝ]
5. Økõç\© A«âE Š ÃV_ cuÃÝ]
Tn
e/
A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 1 2 3 5 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 2 3 4 5
128. Which of the following scheme has been implemented to get more production by using water
saving and conservation technologies?
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129. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the types of farming?
Statement 1:Intensive farming - It is an agricultural intensification and mechanization
system that aims to maximize yields.
s:
íu® 1 Š ys« ¼káVõç\ Š Öm ÖBÍ]«ºï^ \u®D Ã_¼k® åTª ¥Â]ï^ JéD cuÃÝ]çB
¶]ï©Ã|Ýmk>VzD.
íu® 2 Š kÅõ¦ Wé ¼káVõç\ Š ÖÍ]BVs_ ïè\Vª skÄVlï^ ÖÍ> ¼káVõç\ xçÅçB
¸[Ãu®þÅVìï^.
íu® 3 Š ïé©A ¼káVõç\ ¨[Ãm Ãlö|>K¦[ ïV_åç¦káì©A, ¼>Ìkáì©A ¼ÃV[ÅkuçÅ
c^á¦ÂþB>VzD.
íu® 4 Š ýÂïâ| xçÅ ¼káVõç\ Š ÖDxçÅBVªm \ç驸«¼>ĺï¹_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3 C) 3, 4 D) 2
5
záºïçá¥D c^á¦ÂþBm.
3. ØÄVâ| Àì©ÃVĪD Š Ö> tï¡D ¨¹ç\BVª \u®D ·éÃ\Vª Àì©ÃVĪ kçïBVzD.
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A) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® B) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k® C) 1, 3 >k® 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k® 3 Äö
131. Which is the second most important food crop of the country after rice?
A) Wheat B) Sugarcane C) Bajra D) Barley
Øå_ ÃlòÂz ¶|Ý>>Vï Ö«õ¦Vkm xÂþB cð¡©Ãlì ¨m?
ps
A) ¼ïVmç\ B) ïòDA C) ¼ÄVáD D) ÃVìo
132. Match the following:
a) Sugar Bowl of the world - 1. West Bengal
b) Jute Production - 2. Cuba
c)
d)
e)
BOHEA
Poor man’s cow
Indigenous plant of Africa
Tn
- 3. China
- 4. Bajra
- 5. Goats
a b c d e
e/
A) 2 1 5 4 3
B) 2 1 3 5 4
C) 2 3 4 5 1
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D) 2 5 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a) céþ[ ÄìÂïç« þõðD Š 1. ¼\uz kºïD A) 2 1 5 4 3
b) Äð_ cuÃÝ] Š 2. þRÃV B) 2 1 3 5 4
//t
c) ¯þ Š 3. æªV C) 2 3 4 5 1
d) °çw \Âï¹[ ÷ Š 4. ¼ÄVáD D) 2 5 3 4 1
s:
5
D. A is false and R is true
íu® : Àéþö >tµåVâ½[ zçÅÍ> \Âï^Ø>Vçï ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦D.
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ïV«ðD : Öm >tµåVâ½[ ¼\uz Ãz]l_ ¶ç\Ím^ám.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD.
B) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD íu®Âz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
ps
D) íu® >k® gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
137. Match the following. a b c d
a.Bauxite – 1. Perambalur A) 4 2 1 3
b.Gypsum
c.Iron
d.Limestone
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. ÃVÂçvâ Š
– 2. Virudhunagar
– 3. Servarayan Hills
– 4. Kanjamalai
1. ØëDÃÙì
Tn B)
C)
D)
A)
3
1
1
a
4
2
3
2
b
2
4
4
4
c
1
1
2
3
d
3
e/
b. ÷©vD Š 2. sòmåïì B) 3 2 4 1
c. ÖòDA Š 3. ¼Äìk«VB[ z[®ï^ C) 1 3 4 2
d. ·õðVDAÂï_ Š 4. ïÞÄ\çé D) 1 2 4 3
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A) ÃÝ>\ç¦ Š ÃVF
B) °Ý¼>V Ø\Va Š ¼>ºïVF
C) ÃkVM Š \ÞÄ^
s:
D) g«è Š Ãâ|
139. Choose the following which is correctly matched one.
tp
5
142. Who revolutionized the thought of Macro economics?
A) Adam Smith B) Karl Marx C)A.J.Keynes D)J.R.Brown
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¼ÃöB_ ØÃVò¹B_ EÍ>çªl_ A«âEçB °uÃ|Ý]Bkì?
A) g¦D ütÝ B) ïV«_ \Vìü C) A.J. ÿ[ü D) J.R.¸«¡õ
143. In Underdeveloped countries,which part of the economics contribute in the book “The General
ps
Theory of employment ,Interest and Money”?
A)Sarvodaya B)Macro C)National income D)Micro
x[¼ªuÅD ¶ç¦BV> åV|ï¹_ x>Ü|, kò\VªD \u®D ØÃòÂþ gþBku®Âz
Ö禼BBVª Ø>V¦ìA ¨[Å AÝ>ïD ¨Í> ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]uz z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï ú﹩çÃ
kwºþBm.
A) Äì¼kV>BV
A)Mixed economics
B) ¼ÃöB_ Tn
C) åVâ| kò\VªD D) OõèB_
144. The inequality of Capitalism and inefficiency of socialism are found in
B)Socialist economicsC)Macro economics D)None of the above
x>éV¹ÝmkÝ][ Ä\Ýmkt[ç\¥D Ä\>ì\D ]Åç\l[ç\¥D ¨Í> ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]_
e/
ïVð©Ã|þÅm?
A) ïé©A ØÃVòáV>V«D B) Ä\Ýmk ØÃVòáV>V«D
C) ¼ÃöB_ ØÃVòáV>V«D D) ¨m¡t_çé
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145. Which of the following bank acts as the head office for all agricultural loans?
A)State cooperative bank B)Central Cooperative bank
C)Primary agricultural cooperative societies D)NABARD
¶çªÝm skÄVB ï¦[ïÓÂïVª >çéç\ ¶ç\©ÃVï ØÄB_Ã|D kºþ
//t
5
ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][ ¶½©Ãç¦.
A) íu® ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö, íu®ÂïVª ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
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B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö, íu®ÂïVª ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é.
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k® D) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
149. National income is a measure of the __________performance of an economy.
A)Economic B)Production C)Consumption D)Industrial
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Îò åVâ½[ ¼>EB kò\VªD ¶ÍåVâ½[ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ å¦k½Âçïïçá kwºzþÅm.
A) ØÃVòáV>V«D B) cuÃÝ] C) Oïì¡ D) Ø>Va_
150. Match the following: a b c d
a. Production Method - 1. Final inventory –Initial InventoryA) 2 1 4 3
b.
c.
d.
Income Method
Expenditure Method
Balance mode
Tn
- 2. Total expenditure method
- 3. Factor earning method
- 4. value added method
B)
C)
D)
3
4
1
4
3
2
2
2
3
1
1
4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
e/
a. cuÃÝ] xçÅ Š 1. Ö®] Ä«Âz Š Ø>V¦Âï Ä«Âz A) 2 1 4 3
b. kò\Vª xçÅ Š 2. Ø\VÝ> ØÄé¡ xçÅ B) 3 4 2 1
c. ØÄé¡ xçÅ Š 3. åï« ïV«è kòkVF C) 4 3 2 1
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A) ØåþµßE¥ç¦Bm B) Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm
C) ÎÝ> >[ç\¥ç¦Bm D) ¨m¡t_çé
153. Assertion :Keynes introduced the general theory of employment, interest and money.
ht
5
155. Online banking is also known as
A)Internet banking B)Speed banking C)Direct banking D)Development bank
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WïµWçé ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ kºþ xçÅl[ \®ØÃBì.
A) ÖçðB kºþ B) ¼kï kºþ C) ¼å«½ kºþxçÅ D) káìßE kºþ
156. Choose the correct statement regarding the reserve bank of India
1.Formed on April 1,1935 in accordance with the RBI act 1934
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2.It is the central bank/regulator for all bank in India
3.Regulator of Indian Banking system
4.Governors and five deputy governors along with a central board of directors appointed by the GOI
A)1,2 is true B)1,3,4 is true C)1,2,3 is true D)All are true
öÄìË kºþ Ãu¤B íu®ïçá ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï. Tn
1. 1934D gõ| Ä⦠s]©Ã½ 1935 gD gõ| °©«_ 1D ¼>] ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m.
2. ç\B kºþ (\) \uÅ ÖÍ]B kºþï¹[ Øå¤BVáì
3. ÖÍ]B kºþ ¶ç\©Aïçá Ø天Ã|Ým>_
e/
4. gÓåì, nÍm mçð gÓåìï^ \u®D ç\B ¶«ÄV_ WBtÂï©Ã|D ç\B WìkVï
z¿ c®©¸ªìï^.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö
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C) 1, 2,3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
157. Exchange rates are determined in
A)Money market B)Foreign exchange market
C)Stock market D)Capital market
//t
C)Factor-Proporations - Heckscher-Ohlin
D)International product life cycle - J.S.Mill
ØÃVòÍ>V> ÖçðçBÂ ïVõï.
A) x¿ å[ç\ Š g¦D ütÝ
B) Ω¬â| å[ç\ Š ¼¦sâ öÂïV켦V
C) ïV«è Äö sþ>ïD Š ØÇÂÄì {o[
D) Ã[ªVâ| ØÃVò¹[ kVµÂçï Š ¼Û.¨ü.t_
5
A)GeraldM.Meier B)Morris D.Morris
C)Keynes D)Joseph
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kVèà T>Ýç> Ã_¼k® kçïïáVï kçï©Ã|Ý]Bkì
A) ØÛª«_ ¨D Ø\FBì B) ¼\Vöü ½ ¼\Vöü
C)ÿ[ü D) ¼ÛVÄ©
162. Which of the following is correct regarding the objectives of state bank?
ps
1.Reconstruction and development
2.Encouraging capital investment
3.Encouraging the foreign trade
4.Protection of Environment
A)1 2 3 is true B) 2 3 4 is true
céï kºþl[ ¼åVÂïºï¹_ ÄöBVªçkï^ ¨m?
1. \® æ«ç\©A \u®D ¼\DÃV|
Tn C) 2 3 is true D) 1 2 3 4 is true
5
B) åéD ÄVìÍ> ¶bzxçÅ
C) Ãwç\BVª \u®D åé[ ÄVìÍ> ¶bzxçÅ
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D) ¨m¡t_çé
168. Assertion :The financial system is the most efficient and well structured banking system in a
Country.
Reason : An orderly cash market provides the necessary capital
ps
A)Assertion and reason are true,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B)Assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C)Assertion is true,reason is false D)Assertion is false,reason is true
íu®: W]lB_ xçÅ ¨[Ãm Îò åVâ½_ ]Åç\BVª \u®D EÅÍ> xçÅl_
ïâ¦ç\Âï©Ã⦠kºþ xçÅl[çªÂ ØïVõ¦>VzD. Tn
ïV«ðD: οºzÅ ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠Ã𠶺ïV½BVªm ¼>çkBVª Jé>ªÝç>
kwºzþÅm.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö, íu®Âz ïV«ðD Ä«BVª sáÂïD
e/
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö, íu®Âz ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
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B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 1 4 3
tp
D) 1 4 3 2
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. gõ|Ý]â¦D Š 1. ]â¦Ýç> ØÄB_Ã|Ý>Ý ¼>çkBVª W]çB Ãð
\]©¸_ ÎmÂÿ| ØÄF¥D ]â¦t¦_
ht
5
A)Demand,Supply B)Demand,Income C)Supply,Profit D)None of the above
k®ç\l[ åß· ·wuE ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ ÃÂïÝ]oòÍm ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ ÃÂïÝ]oòÍm ØÄB_Ã|þªÅª.
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A) ¼>çk ¶¹©A B) ¼>çk kòkVF
C) ¶¹©A, ÖéVÃD D)¨m¡t_çé
172. Choose the correct one
1.National income is the monetary value of all final goods and services
ps
2.Depreciation is subtracted from total value to obtain net value
A)1 only B)2 only C)Both D)None of the above
ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1. ¼>EB kò\Vª\Vªm ¶çªÝm Ö®]©ØÃVòâï^ \u®D ¼Äçkï¹[ åVðB \]©A
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D
173. Density of population=
A)Land area/Total Population
C) Ö«õ|D
Tn
2. Wï« \]©A ØÃÅ ¼>F\VªD Ø\VÝ> \]©¸oòÍm ïaÂï©Ã|þÅm.
D)¨m¡t_çé
B)Land area/Employment
e/
C)Total Population/Land area of the region D)Total population/employment
\Âï^ Ø>Vçï ¶¦ìÝ] ¨[Ãm
A) WéÝ][ ¶á¡/ \Âï^ Ø>Vçï B) WéÝ][ ¶á¡/¼kçé kVF©A
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3.The foundation principle is to change the capitalist system and create an egalitarian society
4.India has excellent capitalist experiences
A) 2,3,4 is true B)1,2,3 is true C)1,3,4 is true D)1,2,4 is true
s:
5
A)1,3,4 is false B)1,2 is false C)3,4 is false D) 2,4 is false
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªçkÂïçá ïVõï. x[¼ª¤B åV|ï¹[ ÖB_Aï^?
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1. cBìÍ> åVâ| kò\VªD káìßE 2. cBìÍ> >MåÃì kò\VªD
3. zçÅÍ> ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE 4. Ãz]¼å« ¼kçékVF©A
A) 1, 3, 4 >k® B) 1, 2 >k® C) 3, 4 >k® D)1, 2, 4 >k®
178. Which of the following is correct regarding the characteristics of Tamilnadu economy?
ps
1.Tamilnadu is the second largest contributor to India’s GDP
2.Tamilandu has a highest gross enrolment ratio in higher education
3.Has highest ranks first on investment proposals filed by MSMEs
4.Poverty reduction in Tamilnadu has been faster than that in many other states
A)1,2 is true
C)1,2,3,4 is true
Tn
>tµåVâ½[ ØÃVòáV>V« EÅ©¸B_Aï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï?
B)1,2,3 is true
D)1,3,4 is true
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö
C)1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D)1, 3, 4 Äö
179. Match the following: a b c d
a. Manganese -1. Kanjamalai A) 2 3 4 1
//t
ØÃVòÝmï. (]⦺ï^) a b c d
\VºïÌ· Š 1. ïÞÄ\çé A) 2 3 4 1
ÃVÂçÄâ Š 2. ¼ÄéD B) 4 1 3 2
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5
3. ¼kçékVF©A còkVÂïD zçÅ¡
4. gÂï\uÅ cuÃÝ] ØÄé¡ ¶]ïö©A
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A) 1, 2, 4 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D)1, 3, 4 Äö
182. “An Indian farmer is born in debt,lives in debt,dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-Who said this?
A)Adam smith B)Gandhi C)Amartyasen D)Sir Malcolom Darling
""ÖÍ]B skÄVl 寧V¹BVï ¸ÅÍm, 寧V¹BVï ¸ÅÍm, 寧V¹BVï kVµÍm 寧V¹BVï ÖÅÍm
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ï¦çª¼B ÄÍ>]Âz s¦|ßØÄ_þÅV["" ÖßØÄVuØÅV¦ç« í¤Bkì BVì?
A) g¦D ütÝ B) ïVÍ] C) ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[ D)Äì \V_ïD ¦Vìoº
183. Match the following:
a. 20 Points scheme - 1. 1989
b.
c.
d.
Jawahar employment scheme
PradhanMantriAadharsh Gram Sadak
Food for work programme
a b c d
Tn - 2. 1977
- 3. 2010
- 4. 1975
e/
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 4 1 3 2
C) 1 3 4 2
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D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. (]⦺ï^)
a. 20 ¶DÄ ]â¦D Š 1. 1989
b. ÛÇì ¼kçékVF©A ]â¦\ Š 2. 1977
//t
B) 4 1 3 2
C) 1 3 4 2
D) 1 2 3 4
tp
184. Which of the following is not associated with Ninth five year plan
A)Providing primary health care facilities
B)Providing safe drinking water to all
ht
5
D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
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a. Ã[ªVâ| kVèÃÝ][ *>Vª ØÃVm ΩÃÍ>D Š 1. 1966
b. céï kìÝ>ï ¶ç\©A Š 2. 1945
c. gEB káìßE kºþ Š 3. 1948
d. \Vo©½ªD Š 4. 1995
ps
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 2 1 4 3
186. Three year annual plans formed in the year
A)1965-1968 B)1966-1969
Tn C)1967-1970 D)1968-1971
ÖÍ]BVs_ J[® gõ|ï^ gõ|Ý]â¦D åç¦xçÅ Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦ïVéD
e/
A) 1965 Š 1968 B) 1966 Š 1969 C) 1967 Š 1970 D)1968 Š 1971
187. Which of the following is the important of Industrialization?
A)Increasing employment opportunities
.m
B)Promote Capital
C)Attaining economic growth
D)Raising the per capita income
Ø>Vau\B\VÂz>_ Ö>uz tï xÂþB\Vªm gzD.
//t
A) ¼kçékVF©çé ØÃòÂz>_
B) Jé>ªÝç>Ý #õ|>_
C) ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE ¶ç¦>_
s:
5
4.It gives more importance on maternal health only
A)1,2,3 is true B)2,4 is true C)All are true D)1,2,4 is true
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¼>EB »«ï åé ¶ç\©A Ãu¤B íu®ï^ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1. ¼>EB »«ï åé ¶ç\©A (NRHM) °©«_ 12, 2005 gD gõ| g«D¸Âï©Ãâ¦m.
2. åokç¦Í> »«ï \ÂïÓÂz >«\Vª g¼«VÂþB kÄ]ïçá¥D, c¦_ åéÝç>
yì\VMÂzD ïV«èïçá¥D åé sW¼BVï xçÅçB °uÃ|Ýmk¼> ÖÍ> ¶ç\©¸[
ps
xÂþB ¼åVÂïD.
3. >VFç\©¼Ã®, E· (\) zwÍç> \u®D káì ÖáD ÃòkÝ]ªö[ åéÐÂïVª Ã_¼k®
Ãèïçá ¼\uØïV^þÅm.
4. \塚î åéÐÂz \â|¼\ ¶]ï xÂþBÝmkD kwºï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö
C) íu® ¶çªÝmD Äö
Tn
B) íu® 2, 4 Äö
D)íu® 1, 2, 4 Äö
192. Which of the following statement is incorrect with Sex ratio?
1.Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in quality of life of female population.
e/
2.The sex ratio of Tamilnadu is 99 %
3.It is higher compare to other states
4.In Sex ratio,tamilnadu stands next to Kerala
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5
íu® 1 : gEBVs[ åV[ïVkm xÂþB© ØÃVòáV>V«D ÖÍ]BVkVzD.
íu® 2 : 1948 \u®D 1956 gD gõ|ï¹_ °uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠Ø>VauØïV^çï E® (\) ØÃöB
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¶áséVª W®kªºïçá x[¼ªu¤Bm.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k® C) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
198. Match : a b c d e
a. Silver Revolution - 1. Tomato A) 1 2 3 4 5
ps
b. Red Revolution - 2. Leather goods B) 5 1 4 2 3
c. Gray - 3. Shrimp C) 2 4 5 1 3
d. Brown - 4. Fertilizers D) 2 4 1 3 5
e. Pink
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. Øk^¹©A«âE
b. Ek©A©A«âE
Š
Š
1.
2.
- 5. Egg
>ÂïV¹
¼>V_ ØÃVòâï^
Tn
A)
B)
a
1
5
b
2
1
c
3
4
d
4
2
e
5
3
e/
c. ÄVDÃ_ Š 3. ÖÅV_ C) 2 4 5 1 3
d. ÿ©A Š 4. c«ºï^ D) 2 4 1 3 5
e. ÖáÞEk©A Š 5. xâç¦
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200. Match.
Location Assistance a b c d e
a. Rourkela - 1. Germany A) 2 4 1 5 3
s:
b. Bhilai - 2. Russia B) 2 4 5 1 3
c. Durgapur - 3. England C) 4 3 2 1 5
d. Bokaro - 4. Russia D) 1 2 3 4 5
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e. Visakhapatnam - 5. Russia
ØÃVòÝmï.
Ö¦D c>sB åV| a b c d e
ht
a. Ôì¼ïéV Š 1. ØÛì\M A) 2 4 1 5 3
b. ¸éVF Š 2. «iBV B) 2 4 5 1 3
c. mìïV¯ì Š 3. ÖºþéVÍm C) 4 3 2 1 5
d. ØÃVïV¼«V Š 4. «iBV D) 1 2 3 4 5
e. sÄVï©Ã⽪D Š 5. «iBV
5
3. AslB_ : x¿Ý ]ò©A>_ ¼>ì¡
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ps
Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
61 D 62 D 63 B 64 A 65 B 66 C 67 B 68 C 69 B 70 B
71 B 72 D 73 B 74 B 75 A 76 D 77 C 78 A 79 A 80 A
c8
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 C 86 D 87 A 88 B 89 C 90 C
91 D 92 A 93 B 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 C 98 D 99 C 100 C
101 D 102 A 103 B 104 D 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 C 109 B 110 A
111 C 112 C 113 A 114 A 115 D 116 B 117 D 118 C 119 D 120 A
ps
121 B 122 C 123 B 124 C 125 D 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 D 130 A
131 A 132 B 133 C 134 B 135 A 136 A 137 B 138 C 139 C 140 B
141 B 142 A 143 B 144 B 145 D 146 C 147 B 148 A 149 A 150 C
151 B 152 A 153 D 154 B 155 A 156 C 157 B 158 B 159 D 160 A
161
171
181
191
A
A
C
A
162
172
182
192
D
C
D
B
163
173
183
193
D
C
B
C
164
174
184
194
D
B
C
A
165
175
185
195
Tn
D
B
C
C
166
176
186
196
A
D
B
D
167
177
187
197
A
C
C
C
168
178
188
198
A
C
C
B
169
179
189
199
A
B
A
C
170
180
190
200
A
B
B
D
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – ISAI - 10 ANS KEY– 18.10.2021
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1 A 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 A 6 D 7 C 8 A 9 A 10 D
11 C 12 A 13 D 14 C 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 A 19 B 20 C
21 D 22 A 23 A 24 D 25 B 26 D 27 D 28 C 29 D 30 B
31 C 32 D 33 A 34 C 35 D 36 D 37 D 38 A 39 A 40 A
//t
41 D 42 C 43 A 44 A 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 A 49 A 50 D
51 B 52 A 53 A 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 D 60 B
61 D 62 D 63 B 64 A 65 B 66 C 67 B 68 C 69 B 70 B
s:
71 B 72 D 73 B 74 B 75 A 76 D 77 C 78 A 79 A 80 A
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 C 86 D 87 A 88 B 89 C 90 C
91 D 92 A 93 B 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 C 98 D 99 C 100 C
tp
101 D 102 A 103 B 104 D 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 C 109 B 110 A
111 C 112 C 113 A 114 A 115 D 116 B 117 D 118 C 119 D 120 A
121 B 122 C 123 B 124 C 125 D 126 A 127 B 128 C 129 D 130 A
ht
131 A 132 B 133 C 134 B 135 A 136 A 137 B 138 C 139 C 140 B
141 B 142 A 143 B 144 B 145 D 146 C 147 B 148 A 149 A 150 C
151 B 152 A 153 D 154 B 155 A 156 C 157 B 158 B 159 D 160 A
161 A 162 D 163 D 164 D 165 D 166 A 167 A 168 A 169 A 170 A
171 A 172 C 173 C 174 B 175 B 176 D 177 C 178 C 179 B 180 B
181 C 182 D 183 B 184 C 185 C 186 B 187 C 188 C 189 A 190 B
191 A 192 B 193 C 194 A 195 C 196 D 197 C 198 B 199 C 200 D
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 4 / åV^ Š 27.09.2021
.09.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶«EBéç\©A 80 sªVÂï^
¼>ì¡ 1 x>_ 3 kç«
tp
5
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TIME: 3 HRS
GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 4) TOTAL MARKS: 200
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POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A
1. An example of Representative Democracy is
A) UK
Tn B) Switzerland
C) Ancient Greek state D) Vatican
e/
¸«]W]Ýmk \ÂïáVâEÂz {ì ¨|ÝmÂïVâ|
A) ÖºþéVÍm B) ·sâÄìéVÍm
C) Ãõç¦B þ¼«Âï ¶«· D) kVâ½ï[
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2. Choose the correct terms that are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
A) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic
B) Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Sovereign, Freedom
C) Sovereign, Democracy, Socialist, Secular, Republic
//t
b. Gujarat - 2. Bihu B) 4 3 2 1
c. Assam - 3. Theyyam C) 3 4 2 1
d. Rajasthan - 4.Garba D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. (\VWéD Š 妪D) a b c d
a. ¼ï«áV Š 1.ÄV\ì A) 1 3 4 2
b. zÛ«VÝ Š 2. ¸ê B) 4 3 2 1
c. ¶ÄVD Š 3. Ø>FBD C) 3 4 2 1
d. «VÛü>V[ Š 4.ïVìÃV D) 1 2 3 4
5
D) ¨m¡t_çé
5. Assertion A :Jawaharlal Nehru was the first prime minister to be elected by the people in India.
c8
ReasonR : Indian National Congress contested 498 seats and won 346 seats.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
ps
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu®: ÖÍ]BVs_ \ÂïáV_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠x>_ ¸«>\ì ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò.
ïV«ðD: 498 Ö¦ºï¹_ ¼ÃVâ½l⦠ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü ïâE 346 Ö¦ºï¹_ Øku¤ ØÃuÅm.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö, íu®Âz ïV«ðD ÄöVª sáÂïD.
Tn
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö, íu®Âz ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é.
C) íu® Äö. ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD >k®
e/
6. What article of the Constitution of India states that free and compulsory education can be provided
for children from 6 to 14 years of age ?
A) 21 B) 21 A C) 22 D) 22 A
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5
d. >V\ç« Š 4. 2010 D) 4 3 2 1
11. The first school for girls started in the year
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A) 1858 B) 1848 C) 1838 D) 1846
ØÃõïÓÂïVª x>_ Ã^¹ Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1858 B) 1848 C) 1838 D) 1846
ps
12. Statement 1 : The name of the official currency of India is Rupee.
Statement 2 : The name of the silver coin issued by Sher Shah Suri is Rupiya.
A) Statement 1 & 2 Correct
B) Statement 1 Correct 2 Incorrect
C) Statement 1 Incorrect 2 correct
D) Statement 1 & 2 Incorrect
íu® 1 :
íu® 2 :
ÖÍ]BVs[ ¶]ïV«¯ìk ÃðÝ][ ØÃBì ÔÃVF.
Tn
Ø−ì−V óö Øk¹l⦠Øk^¹ åVðBÝmÂz "ò¸BV" ¨[® ØÃBì.
g
ïV
e/
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 Äö 2 >k®
C) íu® 1 >k® 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
i
13. Find the correct answer :
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ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ¨m Äö?
1. ¼>ÄÝ >Íç> \ïVÝ\V ¸ÅÍ> åV^ ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2.
2. Äìk¼>Ä ¶þDçÄ åV^ ¶Â¼¦VÃì 2, 2007 Š _ ÖòÍm ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|þÅm.
s:
conference?
A) Pune B) Kolkata C) Chennai D) Red Fort
¨ºz åç¦ØÃuÅ ÖÍ]B ¼>EB ïVºþ«ü \VåVâ½[ ¼ÃVm x>[x>éVï ¼>EB ÿ>D ÃV¦©Ãâ¦m?
ht
5
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö
C) 3 Äö D) 2 Äö
c8
17. Finance Bill introduced in the State Assembly on the recommendations of
A) Speaker B) Minister of Finance
C) Chief Minister D) Governor
\VWé Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]_ W] \¼ÄV>Vçk BVòç¦B ÃöÍmç«l[ ¼Ãö_ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý> x½¥D?
ps
A) ÄÃVåVBïì B) W] ¶ç\ßÄì
C) x>éç\ßÄì D) gÓåì
18. Find the correct statement about the 42nd Amendment, 1976?
2. Mini Constitution
A) 1, 3 correct B) 1, 2, 3 correct
Tn
1. 5 subjects were transferred from the State list to the concurrent list.
A) 1, 3, Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 3 \â|D D) 1, 2 Äö
19. The number of members directly elected by the people in the Lok Sabha is
A) 453 B) 354 C) 543 D) 545
\Âïáçkl_ \ÂïáV_ ¼å«½BVï ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D c®©¸ªìï¹[ ¨õèÂçï BVm?
//t
2. If the term of the Governor ends, the governor can continue in office till the next governor’s
Appointment.
tp
C) 1, 2, 4 correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
¨m Äö?
1. gÓåö[ Ã>sÂïVéD 5 gõ|ï^.
2. gÓåö[ Ã>sÂïVéD x½kç¦Í> ¼ÃV]KD ¸[ªì kòD gÓåì Ã>s¼BuzD kç« Ã>sl_
Ø>V¦«éVD.
3. Ökö[ ÄDÃáD ÖÍ]B Ø>Vz©A W]BD ¶¹ÂþÅm.
4. gÓåì z½B«·Ý >çék«V_ WB\ªD ØÄFB©Ã|þÅVì.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2, 3, 4 >k® C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
21. Part XV ofArticle (324-329) of the Constitution of our country mentioned about
A) Amendment Act B) Collective responsibility
C) Election D) Economy &Trade
åD åVâ½[ ¶«EBéç\©A Äâ¦Ý]_ Ãz] XV_ −«Ým (324Š 329) sköÂï©Ãâ|^á ØÄB_xçÅ
¨ç>© Ãu¤Bm?
A) ]òÝ>ß Äâ¦D B) Ä⦺ï¹[ Ø>Vz©A
C) ¼>ì>_ D) kìÝ>ïD & kèïD
22. When was the National Commission for Women established?
A) April 1993 B) January 1994 C) January 1992 D) April 1994
5
ØÃõïÓÂïVª ¼>EB gçðBD ¶ç\Âï©Ãâ¦m ¨©¼ÃVm?
A) °©«_ 1993 B) Ûªkö 1994 C) Ûªkö 1992 D) °©«_ 1994
c8
23. Examine the following options:
Which is mentioned in the International Declaration of Human Rights?
1. Right to Education
ps
2. Right to Food
3. Right to equal opportunities in Public Service
A) 1 B) 1 & 2 C) 3 D) 1, 2, 3
ÿµÂïõ¦ cöç\ïçá Ãöæéçª ØÄFï ¨m Äìk¼>Ä \M> cöç\ï^ ¸«ï¦ªÝ]_ c^ám?
1. ï_s cöç\
2. cð¡ÂïVª cöç\
3. ØÃVm ¼Äçkl_ Ä\kVF©A cöç\
A) 1 B) 1& 2 C) 3
Tn
D) 1, 2, 3
24. Normally the population of a corporation is
g
e/
A) 5 lakhs B) 7 lakhs C) 8 lakhs D) 10 lakhs
ÄV>V«ð\Vï Îò \Våï«VâEl[ \Âï^Ø>Vçï
A) 5 éâÄD B) 7 éâÄD C) 8 éâÄD D) 10 éâÄD ïV
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25. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Official language of government?
A) Part 17 B) Part 14 C) Part 4 A D) Part 16
i
¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Í> Ãz] gâE Ø\Va Ãu¤ í®þÅm?
A) Ãz] 17 B) Ãz] 14 C) Ãz] 4 A D) Ãz] 16
//t
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu®: ÖÍ]B z½B«·Ý >çékì ¶«E[ ØÄB_ gâEÝmçÅ >çék«VkVì.
ïV«ðD: ¶kì «VbkÝ]_ x©Ãç¦Ý >áÃ].
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD.
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é.
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
5
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö; íu¤[ ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD.
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö; íu¤[ ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD ¶_é.
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C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
29. Political head of the Corporation is
A) Chairman B) Mayor C) Commissioner D) Councilor
\Våï«VâEl[ ¶«EB_ Z]BVª >çékì
ps
A) ¼Äì\[ B) ¼\Bì C) gçðBì D) ï¡[Eéì
30. Which of the following is not aconstitutional right under right to freedom :
A) Right to Speech and expression
B) Right to do any business orTrade .
C) Right to assemble peacefully without arms
D) Right to follow their religion and culture
Tn
¶«EBéç\©A Äâ¦Ýç> ØïVõ| ·>Í]« cöç\l[ ÿµ k«Vm ¨[Å Î[® ¨m?
A) ¼Ãß·öç\ \u®D ïòÝmöç\
e/
B) ¨Ës> Ø>Vaçé¥D ¶_ém sBVÃV«Ýç>¥D ØÄF¥D cöç\.
C) g¥>D Ö[¤ ¶ç\]BVï í|D cöç\
D) >ºïÓç¦B \>D \u®D ÃõÃVâç¦ ¸[Ãu®D cöç\.
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32. When was the Human rights Commission established in Tamil Nadu?
A) 17 April 1991 B) 17 April 1994 C) 17 April 1997 D) 17 April 1996
\M> cöç\ ïwïD >tµåVâ½_ ¨©ØÃV¿m g«D¸Âï©Ãâ¦m?
s:
B) ¶«EBéç\©çà ]òÝmk]_
C) A]B ¶þé ÖÍ]B Ãèïçá còkVÂzk]_
D) Økâ| yì\VªÝç> ØïVõ|kòk]_
34. What kind of writ does the court issue to release a person if he is wrongly detained
A)Quo warranto B) Mandamus C)Certiorari D) Habeas corpus
>kÅVï Îòkì ïVko_ çkÂï©Ãâ¦V_, ¶kç« s|>çé ØÄFB ¨ËkçïBVª À]© ¼Ã«VçðçB
À]\[ÅD ÃB[Ã|ÝmþÅm?
A) >z] sçá¡ B) ØÄBK®ÝmD C) Øå¤ xçÅ ¼ïâA D) gâ ØïVðì¡
35. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the power of the President ?
A) The President can address both houses of Parliament
B) The President can send messages to both Houses of Parliament.
C) The President may preside over the joint sitting of Parliament.
D) The President can convene and adjourn the meeting of the RajyaSabha.
z½B«·Ý >çékì ¶]ïV«D Ø>V¦ìÃVª ¨Í> kV>D >k® ¨ª ïò>©Ã|þÅm?
A) z½B«·Ý >çékì Ö«õ| ¶çklKD cç« WïµÝ> x½¥D.
B) z½B«·Ý >çékì åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ Ö«õ| ¶çkÂzD ØÄF] ¶Ð©Ã x½¥D.
C) åV¦VÓ\[Å íâ| íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ç« z½B«·Ý >çékì >çéç\ >Vºþ å¦Ý> x½¥D.
5
D) \VWéºïáçkl[ íâ¦D å¦Ý>¡D \u®D ÎÝ]çkÂï¡D z½B«·Ý >çék«V_ x½¥D.
36. Match. (Language - Classical Year) a b c d
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a. Tamil - 1. 2016 A) 1 4 2 3
b. Sanskrit - 2. 2005 B) 3 2 1 4
c. Oriya - 3. 2013 C) 4 2 1 3
ps
d. Malayalam - 4. 2004 D) 4 2 3 1
ØÃVòÝmï. (Ø\Va Š ØÄDØ\Va gª kò¦D) a b c d
a. >tµ Š 1. 2016 A) 1 4 2 3
b. Ä\üþò>D Š 2. 2005 B) 3 2 1 4
c. ÎöBV Š 3. 2013
d. \çéBVáD Š 4. 2004
37. Find the correct option :
Tn
1. The book "Discovery of India" was written by Motilal Nehru.
C)
D)
4
4
2
2
1
3
3
1
e/
2. "Unity in Diversity" is featured in the book "Discovery of India".
3. VA Smith called India a "Ethnological museum"
A) 1, 2, 3 Correct B) 1, 2, 3 Incorrect
g
ïV
.m
C) 1, 2 Correct D) 2, 3 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVªç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.""½üïkö gà© ÖÍ]BV"" ¨[Å ±_ ¼\V]éV_ ¼åò ¨¿]Bm.
2. ""¼ku®ç\l_ Îu®ç\"" ¨[Ãm ""½üïkö g© ÖÍ]BV"" ¨ÐD ±o_ Ö¦DØÃu®^ám.
i
//t
5
A) 1 >k® B) 2 >k® C) 3 >k® D) 4 >k®
41. Women were granted the right to vote in Switzerland in the year
c8
A) 1981 B) 1971 C) 1991 D) 1961
·sâÄìéVÍ]_ ØÃõïÓÂz kVÂï¹ÂzD cöç\ kwºï©Ã⦠gõ|
A) 1981 B) 1971 C) 1991 D) 1961
42. Match. a b c d
ps
a. Article 14 - 1. Equal rights in employment A) 1 2 3 4
b. Article 16 - 2. Prohibition on titles B) 3 1 4 2
c. Article 17 - 3.All are equal before the law C) 3 2 1 4
d. Article 18
ØÃVòÝmï.
a. ¸ö¡ 14
b. ¸ö¡ 16
Š
Š
1. ¼kçékVF©¸_ Ä\ cöç\
Tn
- 4. Abolition of untouchability
A)
B)
4
a
1
3
3
b
2
1
2
c
3
4
1
d
4
2
c. ¸ö¡ 17 Š 3.Äâ¦D x[ ¶çªkòD Ä\D C) 3 2 1 4
e/
d. ¸ö¡ 18 Š 4. yõ¦Vç\ Îa©A D) 4 3 2 1
43. Find the incorrect option about National Party
1. It is not possible to contest state elections.
.m
45. Find the incorrect statement about the National Human Rights Commission ?
1. Establishedon October 12, 1993.
2. A non-constitutional body
3. Headquarters at Delhi
4. Tenure 4 years or 65 years
A) 1 Incorrect B) 2 Incorrect C) 3 incorrect D) 4 Incorrect
¼>EB \M> cöç\ï^ gçðBD Ãu¤ ÿµÂïõ¦ íu¤_ ¨m >k®?
1. 1993 ¶Â¼¦VÃì 12ŠD åV^ W®k©Ãâ¦m. 2. ¶«EBéç\©A ÄV«V> {ì ¶ç\©A
3. >çéç\BïD ئ_o 4. Ã>sÂïVéD 4 gõ|ï^ (¶) 65 kBm
5
A) 1 >k® B) 2 >k® C) 3 >k® D) 4 >k®
46. Match. a b c d
c8
a) International Women's Year - 1. 1955 A) 4 3 2 1
b) International Children's Year - 2. 1956 B) 3 4 1 2
c) Hindu Marriage Act - 3. 1978 C) 1 2 3 4
ps
d) Hindu Succession Act - 4. 1979 D) 4 3 1 2
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a) Äìk¼>Ä ØÃõï^ gõ| Š 1. 1955 A) 4 3 2 1
b) Äìk¼>Ä zwÍç>ï^ gõ| Š 2. 1956 B) 3 4 1 2
g
c) ÖÍm ]ò\ð Äâ¦D
d) ÖÍm kVö· Äâ¦D
Š
Š
3.
4.
1978
1979
47. Which of the following is incorrect about NOTA?
TnC)
D)
1
4
2
3
5
c) Öü¼«_ - 3. ü¦V콺 C) 3 1 4 2
d) ¸öâ¦[ - 4. Øïتvâ D) 3 2 1 4
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51. Find the Incorrect option :
A) Forests –Concurrent List B) Stock Market –Concurrent List
C) Postal Savings Bank – Union List D) Public Health and hygiene - State List
¨m ÄöBVª Öçð þç¦BVm?
ps
A) kªºï^ Š ØÃVm©Ãâ½B_
B) úzßÄÍç> Š ØÃVm©Ãâ½B_
C) >ÃV_mçÅ ¼Ät©A kºþ Š \Ý]B©Ãâ½B_
D) ØÃVm ·ïV>V«D \u®D g¼«VÂþBD Š \VWé©Ãâ½B_
A) 30 B) 31
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ Öò>BxD clò\Vï ïò>©Ã|D s]
A) 30 B) 31 C) 32
Tn
52. Which is consideredas the heart and soul of the Constitution of India
C) 32 D) 33
D) 33
e/
53. Minimum age for voting in India is
A) 21 B) 30 C) 25 D) 18
ÖÍ]BVs_ kVÂzöç\ Øîk>uz zçÅÍ>ÃâÄ kBm >z]
.m
A) 21 B) 30 C) 25 D) 18
54. Assertion A :The Vice President presides over Rajyasabha meetings.
Reason R : He was elected by the members of the Rajyasabha
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
//t
5
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
58. Which of the following bill should be introduced separately in the Parliament and must get a
c8
majority vote?
A) Constitution Amendment Bill B) Money Bill
C) Ordinary Bill D) Private bill
ps
ÿµkòD ¨Í> \¼ÄV>Vçk ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ >MÝ>M gï ØïVõ| kÍm ØÃòDÃVõç\ kVÂz ØÃÅ
¼kõ|D?
A) ¶«EBéç\©A ]òÝ> \¼ÄV>V B) Ãð \¼ÄV>V
C) ÄV>V«ð \¼ÄV>V D) >MBVì \¼ÄV>V
Tn
59. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the powers of Parliament?
A) Parliament may declare three types of emergency.
B) Parliament cannot remove the State Legislative Council.
C) The boundaries of states can be changed.
g
ïV
e/
D) A High Court may be established for two or more States.
åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ¶]ïV«ºï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVï ¸[kòkªku¤_ ¨çk ÄöB_é?
A) åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ JéD J[® s>\Vª ¶kÄ« Wçé© ¸«ï¦ªÝç> ¶Ð\]ÂïéVD. i
B) åV¦VÓ\[ÅD \VWé Ä⦠¼\éçkçB ÀÂï x½BVm.
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1986?
A) Ashok Mehta Committee B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
C) L.M Singhvi Committee D) Santhanam Committee
s:
5
kwºï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D?
A) 1 \V>D B) 10 åVâï^ C) 14 åVâï^ D) 2 \V>D
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65. Which of the following articleempowers parliament to create new state?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
¸[kòD s]ï¹_ ¨m A]B \VWéÝç> còkVÂï ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ]uz ¶]ïV«Ýç> ¶¹ÂþÅm?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
ps
66. Find the correct option :
1. District Panchayat has a population of 50,000.
2. Town Panchayat has a population of 10,000.
3. The Municipality has a population of one lakh.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
B) 1, 3 correct
5
A) Tamil Nadu B) Kerala C) Punjab D) B&C
¶]ï xçÅ z½B«·Ý >çékì gâE åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠\VWéD ¨m?
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A) >tµåV| B) ¼ï«áV C) ÃÞÄV© D) B & C
73. Which is the third organ of the Central Government?
A) Administrative B) Finance C) Legislature D) Judiciary
å|kõ ¶«E[ J[ÅVkm ¶ºïD ¨m?
ps
A) WìkVïÝmçÅ B) W]ÝmçÅ C) Äâ¦\[ÅD D) À]ÝmçÅ
74. The National review Commission was set up in the year 2000 by the Government of India under _____
A) M.M.Punchi B) M.N. Venkatachaliah
C) M.N. Roy
Tn
D) L.M. Singhvi
2000 gõ½_ ÖÍ]B ¶«· Öòyì\VªÝ][ ý BVì >çéç\l_ ¼>EB æ«VF¡ gçðBD
¶ç\Ý>m?
A) M.M. ¯ÞE B) M.N. Økºï¦VÄéFBV
C) M.N. «VF D) L.M. Eºs g
e/
75. In how many ways can citizenship be gained or lost?
A) 5, 3 B) 3, 5 C) 5, 4 D) 4, 5
ïV
z½¥öç\ ¨Ý>çª kaï¹_ ØÃżkV, ÖwÂï¼kV x½¥D? i
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A) 5, 3 B) 3, 5 C) 5, 4 D) 4, 5
76. The three main slogans "Liberty, equality, fraternity" originated in ______ revolution
A) French B) Russia C) America D) Australia
""·>Í]«D, Ä\ÝmkD, ļïV>«ÝmkD'' gþB J[® xÂþB xwÂïD ¨Í> A«âEl_ xwºï©Ãâ¦m?
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A) ¸Ø«Þ· B) Ö«iBV
C) ¶Ø\öÂïV D) gü]¼«oBV
77. 59th Constitutional Amendment, 1988 imposed restrictions on the _____rights of the people
s:
78. Part 12 of the Constitution of India refer _______ relationship of central and state relations?
A) Legislature B)Administration
C) Finance D) Judiciary
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸[ 12km Ãz]BVªm \Ý]B Š \VWé cÅ¡ï¹_ c^á Îò cÅçk \â|D
z¤©¸|þÅm?
A) Äâ¦\[ÅD B) WìkVïD
C) W] D) À]
79. Which Article of the Constitution of India contains about fundamental right "Access to clean
drinking water" ?
A) Article 12 B) Article 21 C) Article 31 D) Article 41
""·Ý>\Vª z½Àì Øî>_"" ¨[Ãm å\m ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\. Öm ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Í> ¸ös_
¶¦ºþ¥^ám?
A) ¸ö¡ 12 B) ¸ö¡ 21 C) ¸ö¡ 31 D) ¸ö¡ 41
80. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of
1. Finance Commission
2. National Planning Committee
5
3. Office of the Cabinet Secretary.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2. 3 D) 2
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¸«>\ì >çék«Vï Öò©Ãm.
1. W] gçðBD
2. ¼>EB ]⦠z¿
3. ¼ï¸ª¦ ØÄBéVáì ¶KkéïD.
ps
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2. 3 D) 2
81. Which is not a special feature of Indian Parliamentary form of Government?
A) Majority rule B) Collective responsibility
C) Political diversity
¨m ÖÍ]B ÃV«VÓ\[Å ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ EÅ©A ¶DÄD Ö_çé?
A) ØÃòDÃV[ç\ gâE
C) ¶«EB_ Ã[xïÝ>[ç\
Tn
B) íâ|©ØÃV®©A
D) Secrecy of procedure
D) «ïEBD ÃVmïVÝ>_
82. The President appointed two Election Commissioners to the Election Commission of India for the
e/
first time in the year
A) 1989 B) 1990 C) 1993 D) 1994
ÖÍ]B ¼>ì>_ gçðBÝ]uz í|>éVï Ö«õ| ¼>ì>_ gçðBVáìïçá z½B«·Ý >çékì
.m
¼>EB \M> cöç\ï^ gçðBß Äâ¦D 1993[ ý ÿµÂ kòÃkìï¹_ BVì ¶>[ >çék«Vï
Öò©ÃVì?
A) ÖÍ]B cßÄÀ] \[ÅÝ][ {F¡ ØÃuÅ >çéç\ À]Ã]
tp
5
D) ¶½©Ãç¦ ï¦ç\ Š x[ªV^ ¼ÄVsBÝ RMB[
86. Article 21 & 21A guarantees _____________rights
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1. Right to Life & Personal liberty 2. Right to Health
3. Right to food 4. Right to Basic Education
A) 1 & 2 B) 1 & 3 C) 1 & 4 D) 2 & 3
ps
21 & 21 A gþB Ä«Ýmï^ ÿµÂïõ¦ ¨Í> cöç\ïçá ¼Ãbk>uz cÝ]«kV>\¹Âþ[Ū?
1.clìkVwk>uïVª cöç\& >M©Ã⦠·>Í]«D
2.·ïV>V«Ý]uïVª cöç\
3.cðsuïVª cöç\
4.¶½©Ãç¦ ï_sÂïVª cöç\
A) 1&2 B) 1&3 C)1&4
89. When the Chairman and members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the
President, a committee of ________members will recommend them.
ht
A) 5 B) 6 C) 10 D) 18
¼>EB \M> cöç\ gçðBÝ][ >çékì \u®D c®©¸ªìï^ z½B«·Ý >çék«V_
WBtÂï©Ã|D ¼kçál_ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ ¼Ãì ØïVõ¦ z¿ ¶kìïçá ÃöÍmç« ØÄF¥D?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 10 D) 18
90. Reservation for women in local body elections?
A) 25% B) 30% C) 35% D) 33%
c^áVâEÝ ¼>ì>o_ ØÃõïÓÂïVª Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ|?
A) 25% B) 30% C) 35% D) 33%
AslB_
91. How much long land boundary in India?
A) 13,200 K.M B) 14,200 K.M C) 14,400 K.M D)15,200 K.M
ÖÍ]BV ¨Ëká¡ þ.* Wé ¨_çéïçá ØïVõ|^ám?
A) 13,200 þ.* B) 14,200 þ.* C) 14,400 þ.* D) 15,200 þ.*
92. How much long North-South extent of India from Indira Col in Jammu and Kashmir in the north to
5
kanniyakumari in the south?
A) 2933 K.M B) 3214 K.M C) 2930 K.M D) 3215 K.M
c8
ÖÍ]BV, k¦Â¼ï éV¦ÂþK^á ÖÍ]«¼ïV_ x>_ Ø>u¼ï ï[MBVz\ö kç« ¨Ëká¡ þ.*
ÀáÝç> ØÃu®^ám?
A) 2933 þ.* B) 3214 þ.* C) 2930 þ.* D) 3215 þ.*
93. Assertion : The northern mountains consist of the youngest and the loftiest mountain chains
ps
in the world
Reason : It was formed only few million years ago and formed by the folding of the earth crust
due to tectonic activity
A) Assertion is false but reason is true B) Assertion is true but reason is false
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Tn
D)Both Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : Ö\B\çéï^ (k¦Âz Ö\B\çéï^) céþ[ Öáç\BVª (\) tï cB«\Vª
\çéÝØ>V¦ìï^ gzD.
ïV«ðD : °ØªM_ ÖD\çéï^ Eé t_oB[ gõ|ïÓÂz x[ªì>V[ còkVþBçk. ¼\KD
e/
As¼\¼éVâ| ¼ÃöBÂï sçÄï^ ïV«ð\Vï As¼\¼éV| \½Âï©Ãâ|, \½©A \çéïáVï
còkVþ[Ū.
A) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
.m
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
95. In which language the term “ Himalaya”means “The adobe of snow”?
A) Greek B)Sanskrit C) Latin D)Arabic
s:
1.The new alluvium tracts along the courses of the rivers are known as the ‘Khadar’ or ‘Bet’lands.
2.TheKhadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons
3.TheKhadar land consists of sand,silt,clay and mud.It is highly fertile soil
ht
97. Which plains is a zone of excessive dampness, thick forests and rich wild life?
A) The Bhangar Plain B) TheBhabar Plain C) The Tarai tract D) All of these
¶]ï©Ã½BVª ~«©Ã>D ØïVõ¦ Ãz]BVï¡D, ïV|ï^ káìk>uzD Ã_¼k® s>\Vª séºzï^
kVµk>uz °uÅ>Vï c^ám?
A) ÃVºïì Ä\Øk¹ B) ÃVÃì Ä\Øk¹ C) >«VF \õ¦éD D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
98. Choose the correct statement regarding Purvanchal Hills
1.Purvanchal hills are the eastern off-shoot of Himalayas and it extends in the north-eastern states
of India
2.Most of these hills are located along the borders of India and Myanmar.
5
A)1 only true B) 2 only true C) 1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
¯ìkVÞÄ_ z[®ï^ Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅ ïõ|¸½.
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1.Öçk Ö\B\çél[ þwÂz þçáBVzD. Öm k¦þwÂz \VWéºï¹_ ës¥^ám.
2.ØÃòDÃVéVª z[®ï^ tBV[\ì \u®D ÖÍ]B ¨_çéïÓÂz Ö禼B ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
99. Which passes will connect the Pakistan and Afghanistan?
ps
A) Karakoram pass B)Zojila pass C)Khyber pass D) Shipkila pass
ÃVþü>V窥D, g©ïVMü>V窥D ÖçðÂzD ïðkVF
A) ïV«¼ïV«D ïðkVF B) ØÛV´éV ïðkVF
C) çïÃì ïðkVF D) E©¼ïV ïðkVF
Tn
100. Which of the following statement is /are correct regarding the importance of Himalayas?
1.Himalaya provides raw material for many forest based industries.
2.Himalayas are renowned for the rich biodiversity g
3.Himalaya block southwest monsoon winds and causes heavy rainfall to North India
e/
A)1 only true B) 2 only true C) 1,2 is false D) 1,2, 3 is true ïV
Ö\B\çél[ xÂþBÝmkD Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅ ïõ|¸½.
1.kª© ØÃVòâï^ ÄVìÍ> Ø>VaéïºïÓÂz Jé©ØÃVòâïçá ¶¹ÂþÅm. i
.m
5
Öç¦B|Âþuz ¼\_ ïVð©Ã|D ¶|Âz
A) *^ ¶|Âz B) Øk©Ã ¶|Âz
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C) kVMçéçB còkVÂzD ¶|Âz D) Öç¦B|Âz
107. Assertion :The sun rays fall vertically on the equator ,so it gets warmer.
Reason :Due to the spherical shape of the earth,the vertical rays heat up the earth more than the
ps
inclined rays,thus the places near the equator are warmer than the places which are far
away from the equator.
A) Assertion is false but reason is true B) Assertion is true but reason is false
C) Both Assertion and Reason are true D)Both Assertion and Reason are false
109. The wind which blows from subtropical high pressure to the equatorial low pressure is called as
A) Planetary winds B) Trade winds C) Westerlies D) All the above
mçð Øk©Ã \õ¦é cBì ¶¿Ý> \õ¦éºïÓÂz Ö禩Ã|D Wéå|¼ïVâ| >Vµk¿Ý>
s:
5
k¦ ¶ç« ¼ïVáÝ]_, ï¦ï ¼«çïÂzD gì½Â kâ¦Ý]uzD Ö禩Ã⦠Ãz]BVï¡D, Ø>[¶ç«
¼ïVáÝ]_ \﫼«çïÂzD ¶õ¦Vì½ÂïV kâ¦Ý]uzD Ö禩Ã⦠Ãz]BVï ¶ç\Ím^ám?
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A) Øk©Ã\õ¦éD B) t> Øk©Ã\õ¦éD
C) Øk©ÃWçé Tß· D) Øk©ÃWçé
114. Which of the zone is correct regarding the Frigid Zone
ps
1.The frigid zone lies between the arctic circle and the north pole and between the antartic circle
and the south pole
2.Since it receives the extremely low temperature throughout the year, these regions are covered
with snow.
3.This region is also known as polar region
A) 1,2 is true B)2,3 is true
z¹ì\õ¦éD Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅ ïõ|¸½.
Tn
C) 1,3 is true
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.z¹ìïVéD Š 1. Ûªkö x>_ ¸©«kö A) 4 2 1 3
b.¼ïVç¦ÂïVéD Š 2. \Vìß x>_ ¼\ B) 1 3 4 2
ht
5
d.n¼ÄVçÇâü Š 4. Ä\ óöB Øk¹ßļïV| D) 3 4 2 1
119. The Word ‘Monsoon’ is taken from which language?
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A) Greek B)Latin C)Arabic D)Japanese
\V[ó[ ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¨Í> Ø\ValoòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m?
A) þ¼«ÂïD B) éÝy[ C) ¶«¸ D) Û©ÃVMB
ps
120. In which state Nandadevi Biosphere reserve is situated?
A) Assam B)Uttarakhand C)Meghalaya D)West Bengal
clì¼ïVá ïV©Ãïºï^ gª åÍ>V ¼>s ¨Í> \VWéÝ]_ c^ám?
A) ¶ÄVD B) cÝ«ïVõâ C) ¼\ïVéBV D) ¼\uzkºïD
Tn
121. Which of the following statement is correct regarding river forest or riverside forest?
1.Riverside forests are found in the Khadar areas where the Ganges and Yamuna rivers flow.
2.Riverside forest is famous for its evergreen shrubs and fig trees.
3.The above species is more common in river basins in the northern plains
e/
A)1,2 is true B)2,3 is true
C)1,3 is true D)1,2,3 is true
å] kª©Ãz] ¶_ém guźïç«Â ïV|ï^ Ãu¤ ÄöBVª íuçÅ ïõ|¸½.
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1.Manganese – Maharashtra
2.Copper – Jharkhand
3.Bauxite – Orrisa
s:
4.Mica – Kerala
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2, 3
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|.
tp
1. \VºïÌ· Š \ïV«Vi½«V
2. >Vt«D Š ÛVìïVõâ
3. ÃVÂçvâ Š ÎövV
ht
4. ç\ÂïV Š ¼ï«áV
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2, 3
123. Choose which is not matched one.
A) World Earth Day – April 22 B) World Water Day – March 23
C) World Forest Day – March 21 D) World Soil Day – December 5
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ >kÅVª ØÃVòÝ>Ýç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) céï As ]ªD Š °©«_ 22 B) céï Àì ]ªD Š \Vìß 23
C) céï kª ]ªD Š \Vìß 21 D) céï \õ ]ªD Š ½ÄDÃì 5
5
125. Match the following. a b c d
a.Green Revolution – 1. Oil seeds A) 4 1 3 2
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b.Golden Revolution – 2. Agriculture B) 2 4 1 3
c.Pink Revolution – 3. Honey C) 2 3 4 1
d.Yellow Revolution
ØÃVòÝmï.
– 4. Onion D) 4 1
a
2
b
3
c d
g
ïV
ps
a. ÷ç\©A«âE Š 1. ¨õØðF sÝmÂï^ A) 4 1 3 2
b. >ºï© A«âE Š 2. ¼káVõç\ B) 2 4 1 3
c. ÖáÞEk©A A«âE Š 3. ¼>[ C) 2 3 4 1 i
d. \ÞÄ^ A«âE Š 4. ØkºïVBD D) 4 1 2 3
126. Which Forests are found above 2400m in Himalayas?
A) Tidal Forest B) Alphine Forest
¨Í> ïV|ï^, Ö\B\çél_ 2400 * cB«Ý]uz ¼\_ ïVð©Ã|þÅm?
A) {>ÂïV|ï^
Tn C) Mangroove Forest
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 1 2 4 3
C) 1 4 3 2
tp
D) 3 1 4 2
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. Ö«VÛü>V[ Ä\Øk¹ Š 1. ¼\uz g«k_o \çéÝØ>V¦ì A) 4 2 1 3
ht
5
Ö禼B c^á yìÂï¼ïV| 29°18' gzD.
c8
3. ÖÍ]BVs[ \Ý]B yìÂKçï 80°33' N gzD.
4. ÖÍ]B ]⦠¼å«\Vªm (IST), þZ[sß Ä«VÄö (GMT) ¼å«Ýç> s¦ 5 \è 50 Wt¦D
x[ª>Vï c^ám.
A) 3, 4 B) 4 \â|D C) 3 \â|D D) 1, 3
ps
131. Choose incorrect pair in the given following statement.
A) River Padma – Bangladesh
B) Meghna River – Brahmaputra
C) Yamuna – Tributary of River Cauvery
D) Sambar Lake – Rajasthan
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ØÃVòÝ>t_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ÃÝ\V g®
B) ¼\ªV g®
Š
Š
kºïVá ¼>ÄD
¸«D\AÝ]«V
Tn
e/
C) Bxçª Š ïVsö gu¤[ mçðBV®
D) ÄVDÃVì °ö Š Ö«VÛü>V[
132. Pulicat Lake is located between the states of
.m
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. zòEïVì Š 1. céþ[ íç« A) 4 2 1 3
b. ÃM cçÅs¦D Š 2. ká\Vª© Ãz] B) 2 4 1 3
ht
c. ¼>VkV© Š 3. Ö\B\çé C) 4 3 2 1
d. ÃV*ì x½ß· Š 4. g«k_o D) 4 2 3 1
134. Theppakkadu is familiar for
A) Deer Camp B) Elephant Camp C) Tiger Camp D) Wild Dog camp
Ø>©ÃÂïV| ¨>uz AïµØÃuÅm?
A) \V[ï^ xïVD B) BVçªï^ xïVD
C) Aoï^ xïVD D) ïVâ| åVFï^ xïVD
5
137. Name the dam contructed across the river Mahanadhi
A) Bakranangal B) Hirakud C) Krishna D) Mettur
c8
\ïVå] gu¤[ z®Â¼ï ï⦩Ãâ|^á ¶çðl[ ØÃBì ¨[ª?
A) ëVŠåºï_ B) N«Vzâ C) þòiðV D) ¼\âùì
138. The dam which is known as stanly reservoir is
ps
A) Tehri B) Kosi C) Hirakud D) Mettur
ü¦V[o Àìݼ>ÂïD ¨[ÅçwÂï©Ã|D ¶çð?
A) ئãö B) ¼ïVE C) N«Vzâ D) ¼\âùì
139. Black soil is otherwise known as
A) Saline soil B) Regur Soil
ïöÄ_ \õ ------------- ¨[®D ¶¤B©Ã|þÅm?
A) ckì©A \õ B) Ø«íì \õ
Tn C) Swampy Soil
C) Äm©A \õ
D) Arid Soil
D) kÅõ¦ \õ
140. The winds that blow from the particular direction throughout the year are known as the _______
e/
A) Planetary winds B) Monsoon Winds C) Trade Winds D) Polar Winds
gõ| x¿kmD Îò z¤©¸â¦ ]çÄçB ¼åVÂþ T·D ïVu®ïçá ¨ËkV® ¶çwÂþ[¼ÅVD?
A)¼ïV^ ïVu®ï^ B) Ãòk ïVu®ï^
C) sBVÃV«Â ïVu®ï^ D) mòkÂïVu®ï^
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
ØÃVòáV>V«D
141. The services that are required to that industries produce goods and distribute them to the people is
called
A) Tertiary activities B) Services C) Both a and b D) Secondary activities
cuÃÝ]© ØÃVò^ïçá ¼>çkBVª \ÂïÓÂz ØïVõ| ¼Äì©Ã>uz ¼>çkBVª ¼Äçkïçá
kwºzkm
A) J[ÅVD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ B) ¼ÄçkÝmçÅ
C) A \u®D B D) Ö«õ¦VDWçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^
5
142. Match the following: a b c d
A) Material resources - 1. Entrepreneur A) 3 2 1 4
c8
B)Changing agent of the society - 2. Tools B) 2 4 3 1
C)Primary factor of production - 3. Warehouse C) 2 1 4 3
D)Time utility - 4. Land and Labour D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
ps
a.ØÃVò^ÄVì Jé>ªD Š 1. Ø>Va_ x窼kVì A) 3 2 1 4
b.Äx>VB \VuÅD ïVbD xïkì Š 2. ïòsï^ B) 2 4 3 1
c.x>[ç\ cuÃÝ] ïV«è Š 3. cçw©A C) 2 1 4 3
d.\M> cuÃÝ]l_ {ì Ö|ØÃVò^
143. Choose the correct statements
1.The initial supply price of land is zero.
Š 4.
Tn
WéD \u®D cçw©A D) 4 3 2
2.Whenland,labour and capital are comined in order to produce something is called as entrepreneurship.
1
ØîþÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
144. Assertion: An entrepreneur is a person who combines the factors like land, labour and capital.
s:
Reason : Without the factor of production, an entrepreneur can increase the process of
production.
A) Assertion is true,Reason is false B)Assertion is False,Reason is true
tp
C)Both Assertion and Reason are true D)Both Assertion and Reason are false
íu® : Ø>Va_x窼kVì ¨[Ãkì WéD, cçw©A, Jé>ªD ÎòºþçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|kì.
ïV«ðD : ÖÂïV«èï^ Ö_éV\KD Ø>Va_x窼kV«V_ cuÃÝ]çB ¶]ïöÂï ÖBKD.
ht
146. Assertion : Both the productivity and food production in Tamilnadu continue to increase.
Reason : Though there was a reduction in the area of the production ,the total amount of
production has been maintained and there is an increase of productivity.
A) Assertion is true,Reason is false
B)Assertion is False,Reason is true
C)Both Assertion and Reason are false
D)Both Assertion and Reason are true
íu® : >twïÝ][ ¼káVõ cuÃÝ]Ý]Å[ \u®D cð¡ cuÃÝ] ]Å[ gþB Ö«õ|¼\
¶]ïöÝm^ám.
5
ïV«ðD : cð¡ >VMB cuÃÝ] ØÄFB©Ã|D ë©Ãá¡ zçÅÍ> ¼ÃV]KD cuÃÝ] zçÅBVm
\â|\_é í½lò©Ã>uzD cuÃÝ] ]żª ïV«ðD.
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A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) Ö«õ|D >k® D) Ö«õ|D Äö
147. Assertion : Minimum support price for the crops were announced at the beginning of the season and
ps
the state procured the harvested grains through the food corporation of India.
Reason : Minimum support price is fixed by an expert group for a particular crop by considering
various costs involved in the cultivation of that crop.
A) Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
B) Both Assertion and reason are true
C) Both Assertion and reason are false Tn
D) Assertion and reason are true ,reason is the correct explanation
íu® : ÃlìïÓÂz zçÅÍ>ÃâÄ g>«¡ sçé Ãòk ïVéÝ][ Ø>V¦ÂïÝ]_ ¶¤sÂï©Ãâ|
¶®kç¦ ØÄFB©Ã⦠>VMBºïçá ÖÍ]B cð¡Â ïwïD JéD ¶«· ØïV^x>_
e/
ØÄFþÅm.
ïV«ðD : zçÅÍ>ÃâÄ g>«¡ sçé ¨[Ãm ¶Í> Ãlö[ ÄVzýl_ Ã_¼k® ïòÝmïçáÂ
ØïVõ| Îò z¤©¸â¦ ÃlòÂz Îò sçé ¶¤s©ÃVì.
.m
A) August-October B)September-November
C)October-December
>twïÝ]_ k¦þwÂz© Ãòk\çw ØÃVa¥D \V>ºï^
D)November-January
i
s:
151. Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding the Human development Index?
1.The HDI is a composite index of life expectancy at birth,adult literacy rate and standard of living
measured.
2.Human Development Index was introduced by Amartyasen in1990
3.HDI of India in 2017 is 0.649
4.India’s life expectancy at birth is 65 years
A) All are true B) 1, 2, 4 true C) 1,4 true D) 1,2,3 true
ÿµïVbD íu®ï¹_ \M>ká ¼\DÃVâ| z¤X|ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m/¨çk?
1.\M>ká ¼\DÃVâ| z¤X| kVµÂçïÝ>«D, kBm kͼ>Vö[ ï_sB¤¡, ¸Å©¸[ ¼ÃVm kVµåV^
5
¨]ìÃVì©A ØïVõ| ïðÂþ¦©Ã|þÅm.
2.\M>ká ¼\DÃVâ| z¤X| 1990_ ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[ªV_ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
c8
3.ÖÍ]BVs[ 2017gD gõ½uïVª HDI[ \]©A 0.649.
4.ÖÍ]BVs_ ¸Å©¸[ ¼ÃVm ¨]ìÃVìÂï©Ã|D Ä«VÄö g¥âïVéD 65 gõ|ï^
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2, 4 Äö C) 1, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
152. The number of fair shop which is run by women self-help group is
ps
A)600 B)596 C)482 D)790
ØÃõï^ ·Bc>s z¿ÂïáV_ å¦Ý>©Ã|D WBVB sçé ïç¦ï¹[ ¨õèÂçï
A) 600 B) 596 C) 482 D) 790
157. Which of the following is the human input into the production process?
A) Capital B)Labour C) Land D) Entrepreneur
.................... ¨[Ãm \M> cuÃÝ]l_ {ì ~|ØÃVò^.
A) Jé>ªD B) cçw©A C) WéD D) Ø>Va_ ¶ç\©A
158. Income tax is a
A) Direct tax B)Indirect Tax C)Both a and b D) None of the above
kò\Vªkö ¨[Ãm ....................
A) ¼åìxï kö B) \çÅxï kö C) A \u®D B D) Öku¤_ ¨m¡t_çé
159. Match the following: a b c d
5
A) Automotive and electronics - 1. Salem A) 4 3 1 2
B) Steel and powerlooms - 2. Ariyalur B) 4 1 2 3
c8
C) Cement - 3. Trichy C) 3 2 4 1
D)Boilers and turbines - 4. Hosur D) 3 1 4 2
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
ps
a.>VMBºþ \u®D t[ªb Š 1. ¼ÄéD A) 4 3 1 2
b.ÖòDA \u®D sçÄÝ>¤ Š 2. ¶öBÙì B) 4 1 2 3
c.EØ\õâ Š 3. ]òßE C) 3 2 4 1
d.ØïV]Âïé[ï^ \u®D sçÄBVaï^ Š 4. Îóì D) 3 1 4 2
C) 1963
\Ý]B kò\Vªß Äâ¦D ¨Í> gõ½[ ÿµ ''¼åìxï köïÓÂïVª \Ý]B kòkVF kVöBD'' ¨[ÐD
D)1969
e/
ØÃBö_ >M kVöBD Î[® W®k©Ãâ|^ám?
A) 1977 B) 1968 C) 1963 D) 1969
161. Which one of the following is not a indirect tax?
g
.m
162. India became the ___________largest economy in terms of Purchasing Power Parity.
A) Fourth B) Second C) Third D) First
kVºzD ÄÂ] Ä\Wçél[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ÖÍ]BVs[ ØÃVòáV>V« Wçé
s:
164. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the specialization of Industrial clusters in
Tamilnadu?
1.Powerloom is however more widespread with erode and salem region too having a large number
of Power loom units.
2.The Vellore district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
3.Karur is major centre of exports of home furnishings
4.Pipes and Pumps were manufactured more in Coimbatore
A) 2,3,4 is true B) 1,2,3 is true C) 1,3,4 is true D) All are true
>tµåVâ½[ xÂþB Ø>Va_mçÅ Ø>Vz©Aï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
5
1.~¼«V|, ¼ÄéD Ãz]l_ ¶]ïáséVª t[>¤ ¶ézï^ Öò©Ã>V_ t[ sçÄÝ>¤Ý Ø>Va_
tï¡D ëkéVï c^ám.
c8
2.¼>V_ ØÃVò^ï^ °u®\]l_ ÖÍ]BVs¼é¼B x>[ç\ \Vkâ¦\Vï ¼kÙì c^ám.
3.Tâ| ¶éºïV« ØÃVò^ïçá °u®\] ØÄF¥D xÂþB ç\B\Vï ïÔì c^ám.
4.zwVFï^ \u®D ÀöçÅÂzD ÖBÍ]«D ØÃò\ás_ cuÃÝ] ØÄFB©Ã|km ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì.
A) 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
ps
165. Which one of the following is not having an IT Park?
A) Tiruneleveli B)Coimbatore C) Madurai D)Kancheepuram
>ïk_ Ø>Va_Oâà ØÃVòáV>V« \õ¦éºï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ïVõï.
A) ]òØå_¼ko B) ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì C) \mç«
Tn D) ïVÞEA«D
166. Which activities are concerned with the production of raw materials for food stuff and industrial use?
A) Secondary activities B) Primary activities C) Teritary activities D) Services
cð¡Ý ¼>çkÂzD, Ø>Va_ cuÃÝ]ÂzD ¼>çkBVª Jé©ØÃVò^ïçá cuÃÝ] ØÄFkm
A) Ö«õ¦VD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ B) x>_ WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^
e/
C) J[ÅVD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ D) åV[ïVD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^
167. The conversion of raw materials into finished products is called
A)Industries B)Primary activities C)Teritary activities D)Services
.m
170. Pick out the correct statement regarding the forms of utility
A)If the physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility may increase
B)For example cotton can increases, if it is converted into clothes
C) Both are true
D) Both are false
k½k© ÃB[ÃV| Ãu¤ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|.
A) Îò sçá©ØÃVò¹[ k½kD \VuÅ©Ã|D ¼ÃVm, ¶>[ ÃB[ÃV| tz]BVþÅm
B) ¨|ÝmÂïVâ¦Vï sçáØÃVòáVþB ÃòÝ]çB ØïVõ| gç¦ï^ còkVÂï©Ã|D ¼ÃVm,
¶>[ ¼>çk¥D ÃB[ÃV|D cBìþ[Ū
5
C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
171. Match the following: a b c d
c8
A) Form utility - 1. Transport A) 1 2 3 4
B) Place utility - 2. Clothes B) 2 3 1 4
C) Time utility - 3. Primary Production C) 3 2 4 1
ps
D) Agriculture - 4. Warehouse D) 2 1 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.k½k© ÃB[ÃV| Š 1. ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým A) 1 2 3 4
b.Ö¦©ÃB[ÃV| Š 2. gç¦ï^ B) 2 3 1 4
c.ïVé© ÃB[ÃV|
d.¼káVõç\
Š
Š
3.
4. ¼Ät©A þ¦ºzTn
x>[ç\ cuÃÝ] C)
D)
172. Assertion :Bangalore is a hub for global software businesses.
3
2
2
1
4
4
1
3
Reason : India specializes in information technology and attracts inward investments from
e/
companies.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Assertion is false but reason is true
C) Both Assertion and Reason are false D) Assertion is true but reason is false
g
.m
5
B) xïéVB ïVéD x¿kmD Øk^¹ åVðBD ÃB[ÃVâ½_ ÖòÍ>m
C) 1719_ xïéVB ¼Ã««Äì ÃVòÂ−VBì, gºþ¼éBìïÓÂz xïéVB Ãð åVðBÝç> ÃDÃVF
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¶ßÄïÝ]_ ¶ßĽÂï ¶Ð\] ¶¹Ý>ªì
D) gºþé þwÂþÍ]B ïDØÃM 1600gD gõ½_ xïéVB åVðBÝç> ¸«Ãé©Ã|Ý]Bm
177. Assertion : Ironore,fertilizer and Mining industries are called as Capital Intensive Industries.
ps
Reason : Public Sectors are act as an entrepreneurial role
A) Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
B) Both Assertion and Reason are false
C) Assertion and Reason are true ,reason is the correct expalantion
D)Assertion is false but reason is true
Tn
íu® : ÖòDA >Vm, c«D, ·«ºïD ¼ÃV[Åçk Jé>ª ys« Ø>Va_ï^ ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þ[Ū.
ïV«ðD : ØÃVmÝmçÅBVªm ÖÝmçÅï¹_ Îò Ø>Va_x窼kVì úþçª kþÂþ[Ū.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª sáÂïD ¶_é
B) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
e/
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª sáÂïD
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
.m
179. Statement 1:Swachh Bharat cess is a cess imposed by the government of India and was started from
15th November 2016.This tax is applicable on all services.
Statement 2: The cess currently stands at 0.5% and also it is levied over and above the 14%service
s:
íu® 1: #Fç\ ÃV«> köl[ ØÃB«V_, 2016 åkDÃì 15 Ø>V¦ºï©Ã¦¦m. ¶çªÝm kçïBVª
köß¼ÄçkÂzD ØÃVòÍmD.
íu® 2: Ö>[ kö sþ>D 0.5% >u¼ÃVm 14%ÂzD ¼\uÃ⦠¼Äçk kö åç¦xçÅl_ c^ám.
ht
5
A) Investment on Poor people B) expenditure on agriculture
C)Investment on assets D) Collective abilities of people
c8
\M> káD ¨ÐD ØÄV_ z¤©¸|km
A) °çw \Âï^ *>Vª x>Ü| B) ¼káVõç\ *>Vª ØÄé¡
C) ØÄVÝmÂï^ *>Vª x>Ü| D) Îâ|Ø\VÝ> \Âï¹[ ]Åç\
ps
184. Which sector is not included in the occupational pattern?
A) Primary Sector B)Secondary Sector C)Tertiary Sector D) Private Sector
¨Í>Ý mçÅl_ Ø>Vaéç\©A xçÅ ¼ÄìÂï©Ã¦s_çé?
A) x>[ç\ÝmçÅ B) Ö«õ¦VD mçÅ C) ÄVìAÝ mçÅ D) >MBVì mçÅ
2.This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the central and state
governments
g
ïV
e/
3.It will be implemented from 1 july 2017 throughout the country
4.It will be unified the tax structure in India i
A) 1,2 is true B)2,3,4 is true C) 1,3,4 is true D) All are true
.m
A) Entrepreneur - 1. Transport A) 2 4 3 1
B) Indian Ordinance factory - 2. Organizer B) 2 3 4 1
tp
5
3.To promote town growth only
4.To generate financial resources for development
c8
A) 1,4 is true B)3,4 is true C) 1,2 is true D) 2,3 is true
ÿµïVbD ØÃVmÝmçÅl[ ¼åVÂïºï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1.c^ïâ¦ç\©çà còkVÂz>_ JéD sç«kVª ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE
2.°u®\]Âz \VuSç¦BVï ÖÅÂz\] »Âzs©A
ps
3.åï« káìßEçB \â|D ¼\DÃ|Ým>_
4.káìßEÂïVª W] g>V«ºïçá còkVÂzk>_
A) 1, 4 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 2, 3 Äö
190. Choose the incorrect statement
Tn
1.The Government announced in the union budget 2017-2018 the “ National Health Production
Scheme”
2.This scheme is to serve poor and vulnerable families
3.The Government encourages to start an industry in backward areas
e/
4.It encourages regional inequality
A) All are false B)1,2,3 is false C)1,4 is false D) 2,3 is false
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
.m
1.2017 - 2018gD gõ| \Ý]B k«¡ ØÄé¡Ý ]â¦Ý]_ ''¼>EB ·ïV>V« cuÃÝ] ]â¦Ýç>''
¶«ÄVºïD ¶¤sÝ>m.
2.°çw \u®D ÃV]Âï©Ã¦Âí½B z|DúïÓÂz ÖÝ]â¦D ·ïV>V« å¦k½Âçïïçá kwºzþ[Ū.
3.¸[>ºþB Ãz]ï¹_ Ø>Va_mçÅçBÝ Ø>V¦ºï ¶«ÄVºïD »ÂzsÂþÅm.
//t
5
¶ézïçáÝ Ø>V¦ºzk>uïVª x¿ ØÃV®©çÃ¥D ¶«· °u®ÂØïV^km ¶â¦kçð B
¨ª z¤©¸¦©Ã|þ[Ū.
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3.>MBVì mçÅl_ ÖòÍ> *>x^á Ø>Va_ï^ ¶â¦kçðl_ z¤©¸¦©Ã¦s_çé.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1 \u®D 3 Äö C) 1 \u®D 2 Äö D) Öku¤_ ¨m¡t_çé
193. Which means want satisfying power of product?
ps
A) Production B) Utility C) Consumer D)Economics
å\m ¼>çkïçá¥D, sò©Ãºïçá¥D WçÅ¡ ØÄFkm
A) cuÃÝ] B) ÃB[ÃV| C) Oïì¼kVì D) ØÃVòáV>V«D
194. Mixed economy is a
Tn
A) Both Small Scale and large scale industries are jointly operate
B) Both Public and private owned industries are jointly operate
C)BothLabour and capital technology are jointly operate
D)Both National and International organization are jointly operate
g
ïV
ïé©A ØÃVòáV>V«D .................. z¤ÂþÅm. i
e/
A) E® \u®D ¼Ã«á¡Ý Ø>Va_ï^ ÖçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|>_
B) ØÃVm \u®D >MBVì mçÅï^ ÖçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|>_
C) cçw©A Ø>Va_Oâà ØĤ¡ (\) Jé>ª Ø>Va_OâÃß ØĤ¡ ÖçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|>_
.m
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 2, 3, 4 Äö
196. Which is the initial form of International trade
A) Coins B) Paper
C) Plastic cards D) Barter system
Ã[ªVâ| kèïÝ][ x>_ k½kD ¨m?
A) åVðBºï^ B) ïVþ>©ÃðD
C) Øåþa ¶âç¦ï^ D) Ãõ¦\Vu® xçÅ
5
2.mçÅÄVìÍ> EÅ©A ïkªD
3.·B c>sÂz¿Âï^ ØÄB_Ã|>_
c8
4.]Åç\BuÅ Ø>VaéVáìïÓ¦[ W®kªºïÓÂþç¦BVª ¼ÃVâ½
A) 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö
C) 1, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
198. Which of the following is/are the issues of Industrialization?
ps
1.Chemicals,textiles and leather clusters tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affect
health
2.The effluents pollute water bodies and also adjoining agricultural lands
A) 1,2,3 is true
C)2,3,4 is true
Tn
3.Employment generation potential has declined because of use of frontier technologies
4.Most workers are employed only temporarily so that quality of workers is low
B)All are true
D)1,3,4 is true
Ø>Vau\B\V>o[ ¸«ßÄçªï^ Ãu¤B íu®ïçá ïVõï.
e/
1.¼k]©ØÃVò^ï^, ØåÄ¡ÝmçÅ \u®D ¼>V_ Ø>Vz©Aï^ JéD kòD ]«kÂïa¡ï^ ·ïV>V«Ýç>
Øï|Âþ[Ū.
2.]«kÂïa¡ïáV_ ÀìWçéï^ \u®D skÄVB W®kªºïçá¥D \V·©Ã|ÝmþÅm.
.m
C) 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 3, 4 Äö
199. Who is the chairman of the five member committee constituted by government of India in 1996
august for the return of shares of Public sector undertakings?
s:
A) C.Rangarajan B) P.Chidambaram
C) G.V.Ramakrishnan D) C.P.Chandrasekar
gïüâ 1996 gD gõ| ÖÍ]B ¶«ÄVªm, ØÃVmÝ mçÅ W®kªºï¹[ úzïçá ]òDé ØîD
tp
WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 5:
30.09.2021 (sBVw[):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
5
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 11-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 1) Ã^¹©AÝ>ïD x¿kmD,
AÝ>ï ¸[Ãz] sªVÂï^ (\) cºïÓÂz Ø>ö¥\V Ãz]ï^
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2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 11ŠD kz©A ÃV¦D Š 7, 8, 9
1. ÃV¦D 1 Š ÖÍ]B© ØÃVòáV>V«D
ps
2. ÃV¦D 2 Š ÖÍ]B ØÃVòáV>V«D ·>Í]«Ý]uz x[ªòD, ¸[ªòD
3. ÃV¦D 3 Š ÖÍ]BVs[ ¼\DÃV| ¶ÐÃkºï^
3. AslB_ : ïV|ï^ (\) kª clöªºï^, ¼káVõ xçÅï^.
1.
2.
3.
clì¼ïVáD
clì¼ïVáD
·u®éV
Tn 9-gD kz©A
11-gD kz©A
7ŠgD kz©A
e/
(2ŠgD ÃòkD)
.m
//t
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 A 72 D 73 D 74 B 75 A 76 A 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 D
81 C 82 A 83 A 84 C 85 A 86 C 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 D
c8
91 D 92 B 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 A 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 D
101 B 102 B 103 B 104 A 105 C 106 B 107 C 108 A 109 B 110 A
111 C 112 A 113 B 114 D 115 A 116 B 117 C 118 B 119 C 120 B
121 D 122 B 123 B 124 B 125 C 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 A
ps
131 C 132 D 133 C 134 B 135 C 136 D 137 B 138 D 139 B 140 A
141 C 142 C 143 D 144 A 145 B 146 D 147 D 148 C 149 D 150 A
151 B 152 B 153 C 154 C 155 B 156 A 157 B 158 A 159 B 160 C
161
171
181
191
C
D
C
B
162
172
182
192
C
A
A
B
163
173
183
193
D
D
D
B
164
174
184
194
D
D
D
B
165
175
185
195
Tn
D
C
C
A
166
176
186
196
B
C
B
D
167
177
187
197
A
C
C
B
168
178
188
198
C
D
C
B
169
179
189
199
B
B
A
C
170
180
190
200
C
A
C
A
e/
GR–II TAF MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – ISAI - 4 ANS KEY – 27.09.2021
1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 B
.m
11 B 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 C 17 D 18 B 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 C 23 D 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 C 29 B 30 D
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 D 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 C 39 C 40 C
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 B 47 B 48 B 49 B 50 C
//t
51 B 52 C 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 A 58 A 59 B 60 C
61 A 62 C 63 D 64 C 65 B 66 A 67 C 68 B 69 D 70 A
71 A 72 D 73 D 74 B 75 A 76 A 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 D
s:
81 C 82 A 83 A 84 C 85 A 86 C 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 D
91 D 92 B 93 C 94 A 95 B 96 A 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 D
101 B 102 B 103 B 104 A 105 C 106 B 107 C 108 A 109 B 110 A
tp
111 C 112 A 113 B 114 D 115 A 116 B 117 C 118 B 119 C 120 B
121 D 122 B 123 B 124 B 125 C 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 A
131 C 132 D 133 C 134 B 135 C 136 D 137 B 138 D 139 B 140 A
ht
141 C 142 C 143 D 144 A 145 B 146 D 147 D 148 C 149 D 150 A
151 B 152 B 153 C 154 C 155 B 156 A 157 B 158 A 159 B 160 C
161 C 162 C 163 D 164 D 165 D 166 B 167 A 168 C 169 B 170 C
171 D 172 A 173 D 174 D 175 C 176 C 177 C 178 D 179 B 180 A
181 C 182 A 183 D 184 D 185 C 186 B 187 C 188 C 189 A 190 C
191 B 192 B 193 B 194 B 195 A 196 D 197 B 198 B 199 C 200 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
Tn
TNPSC GROUP – II
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
//t
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 5 / åV^ Š 30
30.09.2021
.09.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶«EBéç\©A 11-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 1) Ã^¹©AÝ>ïD x¿kmD, 7 sªVÂï^
70
AÝ>ï ¸[Ãz] s
sªVÂï^ (\) cºïÓÂz
tp
Ø>ö¥\V Ãz]ï^
ØÃVòáV>V«D 11ŠD kz©A ÃV¦D Š 7, 8, 9 4 sªVÂï^
40
ht
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 5) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
¶«EBéç\©A
A) Jean Bodin
Tn
1. Who is called as the "Father of Modern Theory of Sovereignty"?
B) Hugo Gotius
C) Austin D) Machiavelli
e/
ÿµÂïõ¦kìï¹_ ''åTª ÖçÅBVõç\ ¼ïVâÃVâ½[ >Íç>'' ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|Ãkì BVì? g
A) ý[ ¼ÃV½[ B) N¥¼ïV z¼«V´Bü
C) gü½[ D) \VÂþBk_o ïV
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2. Which concept has been recently included in the subject of Political Science?
A) Governance B) Administration C) Political system D) Community i
¶«EB_ ¶¤sB_ ÃV¦Ý]_ ¶õç\ÂïVéÝ]_ ¼ÄìÝmÂØïVõ¦ ïòÝ>VÂïD ¨m?
A) gÓçï B) WìkVïD
//t
4. Eru Thazhuthal, a cultural sports was responsible for the passing of Jallikattu law which was
enacted in the year
A) 2015 B) 2014 C) 2017 D) 2019
ht
5
A) ÄJïD B) ÖçÅBVõç\ C) ¶«ÄVºïD D) z½¥öç\
8. “Law and order exist for the purpose of establishing justice and that when they fail in this purpose
c8
they become the dangerously structured dams that block the flow of social progress.” said by
A) J.M.Coetzee B) Maclver C) Martin Luther King D) Gilchrist
Äâ¦xD, οºzD À]çB WçéåVâ|k>uïVï ÖBºzþÅm Öç> ØÄFB >k®D ÃâÄÝ]_ ÄJï
káìßEçB >|ÂzD gÃÝ>Vª >|©A ¶çðïáVï Öçk \V®þ[Ū'' ÖÂíu® BVòç¦Bm?
ps
A) J.M.¼ïV⢠B) ¼\Ânkì C) \Vì½[ Ù>ìþº D) þ_þöüâ
9. Who is the great advocate of Protective democracy?
A) Jeremy B) Locke C) John Stuartmill D) Karl Marx
\ÂïáVâE xçÅçB ÃöÍmç«©Ãkìï¹[ x>[ç\BVªkì BVì?
A) ØÛ«t
A) Hindu
B) éVÂ Tn
C) ÛV[ ü|kì|t_ D) ïVì_ \VìÂü
10. In which newspaper was the report “Tryst with destiny” published?
B) Swadesamithran C) India D) Viduthalai
''¨]ìïVéÝ]çª åD¸Âçï¼BV| ÄÍ]©¼ÃVD'' ¨[Å cç« z¤Ým ¨Í> åV¹>a_ Øk¹BVªm?
e/
A) ÖÍm B) ·¼>Ä tÝ«[ C) ÖÍ]BV D) s|>çé
11. "A small village in Tamil Nadu is facing water scarcity. The villagers are trying to solve the
problem" is described in the film
.m
14. The maintenance and welfare of parents and senior citizens act introduced in the year
A) 2002 B) 2003 C) 2007 D) 2005
kB>Vª ØÃu¼ÅVì, x]¼BVì ëV\ö©A \u®D åé[ ÄVìÍ> Äâ¦D ¨Í> gõ| ØïVõ|k«©Ãâ¦m?
A) 2002 B) 2003 C) 2007 D) 2005
15. Protective democracy is based on
A) Equality B) Liberty C) Rights D) Social Security
ÃVmïV©A \ÂïáVâE ¨>çª ¶½©Ãç¦BVï ØïVõ| c^ám?
A) Ä\ÝmkD B) ·>Í]«D C) cöç\ï^ D) ÄJï ÃVmïV©A
16. In which year was the Bill of Rights adopted in the United States?
A) 1791 B) 1781 C) 1761 D) 1751
cöç\ï^ \¼ÄV>V ¨[Ãm ¶Ø\öÂïVs_ ¨Í> gõ| åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1791 B) 1781 C) 1761 D) 1751
17. “My notion of democracy is that under it the weakest should have the same opportunity as the
strongest. This can never happen except through non-violence ” said by
A) Abraham Lincoln B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) Karl Marx D) Nehru
''¨¹¼BVòÂzD ko¼BVòÂzD Ä\kVF©A kwºz>_ \ÂïáVâEl_ \â|¼\ åç¦ØîD ¨[ü>
5
¨[ ïòÝm Öm k[xçÅBuÅ kal_ \â|¼\ ÄVÝ]B©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D'' Öm BVòç¦B íu®?
A) g©«ïVD oºï[ B) \ïVÝ\V ïVÍ]
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C) ïVì_ \VìÂü D) ¼åò
18. The word "sovereignty" was published in _______book of Bodin.
A) Republic B) State C) Government D) People g
''ÖçÅBVõç\'' ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¼ÃV½[ ¨¿]B ¨Í> ±o_ Øk¹BVªm?
ps
A) z½B«· B) ¶«· C) ¶«ÄVºïD D) \Âï^ ïV
19. Statement 1: The word democracy is derived from the Greek words "Demos" & “Kratos ".
Statement 2: In Greek, Demos means people and Kratos means rule i
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct
íu® 2: þ¼«Âï Ø\Val_ ئ¼\Vü ¨[ÅV_ \Âï^ ¨[®D þ¼«â¼¦Vü ¨[ÅV_ gâE ¨[®D
D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1 : \ÂïáVâE ¨[Å ØÄV_ þ¼«Âï ØÄVuïáVª ''ئ¼\Vü'' (\) þ¼«â¼¦Vü'' ¨[Å Öò
ØÃVò^.
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A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
20. Find the correct statements about democracy
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D) “The foundation of democratic constitution is that only in this constitution is there any share in
liberty at all”- Aristotle
\ÂïáVâE Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
s:
22. 1. “Intolerance is itself a form of violence and an obstacle to the growth of a true democratic
spirit “.
2. Equal opportunity for the poor and the rich can only be achieved in a democracy.
Who said these statements?
A) Nehru B) Gandhi C) Ambedkar D) Karl Marx
1.Äþ©¸[ç\¼B í¦ Îò kçïBVª k[xçÅ>V[, cõç\BVª \ÂïáVâE \é« Öm¼k
tï©ØÃöB >ç¦BVzD.
2.¨¹¼BVòÂzD ko¼BVòÂzD Ä\ kVF©A kwºz>_ \ÂïáVâEl_ \â|¼\ åç¦ØîD.
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï^ BVòç¦Bm?
5
A) ¼åò B) ïVÍ]
C) ¶D¼ÃÝïì D) ïVì_ \VìÂü
c8
23. Statement 1: Democracy first emerged in Athens between 800 B.C. and 500 B.C.
Statement 2: This is an example of direct democracy. The citizens of the city-state are all as
members of the assembly
ps
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct
C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: °Ø>[ü åï«Ý]_ >V[ x>[x>o_ þ.x.800 - þ.x.500 Ö禩Ã⦠ïVéÝ]_
\ÂïáVâE ¼>V[¤Bm.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
Tn
íu® 2: Öm ¼å«½ \ÂïáVâE xçÅÂz ¨|ÝmÂïVâ¦VzD. Öºz åï« ¶«E[ z½\Âï^ ¶çªkòD
Äâ¦\[Å c®©¸ªìï^ gkì.
B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
24. International Indigenous People's Day on
e/
A) August 9 B) February 9 C) January 9 D) June 9
Äìk¼>Ä ¯ìkz½lª \Âï^ ]ªD ¨©¼ÃVm?
A) gïü| 9 B) ¸©«kö 9 C) Ûªkö 9 D) É[ 9 g
.m
2. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality
Who said these statements?
A) Karl Marx, Ambedkar B) Gandhi, Ambedkar
ht
27. Statement 1: The first general election of independent India was held in 1950 and 64 parties
contested
Statement 2: The number of political parties during the general election in 2014 was 264.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1: ·>Í]« ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ ØÃVm ¼>ì>_ 1950gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅm. Ö]_ 64 ïâEï^
¼ÃVâ½l⦪ì.
íu® 2: 2014gD gõ| ØÃVm ¼>ì>o[ ¼ÃVm ¶«EB_ ïâEï¹[ ¨õèÂçï 264 gzD.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) íu® 1, 2 Äö
28. Assertion A : All citizens over the age of 18 have been granted the right to vote since 1989.
5
Reason R: It was reduced from 21 to 18 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
c8
B) A correct, R incorrect C) A incorrect, R correct
D) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
íu® : 1989oòÍm 18 kB>Vª ¶çªÝm z½\ÂïÓÂzD kVÂï¹ÂzD cöç\ kwºï©Ãâ¦m.
ïV«ðD : Öm ¶«EBéç\©¸[ 61km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D Jé\Vï 21oòÍm 18 gï zçÅÂï©Ãâ¦m.
ps
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
D) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
A) Nehru B) Gandhi
Tn
29. “Although, There are some pros and cons of democracy, but there is nothing better than this. But it
is a great mistake to say that all problems in democracy will be solved. Problems are solved only by
intelligence and hard work” said by
C) Ambedkar D) Lincoln
\ÂïáVâEl_ Eé ÄV>ï, ÃV>ï ¶Dĺï^ ÖòÍ>VKD å\Âz Öç>s¦ EÅÍ>m ¼kØÅV[®t_çé.
e/
gªV_ \ÂïáVâEl_ ¶çªÝm ¸«ßÄçªïÓD yìÍms|D ¨[® í®km \VØÃòD >k®.
¸«ßÄçªï^ AÝ]íìç\BVKD ェ cçw©ÃVKD \â|¼\ yòD. Öm BVòç¦B íu®?
A) ¼åò B) ïVÍ] C) ¶D¼ÃÝïì D) oºï[
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30. Which amendment of the Constitution of India provides reservation for scheduled castes & Tribes
and women in local bodies?
A) 73rd B) 74th C) 72nd D) A and B
c^áVâE ¶ç\©Aï¹_ >VµÝ>©Ã⦠(\) Ãwºz½ ÖªÝ>kòÂzD, ØÃõïÓÂzD Ö¦ÎmÂÿ|
//t
5
b.Russia - 2. National Assembly B) 4 5 3 2 1
c. USA - 3. Duma C) 2 3 1 5 4
c8
d. South Africa - 4. Federal Assembly D) 2 3 1 4 5
e. Switzerland - 5. Parliament
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
ps
a.ÃVþü>V[ Š 1. ïVºþ«ü A) 1 2 3 4 5
b.«iBV Š 2. ¼>EB Äçà B) 4 5 3 2 1
c.¶Ø\öÂïV Š 3. ù\V C) 2 3 1 5 4
d.Ø>[ g©¸öÂïV Š 4. íâ¦VâE Äçà D) 2 3 1 4 5
e.·sâÄìéVÍm
1. Cabinet government
2. Responsible government
Š 5. åV¦VÓ\[ÅD
Tn
35. Parliamentary system of government also known as ________
e/
3. Westminster government
A) 1 Only B) 2 Only C) 3 Only D) 1, 2, 3
åV¦VÓ\[Å xçÅ ¶«ÄVºïD ¨[Ãm ¨ËkV® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm?
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d. Monarchy - 4. Switzerland D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.¶]Ãì xçÅ Š 1. ÖºþéVÍm A) 1 2 3 4
tp
37. “Man is born free, and everywhere he is in chains. One man thinks himself the master of others, but
remains more of a slave than they are” said by
A) Periyar B) Rousseau C) Ambedkar D) John Locke
''\M>[ ·>Í]«\Vï© ¸ÅÂþÅV[ gªV_ ¨ºØïºz ïVèÐD ¶k[ séºþ¦©Ãâ½òÂþÅV[.
Îò \M>[, >[窼B ¸Åö[ ¨Û\Vª«Vï ¨õbþÅV[, ¨MÐD ¸Åç«Â ïVâ½KD tï¡D
¶½ç\BVï¼k Ø>V¦ìÍm ïVð©Ã|þÅV['' ¨ªÂ í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ØÃöBVì B) Ô¼ÄV C) ¶D¼ÃÝïì D) ÛV[ éVÂ
38. ‘India as a Sovereign democratic republic’ as one of the fundamental elements of the basic structure
of the constitution said by
A) Indira Gandhi vs Raj narain Case B) A.K.Gopalan vs Madras State Case
C) M.R.Balaji vs Mysore State Case D) Mandal case
ÖÍ]BV ¨[Ãm ÖçÅBVõç\ ØÃVòÍ]B \ÂïáVâE z½B«· ¨[®D Öm¼k ¶«EBéç\©¸[
¶½©Ãç¦Â í® ¨ªÂ í®D kwÂz ¨m?
A) ÖÍ]«VïVÍ] Vs «VëåV«VBð[ kwÂz B) A.K.¼ïVÃVé[ Vs \>«Vü ¶«· kwÂz
C) M.R.ÃVéV÷ Vs ç\óì ¶«· kwÂz D) \õ¦_ kwÂz
39. Statement 1: GNHI was created in the 1970s by Jigme Singye Wangchuk, the fourth king of
5
Bhutan.
Statement 2: On July 18, 2008, the Bhutanese government gave GNHI, a constitutional status.
c8
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 1 only correct D) 2 only correct
íu® 1: GNHI gªm 1970ï¹_ ¯¦VM[ åV[ïVD ¶«Ä«Vª ÷¼\ Eº¼B kVº·Â ¨[Ãk«V_
ps
còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: Éçé 18, 2008_ ¯¦V[ ¶«ÄVªm GNHIÂz ¶«EBéç\©A ¶ºÿïV«D ØïV|Ý>m.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1, 2 >k®
C) íu® 1 \â|D Äö D) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
40. GNHI's central tenants are
1. Sustainable development
3.Cultural preservation
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4
Tn 2.Environmental protection
4.Good governance
C) 1, 3, 4 D) All
g
ïV
e/
GNHI[ ç\B ÄV_Aï^ BVçk?
1.WçéBVª ¼\DÃV| 2.·u®ßów_ ÃVmïV©A i
3.ïéVßÄV« ÃVmïV©A 4.å_ gÓçï
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) ¶çªÝmD
.m
41. In which Kural, Thiruvalluvar expresses the idea of identifying revenue, collecting it efficiently
and preserving the accumulated revenue in the government treasure?
A) Ãç¦z½ íµ¶ç\ß· åâëõ g®D
//t
cç¦BV[ ¶«Äò^ °®
B) ¶ÞÄVç\ ~çï ¶¤ÆÂïD ÖÍåV[zD
¨ÞÄVç\ ¼kÍ>ì þB_A
C) #ºïVç\ ï_s m襦ç\ ÖDJ[®D
s:
cç¦BV[ ¶«Äò^ °®
B) ¶ÞÄVç\ ~çï ¶¤ÆÂïD ÖÍåV[zD
¨ÞÄVç\ ¼kÍ>ì þB_A
C) #ºïVç\ ï_s m襦ç\ ÖDJ[®D
ÀºïV WéªV^ ÃkìÂz
D) ÖBuÅKD ~â¦KD ïVÝ>KD ïVÝ>
kzÝ>KD k_ém ¶«·
42. Which of the following are the functions of the modern State?
1.Security and Defence 2.Economic Services
3.Provision of Essential Services 4.Religious Duties
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
ÿµkòÃçkï¹_ ¨m åTª ¶«E[ Ãèïçá ÄVìÍ>m gzD?
1.Ö¦ìïV©A (\) ÃVmïV©A 2.ØÃVòáV>V« Ãèï^
3.¶Ý]BVkEB ¼Äçkï^ kwºz>_ 4.\> ï¦ç\ï^
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
43. 1. “Sovereignty is the absolute and perpetual power of the state. That is, the greatest power to
5
command”
2.The father of the modern theory of sovereignty
c8
Whose said these above statements?
A) Harold Laski B) Harold Loswell C) Jean Bodin D) None
1.ÖçÅBVõç\ ¨[Ãm Îâ|Ø\VÝ> (\) >ç¦l_éV> ¶«E[ ¶]ïV«\VzD. ¼\KD ¶y>
ïâ¦çáÝ >[ç\ cç¦B>Vï¡D ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
ps
2.åTª ÖçÅBVõç\ ¼ïVâÃVâ½[ >Íç>.
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ïÓÂz cöBkì BVì?
A) ØÇ«V_| éVüþ B) ØÇ«V_| éVüØk_
C) ý[ ¼ÃV½[
44. Match :
Case
a.Gopalan Vs State of Madras
D) ¨kòt_çé
Tn
Year
- 1. 1950 A)
a
2
b
3
c
4
d
1
b.Indian Union Vs Madana Gopal - 2. 1954 B) 1 2 3 4
e/
c. Synthetics Vs State of Uttar Pradesh - 3. 1990 C) 2 3 1 4
d.Indira Gandhi Vs Rajnarain - 4. 1975 D) 1 2 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
.m
kwÂz gõ|
a.¼ïVÃVé[ Vs \>«Vü ¶«· Š 1. 1950
b.ÖÍ]B ¥MB[ Vs \>ª ¼ïVÃV_ Š 2. 1954
c.E[Ø>½Âü Vs cÝ]« ¸«¼>Ä ¶«· Š 3. 1990
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B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 3 1 4
tp
D) 1 2 4 3
45. Who wrote the book “Liberty”?
A) Bodin B) Lock C) J.S.Mill D) Rousseau
ht
47. Which of the following are the indicators in the Human Resource Development Index?
1.Quality of Life 2.Education
3.Average life expectancy 4.Environmental status
A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2 D) All
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ \M>ká ¼\DÃVâ| z¤Xâ½_ c^á z¤X|ï^ BVçk?
1.kVµÂçï >«D 2.ï_s 3.Ä«VÄö g¥âïVéD 4.·u®ów_ Wçé
A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2 D) ¶çªÝmD
48. Find the incorrect about the Right to Information Act?
A) It legalised public access to information from the government
5
B) It has made the government transparent and accountable to the citizens
C) The government has not been made accountable to the people
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D) The act was enacted in 2005
>ïk_ ¶¤¥D cöç\ß Ä⦺ï¹_ >kÅVªm?
A) ¶«ÄVºïÝ]¦D \Âï^ >ïk_ï^ ¼ïâÃ>çª Ä⦩¯ìk\VÂþBm
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B) ¶«ÄVºïÝç> Øk¹©Ãç¦ >[ç\ ØïVõ¦>Vï¡D, z½\ÂïÓÂz ØÃV®©Aðì¡ ØïVõ¦>Vï¡D
\Vu¤¥^ám
C) ¶«ÄVºïD \ÂïÓÂz ï¦ç\©Ãâ¦>Vï \Vuũæ s_çé
D) ÖßÄâ¦D 2005gD gõ| ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m
49. Find the incorrect option :
A) Articles 14 - 18
B) Articles 19 - 22
C) Articles 23 - 24
- Right to Equality
- Right to Freedom
Tn
- Right against Exploitation
g
ïV
e/
D) Article 31 - Constitutional right to legal remedies
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m? i
A) c®©Aï^ 14 - 18 Š Ä\Ýmk cöç\
B) c®©Aï^ 19 - 22 Š ·>Í]« cöç\
.m
54. The first article of the Indian Constitution speaks about ________
A) Territory of India B) Indian politics C) Rules of India D) People of India
ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©¸[ x>_ c®©A ¨ª z¤©¸¦©Ãâ|^ám ¨m?
A) ÖÍ]BVs[ Wé©Ã«©A B) ÖÍ]BVs[ ¶«EB_
C) ÖÍ]BVs[ s]ï^ D) ÖÍ]BVs[ \Âï^
55. Who raised the slogan of Liberty, equality and fraternity?
A) French revolutionaries B) American revolutionaries
C) Indian revolutionaries D) English Revolutionaries
·>Í]«D, Ä\ÝmkD, ļïV>«ÝmkD ¨[Å xwÂïÝç> BVì {ºþ xwºþªì?
5
A) ¸Ø«Þ· A«âEBVáìï^ B) ¶Ø\öÂïV A«âEBVáìï^
C) ÖÍ]B A«âEBVáìï^ D) ÖºþéVÍm A«âEBVáìï^
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56. Detention of a person to protect the law and security of the nation is
A) Habeas Corpus B) Judicial Order
C) Preventive Detention D) Prohibition
ps
åVâ½[ ÃVmïV©A ïò] Îòkç« >|©A ïVko_ çk©Ãm
A) gâØïVðì¡ gçð B) À]Âïâ¦çá gçð
C) >|©AÂïVk_ D) >ç¦ gçð
57. Right to Information Act passed in the year
A) 2004 B) 2005
>ïk_ cöç\ Äâ¦D ¨Í> gõ| Ä⦩¯ìk\VÂþ¥^ám?
A) 2004 B) 2005 C) 2007
Tn C) 2007 D) 2002
D) 2002
58. The right of the indigenous people to preserve their traditional lands, thereby protecting the trade,
e/
based on the negotiations adopted in the year
A) 2010 B) 2009 C) 2007 D) 2005
¯ìkz½lª \Âï^ >ºï^ Ø>V[ç\ Wéºï¹[ ¼\_ ØïVõ½òÂzD cöç\, ¶>[ JéD ¶kìï^
ØÄF¥D kìÝ>ïD ÃVmïVÂï å¦Í> ¼Ãß·kVìÝç>l[ ¶½©Ãç¦l[ ¨Í> gõ| Ö>çª ¸«ï¦ª©Ã|Ý]ªì?
.m
61. ‘In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality” said by
A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Wilson D) Nehru
''¶«EBo_ å\Âz Ä\ÝmkD ÖòÂzD gªV_ ÄJïD \u®D ØÃVòáV>V« kVµs_ Ä\Ýmk\uÅ
ht
5
A) St. Thomas Aquinas B) Machiavelli C) Aristotle D) Xenophon
''os *>Vª cç«Â¼ïVçk'' ¨[Å ±o[ gEöBì BVì?
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A) AM> >V\ü ¶ÂsªVü B) \VÂþBk_o
C) ¶öü¦Vâ½_ D) ØļªV¼ÃV[
66. In democracy, sovereignty resides with
ps
A) State B) Government C) People D) Media
\ÂïáVâEl_ ÖçÅBVõç\l[ cçÅs¦\Vï Öò©Ãm
A) ¶«· B) ¶«ÄVºïD C) \Âï^ D) »¦ïD
67. Votes are registered through electronic voting machines from the year
A) 2005 B) 2007
Tn C) 2003
¨Í> gõ| x>_ kVÂzï^ t[ªb kVÂzÃ]¡ ÖBÍ]«ºï^ Jé\Vï Ã]¡ ØÄFB©Ã|þ[Ū?
A) 2005 B) 2007
68. Who wrote the book Freedom?
C) 2003 D) 2004
D) 2004
e/
A) JS Mill B) Locke C) Rousseau D) Bodin
·>Í]«D ¨[Å ±çé ¨¿]Bkì BVì? g
A) ¼Û.¨ü.t_ B) éV C) Ô¼ÄV D) ¼ÃV½[
69. Direct Democracy is practiced in the ïV
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a. Israel - 1. Diet A) 1 2 3 4
b. Norway - 2. Storting B) 4 2 3 1
c. Germany - 3. Bundestag C) 3 2 1 4
tp
d. Japan - 4. Knesset D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.Öü¼«_ Š 1. ¦Bâ A) 1 2 3 4
ht
b.åVì¼k Š 2. ü¼¦V콺 B) 4 2 3 1
c.ØÛì\M Š 3. Ã[¦ü¦V C) 3 2 1 4
d.Û©ÃV[ Š 4. ØåØÄâ D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòáV>V«D
5
C) åï«\B\V>_ D) ¼ÃVm\Vª ¼kçékVF©AïáV_
72. On which basis B.R.Ambedkar determines the Indian economic Problems?
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A) Small Holdings in India and their remedies B) The Problem of the Rupee
C) Equity Economics D) All the above
B.R.¶D¼ÃÝïì ÖÍ]B ØÃVòáV>V«© ¸«ßÄçªïçá Ö>[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ g«VFþÅVì?
A) zçÅÍ> Wé¡ç¦ç\ \u®D yì¡ï^ B) ÖÍ]B ÔÃVl[ EÂï_ï^
ps
C) Ä\>ì\© ØÃVòáV>V«D D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
73. Choose the correct statement regarding the Gross National Happiness Index (GNHI)
1.Gross National Happiness Index was introduced in the year 1962.
governance
A) Statement 1 and 2 are true
Tn
2.Gross national happiness index was introduced by Japan King JigmeSingyeWangchuck.
3.It measures sustainable development, environmental conservation promotion of culture and good
B) Statement 2 is true
C) Statement 2 and 3 are true D) Statement 3 is true
e/
Ø\VÝ> åVâ| \þµßE z¤X| (GNHI) Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
1.Ø\VÝ> åVâ| \þµßE z¤X| ¨[Å Ø>V¦ì 1962gD gõ½_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
2.Û©ÃV[ åVâ| \[ªì ÷¼\ Š Eº¼B Š kVº·Â ¨[Ãkì còkVÂþªVì.
.m
76. Which Industrial policy was developed based on P.C. Mahalanobis Model?
A) Industrial Policy-1948 B) Industrial Policy-1956
C) Industrial Policy-1985 D) Industrial Policy-1991
\ï鼪V¸E[ káìßE \V]öl[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¶ç\Âï©Ã⦠Ø>VauØïV^çï ¨m?
A) 1948gD gõ| Ø>VauØïV^çï yì\VªD
B) 1956gD gõ| Ø>VauØïV^çï yì\VªD
C) 1985gD gõ| Ø>VauØïV^çï yì\VªD
D) 1991gD gõ| Ø>VauØïV^çï yì\VªD
77. Match the following: a b c d
5
a) Rourkela - 1. Russia A) 1 4 3 2
b) Bhilai - 2. India B) 4 2 1 3
c8
c) Durgapur - 3. Germany C) 3 1 4 2
d) Salem - 4. England D) 2 3 1 4
ØÃVòÝmï. (¨àz W®kªD) a b c d
ps
a.Ôì¼ïéV Š 1. «iBV A) 1 4 3 2
b.¸éVF Š 2. ÖÍ]BV B) 4 2 1 3
c.mìïV¯ì Š 3. ØÛì\M C) 3 1 4 2 g
d.¼ÄéD Š 4. ÖºþéVÍm D) 2 3 1 4
ïV
78. Consider the following pair
1. Steel Authority of India
2. First Paper Mill
3. Industrial Policy 1956
-
-
-
1974 Tn
Serampur
Private Sector
i
e/
Which of the following pair is correct?
A) 1 only B) 1,2 only
C) 2,3 only D) 2 only
.m
81. In which year the new technology of Green revolution was tried as a pilot project in seven districts?
A) 1960 B) 1975 C) 1982 D) 1958
x>_ ÷ç\©A«âE ¨Í> gõ| °¿ \Vk⦺ï¹_ ''ka å¦ÝmD ]â¦D'' ¨[Å A]B Ø>VauOâÃ
xçÅ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1960 B) 1975 C) 1982 D) 1958
82. As per 2011 census, Which Indian State has the highest literacy rate?
A) Kerala B) Bihar C) Mizoram D) Goa
2011 ïðÂØï|©¸[ý ¶]ï ¨¿Ý>¤¡ ØïVõ¦ \VWéD?
A) ¼ï«áV B) ¬ïVì C) t¼ÄV«D D) ¼ïVkV
5
83. Choose the correct statement
1.Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy
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2.Some of the fundamental and heavy industries units are being operated under the public sector
3.Due to the liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance
4.Mixed economy makes it a perfect model for public-private partnership
ps
A) Statement 1, 2, 3 is true B) All statements are true
C) Statement 1, 3, 4 is true D) Statement 1, 2, 4 is true
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï?
1.ÖÍ]BV ïé©A ØÃVòáV>V«Ý]uz tïßEÅÍ> ¨|ÝmïVâ¦VzD.
Tn
2.xÂþB\Vª ¶½©Ãç¦ \u®D 磌ï Ø>Va_ï^ ØÃVmÝmçÅBV_ WìkþÂï©Ã|þ[Ū.
3.ØÃVòáV>V« >V«Vá\B\VÂïo[ sçákVï, >MBVì mçÅl[ káìßE xÂþBÝmkD ØîþÅm.
4.ïé©A ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][ ÿµ >MBVì mçÅ¥D ØÃVmÝmçÅ¥D ÖçðÍm ØÄB_Ã|þ[Ū.
A) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö B) íu® ¶çªÝmD Äö
C) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö D) íu® 1, 2, 4 Äö
e/
84. Match the following:
Year Average annual growth rate a b c d
g
a) 1981 - 1.2.22 A) 1 2 4 3 ïV
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b) 1991 - 2. 2.16 B) 1 2 3 4
c) 2001 - 3. 1.97 C) 2 1 3 4 i
d) 2011 - 4. 1.66 D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï.
//t
c.2001 - 3. 1.97 C) 2 1 3 4
d.2011 - 4. 1.66 D) 4 3 2 1
tp
3.Indian railways provide Wi-Fi facility first in India is Chennai railway station
A) 1 only B) 2 only
C) 3 only D) None of the above
¸[kòkªku¤_ >kÅVª Î[çÅ ïõ¦¤.
1.¼>EB mçÅxï kVöBD 1950_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
2.°ì ÖÍ]BV \u®D ÖÍ]B[ °ìçé[ü 27.08.2007 ¶[® Î[ÅVï ÖçðÍ>ª.
3.ÖÍ]B Ö«l_¼k x>_ Wifi ØÄ[çªl_ mkÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D C) 3 \â|D D) ¨m¡t_çé
86. Pick out the correct order regarding the ranking of GDP
A) China, America, Japan, Germany B) America, China, India, Japan
C) America, China, Germany, Japan D) America, China, Japan, Germany
GDP >«köçÄl_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï¡D.
A) æªV, ¶Ø\öÂïV, Û©ÃV[, ØÛì\M
B) ¶Ø\öÂïV, æªV, ÖÍ]BV, Û©ÃV[
C) ¶Ø\öÂïV, æªV, ØÛì\M, Û©ÃV[
D) ¶Ø\öÂïV, æªV, Û©ÃV[, ØÛì\M
87. Which position secured India in terms of nominal GDP among the world economy?
5
A) 6 B) 3 C) 7 D) 8
céï© ØÃVòá>V«Ý]_ Ø\VÝ> c^åVâ| cuÃÝ] (GDP) ÖÍ]BV ØÃu®^á Ö¦D?
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A) gÅVkm Ö¦D B) J[ÅVkm Ö¦D
C) °wVkm Ö¦D D) ¨â¦Vkm Ö¦D
88. Assertion : In India, there is a rapid increase in domestic consumption
ps
Reason: Due to the standard economic growth in India, standard of living should be increased.
A) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is the correct explanation
B) Assertion is true but reason is false
C) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is not the correct explanation
D) Both Assertion and reason is false
Tn
íu® : ÖÍ]B \Âï^ c^åVâ| Oïì¡ ØÃVòâïçá kVºzkm ØÃò\á¡ ¶]ïöÝm ÖòÂþÅm.
ïV«ðD : ÖÍ]B åVâ½[ ¼kï\Vª ØÃVòáV>V« káìßElªV_ \Âï¹[ kVµÂçï >«D
cBìÍm^ám.
e/
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
.m
91. Assertion : The government keeps reducing the stake in PSU banks as and when they shell shares.
Reason : So, to that extent they can also become minority shareholders in these banks. This is in
accordance with the privatization policy
A) Assertion is true but reason is false
B) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is the correct explanation
C) Assertion is false but reason is true
D) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is not the correct explanation
íu® : ØÃVmÝmçÅ kºþï^ úzïçá suzD ¼ÃVm >ªm úzï¹[ ¨õèÂçïçB ¶«·
Ø>V¦ìÍm zçÅÝm kòþÅm
5
ïV«ðD : ØÃVmÝmçÅ kºþï¹_ ¶«ÄVºïD E®ÃV[ç\ úz>V«Vï \VÅ¡D >MBVì\B\VÂï_
ØïV^çï ïV«ðD
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A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
92. Who said “The essence of planning is to the find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower,
ps
of money and so on”?
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) B.R.Ambedhkar C) V.K.R.V Rao D) Jawarhalal Nehru
]â¦t|>o[ ÄV«D ¨[Ãm \M>ÄÂ] káºï^, ÃðD ÖkuçÅ EÅÍ> kaï¹_ ÃB[Ã|Ýmkç>
z¤ÂzD ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) ïVÍ]
3. W] Jé>ªÂ ïVéD
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D
C) 3 \â|D D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
s:
B) In 1515, Sir Thomas roe was successful in getting permissions from Jahangir for setup factory,
C) In 1858, British parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was
transferred from east India company to the British crown
ht
D) Before the advent of the British, the economy of the village was self sufficient
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1.¼ÃVìß·ÿEBìï^ 1510oòÍm ¼ïVkV¡¦[ kèïD ØÄFm kÍ>ªì.
2.1515_ Äì >V\ü ¼«V, ÛÇVºÿö¦tòÍm Ø>VauÄVçéï^ ¶ç\Ým ØïV^á ¶Ð\] ØÃuÅVì.
3.1858_ gºþé ÃV«VÓ\[ÅD, þwÂþÍ]B ïDØÃMl¦tòÍm ÖÍ]BVçk ¼å«½BVï gâE ØÄF¥D
¶]ïV«D ØÃuÅm.
4.gºþ¼éBì gâEÂz x[ ÖÍ]B© ØÃVòáV>V«D ·BÄVìA ØÃVòáV>V«\Vï ÖòÍ>m.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 4 Äö
5
A) Private Social welfare B) Social Welfare
C) Revenue yield D) Industry development
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kºþï^ ¼>EB\B\VÂï©Ãâ¦>[ xÂþB ¼åVÂïD
A) >MBVì ÄJï åéD B) ÄJï åéD
C) kòkVF ~⦠D) Ø>Va_ xu®ç\
ps
98. Match the following: a b c d
a) Lowest birth rate - 1. Bihar A) 1 2 3 4
b) Highest birth rate - 2. Arunachal Pradesh B) 3 4 2 1
c) Lowest density population - 3. Kerala C) 2 4 1 3
d) Lowest literacy rate
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.tïÂzçÅÍ> ¸Å©A sþ>D
b.¶]ïá¡ ¸Å©A sþ>D
Š 1. ¬ïVì
Tn
- 4. Uttar Pradesh
Š 2. ¶òðVßÄé© ¸«¼>ÄD
D) 4
A)
B)
1
3
2
a
1
b
2
4
3
c
3
2
d
4
1
e/
c.tï zçÅkVª \Âï^ Ø>Vçï ¶¦ìÝ] Š 3. ¼ï«áV C) 2 4 1 3
d.zçÅkVª ¨¿Ý>¤¡ sþ>D Š 4. cÝ]«¸«¼>ÄD D) 4 2 1 3
99. Assertion : Ramachandra Guha calls Kumarappa as “The Green Gandhian”
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D) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is not the correct explanation
íu® : Ö«V\ßÄÍ]« zÇV ¶kìï^ z\«©ÃVçk ''ÃßçÄÂïVÍ]'' ¨[® ¶çwÝ>Vì.
ïV«ðD : z\«©ÃV ÖÍ]BVs[ ·u®ßówoB_ z¤Ým ¶½Ý>átâ¦Vì.
i
s:
5
B) Both Assertion and reason are false
C) Both assertion and reason is true, reason is not the correct explanation
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D) Assertion is false but reason is true
íu® : 1948gD gõ| °©«_ 6 ¶[® >ªm x>_ Ø>VauØïV^çïçB ¶¤sÝ>m.
ïV«ðD : ÖÍ]BVs_ ïé©A© ØÃVòáV>V«Ýç> ¶¤xï©Ã|Ým>_
ps
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
103. Which plan is called as “Gadjil Yojana”?
A) First five year plan
C) Fifth five year plan
ïVâþ_ ]â¦D ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|km ¨m?
Tn B) Second five year plan
D) Third five year plan
e/
A) x>_ nÍ>Võ| ]â¦D B) Ö«õ¦VD nÍ>Võ| ]â¦D
C) nÍ>VD nÍ>Võ| ]â¦D D) J[ÅVD nÍ>Võ| ]â¦D
104. On which basis Human Development Index were calculated?
.m
105. Which of the following State’s Monopoly is not listed in Industrial Policy 1948?
A) Automobiles B) Mineral oil
s:
5
c.k®ç\ Îa©A Š 3. 1951 - 56 C) 1 5 3 2 4
d.gõ|Ý ]⦺ï^ Š 4. 1969 - 1974 D) 4 1 5 2 3
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e.WçéBVª >uÄVìA Wçé Š 5. 1961 - 66
108. Ryotwari system was initially introduced in
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Punjab
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C) Maharashtra D) Tamilnadu
Ö«BÝkVö xçÅ x>[x>o_ ¶¤xïD ØÄFB©Ã⦠֦D
A) \Ý]B¸«¼>ÄD
C) \ïV«Vi½«V
B) ÃÞÄV©
D) >tµåV|
g
Tn
109. In which year “Permanent settlement act” was introduced by Lord Cornwallis? ïV
A) 1793 B) 1858
C) 1914 D) 1948 i
W«Í>« ØÄVÝmöç\çB Äâ¦Ýç> ïV«[kVoü ¸«A ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B gõ|?
e/
A) 1793 B) 1858
C) 1914 D) 1948
110. Match the following: a b c d e
.m
e.>ºï©A«âE Š 5. ÖÅV_
ht
AslB_
111. Pick out the incorrect one
A) Man and the Biosphere Programme- 1971 B) “Biosphere” coined by– Eduard Suess
C) “Bios” means - Water D) “Biosphere” – Greek Word
ØÃVòÍ>V>ç> ¼>ìÍØ>|.
A) \M>ÐD clì¼ïVáxD Š 1971 B) clì¼ïVáD Š ¨âkVìâ ·ØBü
C) üBVü ¨[ÅV_ Àì D) clì¼ïVáD - þ¼«Âï kVìÝç>
112. Match the following:
5
a b c d
a) Project Tiger - 1. 1999 A) 1 2 3 4
c8
b) Operation Crocodile - 2. 1988 B) 4 3 1 2
c) Project Elephant - 3. 1975 C) 4 3 2 1
d) Project Sea turtle - 4. 1973 D) 2 1 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
ps
a. Ao ïV©ÃïD Š 1. 1999 A) 1 2 3 4
b.x>çéï^ káì©A ÖBÂïD Š 2. 1988 B) 4 3 1 2
c. BVçªï^ ÃVmïV©AÝ ]â¦D Š 3. 1975 C) 4 3 2 1
d.ï¦_ gç\ï^ ÃVmïV©AÝ ]â¦D Š 4. 1973 D) 2 1 3 4
113. Pick out the incorrect one:( As on Jan 2017)
A) Community Reserves - 26
C) National Parks
ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|.
- 101
Tn B) Conservation Resources
D) Wildlife Sanctuaries
- 67
- 537
e/
A) Äx>VB ïV|ï^ Š 26 B) ÃVmïVÂï©Ã⦠ïV|ï^ Š 67
C) ¼>EB ¯ºïVÂï^ Š 101 D) Ä«ðVéBºï^ Š 537 g
114. ‘Bhairodev Dakav Sonchuri’ forest situated at?
ïV
.m
Statement 2 : Hailey National Park is now renamed as Jim Corbett National Park.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
C) Both 1 and 2 correct D) Both 1 and 2 incorrect
ht
5
A) Lion Tailed Macaque B) Asiatic Lion C) Kashmir Stag D) None of the above
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ''Ǻz_'' ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|km ¨m?
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A) EºïkV_ z«ºz B) gEB EºïD C)ïVi*ì ïçé\V[ D) Öku®^ ¨m¡t_çé
121. Most of the ‘Biodiversity Hotspot’occurs in?
A) Tropical Forest B) Desert Forest C) Mangrove forest D) Temperate Grassland
ØÃòDÃVéVª ''kª ç\BD'' ¨ºz ¶ç\Ím^ám?
ps
A) Øk©Ã \õ¦é ïV|ï^ B) ÃVçékªÂ ïV|ï^
C) Äm©A WéÂïV|ï^ D) t> Øk©Ã \õ¦é A_Øk¹
122. Match the following: a b c d
a) Ramanathapuram
b) Nilgiris
c) Coimbatore
d) Kancheepuram
Tn
- 1. Indira Gandhi National Park
- 2. Gulf of Mannar Marine Park
- 3. Mukurthi National Park
- 4. Kovalam Beach
A)
B)
C)
D)
1
3
2
4
2
2
3
3
3
1
1
2
4
4
4
1
e/
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. Ö«V\åV>A«D Š 1. ÖÍ]«V ïVÍ] ¼>EB ¯ºïV A) 1 2 3 4
b.Àéþö Š 2. \[ªVì kçáz¦V ï¦u¯ºïV B) 3 2 1 4
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Ã_¼k® kçïBVª >Vk«ºï^ (\) séºþªºï^ kV¿D Îò z¤©¸â¦ kVµs¦D --------------- ¨[®
¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) ¯ºïV B) ïV©ÃïD C) óµWçé \õ¦éD D) clöª©Ã[ç\
s:
Reason (R): Paddy and Jute are grown well in the soil.
A) A and R both are wrong B) A and R both are correct
C) A is correct, R is wrong D) A is wrong but R is correct
íu® : kõ¦_\õ g®ï¹[ JéD ¶öÂï©Ãâ| ýB çkÂï©Ãâ¦, \ÂþB ØÃVòâïáV_
gª Î[®.
ïV«ðD : Øå_ \u®D Äð_ kõ¦_ \õè_ å[z káòD.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k®, gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
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c. t>çk å] ÃBðD Š 3. WREéVÍm C) 2 1 4 3
d.\çé cßETµ Ö¿çk sçáBVâ| Š 4. ¸«D\AÝ]«V D) 3 4 2 1
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127. Which of the following is the Travel agents association of India?
A) TIDC B) IATO C) TAAI D) IATA
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÖÍ]B ÃBð xïkìï^ ĺïD ¨m?
A) TIDC B) IATO C) TAAI D) IATA
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128. In which state Kanha National Park is situated?
A) Rajasthan B) West Bengal C) Madhya Pradesh D) Gujarat
ïV[ÇV ¼>EB ¯ºïV ¨Í> \VWéÝ]_ c^ám?
A) Ö«VÛü>V[ B) ¼\uz kºïVáD C) \Ý]B ¸«¼>ÄD D) zÛ«VÝ
B) 2 only correct
C) Both 1 and 2 correct D) Both 1 and 2 incorrect
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e/
íu® 1 : 1935-gD gõ| °.÷.¦V[üo ¨[Ãk«V_ ''óµWçé \õ¦éD'' ¨[Å ØÄV_
ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2 : >kçá x>_Wçé Oïì¼kV«VzD.
ïV
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A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö
B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
i
130. Which animal is found in Corbett National Park?
A) Elephant B) Lion C) Deer D) Tiger
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5
C) ÖBuçïl[ ØÄVìÂïD Š ÛËkVm D) Ø>uþ[ çïéVi Š ØïV_o \çé
135. Which place is called as ‘Poor Man’s Ooty’?
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A) Ooty B) Kothagiri C) Yercaud D) Yelagiri
''°çwï¹[ »â½'' ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|km ¨m?
A) »â½ B) ¼ïVÝ>þö C) °uïV| D) °éþö
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136. Statement 1: The Pygmy Hog Conservation Programme was started by Goutam Narayanan.
Statement 2: The Pygmy Hog was only seen in Rajasthan.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
C) Both 1 and 2 correct D) Both 1 and 2 incorrect
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
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íu® 1 : Øïá>D åV«VBð[ ¨[Ãk«V_ z^á ïVâ|©Ã[¤ ÃVmïV©A ¶ç\©A còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
íu® 2: z^á ïVâ|© Ã[¤ï^ Ö«VÛü>V[ \VWéÝ]_ \â|D c^ám.
B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
137. In which district Karaivetti birds sanctuary is located?
e/
A) Sivagangai B) Ariyalur C) Erode D) Kancheepuram
''ïVç«Økâ½'' ¨ÐD ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD ¨Í> \Vkâ¦Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám?
A) Ekïºçï B) ¶öBÙì C) ~¼«V| D) ïVÞEA«D
138. Assertion: All producers and consumers are not decomposed.
.m
Reason : The organic matter of some of them is preserved in fossil fuels such as Coal and
petroleum.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Both Assertion and Reason are false
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C) Assertion is true but Reason is false D) Assertion is false but reason is true
íu® : ïVìÃ[ cuÃÝ]BVáìïÓD, Oïì¼kVòD ïâzk]_çé.
ïV«ðD : ÖÝ>çïB clì ØÃVòâï^ í½B ¨õØðBVï¡D WéÂïöBVï¡D \VuÅ©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) íu® ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö B) íu®, ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k®
s:
141. Statement 1 : Coral reefs are marine ecosystems which are held together and are classified into
three types.
Statement 2 : Corals are made up of Calcium Carbonate.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
C) Both 1 and 2 correct D) Both 1 and 2 incorrect
íu® 1 : ÃkáÝ]â|ï^ íâ¦\Vï kVwÂí½Bçk. Öçk J[® kçï©Ã|D.
íu® 2 : Öku¤[ {| ïV_EBD ïVìüªâ¦V_ gªm.
A) íu® 1 \â|D Äö B) íu® 2 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
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142. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding Tundra biome?
A) Regions remain frozen B) Short growing seasons
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C) People are nomadic
D) Meat processing and dairy products are the main occupation
#Í]«© Ã_KlìÝ Ø>Vz] z¤Ým ØÃVòÍ>V>m?
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A) cçÅͼ> ïVð©Ã|D Ãz]
B) z®þB ïVé ÃòkÝ >Vk«ºï^
C) Öºz kV¿D \Âï^ åV¼¦V½ïáVï kVµþ[Ūì
D) ÖçÅßE Ã>©Ã|Ý>_ (\) ÃV_ÃõçðÝ Ø>Va_ xÂþB Ø>VaéïD
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143. “Igloo” a type of houses seen in
A) Desert biome
C) Tundra biome
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'ÖÂÓ'' ¨[Å ÃMT|ï^ ïVð©Ã⦠Ãz] ------------------
B) Temperate grassland biome
D) Tropical savanna biome ïV
i
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A) ÃVçékª© Ãz]
B) t>Øk©Ã\õ¦é© A_Øk¹ Ã_KlìÝ Ø>Vz]
C) #Í]«© Ã_KlìÝ Ø>Vz]
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a. Øk_â Š 1. çĪV A) 3 1 2 4
b.\ÞóöB[ Š 2. k¦ ¶Ø\öÂïV B) 1 2 3 4
c. ©Ø«Fö Š 3. Ø>[ g©¸öÂïV C) 4 3 2 1
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d.üئ©¸ Š 4. ¥¼«´BV D) 1 3 2 4
145. Which is the smallest unit of biosphere?
A) Ecosystem B) Environment C) Biome D) None of the above
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5
d. ïV| & \çé \õ Š 4. 22.16 % D) 1 4 3 2
148. Which of the following “the only soil” formed by weathering of Igneous Rocks?
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A) Alluvial Soil
B) Arid and Desert Soil
C) Laterite soil
D) Black soil
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ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ''¨Í> μ« \õðVªm'' y©ÃVçÅï¹[ Eç>¡ïáVzD?
A) kõ¦_ \õ
B) kÅõ¦ ÃVçé \õ
C) Ä«çá \õ
D) ïöÄ_ \õ Tn
149. The States benefited from Bhakra Nangal Project are ?
A) Punjab, Haryana, Gujarat
B) Punjab, Haryana, Uttarpradesh
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C) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
D) Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh
ëVåºï_ ¶çðÝ]â¦D JéD ÃB[ØÃòD \VWéºï^?
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a. cð¡©Ãlìï^ Š 1. ïVFï¤ï^ A) 1 2 4 3
b. kVèé Ãlìï^ Š 2. ¼ÄVáD B) 2 4 1 3
c. ¼>V⦩Ãlìï^ Š 3. Açïlçé C) 2 3 4 1
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WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 6:
04.10.2021 (]ºï^):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
5
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 11-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] - 2) Ã^¹©AÝ>ïD x¿kmD
1. ÃV¦D 11 Š ¼>ì>_ (\) ¸«]W]ÝmkD
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2. ÃV¦D 12 Š c^áVâE ¶«ÄVºïºï^
3. ÃV¦D 13 Š ÄJï À]
4. ÃV¦D 14 Š >twïÝ]_ ¶«EB_ káìßE
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5. ÃV¦D 15 Š >twï ¶«EB_ EÍ>çªï^
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 11ŠD kz©A ÃV¦D Š 10, 11
1. ÃV¦D 10 Š »«ï ØÃVòáV>V«D
2. ÃV¦D 11 Š >tµåVâ| ØÃVòáV>V«D
1.
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3. AslB_ : ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA, Äxï© AslB_ Š
\Âï^ Ø>Vçï ¶¦ìÝ] (\) ëk_.
ÖÍ]BV Š \Âï^ Ø>Vçï, ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým, >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA, 10-gD kz©A
kèïD
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2. AsÝ>ïkoB_ 12-gD kz©A
3. \Âï^ Ø>Vçï¥D, z½¥ò©AD 7ŠgD kz©A
(1ŠgD ÃòkD)
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//t
5
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Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 D 42 D 43 C 44 B 45 C 46 C 47 B 48 C 49 D 50 C
51 D 52 C 53 B 54 A 55 A 56 C 57 B 58 C 59 D 60 A
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61 A 62 D 63 D 64 B 65 B 66 B 67 D 68 A 69 A 70 B
71 A 72 B 73 D 74 C 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 D
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 B 85 C 86 D 87 C 88 A 89 B 90 D
91 B 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 B 96 D 97 B 98 B 99 B 100 C
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101 C 102 A 103 D 104 D 105 C 106 B 107 B 108 D 109 A 110 D
111 C 112 C 113 C 114 D 115 A 116 C 117 C 118 C 119 B 120 C
121 A 122 C 123 D 124 C 125 B 126 C 127 C 128 C 129 A 130 D
131 C 132 C 133 B 134 D 135 C 136 A 137 B 138 A 139 B 140 B
141 C 142 D 143 C 144 A 145
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A 146 A 147 C 148 D 149 C 150 C
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21 D 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 A 29 A 30 D
31 A 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 D 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 A 40 D
41 D 42 D 43 C 44 B 45 C 46 C 47 B 48 C 49 D 50 C
s:
51 D 52 C 53 B 54 A 55 A 56 C 57 B 58 C 59 D 60 A
61 A 62 D 63 D 64 B 65 B 66 B 67 D 68 A 69 A 70 B
71 A 72 B 73 D 74 C 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 C 80 D
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81 A 82 A 83 B 84 B 85 C 86 D 87 C 88 A 89 B 90 D
91 B 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 B 96 D 97 B 98 B 99 B 100 C
101 C 102 A 103 D 104 D 105 C 106 B 107 B 108 D 109 A 110 D
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111 C 112 C 113 C 114 D 115 A 116 C 117 C 118 C 119 B 120 C
121 A 122 C 123 D 124 C 125 B 126 C 127 C 128 C 129 A 130 D
131 C 132 C 133 B 134 D 135 C 136 A 137 B 138 A 139 B 140 B
141 C 142 D 143 C 144 A 145 A 146 A 147 C 148 D 149 C 150 C
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
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TNPSC GROUP – II
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ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
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¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 6 / åV^ Š 04.10.2021
.2021
Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
s:
sªVÂï^ (150)
¶«EBéç\©A 11-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 2) Ã^¹©AÝ>ïD x¿kmD, 7 sªVÂï^
70
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40
Š \Âï^ Ø>Vçï ¶¦ìÝ] (\) ëk_.
5
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TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 6) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
¶«EBéç\©A
5. Examine the statement relating to Article 40 of the Constitution of India. (Local Government)
1. Part IV of the Constitution.
2. Article 40 is under Directive principle of State policy .
3. The Government should set up gram panchayats and give them all the necessary power and
capacity to work as self-governing unit.
4. Article - 40 is incorporated into the Constitution under the 42nd Amendment Act 1976
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1, 2, 3 Correct C) 2, 4 Correct D) 2, 3, 4 Correct
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ s] 40 c¦[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦B íuçÅ g«VFï. (c^áVâE)
1.¶«EBéç\©¸[ Ãz] åV[þ_ ¶ç\Ím^ám.
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2.s] 40 ¨[Ãm ¶«E[ kaïVâ| Øå¤xçÅï¹[ ÿµ ¶ç\¥D.
3.¶«· þ«V\ ÃÞÄVBÝmïçá °uÃ|Ý] ·BgâE ¶éïVï ÃèAöB ¼>çkBVª ¶]ïV«D, ]Å[
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¶çªÝmD kwºï ¼kõ|D.
4.s] Š 40 ¨[Ãm 42km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D 1976[ ý ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ÖçðÂï©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 2, 4 Äö D) 2, 3, 4 Äö
6. Who prepared the blueprint for the Gandhian Constitution for free India?
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A) BalwantraiMehta B) L.M. Singhvi C) Shriman Narayan D) Krishna Menon
·>Í]« ÖÍ]BV¡ÂïVª ïVÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A Ø>V¦ìÃVª ]⦠kç«Ã¦D >BVöÝ>kì BVì?
A) Ã_kÍÝ«VF ¼\Ý>V B) ¨_.¨D. Eºs
C) p\[ åV«VBð[
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D) þòið ¼\ª[ (c^áVâE)
7. Assertion A : Local bodies were established by the 73rd Amendment.
Reason R :Democracy reached the downtrodden people through local governments.
A) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
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C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : 73km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>Ý][ JéD c^áVâE ¶ç\©Aï^ °uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦪.
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A) ¼>ì>_ï^ B) z½¥öç\
C) ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ D) ¶«· kaïVâ| Øå¤xçÅï^
9. Which of the following election has no place for political parties?
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10. Which king destroyed the Tamil Kings Federation as per the inscriptions?
A) Chola B) Pari
C) Kalinga King Karavela D) KarikalaChola
¨Í> ¶«Ä[ ï_Økâ|ï¹_ ÖòÍm >tµ íâ¦ç\¡ ¨[Ãç> ¶aÝ>Vì?
A) ¼ÄVwì B) ÃVö
C) ïoºï ¶«Ä[ ïV«¼kéV D) ïöïVé ¼ÄVw[
11. Find the incorrect statement about the Panchayat Raj system?
1. The Lower level of Panchayati Raj system is Gram Samiti
2.The Ninth part of the constitution mentions about this.
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3.Article 40 emphasizes about Panchayat raj
4. The Panchayati Raj Act was introduced in Tamil Nadu on 1956.
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A) 1, 2, 3 incorrect B) 1, 4 incorrect C) 2, 3 incorrect D) 2, 4 incorrect
ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë ¶ç\©A z¤Ým ¨m >k®?
1.ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë ¶ç\©¸[ ÿµWçé þ«V\ Ät]
2.¶«EBéç\©¸[ Î[Ã>Vkm Ãz] Öç>©Ãu¤ í®þÅm.
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3.−«Ým 40 ÃÞÄVBÝm «VëBÝç> ko¥®ÝmþÅm.
4.>tµåVâ½_ ÃÞÄVBÝm«Vë Äâ¦D 1956_ ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1, 2, 3 >k® B) 1, 4 >k® C) 2, 3 >k® D) 2, 4 >k®
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12. Assertion A : Non-Brahmins were employed in government posts during the British period.
Reason R : The communal Representation Act of 1921 was passed.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
e/
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ¸«V\ð«_éV¼>Vì gºþ¼éBì ïVéÝ]_ ¶«· Ã>sï¹_ ÃèB\ìÝ>©Ã⦪ì.
ïV«ðD : 1921gD gõ| kz©AkVö ¸«]W]Ýmk Äâ¦D ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
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A) 1, 2, 3 incorrect B) 1, 2, 3, 4 Correct
C) 2, 3, 4 Correct D) 3, 4 Incorrect
ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë z¤Ým ÿµÂïõ¦ íuçÅ g«VFï.
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5
C) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k® D) íu® >k® gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
15. Match. a b c d
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a. Cantonment Boards Act - 1. 1958 A) 1 2 3 4
b.Punjab Municipalities Act -2. 1924 B) 4 3 2 1
c. Tamil Nadu Panchayat Act - 3. 1911 C) 3 2 1 4
d.73rd Amendment Act
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- 4. 1992 D) 2 3 1 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.ÃVçáB kVöBºï^ Äâ¦D Š 1. 1958 A) 1 2 3 4
b.ÃÞÄV© åï«VâEï^ Äâ¦D Š 2. 1924 B) 4 3 2 1
c.>tµåV| ÃÞÄVBÝm Äâ¦D
d.73km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D
Š
Š
3.
4.
1911
1992 Tn C)
D)
3
2
16. Assertion A: Bharathiar went to Pondicherry and lived in hiding.
2
3
c^áVâE ¶«ÄVºïºïçá kK©Ã|Ý> 1978 x>_ 1986 kç« °uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠z¿s_ Ö_éV>m ¨m?
1.E.¨ß. ¶Ð\ÍÝ«VË z¿ 2. L.M.Eºs z¿ 3.÷.s.¼ï. «VË z¿ 4.¶¼ÄV ¼\Ý>V z¿
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
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5
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k®
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D) íu® >k® gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
20. The composition of the District Planning Committee consists not less than 4/5th of the total
members of the committee provided as an act in the year _____
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A) 1991 B) 1993 C) 1992 D) 1990
\Vk⦠]â¦Âz¿s_ Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï¹_ nÍ]_ åV[z úþuz zçÅBV\_ ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D
¨ª í®D Äâ¦D ¼ÃV¦©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1991 B) 1993 C) 1992 D) 1990
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21. Which of the following is incorrect about Diarchy?
1. Administrative subjects were divided into reserved and transferred subjects.
2. Reserved subjects was given to the Union Government of India.
3. Transferred subjects was given to the Provincial Government.
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4.Reserved subjects will be entrusted to the elected representatives.
A) Only 1 incorrect B) 2 only incorrect C) 3 only incorrect D) Only 4 incorrect
Ö«âç¦ gâE xçÅ z¤Ým ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ¨m >k®?
1.WìkVï mçÅï^ ÎmÂï©Ã⦠mçÅï^ \u®D \Vu¤ >«©Ã⦠mçÅï^ ¨ª Öò ¸ö¡ïáVþª.
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D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : ''EçÅ©ÃÅçk'' ¨[® ØÃöBVì ¶ç¦Ø\Valâ| ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅVì
ïV«ðD : Ã]çªÍm gõ|ï¹_ ÖòÃÝm J[® xçÅ EçÅ ØÄ[ÅVì.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
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2.''À]ÂïâE'' ¨[Å ØÃBì gºþé Ö>µ ''À]'' ¨[Ã>[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ØÃBö¦©Ãâ¦m.
3.¸«V\ð«_éV¼>VòÂz \VïVð Äâ¦\[Å ¼>ì>o_ Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| ØÃu® >Í>ªì.
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4.ÃÞÄ\ì WéÝç> ÎmÂÿ| ØÄFm \ÂïÓÂz kwºþªì.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 2, 3, 4 >k® D) 1, 2, 3, 4 >k®
25. Match the Panchayat Raj Committees with its organizational purpose.
a. L.M.SinghiCommittee - 1. Preparing Administration for rural development
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b. G.V.K.RaoCommittee - 2. Community Development Project
c. Balwantrai Mehta Committee - 3. Revitalization and Strengthening the Panchayat System
d.Ashok Mehta Committee - 4. Revival of Panchayat Raj Institutions
A) 1
B) 4
C) 4
a b
3
3
1
c
2
2
2
d
4
1
3
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D) 3 1 4 2
ÃÞÄVBÝm «Vë z¿Âïçá ¶>[ ¶ç\©A ¼åVÂïÝm¦[ ØÃVòÝmï.
a.L.M.Eºs z¿ Š 1. þ«V\©AÅ ¼\DÃVâ|ÂïVª WìkVï °uÃV|
b.G.V.K.«VË z¿ Š 2. ÄJï ¶¸sòÝ] ]â¦D
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B) 4 3 2 1
C) 4 1 2 3
s:
D) 3 1 4 2
26. Assertion A: Kaka kalelkar Commission was established in 1953.
Reason R :The President's may set up a Commission to identify backward classes on social and
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5
2.\õ¦_ gçðB ¶¤ÂçïçB c^mçÅ ¶ç\ßÄì ØÛl_ EºŠþ¦D Ä\ì¸Ý>ªì.
3.\õ¦_ gçðB ¶¤ÂçïçB s.¸. Eº åç¦xçÅ©Ã|Ý]ªVì.
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4.¶«· Ã>sï¹_ 27% ÄJïÝ]_ ¸[>ºþB \ÂïÓÂz kwºï ÃöÍmç«Ý>m.
A) 1 \â|D >k® B) 1, 2 >k®
C) 2, 3, 4 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD >k®
28. According to the 73rd Amendment, a state below ______ population cannot form intermediate
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panchayat (panchayatsamiti) in the local body?
A) Less than 5 lakhs B) Less than 10 lakhs
C) Less than 15 lakhs D) Less than 20 lakhs
A) 5 ÖéâÄD zçÅkVï
C) 15 ÖéâÄD zçÅkVï
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73km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D ý \Âï^Ø>Vçïl[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¨Í> ¶ásuz ÿµ c^á Îò \VWéD
Öç¦Wçé (ÃÞÄVBÝm Ät]) ¶ç\©çà c^áVâE ¶ç\©¸_ cõ¦VÂï x½BVm?
B) 10 ÖéâÄD zçÅkVï
D) 20 ÖéâÄD zçÅkVï
29. Which of the following is not a contribution of the Justice Party?
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A) Noon meal programme was first experimented
B) Mirasudar system abolished
C) Annamalai and Andhra University were formed during their time
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C) Article 17 D) A and B
¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨Í> Ä⦩¸ö¡ï^ ''ÄJï Z]lKD ØÃVòáV>V« Z]lKD ¸[>ºþBkìïÓÂz
Eé EÅ©A Äâ¦D \u®D ÄKçïï^ kwºï ¶«·Âz ¶]ïV«D kwºþ¥^ám''?
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A) ¸ö¡ 15 B) ¸ö¡ 16
C) ¸ö¡ 17 D) A \u®D B
31. Election for the Urban Local Body were not held in Tamil Nadu in the year
A) 1996 B) 2001
C) 2011 D) 1991
>twïÝ]_ åï« c^áVâE ¶ç\©AÂïVª ¼>ì>_ åç¦ØÃuÅ gõ|ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) 1996 B) 2001
C) 2011 D) 1991
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¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
2.t[ªb kVÂz©Ã]¡ ¨Í]«Ý]_ >«©Ãâ|^á ¼kâÃVáìï^ Ãâ½Bo[ Ö®]l_ ¼åVâ¦V
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kVF©A >«©Ãâ|^ám.
3. NOTA ¶¤xï©Ã|Ý]B 14km åV| ÖÍ]BV
4.¼>ì>_ å¦Ýç> s]ï^ 1961_ Äâ¦s] ¨õ 49 – O ÖDxçÅ Ãu¤ sköÂþÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö
ps
C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
33. Choose the correct option.
1. The famous anthologies collected after sangam literature, Noorkovai or Padalthirattu is called
as Keezhkanaku.
Tn
2.Kovai consists of particular ideological lines
3.Kalambakam, in which the end of one stanza/line formed the beginning of the next and parani
4.The Sangam literature "Akananooru" describes the fighting against the foreign invasion of the
e/
Tamil kings' federation.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Correct B) 1, 3, 4 Correct
C) 1, 2 Correct D) 2, 4 Correct
ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|.
.m
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö
C) 1, 2 Äö D) 2, 4 Äö
34. Examine the incorrect statement for the decline of the Justice Party.
tp
1. The party lost support among depressed sections of the society and minorities
2.Self-Respect Movement had become more radical
3. Elitist and Pro-English Outlook of Justice party
ht
35. Match. a b c d
a.Tudiyan - 1. Ruler A) 1 2 3 4
b.Vaishyar - 2. Kudi B) 4 3 2 1
c. Vellalar - 3. Traders C) 3 2 1 4
d.Panan - 4. Farmers D) 2 3 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.m½B[ Š 1. gâE AöÃkì A) 1 2 3 4
b.çkEBì Š 2. z½ B) 4 3 2 1
c.¼káVáì Š 3. kìÝ>ïìï^ C) 3 2 1 4
5
d.ÃVð[ Š 4. skÄVlï^ D) 2 3 4 1
36. Choose the correct option from the following.
c8
1. Avvaiyar lived during the first and second centuries.
2. She was a contemporary of Thiruvalluvar and Kabilar.
3. She made significant contributions in Nattrinai, Kururnthogai, akananuru, purananuru.
ps
A) 1, 3 Correct B) 1, 2, 3 Correct
C) 4 Correct D) 1, 2 Correct
¸[kòkªku®^ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ÎáçkBVì Î[ÅVD \u®D Ö«õ¦VD ±uÅVõ| ïVéÝ]_ kEÝ>kì.
2.Ökì ]òk^Ókì \u®D ï¸éö[ Ä\ïVéÝ>kì gkVì.
A) 1, 3 Äö
C) 4 Äö
Tn
3.åu¤çð, z®ÍØ>Vçï, ¶ïåVû®, AÅåVû® Öku¤_ z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï ú﹩çà ØÄFm^áVì.
B) 1, 2, 3 Äö
D) 1, 2 Äö
e/
37. Match the correct option :
Porutpal and Its Parts a b c d
a.Politics - 1. 10 A) 1 2 3 4
.m
b.Defence - 2. 2 B) 3 2 1 4
c.Ministry - 3. 25 C) 4 3 1 2
d.Friendship - 4. 17 D) 2 4 1 3
ØÃVòâÃVo_ c^á °¿ Ãz]ï^ c^᪠¶ku¤çª ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
//t
a.¶«EB_ Š 1. 10 A) 1 2 3 4
b.¶«õ Š 2. 2 B) 3 2 1 4
c.¶ç\ßEB_ Š 3. 25 C) 4 3 1 2
s:
d.åâA Š 4. 17 D) 2 4 1 3
38. Assertion A :Rajaji resigned as Chief Minister in 1954.
Reason R: "Kula kalvi program" introduced by him, became a failure
tp
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : 1954_ «VÛV÷ x>éç\ßÄì Ã>sloòÍm ¶k¼« séþªVì.
ïV«ðD : ¶kì °uÃ|Ý]B ''zéÂï_s ]â¦D'' ¼>V_s ¶ç¦Í>m.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
5
d.Ãwºz½lªì Š 4. 1% D) 4 3 2 1
40. Kalambakam is related to
c8
A) Generally about love
B) Generally referring to king and his valour
C) About the administration of kings
ps
D) About the defeat of kings
ïéDÃïD ¨[Ãm Öku®^ ¨>çª ÄVìÍ>m?
A) ØÃVmkVï ¶[çà Ãu¤B>VzD
B) ØÃVmkVï ¶«Ä[ \u®D T«Ýç> z¤©¸|>_
C) ¶«Äìï¹[ WìkVïÝç> Ãu¤B>VzD
D) ¶«Äìï¹[ ¼>V_sçB© Ãu¤B>VzD
41. Choose the correct option.
Tn
1) The Government of Tamil Nadu headed by Jayalalitha passed a Bill in the Tamil Nadu
e/
Legislative Assembly on 30.12.1993 using Article 31(c) of the Constitution.
2) The President on 19.07.1994 approved the Tamil Nadu Government Special Bill on 69%
reservation adopted in Tamil Nadu
.m
1) ØÛBéo>V >çéç\léVª >twï ¶«· ¶«EB_ Ä⦩¸ö¡ 31 (C) ÃB[Ã|Ý] >M Äâ¦
\¼ÄV>V Î[¤çª 30.12.1993 ¶[® >tµåV| Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]_ Wçżku¤Bm.
2) >tµåVâ½_ ¸[ÃuÅ©Ã⦠69% Ö¦ÎmÂÿ| z¤Ým >tµåV| ¶«· >M Ä⦠\¼ÄV>Vsuz
s:
C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
42. Match a b c d
a. Mountainous region - 1.Marudham A) 1 2 3 4
ht
5
A) 1, 2 >k® B) 2 >k® C) 2, 3 >k® D) 3 \â|D >k®
44. Arrangethe Chief Ministers of Madras Presidency in the following
c8
1.P.Munusamy 2.Bobbili Raja 3.Panagal Raja 4.P.Suburayan
A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 4, 3, 1, 2
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ØÄ[çª \VïVð x>éç\ßÄìïçá köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï.
1.¸.xÐÄVt 2.ØÃV©¸o «VÛV
ps
3.êï_ «VÛV 4.¸.·©A«VB[
A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 2, 1 D) 4, 3, 1, 2
45. Examine the following Statement.
Tn
1. Prime Minister Nehru introduced the first amendment in Parliament.
2. Article 15(4) and 16(4) were included as per the First Amendment act.
3. Nehru constituted a committee under the chairmanship of Sattanathan to look into status of
backward classes.
4. Sattanathan Committee constituted in the year 1958
e/
A) 1, 3 Correct. B) 2, 4 Correct
C) 1, 2 Correct D) 3, 4 Correct
ÿµïõ¦ íuçÅ g«VFï.
.m
A) 1, 3 Äö B) 2, 4 Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 3, 4 Äö
46. In Politics, Thiruvalluvar emphasize the following leadership characteristics for a ruler. Choose the
correct option.
s:
47. In which year did Bharatiyar published a collection of emotional songs called Sudesa Geethangal?
A) 1907 B) 1906 C) 1908 D) 1909
ÃV«]BVì ¨Í> gõ| ''·¼>Ä ÿ>ºï^'' ¨ª©Ã|D cðìßEtÂï ÃV¦_ Ø>Vz©¸çª Øk¹lâ¦Vì?
A) 1907 B) 1906 C) 1908 D) 1909
48. Choose the correct option about Bharathiyar.
1. Bharathiar started writing Tamil poetry at the age of seventeen.
2. Bharathiyar childhood name Subbiah
3. In June 1897, Bharathiyar was married to Chellammal at the age of 15.
4. Father Chinnaswamy, mother Lakshmi Ammal.
5
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 2, 3, 4 Correct
C) All Correct D) 1, 4 Incorrect
c8
ÃV«]BVì Ãu¤ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.ÃV«]BVì Ã]¼ª¿ kB]_ >tµ ïsç>ï^ ¨¿> g«D¸Ý>Vì.
2.ÃV«]BVì zwÍç> Ãòk ØÃBì ·©çÃBV
3.É[ 1897Ö_ ÃV«]BVòÂz 15 kB]_ ØÄ_é\VÓ¦[ ]ò\ðD å¦Í>m.
ps
4.>Íç>BVì E[ªÄVt, >VBVì éâ·t ¶D\V^.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö C) ¶çªÝmD Äö D) 1, 4 >k®
49. Assertion A : Parliament of India consists of Two houses.
Tn
Reason R :Lower house known as Lok Sabha and Upper house known as Rajyasabha.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
e/
íu® : ÖÍ]B åV¦VÓ\[Å ~«çkïçá ØïVõ¦>VzD.
ïV«ðD : ÿwçkBVï \ÂïáçkçB¥D ¼\éçkBVï \VWéºïçá¥D c^áª.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
.m
A) B) C) D)
51. Five types of plurality/ majority systems can be identified. Choose the correct option :
1. First Past The Post (FPTP) 2. Block vote (BV)
tp
5
¼>çkl_çé.
3.¶®]© ØÃòDÃV[ç\ ØÃÅ ¼kõ½B ¶kEBt_çé
c8
A) 1, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 3 >k® D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
53. Match :Delimitation Acts a b c d
a. First Delimitation Commission Act - 1. 2002 A) 1 3 4 2
ps
b. Second Delimitation Commission Act - 2. 1963 B) 3 2 4 1
c. Third Delimitation Commission Act - 3. 1952 C) 4 3 2 1
d. Fourth Delimitation Commission Act - 4. 1973 D) 3 2 1 4
Ø>Vz] kç«BçÅ Ä⦺ïçá© ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.x>_ kç«BçÅ gçðBß Äâ¦D
b.Ö«õ¦Vkm kç«BçÅ gçðBß Äâ¦D
c.J[ÅVkm kç«BçÅ gçðBß Äâ¦D
d.åV[ïVkm kç«BçÅ gçðBß Äâ¦D
Tn Š
Š
Š
Š
1.
2.
3.
4.
2002
1963
1952
1973
A)
B)
C)
D)
1
3
4
3
3
2
3
2
4
4
2
1
2
1
1
4
e/
54. Match regarding the first Lok Sabha election. a b c d
a.Congress party won - 1. 489 A) 1 2 3 4
b. No of States where the election held - 2. 364 B) 4 3 2 1
.m
55. How many days were the Assembly elections conducted in Tamil Nadu in 1952?
A) 5 B) 4 C) 9 D) 3
>twïÝ]_ 1952Ö_ Äâ¦\[Å ¼>ì>_ ¨Ý>çª åVâï^ åç¦ØÃuÅm?
tp
A) 5 B) 4 C) 9 D) 3
56. In Rajya Sabha, elections reforms carried out by removing the domicile of the contesting candidate
in the year
ht
58. When did the Salt Satyagraha reached its peak in Gujarat’s coastal village, Dandi ?
A) March 12, 1930 B) April 6, 1930
C) December 31, 1929 D) None
zÛ«VÝ][ 寮éV« þ«V\\ª >õ½l_ c©A ÄÝ]BVþ«ïD ¼ÃV«Vâ¦D cßÄWçéçB ¶ç¦Í>m
¨©¼ÃVm?
A) \Vìß 12, 1930 B) °©«_ 6, 1930
C) ½ÄDÃì 31, 1929 D) ¨m¡t_çé
59. In which Year irrigation system was introduced by Justice Party?
A) 1922 B) 1927 C) 1933 D) 1923
5
À]ÂïâE gâEl[ ¼ÃVm ¨Í> gõ| Àì©ÃVÄªÝ ]⦺ï^ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m?
A) 1922 B) 1927 C) 1933 D) 1923
c8
60. Match it a b c d
a. Tarkunde committee - 1) 2010 A) 3 2 4 1
b.Vohra Committee - 2) 1993 B) 4 2 1 3
ps
c. Venkatachaliah committee - 3) 1974 C) 1 2 3 4
d. Tanka Committee - 4) 2002 D) 3 2 1 4
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.>VìzÍ> z¿ Š 1. 2010 A) 3 2 4 1
b.¼k«V z¿ Š 2. 1993
c.Økºï¦ ØÄ_çéBV Š 3. 1974
d.¦ºïV z¿ Š 4. 2002
B)
C)
D)
61. Which of the following is wrong statement:
Tn 4
1
3
2
2
2
1
3
1
3
4
4
e/
1.In 1913, Royal Commission was formed under the leadership Alexander Cardow.
2.South Indian Liberal federation was known as “Justice Party” in Later days.
3.In 1917, 54 Associations met the representative members of British and demanded “Fair
.m
A) 1 \â|D B) 3 \â|D
C) 2 \â|D D) ¨m¡D Ö_çé
62. Statement 1: In 1892, 12 lakh acres of land wire distributed to the lower caste groups, these
tp
63. In which year, the Supreme Court struck down communal reservations of Higher education?
A) 1952 B) 1951 C) 1955 D) 1950
¨Í> gõ| cßÄÀ]\[Å\Vªm cBìï_sl_ ÄV]kVö Ö¦ÎmÂÿâç¦ cç¦Ým ¨¤Í>m?
A) 1952 B) 1951 C) 1955 D) 1950
64. " DandiMarch" was a direct attack on the economic foundations of the British Empire," said by
A) Rajaji B) Kamarajar C) Arundhati Roy D) Periyar
''>õ½ BVÝ]ç« gºþ¼éB ¼Ã««E[ ØÃVòáV>V« ¶½Ý>áÝ][ *>Vª ¼å«½Ý >VÂz>éVï
¶ç\Í>m'' ¨ª í¤Bkì?
A) Ö«VÛV÷ B) ïV\«VÄì C) ¶òÍ>]«VF D) ØÃöBVì
5
65. Choose the correct answer.
1. The one who made the demand for a separate state "Dravida Nadu" - Anna
c8
2. The one who proclaimed "Dravida Nadu for Dravidians" - Periyar
A) Only correct B) 2 Only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.'']«Vs¦ì åV|'' >MåV| ¨[Å ¼ïVöÂçïçB °uÃ|Ý]Bkì Š ¶õðV
ps
2.'']«Vs¦ åV| ]«Vs¦ìïÓ¼ï'' ¨ª xwÂïtâ¦kì Š ØÃöBVì
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1, 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
66. Who represented Tamil Nadu at the All India Congress Committee meeting held in 1922?
A) Bharatiyar B) Periyar
Tn
C) Thiruvika D) Singaravelanar
1922gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅ ¶þé ÖÍ]B ïVºþ«· íâ¦Ý]_ >twï© ¸«]W]BVï ïéÍm ØïVõ¦kì?
A) ÃV«]BVì B) ØÃöBVì
67. Choose the correct option.
C) ]ò.s.ï D) EºïV«¼kéªì
69. The Justice Party under ___________government issued orders to teach Hindi as a second language
in high schools
A) Raja of Panagal B) Munusamy Naidu C) Raja of Bobili D) Subburayan
ht
AslB_
71. Consider the following statements
1.In India, the first census was carried out in the year 1872
2.The first complete and synchronous census was conducted in 1881.
3.The fifteenth census of India conducted in the year 2011.
A) 1, 2 is true but 3 is false B) 1, 2 is false but 3 is true
5
C) 1, 2, 3 is true D) 1, 3 is false but 2 is true
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
c8
1.ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ \Âï^Ø>Vçï ïðÂØï|©A 1872gD gõ| ¼\uØïV^á©Ãâ¦m.
2.x¿ç\BVª x>_ \Âï^ Ø>Vçï ïðÂØï|©A 1881gD gõ| ¼\uØïV^á©Ãâ¦m.
3.åVâ½[ 15km \Âï^Ø>Vçï ïðÂØï|©A 2011gD gõ| åç¦ØÃuÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® B) 1, 2 >k® 3 Äö
ps
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 3 >k® 2 Äö
72. Assertion: Among the union territories, Delhi is the densely populated one.
Reason : The population density of Delhi is 11330 per sq.km
A) Assertion is true but reason is false
B) Both Assertion and reason are true
Tn
C) Assertion and reason are true but reason is the correct explanation
D) Assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation
íu® : RMB[ ¸«¼>ĺï¹_ Amئ_o ¶]ï \Âïá¦ìÝ]çB ØïVõ¦>Vï ÖòÂþÅm.
e/
ïV«ðD : Amئ_ol_ kV¿D \Âï^ (11330 ¼Ãì/Ä.þ.*)
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
B) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD Äö
.m
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 1 D) 1, 2, 3
\Âï^Ø>Vçï \VuÅÝç> yì\VMÂzD ïV«èï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
s:
5
Öm ¸«D\AÝ«V gu¤_ m¸ö \u®D ïV½BVsuz Ö禼B ØÄB_Ã|þÅm
3.¼>EB Àìka© ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ¨õ Š 3
c8
Öm Àìka ¼ï«áV \VWéÝ][ ØïV_éD \u®D ¼ïVâ¦A«D Ö禼B ØÄB_Ã|þÅm.
A) 1 \u®D 2 B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 3 D) ¨m¡t_çé
76. Consider the major issues created by over populations
ps
1. Overcrowding 2. Malnutrition 3.Unemployment
4. Mismanagement of natural and agricultural resources
5.Unhealthy environment
A) 1, 2, 3, 5 is true but 4 is false
C) 1, 2, 3 is true but 4, 5 is false
77. Pick out the incorrect one regarding the various stages of population growth in India
A) Period of Stagnant Population - 1901-1921
B) Period of Rapid growth - 1951-1971
C) Period of steady growth - 1921-1951
//t
5
A) Andaman and Nicobar, Bihar, Kerala, Diu and Daman
B) Diu and Daman, Bihar, Kerala, Puducherry
c8
C) Diu and Daman, Bihar, Kerala, Andaman and Nicobar
D) Andaman and Nicobar, Orissa, Kerala, Diu and Daman
ÿµÂïõ¦ kVÂþBºïçá ÄöBVï ïkMÝm sç¦çB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
ps
1.zçÅkVª ÃVoª sþ>D c^á RMB[ ¸«¼>ÄD
2.zçÅÍ> ¨¿Ý>¤¡ ØÃuÅ \VWéD
3.¶]ï ¨¿Ý>¤¡ ØÃuÅ \VWéD
4.zçÅÍ> \Âï^ ¶¦ìÝ] ØïVõ¦ RMB[ ¸«¼>ÄD
A) ¶Í>\V[ W¼ïVÃVì, ¬ïVì, ¼ï«áV, ç¦R ¦V\[
B) ç¦R ¦V\[, ¬ïVì, ¼ï«áV, Amß¼Äö
C) ç¦R ¦V\[, ¬ïVì, ¼ï«áV, ¶Í>\V[ W¼ïVÃVì
D) ¶Í>\V[ W¼ïVÃVì, ÎöÄV, ¼ï«áV, ç¦R ¦V\[
Tn
81. Match the following:
e/
State Population Density (Sq.Km) a b c d e
a) Bihar - 1. < 150 A) 1 2 3 4 5
b) Punjab - 2. 500-1000 B) 5 4 3 2 1
.m
c) Jharkhand - 3. 300-500 C) 5 2 3 4 1
d) Rajasthan - 4. 150-500 D) 1 2 3 5 4
e) Sikkim - 5. > 1000
ØÃVòÝmï.
//t
5
1.céþ¼é¼B cB«\Vª ¨_çé©AÅß ÄVçé .................oòÍm .......... kç« ØÄ_þÅm.
2.ÖÍ]BVs_ Ö¦©ØÃBì¡ .................... Ãz]loòÍm ................ Ãz]çB ¼åVÂþ ØÃòÍ]«áVï
c8
åç¦ØîþÅm.
3.ÖÍ]BVs[ x>_ Ö«l_ ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ............. \u®D ............... å﫺ïÓÂþ禼B
Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
A) Äõ½ïì Š ¼é, åïì©AÅ Š þ«V\©AÅ, >V¼ª Š xDçÃ
ps
B) ¼é Š Äõ½ïì, þ«V\©AÅ Š åïìAÅ, xDçà Š >V¼ª
C) ¼é Š é¦VÂ, åïìAÅ Š \Våï«, >V¼ª Š xDçÃ
D) ¨m¡t_çé
85. Match the following:
a) Sub-Urban Railway
b) ESCAP
c) Mumbai-Pune
- 1. 2013 Tn
- 2. International highways
- 3. 1925
A)
B)
C)
a
3
1
4
b
2
2
3
c
4
3
2
d
1
4
1
d) Paanihal - 4. Expressways D) 3 2 1 4
e/
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.AÅåïì Ö«l_ ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým Š 1. 2013 A) 3 2 4 1
b.ESCAP Š 2. Ã[ªVâ| Øå|ÞÄVçéï^ B) 1 2 3 4
.m
C) 4 only D) 1, 3, 4
ÄöBVªm ¶_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.Ø>[ \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k \u®D Ø>[þwÂz Ö«l_¼k ØÄïÍ>«VÃVÝ, ØïV_ïÝ>V
2.k¦¼\uz Ö«l_¼k \u®D k¦ \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k ØÛF©¯ì, ¶éïVÃVÝ
3.k¦þwÂz ¨_çé Ö«l_¼k \u®D þwÂz Ö«l_¼k ØïáïVÝ], ØïV_ïÝ>V
4.þwÂz, \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k \u®D ¼\uz \Ý]B Ö«l_¼k ÇE©¯ì, ¸éVü¯ì
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3
C) 4 \â|D D) 1, 3, 4
5
1.Kandla 2.Mumbai 3.Nhava Seva
4.Marmagoa 5.Paradip
c8
A) 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4
¼\uz ÖÍ]B ï¦uïç«l_ ¶ç\Ím^á xÂþB mçÅxïºï¹_ ÄöBVªç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï?
1.ïVõâéV 2.xDçà 3.åk¼ÄkV
4.\ì\¼ïVkV 5.ÃV«y©
ps
A) 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4
90. The major shipyard located in the east coast is
A) Mumbai B) Cochin C) Vishakapatnam D) Kandla
þwÂz ï¦uïç«l_ ¶ç\Í> ï©Ã_ ïâ|D >áD
A) xDçà B) ØïVßE C) sÄVï©Ã⽪DTn
91. In which route Pavan-hans helicopter limited operated their service?
A) between North west India and Inter Island
D) ïVõâéV
5
1.Air transport in India made a beginning between Allahabad to Naini in the year 1918
2.All India Radio was renamed as “ Akashwani”in the year 1957
c8
3.ISRO established in the year 1969
4.INSAT-1 B is the first communication satellite launched in INSAT series
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4 only C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) None of the above
>kÅVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
ps
1.x>_ ÖÍ]B s\Vª© ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým ¶éïVÃVÝ]oòÍm çåM ¨[Å Ö¦Ý]uz Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦
kò¦D Š 1918
2.¶þé ÖÍ]B kVتVo 1957gD gõ| x>_ ''gïVÄ kVM'' ¨ª ØÃBì \VuÅD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m.
3. ISRO Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠kò¦D Š 1969
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 4 \â|D
Tn
4.1983gD gõ| °k©Ã⦠Ö[ÄVâ 1 B >ïk_ Ø>V¦ì¸uïVï °k©Ã⦠x>_ Ö[ÄVâ köçÄ
ØÄFçï¼ïV^ gzD.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) ¨m¡t_çé
95. Which year the postal index number code was introduced?
e/
A) 1952 B) 1962 C) 1982 D) 1972
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¶ÞÄ_ z¤Xâ| ¨õ Ø>V¦ºï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 1952 B) 1962 C) 1982 D) 1972
.m
satellites
3.BEIDOU- It consists of two separate satellite constellations. The first BeiDou satellite navigation
experimental system was called BeiDou-1
s:
97. Assertion : One satellite have efficient to view one third part of globe
Reason : Satellites are mainly used for communication and meteorological applications.
A) Assertion is true but reason is false B) Assertion is false but reason is true
C) Both assertion and reason are false D) Both assertion and reason are true
íu® : Îò ØÄBuçï¼ïV^ Asl[ J[¤_ Îò Ãz]çB μ« ¼å«Ý]_ ïõïVèÂï k_ém.
ïV«ðD : >ïk_ Ø>V¦ì¸uïVï¡D kVMçé ÄVì >ïkKÂïVï¡D ØÄBuçï ¼ïV^ï^
ÃB[Ã|Ý>©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k® D) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
5
98. Match the following: a b c d
a) First aerial images of earth - 1. 2017 A) 1 2 3 4
c8
b) First aerial photograph of space - 2. 1981 B) 4 3 2 1
c) First domestic communication satellite - 3. 1858 C) 1 2 4 3
d)Kalamsat - 4. 1859 D) 4 3 1 2
ps
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.x>_ As Wéݼ>VuÅ ¶ç\©A Š 1. 2017 A) 1 2 3 4
b.x>_ kV[Øk¹ Açï©Ã¦D Š 2. 1981 B) 4 3 2 1
c.x>_ c^åVâ| >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA ØÄBuçï¼ïV^ Š 3. 1858 C) 1 2 4 3
d.ïéVD ÄVâ ØÄBuçï¼ïV^
Tn
99. Consider the following regarding the Gaofen 4?
1.The Gaofen 4 is the most powerful GEO spy satellite
Š 4. 1859 D) 4
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) 2, 3 Äö
100. Consider the following pair.
1.Sun-Synchronous satellite - SPOT,IRS,NOAA,TIROS
s:
5
e) Jainism - 5. Temple
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
c8
a.AÝ>\>D Š 1. ¼>kVéBD A) 2 1 5 4 3
b.þ¤ümk \>D Š 2. sÇV«V B) 2 1 5 3 4
c.ÖÍm\>D Š 3. \ó] C) 1 2 3 4 5
ps
d.ÖüéVD Š 4. ÃÄV] D) 5 4 3 2 1
e.Ä\ðD Š 5. ¼ïVs_
103. Consider the following statements regarding the languages of India
1.Hindi is the national language in India. Indian states are classified on the basis of the languages.
Indian government recognized 22 languages
Tn
2.In South India, Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam are spoken
3.In North India, Kashmiri, Urdu, Punjabi, Hindi, Rajasthani, Assamese are languages are spoken.
A) 1, 2 is true
e/
B) 1, 2, 3 is true
C) 1, 3 is true
D) 2, 3 is true
.m
C) 1, 3 Äö
D) 2, 3 Äö
tp
105. Statement 1: The word megalopolis is given for a large conurbation when two or more large cities
whose total population exceeds ten million
Statement 2:A conurbation is a region of comprising of a number of cities, large town and other
urban areas that through population growth and physical expansion have merged to
form one continuous urban (or) industrially developed area
Statement 3:A mega city is a population of less than 10 million
A) Statement 1,2 is true but 3 is false
B) Statement 1,2 is false but 3 is true
C) Statement 1,2,3 is true
5
D) Statement 2 is false but 1,3 is true
íu® 1: Ö«õ| ¶_ém ¶>uz ¼\uÃ⦠tï©ØÃöB å﫺ï¹[ \Âï^Ø>Vçï ÃÝm éâÄÝ]uz
c8
¼\éVï¡D ØÃöB åï«VÂï© Ã«©çÃ¥D ØïVõ¦ Ö¦Ýç> z¤©Ãm Š Megalopolis
íu® 2: \Âï^Ø>Vçï káìßEl[ ïV«ð\Vï Wé sökVÂïD ¶ç¦Ím Ø>Va_ káìßE ¶ç¦Ím
Eé å﫺ïçá¥D ØÃò å﫺ïçá¥D, åïì©Aźïçá¥D z¤©Ãm Š Conurbation
ps
íu® 3: 10 t_oBÐÂz zçÅkVï \Âï^Ø>Vçï ØïVõ¦ ØÃöB åï«D Š Mega City
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® B) íu® 1, 2 >k® 3 Äö
C) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö D) íu® 2 >k® 1, 3 Äö
106. Pick out the incorrect pair
1.Negroid
2.Caucasoid
3.Australoid
4.Mongoloid
-
-
-
-
European
African
Asiatic
Australian
Tn
e/
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4
>kÅVªm ¨m ¨[Ãç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
.m
1.À«VF| Š n¼«V©¸Bìï^
2.ïVÂïÄVF| Š g©¸öÂïìï^
3.gü⼫VéVF| Š gEBìï^
4.\ºïéVF| Š gü]¼«oBìï^
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4
//t
4.Social organization
5.Economic condition
tp
1.ÖBuçïBVª Wéݼ>VuÅD
2.c^jì >âà Øk©ÃWçé
3.\õkáD \u®D Àìkáºï^
4.ÄJï W®kªºï^
5.ØÃVòáV>V« Wçé
¼\uïõ¦ ïV«èï¹_ þ«V\©AÅÂ z½lò©AÂz °uÅ]_ >kÅVªm ¶_éV>ç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 4, 5
5
D) H-2 E-4 F-3 G-1
ØÃVòÝmï.
c8
a.Öò©A© ÃVç>ï^ Š E) ØÄËkï z½lò©A Š 1) ÃwM
b.\çéïÓÂþ禼B c^á Ã^áÝ>VÂz Š F) ÃÞÄV© Š 2) ¼åì¼ïVâ| z½lò©A
c.EÍm ïºçï Ä\Øk¹ï^ Š G) BVÝ]ç«Âz½lò©A Š 3) åâÄÝ]« z½lò©A
ps
d.kaÃVâ|Ý >éºï^ Š H) g_©ü \çé Š 4) Äâéë
a b c d
A) H - 2 E - 4 G - 1 F - 3
B) H - 3 E - 2 F - 4 G - 1
C) E - 2 F - 4 H - 3 G - 1
D) H - 2 E - 4 F - 3 G - 1 Tn
109. Which of the settlement is found in the northern kosi tract?
A) Settlement
e/
B) Dispersed settlement
C) Compact settlement
D) Both b and c
.m
D) B \u®D C
110. 1.A clean and safe environment
2.Meets the basic needs of all its inhabitants
s:
C)WMD D)WTO
1.#Fç\BVª ÃVmïV©ÃVª ·u®ßów_
2.¶çªÝm \Âï¹[ ¶½©Ãç¦Ý ¼>çkïçá WçżkuÅ ¼kõ|D.
ht
ØÃVòáV>V«D
111. Statement 1: MMR: According to NITI AAYOG ,Tamilnadu has a good record of controlling
maternal mortality rate ranking third with an average of 79.
Statement 2: IMR: Tamilnadu is well ahead of national average and other states in infant mortality
rate. According to NITI AAYOG , the infant mortality rate of tamilnadu is 17 as on
2016.
5
Statement 3: Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in quality of life of female population. The
sex ratio in Tamilnadu is nearing balance with 995 which is worst compared to other
c8
states in India.
A) Statement 1,2 is true but 3 is false B) Statement 1,2,3 is true
C) Statement 1,3 is true but 2 is false D) Statement 1,2,3 is false
íu® 1: MMR : W] g¼BV ¶¤Âçïl[ ý \塚î ïVéÝ]_ >Vl[ ÖÅ©A sþ>Ýç>Â
ps
ïâ|©Ã|Ýmk]_ ÖÍ]B ¶ás_ >tµåV| 79 ¨õèÂç復[ J[ÅVkm Ö¦Ý]_ c^ám.
íu® 2: IMR: >twïÝ]_ zwÍç>ï¹[ ÖÅ©A T>D \uÅ \VWéºïçá s¦ zçÅkVï¡^ám.
W]g¼BV ¶¤Âçïl[ý 2016gD gõ½_ >tµåVâ½_ zwÍç> ÖÅ©A sþ>D 17 gzD.
íu® 3: ÃVoª sþ>D Ä\ßæì ÃVoª sþ>D ¨[Ãm ØÃõï¹[ kVµsB_ ¼\DÃV|
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö 3 >k®
C) íu® 1, 3 Äö 2 >k®
Tn
¶ç¦Í]ò©Ãç> z¤ÂþÅm. >tµåV| ÃVoª sþ>D 995 gzD. ¸Å \VWéºï¼áV|
Ω¸|D ¼ÃVmD ÖÍ]B ¶ásKD ÖÍ> sþ>D tï¡D zçÅ¡.
B) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö
D) íu® 1, 2, 3 >k®
e/
112. Assertion : Chennai is called the Detroit of asia
Reason: Chennai is a home to a large number of auto component industries
A) Assertion is true, reason is false
B) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is the correct explanation
.m
5
A) April B) May C) June D) July
ØÄ[çªl_ ¼\DÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠¶]sç«¡ Ø\⼫V Ö«l_ ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým Ø>V¦ºzk>uïVª xBuE
c8
..................2017 x>_ g«D¸Âï©Ãâ|^ám.
A) °©«_ B) ¼\ C) É[ D) Éçé
116. Tamilnadu state has seen a steady decline in rural and urban area poverty from the year
ps
A) 1994 B) 1995 C) 1996 D)1997
>tµåVâ½_ ...................... x>_ þ«V\ \u®D åïì©Aźï¹_ WçéBVª T>Ý]_ k®ç\ zçÅþÅm.
A) 1994 B) 1995 C) 1996 D) 1997
117. Assertion : Tamilnadu is one of the hub for a tourism
5
1.zçÅkVª, ÃVoª sþ>D cç¦B \Vk⦺ï^ ................, ........................
2.zwÍç> ÃVoª sþ>D (0 - 6 kBmÂzâÃâ¦) ...........................
c8
3.zçÅkVª zwÍç> ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ï^ ......................., .....................
4.¶]ï ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ï^ ..................., .........................
¼\uïõ¦ >ïk_ïÓÂz ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á]_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) >ì\Aö \u®D ¼>M, 942 (2001), ¶öBÙì \u®D ï¦Ùì, ï[MBVz\ö \uÅD Àéþö
ps
B) ¼>M \u®D >ì\Aö, 946(2011), ï¦Ùì \u®D ¶öBÙì, Àéþö \u®D ï[MBVz\ö
C) ¼>M \u®D >ì\Aö, 946(2011), ¶öBÙì \u®D ï¦Ùì, Àéþö \u®D ï[MBVz\ö
D) ¼>M \u®D >ì\Aö, 946(2011), ï¦Ùì \u®D ¶öBÙì, >ì\Aö \u®D ¶öBÙì
C) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is the correct explanation
D) Assertion and reason are false
íu® : >tµåVâ½_ c^á ¼káVõç\, Wéºï¹_ Ãwºï^, ïVFï¤ï^, \ÄVéV ØÃVòâï^,
s:
\õ káD Öò©Ã>V_
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
ht
5
1.>tµåVâ½_ cuÃÝ]BVzD Øk©Ã guÅo_ ¶]ï ¶á¡ ¶Ý]©Ãâ|, ¨õIì, ¼\âùì, ØåF¼ko
\u®D #ÝmÂz½ gþB Ö¦ºï¹oòÍm ØÃÅ©Ã|þÅm.
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2.>tµåVâ½_ 20ÂzD ¼\uÃ⦠Aª_ t[ WçéBºï^ c^ám. ¶ku®^ xÂþB\VªçkBVï
zÍ>V, ¼\âùì, \«kïõ½ c^ám.
3.ïVu¤oòÍm t[ÄV«D >BVöÂï °mkVª Ö¦\Vï ]òØå_¼ko, #ÝmÂz½l[ Ø>uz©Ãz] \u®D
Ö«V¼\ük«D gþB Ö¦ºï^ c^áª.
ps
4.Ø>[>twïD óöB t[ÄÂ] ]⦺ïçáß ØÄB_Ã|Ý> cïÍ> \õ¦é\Vï ïò>©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 2, 3 Äö
126. Choose the correct one regarding the causes of rural indebtedness
1.Failure of Monsoon
2.Poverty of farmers
3.Litigation
4.Money lenders and high rate of interest
Tn
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 2, 3, 4 D) None of the above
e/
»«ï ï¦[ïÓÂïVª ïV«ðºï¹_ >kÅVªm ¶_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.Ãòk\çw ØÃVFÝ>_
2.skÄVlï¹[ °µç\ Wçé
.m
3.kwÂzï^
4.kâ½Âz ï¦[ >ò¼kVì \u®D ¶]ïkâ½
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 4
127. Which of the following is not a remedies for rural unemployment
//t
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 2, 3, 4 D) ¨m¡t_çé
128. Choose the correct one among the various schemes
Statement 1: National Rural Health Mission - 2005
ht
5
b) RLEGP - G) National Rural Employment programme - 2) 1989
c) NREP - H) Integrated rural development programme - 3) 1977
c8
d) FWP - I) JawaharRozgarYojana - 4) 1978
e)IRDP - J) Food for work programme - 5) 1983
a b c d e
A) I-2 F-5 G-1 J-4 H-3
ps
B) I-2 F-5 G-1 J-3 H-4
C) H-4 J-3 G-1 F-5 I-2
D) J-3 H-4 F-5 G-1 I-2
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.JRY
b.RLEGP
c.NREP
Tn
Š F) »«ï Wé\u¼ÅVì ¼kçékVF©A c®]Ý]â¦D Š 1. 1980
Š G) ¼>EB »«ï ¼kçékVF©AÝ ]â¦D
Š H) ÎòºþçðÍ> »«ï káìßEÝ ]â¦D
Š 2. 1989
Š 3. 1977
Š I) ÛkÇì ¼kçékVF©AÝ]â¦D Š 4. 1978
e/
d.FWP
e.IRDP Š J) ¼kçéÂz cð¡ ]â¦D Š 5. 1983
a b c d e
A) I - 2 F- 5 G- 1 J- 4 H- 3
.m
B) I - 2 F - 5 G - 1 J - 3 H - 4
C) H - 4 J - 3 G - 1 F - 5 I - 2
D) J - 3 H - 4 F - 5 G - 1 I - 2
//t
131. Assertion : To reduce the seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt
subsidiary occupation and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their
products.
Reason : In order to reduce rural employment in the country there is a need to take integrated
and coordinate efforts from various levels.
A) Assertion is true, reason is false
B) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is the correct explanation
C) Both assertion and reason are true, reason is not the correct explanation
D) Assertion is false, reason is true
5
íu® : ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\çB >sìÂï »«ï \Âïçá mçð Ø>Va_ïçá Ø>V¦ºzk>uz
»Âï©Ã|Ý> ¼kõ|D. ¼\KD cuÃÝ] ØÄF> Ãõ¦ºïçá ÄÍç>©Ã|Ýmk>uïVª
c8
kÄ]ïçá¥D ØÄFm >« ¼kõ|D.
ïV«ðD : åVâ½_ »«ï ¼kçél[ç\çB zçÅ©Ã>uz Ã_¼k® Wçéï¹_ ÎòºþçðÍ>
xBuEï^ ¨|Âï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
ps
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
Reason :In order to improve the nation’s status in the global arena in terms of the economic
indicators like HDI,WEI,GDI,GNHI
e/
A) Assertion is true but reason is false B) Both assertion and reason are true
C) Both assertion and reason are false D) Assertion is false ,reason is true
íu® : »«ï ¼\DÃV| ¨[Ãm z¤©¸â¦ »«ï \Âï¹[ ØÃVòáV>V« \u®D ÄJï kVµÂçï
xçÅçB ¼\DÃ|Ý> k½kç\Âï©Ã⦠cÝ] gzD.
.m
ïV«ðD : HDI, WEI, GDI, GNHI ¼ÃV[Å ØÃVòáV>V«Â z¤X|ïçá ¼\DÃ|Ýmk>[ JéD
céï ¶«ºþ_ ÖÍ]BVs[ WçéçB ¼\DÃ|Ý> ÖBKD.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
//t
133. Regional rural banks and National Rural Health Mission was launched in the year
A) 1975,12/05/2005 B) 1975,12/01/2005
C) 1975,12/04/2006 D) 1975,12/04/2005
s:
5
2.Îò z¤©¸â¦ ïVéÝ]_ \â|¼\ ¼kçé þç¦Ý>_ ....................
3.¼>çkÂz ¶]ï\Vï ¼kçéçB Ãéì ØÄF>_ .......................
c8
4.Ö«õ| xu¤KD ¼k®Ã⦠ÃõAï^ Îòº¼ï Öò©Ãm ...............
¼\uïõ¦ kVÂþBºïÓÂz ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á]_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) Ö«âç¦>[ç\, zçżkçél[ç\, ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\, Øk¹©Ãç¦BVª ¼kçél[ç\
B) Øk¹©Ãç¦BVª ¼kçél[ç\, ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\, zçÅ ¼kçél[ç\, Ö«âç¦Ý>[ç\
ps
C) ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\, zçÅ ¼kçél[ç\, Ö«âç¦Ý>[ç\, Øk¹©Ãç¦BVª ¼kçél[ç\
D) »«ï ¼\DÃV| ¼kçél[ç\, ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\, zçżkçél[ç\, °µç\
136. Statement 1 :Micro units development and refinance agency
Tn
Statement 2 :It regulate and refinance and microfinance institutions
Which organization link with the above statements?
A) SHG
B) NABARD
e/
C) MUDRA
D) NGO
íu® 1: z® ¶ézï^ káìßE \u®D \®W]BVÂïD W®kªD.
íu® 2: z® W] W®kªºïçá οºzÃ|Ý>¡D \®W]BVÂïD ØÄFB¡D °uÃ|Ý>©Ãâ¦m.
.m
kakzÂþÅm.
A) ÃðTÂïD B) x>Ü| Ö[ç\
C) zçÅÍ> cuÃÝ]Ý ]Å[ D) ¨m¡t_çé
tp
b) Gangaikondan - 2. Tanjore B) 1 2 3 4
c) Palakkuruchi - 3. Tirunelveli C) 2 3 4 1
d) Dusi - 4. Ramanathapuram D) 3 4 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.k¦\çéA«D Š 1. k¦ guïV| A) 4 3 2 1
b.ïºçï ØïVõ¦V[ Š 2. >ÞÄVÆì B) 1 2 3 4
c.ÃVéÂz¤ßE Š 3. ]òØå_¼ko C) 2 3 4 1
d.mE Š 4. «V\åV>A«D D) 3 4 2 1
5
C) 3 1 2 4 5
D) 3 4 5 2 1
c8
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.c^C|ï^ þç¦Âï©ØÃÅVç\ Š 1. \Âï^Ø>V¦ìAç¦B ¸«ßEçªï^
b.>ïk_ Ø>V¦ìA, \òÝmk kÄ] Š 2. WìkVïD ÄVìÍ> ¸«ßEçªï^
ps
c.ï¦[·ç\, Wé¡ç¦ç\ Š 3. ¼káVõç\ ÄVìÍ> ¸«ßÄçªï^
d.»Âït[ç\, gìkt[ç\ Š 4. c^ïâ¦ç\©A ÄVìÍ> ¸«ßÄçªï^
e.åD¸Âçï zçÅ¡, ¨¿Ý>¤s[ç\ Š 5. ØÃVòáV>V«D ÄVìÍ> ¸«ßÄçªï^
a b c d e
A) 3
B) 3
C) 3
D) 3
4
4
1
4
5
1
2
5
1
2
4
2
2
5
5
1
Tn
e/
140. Consider the following statements
1.India Lives in Villages - Mahatma Gandhi
2.‘An Indian farmer is born in debt ,lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt-Malcom Darling
.m
3.‘One side villages are congested, on the other side towns are empty’-This is a dual posioning-
Schumacher
4.Schumacher describes the dangers of the present kind of development
A) 3 is false, 1, 2, 4 is true B) 1, 2, 3, 4 is true
//t
2.{ì ÖÍ]B cwk[ ï¦M¼é ¸ÅÍm ï¦M¼é kVµÍm ï¦M¼é ÖÅÍm ¶k[ ÄÍ]ÂzD ï¦çª¼B
sâ| ØÄ_þÅV[ ¨[® í¤Bkì Š \V_ïD ¦Vìoº
3.Îò AÅD å﫺ï^ ïVoBVï¡D \®AÅD þ«V\ºï^ ØåöÄéVï c^áª. Öm Ö«âç¦ åÞÄVÂï^
tp
¨ª z¤©¸â¦kì Š ·\VÄì
4.>u¼ÃVç>B káìßE kçï xçÅ ¶ÃVBï«\Vªm ¨[® sáÂþBkì Š Ä\VÄì
A) 3 >k® 1, 2, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
ht
C) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k® D) 1, 2, 4 >k® 3 Äö
141. Whose thesis say the changes in the rural areas people?
A) Diamond B) Dale Mortensen
C) Slater D) All of these
»«ï Ãz]ï¹_ °uÃ|D \Vuźïçá BVòç¦B gFs[ JéD ¶¤Ím ØïV^áéVD?
A) ¦B\õâ B) ¼¦_ \Vì½[ï[
C) ü¼éâ¦ì D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªkòD
5
2.kòkVF þ«V\D Š »«ï© Ãz]l[ ¶½©Ãç¦ ¶éïVï ïò>©Ã|D.
3.»«ï© ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][ xÂþB ÖB_A Š ¼káVõç\ ÄVìÍ]òÝ>_
c8
4.»«ï \Âï^ \u®D »«ï kVµÂçïçB ¼\DÃ|Ým>_ Š »«ï ¼\DÃV|
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® B) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 >k® D) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k®
143. Pick out the odd one (100 % electricity connections)
ps
A) Tamilnadu B) Delhi C) Chandigar D) Orissa
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m? (t[ kÄ] ØÃu®^á \VWéºï^ Š 100%)
A) >tµåV| B) ئ_o C) Äõ½ïì D) ÎöÄV
A) 70 B) 60 Tn
144. According to 2011 census, how many percent of population in rural areas?
C) 50
2011 ïðÂØï|©¸[ Ø\VÝ> \Âï^ Ø>Vçïl_ »«ïÝ]_ kV¿D \Âï^Ø>Vçï Ä>T>D ¨[ª?
A) 70 B) 60 C) 50 D) 40
D) 40
145. Which model helps us understand how regulation and economic policies affect unemployment, job
e/
vacancies and wages?
A) DMA B) DMP C) DNP D) DMB
ØÃVòáV>V« ØïV^çïï^ \u®D οºzxçÅï^ ¨©Ã½ ¼kçél[ç\, ¼kçé ïVo Ö¦ºï^
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147. Choose the correct statement regarding the National Rural Health Mission
1.The main objective is to provide accessible, affordable and quality health care to the rural
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 3 only D) 1, 3
¼>EB »«ï åé ¶ç\©A Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm ¶_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.åokç¦Í> »«ï \ÂïÓÂïVï zçÅÍ> sçél_ ¨¹]_ ØÃÅÂí½B >«\Vª g¼«VÂþB
kÄ]ïçá °uÃ|Ý] >òkm Ö>[ ¼åVÂïD.
2.\塚î \u®D zwÍç> åé[ gþBku®Âz xÂþBÝmkD kwºzþÅm.
3.>VFç\©¼Ã® Öª©ØÃòÂïD \u®D káì ÖáD ÃòkÝ]ªö[ åéÐÂïVï Ã_¼k® Ãèïçá
¼\uØïV^þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 3 \â|D D) 1, 3
148. Which of the following is/are the main aims of the rural electrification?
1.To increased cropped area
2.To promote rural industries
3.To enhance agricultural productivity
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 1, 2, 3 D) 1 only
»«ï t[\B\VÂz>o[ xÂþB ¼åVÂïºï^ ¨m/¨çk?
1.Ãlö|D Wé©Ã«©çà ¶]ïö©Ãm
2.»«ï Ø>VauÄVçé ¼\DÃ|Ýmkm
3.¼káVõ cuÃÝ]Ý ]Åçª ØÃòÂzkm
5
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3
C) 1, 2, 3 D) 1 \â|D
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149. As Per the NSSO data, _______of the households lived in with one room while another _____lived
with two rooms.
A) 38 %, 46 % B) 38 %, 36%
C) 36 %, 38 % D) 48 %, 46%
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NSSO A^¹sk«Ý][ý ............. Ä>T> z|Dúï^ {ì ¶çÅçB¼B T¦Vï ØïVõ|D
\uØÅVò ...........Ä>T> z|Dúï^ Ö«õ| ¶çÅï^ ØïVõ¦ Tâ½KD kVµþ[Ūì.
A) 38%, 46% B) 38%, 36% C) 36%, 38% D) 48%, 46%
WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 7:
07.10.2021 (sBVw[):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
5
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 12-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 1) ÃV¦D Š1,2
1. ÃV¦D 1 - ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©A
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2. ÃV¦D 2 Š Ä⦠\[ÅD
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 12ŠD kz©A ÃV¦D Š 1, 2
1. ÃV¦D 1 Š ¼ÃöB_ ØÃVòáV>V«D
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2. ÃV¦D 2 Š ¼>EB kòkVF
3. AslB_ : ÖªD, Ø\Va z¿Âï^ (\) xÂþB Ãwºz½ï^,
ÖBuçï ¼Ãö¦ì Š ¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\,
1. ïéVßÄV« (\) ¶«EB_ AslB_ 12-gD kz©A
2.
3.
¼Ãö¦ç« AöÍm ØïV^Ó>_ Tn
ÖBuçï ¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\ å¦k½Âçïïçá AöÍm
6-gD kz©A
(3ŠgD ÃòkD)
7ŠgD kz©A
ØïV^á_. (3ŠgD ÃòkD)
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4. Ö¦ìï^ 8ŠgD kz©A
5. ¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\ Š ¼Ãö¦ç« ¨]ì ØïV^Ó>_ 9ŠgD kz©A
6. ÖBuçï ¼Ãö¦ì Š ¼Ãö¦ì ¶ÃVB zçÅ©A sa©Aðì¡ 11ŠgD kz©A
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5
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Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 B 42 C 43 D 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 A 50 A
51 B 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 C 56 D 57 B 58 B 59 D 60 A
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61 D 62 B 63 B 64 C 65 B 66 D 67 D 68 A 69 C 70 C
71 C 72 A 73 D 74 A 75 D 76 B 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 C
81 C 82 D 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 D 87 C 88 C 89 D 90 C
91 B 92 C 93 C 94 D 95 D 96 C 97 D 98 B 99 A 100 D
ps
101 B 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 A 106 A 107 B 108 D 109 C 110 B
111 A 112 B 113 C 114 A 115 B 116 A 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 C
121 B 122 C 123 C 124 C 125 A 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 B
131 B 132 B 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 C 137 A 138 A 139 D 140 A
141 C 142 B 143 D 144 B 145
Tn
B 146 A 147 A 148 C 149 B 150 B
e/
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21 D 22 A 23 D 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 A 28 D 29 D 30 D
31 D 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 D 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 B
41 B 42 C 43 D 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 B 49 A 50 A
s:
51 B 52 A 53 B 54 C 55 C 56 D 57 B 58 B 59 D 60 A
61 D 62 B 63 B 64 C 65 B 66 D 67 D 68 A 69 C 70 C
71 C 72 A 73 D 74 A 75 D 76 B 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 C
tp
81 C 82 D 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 D 87 C 88 C 89 D 90 C
91 B 92 C 93 C 94 D 95 D 96 C 97 D 98 B 99 A 100 D
101 B 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 A 106 A 107 B 108 D 109 C 110 B
ht
111 A 112 B 113 C 114 A 115 B 116 A 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 C
121 B 122 C 123 C 124 C 125 A 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 B
131 B 132 B 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 C 137 A 138 A 139 D 140 A
141 C 142 B 143 D 144 B 145 B 146 A 147 A 148 C 149 B 150 B
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
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ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 8 / åV^ Š 11.10.2021
.2021
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Ø\VÝ>
ÃV¦D >çé©A
sªVÂï^ (150)
s:
5
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TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 8) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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¶«EBéç\©A (12-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 1) ÃV¦DŠ3,4)
2. There were a number of smritissuch as Manusmrits, NaradaSmriti, and Yagnavakya Smritis and
ManuSmriti was not considered as a base.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct C) 2 correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
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5
2. Öm T.B.Ø\ÂïV¼é >çéç\léVª z¿s[ ÃöÍm竩ý còkVªm.
3. Öm 1862-_ ¶\KÂz kÍ>m.
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A) 1, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 >k® D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
6. Examine the following statements.
Statement 1: Australia's highest court is called the High Court of Australia
Statement 2: Australia’s state courts are called the Supreme Court.
ps
A) 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÿµÂïõ¦Â íu®ïçá g«VFï.
íu® 1 : gü]¼«oBV åVâ½[ clìWçé W]Bç\©A cBìÀ]\[ÅD ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
íu® 2 : \VWéÝ >çéç\ À]\[źï¼á cßÄ À]\[ÅD ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® 1 Äö B) íu® 2 Äö
7. Find the incorrect option:
A) UK -
Tn
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
9. Which State and Union Territory has the lowest number of pending cases?
A) Sikkim & Andaman and Nicobar Islands
B) Sikkim & Lakshadweep Islands
C) Tamil Nadu &Puducherry
D) Uttarakhand& Daman Diu
zçÅÍ> ¶á¡ WKçk kwÂzïçá ØïVõ¦ \VWéD (\) RMB[ ¸«¼>ÄD ¨m?
A) EÂþD (\) ¶Í>\V[ W¼ïVÃVì y¡ï^ B) EÂþD (\) éâÄÝ y¡ï^
C) >tµåV| (\) Amß¼Äö D) cÝ>«ïVõâ (\) ¦V\[ ç¦R
5
d. 1773 Š 4. ïV«[kVoü Äâ¦ÝØ>Vz©A D) 2 3 4 1
11. Find the correct statements about judgments relating to judicial review of the Supreme Court?
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1. The nationalization of banks is invalid.
2. It declared the laws invalid that was passed to deprive minorities of their rights to establish and
manage educational institutions.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct C) 2 correct D) None
ps
cßÄ À]\[Å À]ÝmçÅß æ«VF¡ Ø>V¦ìÃVª yì©Aï¹_ ÄöBVªm BVçk?
1. kºþï^ ¼>EB\B\VÂzD Äâ¦\ ØÄ_éVm.
2. E®ÃV[ç\lªì >ºïÓÂïVª ï_s W®kªºï^ W®k¡D WìkþÂï¡D kwºï©Ãâ¦
cöç\ïç᩠äÂzD kçïl_ ÖBuÅ©Ã⦠Ä⦺ï^ ØÄ_éVm ¨ª ¶¤sÝ>m.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 Äö C) 2 Äö
Tn D) ¨m¡t_çé
12. Find the correct statements regarding Public interest litigation
1. The Supreme Court has the power to hear public interest litigation petitions under Article 32.
2. It can be filed against the State Governments, Central Governments and the Corporation.
e/
3. Public Interest Litigation cannot be filed against an individual
A) All correct B) 1, 2 only correct C) 1, 3 correct D) 3 Only correct
ØÃVmåékwÂz Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
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5
adopted?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 14
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ÖÍ]BV s|>çé ¶ç¦Ím ¶«EBéç\©A °uï©Ã⦠ïVéÝ]_ ¨Ý>çª cBìÀ]\[źï^ ÖòÍ>ª?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 14
17. “High Courts and Supreme Court constitute onesingle integrated judiciary havingjurisdiction and
providing remedies inall cases under the constitutional law,The Civil law or the criminal law” said
ps
by
A) Nehru B) Gandhi
C) Ambedkar D) Kania
''cBìÀ]\[źïÓD cßÄ À]\[ÅxD, ¶«Äç\©¸[ ÿµ Îò ÎòºþçðÍ> À]ÝmçÅBVï
B) ïVÍ] C) ¶D¼ÃÝïì
Tn
ØÄB_Ãâ| ¶çªÝm z½ç\lB_ (¶) zuÅsB_ kwÂzïÓÂz yì¡ ïVõþÅm'' Öm BVòç¦B íu®?
A) ¼åò D) ÇMBV
18. Statement 1 : Article 124 to 147 in Part V deals with the Supreme Court of India.
Statement 2 :It was established on 28th January 1950 with 1 Chief Justice &7 Judges
e/
A) 1, 2 incorrect B) 2 correct C) 1 correct D) 1, 2 correct
íu® 1 : Ãz] V _ s] 124 x>_ 147 kç« ÖÍ]B cßÄÀ]\[ÅÝ]çª Ãu¤ sköÂþÅm.
íu® 2 : 1950, Ûªkö 28 ¶[® 1 >çéç\ À]Ã] (\) 7 À]Ã]ïÓ¦[ Ø>V¦ºï©Ãâ¦m.
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A) 1, 2 >k® B) 2 Äö C) 1 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
19. What are the qualifications to become a Judge of the Supreme Court?
A) He/She should be a citizen of India.
B) He/Sheshould have been a Judge of the High Court for 5 years or to be a High Court Advocate
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for 10 years.
C) He/She mustbe an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President .
D) All of the above.
s:
ÖòÍ]òÂï ¼kõ|D.
C) z½B«· >çékö[ ïòÝ]_ >çéEÅÍ> Äâ¦WAð«Vï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD.
ht
20. Which of the following is not among the judges of the Supreme Court of India created on January
28, 1950?
A) Syed Fazal Ali B) PatanjaliSastri
C) Mehar ChandMahajan D) Sanjeev Banerjee
1950, Ûªkö 28Š_ còkVÂï©Ã⦠ÖÍ]B cßÄÀ]\[Å À]Ã]ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) çÄBÝ ÃVÄ_ ¶o B) Ã>ÞÄo ÄVü]ö
C) Ø\ïìÄÍ \ïVÛ[ D) ÄÞæË ÃVªì÷
5
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 Äö C) 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
22. Examine the following Statements.
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1. During the Vedic period, the power of the head of the family(Kulapa) was protected from royal
interference.
2. In ancient system of Indian monarchies, the king was the highest judicial authority.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct C) 2 correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
ps
¸[kòD íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1. ¼k>ïVéÝ]_ (zéÃV) z|DÃÝ >çékM[ ¶]ïV«\Vªm \[ªì ka z®Âÿ|ï¹oòÍm
ÃVmïVÂï©Ãâ½òÍ>m.
2. Ãõç¦B ÖÍ]B x½BVâï¹_ À]ÝmçÅ ¶]ïVìÝ]_ ¶«Ä¼« cBìWçél_ ÖòÍ>Vì.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 Äö C) 2 Äö
Tn D) 1, 2 >k®
23. Which of the following statements is Incorrect? (Ancient period)
A) At that time, there was a view that everyone is equal before the law.
B) Brahmins were always protected from punishment.
e/
C) Arthasastra recommended excessive punishments in the name of controlling the rates of crimes.
D) None
¸[kòD íu®ï¹_ >kÅVªm ¨m? (Ãõç¦B ïVéD)
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D) ¨m¡t_çé
24. Match: a b c d
a. Diwan - Al - Mazalim - 1. Highest criminal court A) 2 1 3 4
s:
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. ]kV[ Š Ö Š \ÄVoD Š 1. ¼\_xçÅXâ| cßÄ À]\[ÅD A) 2 1 3 4
b. ]kV[ Š Ö Š öBVÄâ Š 2. ¼>Äm¼«Vï kwÂzï^ À]\[ÅD B) 1 2 4 3
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c. x©] Š 3. Äâ¦k_Kåì C) 1 2 3 4
d. ]kV[ Š Ö Š öÄV_â Š 4. z½ç\lB_ kwÂz cßÄÀ]\[ÅDD) 4 1 2 3
25. Examine the following statements.
1. Charter of 1661 led to the appointment of Governor and the Council in each of its settlement
2. The Governor and the Council were empowered to decide civil cases in accordance with the
Law of England.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct C) 2 correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
5
A) 1565 B) 1665 C) 1765 D) 1865
27. Which article of the Constitution states that the Vice President is the Official Chairman of the
Rajya Sabha ?
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A) 63 B) 64 C) 65 D) 66
z½B«· mçðÝ>çékì ¶©Ã>slªV_ \VWéºïáçkl[ ¶Kk_ ka >çékì ¨ª í®D
¶«EBéç\©A?
A) 63 B) 64 C) 65 D) 66
ps
28. Which two persons jointly held the post of Deputy Prime Ministers?
A) Morarji Desai & Lal Bahadur Shastri B) Charan Singh & Jagajeevan Ram
C) O.P. Chawan & Devilal D) Devilal & L.K. Advani
¨Í> Öòkì ÖçðÍm mç𠸫>\ìïáVï Ã>s kþÝ>ªì?
A) Ø\V«Vì÷ ¼>ÄVF (\) éV_Ãï#ì ÄVü]ö
C) {F.¸. ÄkV[ (\) ¼>séV_
29. Who is the last Deputy Prime Minister?
A) Charan Singh B) Devilal
Tn
B) Ä«õEº (\) Ûïýk[ «VD
D) ¼>séV_ (\) ¨_.¼ï. ¶ÝkVM
C) LK Advani D) OP Chawan
e/
Ökìï¹_ BVì ïç¦E mçð¸«>\ì?
A) Ä«õEº B) ¼>séV_ C) ¨_.¼ï.¶ÝkVM D) {F.¸.ÄkV[
30. Examine the following Statements.
.m
1. The Charter of 1683 led to the Company establishing Courts of Admiralty to try traders
committing various crimes on high seas.
2. The Charter of 1688 authorized the Company to create the Corporation of Madras and the
Mayor’s Court was attached to it.
//t
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 Äö C) 2 Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
31. In which year was the SidiYakub invasion led to the dissolution of the court in Bombay?
A) 1590 B) 1690 C) 1790 D) 1680
ht
5
C) Justice Anand D) Justice KG Balakrishnan
ÖÍ]BVs_ ¨Í> cßÄÀ]\[Å À]Ã] *m ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ>V_ Ã>s ÀÂï \¼ÄV>V ØïVõ| k«©Ãâ¦m?
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A) À]Ã] þòiðFBì B) À]Ã] «V\ÄVt
C) À]Ã] gªÍÝ D) À]Ã] ¼ï.÷.ÃVéþòið[
35. Parliament passed a impeachment motion against ______ in the history of India?
A) Justice Soumitra Sen B) Justice Vinayak Gupta
ps
C) Justice Chandrakumar D) Justice A.K.Rao.
ÖÍ]B k«éVu¤_ ¨Í> À]Ã] ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ>V_ Ã>s ÀÂïD ØÄFB©Ãâ¦Vì?
A) À]Ã] ·tÝ«V ØÄ[ B) À]Ã] sªB z©>V
C) À]Ã] ÄÍ]«z\Vì D) À]Ã] g.¼ï.«VË.
36. Examine the following statements. Tn
1. The National Judicial Appointment Commission Bill, 2014 was introduced under
121st Constitution Amendment bill.
2. The National Judicial Appointments Commission advises the President regarding transfer and
e/
appointment of judges.
3. The President may seek help from the Supreme Court under Article 143 of the Constitution.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 1 correct
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C) 2, 3 correct D) 1, 2 correct
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1. ¼>EB À]ÝmçÅ Ã>s WB\ª ït−[ \¼ÄV>V 2014 ¶«Äç\©A Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D 121Š[ý ØïVõ|
k«©Ãâ¦m.
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2. À]Ã] WB\ªD (\) Ö¦\V®>çé ¼>EB À]ÝmçÅ Ã>sWB\ª ït−[ z½B«· >çékòÂz
g¼éVÄçª kwºzþÅm.
3. ¶«EBéç\©A Ä⦩¸ö¡ 143 [ ý z½B«· >çékì cßÄÀ]\[ÅÝ]_ ¶Ð\] ØÃÅéVD.
s:
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
37. Find the correct pair ?
A) 1970 - Bank nationalization case
tp
5
D) gÓåì
40. Find the correct statements about Prime Minister's Office
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1. The Prime Minister's Office assists the Prime Minister in fulfilling his responsibilities.
2. The Prime Minister's Office is specified in the Constitution.
3. The Prime Minister's Office has the status of a department of Government of India.
4. This office was established in 1947.
ps
5. Prime Minister`s Office is headed politically by the Prime Minister and administratively by the
Principal Secretary
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 correct B) 2, 3, 4, 5 correct C) 1, 3, 4, 5 correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct
¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
Tn
1.¸«>\ì ØÃV®©Aïçá Wçżku®D ØÃVòâ| ¸«>\òÂz c>sBVï Öò©Ãm ¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD.
2.¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD ¶«EBéç\©ÃV_ z¤©¸¦©Ã⦠Î[®.
3.¸«>\ì ¶KkéïÝ]uz ÖÍ]B ¶«E[ mçÅï¹_ Î[® ¨[Å >z] c^ám.
4.ÖÍ> ¶KkéïD 1947-_ còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m.
e/
5.¶«EB_ Z]BVï ¸«>\òD, WìkVï Z]BVï x>[ç\ ØÄBéòD Ö>[ >çéç\BVï ØÄB_Ã|kì.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Äö B) 2, 3, 4, 5 Äö
C) 1, 3, 4, 5 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
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¸[kòkªkuçÅ köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï?
1.Ä\>ì\ 2.Ä\BÄVìÃuÅ 3.ÖçÅBVõç\ 4.z½B«· 5.\ÂïáVâE
A) 5 4 3 2 1 B) 3 1 2 5 4 C) 3 1 2 4 5 D) 4 5 3 2 1
s:
5
2.53km c®©A ÖÍ]B Î[¤BÝ][ gâE ¶]ïV«Ýç> ¶kòÂz ¶¹©Ãm¦[ ¶kuçÅ
¼å«½BVï¼kV (¶) \çÅxï\Vï¼kV ØÄB_Ã|Ým kçï ØÄFþÅm.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k®
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1 \â|D Äö
45. Find the incorrect option : (Qualifications required to be President)
1. Article 58 mentions about on qualifications for President of India
ps
2. Must be a citizen of India.
3. Should have completed 35 years of age.
4. Must have all the qualifications to become a Member of Rajya Sabha.
5. If a candidate does not secure one-sixth of the votes, his/her deposit will be forfeited.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 incorrect B) 2 only
¸[kòkªku®^ ¨m >k®? (z½B«· >çék«Vï ¼>çkBVª >z]ï^)
1.ÖÍ]B z½B«·Ý>çékòÂïVª >z]ï^ Ãu¤B c®©A Š 58
2.ÖÍ]B z½\ïªVï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
Tn C) 5 only D) 4 only
e/
3.35 kBç> ¯ìÝ] ØÄF>k«Vï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
4.\VWéºïáçk c®©¸ª«Vk>uïVª ¶çªÝm >z]ïÓD ØïVõ½òÝ>_ ¼kõ|D.
5.Ã]kVª kVÂzï¹_ g¤_ Îò úz ¼kâÃVáì ØÃÅs_çéØBM_ ¶kòç¦B çk©A Ø>Vçï
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>«©Ã¦\Vâ¦Vm.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 >k® B) 2 \â|D
C) 5 \â|D D) 4 \â|D
46. Who administers the oath of office to the President of India?
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C) ÄÃVåVBïì D) ¸«>\ì
47. Find the incorrect option
A) For the impeachment of the President, in either House of the Parliament by are solution signed
tp
D) None
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ >kÅVªm ¨m?
A) z½B«·Ý >çékö[ Ã>sÀÂïD ØÄFk>uz ¨Í>ØkVò ¶çklKD ¶>[ Ø\VÝ>
c®©¸ªìï¹_ úz c®©¸ªìïáV_ çïØBV©Ãt¦ ¼kõ|D
B) zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD 14 kV«ºïÓÂz x[íâ½¼B ¶kòÂz ¶¤s©A kwºï ¼kõ|D
C) úþuz zçÅBV> ØÃòDÃV[ç\l_ Wçżkuũæ ¼kõ|D
D) ¨m¡t_çé
5
A) 14 months B) 6 months C) 3 years D) 14 days
z½B«· mçðÝ>çékì ¨Ý>çª \V>D kç« z½B«· >çék«Vï Ã>s kþÂïéVD?
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A) 14 \V>ºï^ B) 6 \V>ºï^ C) 3 kò¦D D) 14 åVâï^
50. How many members nominated to the Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha by the President?
A) 12 & 2 B) 2 & 12 C) 12 & 1 D) 12& 14
z½B«·Ý >çék«V_ \Âïáçk (\) \VWéºïáçkÂz ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D c®©¸ªìï¹[
ps
¨õèÂçï?
A) 12 (\) 2 B) 2 (\) 12 C) 2 (\) 1 D) 12 (\) 14
51. Who will hold the post of President in the absence of President ?
A) Vice President B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
C) Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court
z½B«· >çékì Ö_éV> ¼ÃVm ¶k«m Ã>sçB kþ©Ãkì BVì?
A) z½B«· mçðÝ>çékì
Tn D) All
of India.
3. He/ She should have the support of 50 proposers in the Election of President.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct
C) 3 only correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
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¼kõ|D.
3.z½B«· >çékì ¼>ì>o_ 50 kVÂïVáìï¹[ kaØ\Va>çé ØÃu¤òÂï ¼kõ|D.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 3 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
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5
3.¶B_åVâ|¦[ cÅ¡ïçá çïBV^km
4.¨Í>ØkVò Äâ¦D (¶) ØÃVò^ z¤Ým cßÄÀ]\[ÅÝ]_ g¼éVÄçªçB åV|km
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A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
55. The post of Vice President feature was borrowed from
A) UK B) Russia C) Canada D) USA
mçð z½B«·Ý>çékì Ã>s ¨Í> åVâ½oòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m (¶) ¨|Âï©Ãâ¦m?
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A) ÖºþéVÍm B) «iBV C) 益V D) ¶Ø\öÂïV
56. Vice President
1. Article 63 of the constitution deals with the Vice President.
2. Nominated members of Parliament cannot vote in the election of Vice president.
A) 1 only B) 2 only
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3. The Vice president is elected by Members of both the houses of the parliament.
Find the incorrect option :
C) 3 only D) 1, 2, 3 correct
mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì?
e/
1.¶«EBéç\©A Ä⦩¸ö¡ 63 mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì Ãu¤ sáÂzþÅm.
2.mçðÂz½B«· >çékì ¼>ì>o_ ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ][ WB\ª c®©¸ªìï^ kVÂï¹Âï x½BVm.
3.mçðÂz½B«· >çékì ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ][ Öò ¶çk c®©¸ªìïáV_ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFB©Ã|þÅVì.
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58. 1. Asthe presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha,his functions and powers are similar tothose of the
speaker of Lok Sabha
2. He draws his salary as the chairman of theRajya Sabha
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3. While acting as President, the Vice-President gets salaryallowance, emoluments etc., fixed by
Parliament by law.
Examine the statements and choose the correct option
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5
¸«>\ì WB\ªD
1.¸«>\ö[ ¼>ì¡ (\) WB\ªD Ãu¤B z¤©Aï^ ¶«EBéç\©¸_ Ö_çé
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2.¶«Äç\©¸[ 75km c®©A ¸«>\ç« z½B«· >çékì WB\ªD ØÄFk>Vï í®þÅm.
3.¸«>\ç« z½B«· >çékì >[MßçÄBVï ¼>ì¡ ØÄFB ÖBéVm.
4.\Âïáçkl_ ØÃò[ÃV[ç\¥^á ïâE (¶) ïâEï¹[ íâ¦èl[ >çék竼B ¸«>\«Vï
z½B«· >çékì WB\ªD ØÄFþÅVì.
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Öku®^ ÄöBVªçk ¨çk?
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 3, 4 Äö
60. Find the correct statements about functions of the Prime Minister
1. The first and foremost function of the Prime Minister is to prepare the list of his ministers.
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2. PM can designate the most important Ministers as Cabinet Ministers.
3. If Prime Minister wishes, He/She can declare a minister as deputy prime minister
4. President allocates portfolios among the ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister
5. He/she can advise the division and merger of departments and can also modify them.
e/
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 correct B) 1, 2, 3 correct
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct D) 2, 3, 4, 5 correct
¸«>\ö[ Ãèï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
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5.mçÅïçá ¸öÂï¡D (¶) mçÅïçá ÖçðÂï¡D Ökì g¼éVÄçª kwºï x½¥D (\) Ök¼«
\Vu¤Bç\Âï¡D x½¥D.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 2, 3, 4, 5 Äö
s:
61. Find the correct statements about Functions of the Prime Minister's Office
1. It helps the prime minister in his responsibilities as chairman of the Niti Aayog and the National
Development Council
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2. Maintaining public relations of the Prime Minister with the media and the public.
3. To take necessary steps as per rules for the office of the Deputy Prime Minister
4. Provides assistance to the Prime Minister in the examination of cases submitted to him for orders
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5
¶ç\ßÄ«çk z¿ ÖòÂzD.
ïV«ðD : z½B«·Ý >çékì >\m ØÃV®©Aïçá Wçżku®k]_ ¶ç\ßÄìï^ z¿s[
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g¼éVÄ窩ý å¦Ím ØïV^kVì.
A) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
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D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
63. Examine the following Statements.
1. According to the Constitution of India, Ministers are individually and collectively responsible to
the Lok Sabha
2. Constitution amendment act of 1956, makes it possible to appoint the same person as the
Governor for two or more states.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 Only correct
C) 2 Only correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
65. Find the correct option:
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66. According to which article of the Constitution of India, the Chief Minister of the State should be
appointed ?
A) 163 B) 164 (2) C) 165 D) 164 (1)
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©¸_ ¨Í> s]l[ý \VWéÝ][ x>_kì WBtÂï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D?
A) 163 B) 164(2) C) 165 D) 164(1)
67. 1. President’s Ordinance –Article 123.
2. Governor’s ordinance – Article 213
Which of the above option is correct?
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 Only correct
5
C) 2 Only correct D) 1, 2 Incorrect
1.z½B«·Ý >çékì ¶kÄ«ßÄâ¦Ýç>© ¸Å©¸ÂzD Ä⦩¸ö¡ Š 123.
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2.gÓåì ¶kÄ« Äâ¦Ýç> ¸Å©¸ÂzD Ä⦩¸ö¡ Š 213.
¼\uïõ¦ku¤_ ÄöBVªm ¨çk?
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö
C) 2 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2 >k®
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68. Assertion A : Parliamentary system in England is known as West Minister system.
Reason R : This is because parliament is located in the West Minister region of India.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
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B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
D) None
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) x[Ø\Va>_ Š Îò sòm, Øïá«kD (¶) ¼>ì>o_ ¼ÃVâ½l|k>uïVï ØÃBç« xçÅBVï
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¶¤sÝ>_
B) »]BD Š Îò ÃèÂïVï þç¦Âï©ØîD Ø>Vçï
C) ÎÝ]çk©A Š Îò Äâ¦D, cöç\ (\) ΩÃÍ>Ýç> Ä⦩ý ÀÂz>_
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D) ¨m¡t_çé
70. In which of these years, there was a disagreement over legislation and a joint meeting was convened
for the two houses ?
A) 1960 B) 1977 C) 2002 D) All
Öku¤_ ¨Í> gõ| Äâ¦tBu®k>uïVª ïòÝm ¼k®ÃV| ¼>V[¤ Öò ¶çkïÓÂïVª íâ|
íâ¦D í⦩Ãâ¦m?
A) 1960 B) 1977 C) 2002 D) Öçk ¶çªÝmD
AslB_
71. Match the following: a b c d e
a) Primary activities - 1. Automobile manufacturing A) 3 1 4 5 2
b) Secondary activities - 2. Education B) 3 1 4 2 5
c) Tertiary activities - 3. Fishing C) 3 2 4 1 5
d) Quaternary activities - 4. Banking D) 1 2 3 4 5
e) Quinary activities - 5. Scientist
5
ØÃVòÝmï.
a) x>_WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ Š 1. kVïª cuÃÝ]Ý Ø>VauÄVçé
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b) Ö«õ¦VD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ Š 2. ï_s
c) J[ÅVD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ Š 3. *[¸½Ý>_
d) åV[ïVD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ Š 4. kºþï^
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e) nÍ>VD WçéÝ Ø>Va_ï^ Š 5. ¶¤sB_ ¶¤Qìï^
a b c d e
A) 3 1 4 5 2
B) 3 1 4 2 5
C) 3
D) 1
A)July 9
2
2
4
3
1
4
B)July 10
5
5 Tn
72. Every year the world population day is observed on
C)July 11 D)July 12
céï \Âï^ Ø>Vçï ]ªD ÎËØkVò gõ|D ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ gD åV^ ØïVõ¦V¦©Ã|þÅm?
e/
A) Éçé 09 B) Éçé 10 C) Éçé 11 D) Éçé 12
73. Which of the following statement is correct regarding population census
1.Census records information about the characteristics of population such as age,sex and literacy rate
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2.Different countries of the world conduct census every 5 to 10 years as recommended by the
united nations
3.The first known census was undertaken by the Babylonians in 3800 BC
4.India was the first country in the modern world to conduct a census
//t
5
a) Arakkonam - 1. Metropolitan city A) 4 5 1 2 3
b) Kumbakonam - 2. Conurbation B) 5 4 3 2 1
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c) Madurai - 3. Megacity C) 4 5 1 3 2
d) Chennai - 4. Town D) 4 5 2 3 1
e) Delhi - 5. City
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
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a) ¶«Â¼ïVðD Š 1. Metropolitan city A) 4 5 1 2 3
b) zDüïVðD Š 2. Conurbation B) 5 4 3 2 1
c) \mç« Š 3. Megacity C) 4 5 1 3 2
d) ØÄ[çª
e) ئ_o
Š
Š
4. Town
5. City
D)
Tn 4 5 2
76. Which of the statement is not associated with the Satellite Titan?
A)It is the satellite with clouds and planet like atmosphere
3 1
e/
B)Titan was discovered by Dutch astronomer Christian Huygens in 1655
C)It allows methane to be found in its liquid form
D)Titan has large magnetic field
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.Éçé 4gD ¼>] Š 1. óöB ¶õç\©A^¹ A) 4 3 2 1
b.Ûªkö 3D ¼>] Š 2. óöB Ø>VçéÝ#« A^¹ B) 1 2 3 4
ht
5
human environment
3.The word ‘environment’is derived from Greek word ‘environ’
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4.Environment includes both living and nonliving components
A)1,2,4 B)1,2,3,4 C)1,3,4 D)2,3,4
\M>ÐD ·u®ß ówKD ÄVìÍ> >ïk_ï¹_ ÄöBVªç> ïõ¦¤ï
1. {ì clöªÝç>ß ·u¤Â ïVð©Ã|D Ö¦D, ØÃVò^ \u®D ÖBuçï gþBkuçÅß ·u®ßów_
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¨[þ¼ÅVD.
2. Îò >M \M>ÐÂzD ¶kªm z|DÃD, Ø>Va_ \u®D ÄJïD gþBku¤uzD Ö禼B c^á
Ø>V¦ìçà \M>M[ ·u®ßów_ ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
3. ·u®ßów_ ¨[Å ØÄV_ ¨[s«V[ ¨[Å þ¼«Âï ØÄV_oòÍm ØÃÅ©Ãâ¦m gzD.
A) 1 2 4 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 3 4
2.Assembly
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4. ·u®ßów_ ¨[Ãm clò^á \u®D cl«uÅ í®ïçá c^á¦ÂþB>VzD.
D) 2 3 4
81. Arrange the chronological order of sustainable design
1.Part manufacturing 3.End of life 4.Product use
e/
5.Raw material extraction 6.Material Processing
A)5,1,2,3,4,6 B)6,5,2,1,3,4 C)1,2,3,4,5,6 D)5,6,1,2,4,3
¼ÃðÝ >zÍ> ]â¦t¦o[ ÄöBVª köçÄçB ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
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82. Choose the correct information regarding the EIA legislation in September 2006
1.Industries 2.Mining 3.Thermal power plants
4.Nuclear power projects 5.River valley projects
s:
C) 1 2 3 D) 2 3 4
83. Assertion : In the last few centuries there has been a drastic change in the life style of man
Reason : Agricultural growth, Industrialization ,Urbanization, rapid advancement in science and
technology have caused rapid growth of population over earth
A) Assertion is true Reason is false
B) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
C) Both assertion and reason are false
D) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
5
ïVé Wçé \VuÅÝç> ¼åö¦ ú¼ïuÅ åV|ï^ COP21_ ÃVöL_ ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ åç¦ØÃuÅ ÃVöü
c¦[ÃVâç¦ °uŪ.
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A) 12.12.2015 B) 11.12.2005 C) 12.11.2015 D) 12.12.2005
85. Consider the following statements regarding the Universe
1.The universe is a vast expanse of space
2.Most astronomers believe that the universe came into existence after the big bang explosion that
ps
took place about 15 billion years ago
3.The universe consist of billions of galaxies, stars and planets
A)1,2,3 is false B)1,2,3 is true C)1,2 is true 3 is false D)1,3 is true 2 is false
¼Ã«õ¦D Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1. ¼Ã«õ¦D ¨[Ãm tï© Ã«Í> sõØk¹ gzD.
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2. ·\Vì 15 ¸_oB[ gõ|ïÓÂz x[A °uÃ⦠Øî Øk½©¸[ ¼ÃVm ¼Ã«õ¦D còkVª>Vï
Ãé kVMB_ ¶¤Qìï^ åDAþ[Ūì.
3. ¼Ã«õ¦\Vªm ¼V½ÂïðÂïVª sõ*[ ]«^ \õ¦éºï^, sõ*[ï^, ¼ïV^ï^ gþBkuçÅ
e/
c^á¦Âþ¥^ám.
A) 1 2 3 >k® B) 1 2 3 Äö C) 1 2 Äö 3 >k® D) 1 3 Äö 2 >k®
86. The distance travelled by a light in a year at a velocity of ____________per second and speed of
.m
ÃBèÂzD
A) 3,00,000 *, 330 þ.* B) 3,00,000 þ.*, 330 þ.*
C) 3,00,000 þ.*, 330 * D) 330 þ.*, 3,00,000 þ.*
s:
87. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the shape and inclination of the earth?
1.The earth is spherical in shape and rotates on its axis.
2.An imaginary line that runs from south pole to north pole passing through centre of the earth is
tp
called axis
°
3.The earth axis always inclined at an angle of 23 that revolved around the sun
ht
5
3.Ensure healthy lives and promote well being for all at all ages
4.Ensure inclusive and quality education for all and promote lifelong learning
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A)1,2,3 is true 4 is false B)1,2 is true 3,4 is false
C)1,2,3,4 is true D)1,2,4 is true 3 is false
¼ÃðÝ>zÍ> ¼\DÃV| ÖéÂzï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª >ïk_ïçá g«VFï
1. ¨_éV Ö¦ºï¹KD c^á kçïBVª k®ç\çB¥D ÎaÝ>_.
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2. ÃEçB Îa©Ãm, cð¡ ÃVmïV©A \u®D ¼\DÃ⦠»â¦ßÄÝç> Øîkm \u®D WçéBVª
skÄVBÝç> ¼\DÃ|Ýmkm.
3. g¼«VÂþB\Vª kVµçk c®] ØÄF>_ \u®D ¨_éV kB]KD ¶kìï¹[ åéçª ¼\DÃ|Ým>_
4. ¨_éVD c^á¦ÂþB >«\Vª ï_sçB ¨_¼éVòÂzD ¶¹©Ãç> c®]©Ã|Ý>_ \u®D kVµåV^
x¿kmD ï_sçB »ÂzsÝ>_.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k®
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
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B) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k®
D) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
90. Which of the following is not a dwarf planets?
e/
A) Ceres B)Makemake C)Haumea D)Miranda
z^á¼ïV^ Ø>V¦ìÃVªku¤_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) ØÄ«ü B) ¼\¼\ C) ØÇátBV D) t«õ¦V
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d) ØÄÍWżïV^ Š 4. sBVw[ D) 4 2 1 3
92. Terrestrial planets are
A)Mercury,Venus, Earth, Jupiter B)Mercury,Venus, Mars,Jupiter
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5
A)1,3,4 B)1,2,4 C)2,3,4 D)1,2,3,4
Wéå|ÂïD Ø>V¦ìÃVª kVÂþBºï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
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1.Asl[ ¼\¼éVâ½[ Îò Ãz]l_ °uÃ|D ¨]ìÃV«V> åïìkVªm, WéÝç> ¶]«çkÂzD,
¶çÄçkç¥D å|ÂïÝç>¥D °uÃ|Ýmk¼> Wéå|ÂïD ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
2.¨Í>ØkVò Ö¦Ý]_ Wéå|ÂïÝç> °uÃ|Ýmþ[Ū¼kV ¶>çª Wéå|Âï ç\BD ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
ç\BÝ]uz ¼\_ c^á As¼BVâ| Ãz]l_ ¶ç\Í]òÂzD A^¹çB Wéå|Âï ¼\_
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ç\B©A^¹ ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
3.Wéå|Âï ç\BÝ]oòÍm ¶]ì¡ï^ Ã_¼k® ]çÄïÓÂz ÃBèÂþ[Ū. As ¶]ì¡ ¶çéïçá
Ã]¡ ØÄF¥D ïòsçB Wé ¶]ì¡\VM ¨ª z¤©¸|þ[Ūì.
4.Ö>[ guÅ_ ØĤs[ ¶ásçª öÂ¦ì ¨[Ãkì ïõ|¸½Ý> ¶áçkçB ØïVõ|
ïðÂþ|þ[Ūì. Ö>[ ¶á¡ 0 Ø>V¦ºþ 9 kç« À½Âþ[Åm.
A) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 4 Tn
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
95. Consider the following pair regarding the planets in the solar system
e/
1.Largest Planet - Jupiter
2.Smallest Planet - Mercury
3.Very largest satellite - Ganymede
.m
C)Crust,Uppermantle,Mantle,Outercore,Inner core
D)Crust.,Outercore,Innercore,Mantle,Upper mantle
ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï. (Asl[ c^áç\©A)
A) ¼\¼éV|, Øk¹ïkÄD, ïkÄD, câïò, Øk¹Âïò
B) ¼\¼éV|, ïkÄD, Øk¹ïkÄD, Øk¹Âïò, câïò
C) ¼\¼éV|, Øk¹ïkÄD, ïkÄD, Øk¹Âïò, câïò
D) ¼\¼éV|, Øk¹Âïò, câïò, ïkÄD, Øk¹ïkÄD
5
3.¶]ï mçð¼ïV^ïçá ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š sBVw[
4.zçÅkVª mçð ¼ïV^ ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š ØÄËkVF
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 4 \â|D D) 2, 3
98. Which of the information is not associated with planet Venus?
A) Hottest Planet B)Evening star
C)Morning star D)Densest Planet
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Øk^¹ ¼ïV^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª >ïk_ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) Øk©Ã\Vª ¼ïV^ B) ¶Í] Øk^¹
C) ïVçé åâÄÝ]«D D) ¶¦ìÝ]BVª ¼ïV^
99. The planets in the solar system revolve in their respective orbits because of the
A)Gravitational force
C) Gravitational pull of the planet
A) AsXì©A sçÄ
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B) óöBM[ ~ì©A sçÄ
B)Gravitational pull of the sun
D)All of these
¼ïV^ï^ ¶çªÝmD >Ý>\m ÃVç>çB sâ| séïV\_ óöBçª ·u¤ kòk>uz ïV«ðD ¨[ª?
e/
C) ¼ïV^ï¹[ ~ì©A sçÄ D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
100. Consider the following statements regarding the Watershed management in India
1.Watershed development project in the country has been sponsored and implemented by
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for rain fed areas were launched various subsequently in various hydro ecological problems.
A)1,2,3 is true B)1,2 is true 3 is false
C)1,2,3 is false D)1,3 is true 2 is false
s:
2. 1970 \u®D ¶>uz x[ÃVª k½Wé ¼\DÃVâ| ]⦺ï^ ¶çªÝmD \õkáD ¼Ãè ÃVmïVÝ>_
\u®D \çwÀì ¼Ät©AÝ]⦺ïçá¼B ¼åVÂï\Vï ØïVõ| ØÄB_Ãâ¦m.
3. ÃVçé Wé ¼\DÃVâ| ]â¦D, gu® Ã^á>VÂz ]â¦D, \u®D \çwØîD WéºïÓÂïVª ¼>EB
ht
5
íu® 2: ¨âs[ Ç©¸^ ¨[Ãkì ¼Ã«õ¦D sökç¦Ím ØïVõ½ò©Ã>uïVª g>V«ºïçá
x[çkÝ>Vì.
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íu® 3: ¼Ã«õ¦Ý][ ¼>VuÅD Ãu¤B tï xÂþB\Vª ¼ïVâÃVâç¦ ØÃò Øk½©A ¼ïVâÃV|
¨[þ¼ÅVD. Öm sök禥D ¼Ã«õ¦D ïòm¼ïV^ ¨[®D ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® C) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k® D) 1, 2, 3 >k®
103. Assertion : Population growth refers to an increase in the number of people who reside in a
ps
particular area during a particular period
Reason : Due to famine,landslides,earthquakes,Tsunami the population growth is reduced.
A)Both assertion and reason are true
B)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C)Assertion is false reason is true
D)Reason is false assertion is true
Tn
íu® Š Îò z¤©¸â¦ ïVéÝ]_ Îò z¤©¸â¦ Ö¦Ý]_ kV¿D \Âï¹[ ¨õèÂçï ¶]ïö©çüB
\Âï^ Ø>Vçï káìßE ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
e/
ïV«ðD Š ÃÞÄD, WéßÄö¡, As ¶]ìßE, ga©¼Ã«çé ¼ÃV[Å ïV«èïáV_ \Âï^ Ø>Vçï káìßE
zçÅ¥D.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
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5
1.céþ_ °¿ ïõ¦ºï^ c^áª. ¶çk gEBV, g©¸öÂïV, k¦ ¶Ø\öÂïV, Ø>[ ¶Ø\öÂïV,
¶õ¦Vì½ïV, n¼«V©ÃV \u®D gü]¼«oBV
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2.céþ[ tï©ØÃöB ïõ¦D gü]¼«oBV gzD. tïßE¤B ïõ¦D n¼«V©ÃV gzD.
3.Asl_ nÍm ØÃòºï¦_ï^ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū. ¶çk ÃE¸Â ØÃòºï¦_, ¶âéVõ½Â ØÃòºï¦_,
ÖÍ]B© ØÃòºï¦_, Ø>[ ØÃòºï¦_ \u®D gì½Â ØÃòºï¦_ gzD.
4.Öku®^ céþ[ tï©ØÃöB ï¦_ ÃE¸Â gzD. tïßE¤B ï¦_ Ø>[ ØÃòºï¦_ gzD.
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A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® B) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
C) 1, 3 Äö 2, 4 >k® D) 1, 3 >k® 2, 4 Äö
107. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Mountains
A)The Himalayas - Asia
B)The Rocky mountains -
C)The Alps mountains -
D)The Andes mountains -
North America
Europe
Africa
\çéÝØ>V¦ìï^ ÄVìÍ> >ïk_ï¹_ >kÅVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
Tn
e/
A) Ö\B\çéÝ Ø>V¦ì Š gEBV B) «VÂþ \çéÝØ>V¦ì Š k¦ ¶Ø\öÂïV
C) g_Ãü \çéÝØ>V¦ì Š n¼«V©ÃV D) gõ½ü \çéÝØ>V¦ì Š g©¸öÂïV
108. Assertion : Plateaus are the elevated portion of the earth that have flat surfaces.
.m
Reason :They have steep slopes and the elevation of plateaus may be few hundred metre or several
thousand metre
A)Assertion is true reason is false B)Both assertion and reason are true
C)Assertion is false reason is true D)Both assertion and reason are false
//t
110. Choose the correct information regarding the planets in the solar system
1.Fastest Revolution period planet - Mercury
2.Slowest Revolution period planet - Neptune
3.Fastest Rotation period planet - Jupiter
4.Slowest Rotation period planet - Venus
A)1,2 B)1,2,3 C)1,2,3,4 D)2,3,4
óöB z|DÃÝ]_ c^á ¼ïV^ï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª >ïk_ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.¼kï\Vª ·u®ÂïVéD ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š A>[
5
2.Ø\mkVª ·u®ÂïVéD ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š Ø婽R[
3.¼kï\Vª >u·wuE ïVéD ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š sBVw[
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4.Ø\mkVª >u·wuE ïVéD ØïVõ¦ ¼ïV^ Š Øk^¹
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 2, 3, 4
ps
111. The main concention of the classical economic theory is
A)Under employment B) Economy is always in the state of equilibrium
C)Demand creates its supply
Ø>V[ç\© ØÃVò¹B_ ¼ïVâÃVâ½[ ¸«>Vª ÖB_A
A) zçÅÍ> ¶á¡ ¼kçékVF©A
B) ØÃVòáV>V«D ¨©¼ÃVmD Ä\ Wçél_ ÖòÂzD.
Tn D)Imperfect competition
e/
C) ¼>çk ¶>[ ¶ç\©çà còkVÂzþÅm.
D) WçÅ zçÅ ¼ÃVâ½
112. Which theory is a turning point in the development of modern economic theory?
.m
equilibrium
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)3 only true D)All are true
ÿwÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
tp
5
D) \Ý]B íâ|Å¡ kºþ, \VWé íâ|Å¡ kºþ, åÃVì|, Ø>V¦Âï ¼káVõç\ íâ|Å¡ ĺïD.
116. Assertion : International trade refers to the trade or exchange of goods and services between two or
c8
more countries
Reason : It is a trade among different countries or trade across political boundaries
A)Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B)Assertion is true reason is false
ps
C)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
D)Both assertion and reason are false
íu® : ØÃVòâï^ \u®D Ãèïçá Öò ¶_ém ¶>uz ¼\uÃ⦠åV|ï^ Ãö\V¤Â ØïV^kç>
Ã[ªVâ| kVèïD ¨ªéVD.
119. In India which sector faces the seasonal unemployment and Indirect employment?
A)Agriculture B)Industry C)Services D)Commercial
ÖÍ]BVs_ ÃòkïVé ¼kçél[ç\¥D, \çÅxï ¼kçél[ç\¥D ïVð©Ã|D mçÅ?
ht
5
A) 1 \u®D 2 B) 2 \u®D 3 C) 1 \u®D 3 D) 1, 2 \u®D 3
122. The function of the Central bank
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1.Monetary authority 2.The issuer of currency
3.The issuer of Banking license 4.Banker to the government
A)1,2,3,4 B)1,2 only C)2,4 only D)1,2,4 only
ç\B kºþl[ Ãèï^ BVçk?
ps
1. Ãð ¶]ïV« ¶ç\©A 2. ïVþ> Ãð Øk¹X| 3. kºþ cö\ºï^ kwºz>_.
4. ¶«·ïÓÂïVª kºþ.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2 \â|D C) 2, 4 \â|D D) 1, 2, 4 \â|D
123. Assertion : Industries get finance as long term from the reputed organization
5
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
1. Îò åVâ½[ Îò z¤©¸â¦ gõ½_ Ãõ¦ºï¹[ °u®\] \u®D ÖÅÂz\] \]©A kVèÃÂ
c8
ØïV|©Ã_ Wçé.
2. kVèàØïV|©Ã_ Wçé ¶¤Âçïl_ Ãõ¦ºï¹[ °u®\] sk«ºï^ \â|¼\
Ø>VzÂï©Ã|þ[Ū.
3. Îò åVâ½[ Îò z¤©¸â¦ ¼å«Ý]_ Ãõ¦ °u®\]l[ Ø\VÝ> \]©A ÖÅÂz\]l[ Ø\VÝ>
ps
\]©çà s¦ ¶]ï\Vï, ÖòÍ>V_ ¶m ÄV>ï\Vª kVèàØïV|©Ã_ Wçé.
4. Îò åVâ½[ Îò z¤©¸â¦, ¼å«Ý]_ Ãõ¦ °u®\]l[ Ø\VÝ> \]©A Ãõ¦ ÖÅÂz\]l[
Ø\VÝ> \]©çà s¦ zçÅkVï ÖòÍ>V_ ÃV>ï\Vª kVèàØïV|©Ã_ Wçé.
A) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö B) íu® 2, 3, 4 Äö C) íu® 2, 4 Äö D) íu® 1, 3 Äö
129. Exchange rates are determined in
A) Money market
C)Stock market
Ãð \Vu® T>D WìðB\VzD ÄÍç>
Tn B)Foreign exchange market
D)Capital market
e/
A) Ãð ÄÍç> B) ¶ÍWB ØÄékVè C) úz ÄÍç> D) Jé>ª ÄÍç>
130. Choose the correct one
1. Regional bank is called as Gramin Bank
.m
2. One of the important points of the 20 points programme of Mrs.Indira Gandhi during emergency
was the liquidation of rural indebtedness by stages and provide institutional credit to farmers and
artisans in rural areas
3. Regional rural banks were formed in the year 1970
//t
4. The share of capital RRB is the central government (60%),Stat government (15%) and
sponsoring commercial bank (25%)
A)1,2,4 is true B)1,3,4 is true C)1,2 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
s:
ÄöBVªç> ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. kâ¦V« kºþï^ þ«Vt[ kºþï^ ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þ[Ū.
2. ÖÍ]«V ïVÍ] ¶kìï¹[ 20 ¶DÄ ØÃVòáV>V« ]â¦Ý][ Îò xÂþB ¶DÄD þ«V\©Aźï¹_ k
tp
5
ÎuçÅ ïV«è kVèà T>D Š 4. ¨©. ¦¸_R >VEÂ
a b c d
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A) 3 2 4 1
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 1 4 3 2
ps
133. Net barter terms of trade
A) × 100 B) × 100
C) × 100 D) × 100
kVèà T>D ------------
A)
°u®\] z¤X|
ÖÅÂz\] z¤X|
ÖÅÂz\]
× 100
Tn B)
°u®\] sçéÂz¤X|
ÖÅÂz\] sçéÂz¤X|
ÖÅÂz\] z¤X|
× 100
C) × 100 D) × 100
e/
°u®\] °u®\] z¤X|
134. Keynes theory pursues to replace laissez faire by
A) No government intervention B)Maximum intervention
.m
135. Pick out the incorrect statements regarding the functions of commercial banks
1.Commercial banks are institutions that conduct business with profit motive by accepting public
deposits
s:
2.Commercial banks helps in providing foreign exchange to businessman dealing in exports and
imports
3.Commercial bank pays lower interest on time deposits
tp
5
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®. ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö
C) íu®. ïV«ðD Ö«ð|D >k® D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
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137. Which of the following is correct regarding the objectives of monetary policy?
1.Neutrality of money 2.Economic growth
3.Full employment 4.Price stability
A)1,2,3,4 is true B)1,2,3 is true C)2,3 is true D)1,3 is true
ps
¸[kòkªku¤_ ÃðsB_ ØïV^çïl[ z¤Â¼ïV^ï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1. ÃðÝ][ å|WçéÝ>[ç\ 2. ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE
3. x¿ ¼kçékVF©A 4. sçéçB Wçé©Ã|Ý>_
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 3 Äö
1.In India each bank note has its amount written in 17 languages illustrating the diversity of the
country.
2.English and Hindi language on the front and 15 other languages on the back side of the currency
ht
5
A) °u®\] × ÖÅÂz\] B) °u®\] + ÖÅÂz\]
C) °u®\] Š ÖÅÂz\] D) Ãèï^ °u®\]
c8
143. Pick out the incorrect one
1.The basic concept used in Keynes theory of employment and income is effective demand
2.Keyne’s theory is a turning point in the development of modern economic theory
3.Supply flexibility brings equality between saving and investment
ps
A)2,3 is false B)1,3 is false
C)3 only false D)2 only false
>kÅVªç> ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1. ¼kçékVF©A \u®D kòkVF Ãu¤B ÖÞE[ ¼ïVâÃVâ½[ ¶½©Ãç¦ ïòÝm sçá¡ ¼>çk.
Tn
2. åTª ØÃVòáV>V« ¼ïVâÃVâ½[ káìßEl_ þºü ¼ïVâÃV| Îò ]ò©A xçª.
3. ¼Ät©AÂzD, x>Üâ|ÂzD Ö禼B Ä\WçéçB ØïVõ| kòkm ¶¹©¸[ Wﵡ.
A) 2, 3 >k® B) 1, 3 >k®
C) 3 \â|D >k® D) 2 \â|D >k®
e/
144. Choose the correct statement
1.The Ricks Banks of Sweden which had sprung from a private bank established in 1656 is the
oldest central bank in the world.
.m
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
145. Agricultural Refinance Development Corporation started in
A) June 3,1963 B)July3,1963 C)June 1,1963 D)July 1,1963
ht
5
149. Net trade denotes
A)ratio of export and imports B)Export way rate
c8
C)ratio between the prices of exports and imports D)Both a and c
kVèà T>D ----------------- Ãu¤ z¤©¸|þ[Åm.
A) ØÃVò^ °u®\] ÖÅÂz\] sþ>D B) ÖÅÂz\] ka sþ>D
C) °u®\] sçé ÖÅÂz\] sçé sþ>D D) A & C
ps
150. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the Bank rate policy?
1.It is called as discount rate policy
2.During deflation ,bank discount rate is reduced
¶á¡ zçÅÂï©Ã|þÅm.
4. ï¦[ Ã𠶹©A ¶]ïöÝm ÃðkVâ¦D Äö ØÄFB©Ã|D.
A) ¶çªÝmD Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) 1, 3, 4 Äö
//t
s:
tp
ht
WHERE TO STUDY
ÖçÄ Š 9:
14.10.2021 (sBVw[):
5
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
1. ¶«EBéç\©A : 12-gD kz©A (Ø>Vz] 1) ÃV¦DŠ5, 6, 7
c8
1. ÃV¦D 5 Š ÖÍ]BVs[ íâ¦VâE
2. ÃV¦D 6 Š ÖÍ]BVs[ WìkVï ¶ç\©A
ps
3. ÃV¦D 7 Š ¼>Ä ïâ¦ç\©¸[ ÄkV_ï^
2. ØÃVòáV>V«D : 12ŠD kz©A ÃV¦D Š 8, 9, 11
1. ÃV¦D 8 Š Ã[ªVâ| ØÃVòáV>V« ¶ç\©Aï^
2.
3.
ÃV¦D 9 Š W] ØÃVò¹B_
Tn
ÃV¦D 11 Š ØÃVòáV>V« ¼\DÃV| (\) ]â¦t¦_
3. AslB_ : >tµåV| ÖBuçï ¸ö¡ï^ \VЦ AslB_
e/
1. >tµåV| ÖBuçï ¸ö¡ï^ 10-gD kz©A
2. >tµåV| Š \VЦ© AslB_ 10-gD kz©A
.m
//t
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 B 42 A 43 D 44 A 45 D 46 A 47 C 48 D 49 B 50 B
51 D 52 D 53 A 54 B 55 D 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 A 60 A
c8
61 C 62 A 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 D 67 A 68 C 69 C 70 D
71 B 72 C 73 D 74 B 75 C 76 D 77 C 78 C 79 D 80 A
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 C 90 D
91 A 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 D 99 B 100 A
ps
101 C 102 A 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 B 109 B 110 C
111 B 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 C 116 A 117 D 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 D 122 A 123 C 124 A 125 A 126 D 127 A 128 A 129 B 130 C
131 B 132 B 133 B 134 C 135 D 136 B 137 A 138 B 139 A 140 C
141 A 142 C 143 C 144 D 145
Tn
D 146 A 147 A 148 A 149 C 150 A
e/
GR–II TAF MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – ISAI - 8 ANS KEY – 11.10.2021
.m
1 B 2 B 3 B 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 D 8 A 9 A 10 D
11 A 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 A 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 D 20 D
21 A 22 A 23 A 24 C 25 A 26 B 27 B 28 B 29 C 30 B
31 B 32 D 33 C 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 D 40 C
//t
41 B 42 A 43 D 44 A 45 D 46 A 47 C 48 D 49 B 50 B
51 D 52 D 53 A 54 B 55 D 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 A 60 A
61 C 62 A 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 D 67 A 68 C 69 C 70 D
s:
71 B 72 C 73 D 74 B 75 C 76 D 77 C 78 C 79 D 80 A
81 D 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 C 90 D
tp
91 A 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 B 96 C 97 C 98 D 99 B 100 A
101 C 102 A 103 B 104 C 105 B 106 C 107 D 108 B 109 B 110 C
111 B 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 C 116 A 117 D 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 D 122 A 123 C 124 A 125 A 126 D 127 A 128 A 129 B 130 C
ht
131 B 132 B 133 B 134 C 135 D 136 B 137 A 138 B 139 A 140 C
141 A 142 C 143 C 144 D 145 D 146 A 147 A 148 A 149 C 150 A
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ÄV>çªBVáìï¹[ ¸Å©¸¦D, >twïD x¿kmD 41
4 þçáï^.
ps
TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 2
¼>ì¡ ¨õ
õ = ÖçÄ Š 9 / åV^ Š 14.10.2021
.2021
//t
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 9) TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
India service?
A) Sarkaria committee B) Rajamannar committee
C) Punchi committee D) Venkatachellaiya committee
>tµåV| ¶«ÄVºïD ¶ç\Ý> ¨Í> z¿ ¶çªÝ]Í]B Ãèïçá ¶ïuÅ ¼kõ|D ¨ª
ÃöÍmç«Ý>m?
A) ÄìÂïVöBV z¿ B) Ö«VÛ\[ªVì z¿
C) A[ß z¿ D) Økºï¦VÄéBV z¿
5
íâ¦VâE xçÅ ¨[® íÅéVD
¼\uz¤©¸â¦ íu®ï¹_ íâ¦VâE Ãu¤B ÄöBVª íuçÅ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
c8
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö
C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
5. Assertion A : United States emerged as the first federal state in the history of the world.
Reason R : European Union another example of federal state on a voluntary basis
ps
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
Tn
íu® : céï k«éVu¤_ x>_ íâ¦VâE ¶«Äç\©ÃVï ¶Ø\öÂïV ¼>V[¤Bm.
ïV«ðD : n¼«V©¸B RMB[ sò©ÃÝ][ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¶ç\Í> íâ¦VâE xçÅ gzD.
A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂzþÅm
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íuçÅ sáÂïs_çé
T
A
e/
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
F
6. Choose the incorrect statement about the Indian federal system.
.m
A) Indian National Movement recognized India’s diversity and did not support federalism
B) Nehru's statement emphasized federalism
C) Federalism provided in the sixth part of the constitution
D) The seventh schedule of the constitution contains three lists and provides distribution of ‘
//t
g>öÂïs_çé
B) ¼åò ¶¤Âçï íâ¦VâE ¶ç\©çà ko¥®Ý]Bm
C) ¶«Äç\©¸[ gÅVkm Ãz]l_ íâ¦VâE xçÅçB kwºþBm
tp
5
ïVéºï¹_ Ã_¼k® ¶ç\ßÄìïçá ÎòºþçðÝm å¦k½Âçï ¼\uØïV^km BVòç¦B
ÃèBVzD?
c8
A) ¶ç\ßÄ«çk ØÄBéï Ãèï^ B) z½B«· >çékì
C) mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì D) A \u®D B
11. Find the correct statement about the Prime Minister's Office.
1. The Prime Minister's Office is functioning under the Principal Secretary.
ps
2. The Prime Minister's Office is known as the Prime Minister's Secretariat till 1977.
3. It was changed as PMO during Indira Gandhi’s time.
4. The PMO includes anti-corruption unit and public grievance unit.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 2, 3, 4 correct C) 1, 2, 4 correct D) All correct
¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD Ãu¤B ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD x>[ç\ ØÄBéì ÿµ ØÄB_Ã|þÅm.
Tn
2.1977 kç« ¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD ¸«>\ì ØÄBéïD ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
3.ÖÍ]«V ïVÍ] ïVéÝ]_ ¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD ¨ª \VuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
e/
4.¸«>\ì ¶KkéïD »w_ ¨]ì©A ¸ö¡ (\) ØÃVm\Âï^ zçżïâ¦_ ¸ö¡ gþBkuçÅ
c^á¦ÂþBm.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
.m
3. Union Government cannot easily change the territory and name of the States in India.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.¶Ø\öÂïVs_ \VWéºï¹[ ØÃBì (\) kVµ¡öç\ï^ ÃVmïVÂï©Ãâ|^áª.
2.¶Ø\öÂïVs_ \Ý]B ¶«çÄ \VWéºï^ ¶aÂï x½BVm.
3.ÖÍ]BVs_ \VWéºï¹[ Wé©Ã«©çÃ¥D ØÃBç«¥D \Ý]B ¶«VĺïD ¨¹]_ \VuÅ
ÖBéVm.
A) íu® 1, 2 Äö B) íu® 1 \â|D Äö C) íu® 2 \â|D Äö D) íu® 1, 2 >k®
5
3.E¤B \VWéºï^ ØÃöB \VWéºï^ ¨[Å ¼k®ÃV| ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
c8
16. How many seats are there for Tamil Nadu in Rajya Sabha?
A) 19 B) 18 C) 20 D) 16
>tµåVâ½uØïª ¨Ý>çª Ö¦ºï^ \VWéºïáçkl_ c^áª?
A) 19 B) 18 C) 20 D) 16
ps
17. Which article of the constitution enables the Rajya Sabha to transfer the power from the state list to
the central list?
A) 249 B) 239 C) 229 D) 349
¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨Í> c®©¸[ý Îò ¶]ïV«Ýç> \VWé Ãâ½BooòÍm \Ý]B
Ãâ½BKÂz \VWéºïáçkl_ \VuÅ x½¥D?
A) 249 B) 239 C) 229
Tn
D) 349
18. Assertion A : According to article 356, the President may remove the state government and impose
emergency in the state
e/
Reason R : Whenever the emergencies are in operation in the state, without suspending the federal
Frame work of the constitution, the unitary system followed.
A) A & R correct B) A correct R incorrect
T
.m
19. Statement 1: The federal system followed in the Judiciary of United States.
Statement 2: There is no federalism in the judiciary in India.
Choose the correct statement
tp
5
¼>ì>çé å¦ÝmþÅm
D) ¼>EB ¼>ì>_ gçðBD åV¦VÓ\[ÅD (\) \VWé Äâ¦\[Å ¼>ì>çé¥D å¦Ýmþ[Åm
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22. “Though the country and the people may be divided into different states for convenience of
administration ,the country is one integral whole, its people a single people living under a single
imperium derived from a single source.” said by
A) Nehru B) Gandhi C) Ambedkar D) M.N. Roy
ps
WìkVï kÄ]ÂïVï å\m åV|D \ÂïÓD Ã_¼k® \VWéºïáVï ¸öÂï©Ãâ½òÍ>VKD å\m
åV| ÎòºþçðÍ> Îu®ç\BVª åV¦VzD. μ« g>V«Ý]oòÍm gâEl[ ÿµ ¶çªÝm
\ÂïÓD Î[ÅVï Îu®ç\BVï kE©ÃVìï^ ¨ª í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ¼åò B) ïVÍ] C) ¶D¼ÃÝïì D) M.N.«VF
Tn
23. Statement 1: “Indian federalism is a system of Government which is quasi-federal. a Unitary State
with subsidiary federal features” by Prof. Wheare.
Statement 2: Prof Alexandrowicz described that meaning Indian federalism is unique one.
Choose the correct statement :
e/
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: ÖÍ]BV Îò ÃV]Bá¡ íâ¦VâE xçÅBVª ¶«ÄVºïD c^á åV¦VzD. ÖÍ]BV Îò
kKs_éV íâ¦VâE >[ç\ï^ c^á ÎuçÅBVâE åV¦VzD ¨ª í¤Bkì
.m
Š ¼Ã«VEöBì ¼kì
íu® 2: ÖÍ]BVs[ íâ¦VâEçB >MÝmk\Vªm (óF ØÛ[öü) ¨ª í¤Bkì
Š ¶ØéÂvVõâ«VsÂü
ÄöBVª íuçÅÝ ¼>ìï.
//t
5
2.Tax allocated to State Government - Sales Tax
3.Taxes are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states - Stamp Duty
c8
4. Taxes are levied and collected by the union government but the proceeds are assigned to the
states - Tax on advertisements in newspapers
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 2, 3, 4 correct C) 1, 2, 4 correct D) All correct
kö kò\Vª Ãþì¡ Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅÝ ¼>ìï.
ps
1.\Ý]B ¶«ÄVïºïÝ]uz ÎmÂï©Ã|D kö Š ·ºïkö
2.\VWé ¶«ÄVºïÝ]uz ÎmÂï©Ã|D kö Š suÃçª kö
3.\Ý]B ¶«ÄVºïD kö s]Ým \VWé ¶«ÄVºïD kóo©A Š xÝ]ç«kö
4.\Ý]B ¶«ÄVºïD kös]Ým kóoÝm ¶Í> kò\VªD \VWéºïÓÂz kwºï©Ã|km
Š ØÄF]Ý>V^ï¹_ kòD sáDëºï^ *>Vª kö
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö
Tn
C) 1, 2, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
28. Finance Committee shall consist of chairman &four members and the qualification of the 4th
member is
e/
A) High Court Judge B) Judge of the Supreme Court
C) Retired Chief Justice of the High Court D) Retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
W]Âz¿s_ Îò >çékì åV[z c®©¸ªìï^ Ö¦DØîkì. ¶]_ 4km c®©¸ªö[ >z] ¨ËkV®
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ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D?
A) cBìÀ]\[Å À]Ã]
B) cßÄÀ]\[Å À]Ã]
C) cBìÀ]\[Å {F¡ØÃuÅ >çéç\ À]Ã]
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C) «VÛ\[ªVì z¿ D) Økºï¦VÄéBV z¿
30. Assertion A : Dr. Ambedkar called this Article 356 as a dead letter to the Constitution
Reason R : He bitterly accepted as it neglects the federal characters of the Indian Political System
ht
5
33. Match. a b c d
a.Sarkaria committee - 1. Government of Tamil Nadu A) 1 2 4 3
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b.Rajamannar committee - 2. Akali Dal B) 3 2 1 4
c.Anandpur Sahib Resolution - 3. Supreme Court C) 4 1 2 3
d.Bommai judgment - 4. Central Government D) 2 4 1 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
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a.ÄìÂïVöBV z¿ Š 1. >tµåV| ¶«ÄVºïD A) 1 2 4 3
b.«VÛ\[ªVì z¿ Š 2. ¶ïV¹>áD B) 3 2 1 4
c.gªÍÝAìÄVN yì\VªD Š 3. cßÄÀ]\[ÅD C) 4 1 2 3
d.ØÃVDç\ yì©A Š 4.
34. Choose the incorrect option about State list
A) Important to the local & state government
B) Only State Government can make laws only
Tn
\Ý]B ¶«ÄVºïD D) 2 4 1 3
36. The salary and the pension of Civil Service officers are paid by the
A) Central Government B) State Government
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5
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 3 \â|D Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
39. Choose the incorrect Statements about All India Service.
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A) Commonly created for the Central and State Governments
B) Indian Administrative Service originated from Indian Civil Service
C) Indian Police Service was created after independence
D) Indian Forest Service was created after independence
ps
¶çªÝ]Í]B Ãèï^ Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) \Ý]B \VWé ¶«·Âz ØÃVmkVï còkVÂï©Ã¦ ¼kõ|D T
B) ÖÍ]B gâE©Ãè Š ÖÍ]B z½ç\ ÃèloòÍm ¼>V[¤Bm
C) ÖÍ]B ïVk_ Ãè ·>Í]« ïVéïâ¦Ý]uz ¸[A ¼>V[¤Bm A
D) ÖÍ]B kª©Ãè s|>çéÂz ¸[ªì còkVÂï©Ãâ¦m Tn
40. Choose the correct statement about Union Public Service Commission.
1. It was formed by the Indian constitutional reforms on March 5, 1919
F
2. Section 96(C) of the Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment in India of a
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Public Service Commission
3. The Lee Commission created for this purpose submitted its report in 1924.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 only C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
41. Which article mentions about the mandate of the Union Public Service Commission ?
A) 315, 320 B) 320, 321 C) 321, 322 D) 320, 322
s:
1. Establishment of Public Service Commission for the first time in India on 01.10.1926.
2.Public Service Commission became the Federal Public Service Commission on 01.04.1937
3.With the inauguration of the Constitution of India in January 26, 1950,the Federal Public Service
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5
D) 4 2 1 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
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a.Î[¤B, \VWé ¶«· ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðBºï^ Š 1. 320
b.¼>ìkVçðBD Ãèï^ Š 2. 315
c.¼>ìkVçðBD ØÄésªºï^ Š 3. 322
d.¼>ìkVçðB ¶¤Âçïï^ Š 4. 323
ps
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 1 4 2 3
C) 3
D) 4
2
2
1
1
4
3 Tn
44. Statement 1: Term of office of the Chairman &members of the State Public Service Commission is
6 years or 62 years
Statement 2: Age Limit of Union Public Service Commission is 65
e/
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
íu® 1: \VWé ¶«· ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðBÝ >çékì (\) c®©¸ª« Ã>sÂïVéD
6 gõ|ï^ (¶) 62 kBm
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1. The service conditions of the Members of the State Public Service Commission are decided by
the Governor.
2. The salaries, allowances and pension of the Chairman or members of the State Public Service
s:
x½¡ ØÄFB©Ã|þ[Ū.
2.\VWé ¶«·© ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðB >çékì (\) c®©¸ªìï¹[ »]BD, ÄKçïï^,
{FÆ]BD ¨ª ¶çªÝmD ¶«E[ Ø>Vz©A W]loòÍm kwºï©Ã|D.
3.\VWé ¶«· ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðBÝ][ >çékì (\) c®©¸ªìï^ ¼>ìkVçðBÝ][
ÎòxçÅ Ã>s kþÝ>¸[ *õ|D ¶¼> Ã>sl_ \®WB\ªD ØÄFB©Ã¦ x½BVm.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö
C) 1, 3 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
5
\Vu¤ÂØïV^á©Ãâ¦m.
A) íu® 1 \â|D >k® B) íu® 2 \â|D >k®
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C) íu® 1, 2 >k® D) ¨m¡t_çé
47. Who said that India should invest more in its social infrastructure to boost the productivity of its
people and thereby raise growth?
A) Amartya Sen B) Jagadish Bhagwati
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C) Avinesh Dixit D) Ambedkar
\Âï¹[ cuÃÝ] ]ÅÐD káìßE¥D ¶]ïöÂï ¼kõ|\VªV_ ÖÍ]BV >ªm ÄJï
ïâ¦ç\©¸_ ¶]ï x>Ü| ØÄFB ¼kõ|D ¨ª ko¥®Ý]Bkì BVì?
A) ¶\ìÝ]BV ØÄ[ B) ØÛïyi Ãïk]
C) ¶s¼ªi yâEÝ D) ¶D¼ÃÝïì
B) Butter C) Tea
Tn
48. Which is not among the items with GST tax slab of 5%?
A) Fish fertilizers
GST kö ¶á¡ 5% c^á ØÃVòâï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
D) Milk powder
T
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A) *[ c«ºï^ B) ØkõØðF C) ¼>lçé D) ÃV_ á¦ì A
49. Goods not covered in GST
1.Cooking gas 2.Petrol 3.Diesel F
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5
53. Who is not among the rulers of princely state who received 21-gun salute ?
A) Maharaja of Jammu and Kashmir B) Maharaja of Mysore
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C) Maharaja of Patna D) Maharaja of Baroda
21 zõ|ïçá xwºzD cöç\ ØÃu® ÖòÍ> ·¼>Ä ¶«·ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ÛDx Š ïVi*ì \ïV«VÛV B) ç\óì \ïV«VÛV
C) ÃVâªV \ïV«VÛV D) ü«V¦V \ïV«VÛV
ps
54. Assertion A : The first state to be divided on the basis of language was Odisha
Reason R: It was the first state to be divided on the basis of language in 1936 before independence.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu® : Ø\Va ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¸öÂï©Ã⦠x>_ \VWéD Š νÄV
Tn
ïV«ðD : s|>çéÂz x[A 1936_ Ø\Va ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ¸öÂï©Ã⦠x>_ \VWéD gzD.
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A) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
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56. Statement 1:The plan for linguistic re-organizationbegan in 1917 by the Congress party.
Statement 2: In 1920s,It was planned to redistribute the provinces onlinguistic basis
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5
1. The views of the concerned State Government and their Legislative Resolution of the State
Government are accepted.
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2. When the State Government passes a draft and sends it to the President for approval, the Prime
Minister will recommend the drafting of a separate bill
3. When the bill is passed in Parliament and The Governor will give his approval.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
ps
\VWéºï¹[ còkVÂïD z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ >kÅVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.Ø>V¦ìAç¦B \VWé ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ ïòÝmÂïÓD, ¶Í> \VWé ¶«ÄVºïÝ][ Äâ¦\[ÅÝ
yì\VªxD °u®ÂØïV^á©Ã|þÅm.
2.\VWé ¶«ÄVºïD Öm Ø>V¦ìÃVï x[kç«¡ Wçżku¤ z½B«·Ý >çékö[ ΩA>KÂz ¶Ð©AD
B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3
59. Choose the correct answer about Nation.
Tn
¼ÃVm ¸«>\ì Öm Ø>V¦ìÃVª >M x[kç«¡ Î[¤çª ÖBuÅ ÃöÍmç« ØÄFkVì.
3.¸Åz åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ x[kç«¡ ÖBu¤ >ªÂz ¶Ð©Ã©Ã|D¼ÃVm gÓåì ΩA>_ ¶¹©ÃVì.
A) 1, 2, 3 D) 1, 3
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1. The word "Nation" comes from Latin
2. This concept conveyed the idea of common blood ties. T
3. According to the older view, a nation need not necessarily be a State
A
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
¼>ÄD z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.¼>ÄD ¨[® ØÃVò^Ã|D “Nation” ¨[Å ÖéÝy[ Ø\ValoòÍm kÍ>>VzD.
F
2.¶çªkòD Îò Ö«Ý> ÃÍ>D cç¦Bkì ¨[Å ØÃVò¹_ ÖÍ> ïòÝmò còkVªm.
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5
ÄVÝ]B\VzD.
2.\Ý]B \VWé cÅ¡ï^ ÖÍ]BVs_ Ã_¼k® \VWéºï^ ¸«VÍ]B ïâEï¹[ gâEÂzâÃâ|^áª.
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Ö>ªV_ \Ý]B \VWé cÅ¡ï¹_ >¦ºï_ kÍm^ám.
3.\Ý]B \VWé cÅ¡ï¹_ W] cÅ¡ ¼\DÃ|Ý>©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
63. Choose the correct answer about Caste.
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1. Caste Conflicts and Caste discrimination is a major challenge for nation building.
2. Despite strict laws against untouchability, it continues today.
3. Those who do inter-caste marriages suffer due toHonour killing
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
ÄV] z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
Tn
1.ÄV]B ¼\V>_ï^ ÄV]B ÃVzÃV|ï^ Ø>V¦ìßEBVï ¼>Ä ïâ¦ç\©¸uz ÄkVéVï c^áª.
2.yõ¦Vç\Âz ¨]«Vï ï|ç\BVª Ä⦺ï^ ÖòÍmD ¶m Ö[®D Ø>V¦ìþ[Åm.
3.ïé©A ]ò\ðD ØÄFm ØïV^¼kVì gðk© Ã|ØïVçéïÓÂz c^áVþ[Ūì.
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A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
64. Choose the correct answer regarding the Emergence of Linguistic Nationalism
1. In the early 20th century along withthe National consciousness, the linguisticregional
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2. Dravida Nadu demand did not get the support of non-Tamil speaking people.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect C) 1 only correct D) 2 only correct
]«Vs¦ åV| z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.]«Vs¦ åV| ¨[Ãm ·B gâE¥D, ¶]ï ¶]ïV«ºïÓD, ·>Í]« ÖçÅBVõç\ c®]¥D ØïVõ¦
Ø\Va ¶½©Ãç¦l_ åV[z ¶ézïçá ØïVõ¦ íâ¦VâE z½B«ÄVï ]«Vs¦ åV| ]ï¿D
¨[® íÅ©Ãâ¦m.
2.]«Vs¦ åV| ¼ïVöÂçï >tµ Ø\Va ¼Ã·¼kVì ¶_éV> \Âï¹[ g>«çk© ØÃÅs_çé.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2 >k® C) 1 \â|D Äö D) 2 \â|D Äö
5
>âE𩸫¼>ÄD z¤Ý> ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
1.A«âEï« ¼ÄVÄoÄ ïâEçB ÄVìÍ> pïõ¦[, ØïVßE[ ïDRMüâ ïâEçB ¶ß·>¼\ª[,
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]òs>Vºíì ïDRMüâ ïâEçB ÄVìÍ> °.¼ï.¼ïVÃVé[ gþ¼BVì ''>âE𠸫¼>Ä''
¼ïVöÂçïçB ï|ç\BVï ¨]ìÝ>ªì.
2.¶çªÝm >twìïÓD >âE𠸫¼>Ä ¶ç\©çà ¨]ìÝm x>éç\ßÄòÂz >Í] ¶Ð©Aºï^
¨[® ØÃöBVì ¶çÅík_ s|Ý>Vì.
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3.z¤©ÃVï ïìåV¦ïV \Âï^ ïâEçB ÄVìÍ> Äì>Vì Ä«ªV V >âE𠸫¼>Ä ¶ç\©çà ¨]ìÝ>Vì.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
67. Choose the incorrect option about State public service commission.
Tn
1. State Public Service Commission is only a main recruiting agency of the state
2. Department of Personnel or the General Administration Department is the main personnel agency
of the Union.
3. State Public Service Commission is an independent body
A) 1 only incorrect B) 2 only incorrect C) 3 only incorrect D) All incorrect
e/
\VWé ¶«·© ÃèBVáì Ãu¤ íu®ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.\VWé ¶«· ÃèBVáì ¼>ìkVçðBD ¨[Ãm ç\B©Ã|Ý>©Ã⦠WB\ª xïç\ \â|¼\.
2.\VWéÝ][ ÃèBVáìï^ ¼\éVõç\ ¨[Ãm \Ý]B ¶«E[ ÃèBVáì mçÅ (¶) ØÃVm
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1. Article148 of the Constitution of India provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and
Auditor General of India (CAG).
2. He/She is the guardian of the public purse
s:
3. He/She Controls the entire financial system of both the Central and State Governments.
A) 1, 2 only correct B) 2, 3 only correct C) 1, 3 only correct D) All correct
ÖÍ]B >çéç\ ïðÂz >èÂçïBVáì Ãu¤B íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
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5
D) \Âï^ \B©Ã|Ým>_ 1950 x>_ Ö[®kç«
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ØÃVòáV>V«D (12-D kz©A ÃV¦D Š 8, 9, 11)
71. “Public finance is an investigation into the nature and principles of the state revenue and
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expenditure”
A) Dalton B) Adam Smith C) Keynes D) Shope
¶«E[ kòkVF \u®D ØÄé¡ï¹[ ÖB_çÃ¥D, ØïV^çïïçá¥D g«VFk¼> ØÃVm W]lB_
gzD ¨[® í¤Bkì BVì?
A) ¦V_¦[ B) g¦D ütÝ
A) Population growth
C) ÿ[ü
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D) ¼−V©
72. Which of the following is not associated with causes for the increase in Government expenditure?
73. Assertion : Direct tax is progressive in nature. Income tax is based on canon of certainity.
Reason: The tax rate varies depending on the base tax. As the income level rises, Tax revenue for
s:
¶ç\Ím^ám.
ïV«ðD : kö ¶½©Ãç¦çB ØÃV®Ým kö T>\Vªm \V®D. kò\Vª \â¦D cBòD ¼ÃVm,
¶«EuïVª kö kòkVF cBòD.
A) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
5
ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. ÄVì ¼káVõç\ >ïk_ ç\BD 1988-gD gõ| mkºï©Ãâ¦m.
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2. gEBV[ skV>Ý]_ úØï|ÂzD g®åV|ï¹_ ¼Ä«V> åV| æªV gzD.
A) 1 \â|D Äö B) 2 \â|D Äö C) 1 \u®D 2 Äö D) ¨m¡t_çé
76. Match the following.
1. SAARC – 1995
ps
2.ASEAN – 1985
3.BRICS – 2001
4.World Trade Organisation – 1967
A) 2 3 4 1 B) 2 4 3 1 C) 1 3 4 2 D) 1 4 3 2 T
ØÃVòÝmï.
1. ÄVìÂ
2. gEBV[
3. ¸öÂü
Š
Š
Š
1995
1985
2001
Tn A
F
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4. céï kìÝ>ï ¶ç\©A Š 1967
A) 2 3 4 1 B) 2 4 31 C) 1 3 4 2 D) 1 4 3 2
77. Which of the following is wrongly matched regarding the Chairman of Finance Commission?
.m
79. The difference between total expenditure and total receipts including loans and other liabilities is
called
A) Fiscal deficit B) Budget deficit
C) Primary deficit D) Revenue deficit
Ø\VÝ>ß ØÄé¡, ï¦[ ¶_éV> Ø\VÝ> kòkVçB s¦ ¶]ï\Vï ÖòÍ>V_ ¶m?
A) W]© ÃuÅVÂzçÅ B) k«¡ ØÄé¡ ]⦠ÃuÅVÂzçÅ
C) x>[ç\ ÃuÅVÂzçÅ D) kòkVF ÃuÅVÂzçÅ
5
D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD Äö
81. Pick out the wrongly matched.
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A) Sarvodaya Plan – M.N. Roy
B) NITI Aayog – Prime Minister
C) Long Term Plan – Perspective Planning
D) Gandhian Plan – Rural Economy development
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>kÅVï ØÃVòÍ]¥^áç>Â ïVõï.
A) Äì¼kV>BV ]â¦D Š M.N.«VF
B) W] g¼BV Š ¸«>\ì
C) Àõ¦ ïVéÝ]â¦D Š x[¼ªVÂzÝ]â¦D
D) ïVÍ]BÝ ]â¦D Š þ«VtB ØÃVòáV>V« x[¼ªuÅD. Tn
82. The execution of the plan in accordance with pre – determined targets and priorities is called
A) Democratic planning B) Direction planning
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C) Inducement Planning D) Indicative planning
x[¼Ã x½¡ ØÄFB©Ã⦠ÖéÂz, x[Ðöç\ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ ØÄB_Ã|Ý>©Ã|D ]â¦t¦_?
A) \ÂïáVâE ]â¦t¦_ B) kaÂïVâ| ]â¦t¦_
C) #õ|D ]â¦t¦_ D) ·â½ÂïVâ|D ]â¦t¦_
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83. Who said “Capital is a necessary but not a sufficient condition of progress”?
A) Robins B) Dalton C) Thomas Bigetti D) Ragner Nurkse
x[¼ªuÅ\ç¦k>uz Jé>ªD ¶½©Ãç¦BVª¼> >s« ¶m \â|¼\ ¼ÃVm\Vª>_é ¨[Åkì?
A) «V¸[ü B) ¦V_â¦[ C) >V\ü¸ÂØïâ½ D) «Vïªì åìïü
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84. Choose the correct statement regarding the World Trade Organisation.
1.In 1995, GATT is changed as World Trade Organisation.
2.Every two years, the members countries commerce ministers conference are being organized to
s:
discuss and settle the important souls and trade related matters.
3.The first WTO Conference was held at Singapore in 1996.
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5
87. Assertion : Income tax does not include tax on companies, income tax does not include
corporation tax
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Reason : Income tax is distributed between the federal and state government based on the
recommendation of finance committee
A) Assertion is true, Reason is true B) Both assertion and reason are false
C) Assertion is true reason is false D) Assertion is false reason is true
ps
íu® : kò\Vª köl_ W®kªºï^ *>Vª kö c^á¦Âïs_çé, kò\Vª kö \Våï«VâE köçB
c^á¦ÂþBm ¶_é.
ïV«ðD : W]Âz¿s[ ÃöÍmç«l[ ¶½©Ãç¦l_ kò\Vª kö \Ý]B \u®D \VWéºï¹ç¦¼B
ÃþìÍ>¹Âï©Ã|þÅm.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD Äö
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
Tn
B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k®
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
88. Which of the following is/are the economic factors of economic development?
1.Capital formation 2.Financial system
e/
3.Social organization 4.Human resource
A) 1, 2 B) 3, 4 C) 1, 4 D) 2, 3
ØÃVòáV>V« x[¼ªuÅÝç> WìðlÂzD ØÃVòáV>V« ïV«èï^ ¨çk/¨m?
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5
åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ ¶¤Âçï >VÂï_ ØÄF>m W] g¼BVÂ.
ïV«ðD : ¶«· ØÄB_Ã|ÝmD ]⦺ïçá ïõïVè©A ØÄFm ¶>[ sçá¡ïçá¥D \]©¬|
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ØÄFþ[Ū.
A) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
C) íu® (\) ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
ps
92. The term BRIC was coined in
A) 2001 B) 2005 C) 2008 D) 2010
¸öÂ(BRIC) ¨[Å ·òÂïß ØÄV_ ¼ïVìÂï©Ã⦠gõ|?
A) 2001 B) 2005 C) 2008 D) 2010
B) 10
Tn
93. How many countries are the member of Association of Southeast Asian Nations?
A) 8 C) 12
Ø>[þwÂz gEB åV|ï¹[ ĺïÝ]_ (ASEAN) ¨Ý>çª åV|ï^ c®©¸ªìïáVï c^áªì?
D) 14
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 14
e/
94. Which of the following is come under the Fiscal policy?
A) Bank rate B) Government expenditure
C) Out Market
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5
1.Article 280 (3) speaks about the functions of finance commission states that it shall be the duty of
the commission to make the recommendations to the president
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2.The distribution between the union and states of the net proceeds of taxes, which may be divided
between them and the allocation among the states of the respective share of such proceeds
3.To determine the quantum of grants-in-aid to be given by the centre to states (Article 275(1)) and
to evolve the principles governing the eligibility of the state for such grant in aid
ps
A) 1, 2 is true B) 1, 2, 3 is true
C) 1, 3 is true D) 1, 2, 3 is true
ÖÍ]B W]Âz¿s[ Ãèï¹_ ÄöBVªm ¨m?
1.Ä«Ým 280(3) W]Âz¿s[ Ãèï^ Ãu¤ í®þÅm. ÖßÄ«Ý][ý ÖÂz¿ z½B«·Ý>çékòÂz
¸[kòkªkuçÅ ÃöÍmç« ØÄFþÅm. Tn
2.\Ý]B \u®D \VWéºïÓÂþ禼B Wï«kö kòkVFï^ ÎmÂÿ| ØÄFm \VWéºïÓÂz
¶ku¤uzöB úçï ÃþìÍ>¹Ý>_.
3.\Ý]B ¶«· \VWéÝ]uz kwºï c^á \VMB ¶á¡ Ãu¤¥D Ä«Ým 275(1) \u®D ¶D\VMBD
e/
Øîk>uz \VWé ¶«E[ >z] z¤Ým ØïV^çïïçá c®] ØÄF>_.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 >k®
101. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
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D) Fourteenth
>kÅVï ØÃVòÍ]¥^ám ¨m?
- 2013 F
W]Âz¿ °uÃ|Ý>©Ã⦠gõ|
s:
5
D) ¼káVõç\ Wéºï^ >sìÝ> Ãõçð kö
105. Consider the following statements
c8
1.The finance commission is appointed by the president
2.The tenure of the finance commission is five years
3.Currently the Sixteenth finance commission is under operation
4.Finance commission is a permanent body
ps
A) Statement 1, 2, 3 is true B) Statement 2, 3, 4 is true
C) Statement 1, 2 is true D) Statement 1, 2, 3, 4 is true
ÿµÂïõ¦ íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.ÛªV]Ã]BV_ W]Âz¿ ÃèB\ìÝ>©Ã|þÅm.
2.Îò W]Âz¿s[ ïVéD 5 gõ|ï^
3.>u¼ÃVm 16km W]Âz¿ åç¦xçÅl_ c^ám
4.W]Âz¿ W«Í]« ¶ç\©A
Tn
A) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö B) íu® 2, 3, 4 Äö
e/
C) íu® 1, 2 Äö D) íu® 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
106. Arrange the chronological order of the following schemes
1.Vishveshwarya Plan 2.People Plan
.m
5
3.Increase in Per Capita income
4.denotes more output
c8
A) 1, 3, 4 is true B) 1, 2, 3 is true C) 1, 2, 3, 4 is true D) 2, 3, 4 is true
ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE Ãu¤B ïòÝmï¹_ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1.káìÍ> åV|ï¹[ ØÃVòáV>V« ¸«ßÄçªïçá çïBVÓþ[Ū.
2.\Vuźï^ ý©Ã½BVï¡D W>Vª\Vï¡D Wïµþ[Ū.
ps
3.>éV kò\Vª ¶]ïö©çàz¤Âþ[Ū.
4.¶]ïákVª cuÃÝ]çB z¤Âþ[Ū.
A) 1, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 2, 3, 4 Äö
110. Match the WTO Ministerial Conference a b c d
a)Nairobi
b) Hanghai
c)Bali
d)Kazakhstan
- 1. 2005
- 2. 2020
- 3. 2015
- 4. 2013
Tn A)
B)
C)
D)
1
2
3
4
2
1
1
3
4
4
4
2
3
3
2
1
e/
ØÃVòÝmï.
céï kìÝ>ï ¶ç\©¸[ kèï ¶ç\ßÄìï¹[ \VåV| a b c d
a.ç弫V¸ Š 1. 2005 A) 1 2 4 3
.m
b.ÇVºïVF Š 2. 2020 B) 2 1 4 3
c.ÃVo Š 3. 2015 C) 3 1 4 2
d.ïÄþü>V[ Š 4. 2013 D) 4 3 2 1
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
A) ØÄ[çª, ¨õIì \u®D #ÝmÂz½ gþBçk >tµåVâ½[ J[® xÂþB mçÅxïºï^ gzD
B) >tµåVâ½_ c^á ¶çªÝm E® mçÅxïºïÓïD >tµåVâ½[ ï¦_ÄVì kVöBÝ>V_
c8
WìkþÂï©Ã|þÅm
C) #ÝmÂz½ AÅåïì Ö«l_ ¼ÃVÂzk«Ým \u®D ÃÅÂzD Ø>V¦òÍmÝ ]â¦D gþBçk å[z
káìßEBç¦Ím^áª.
D) ØÄ[çª mçÅxïD Ä«Âz ØÃâ¦ïºïçá çïBVÓD åVâ½[ mçÅxïºï¹_ Ö«õ¦Vkm
ps
ØÃöB mçÅxï\VzD.
112. Which of the following is/are factors of Agricultural growth?
1.Landforms 2.Soil
3.Climate 4.Irrigation
A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4
¼káVõ káìßEçB yì\VMÂzD xÂþB ïV«èï^ ¨çk?
1.Wéݼ>VuÅD
3.ïVéWçé
2.\õ
4.ÀìÃVĪD
Tn C) 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
e/
A) 1, 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
113. Assertion :Density of population is higher in urban than rural.
Reason :This is due to Industrial development, Large employment and Transport facilities
.m
A) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true
C) Assertion is false reason is true
D) Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
íu® : þ«V\ºïçá s¦ ØÃò å﫺ï¹_ \Âï^Ø>Vçï ØåòÂïD ¶]ï\Vï ïVð©Ã|þÅm.
//t
5
3.åkç« Š Ãwºï^, ïVFï¤ï^, Øk^áö, >ì¯Äè Ãlö|þÅVìï^
A) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k® B) 1, 2, 3 Äö
c8
C) 1, 3 Äö 2 >k® D) 2, 3 Äö 1 >k®
116. Match the information regarding the location of tamilnadu
a)East - 1. Cape comorin
b)West - 2. Pulicatlake
ps
c)North - 3. Anaimalai
d)South - 4. Point Calimere
A) 4 3 1 2 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 2 4 3 D) 4 3 2 1
>tµåVâ½[ ¶ç\s¦D ÄVìÍ> >ïk_ïçá ÄöBVï ØÃVòÝmï.
1. þwÂz Š
2. ¼\uz Š
3. k¦Âz Š
4. Ø>[ Š
z\öxçª
Ãw¼kuïV|
gçª\çé
¼ïV½BÂïç«
Tn T
A) 4 3 1 2 B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 2 4 3 D) 4 3 2 1 A
e/
117. Which of the following is/are districts situated in Western Ghats?
1.Nilgiris 2.Viruthunagar 3.Dindugul F
4.Namakkal 5.Dharmapuri
.m
A) 1 2 3 5 B) 1 2 3 4 5 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 2 3 5
¼\uz Ø>V¦ìßE \çéï¹_ ¶ç\Ím^á \Vk⦺ï¹_ ÄöBVªç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1. Àéþö 2. sòmåïì 3. ]õ|Âï_
4. åV\Âï_ 5. >ì\Aö
//t
A) 1 2 3 5 B) 1 2 3 4 5 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 2 3 5
118. Assertion : The network of distributaries within the delta of cauvery in the coast is called the
‘Garden of south India’
s:
Reason : After Kallanai, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network
all over the delta
A) Assertion is true, reason is false B) Both assertion and reason are true
tp
C) Both assertion and reason are false D) Assertion is false, reason is true
íu® : ïV¼kö ئ_¦V Ãz]ï¹_ þçá g®ïáV_ cõ¦Vþ¥^á kç驸[ª_ ¶ç\©A
Ø>[MÍ]BVs[ ¼>Vâ¦D ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ht
5
1. The period of southwest monsoon is June to September
2. At this time a well developed low pressure in North India, which draws wind from the Indian
c8
Ocean. This results in the formation of Southwest monsoon
3. During this time, wind blows from Arabian sea to South India. This results in the
formation of Tamilnadu monsoon.
4. Rainfall during this season decreases from west to east. The rainfall is scanty in the eastern
ps
part of the state
A) 1, 2 is true 3, 4 is false B) 1, 2 is false 3, 4 is true
C) 1, 2, 3 is true 4 is false D) 1, 2, 4 is true 3 is false
Ø>[¼\uz© ÃòkÂïVu® Ø>V¦ìÃVª kVÂþBºï¹_ Äö \u®D >kÅVª íuçÅ ïõ¦¤ï.
Tn
1.Ø>[¼\uz© ÃòkÂïVu®Â ïVéD É[ x>_ ØÄ©¦DÃì kç«BVzD.
2.ÖßÄ\BÝ]_ ïVuÅVªm ¶]ï ïVuÅ¿Ý>D c^á ÖÍ]B© ØÃòºï¦ooòÍm k¦Âz ¼åVÂþ
T·þÅm. Öm Ø>[¼\uzà ÃòkÂïVu® còkVï ïV«ð\VþÅm.
3. Ö©ÃòkÝ]_ ¶«¸Âï¦ooòÍm Ø>[MÍ]BVçk ¼åVÂþ ïVu® T·þÅm. Öm >tµåVâ½[ \çw
ïVéD gzD.
e/
4.Ö©ÃòkÝ][ \çw©Ã]¡ ¼\uþoòÍm þwÂz ¼åVÂþ zçÅþÅm. \VWéÝ][ þwÂz© Ãz]ï^
tï zçÅkVª \çw ¶áçk© Øîþ[Ū.
A) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k® B) 1, 2 >k® 3, 4 Äö
.m
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® D) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
122. Kiliyur waterfalls situated at
A) Viruthunagar B) Theni C) Tirunelveli D) Salem
þ^¹Rì ÀìTµßE ¶ç\Ím^á Ö¦D?
//t
b) Kalvarayan - 2. Karalar B) 3 1 2 4
c)Poor man ooty - 3. Pothigai hills C) 3 1 4 2
d)South Kailash - 4.Yercaud D) 1 2 3 4
tp
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. ïVkÙì Š 1. kVMB_ Ø>Vçé¼åVÂþ ç\BD A) 1 2 4 3
b. ï_k«VB[ Š 2. ï«éì B) 3 1 2 4
ht
5
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
D) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂïD
c8
126. Choose the correct statement regarding the soils of Tamilnadu
1.Black soil –Black soils are formed by the weathering of igneous rocks. Cotto, Sorghum, Corn are
cultivated in the soil
2.Laterite soil-Laterite soils are formed the nutrients flow over by the process of leaching.
ps
It is a non fertile soil
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1, 2 D) None of the above
>tµåVâ½K^á \õ kçïï¹[ ÃõAï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª >ïk_ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ïöÄ_ \õ Š y©ÃVçÅï^ Eç>kç¦k>[ JéD ïöÄ_ \õ còkVþÅm. ÖD\õè_ ÃòÝ],
ïDA, ¼ÄVáD ¼ÃV[Å xÂþB Ãlìï^ Ãlö¦©Ã|þÅm.
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D C) 1, 2
Tn
2.Ä«çá \õ Š Ä«çá \õðVªm ¶]_ ïç«Ím^á ÄÝmÂï^ ¶½Ým ØÄ_é©Ã|k>V_
còkVþÅm. Öm Îò ká\uÅ \õ gzD.
D) ¨m¡t_çé
127. Assertion :Northeast monsoon is called the retreating monsoon
e/
Reason : As the northeast monsoon is a part of returning of southwest monsoon wind, it is also
called as the retreating monsoon
A) Assertion is true reason is false
.m
B) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
C) Both assertion and reason are true
D) Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
íu® : k¦þwÂz© ÃòkÂïVu® ¸[ªç¦¥D ÃòkÂïVu® ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
//t
5
íu® 1: ÃV«\ÇV_ ¬¦¯t Š >tµåVâ½[ k¦¼\uz Ãz]l_ ¶ç\Í]òÂzD ÃV«\ÇV_
¬¦¯tBVªm ç\óì ¬¦¯tl[ Îò Ãz]BVzD. ÖÍ> ¬¦¯tl_ >ì\Aö \u®D þòiðþö
\Vkâ¦D ¶ç\Ím^ám.
c8
íu® 2: ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì ¬¦¯t Š Öm Àéþö \u®D >ì\Aö \Vk⦺ïÓÂz Ö禼B ¶ç\Ím^ám.
Ö©¬¦¯t ¼ÄéD, ¼ïVBDAÝ#ì, ~¼«V| \Vk⦺ïçá c^á¦Âþ¥^ám.
íu® 3: Eíì ¬¦¯t Š Àéþö Ãz]ï¹_ Ãé \çél禩 ¬¦¯tï^ ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū. Eíì ¬¦¯t
¶ku¤_ z¤©¸¦Ý>Âï Î[ÅVzD.
ps
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 1, 3 D) 2, 3
130. Which of the following peaks is not associated with eastern ghats?
A) Muganur B) Valsamalai C) Vembadisolai D) Uragamalai
A) xïûì
1.Salem
B) kéÄ\çé
-
Tn
þwÂz Ø>V¦ìßE \çél_ ¶ç\Ím^á xÂþB E﫺ï¹_ ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
C) ¼kDý ¼ÄVçé D) còï\çé
131. Choose the incorrect one regarding the major hills in tamilandu
Kanjamalai
2.Erode - Sivan hills
e/
3.Kallakurichi - Chalk hills
4.Dhrmapuri - Maruhamalai
A) 1, 4 B) 2, 4 C) 3, 4 D) 2, 3
.m
4.>ì\Aö Š \ò>çé
A) 1, 4 B) 2, 4 C) 3, 4 D) 2, 3
132. Consider the following statements regarding the plains of Tamilnadu
s:
1.The plains of Tamilnadu divided into two types namely Inland plains and Coastal Plains
2.Inland plains are drained by the rivers Palar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery and Thamirabharani
3.Coastal plains of Tamilnadu are also called as Cholamandalam plains. It extends from Chennai to
tp
Kanniyakumari
A) 1, 2, 3 is true B) 1, 2 is false 3 is true
C) 1 is true 2, 3 is false D) 1 is false 2, 3 is true
ht
5
C) 5 4 3 2 1
D) 4 1 3 5 2
ØÃVòÝmï.
c8
a.Ekïºçï Š 1. k|Æì ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD
b.]òkVÔì Š 2. ïVç«Økâ½ ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD
c.~¼«V| Š 3. Øk^¼áV| ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD
ps
d.Ö«V\åV>A«D Š 4. ¼k⦺z½ ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD
e. ¶öBÙì Š 5. ïÞE«ºzáD ÃÅçkï^ Ä«ðVéBD
a b c d e
A) 4 1 3 2 5
B) 1
C) 5
D) 4
2
4
1
3
3
3
4
2
5
5
1
2
Tn
134. Arrange the chronological order of districts with prominent forest cover in tamilnadu T
e/
1.Vellore 2.Coimbatore 3.Dhramapuri 4.Erode
A) 1 4 2 3 B) 4 3 2 1 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 1 4 3 2 A
>tµåVâ½_ ¶]ï ïV|ïçá ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ïçá °®köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï.
1.¼kÙì 2.¼ïVBDAÝ#ì 3.>ì\Aö 4.~¼«V| F
.m
A) 1 4 2 3 B) 4 3 2 1 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 1 4 3 2
135. Assertion : Tamilnadu is water deficit state
Reason : It depends mostly on northeast monsoon for its rain. Its failure ends in disastrous
A) assertion is true reason is false B) Both assertion and reason are true
//t
C) Both assertion and reason are false D) assertion is false ,reason is true
íu® : >tµåV| Îò ÀìÃuÅVÂzçÅ c^á \VWéD gzD.
ïV«ðD : >tµåV| \VWéD Àì ¼>çkÂz Ãòk \çwçB¼B ØÃömD åD¸¥^ám. Ö©Ãòk
s:
136. Which of the following passes not situated in western ghats of tamilnadu?
A) Palghat B) Shencottah C) Borgot D) Achankoil
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ >tµåVâ½[ ¼\uz Ø>V¦ìßE \çél_ ¶ç\BV> ïðkVF ¨m?
ht
5
A) assertion is true reason is false B) Both assertion and reason are true
C) Both assertion and reason are false D) assertion is false ,reason is true
c8
íu® : >ÞÄVÆì >tµåVâ½[ ØåuïáÞEBD ¨ª ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
ïV«ðD : >tµåVâ½_ ïVsö ئ_¦V Ãz] ¶]ï Øå_ cuÃÝ] ØÄF¥D Ãz]BVzD.
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k® D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
ps
140. Match the following : a b c d
a)Groundnut - 1. Plantation Crops A) 4 3 2 1
b)Sugarcane - 2. fibre crops B) 1 2 3 4
c)Cotton - 3. Cash crops C) 4 2 3 1
d)Tea
ØÃVòÝmï.
a.WéÂï¦çé
b.ïòDA
- 4. Oil seeds
Š
Š
1.
2.
¼>Vâ¦Ãlì
Öçw©Ãlì
Tn D)
A)
B)
1
a
4
1
2
b
3
2
4
c
2
3
3
d
1
4
e/
c.ÃòÝ] Š 3. kVèà Ãlì C) 4 2 3 1
d.¼>lçé Š 4. ¨õØðF sÝmï^ D) 1 2 4 3
141. Consider the following statements regarding the Dams in Tamilnadu
.m
Statement 1: Mettur Dam-It is one of the oldest dam in India. It was constructed in a gorge, where
river cauvery enters the plains
Statement 2: Bhavanisagar dam-It is one of the earthen dams in the country. It is situated in
Dharmapuri
Statement 3: Vaigai Dam-This dam was opened on 21st January, 1959. This dam built across the
//t
5
\Âï^Ø>Vçï ÄVìÍ> kVÂþBºï¹_ >k® ¶_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.¶]ï \Âï^Ø>Vçï ØïVõ¦ Ãz]ï^ ¼ïVçk, ØÄ[çª, ]òk^jì, ïVÞEA«D, s¿©A«D,
>ì\Aö gzD.
c8
2.t>\Vª \Âï^Ø>Vçï ØïVõ¦ Ãz]ï^ ]òkõðV\çé, ï¦Ùì, ]òßE, >ÞÄVÆì gzD.
3.zçÅkVª \Âï^Ø>VçïçB ØïVõ¦ Ãz]ï^ åVï©Ã⽪D, ]òkVÔì, Am¼ïVâç¦,
Ö«V\åV>A«D, Ekïºçï gzD.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2
ps
C) 1, 3 D) 2, 3
144. Which year has decided to observe as the International year of Millets by Food Agricultural
organization?
A) 2023 B) 2022
Tn C) 2024
ÖÍ]B ¼káVõç\ ïwïD ..............gD gõç¦ Äìk¼>Ä ]窩Ãlìï^ gõ¦Vï ¶ÐÄöÂï
c^ám.
A) 2023 B) 2022 C) 2024 D) 2025
D) 2025
d)Garnet - 4. 30 % D) 5 1 2 3 4
e)Molybendum - 5. 55.3 %
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a.ÿ©A WéÂïö Š 1. 75% A) 5 2 1 4 3
//t
b.Økìtzç¦â Š 2. 52% B) 5 1 4 3 2
c.ç¦â¦VMBD Š 3. 59% C) 5 1 4 2 3
d.ïVìØåâ Š 4. 30% D) 5 1 2 3 4
s:
e.\Vo©ÏªD Š 5. 55.3%
146. Assertion :Karur is known as the Textile capital of Tamilnadu
Reason :Cotton textile mills were sound large numbers in Karur and their surroundings
tp
A) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true
C) Assertion is false reason is true
ht
D) Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
íu® : >tµåVâ½[ ØåÄkVçé >çéåïì ïÔì gzD.
ïV«ðD : ÃòÝ] ØåÄ¡ gçéï^ ïÔöKD ¶>[ ·u® kâ¦V«ºï¹KD ØĤÍm ïVð©Ã|þ[Ū.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. íu¤uz ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
C) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
D) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
5
Ö«õ¦VD Ö¦DkþÂþÅm
C) Àéþö \çéï^ \u®D ¼ÄéD \Vkâ¦Ý]_ c^á °uïV| \çéßÄö¡ï¹_ ïV¸ z¤©¸¦Ý>zÍ>
c8
¶ás_ Ãlö¦©Ã|þÅm.
D) Ö«©Ãì ¼>V⦺ï^ ï[MBVz\öl_ ¶]ï\Vï ïVð©Ã|þÅm. ¼\KD xÍ]ö ï¦Ùì
\Vkâ¦Ý]_ ØÃòD Ãz]ï¹_ Ãlö¦©Ã|þÅm
148. Which of the following districts leads in the production of inland fish production with 10% of state
ps
production?
A) Cuddalore B) Sivagangai C) Viruthunagar D)Vellore
\VWé c^åVâ| *[ cuÃÝ]l_ ¨Í> \Vkâ¦D 10 Ä>sþ> cuÃÝ]¥¦[ x[Mçél_ c^ám?
A) ï¦Ùì B) Ekïºçï C) sòmåïì D) ¼kÙì
Tn
149. Choose the correct statements regarding the Literacy rate and sex ratio.
Statement 1: The district of Kanniyakumari has the reported the highest literacy rate
Statement 2:The highest sex ratio is found in the Thanjavur district followed by Nilgiris district
Statement 3: Dharmapuri district has the lowest literacy rate
Statement 4: The lowest sex ratio is reported in Dharmapuri district followed by Salem district
e/
A) 1, 2, 3 is true B) 1, 2, 4 is true C) 1, 3, 4 is true D) All are true
ï_sB¤¡ sþ>D \u®D ÃVoª sþ>D Ø>V¦ìÃVª íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
íu® 1: ï[MBVz\ö \Vkâ¦D ¶]ï ¶ás_ ï_sB¤¡ sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vkâ¦\Vï c^ám.
.m
íu® 2: ÃVoª sþ>D ¶]ïD ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ïáVï >ÞÄVÆì \u®D ¶ç> Ø>V¦ìÍm Àéþö¥D
c^áª.
íu® 3: >ì\Aö \Vkâ¦D tï zçÅÍ> ï_sB¤¡ ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ïáVï c^ám
íu® 4: zçÅkVª ÃVoª sþ>D ØïVõ¦ \Vk⦺ïáVïÝ >ì\Aö¥D ¶>çªÝ Ø>V¦ìÍm ¼ÄéxD
//t
c^ám.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 2, 4 Äö C) 1, 3, 4 Äö D) ¶çªÝmD Äö
150. TIDEL Park-IV is called the special economic zone located in the city of
s:
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 B 42 D 43 A 44 A 45 D 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 A 50 D
51 B 52 C 53 C 54 A 55 B 56 A 57 D 58 C 59 A 60 A
c8
61 B 62 B 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 B 68 D 69 D 70 A
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 A 76 B 77 D 78 C 79 A 80 B
81 A 82 B 83 D 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 A 88 A 89 C 90 A
91 B 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 A 96 C 97 A 98 A 99 C 100 B
ps
101 C 102 C 103 C 104 D 105 C 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 C 110 C
111 C 112 B 113 A 114 A 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 B 119 C 120 D
121 D 122 D 123 A 124 A 125 D 126 C 127 B 128 D 129 A 130 C
131 C 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 C 137 B 138 C 139 B 140 A
141 B 142 C 143 A 144 A 145
Tn
B 146 A 147 B 148 D 149 C 150 B
e/
GR–II TAF MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – ISAI - 9 ANS KEY – 14.10.2021
.m
1 D 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 C 9 A 10 A
11 C 12 A 13 D 14 A 15 B 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 A 20 B
21 B 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 A 27 D 28 A 29 B 30 A
31 A 32 C 33 C 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 A 38 D 39 C 40 C
//t
41 B 42 D 43 A 44 A 45 D 46 D 47 A 48 B 49 A 50 D
51 B 52 C 53 C 54 A 55 B 56 A 57 D 58 C 59 A 60 A
61 B 62 B 63 A 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 B 68 D 69 D 70 A
s:
71 B 72 D 73 A 74 C 75 A 76 B 77 D 78 C 79 A 80 B
81 A 82 B 83 D 84 B 85 D 86 A 87 A 88 A 89 C 90 A
tp
91 B 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 A 96 C 97 A 98 A 99 C 100 B
101 C 102 C 103 C 104 D 105 C 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 C 110 C
111 C 112 B 113 A 114 A 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 B 119 C 120 D
121 D 122 D 123 A 124 A 125 D 126 C 127 B 128 D 129 A 130 C
ht
131 C 132 A 133 D 134 A 135 B 136 C 137 B 138 C 139 B 140 A
141 B 142 C 143 A 144 A 145 B 146 A 147 B 148 D 149 C 150 B
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 2
11
//t
80
tp
ht
60
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 3 HRS GOAL - 2 11 TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
Choose the correct statement.
Tn
1. The service conditions of the Members of the State Public Service Commission are decided by
the Governor.
e/
2. The salaries, allowances and pension of the Chairman or members of the State Public Service
Commission will be paid from the Consolidated Fund of the State.
3. The Chairman &Members of the State Public Service Commission cannot be reappointed to for
.m
s:
tp
5
A B C D
Which committee constituted by the Government of Tamil Nadu recommended to eliminate all
c8
India service?
A) Sarkaria committee B) Rajamannar committee
C) Punchi committee D) Venkatachellaiya committee
ps
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
a) Bombay Court Dissolution
b) Warren Hasting Plan
c) Cornwallis code
Tn
- 1. 1772
- 2. 1690
- 3. 1793
A)
B)
C)
1
2
2
2
1
1
3
3
4
4
4
3
d) Government of India Act - 4. 1935 D) 4 3 2 1
e/
a b c d
a A
b
B
.m
c C
d D
A famous French Philosopher who propounded the idea of an independent judiciary?
A) Montesquieu B) Socrates C) Cornwallis D) None
//t
A B C D
In which year Bharat Ratna awarded for APJ?
s:
Match the following. a b c d
a.Indian Navy Day – 1. February 1 A) 2 3 1 4
– 2. October 8
ht
5
A) B) A C) D) A
Which one of the following article deals the emoluments and allowances of the same persong is
c8
appointed as the governor of two or more States?
A) Article 155 B) Article 158 C) Article 159 D) Article 160
ps
A) B) C) D)
The tamil nadu legislative council (abolition) act came into force on?
A) 1st November 1986 B) 1st September 1987C) 1st Janaury 1986 D) 1st November 1987
A)
Select the correct statement
Tn
B) C) D)
A) The number of judges of the high court is not varied in each and every state.
e/
B) The number of judges of each high court is determined by parliament
C) At present india has 26 hight courts
D) Andhra Pradesh high court is situated at Amravati
.m
A)
B)
//t
C)
D)
Match the following
s:
a b c
a A 1 2 3
b B 2 3 1
c C 3 2 1
D 2 1 3
5
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of A.
c8
C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D) (A) is false but (R) is true
ps
A)
C)
D)
Tn
B)
Which of the following constitutional amendment removed the nomination of Anglo Indian
e/
community in state legislative assembly?
A) 104th Constitutional Amendment Act
B) 103th Constitutional Amendment Act
.m
A)
B)
C)
s:
D)
Assertion : The Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister as the head to aid and advice the
Governor.
tp
5
C)
c8
D)
Match the following a b c d
A
ps
A) Non aligned movement - 1. 1971 1 2 3 4
B) Bandung Declaration - 2. 1992 B 4 3 2 1
C) Look East policy - 3. 1955 C 3 4 2 1
DIndo – soviet treaty - 4. 1961 D 4 3 1 2
a
b
c
Tn
A
B
C
a
1
4
3
b
2
3
4
c
3
2
2
d
4
1
1
e/
d D 4 3 1 2
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched
A) Mutual non aggression – principle of Panchsheel
.m
A)
B)
C)
D)
s:
Which of the following state does not have bicameral legislature
A) Telangana B) Rajasthan C) Bihar D) Karnataka
tp
A) B)
C) D)
The Foreign Service Training Institute at Delhi was established on
A) 1984 B) 1986 C) 1983 D) 1987
A) B) C) D)
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Select the correct statement
Statement 1 : Article 169 deals with the creating legislative council in a State.
Statement 2 : The lower house and Upper house have enjoyed the equal powers in money matters.
A) Statement 1 correct statement 2 wrong B) Statement 1 wrong statement 2 correct
C) Statement 1 and 2 correct D) Statement 1 and 2 wrong
5
A) B)
C) D)
c8
Assertion : The jurisdiction to issue wris are larger in case of High court
Reason : The supreme cout can issue writs only where Fundamental right has been infringed
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of A
ps
C) (A) is true but (R) is false D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Tn
A)
B)
C) D)
e/
Select the correct Statement
Statement 1 : The strength of the legislative assembly varies from state to state depending on the
.m
population.
Statement 2 : The maximum strength of the Legislative Assembly must not exceed 500 or its
minimum Strength not be below 50
A) Statement 1 correct statement 2 wrong B) Statement 1 wrong statement 2 correct
C) Statement 1 and 2 correct D) Statement 1 and 2 wrong
//t
s:
A) B)
tp
C) D)
Which is known as the „Mini Constitution‟?
A) 44th Amendment B) 86th Amendment C) 42nd Amendment D) 7th Amendment
ht
A) B)
C) D)
The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India
A) Dr. B.R.Ambedkar B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) K.M.Munshi D) V.T Krishnamachari
A) Dr.B.R. B)
C) K.M. D) V.T
5
D) 4 3 2 1
c8
a
bA
c
d
ps
a b c d
A 1 2 3 4
B 3 4 1 2
C
D 4
2 4
3
Find the incorrect option
A) Anti defection Law
3
2
1
1 Tn
- Schedule 9
e/
B) Recognized languages - Schedule 8
C) Central-State Relations - Schedule 7
D) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity - French Revolution
.m
A)
B)
C)
//t
D)
Statement 1: Preamble of the constitution amended 3 times till now.
Statement 2: Fundamental rights are derived from the Constitution of Ireland.
s:
A) B) C) D)
ht
5
Statement 1: The Money Bill will be introduced in the Parliament only after President's approval.
Statement 2: The Union Finance Minister will submit the Annual Budget of the Government of
c8
India in the Rajya Sabha without the permission of the President.
A) Both correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) Both incorrect
ps
A)
C)
A) 368
B) 360
Tn
B)
D)
Which Article of the Constitution deals with constitutional amendment?
C) 358 D) 356
e/
A) B) C) D)
Who is the Supreme Court Judge appointed as the President ?
.m
tp
A) B)
C) D)
ht
5
A1 B2 C D
Match the following. a b c d
c8
a.Consumer Protection Act – 1. 1955 A
b.Legal Metrology Act – 2. 1986 B
c.Bureau of Indian Standard – 3. 2009 C
d.Essential commodities Act – 4. 1986 D
ps
a b c d
a. A
b. B
c. C
d.
Tn
Who is considered to be the Chief Architect of our constitution?
A) Rajendra Prasad
C) B.R. Ambedkar
B) N. Gopalasamy
D) T.P. Kaitan
D
e/
A B
C D
.m
Assertion (A): 79% of Indians believe in the democracy of their country.
Reason (R): In Country where Democracy take place India ranks number one rank.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A and R correct D) A and R incorrect
//t
A
R
s:
A B
C D
Who was the India‟s first teacher of the first women school?
tp
5
c.Article 27 – 3. Right to freedom of religion
d.Article 28 – 4. Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction
c8
a b c d
A
B
C
ps
D
a
b
c
d
a
A
b
c
d
Tn
B
e/
C
D
Match the following. a b c d
.m
a b c d
a. A
s:
5
D) President appoints the chair person& other members.
c8
A
B
C
D
ps
Who called India as Ethnological museum?
A)V.A. Smith B) Nehru C) Gandhi D) None
A B
C) Prime Minister
C
Tn
Blue number plate is given to vehicle used by
A) People
D
B) President
D) Foreign delegates (or) Ambassador
e/
A B
C D
.m
What are the three main organs of the state government?
A) Mayor, Governor, MLA B) Panchayat, Municipal, Corporation
C) Village, Town, State D) Legislative, Executive, Judiciary
//t
A B
C D
The convention on the Rights of the child was proclaimed by UN on
s:
A BCD
Assertion: India has a federal system of government.
ht
Reason: According to our constitution the power is divided between central and state governments.
A) A& R is correct and R explains A B) A & R is correct but R does not explain A
C) A is correct and R is wrong D) Both are wrong
AA, R R, A BA, R R, A
CA R DA, R
5
A B
c8
C D
The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted on
A) April 24,1992 B) April 23,1992 C) April 25, 1992 D) April 22,1992
ps
A B C D
To call woman the weaker sex is a libel; it is man‟s injustice to woman –who said this?
A) Gandhi B) Nehru C) Nethaji D) Siva
A B
Match the following
C
Tn
D
a b c d
a. Banyan Tree - 1. 1963 A) 3 1 4 2
e/
b. Peacock - 2. 2008 B) 3 1 2 4
c. River Ganges - 3. 1950 C) 1 3 2 4
d. Tiger - 4. 1973 D) 4 3 2 1
.m
a b c d
a. A
b. B
c. C
//t
1. The First Administrative Reforms Commission was formed in 1966 initially under the leadership
of Morarji Desai and later by K.Hanumanthaiah.
2.The committee issued 20 reports.
tp
A B C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Which committee recommended the following suggestions ?
1. It recommended that the governors of the states should be removed only through impeachment
process similar to the President of India..
2. Articles 355 and 356 of the Constitution should be amended. So that there is no need to
implement presidential rule throughout the state.
A) Sarkaria B) Rajamannar C) Venkatachellaiya D) Madanmohan Punchi
5
c8
A B
C D
Choose the right Option
ps
1. The term of office of members of the Lok Sabha is 5 years.
2. The President has no power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.
A) 1 right 2 wrongB) 1, 2 Right C) Both are wrong D) 1 wrong 2 right
A B
Tn
CD
Assertion A: In November 1992, the Supreme Court delivered its judgment in the Mandal
e/
Commission case.
ReasonR : on that 69% reservation assured in education and employment.
A) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
.m
A
B
s:
C D
Choose the right Option.
tp
selected.
3. The first session of the State Legislature was held on 03.05.1952, following the first general
election.
4. 14th Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly was constituted on the 21.05.2016, after the general
election to the Assembly on the 16.05.2016.
A) All are Right B) 1, 2, 3 Only right C) 4Only right D) 3, 4 Only right
5
Match: a b c d e
a) The Muslim Wakfs Bill 1. 1960 A) 1 2 3 4 5
c8
b) Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill 2. 1955 B) 4 3 2 1 5
c) The Indian Registration (Amendment)Bill, 3. 1956 C) 4 3 2 5 1
d) Marine Insurance Bill 4. 1952 D) 4 2 3 5 1
e) Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill 5. 1968
ps
a
b
c
d
e
a
A
B
b
c
d
e
Tn
e/
C
D
Assertion A :Parliament has the power to discuss and execute resolution on the removal of
President Vice-President, Justices of the Supreme Court, High Court.
.m
Reason R : The procedure for such dismissal is called the "Impeachment" procedure.
A) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect D) Both A and R incorrect
//t
s:
tp
A
B
ht
C D
Which of the following can be filed as a public interest litigation?
1. Matters relating to the bonded labor
2. Abandoned children.
3. Non-payment of minimum wage
4. Complaint related to environmental pollution
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2 C) 3 only D) All of the above.
5
A) A wrong, R right B) Both A and R wrong
C) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
c8
D) Both A and R correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
ps
A B
C
D
Choose the right Option.
Tn
1. Number of Members to be elected to the Rajya sabha in the State of Uttar Pradesh 31
2. Number of Members to be elected to the Rajya sabha in the State of Sikkim 1.
3. Number of Members to be elected to the Rajya sabha in the State of Tamil Nadu 18.
e/
4. Total Members of Parliament in Tamil Nadu 58
A) 1, 2 Right B) 1, 2, 3 Right C ) 4 only Right D) All are right
.m
//t
A B C D
Choose the right Option.
s:
1.As per the democratic principle of Constitution, a person who is not a member of either house can
be appointed as the Chief Minister.
2.But within six months from the date of appointment, he/she should be elected a member of any
tp
House.
A) 1 Right B) 2 Right C) 1, 2 Right D) 1, 2 wrong
ht
A B C D
5
C D
Which country has National citizenship &State citizenship?
c8
A) India B) Japan C) USA D) Singapore
A B C D
ps
Which is not one among the Functions of Personnel Administration?
A) Manpower planning B) Wage structure
C) Employees welfare D) Employees social infrastructure
A
C
B
Tn
D
In India, Rajya Sabha operates on three main areas against state rights. Find the correct option
1. There is equality principle followed in the distribution of seats in the Council of States
e/
2. The seats are provided according to the population of the States.
3. There is a difference between smaller states and larger states.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
.m
//t
A B C D
Find the incorrect Statement about the Election Commission :
s:
A) The Chief Electoral Officer under the control of the Election Commission
B) State Election Commission is a part of the federal system in India
C) Based on 73 & 74th Constitutional amendment act, it conducts elections to local bodies.
tp
B
C
D
5
A B
c8
C D
Choose the correct option regarding tax revenue distribution.
1.Tax allocated to Central Government -Custom Tax
2.Tax allocated to State Government - Sales Tax
ps
3.Taxes are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the states - Stamp Duty
4. Taxes are levied and collected by the union government but the proceeds are assigned to the
states - Tax on advertisements in newspapers
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 2, 3, 4 correct
Tn C) 1, 2, 4 correct D) All correct
e/
A B C D
.m
Assertion A : Dr. Ambedkar called this Article 356 as a dead letter to the Constitution
Reason R : He bitterly accepted as it neglects the federal characters of the Indian Political System
and the popular sovereignty of an elected government
//t
A B
tp
C D
When was the Venkatachellaiya Committee formed?
A) 2000 B) 2005 C) 1998 D) 2002
ht
A B C D
Find the correct statement about the Indian Police Service.
1. Indian Police Service is under the control of the Government of India.
2. Service given in the State levels
3. It was supervised by the Ministry of Home Affairs
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 3 only correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
5
3. The Lee Commission created for this purpose submitted its report in 1924.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 only C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
c8
ps
A B C D
Tn
In India,which year the first sub urban railway started in Mumbai?
A)1927 B)1936 C)1925 D)1932
e/
A B C D
Choose the correct statement
.m
1.In India the first complete census was carried out in the year 1872.
2.Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in the country with a population of 199.5 million.
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) none
//t
s:
5
CRBI D
Pick out the correct pair?
c8
A) National Highways Authority of India - 1995
B) India‟s first rail transport - 1955
C) Inland waterways transport commission - 1996
D) India‟s first air transport
ps
- 1919
A
B
C
D Tn
The minor and intermediate ports are managed by
A)Central government
B)State government
e/
C)Prime Minister office D)Ministry of Home affairs
A B
.m
C D
Find the correct one by statement
1) 150 m to 450 m height
2) Between Nilgiri and Dharmapuri district
//t
1
2
3
tp
A B
C D
“Garden of south India”means
ht
5
a b c d
a. A)
c8
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
ps
Which of the following is not matched?
A)Karikili Bird sanctuary - Kancheepuram
B)Kalakad wildlife sanctuary - Tirunelveli
C)Megamalai wildlife sanctuary - Theni & madurai
D)Chittarangudi bird sanctuary- Sivagangai
A
B
Tn
e/
C
D
Assertion:The word Pachai in Pachaimalai hills in tamil language means green
.m
Reason :The vegetation in this range is greener than the vegetative cover of the other hills in this
region
A)Assertion is true reason is false B)Assertion is false reason is true
C)Both assertion and reason are false D)Both assertion and reason are true
//t
s:
A B
C D
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Southwest monsoon?
tp
5
C D
In which hills Valparai hill station is located?
c8
A)Cardamom hills B) pazhani hills C)Anaimalai D)Chevrayan hills
A B C D
ps
Assertion:The vegetation in Mangrove forest is typically evergreen and not adapted to survive is
salty land
Reason :This type of forest are located at tails of island and river deltas
A)Assertion is true reason is false B)Assertion is false reason is true
C)Both assertion and reason are false
Tn D)Both assertion and reason are true
e/
A B
C D
Which of the following is not matched?
.m
A Km B Km CKm D Km
Match the following : a b c d
tp
a) West - 1. Bangladesh A) 4 3 2 1
b) Northwest - 2. China B) 2 3 1 4
c) North - 3.Afghanistan C) 1 2 3 4
ht
d) East - 4. Pakistan D) 3 1 2 4
a b c d
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
5
1.Everest 2.Doulagiri 3.namsa parvatham 4.Gurula Maruthatha 5.Nandhadevi
A)1,3 only B)1,2,4 only C)3,5only D)2 only
c8
A B C D
ps
Bomdila passes situated the state of
A)Himachal Pradesh B)Arunachal PradeshC)Sikkim D)Jammu and Kashmir
A B
C
1.Indus
A)1 and 2
2.Sutlej
D
B) 1 and 3
3.Kali
Tn
Between Which two rivers The Kumaon Himalayas were built?
4.Teesta
C) 3 and 5
5.dihang
D) 2 and 3
e/
A B C D
.m
The Indian desert Thar is classified into _________number of subtropical deserts
A)6 B)3 C)2 D)9
//t
A B C D
Which of the following river originates at Mahabaleshwar flow through Hamasaladeevi and
tp
empties at sea?
A)Cauvery B)Godavari C)Krishna D)Narmada
ht
5
A)Thar B)rajasthan C)Atacama D)Barren Island
c8
A B C D
Match the following : a b c d
Rainfall range - Forest A) 3 2 1 4
ps
a) 100-200cm - Tropical evergreen forest B) 3 1 2 4
b) 50 – 100 cm - tropical dry forest C) 2 1 3 4
c) Above 200 cm - tropical deciduous forest D) 1 2 3 4
d) Below 50 cm - Thorn forest
a. cm
b. cm cm
Tn
e/
c. cm
d. cm
a b c d
A)
.m
B)
C)
D)
Which of the following states have Blackbuck as state animal?
//t
A)AndhraPradesh,Kerala,Karnataka B)Haryana,Punjab,Gujarat
C)AndhraPradesh,Punjab,Haryana D)Telanganna,Jammu and Kashmir,Meghalaya
s:
A B
C D
Pachmarhi biosphere reserve is situated in the state of
tp
5
The rainfall received by Mawsynram (Meghalaya) is
A)11541 cm B)1141 cm C)1121 cm D)1161 cm
c8
A cm B cm C cm D cm
Pick out the incorrect one
ps
A)1952 - Suggestion of wildlife protection
B)1972 - Wildlife (Protection)act
C)500 - Wildlife sanctuaries
D)18 - Biosphere reserves
A
B
C
Tn
e/
D
Which of the following is not match?
1. Tamilnadu contribute 30% of garments to exports in India.
.m
2. Karur, Tirupur and Covai are called as the Textile valley of Tamilnadu
3. Annual Production of Silk in TN is 1100 Metric tones.
A) 1 Only B) 2 Only C) 3 Only D) 123
//t
s:
A) B) C) D)
Assertion (A) : The Nilgiris is the least Populated district of Tamilnadu.
tp
A) B)
C) D)
The Statistical study of the characteristics of human population is called _____
A) Demography B) Censes
C) Population D) Population bleeming
5
a) Sornawari - 1. Fruits A) 1 2 3
b) Samba - 2. Paddy B) 3 2 1
c8
c) Navarai - 3. Millets C) 2 1 3
D) 1 3 2
a b c
a) A) 1 2 3
ps
b) B) 3 2 1
c) C) 2 1 3
D) 1 3 2
The helpline number of “Disaster period of time
A) 1077
A)
B)
B) 1088
Tn C) 1099
C)
D) 1000
D)
Assertion : Covai, Tirupur and Erode districts are called as “Textile Valley of Tamilnadu
e/
Reason : These district are produced majore shares for growth in economy
A) A true & R are false B) A is false ; R is true
C) A is True ; R is false D) A & R are False
.m
//t
A) B)
C) D)
The number of co-operative & Private sugar mills in tamilnadu are
s:
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
Pick out the incorrect one
ps
1. National waterway 1 - Extends between Haldia and Allahabad
2. National waterway 2 - Extends between the river Dhubri and Sadiya
3.National waterway 3 - Extends between Kollam and Kottapuram in the state of kerala
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D)None of the above
Tn
e/
.m
A
B
C
tp
D
Consider the following statements and pick out the correct answer
1.Lowest sex ratio in the union territory
ht
5
Choose the correct answer for the following statements
1.World‟s highest border road constructed between _________ and ___________
c8
2.In India the mass migration is from____________to_____________
3.The India‟s first railway line started between ___________and__________
A) Chandigarh-Leh, Urban –Rural , Thane-Bombay
B) Leh –Chandigarh, Rural-Urban, Bombay-Thane
ps
C) Leh-Ladakh, Urban-City, Thane-Bombay
D) None of the above
Tn
e/
A
B
.m
C
D
The major ports in the West Coast of India are
1.Kandla 2.Mumbai 3.Nhava Seva
//t
4.Marmagoa 5.Paradip
A) 4, 5 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4
s:
5
c8
ISRO
B
ps
A B C D
Assertion : One satellite have efficient to view one third part of globe
Reason : Satellites are mainly used for communication and meteorological applications.
A) Assertion is true but reason is false B) Assertion is false but reason is true
C) Both assertion and reason are false
Tn D) Both assertion and reason are true
e/
A B
C D
.m
tp
A B C D
Match the following: a b c d e
ht
a) Buddhism - 1. Church A) 2 1 5 4 3
b) Christianity - 2. Vihara B) 2 1 5 3 4
c) Hinduism - 3. Mosque C) 1 2 3 4 5
d) Islam - 4. Basadi D) 5 4 3 2 1
e) Jainism - 5. Temple
5
3.Australoid - Asiatic
4.Mongoloid - Australian
c8
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3, 4
ps
A B C D
When was the Gorkha earthquake occurred?
A) 2005 B) 2006
Tn
C) 2010 D) 2015
A B C D
Which refers to a system of total planning,Public ownership and state control on economic
activities?
A) Mixed Economy B)Capitalism C)Macro D)Socialism
5
4.Vietnam,China and Poland followed the capitalism
A)1,2,3 is true 4is false B)2,3,4 is true 1 is false
c8
C)1,3,4 is true 2 is false D)1,2,4 is true 3 is false
ps
A
C
Match the following :
- S.N.Agarwal
e/
b) National Planning commission - Leading Industrialist of Mumbai
c) Bombay Plan - Jawarhalal Nehru
d) Gandhian Plan - M.Vishveswaraya
.m
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 2 1 4
C)2 1 4 3
//t
D)1 4 3 2
a
s:
b
c
d
tp
a b c d
A
B
ht
C
D
Permanent settlement act was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in the year
A)1793 B)1858 C)1914 D)1948
A B C D
5
c8
ps
A B
C D
Which of the following is the base for the Nehru-Mahalanobis economic model?
A)Very short term plan B)Short term plan
C
Tn C)Long term plan
A B
D
D)Very long term plan
e/
Gandhian economics is based on the principle of
A)Socialistic Idea B)Ethical foundation C) Wealth scratch D)Socialism
.m
A B
C D
Arrange the descending order of the factors of migrations in India?
1.Occupation 2.Work 3.Marraige 4.Education
//t
5
d D
Which of the following is not a function of private sector companies?
c8
A)Improving infrastructure and services
B)Promoting and expanding existing business
C)Promoting innovation and modernization
ps
D)Providing reservation for the backwards
A
B
C
D
Which of the following is correct?
Tn
1.The literacy rate of Tamilnadu is higher than the average of the country rate
e/
2.Tamilnadu has lowest gross enrolment ratio in the country
A)Both are true B)1 only true C)Both are false D)2 only true
.m
A B C D
The responsible for the development of human resources in India is
//t
A B
C D
Which of the following statement is correct about the importance of GDP?
tp
5
C
c8
D
Which of the following is not matched?
ps
A)Detroit of Asia - Chennai
B)Steel City - Namakkal
C)Knitting city - Tiruppur
D) yarn bowl of India - Tamilnadu
A
C
Tn B
D
The economic position of India in terms of Purchasing Power Parity is
e/
A)Fourth B)Second C)Third D)First
A B C D
.m
B) 3 4 2 1
C) 3 1 2 4
D) 4 3 1 2
tp
a
b
ht
c
d
a b c d
A
B
C
D
5
D
BIMARU denotes
c8
A)States which having low birth rate B)States which having high death rate
C)States which having high population D)States which having low population
BIMARU
A
ps
B
C
D
Self Help Group Bank linked programme is started in the year
A)1990
A B
B)1992
C
Tn
C)2000
D
D)2005
A B
C D
Which of the following department has more importance during the Industry policy of revolution
1956?
//t
C D
Who said the “If the nature of the work is properly appreciated and applied,it will stand in the same
tp
A BV.K.R.V.
C D
Which of the following is not matched?
The codes which are not used to measure socio economic progress is
A)Black Money B)Life expectancy C)Employment D)Gross domestic product
5
B)Assertion and reason are true,reason for assertion is false
C)Assertion is true,Reason is false
c8
D)Assertion is false,reason is true
ps
A
B
C D
The important parameter of Malnutrition is
A)Weight Loss B)Growth deficiency
Tn
A
C) Anaemia
B
D)Kwashiorkhar
e/
C D
Which of the following pair is incorrect regarding the Literacy rate?
A) Andhra Pradesh- 67.02% B) Karnataka - 75.36%
.m
weighing 178 grams,Which was termed as rupiya.During which period the coin remained in use?
A)DelhiSultans,Marathas,Dutch B)Mughals,VijayanagarKingdoms,British
C)Arabs,Bhaminikingdoms,French D)Mughals,Marathas,British
s:
tp
A
B
C
ht
D
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the water sources for irrigation?
AWells - 62% BCanals - 24%
CLakes - 14% DIrrigation canals - 2 %
A B
C D
5
d D
Which of the following is not associated with secondary sector?
c8
A) Construction B) Production C) Small Industry D) Forest
A B C D
ps
Which of the following statement is correct?
1.Power Plant emits high level of Carbon-di-oxide which pollutes the environment.
Tn
2.Human resources are essential for the economic development of a country
3.Economic development refers to the growth of a particular person
4.For economic development,growth Index only required
A)All are true B)2,3 is true C)1,2 is true D)1,2,3 is true
e/
.m
//t
A B C D
s:
C D
Primary sector comprises of
A)Agriculture B)Automation C)Trade D)Bank
A B C D
Which of the following is not matched with Information technology economic zones?
A)Tirunelveli B)Coimbatore C)Madurai D)Kancheepuram
5
D)Assertion is true reason is false
c8
A
ps
B
C D
What is the long term plan to solve the problem?
2.Rice Import
3.Status of agricultural prices
Tn
1.Increasing agricultural Production and Productivity
A B C D
//t
A B CD
Which of the following is the main cause of poverty?
ht
5
A Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency
BMulti User Digital Ranking Assessment
c8
CMicrofinance and Union Development Reforming Agency
DMulti Units Development and Regional Agency
“GaribiHatao” means
A)Increasing food crops B)Increasing information knowledge
ps
C)Eradication of poverty D)Eradication of Illitercay
''
A B
C D
//t
Reason :The government planned to invest in the public sector and allowed more direct foreign
direct investment to the private sector
A)Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
tp
A
B
C
D
5
B)Both are false
C)Assertion is false,reason is true
c8
D)Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
ps
A
B
C
D
Match the following :
a) National Thermal Power Corporation
b) Shipping Corporation of India
Tn -
-
Navaratna
Mini Ratna-2
e/
c) Airports Authority of India - Mini Ratna-1
d) MECON - Maharatna
a b c d
.m
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 4 1 3 2
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 3 4 2 1
//t
a b c d
a A
b B
c C
s:
D) 2 3 4 1
a b c d
a A
b B
c C
d D
5
A)All are true B)1,2,3 is true C)1,2,4 is true D)1,3,4 is true
c8
ps
A B C D
Which of the following is the function of NITIAayog?
2.Decentralized planning
C)1,3,4 D)1,2,3,4
e/
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A B C D
Match the following : a b c d
//t
5
2.Money is what money does - Walker
3.Money is a difficult concept.It refers to not one but three tasks in different fields
c8
4.The value of the money is the purchasing power of commodities in a country
A)1,2 is true B)2,4 is true C)1,3 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
ps
A
a) Gold Coins -
B
Match the following :
Dinni
Tn
C D
A)
a
1
b
2
c
3
d
4
e/
b) Silver coins - Carolina B) 2 3 4 1
c) Copper coins - Angelina C) 2 3 1 4
d) Bronze coins - Cuproon D) 1 2 4 3
.m
a b c d
a A
b B
c C
d D
//t
Which of the following are dealing with financial ideas that mature is a short period of time with
high liquidity?
A)Debit Card B)Capital Market C)Money Market D)Inactive property
s:
A B
tp
C D
Name the store for long term loans and bonds
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
41 C 42 D 43 C 44 B 45 D 46 A 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 D
51 B 52 D 53 B 54 B 55 D 56 C 57 A 58 C 59 D 60 B
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61 C 62 D 63 B 64 D 65 D 66 A 67 C 68 D 69 A 70 C
71 C 72 B 73 B 74 D 75 C 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 B
81 C 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 A 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 B
91 A 92 D 93 D 94 A 95 A 96 C 97 A 98 B 99 A 100 B
ps
101 B 102 A 103 A 104 D 105 B 106 B 107 A 108 A 109 A 110 B
111 B 112 D 113 A 114 D 115 A 116 A 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 B 125 C 126 A 127 A 128 B 129 B 130 C
131 D 132 B 133 B 134 B 135 A 136 C 137 B 138 B 139 C 140 B
141 D 142 B 143 A 144 A 145
Tn
D 146 C 147 C 148 A 149 C 150 B
e/
.m
21 B 22 D 23 D 24 D 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 D
31 C 32 B 33 C 34 B 35 A 36 C 37 D 38 C 39 C 40 A
41 C 42 D 43 C 44 B 45 D 46 A 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 D
s:
51 B 52 D 53 B 54 B 55 D 56 C 57 A 58 C 59 D 60 B
61 C 62 D 63 B 64 D 65 D 66 A 67 C 68 D 69 A 70 C
71 C 72 B 73 B 74 D 75 C 76 A 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 B
tp
81 C 82 A 83 B 84 A 85 A 86 B 87 A 88 C 89 B 90 B
91 A 92 D 93 D 94 A 95 A 96 C 97 A 98 B 99 A 100 B
101 B 102 A 103 A 104 D 105 B 106 B 107 A 108 A 109 A 110 B
ht
111 B 112 D 113 A 114 D 115 A 116 A 117 C 118 B 119 A 120 D
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 B 125 C 126 A 127 A 128 B 129 B 130 C
131 D 132 B 133 B 134 B 135 A 136 C 137 B 138 B 139 C 140 B
141 D 142 B 143 A 144 A 145 D 146 C 147 C 148 A 149 C 150 B
¼åìç\çB sç>Ým ..... ØåÞÄÝç> WtìÝm..!
WtìÝm
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TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
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4 þçáï^.
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TAF xÝ>tµ TEST BATCH
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TNPSC GROUP – II
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ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
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GOAL - 2
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õ = ÖçÄ Š 7 / åV^ Š 07.10.2021
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Ø\VÝ>
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TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 2 (ÖçÄ Š 7) TOTAL MARKS: 150
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POLITY, ECONOMICS, GEOGRAPHY
¶«EBéç\©A
Tn
1. Examine the following statement about Article 370 and choose the correct option.
A) Not granting special autonomy to Jammu and Kashmir
B) Government of India revoked special status on August 5, 2019
C) Both correct D) None
e/
c®©A 370 z¤Ým ¸[kòD íuçÅ g«VFÍm ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ìï.
A) ÛDx Š ïVi*ì Ãz]Âz EÅ©A >[ªVâE >z] kwºzkm ¶_é
B) ÖÍ]B ¶«· gïü| 5, 2019 ¶[® EÅ©A >z]çB «Ým ØÄF>m
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A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 3
¶«E[ Øå¤xçÅ ¼ïVâÃV|ï^ z¤Ým ¸[kòkªku¤_ ¨m ÄöBVª íu®?
1.Äâ¦]òÝ>D ØÄFB ÖBéVm.
2.¨Í> À]\[ÅxD ØÄB_Ã|Ý> x½BVm
3.åVâ½[ WìkVïÝ]_ ¶½©Ãç¦BVªm
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 2, 3
4. Examine the following statement regarding the total members of the Lok Sabha.
1.Total number of members 545
2.12 Members are appointed by the President.
3. 543 Members elected by the People
4.Members should resign every two years
A) 1, 2, 3 incorrect B) 2, 4 incorrect C) 1, 2 correct D) 3, 4 correct
\Âïáçk Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï^ z¤Ým ¸[kòD íuçÅ g«VFï.
1.Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï¹[ ¨õèÂçï 545
2.12 c®©¸ªì z½B«·Ý>çék«V_ WBtÂï©Ã|þ[Ūì.
5
3.543 c®©¸ªì ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠\Âï^ ¸«]W]ï^
4.c®©¸ªìï^ Ö«õ| gõ|Âz ÎòxçÅ Ã>s séï ¼kõ|D.
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A) 1, 2, 3 >k® B) 2, 4 >k® C) 1, 2 Äö D) 3, 4 Äö
5. Find the incorrect procedure followed in electing the President
A) Indirect electoral system
B) Votes of elected members of both houses of the parliament
ps
C) Votes of Legislative members of state/union territories
D) Votes of nominated members of both houses of the parliament
z½B«·Ý >çékç« ¼>ì¡ ØÄFk]_ ï禸½ÂzD xçÅl_ >kÅVªm ¨m?
A) \çÅxï ¼>ì>_ xçÅ
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B) åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ~«çkï¹_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D c®©¸ªìï^ kVÂz
C) \VWé/Î[¤B gÓçïÂzâÃ⦠Ãz] Äâ¦\[źï¹[ c®©¸ªìï¹[ kVÂz
D) ~«çkï¹[ WB\ª c®©¸ªìï¹[ kVÂz
6. Consider the following statement about Rajyasabha.
e/
1.238 members are elected by the State and Union Governed region’s Legislatures.
2. 12 members are nominated by the President.
3.It’s a Permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
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ØÄFB©Ã|þ[Ūì.
2.12 c®©¸ªìïçá z½B«·Ý >çékì WB\ªD ØÄFþÅVì.
3.W«Í>«\Vª ¶ç\©A ïçéÂï©Ã¦ x½BVm.
s:
tenure?
A) Kamarajar B) MGR C) Karunanidhi D) S. Subramaniam
Ö«VÛV÷ gâEÂïVéÝ]_ ØïVõ|k«©Ã⦠¶½©Ãç¦ ï_sÝ ]â¦D «Ým ØÄFB©Ã|k>Vï
ht
¶¤sÝ>kì BVì?
A) ïV\«VÄì B) ¨D.÷.gì C) ïòðVW] D) Ä. ·©«\èBD
8. An Anglo-Indian representative appointed by the Governor in the Tamil Nadu Legislative
Assembly under the article ___
A) 335 B) 333 C) 334 D) 332
>twï Äâ¦\[ÅÝ]_ ¨Í> c®©¸[ ÿµ gºþ¼éV Š ÖÍ]B ¸«]W] Îòkì gÓå«V_
WBtÂï©Ã|þÅVì?
A) 335 B) 333 C) 334 D) 332
5
z¤©¸¦©Ã¦s_çé
3.Ä«Ým 343 Î[¤B ¶«E[ ¶Kk_ Ø\Va 1963Âz© ¸[ ÖÍ] Ø\VaBVï¼k ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D ¨[®
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í®þÅm.
4.ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A céþ¼é¼B Àá\Vª ¨¿>©Ã⦠¶«Äç\©A
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 1, 3 Äö D) 2, 3 Äö
10. Consider the following about free compulsory education in fundamental rights.
ps
1. 82nd Amendment 2002.
2. Article 21(B) of the Constitution of India mentions about this
3.Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 was enacted based on this.
C) 2, 3, 4 correct
Tn
4. This scheme is applicable to children in the age group of 6 to 14 years.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 1, 3, 4 correct
D) 1, 2, 4 correct
¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï¹_ ÖékÄ ïâ¦VB ï_s kwºzkç> z¤Ým ÿµÂïõ¦kuçÅ g«VFï.
1.82km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D 2002
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2.ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©A c®©A 21(B) Ö>çª í®þÅm
3.EÅVì ÖékÄ ïâ¦VB ï_s Äâ¦D 2009 Ö>çª ¶½©Ãç¦BVï ØïVõ| ÖBuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
4.6 kBm x>_ 14 kBm kç« c^á zwÍç>ïÓÂz ÖÝ]â¦D ØÃVòÍmD.
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A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 1, 3, 4 Äö C) 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 4 Äö
11. Based on the proposal by the Cabinet Committee (Britain), each province is not allotted seats,
according to the population ratio of _______communities
A) Hindu B) Sikh C) Muslim D) Christian
//t
13. Who began hunger strike to separate Telugu speaking people from Madras and form a separate state
with Chennai as its capital?
A) Sankaralinganar B) Potti Sri Ramalu
C) Ma.Po.Sivagnanam D) Jeevanandam
\>«Vü \VWéÝ]oòÍm Ø>Kºz ¼Ã·D \Âïçá ¸öÝm ØÄ[çªçB >çéåï«Vï ØïVõ|
>M\VWéD ¶ç\Âï ¼kõ|D ¨ª cõðVs«> ¼ÃV«Vâ¦D å¦Ý]Bkì BVì?
A) ĺï«oºïªVì B) ØÃVâ½ p «V\K
C) \.ØÃV. EkQVªD D) ýkVªÍ>D
14. Match. a b c d
5
a. Free Compulsory Education Act - 1. 1976 A) 1 4 2 3
b. Dowry Prohibition Act - 2. 1961 B) 1 2 3 4
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c. Prevention of Terriorism Act - 3. 2009 C) 1 3 2 4
d. 42nd Amendment act - 4. 2002 D) 3 2 4 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
ps
a. EÅVì ÖékÄ ïâ¦VB ï_s Äâ¦D Š 1. 1976 A) 1 4 2 3
b. k«>âÄçð Îa©A Äâ¦D Š 2. 1961 B) 1 2 3 4
c. ÃBºï«kV> >|©Aß Äâ¦D Š 3. 2009 C) 1 3 2 4
d. 42km Äâ¦Ý]òÝ>D Š 4. 2002 D) 3 2 4 1
ØïV^ás_çé?
1.¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^ 2.À] æ«VF¡
3.ÎuçÅ z½¥öç\ 4.¶«Äç\©A ]òÝ>xçÅ
ht
A) 1. 2 B) 3, 4 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 4
17. Examine the following statement regarding property rights.
1. In the beginning, property rights were a fundamental right.
2. The property right was mentioned in the article 31(a).
3.42nd Amendment act, 1976 removed the right to property from fundamental rights.
4.Legal right – article 300(a)
A) Only 1 incorrect B) 2 only incorrect
C) 3 only incorrect D) Only 4 incorrect
5
2. The sessions of the Constituent Assembly consists of 12 parts.
3. The constitution is flexible only.
c8
4.The Constitution was adopted on January 26, 1950
A) 1, 2 correct B) 3, 4 correct C) 1, 4 incorrect D) 2, 3incorrect
ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©A còkVÂïD Ø>V¦ìAç¦B ïòÝ]çª g«VFï.
1.x>_ íâ¦Ý Ø>V¦ö_ ¦V¦ì ÄßE>VªÍ> E[ÇVçk >uïVoï >çék«Vï ÖòÂzDý
ps
¼ïâ|ÂØïVõ¦Vì ¼Û.¸.þòÃV¹M.
2.WìðB ÄçÃl[ skV>ºï¹[ Ø>Vz©A 12 Ø>Vz]ïçá ØïVõ¦m.
3.¶«Äç\©A Øåþµ¡Ý >[ç\ \â|D ØïVõ¦m.
4.¶«EBéç\©A 1950 Ûªkö 26 ¶[® °u®ÂØïV^á©Ãâ¦m.
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö
19. Indian Citizenship Act passed in the year
A) 1952 B) 1953
Tn
C) 1, 4 >k® D) 2, 3 >k®
C) 1954 D) 1955
ÖÍ]B z½¥öç\ Äâ¦D WçżkuÅ©Ã⦠gõ| ¨m?
e/
A) 1952 B) 1953 C) 1954 D) 1955
20. Who brought the national emergency in our country in the year 1975?
A) Morarji Desai B) VP Singh C) Indira Gandhi D) Rajiv Gandhi
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a. Äâ¦Ý][ gâE Š 1. ¶BìéVÍm A) 1 2 3 4
b. À]©Aª«VF¡ Š 2. 1935 ÖÍ]B ¶«·ß Äâ¦D B) 4 3 2 1
c. 356km s] Š 3. ÖºþéVÍm C) 3 4 1 2
d. ¶«E[ kaïVâ| Øå¤xçÅ Š 4. ¶Ø\öÂïV D) 3 4 2 1
24. Who is the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A) B.R. Ambedkar B) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
C) Jawaharlal Nehru D) Gandhiji
5
ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A WìðB ÄçÃl[ ¼Ã«çk >çék«Vï ØÄB_Ãâ¦kì?
A) B.R.¶D¼ÃÝïVì B) Dr.«V¼ÛÍ]« ¸«ÄVÝ
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C) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò D) ïVÍ]÷
25. In which draft bill, the President cannot convene a joint meeting to enact it?
1.Bill 2.Money Bill 3.Constitutional Amendment Act 4. None
A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D) 4 only
ps
¨Ëkç«s[ ¼ÃVm z½B«·Ý >çék«V_ íâ| íâ¦Ý]çª íâ½ Äâ¦\VÂï x½BVm?
1.Ä⦠x[kç«¡ 2.Ãð x[kç«¡
3.¶«EB_ ¶ç\©A ]òÝ>ßÄâ¦D 4. ¨m¡t_çé
A) 1, 2 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D) 4 \â|D
C) B.R.Ambedkar
Tn
26. Who said that “The Constitution of India was created after ransacking other Constitutions ”?
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B) E.V.R
D) Ivor Jennings
''ÖÍ]B ¶«Äç\©A Äâ¦\Vªm ¸Å ¶«Äç\©A Ä⦺ï¹oòÍm óçÅBV½ ØÄFB©Ãâ¦m''
e/
¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) ÛkÇìéV_ ¼åò B) ~.Øk.«V C) B.R.¶D¼ÃÝïVì D) Û¼éVì Û[Mºü
27. What does the concept of the rule of law mean?
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A) 1, 2 B) 2 only C) 1, 3 D) 3 only
Äâ¦Ý][ gâE ¨[Å ïòÝ>VÂïD cðìÝmkm?
1.>[MßçÄBVª ¶]ïV«D ¨[Ãm Ö_éV\oò©Ãm
s:
2.ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ¼\é]ïV«Ýç>
3.Äâ¦Ý][ x[ ¶çªkòD Ä\D ¨[Ãç>
¼\uïõ¦ku¤oòÍm ÄöBVª Ã]_ ¼>ìÍØ>|.
tp
A) 1, 2 B) 2 \â|D C) 1, 3 D) 3 \â|D
28. Find the incorrect option from the following.
A) First Meeting of the Constituent Assembly - December 9, 1946
ht
5
3.ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A \>ÄVìÃuÅ åVâ½çª °uÃ|Ý]¥^ám.
4.ÖÍ]B ¶«EBéç\©A íâ¦VâE xçÅ ¶«·Âz ¨]«Vªm.
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A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3
30. Which constitutional amendment added the word "socialism" &"secular"?
A) 1st Amendment Act, 1950 B) 11th Amendment Act, 1963
C) 41st Amendment, 1976 D) 42nd Amendment, 1976
ps
¨Í> ¶«EBéç\©A ]òÝ> Äâ¦D ÿµ ''¼ÄVÄoÄD'' (\) ''\>ßÄVìÃuÅ'' ¨[Å kVìÝç> ¼ÄìÂï©Ã⦪?
A) 1km ]òÝ>ß Äâ¦D, 1950 B) 11km ]òÝ>ß Äâ¦D, 1963
C) 41km ]òÝ>ßÄâ¦D, 1976 D) 42km ]òÝ>ßÄâ¦D, 1976
C) Pattabi Sittaramaiah
ÿµÂïõ¦kìï¹_ ¨kì kç«¡Âz¿ c®©¸ª«Vï Ö¦DØÃÅs_çé?
Tn
31. Which of the following is not a member of the Drafting Committee?
A) K.M.Munshi B) Alladi Krishnasami Iyer
D) Krishnamachari
A) The Bill which provides for 33% reservation in legislatures was passed in the Rajya Sabha
in 2010.
B) Not passed in LokSabha.
ht
C) Both correct
D) Both incorrect
åV¦VÓ\[ÅD \u®D Äâ¦\[źï¹_ ØÃõïÓÂz ¶¹ÂzD Ö¦ ÎmÂÿ| Ãu¤ ÿµïVbD
íuçÅ g«VFï.
A) Äâ¦\[źï¹_ 33% Ö¦ÎmÂÿ|Âz kçï ØÄF¥D ÖÍ> Ä⦠x[kç«¡ 2010Š_
\VWéºïáçkl_ WçżkuÅ©Ãâ¦m.
B) \Âïáçkl_ Wçżkuũæs_çé.
C) Ö«õ|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
34. Which of the following persons can be removed by the process of Impeachment?
1. President 2. Vice President 3.Supreme Court Judges 4. Governor
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 4, 3
ÿµÂïVbD åÃìï¹_ BVç« Ã>s ÀÂïD ØÄF¥D xçÅ ""ÃaßÄVâ|>_"" ¨[® ¶çwÂï©Ã|þÅm.
1. z½B«·Ý >çékì 2. mçð z½B«·Ý>çékì
3. cßÄÀ]\[Å À]Ã]ï^ 4. gÓåì
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 4, 3
35. Council of Ministers, individually and collectively responsible to
A) Lok Sabha B) Rajya Sabha C) Supreme Court Judge D) Vice President
5
¶ç\ßÄìï^, >MÝ>MBVï¡D íâ¦Vï¡D BVòÂz ØÃV®©Aç¦Bkìï^?
A) \ÂïáçkÂz B) \VWéºïáçkÂz
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C) cßÄ À]\[Å À]Ã] D) mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì
36. _______of the total members should be present to hold the Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha session?
A) 1/3 B) 2/3 C) 1/10 D) 2/10
\Âïáçk & \VWéºïáçk íâ¦ÝØ>V¦ç« å¦Ýmk>uz Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï¹_ ŠŠŠŠŠ úz
ps
c®©¸ªìï^ ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D?
A) 1/3 B) 2/3 C)1/10 D) 2/10
37. Match. (Members of the Lok Sabha) a b c d
a. Total members
b. Members elected by the people
c. Anglo - Indian Members
d. Majority members
Tn
- 1. 2
- 2. 552
- 3. 543
- 4. 545
A)
B)
C)
D)
4
1
4
4
1
2
3
3
2
3
2
1
3
4
1
2
ØÃVòÝmï. (\Âïáçk c®©¸ªìï^) a b c d
e/
a. Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï^ Š 1. 2 A) 4 1 2 3
b. \ÂïáV_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|D c®©¸ªìï^ Š 2. 552 B) 1 2 3 4
c. gºþ¼éV Š ÖÍ]B[ c®©¸ªìï^ Š 3. 543 C) 4 3 2 1
.m
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö
39. Choose the correct option :
1. Nominated members cannot decide on a resolution to prove majority strength.
2. Members of both houses are called Members of Parliament.
3. A Parliamentary constituency consists of 6 Assembly constituencies in the State
4. The tenure of the Lok Sabha members is six years.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2, 4 correct C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) 2, 3, 4 correct
5
reporting
3. Presiding over the Joint Session of Parliament.
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4. Power to disqualify a member according to the Anti-defection law
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2, 3 correct C) 2, 3, 4 correct D) 1, 3, 4 correct
ÄÃVåVBïö[ ØÃV®©A z¤Ým ÿµÂïõ¦kuçÅ g«VFï.
1. Îò ]òÝ> Äâ¦D x[Ø\Vak>uz ¶Ð\] ØÃÅ ¼kõ|D.
ps
2. EÅ©Aöç\ z¤Ým ¨Í> sáÂïxD ¼kõ½ gF¡ ØÄFB¡D, sÄV«çð å¦Ý>¡D \u®D
¶¤Âçï ¶¹Âï¡D cöç\ z¿¡Âz ÃöÍmç«©Ãm.
3. åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ íâ| íâ¦Ý Ø>V¦òÂz >çéç\ >VºzÃkì.
4. Îò c®©¸ªç« ïâEÝ>Vko[ ý >z] Öw©A ØÄF¥D ¶]ïV«D.
A)1, 2, 3, 4 Äö B) 1, 2, 3 Äö C) 2, 3, 4 Äö
Tn D) 1, 3, 4 Äö
41. Who can cast his vote, when the vote is in tie on any issue, for both parties of parliament?
A) President B) Vice President C) Speaker D) Governor
åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ ÖòAÅxD kVÂz Ä\Wçél_ ÖòÂzD ¼ÃVm BVì >ªm kVÂçï
e/
ØÄKÝ>éVD?
A) z½B«· >çékì B) mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì
C) ÄÃVåVBïì D) gÓåì
.m
42. In which year, the requirement of being a resident of State or Union territory from which a person
seeks to contest elections to Rajya Sabha was removed ?
A) 1956 B) 1976 C) 1951 D) 2003
\VWéºïáçkÂz ¼ÃVâ½l|D Îòkì ¶Í> \VWéÝ]_ kE©Ãk«Vï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D ¨[Å
//t
44. Match. a b c d
a. Total Members - 1. 238 A) 3 4 2 1
b. States and Union Territories - 2. 30 B) 4 1 3 2
ht
c. Nominated Members - 3. 12 C) 4 3 2 1
d. Eligible Age - 4. 250 D) 1 2 3 4
ØÃVòÝmï. ` a b c d
a. Ø\VÝ> c®©¸ªìï^ Š 1. 238 A) 3 4 2 1
b. \VWéºï^ \u®D RMB[ ¸«¼>ĺï¹oòÍm Š 2. 30 B) 4 1 3 2
c. WB\ª c®©¸ªìï^ Š 3. 12 C) 4 3 2 1
d. >z]BVª kBm Š 4. 250 D) 1 2 3 4
5
A) Äâ¦D ÖBu®>_ B) Ã>s ÀÂïD
C) Äâ¦Ý ]òÝ>D D) ¶kÄ« Wçé ¸«ï¦ªD
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47. Choose the correct option about the members of the Rajya Sabha.
1. Members are elected on the basis of population of the States.
2. Uttar Pradesh - 31 members (More populated).
ps
3. Sikkim - 1 member (Less populated)
4. Tamil Nadu - 18 Members
A) 1,2correct B) 3, 4 correct C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct
\VWéºïáçk c®©¸ªìï^ Ãu¤ ÄöBVªç> ¼>ìï.
Tn
1. \VWéºï¹[ \Âï^ Ø>Vçï ¶½©Ãç¦l_ c®©¸ªìï^ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|þ[Ūì.
2. cÝ]«¸«¼>Ä \VWéD Š 31 c®©¸ªìï^ (¶]ï \Âï^ Ø>Vçï).
3. EÂþD Š 1 c®©¸ªì (zçÅkVª \Âï^ Ø>Vçï)
4. >tµåV| Š 18 c®©¸ªìï^.
A) 1,2 Äö B) 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
e/
48. The members cannot be arrested in civil cases, during the session of Parliament, _______ days
before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.
A) 40 B) 30 C) 25 D) 35
.m
A) 10 B) 7 C) 14 D) 20
ÃðD ÄVìÍ> å¦k½Âçïï¹_ \VWéºïáçk ¨Ý>çª åVâïÓÂz \â|¼\
ïVé>V\>\©Ã|Ý> x½¥D?
s:
A) 10 B)7 C)14 D) 20
50. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Lok Sabha.
1. Amending the Constitution.
tp
51. Which article can authorize the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List?
A) 110 B) 249 C) 312 D) 120
Ä«Ým ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ[ ý \VWéºïáçk \VWé©Ãâ½Bo_ z¤©¸¦©Ãâ½òÂzD ¶]ïV«ºï¹_ Äâ¦D ÖBuÅ
x½¥D?
A) 110 B) 249 C)312 D) 120
52. Which article states that Hindi and English will be the official languages of Parliament?
A) 110 B) 249 C) 312 D) 120
åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ]_ ¶Kk_ Ø\VaBVï ÖÍ]¥D gºþéxD ÖòÂzD ¨ª í®D Ä«Ým?
A) 110 B) 249 C)312 D) 120
5
53. Arrange the following stages of the bill:
1. First Reading 2. Committee stage 3. Report stage
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4. Second Reading 5. Third Reading
A) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2 B) 1, 4, 2, 3, 5 C) 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
ÿµÂïõ¦kuçÅ Äâ¦x[kç«¡ WçéçB ØïVõ| köçÄ©Ã|Ýmï.
1. x>_ kVE©A 2. z¿Wçé 3. ¶¤Âçï Wçé
ps
4. Ö«õ¦VD kVE©A 5. J[ÅVD kVE©A
A) 1, 4, 5, 3, 2 B)1, 4, 2, 3, 5 C)1, 3, 2, 5, 4 D) 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
54. How many months can Rajya sabha suspend an ordinary bill?
A) 3 months B) 6 months
Tn C) 1 month
ÄV>V«ð Ä⦠x[ kç«çk \VWéºïáçk ¨Ý>çª \V>Ý]uz W®Ý] çkÂï x½¥D?
A) 3 \V>D B) 6 \V>D C) 1 \V>D D) 4 \V>D
55. In 2010-12, Lok Sabha worked for ________sittings
D) 4 months
countries?
1. Singapore 2. Japan
3.Italy 4. USA
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4correct
//t
3. ÖÝ>Vo 4. ¶Ø\öÂïV
A) 1, 2 Äö B) 2, 3 Äö
C) 1, 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
tp
57. What is the majority required to create or abolish the upper house in the states?
A) Simple majority of Parliament
B) Special majority of Parliament
ht
58. Which of the following does not require the special majority of Parliament and the approval of the
States?
1. Election of the President.
2. To decide on the number of judges in the Supreme Court.
3. Supreme Court and High Court
4. Fundamental Rights
A) 1 & 2 B) 3 & 2 C) 2 & 4 D) 1 & 4
ÿµÂïõ¦ku¤_ ¨ku®Âz åV¦VÓ\[ÅÝ][ EÅ©A ØÃòDÃV[ç\ \u®D \VWéºï¹[
ΩA>KD ¼>çkl_çé?
5
1. z½B«·Ý >çékç« ¼>ìÍØ>|Ý>_.
2. cßÄ À]\[ÅÝ]_ À]Ã]ï¹[ ¨õèÂçï x½¡ ØÄF>_.
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3. cßÄ À]\[ÅD \u®D cBìÀ]\[ÅD
4. ¶½©Ãç¦ cöç\ï^.
A) 1 & 2 B)3 & 2 C)2 & 4 D) 1 & 4
59. Who among the following is nominated by the Governor?
ps
1. Appointment of State Cabinet
2. State Advocate General.
3. Members of the State Public Service Commission.
4. One Anglo-Indian for the Legislative Assembly of the State
A) 1, 2 correct B) 3, 4 correct
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ gÓåì JéD WB\ªD ØÄFB©Ã|Ãkì BVì?
1. ¶ç\ßÄ«çk WB\ªD.
2. \VWé ¶«· >çéç\ kwÂï¤Qì.
Tn
C) 1, 2, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3, 4correct
61. Which provision of the Constitution empowers the President of India to appoint two members of
the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha?
A) 335 B) 336 C) 331 D) 334
ht
63. Select the correct option regarding the qualifications to become a Member of Rajya Sabha.
1. He/ She should be at least 30 years of age.
2. The person must be an elector in a parliamentary constituency in the State from where he/she
seeks election to Rajya Sabha.
3. He/ She should not hold any office of profit in the State.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 3 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) 1, 2, 3correct
\VWéºïáçk c®©¸ªì gk>uïVª >z]ï^ Ø>V¦ìÃVª ÿµÂïõ¦ íu¤_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ¼>ìï.
1. zçÅÍ>ÃâÄD 30 kBmç¦Bk«Vï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
2. ¼kâÃVáì ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠\VWéÝ]_ c^á kVÂïVáìï¹[ Ãâ½Bo_ kVÂïVá«Vï
5
Ã]¡ ØÄFB©Ãâ½òÂï ¼kõ|D.
3. \VWéÝ]_ g>VBD >òD ¨Í> Ã>slKD ÖòÂï í¦Vm.
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A) 1, 2 Äö B) 1, 3 Äö C) 2, 3 Äö D) 1, 2, 3 Äö
64. Prior approval of the President of India is required before introducing ____Bill in Parliament
1. Creation of a new state.
2. Impact of taxation in states.
ps
3. Change boundaries of states.
4. Money Bill
A) 1, 2 & 4 B) 2, 3, & 4 C) 1, 2, & 3 D) All of the above
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu®: s] 368Š[ý ÃV«VÓ\[ÅD ¶«EBéç\©¸[ ¨Í> Ãz]çB¥D ]òÝ>éVD.
ïV«ðD: ÃV«VÓ\[ÅD ÖÍ]B \ÂïáV_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠Îò cßÄ Äâ¦\[ÅD gzD.
A) íu® & ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD.
B) íu® & ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é.
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® gªV_ ïV«ðD Äö
67. Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha before the end of the term?
A) President's wish
B) Speaker
C) President with the recommendation of council of ministers
D) President with the recommendation of the Speaker
Ã>sÂïVéD x½¥D x[ªì \ÂïáçkçB ïçéÂï x½¥D?
A) z½B«·Ý >çékö[ sò©ÃD
B) ÄÃVåVBïì
C) ¶ç\ßÄìï^ z¿s[ ÃöÍm竩ý z½B«· >çék«V_
5
D) ÄÃVåVBïì ÃöÍm竩ý z½B«·Ý >çék«V_
68. Indian Parliament controls the functions of the Council of Ministers through?
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1. Adjournment
2. Question Hour
3. Supplementary questions
ps
A) 1 only B) 2 & 3 C) 1 & 3 D) 1, 2, & 3
ÖÍ]B ÃV«VÓ\[ÅD ¶ç\ßÄìï^ z¿s[ ØÄB_ÃV|ïçá ¨>[ JéD ïâ|©Ã|ÝmþÅm?
1. ÎÝ] çkÝ>_
2. ¼ï^s ¼å«D
3. mçð ¼ï^sï^
A) 1 \â|D B) 2&3 C) 1& 3 TnD) 1, 2, & 3
69. Assertion A : The money bill introduced only in the lower house of Parliament.
Reason R : The lower house of parliament is generally an elected body.
e/
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
.m
D) A incorrect, R correct
íu®: Ãð \¼ÄV>V ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ÿwçkl_ ÖòÍm \â|¼\ mkºzþÅm.
ïV«ðD: ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ][ ÿwçkBVªm Îò ØÃVmkVª ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã⦠¶ç\©A.
A) íu® & ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD.
B) íu® & ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö; ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é.
//t
A) President
B) Parliament
tp
A) z½B«· >çék«V_
B) ÃV«VÓ\[ÅÝ>V_
C) mçð z½B«·Ý >çékì Ã>s kaÝ >çék«VkVì.
D) \VWéºïáçk c®©¸ª«V_ ¼>ìÍØ>|Âï©Ã|þÅVì.
AslB_
71. Match the following:
a) Africa - 1. Antecedent boundaries
b) Occupied Kashmir - 2. Superimposed boundaries
c) Persia - 3. Subsequent boundaries
d) European countries - 4. Relict boundaries
a b c d
5
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 1 2 3 4
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C) 1 2 4 3
D) 4 3 1 2
ØÃVòÝmï.(¨_çé¼ïV|ï¹[ \«A ÄVìÍ> kçï©ÃV|)
a.g©¸öÂïV Š 1. xÍç>B ¨_çé¼ïV|ï^
ps
b.gÂþ«tÂï©Ã⦠ïVi*ì Š 2. ¶|Âïç\¡ ¨_çé¼ïV|ï^
c.ØÃìEBV Š 3. ¸[Ø>V¦òD ¨_çé¼ïV|ï^
d.n¼«V©¸B åV|ï^ Š 4. ¨ÞEB ¨_çé ¼ïV|ï^
A)
B)
C)
1
1
a
4
b
3
2
2
c
2
3
4
d
1
4
3
Tn
e/
D) 4 3 1 2
72. Statement 1:Bhils-They are the most widely distributed tribal groups in India.They are the largest
tribe of west asia.
.m
Statement 2: Gonds-They are one of the largest tribal groups in the world and for the long time have
been practicing the Hindus Culture and tradition.
Statement 3:Santhals-They are the second largest tribe in India.They have been the great fighters
from the time of the british
//t
Statement 4: Munda-Munda tribe mainly inhabit in the region of Jharkhand.Hunting is the main
occupation of the mundas tribe
A)Statement 1,2 is true 3,4 is false B)Statement 1,3 is false 2,4 is true
s:
íu® 2: ¼ïVõ|ï^ –Ökìï^ céþ[ tï©ØÃöB Ãwºz½lª z¿Âï¹[ Î[ÅVkì. Ökìï^ Àõ¦
ïVé\Vï ÖÍm ïéVßÄV«D \u®D \«Aïçá© ¸[Ãu¤ kòþ[Ūì.
íu® 3: ÄVÍ>éìï^ –Ökìï^ ÖÍ]BVs[ Ö«õ¦Vkm ØÃöB Ãwºzl½ªì gkì. Ök«Â^ ¸öâ½i
ht
5
1.Ökìï^ céþ[ tï gÃÝ>Vª Ãwºz½lªìï^ gkVìï^.
2.Ökìï^ ÖÍ]B ØÃòºï¦o_ c^á kºïVá söz¦Vs_ ¶ç\Ím^á k¦Âz ØÄ[½ª_ ¨ÐD
c8
y¡ Ãz]l_ kEÂþ[Ūì.
3.Ökìï¹[ x>[ç\BVª Ø>Va_ ¼káVõç\ \u®D ¼kâç¦BV|ÃkìïáVï¡D, cð¡
¼Äïö©ÃkìïáVï¡D ÖòÂþ[Ūì.
4.Ökìï¹[ x>[ç\BVª cð¡ ¼>ºïVF \u®D *[ gzD.
ps
A) 1, 3 >k® 2, 4 Äö B) 3 >k® 1, 2, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 2, 4 >k® 1, 3 Äö
74. G.L.Trage has classified the languages of the world into __________linguistic phylums and_____
linguistic families
A)7,29 B)30,7
Tn
C)8,30 D)7,30
G.L.⼫ë céï Ø\Vaïçá .................. Ø\VaÝØ>Vz] \u®D ............ Ø\Va z|DúïáVï
kçï©Ã|Ý>¥^áVì.
A) 7, 29 B) 30, 7 C) 8, 30 D) 7, 30
75. Assertion : Language is an identification marks for different cultures
e/
Reason : Language is essential to communication, it strongly influences the sort of political,
social and economic we create
A) Assertion is true reason is false B) Assertion is false reason is true
.m
C) Both assertion and reason are true D) Both assertion and reason are false
íu® : Ø\Va Ã_¼k® ïéVßÄV«ºï¹[ ¶ç¦BVá z¤X¦Vï ÖòÂþÅm.
ïV«ðD : >ïk_ Ø>V¦ìAÂz Ø\Va Ö[¤Bç\BV>>V_ åVD còkVÂzD ¶«EB_ ÄJï \u®D
ØÃVòáV>V«D ¼ÃV[ÅkuçÅ Öm kKkVï ÃV]ÂþÅm.
//t
subcontinent
B) The ancient indus valley civilization in india was not believed to have been of Dravidian origin
in northern india
C)The five major ethnic groups of Dravidian people in India are Tamil,Telugu,Kannada,Malayalam
and Tulu
D)The Dravidian people were pushed south when the Indo Aryans came in and the kuru kingdom in
northern Indian arose
5
78. 1.Tribes live in Tropical central Africa is
2.Tribes live in North Africa is
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3.Tribes live in Kalahari desert is
4.Tribes live in Canadian northland
Choose the correct option for the above statements
A)Eskimos,Bushman,Bedouin,Pigmies B)Pigmies,Bedouin,Bushman,Eskimos
ps
C)Pigmies,Bushman,Bedouin,Eskimos D) Bushman,Pigmies,Bedouin,Eskimos
1.Øk©Ã\õ¦é \Ý]B g©¸öÂïV Ãz]l_ kV¿D Ãwºz½lªì ...............
2.k¦ g©¸öÂïVs_ kEÂzD Ãwºz½lªì ..................
3.ïéïVö ÃVçékªÝ]_ kEÂzD Ãwºz½lªì....................
Tn
4.益Vs[ k¦Âz Ãz]l_ kV¿D Ãwºz½lªì ..................
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ïÓÂz ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á]_ ÄöBVª sç¦ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ¨üÿ¼\VÂï^, AiØ\[, ¸¼¦VF[, ¸Â*Âï^
B) ¸Â*Âï^, ¸¼¦VF[, AiØ\[, ¨üÿ¼\VÂï^
e/
C) ¸Â*Âï^, AiØ\[, ¸¼¦VF[, ¨üÿ¼\VÂï^
D) AiØ\[, ¸Â*Âï^, ¸¼¦VF[, ¨üÿ¼\VÂï^
79. China has the maximum number of maximum neighbours touching its border.How many counties
.m
A) 10 B) 15 C) 13 D) 14
80. Consider the following statements regarding the effects of floods
1.Water Pollution
s:
2.Soilersion
3.Torrential rainfall
4.Stagnation of water
tp
81. Among the following statements one is different from others, Choose the right one :
A) Don’t try to connect electricity once it is cut
B) Don’t operate vehicles
C) Keeping umbrella and bamboo poles
D) Don’t neglect flood warning messages
ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ã⦠kVÂþBºï¹_ Î[ÅVªm \uÅ J[¤_ ÖòÍm ¼k®Ãâ¦m ¶ç> ÄöBVï
¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) mõ½Âï©Ã⦠t[ Öçð©çà c¦¼ª ÖçðÝ>_ í¦Vm
B) kõ½ïçá ÖBÂz>_ í¦Vm
5
C) zç¦ \u®D Jºþ_ ØïVDA çkÝ]òÂï ¼kõ|D
D) Øk^á©ØÃòÂz ¨ßÄöÂçïçB ¶éâEB©Ã|Ým>_ í¦Vm
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82. Choose the correct option regarding the list of countries affected by tsunami on 26th December,2004
1.Indonesia 2.Sri Lanka 3.Maldives
4.Myanmar 5.Thailand
ps
A)1,2,3,4,5 B)1,2,3,4 C)1,2,3 D)3,4,5
2004 ½ÄDÃì 26gD åV^ °uÃ⦠·ªVt ga© ¼Ã«çélªV_ ÃV]Âï©Ã⦠åV|ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý
¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.Öͼ>V¼ª´BV 2.Öéºçï 3.\VéÝy¡ï^
4.tBV[\ì
A) 1 2 3 4 5
5.>VFéVÍm
B) 1 2 3 4 C) 1 2 3 Tn
83. Choose the correct statements regarding the Hazards
D) 3 4 5
1. Hazards are defined as a thing,person,event or factor that poses a threat to people structures or
economic assets and which may cause disaster
e/
2. They could be either human made or naturally occurring in the environment
3. The word ‘hazard’ owes its origin to the word ‘hasart’in old French
A)1,2
.m
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3
84. Statement 1:Nitrogen (78.09 %) is used for forming products such as fertilizers for plants and for
making the air inert.
tp
A) 1,2,3 B)2,3
C)1,3 D)None of the above
íu® 1: çåâ«Û[ (78.09) >Vk«ºïÓÂz c«ºï^ >BVö©Ã>uzD ïVuçÅ \Í>\VÂzk>uzD
ÃB[Ã|þÅm.
íu® 2: gÂEÛ[ (20.95) ·kVEÂï© ÃB[Ã|þÅm
íu® 3: ïVìÃ[ ç¦ gÂçÄ| (0.03%) ι߼ÄìÂçïÂz ÃB[Ã|þÅm.
¼\uïõ¦ íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 2, 3 C) 1, 3 D) ¨m¡t_çé
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
g«D¸Ý> 13 gõ|ï¹_ 11,481+ ¼ÃòÂz ¶«·©Ãè, >twïØ\ºzD 41 þçáï^...
5
d.¯ßEÂØïV_oï^ Š 4. Àì \V·¶ç¦>_ D) 2 3 1 4
86. Among the following information, which of the following west coastal areas vulnerable to storm
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urges?
1.Maharashtra 2.NorthHarnia 3.South Gujarat 4.West Bengal
5.South Orissa
ps
A)1,2,3,4,5 B)1,2,3 C)1,2,4,5 D)4,5
ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ|^á >ïk_ï¹_ AB_ ¶çéïáV_ ÃV]©¸uz c^áVzD ¼\uz ï¦uïç«©
Ãz]ï^ ¨m?
1.\ïV«Vi½«V 2.k¦ ÇìªVBì
3.Ø>[ zÛ«VÝ
A) 1 2 3 4 5
4.¼\uz kºïVáD
B) 1 2 3
5.Ø>[ νÄV
C) 1 2 4 5
87. Consider the following statements
Tn
D) 4 5
1.A natural hazard is a natural process and event that is potential threat to human life and property.
e/
2. A disaster is a hazardous events that occurs over a limited time span in a defined area and causes
great damage to property/loss of life, also needs assistance from others
3.Chernobyl nuclear accident was happened on 26th April,1976
.m
4.In 2014,the Ukraine part of this zone was declared as a radiological and environment biosphere
reserve by the government
A)1,2 is true 3,4 is false B)1,2,3,4 is true
C)1,2,3 is true 4 is false D)1,2,4 is true 3 is false
//t
kVÂþBºïçá g«VFï.
1.\M> clìï^ \u®D cç¦ç\ïÓÂz ¶ß·®Ý>çé còkVÂzD ÖBuçïBVª Wﵡï^
ÖBuçï Ö¦ìï^ ¨ª©Ã|D.
2.¼Ãö¦ì ¨[Ãm kç«B®Âï©Ã⦠Ãz]l_ Îò z¤©¸â¦ ïVéÝ]_ Wï¿D Îò ¶ÃVBï«\Vª
s:
4.2014gD gõ| cÂç«[ åV| ''ï]ì ÖBÂïsB_ ÄVì \u®D ·u®ßówK clì¼ïVá© ØÃâ¦ïD''
¨ª ¶ÍåVâ| ¶«ÄVºïÝ>V_ ¶¤sÂï©Ãâ|^ám.
A) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k® B) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö C) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® D) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
ht
ØÃVòÍ>V>m ¨m?
A) g®ï¹[ À쩸½©A Ãz]ï¹_ c^á \«ºïçá ïõJ½Ý>ª\Vï ¶a©Ã>V_ ¶½Âï½
Øk^á©ØÃòÂz \u®D kÅâE °uÃ|þ[Ū
B) Äm©A WéÂïV|ï^ ¶aÂï©Ã|k>V_ óÅVk¹ ¶çéï^ ï¦uïç«© Ãz]ï¹_ Ö¦ç«
còkVÂzþ[Ū
C) Wé¶]ì¡, Øk^á©ØÃòÂz ¼ÃV[Å Eé Ö¦ìï^ ÖBuçï ïV«èïáV_ còkVþ[Ū.
Öku¤_ ØÃòDÃVKD \M>ìï^ úz Öò©Ã]_çé
D) ØÃòDÃVéVª ØÃò å﫺ï¹_ ÃM©Açï Îò ØÃòD ¸«ßEçªBVï c^ám
89. Assertion : Air pollution is the contamination of the indoor or outdoor air by a range of gases and
5
solids that modify its natural characteristics and percentage.
Reason : The primary pollutants of air pollution is Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxide emitted
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directly from a source
A)Assertion is true reason is false
B) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
ps
C)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
D)Assertion is false reason is true
íu® : câAÅ ¶_ém Øk¹©AÅ ïVuÅVªm Eé kV¥Âï^ \u®D ]¦©ØÃVòâï¹[ ¼ÄìÂçïBV_
¶>[ ÖBuçï ÃõAï^ \u®D ïVu¤[ Ä>T>ºï^ \V®Ã|kç> ïVu® \V·Ã|>_ ¨[þ¼ÅVD.
Tn
ïV«ðD : ïVu® \V·Ã|k>uïVª ïV«ðºï¹_ Ä_Ãì ç¦ gÂçÄ| \u®D çåâ«Û[ gÂçÄ|
¼ÃV[Å x>[ç\ \V·Ã|Ý]ï^ ¼å«½BVï Øk¹¼BuÅ©Ã|k>V_
A) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂïD gzD
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. gªV_ ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂï\_é
e/
D) íu® >k®, ïV«ðD Äö
90. Choose the correct statement regarding the fire safety
1.Evacuate calmly and quickly whenever a fire alarm sounds.
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2.Before opening a door feel it with back of your hand. If the door is hot do not open it
3.If your encounter smoke during your excavation, stay low to the floor
4.Know the locations of the fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations and exits
A)1,2,3 B)1,2,3,4 C)1,3,4 D)1,2,4
//t
¼kõ¦VD.
3.Àºï^ Øk¹¼B®D kal_ AçïlòÍ>V_ >ç«l_ >kµÍm ØÄ_é¡D.
4.y ¶çð©¸[ y ¶ÃVBß Äºz ÖòÂzt¦D \u®D Øk¹¼B®D ka ¼ÃV[ÅkuçÅÝ Ø>öÍm
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çkÝ]òÂï ¼kõ|D.
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3,4 D) 1, 2, 4
91. The term ‘Stop !Drop ! Roll!’ related to
ht
92. Statement 1: You should find out if your home ,school, workplace or other frequently visited
locations are in Tsunami hazard areas along the sea shore
Statement 2:Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall
(such as lighting fixtures or furnitures)
Which of the term is related for the above statements?
A) Earthquake,Tsunami B)Tsunami,Fire
C) Earthquake,fire D)Tsunami,Earthquake
íu® 1: x>o_ Àºï^ ÖòÂzD T|, Ã^¹, ÃèAö¥t¦D ¶½Âï½ ØÄ[® kòt¦D ¼ÃV[Åçk
寮éV« ga©¼Ã«çé ÃV]©¸uzâÃ⦠֦ºïáV ¨ª ïõ¦¤¼k[.
5
íu® 2: ïõðV½ß Ä[ª_, Øk¹Âï>¡ï^, ·kì \u®D ¨¹]_ swÂí½B Ø>VºzD t[sáÂzï^
\u®D \«ßÄV\V[ï^ ¼ÃV[Åku¤oòÍm séþlòÂï¡D.
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¼\uïõ¦ Ö«õ| íu®ï^ ÿµÂïõ¦ >ïk_ï¹_ ¨>Ц[ Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm?
A) Wéå|ÂïD, ga©¼Ã«çé B) ga©¼Ã«çé, ysÃÝm
C) Wéå|ÂïD, y sÃÝm D) ga©¼Ã«çé, Wéå|ÂïD
93. The phases of disaster management cycle are disaster,_________,Rehabilation____________
ps
A)Rescue,Planning B)Reconstruction ,Rescue
C)Prevention,Reconstruction D)Rescue,Reconstruction
¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\ ·wuE WçéïáVª ¼Ãö¦ì ....................., Aðì kVµ¡ ......................
A) *âA, ]â¦t¦_
C) >|Ý>_, \®æ«ç\©A Tn
B) \®æ«ç\©A, *âA
D) *âA, \®æ«ç\©A
94. Assertion :Japan has the densest seismic network but Indonesia is mostly affected larger in
earthquakes.
Reason : This is due to Indonesia has larger seismic area compared to Japan.
e/
A) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Assertion is false reason is true
C)Assertion is true reason is false
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D) Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
íu® : Û©ÃVM_ tï ¶]ï ¶¦ìÝ]l_ Wéå|Âï kçé ïVð©Ãâ¦VKD Öͼ>V¼ªEBVs_ >V[
tï ¶]ï ¶ás_ Wéå|Âïºï^ °uÃ|þ[Ū.
ïV«ðD : Û©ÃVçª s¦ ¶]ï ë©Ãáçk Öͼ>V¼ªEBV ØïVõ|^á>V_ ¶]ï ¶ás_
//t
Wéå|Âïºï^ °uÃ|þ[Ū.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD
B) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö C) íu® Äö, ïV«ðD >k®
s:
Statement 2: Firefighters
Statement 3: Emergency medical technicians
Which of the following term is correct regarding the above statements?
ht
96. Which of the following statements is related to facing the challenges in earthquake?
A)Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress
B)Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast
C)Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall
D) If sea water recedes back ,run to higher places
ÿµïVbD ØÄVuØÅV¦ìï¹_ ¨m Wéå|ÂïÝç> ¨]ìØïV^k¼>V| Ø>V¦ìAç¦Bm?
A) ïVk_mçÅ \u®D ÃVmïV©A© Ãç¦lªì ÃVmïV©A© Ãèl_ ~|Ãâ½òÂzD Ãz]ïÓÂz
ØÄ_é ¼kõ¦VD
B) ï¦_ \â¦Ý]oòÍm cºï^ Ø>ò ¨Ëká¡ cB«Ý]_ c^ám \u®D 寮éV«Ý]oòÍm
5
¨Ëká¡ #«Ý]_ ¶ç\Ím^ám ¨ªÝ Ø>öÍm ØïV^á¡D
C) ïõðV½ß Ä[ª_ Øk¹Âï>¡ï^, ·kì \u®D ¨¹]_ swÂí½B Ø>VºzD t[sáÂzï^
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\u®D \«ßÄV\V[ï^ ¼ÃV[Åku¤oòÍm séþlòÂzD.
D) ï¦_Àì ¸[kVºþß ØÄ[ÅV_ Àºï^ cB«\Vª Ãz]ïçá ¼åVÂþ {|ºï^
97. Assertion :Tonga, Fiji and Indonesia countries have the most earthquakes per unit area
ps
Reason : They are all situated in extremely active seismic areas.
A)Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Assertion and reason are false
C)Assertion and reason are true
Tn
D)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
íu® : Îò Äm« þ¼éV*â¦ì ë©Ãás_ ¶]ï Wéå|Âïºïçá ØïVõ|^á åV|ï^ ¼¦VºïV,
¸÷ \u®D Öͼ>V¼ªEBV gzD.
ïV«ðD: ¶çk céþ[ tï ys« Wé ¶]ì¡© Ãz]ï¹_ ¶ç\Ím^áª.
A) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD íu¤uz ïV«ðD ÄöBVª sáÂïD
e/
B) íu®D ïV«ðxD >k®
C) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö
D) íu®D ïV«ðxD Äö. ¼\KD ïV«ðD íu¤uz ÄöBVª sáÂïD ¶_é
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A) Wé·wuE B) AsÝ>â|ï^
C) Wéå|Âï ç\BD D) ¼\uïõ¦ ¶çªÝmD
99. Statement 1: Disaster risk reduction –The practice of disaster risks through systematic efforts to
s:
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A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® B) 1, 2, 4 Äö 3 >k®
C) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2 Äö 3, 4 >k®
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100. Match the following: a b c d
a) Gorkha Earthquake - 1. India A) 1 2 3 4
b) Tropical cyclone - 2. April 25 B) 2 1 4 3
c) Thunder lightning - 3. Movement of rocks C) 3 4 2 1
ps
d) Landslides - 4. 80,000 K.M speed D) 4 3 2 1
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.¼ïVìÂïV Wéå|ÂïD Š 1. ÖÍ]BV A) 1 2 3 4
b.Øk©Ã\õ¦é© AB_
c.Ö½t[ª_
d.WéßÄö¡
Š
Š
Š
2. °©«_ 25
3. ÃVçÅåïì¡ Tn
4. 80,000 þ.* ¼kïD
101. Among the following statements, Choose the correct one
B)
C)
D)
2
3
4
1
4
3
4
2
2
3
1
1
e/
1.Turn off all electrical devices
2.Beware of snakes and other animals
3.Protectyouself with your hands or a scarf to protect the eyes,nose and mouth from dust
.m
4.Don’t go for sightseeing and boil and purify water before drinking
A) Before cyclone,Aftercyclone,Aftercyclone,During cyclone
B) During cyclone,Aftercyclone,Duringcyclone,After cyclone
C) Before cyclone,Duringcyclone,Aftercyclone,During cyclone
//t
D)Duringcyclone,Aftercyclone,Aftercyclone,During cyclone
ÿ¼w ØïV|Âï©Ãâ| ÖòÂzD kVÂþBºïÓÂz ÄöBVª sç¦çBÝ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.¶çªÝm t[ ÄV>çªïçá¥D ¶çªÝm s¦ ¼kõ|D.
2.ÃVDA \u®D ¸Å séºz﹦D åVD ¨ßÄöÂçïBVï ÖòÂï ¼kõ|D.
s:
5
Îò ÄJïÝ]_ gÃÝmïçá zçÅÂï¡D ¼Ãö¦öªV_ °uÃ|D sçá¡ïçá zçÅÂzD ÃB[Ã|D
ØÄVÝmï^ káºï^ \u®D ]Å[ï^
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A) >VºzD ÄÂ] B) ¼Ãö¦ì gÃÝm zçÅ©A
C) Öç¦R® D) ¼Ãö¦ì gÃÝm ¼\éVõç\
104. Pick out the correct one
1.The Eternal fire of Baba Gurgur - Iraq
ps
2.The Bhopal gas disaster - 3 December,1984
3.79 % of stampedes in India have taken place at religious events
A)1,2,3 B)2,3 C)3 D)None of the above
ÄöBVªm ¶_éV>ç>Ý ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
1.ÃVÃV zìzìs[ ¶çðBVØåò©A Š ~«VÂ
2.¼ÃVÃV_ kV¥© ¼Ãö¦ì Š 1984, ½ÄDÃì 03
Tn
3.ÖÍ]BVs_ \>D ÄVìÍ> swVÂï¹¼é¼B 79% í⦠ØåöÄ_ åç¦ØîþÅm.
A) 1 2 3 B) 2 3 C) 3 D) ¨m¡t_çé
e/
105. How many percent of injury related deaths in the worldwide?
A)6 B)7 C)8 D)10
céþ_ ïVBD °uÃâ| \«ð\ç¦>o_ Jµz>_ .................% gzD.
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A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 10
106. Consider the following statements regarding the rules of action for stampede
1.Notice alternate exit
2.How to move when on your feet
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A) 1, 2, 3 Äö 4 >k® B) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) 1, 2 >k® 3, 4 Äö D) 3, 4 >k® 1, 2 Äö
107. Match the following: a b c d
a) Beneath the Earth surface - 1. Epidemics A) 4 3 2 1
b) On the Earth surface - 2. Windstorms B) 1 2 3 4
c) Meteorological - 3. Landslides C) 4 3 1 2
d) Health - 4. Earthquake D) 1 2 4 3
ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d
a.As câÃz]l_ Š 1. Ø>Vu®¼åVFï^ A) 4 3 2 1
b.As¼\u멸_ Š 2. AB_ïVu® B) 1 2 3 4
c.kVMçé gF¡ Š 3. WéßÄö¡ C) 4 3 1 2
d.·ïV>V«D Š 4. Wéå|ÂïD D) 1 2 4 3
108. Consider the following statements
1.A premier institute of training and capacity development programs for managing natural disasters
in India,on a national as well as regional basis-NDMI
2.Tamilnadu state disaster responsive force have been trained in disaster management and rescue
5
opeartions in consultation with National disaster response force
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3.National Disaster management authority is an agency of Ministry of Home affairs
A)1,2,3 is true B)1,2 is true 3 is false C)1,2,3 is false D)1,2 is false 3 is true
íu®ïçá g«VFï.
1.ÖÍ]BVs_ ÖBuçï ¼Ã«a¡ïçá Wìkþ©Ã>uïVª ÃluE \u®D ]Å[ ¼\DÃVâ| ]⦺ïÓÂïVª
ps
Îò x>[ç\ W®kªD - NDMI gzD.
2.¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\l_ ÃluE ØÃuÅkìï^ \u®D NDRF Ãç¦l[ g¼éVÄçªl[ý
*âAß ØÄB_ï¹[ ~|Ã|¼kVìï^ Š >tµåV| ¼Ãö¦ì \®Ø\Va Ãç¦ gzD.
3.¼>EB ¼Ãö¦ì ¼\éVõç\ gªm c^mçÅ ¶ç\ßÄïD ÿµ ØÄB_Ã|D ¶ç\©A gzD.
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö
a) Earthquake
b) Cyclone
B) 1, 2 Äö 3 >k®
109. Match the following:
- 1. Gigantic waves
- 2. Fault
Tn
C) 1, 2, 3 >k® D) 1, 2 >k® 3 Äö
A)
B)
a
2
5
b
4
4
c
1
3
d
5
2
e
3
1
e/
c) Tsunami - 3. Uneven rainfall C) 4 1 2 5 3
d) Industrial accident - 4. Eye of the storm D) 1 2 3 4 5
e) Drought - 5. Carelessness
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ØÃVòÝmï. a b c d e
a.As ¶]ìßE Š 1. Ö«VâÄ> ¶çéï^ A) 2 4 1 5 3
b.óÅVk¹ Š 2. ¸á¡ B) 5 4 3 2 1
c.·ªVt Š 3. Ä\\uÅ \çw C) 4 1 2 5 3
//t
Reason : Due to pollution and environmental degradation we are undergoing natural hazard and
disaster
D) Assertion is true, reason is false
tp
E) Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
C)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
D)Assertion is false, reason is true
ht
ØÃVòáV>V«D
111. Identify the other name for Macro economics
A) Micro Economics B) Income theory C) National Income D) Price Theory
¼ÃöB_ ØÃVòáV>V«Ýç> ¼k® ¨ËkV® ¶çwÂïéVD?
A) OõèB_ ØÃVòáV>V«D B) kòkVF ¼ïVâÃV|
C) ¼>EB kòkVF D) sçé¼ïVâÃV|
5
112. Consider the statement of features of Capitalistic economy
1.Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy.
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2.All economic activities are regulated through price mechanism i.e market forces of demand And
supply
3.The basic features safety, health,education are owned from private individuals
ps
4. Each individual and organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit
A)1,2,3 is true B)2,3,4 is true
C)1,3,4 is true D)1,2,4 is true
x>éV¹Ýmk ØÃVòáV>V« ¶ç\©¸[ ÖB_Aï^ Ãu¤B íu®ïçá ïVõï?
Tn
1. ¶çªÝm ØÃVòáV>V« å¦k½Âçïï¹KD ÖéVÃD Øîk¼> xÂþB ¼åVÂïD.
2. ¶çªÝm ØÃVòáV>V« å¦k½ÂçïïÓD sçé ÖBºzD xçÅ, ¼>çk \u®D ¶á©A ¶ºïV½
ÄÂ]ïáV_ ïâ|©Ã|Ý>©Ã|þÅm.
3. ¶½©Ãç¦ ÃèïáVª ÃVmïV©A, ØÃVmåéD, ï_s ¼ÃV[ÅkuçÅ¥D >MBVì W®kªÝ]¦tòÍm
Øîþ[Ū.
e/
4. ÎËØkVò >MåÃì \u®D ¶ç\©AïÓD ¶]ï ÖéVÃD >«Âí½B ØÃVòâïçá \â|¼\ cuÃÝ]
ØÄFkVìï^.
A) íu® 1, 2, 3 Äö B) íu® 2, 3, 4 Äö
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C) íu® 1, 3, 4 Äö D) íu® 1, 2, 4 Äö
113. Father of socialism is
A)Karl Marx B)Adam Smith C)Samuelson D)Thackeray
Ä\ÝmkÝ][ >Íç>
//t
1. In the socialist economic system,all decisions are undertaken by the central planning authority
2. Mixed economy is a combination of Private and Public sector partnership
A) Both 1 and 2 is true B)Both 1 and 2 is false
ht
116. Assertion :The fundamental economic activities of an economy are Production and Consumption
Reason : The main objectives of the activities is to attain the growth
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true ,Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B)Both Assertion and Reason are true ,Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C)Assertion is true but reason is false
D)Assertion is false but reason is true
íu® Š ØÃVòáV>V« ¶ç\©¸[ ¶½©Ãç¦ å¦k½Âçïï^ cuÃÝ] \u®D Oïì¡ gzD.
ïV«ðD Š ÖÍå¦k½Âçïl[ >çéBVB ¼åVÂïD káìßEçB ¶ç¦k>VzD.
A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö ¼\KD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD.
5
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö gªV_ íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD Ö_çé.
C) íu® Äö gªV_ ïV«ðD >k®
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D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
117. Which is flow concept?
A) Number of shirts B) Total Wealth
ps
C) Monthly income D) Money Supply
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ¨m Î⦠ïòÝmò
A) Äâç¦ï¹[ ¨õèÂçï B) Ø\VÝ> ØÄVÝm
C) \V> kò\VªD D) Ã𠶹©A
118. PQLI is the indicator of
A) Economic growth
C)Economic Progress
PQLI ¨[Ãm ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ[ z¤X|
Tn B)economic welfare
D)Economic development
e/
A) ØÃVòáV>V« káìßE B) ØÃVòáV>V« åé[
C) ØÃVòáV>V« x[¼ªuÅD D) ØÃVòáV>V« ¼\DÃV|
119. Net National Product at factor cost is known as
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122. Assertion :The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between
different sectors of an economy
Reason :The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true ,Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true ,Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C) Assertion is true but reason is false
D) Assertion is false but reason is true
íu® Š Îò ØÃVòáV>V« ¶ç\©¸[ kòkVl[ k⦠Î⦠\V]öBVªm. ¶Í> ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][
Ã_¼k® mçÅïÓÂþ禼B c^á Ø>V¦ì¸çª sáÂzþÅm.
5
ïV«ðD Š kòkVl[ k⦠Îâ¦D gFkVªm ¼>EB ïðÂzï^ \u®D ¼ÃöB_ ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][
¶½©Ãç¦BVzD.
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A) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö ¼\KD íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD.
B) íu® \u®D ïV«ðD Ö«õ|D Äö gªV_ íu®ÂïVª ÄöBVª sáÂïD ïV«ðD Ö_çé.
C) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k®
D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
ps
123. Economics Content is
A) Investment and savings B) Inflation and Business cycle
C)Foreign Trade D)Individual demand and Supply
ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][ c^á¦ÂïD
A) x>Ü| \u®D ¼Ät©A
C) ¶B_åVâ| kVèÃD
124. Match the following:
TnB) ÃðTÂïD \u®D kVèÃß·wuE
D) >Mݼ>çk \u®D ¶¹©A
a b c d
e/
a) Two sector model - 1. Open Economy A) 1 2 3 4
b) Three sector model - 2. Simple economy B) 2 3 1 4
c) Four sector model - 3. Mixed and Closed economy C) 3 1 4 2
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B) 2 3 1 4
C) 3 1 4 2
tp
D) 4 1 2 3
125. Assertion :The factor cost does not include the taxes that are paid to the government
Reason : Taxes are not directly involved in the production process
ht
5
127. Choose the correct statements
1.Personal income is the income received by the individuals of a country
c8
2.Disposable income is the individuals income after the payment of income tax
3.The average income of a country is a per capita income
4.NNP is obtained by deducting depreciation from GNP
ps
A)1,2,3 is true B)2,3,4 is true
C)1,3,4 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï
1. >MåÃì kò\VªD Îò åVâ½[ >MåÃìï¹[ kòkVçB z¤ÂþÅm.
Tn
2. ¼å«½ kö ØÄKÝ]B ¸[ªì c^á kò\VªD ØÄékaÂzD kò\VªD ¨ªÂ ïò>©Ã|þÅm.
3. åVâ½[ Ä«VÄö kò\VªD >éV kò\VªD.
4. GNP loòÍm ¼>F\VªD ïaÂï©Ã|D¼ÃVm, Wï« \]©A, Ø\VÝ> ¼>EB cuÃÝ].
A) 1, 2, 3 Äö B) 2, 3, 4 Äö
C) 1, 3, 4 Äö D) 1, 2, 3, 4 Äö
e/
128. Choose the correct statement
1.While calculating GNP,the income received from abroad people also considered.
2.While calculating GNP,the income received by the outsiders of the country should also included.
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A) 1 only B) 2 only
C)Both D)None of the above
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ ÄöBVªkuçÅ ïVõï.
1. GNP ïðÂþ|çïl_ Îò åVâ½_ Øk¹åV⽪«V_ còkVÂï©Ã⦠kò\VªD ïòÝ]_
//t
ØïV^á©Ã|þÅm.
2. GNP n ïðÂþ|çïl_ åVâ½uz Øk¹l_ kV¿D åV⽪«V_ còkVÂï©Ã⦠kò\VªD
ïðÂþ_ ¨|Ým ØïV^á©Ã|þÅm.
s:
A) 1 \â|D B) 2 \â|D
C) Ö«õ|D D) ¨m¡t_çé
129. The value of NNP at consumer point
tp
íu® Š skÄVlï^ sç> \u®D c«D kVºï ØÄF¥D ØÄé¡ï^, x]¼BVì {F¡]BD, ÃçwB
úz, °u謁k kVºþB ØÃVòçá Îòkö¦tòÍm \uØÅVòkì kVºzD ØÄé¡ïçá
¼ÃV[Åçkïçá ¼>EB kòkVF ïðÂþ_ ¼ÄìÂïÂí¦Vm.
ïV«ðD Š ¼>EB kòkVF ïðÂþ¦o_ x½kç¦Í> ØÃVòâï¹[ ØÄé¡ïçá \â|¼\ ¼ÄìÂï
¼kõ|D.
A) íu® Äö ïV«ðD >k® B) íu®, ïV«ðD >k®
C) íu®, ïV«ðD Äö D) íu® >k® ïV«ðD Äö
131. Choose the correctly matched
A)Value of Output - Price + Quantity sold
5
B)Market price - factor cost + Subsidies -Indirect taxes
C)Factor Cost - Market Price +Direct taxes+Subsidies
c8
D)Inputs - Factor of Production
ÄöBVª ØÃVòÍ]¥^áç> ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) cuÃÝ]l[ \]©A Š sçé + suÃçª ¶á¡
B) ÄÍç> sçé Š ïV«è ØÄé¡ + c>sÂØ>Vçïï^ (Š) \çÅxï köï^
ps
C) ïV«è ØÄé¡ Š ÄÍç> sçé ¼åìxï kö + c>sÝØ>Vçïï^
D) c^C|ï^ Š cuÃÝ] ïV«èï^
132. Who said the revenue of the country is called as national dividend?
A)IrwinPishceri B) Alfred Marshal
¼>EB kò\VªÝç> ¼>EB ~¡ÝØ>Vçï ¨[® í¤Bkì?
A) Öìs[ ¸iÄö B) g_¸«â \Vì−_ C) ÄVxØk_Ä[
Tn C)Samuelson
D) J.M. ÿ[ü
5
D) Öç¦Wçé© ØÃVòâï¹[ sçéçB \â|D ÃB[Ã|Ým>_
138. Match the following:
c8
a b c d
a) Dividend Part - 1. Social accounts A) 1 2 3 4
b) PQLI - 2. Income method B) 2 4 1 3
c) National income - 3. Price sales capacity C) 3 2 4 1
ps
d) Value of production - 4. Economic welfare D) 4 3 1 2
ØÃVòÝmï a b c d
a) Ãþì¡ Ãz] Š 1. ÄJïÂïðÂz A) 1 2 3 4
b) PQLI Š 2. kò\Vª xçÅ B) 2 4 1 3
c) ¼>EB kòkVF
d) cuÃÝ]l[ \]©A
Š
Š
3.
4. Tn
sçé suÃçª ¶á¡
ØÃVòáV>V« åé[
C)
D)
3
4
2
3
139. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the capitalistic economy?
4
1
1
2
1.Adam smith is known as the father of capitalism.This is also termed as free economy or market
e/
economy.
2.Profit motive is important one
3.Production and production skill is high
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4.Vietnam,Poland and china are the countries followed the capitalistic economy.
A)1,2 is false B) 3 is false C) 4 is false D) 2,4 is false
ÿµÂïVbD íu®ï¹_ x>éV¹ÝmkÝç> Ãu¤B >kÅVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1. g¦D ütÝ x>éV¹ÝmkÝ][ >Íç>. Öçk >ç¦l_éV ¶_ém ÄÍç> ØÃVòáV>V«D ¨[®D
//t
íÅéVD.
2. ÖéVà ¼åVÂïD x>[ç\BVªçk.
3. cuÃÝ] \u®D cuÃÝ] ]Å[ ¶á¡ tï ¶]ïD.
s:
C) ØÄé¡ D) GNP
141. Which refers to a system of total planning ,public ownership and state control on economic
activities?
A) Mixed Economy B) Capitalism C) macro D) Socialism
Ø\VÝ>Ý]â¦t|>_, ØÃVm cç¦ç\ \u®D ØÃVòáV>V« å¦k½Âçïï¹[ ¶«E[ ïâ|ÃV| gþB
xçÅïçá z¤©¸|km?
A) ïé©A ØÃVòáV>V«D B) x>éV¹ÝmkD
C) ¼ÃöB_ D) Ä\ÝmkD
5
D) 4 1 2 3
ØÃVòÝmï.
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a) ÿ[ü Š 1. ¼ÃöB_ ØÃVòáV>V«D
b) kòkVF ¼ïVâÃV| Š 2. céïÝmkD
c) ]ÅÍ> ØÃVòáV>V«Ý][ k⦠Î⦠\V]ö Š 3. ØÃVm ¼ïVâÃV|
d) ¼\[ ¸«â½üÏïì Š 4. åV[z mçÅ \V]ö
a b c d
ps
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 3 1 4 2
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 1 2 3
143. An example of flow variable
A) National income B) Capital
Î⦠\V¤oïÓÂz ¨|ÝmÂïVâç¦ ¼>ì¡ ØÄFï.
A) ¼>EB kòkVF B) Jé>ªD C) Öò©A
Tn C)Stock D)Money supply
D) Ã𠶹©A
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144. The largest proportion of the national income comes from
A) Private sector B)Local sector C)Public sector D) None of the above
tï ¶]ï ¶áséVª ¼>EB kòkVF ŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠŠ oòÍm kòþÅm
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1.To create the short term and long term economic model, national income accounting is used
2.National income accounting is used for a countries various production factors income
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true
ht
5
ÿµÂïõ¦ku®^ ÄöBVªçkïçá ïVõï.
1. ÃðTÂïD ¨[Ãm ØÃVmkVª sçé ¶á¡ Ø>V¦ìÍm zçÅkç> z¤©Ãm.
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2. >M©Ã⦠W®kªºï^ ¶çªÝmD {öªÝ>[ç\ kVFÍ>m ¨[Å ¨|¼ïV^ïçá ¼ÃöB_
ØÃVòáV>V«D ØïVõ|^ám.
A) Ö«õ|D Äö B) 1 \â|D Äö C) 2 \â|D Äö D) Ö«õ|D >k®
150. Private sector is indirectly controlled by?
A) Socialist economy B) Mixed economy C) Capitalist economy D)Globalism
ps
>MBVì mçÅçB \çÅxï\Vï ïâ|©Ã|ÝmD ØÃVòáV>V« ¶ç\©A?
A) Ä\Ýmk ØÃVòáV>V«D B) ïé©A© ØÃVòáV>V«D
C) x>éV¹Ýmk ØÃVòáV>V«D D) céþBÝmkD
ÖçÄ Š 8:
WHERE TO STUDY Tn
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11.10.2021 (]ºï^):
köçÄ ¨õ ÃV¦D kz©A
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5
12th std UNIT – 3, 6, 7
3. AslB_ : ·u®ßów_ \V·Ã|>_, ïV«ðºïÓD >|©A xçÅïÓD,
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¯t¥D ¼Ã«õ¦xD óöBÂz|DÃD, ·u®ß·w_, ÷ç\ guÅ_
Environmental pollution: Reasons and preventive measures –
Climate change – Green energy.
ps
Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
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//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 C 72 D 73 B 74 B 75 A 76 D 77 A 78 A 79 D 80 C
81 C 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 A 86 B 87 D 88 B 89 B 90 C
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91 D 92 D 93 D 94 B 95 A 96 C 97 B 98 A 99 A 100 A
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 D 105 D 106 B 107 C 108 A 109 D 110 C
111 A 112 C 113 A 114 A 115 B 116 B 117 C 118 C 119 A 120 A
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 C 125 A 126 C 127 A 128 B 129 D 130 B
ps
131 C 132 B 133 D 134 C 135 D 136 D 137 A 138 B 139 A 140 D
141 C 142 D 143 D 144 A 145 A 146 A 147 B 148 C 149 B 150 A
151 A 152 C 153 D 154 B 155 D 156 D 157 D 158 B 159 C 160 C
161 D 162 C 163 B 164 D 165 B 166 C 167 A 168 A 169 C 170 C
171
181
191
D
A
D
172
182
192
D
B
B
173
183
193
A
D
B
174
184
194
D
A
D
175
185
195
Tn
C
C
C
176
186
196
D
B
C
177
187
197
A
A
D
178
188
198
D
B
B
179
189
199
A
D
C
180
190
200
A
B
C
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GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – ISAI - 11 ANS KEY– 21.10.2021
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1 D 2 C 3 D 4 B 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 A 13 D 14 B 15 B 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 C 20 B
21 D 22 B 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 A 30 B
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 B 40 C
//t
41 C 42 C 43 C 44 A 45 A 46 A 47 C 48 A 49 A 50 A
51 D 52 D 53 D 54 A 55 B 56 A 57 A 58 B 59 B 60 D
61 A 62 C 63 B 64 D 65 A 66 D 67 D 68 B 69 C 70 B
s:
71 C 72 D 73 B 74 B 75 A 76 D 77 A 78 A 79 D 80 C
81 C 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 A 86 B 87 D 88 B 89 B 90 C
91 D 92 D 93 D 94 B 95 A 96 C 97 B 98 A 99 A 100 A
tp
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 D 105 D 106 B 107 C 108 A 109 D 110 C
111 A 112 C 113 A 114 A 115 B 116 B 117 C 118 C 119 A 120 A
121 B 122 B 123 A 124 C 125 A 126 C 127 A 128 B 129 D 130 B
ht
131 C 132 B 133 D 134 C 135 D 136 D 137 A 138 B 139 A 140 D
141 C 142 D 143 D 144 A 145 A 146 A 147 B 148 C 149 B 150 A
151 A 152 C 153 D 154 B 155 D 156 D 157 D 158 B 159 C 160 C
161 D 162 C 163 B 164 D 165 B 166 C 167 A 168 A 169 C 170 C
171 D 172 D 173 A 174 D 175 C 176 D 177 A 178 D 179 A 180 A
181 A 182 B 183 D 184 A 185 C 186 B 187 A 188 B 189 D 190 B
191 D 192 B 193 B 194 D 195 C 196 C 197 D 198 B 199 C 200 C
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
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GOAL - 3
//t
200
s:
70
tp
60
ht
70
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 3 HRS GOAL - 3 6 TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
A)
B) Village
B) C)
Which of the following statement is correct?
Tn
C) Pranths
D)
D) Villa
e/
1. In Maratha rule,the administration of justice was of a rudimentary nature
2. There was no regular courts and regular procedures. The system of ordeals was common
A) 1 is true B) 2 is true C) 1 and 2 is true D) 1 and 2 is false
.m
//t
A) B)
C) D)
tp
paved the way for the rise of the british power in India
A) 1 is true B) 2 is true C) 1 and 2 is true D) 1 and 2 is false
A) B) C) D)
5
Choose the correct statement
1. At the time of Shivaji death ,his kingdom comprised the western ghats and the konkan between
c8
Kalyan and Goa
2. The provinces in the south included western Karnataka extending from Belgaum to the bank of
Tungabhadra
ps
A) 1 is true B)2 is true \
C) 1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
A) B)
Tn
C) D)
e/
In which year did ,Shivaji assumed the title of Chhatrapathi?
A) 1665 B)1672 C)1676 D)1674
(Supreme King)
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A) B) C) D)
Choose the correct option
s:
B) <<<
C) < <<
D) <<<
Which of the following was divided into regiments and brigades?
A) Infantry B)Cavalry C)Elephantry D)Artillery
A) B) C) D)
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
Whose reign Malik Amber served as a Minister?
ps
A) Muhammedali B) Ahmed Shah C) Jai singh D) Alam Shah
A) B) C) D)
Shivaji refrained from his military services from the period of
A) 1639 to 1645
A)
C)
B) 1640 to 1655
Tn C) 1647 to 1653
B)
D)
D) 1649 to 1655
e/
The King who promulgated the Zabt system(introduced by Todar Mal) was
A) Akbar B) Jahangir C) Shahjahan D) Aurangazeb
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A) B)
C) D)
s:
A)
B)
C)
D)
5
Statement 1 : The exact word used by Akbar and Badauni to illustrate the philosophy of Akbar
is Tauhid-i-illahi namely Din Ilahi
c8
Statement 2 : Tauhid-i-Ilahi literally meant divine monotheism.
A) 1 is true,2 is false B) 1 is false,2 is true
C) 1 and 2 are true D) 1 and 2 are false
ps
A)
C)
1. Jats
2.satnamis
Tn
B)
D)
In the North there was three major uprising against Auranagzeb was
3.Sikhs 4.Iranians
e/
A) 1,2,3 B) 2,3,4 C) 1,3,4 D) 1,2,4
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A) B)
C) D)
s:
A) B) C) D)
5
__________
A) B) C) D)
c8
Statement 1: Akbar was crowned at the age of eleven
Statement 2: Akbar has a best guardian Bairam Khan
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C)1 and 2 are true D) 1 and 2 are false
ps
A) B)
C) D)
When Sher Shah was pursuing Humayun,he had left____________as the governor of Bengal.
A) Islam Shah B)Bahadur Shah
Tn
C)Khizr Khan
______
D)Hindal
A) B)
C) D)
tp
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
ps
Statement 1 : When Babur marched to India he first defeated the forces of Daulat Khan lodi at
Lahore as he had gone back on his promise to help babur.
Statement 2 : Babur then turned towards the Lodi governed Punjab,he defeated the formidable
forces of Ibrahim Lodi
A) 1 is true,2 is false
Tn
B)1 is false, 2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true
D)1 and 2 are false
e/
A) B)
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C) D)
_________is an army unit that uses large canon like weapons
A) Territory B) Artillery C) Artifact D) Firepower
_____
//t
A) B) C) D)
In which year did the Mongols captured Baghdad?
tp
Which of the following sultan established a separate department to take care of agriculture?
A) Ghiyas-ud-din-tughlaq B) Muhammad Bin tughlaq
C) AlaudinKhilji D) JalaludinKhilji
A) B)
C) D)
5
Which of the following brahmin convert to islam the vizier of FiruzTughlaq?
A) Khan-i-Jahan B)Khan Abdullah C)Khan Mahan D)None of the above
c8
A) B)
C) D)
ps
Systematic excavation of Nalanda University commenced in the year
A) 1918 B) 1917 C) 1916 D) 1915
A) B) C) D)
A)
B) Devagiri
B)
Tn
Which of the following city was named Daulatabad by Muhammed-bin-tughlaq?
A) Sithar
C) Ranthambore
D) Malwa
e/
C) D)
Consider the following statements
1. The Narada and BrihaspatiSmritis describe the organization and activities of guilds.They
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mention that the guild had a chief and two,three or five executive officers
2. Guild laws were apparently laid down in written documents
3. The BrihaspatiSmriti refers to guilds rendering justice to their members and suggests that these
decision should,by and large be approved the king.
//t
tp
A) B)
ht
C) D)
Which of the following places in Bengal as an important centre of trade on the eastern coast by
Fahien?
A) Malabar B) Salobadana C) Tamralipti D) Bandhapadona
A) B) C) D)
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
The Damodarpur copper plate of the reign of Budhagupta headed by Mahattara refers
A) Mahaasvapati B) Ashtakula-adhikarna
D) Bathaga
ps
C) Gramika
A) B)
C)
Consider the following statements
D)
Tn
1. The administrative units below the district level included clusters of settlements known
variously as Vithi,Bhumi,Pathaka and Peta.There are references to the official known as
e/
ayuktakas and vithi-mahattaras
2. At the village level,villagers chose functionaries such as gramika and gramdhyaksha
3. The sanchi inscriptions of the time of Chandragupta II mentions the panchmandali which may
.m
s:
tp
A) B)
C) D)
Who is compared to Purusha in the Allahabad inscription?
A) Skandagupta B)Samudragupta C)Vishnugupta D)Chandragupta I
A) B) C) D)
5
Statement 2: Harappans buried the deads
Statement 3: Burials were made elaborately and evidence of cremation is also reported.
c8
A) 1,2 is true B) 2,3 is true C) 1,3 is true D) All are true
ps
A) B)
C) D)
1. Arikamedu
A) 1,2,4 is true
2.Keezhadi
B) 1,2,3 is true
Tn
Which of the following places are identified as part of the second urbanization of India?
3.Uraiyur
C) 1,3,4 is true
4.Korkai
D) 2,3,4 is true
e/
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following statement is true?
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s:
A) B)
tp
C) D)
Which of the following places are associated with there is an evidence of New stone age culture
spread in South India?
ht
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
Match the following of the planned towns : a b c d
a) Lothal - 1.Gujarat,India A) 1 3 2 4
ps
b) Banawali - 2.Haryana,India B) 4 1 2 3
c) Rakhigarhi - 3.Rajasthan,India C) 2 3 1 4
d) Mohenjo-Daro - 4.Sindh,Paksitan D) 1 4 2 3
a b c d
a
b
c
Tn
C
d
A
B
D 1
1
4
2
3
1
3
4
2
2
1
2
4
3
4
3
e/
Which of the following crops have been cultivated by Harappans?
1. Wheat,Barley 2.Lentil
3. Chickpea,Sesame 4.Various Millets
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A) B)
C) D)
Ploughed fields have been found at
s:
Name the evidence of the country in which harappans exported the their artefacts
A) Mesopotamia B) Greece C) Palestine D) China
ht
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following stone is used to make knife by Harappans?
A) Qwartz B) Limestone C) Granite stone D) Rohrichert stone
A) B)
C) D)
5
b B 4 1 2 3
c C 2 3 1 4
c8
d D 1 4 2 3
The seal from the harappa site founded by the first surveyor of Archaeological survey of India was
A) Alexander Cunningham B) Alexander burnes
ps
B) Sir John Marshall D) Charles Mason
A) B)
C) D)
Who excavated the harappan sites in 1940?
A) Alexander Cunningham
C) R.E.M Wheeler
Tn B) Alexanderburnes
D) Charles Mason
e/
A) B)
C) D)
.m
Which of the following places are associated with there is an evidence of New stone age culture
spread in India?
1. Bihar 2.West Bengal 3.Arunachal Pradesh
A) 1,2 is true B) 2,3 is true C) 1,3is true D) All are true
//t
s:
5
d D 1 4 2 3
Which of the following places associated with HarappanCivilisation?
c8
1. Kalibangan 2.Lothal 3.Rakhigarhi 4.Dholavira
A) 1,2,3 is true B) 2,3,4 is true C) 1,3,4 is true D) All are true
ps
A) B)
C) D)
Rohrichert stones found abundant in
A) Rohri,India
C)
B) Lothal,India
A)
Tn
B)
D)
C) Islamabad,PaksitanD) Rohri,Paksitan
e/
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT)
“We shall either free India or die in the attempt ; We shall not live to see the perpetuation of our
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slavery”-Said by
A) Muhammed Ali Jinnah B) Jawarhalal Nehru
C) Gandhiji D) Subash Chandra Bose
//t
"
"
A B
s:
C D
During the quit India movement,who established the congress radio which was successfully
functioned?
tp
A B
C D
Women India association started at Besant Nagar,Chennai in the year
A) 1912 B) 1915 C) 1917 D) 1919
A B C D
5
B
C
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D
Who declared that the introduction of Hindi over tamil would deny the dravidians of their job
opportunities?
ps
A) Rajaji B) Kamarajar C) Singaravelar D) Periyar
A B C D
Choose the correct statement
Tn
1. South Indian liberal federation formed to articulated the voice of the non-brahmin communities.
2. This association members started publishing three newspapers namely Dravidian in
Tamil,Justice in English and Andhra Prakasika in Telugu
e/
3. Due to the English newspaper of the association Justice,later this association was called as
Justice Party
A) All are true B)1 only true C) 2,3 is true D)1,3 is true
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//t
s:
5
c8
A B C D
ps
Statement 1 : The partition of Bengal (1905) led to the swadeshi movement and changed the
course of the struggle for freedom
Statement 2 : They implemented the programme of the Calcutta congress which called upon
A) 1 is true,2 is false
Tn
the nation to promote Swadeshienterprise,boycott foreign goods and Promote
national education.
B) 1 is false,2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true
D) 1 and 2 are false
e/
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A B
C D
In which year did the Indian National congress contested the election for the first time?
//t
Which of the following aim is incorrect regarding the Justice Party?
A) Reservation of jobs for non-brahmins in government services and seats in representative bodies.
B) It opposed the Home rule movement as a movement of non brahmins
tp
C) Justice Party believed English rule was non conducive for the development of non-brahmins
D) Justice Party also criticized congress as a party of the non-brahmins
ht
A
B
C
D
5
G.
c8
G.
A B
ps
C D
In Madras the simon boycott propaganda committee was set up with president as
A) T.Prakasam B) K.Nageshwararrao
C) S.N.Somaiyalu D) S.Satyamurti
C S.N.
Tn
A T. B K.
D S.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Madras Native Association?
e/
A) It consisted primarily of merchants
B) The objective was to promote the interest of its members and their focus was on reduction in
taxation
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C) It also supported against the support of the government to Christian missionary activities
D) It drew the attention of the government to the condition and needs of the people
A
//t
B
C
s:
D
tp
A B C P D
The policy of the India’s home rule movement borrowed from the country
A) Ireland B) Switzerland C) England D) Finland
A B C D
5
c8
ps
A B
C
A) January 28,1919
D
Tn
Gadhiji addressed a meeting on Marina beach regarding the agitation of Rowlatt act was
B) February 18,1919 C) February 22,1919 D) March 18,1919
e/
A B C D
Which of the following is the correct recommendation of Nehru report
.m
minority and for the Hindus in North west Frontier province where they were in Minority
4. Provision of fundamental rights and universal adult franchise
A) All are true B) 1,2,3 is true C) 2,3,4 is true D) 1,3,4 is true
s:
1
2
tp
3.
ht
4.
A B C D
F.W.Ellis founded the college of Fort St.George in the year
A) 1805 B) 1807 C) 1812 D) 1816
F.W.
A B C D
5
c8
A B
C D F.W.
Who gave prominence to Tamil music and published books on the history of Tamil music?
ps
A) RamalingaAdigal B) Abraham Pandithar
C) Thiru.Vi.kaa D) U.V.Saminathar
A B
C
Statement 1:
Tn
D
Gandhi believed that the movement failed not because of any defect in the means
employed viz.non-violent non-cooperation but because of lack of sufficiently
trained volunteers and leaders
e/
Statement 2: The Khilafat movement also came to an end as the office of the Caliph was
abolished in turkey
A) 1 is true,2 is false B) 1 is false,2 is true
.m
s:
A B
C D
Mothilal Nehru and C.R.Das started the swaraj party in
tp
C D
Which of the following works Maraimalaiadigal wrote commentaries on the Sangam texts?
1. Ettuthogai 2. Pathupattu 3. Pattinapalai 4. Mullaipattu
A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 1,3 D) 3,4
A B C D
5
C D
Assertion: According to Communal award,Gandhi strongly opposed the inclusion of depressed
c8
classes in the list of minorities.
Reason: Gandhi argued that it would not only divide the Hindus but also make the campaign
again stuntouchability meaningless as they would be considered distinct from the
ps
Hindus
A) Assertion is true,reason is false
B) Assertion is false,reason is true
C) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
Tn
D) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
e/
A
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B
C
D
Who is the father of the Tamil linguistic purism?
//t
Who played a significant role in making the criticism about colonial economy?
1. DadabhaiNaoroji
2. Justice ranade
tp
A B C D
5
c8
A B C D
ps
In 1824,the sepoys at Barrackpur near Calcutta refused to go
A) Indonesia B) Burma C) Jappan D) Singapore
A B C
B) May 13,1857
Tn
D
A band of sepoys from Meerut marched to the Red fort in delhi in
A) May 11,1857 C) May 15,1857 D) May 17,1857
e/
A B
C D
.m
The major tribal revolt took place in state of Jharkhand and odisha was
A) Santhal rebellion B) Kol Revolt C) Munda rebellion D) None of the above
A B
//t
C D
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. There was nearly a hundred peasant uprising during british rule
s:
2. The categories are Restorative rebellions,Religious movements ,Social banditry and People
revolt
3. The tribal people in particular started looking at them as invaders and enroachers by the british.
tp
A B
C D
5
A B C D
During the Vellore revolt,Who was proclaimed as the new rulers by rebels?
c8
A) Fatehhyder B) Muhammad Shah C) Hyder Ali D) Bahadur Shah
A B C D
ps
Which of the following kings were participated in the Second Palayakkarar war?
1. Maruthu Brothers
2. GopalaNayak
3. Malabar Keralavarma
4. Krishnappa and Dhoondaji of Mysore
A) 1,2,3 only B) 1,3,4 only Tn C) 2,3,4 only
D) All the above
e/
.m
hanged
Statement 3: The uprising which broke out in Coimbatore in June 1801,soon spread to
Ramanathapuram and Madurai
s:
ht
A B
C D
The minister of VeerapandyaKattabommanSivasubramaniar was executed at
A) Nagalapuram B) Pudukottai C) Thirupathur D) Ettayapuram
A B C D
5
1. Virupatchi - GopalaNayak
2. Devathanapatti - PoojaiNayak
c8
3. Manaparai - Lakshmi Nayak
A) 1,2 is true B) 2,3 is true C) 1,3 is true D) All are true
ps
A B C D
B) 1898
Tn
IyotheeThassar founded the Sakya Buddhist Society at Madras construct the rational religious
philosophy through Buddhist religion in the year
A) 1897 C) 1899
D) 1900
e/
""
A B C D
Match the following :
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B) 4 5 2 1 3
C) 3 2 1 4 5
D) 5 4 3 1 2
tp
a.
b.
ht
c.
d.
e.
a b c d e
A)
B)
C)
D)
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Which of the following organization was founded by IyotheeThassar to raise the voice for the
temple entry of the “Untouchables”?
A) SathyagnanaSabha B) SathyaSodhakSamaj
C) SamathuvaSamaj D) AdvaidanandaSabha
A B
C D
In Which year did John Rathinam and IyotheeThassar established a movement called
5
dravidakazhagam?
A) 1880 B) 1881 C) 1882 D) 1883
c8
""
A B C D
ps
Statement 1: The aim of Deoband School was moral and religious regeneration of the muslim
community
Statement 2: The Deoband school was promote and trained their children to government services
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
A
Tn
B
e/
C D
Whose organization is “The United Patriotic Association” and “Muhammed Anglo-Oriental
Association”?
.m
A B
C D
Statement 1:Babaramsingh the founder of the Nirankari movement stressed the worship of god.
s:
Statement 2:TheNamdhari movement founded by Baba Dayal das was another socio-religious
movement among the Sikhs
tp
A) 1 is true,2 is false B) 1 is false,2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D) 1 and 2 are false
ht
A B
C D
Women’s India association started the All India women conference in the year
A) 1925 B) 1926 C) 1927 D) 1928
A B C D
5
2. To Promote the holy war against non-muslims
A) Both are true B) 1 is true C) 2 is true D) Both are false
c8
ps
A B C D
Choose the incorrect one
Tn
A) NarendraDatta was the prime follower of RamakrsihnaParamahamsa
B) Dissatisfied with conventional philosophical positions and practices vivekanadha advocated the
practical Vedanta of service to humanity
C) He protected the tendency to defend every institution simply because it was connected with
e/
religion
D) He emphasized a cultural nationalism and made a call to indian youth to regenerate Hindu
Society
.m
A
B
//t
C
D
s:
Statement 1:Based on the Raja Rammohan roy interpretation of the Upanishads,he argued that all
the ancient texts of the Hindus preached monotheism or worship of one god.
tp
Statement 2:He opposed for the introduction of English language and western sciences in schools
and colleges
A) 1 is true,2 is false B) 1 is false,2 is true C) Both are true D) Both are false
ht
A B
C D
5
B
c8
C
D
ps
In 1866 a split occurred in the ranks of Brahmosamaj,Debendranathtagore organization was called
as
A) Tagore BrahmoSamaj B) AdiBrahmosamaj
C) Ahimsa Brahmosamaj D) Satharnbrahmosamaj
A
C
Tn
B
D
e/
Who is the pioneer of the Modern Bengali prose?
A) Raja Rammohan roy B) M.G.Ranade
C) Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar D) Keshab Chandra Sen
.m
A B M.G
C D
Statement 1: Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar played a leading role in promoting education of girls and
//t
ht
A
B
C
D
SCIENCE)
Statement 1: Ammeter is a device that measures the amount of current flowing through an electric
circuit.
Statement 2: Ammeter should be connected in parallel
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
5
A B
c8
C D
Find the correctoption about Epsom:
1. Helps muscles and nerves function properly
ps
2. Used as a disinfectant in surgery.
3. Used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.
4. Used to improve plant growth in agriculture.
A) 1,2 B) 2,3 C) 1,4 D) 3,4
Tn
e/
A B C D
Match. a b c d
.m
3
a. 1 gallon - 1. 961 Kg/m A) 2 3 4 1
b. 1 ounce - 2. 3785 ml B) 2 3 1 4
c. 1 quart - 3. 30 ml C) 4 3 2 1
d. Density of lamp oil - 4. 1 liter D) 3 4 2 1
//t
a b c d
a A
b B
s:
Reason R : Nearly 64% of the atoms in the universe are hydrogen atoms
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
ht
5
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
c8
C) A correct, R correct
D) A incorrect, R incorrect
ps
A
B
C
Tn
D
Choose the correct option from the following statement.
e/
1. He was the first to describe the process of fermentation.
2. He discovered vaccine for Rabies
3. He is a French chemist and microbiologist
.m
A B
s:
C D
Find the incorrectoption from the following. (Plane mirror)
A) The image is of the same size as the object
tp
5
a b c d
A) 1 2 4 3
c8
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 4 3 2 1
ps
a
b
c
d
a
A
B
b
c
d
Tn ORS
e/
C
D
SI unit of luminosity or Luminous intensity is
.m
ReasonR : Water has lower specific heat capacity than other substances
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
s:
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
tp
A
B
ht
C
D
Speed of sound at 25 ° C in stainless steel
A) 6420 m / s B) 5950 m / s C) 5960 m / s D) 1530 m / s
℃
A B
C D
5
A) November 5, 2013 B) 24 September 2014
C) 24 September 2013 D) September 16, 2014
c8
A B
C D
ps
Examine the following statements.
1. Used to whitewash walls - Calcium oxide
2. Used in the purification of drinking water - Calcium oxychloride
3. Used in the manufacture of cement and glass - Calcium hydroxide
4. Used to soften hard water
A) 1,2 correct 3,4 incorrect
C) 1,3 correct, 2,4 incorrect
Tn - Sodium carbonate
B) 1,2 incorrect, 3,4 correct
D) 2,4 correct 1,3 incorrect
e/
.m
A B
C D
Which is not the chemical present in the head of a matchstick and sides of the matchbox
//t
A B
C D
tp
Match. a b c d
a. Nitre - 1. Carbon dioxide A) 3 2 1 4
b. Chili Salt Petre - 2. Oxygen B) 4 2 1 3
ht
5
3. Acids are soluble in water.
4. Aqueous solution of acids does not conduct electricity
c8
A) 1,4correct, 2,3 Incorrect B) 2,3 correct 1,4 Incorrect
C) 1,2,3,4 correct D) 1,2,3 correct 4 Incorrect
ps
C) 45-86% D) 86-97%
e/
A B C D
Find the incorrect option :
A) Velocity /Time – Acceleration B) Force / Area - Pressure
.m
2. In United States of America, the voltage and frequency of ac is 110 V and 60 Hz respectively.
3. Resistance of a dry human body is about 1,00,000 ohm
4. A human body is a good conductor of electricity.
tp
VV
V
Hz
A B C D
5
B) A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy - Dynamo
C) Devise used to obtain images of the internal parts of our body - Magnetic resonance
c8
imaging
D) The path followed by a magnetic needle in a magnetic field- Magnetic field
A
ps
B
C
A) F = 9 / 5C + 32 B) C = 5/9 (F-32)
Tn
D
Equation for converting Fahrenheit measurement to Celsius measurement
C) Tk = Tc + 273.15 D) Tc = Tk - 273.15
e/
A) F = 9/5 C + 32 B) C = 5/9 (F – 32) C) Tk = Tc + 273.15 D) Tc = Tk – 273.15
Statement 1: Used to break down kidney stones into small particles - Ultrasonic waves
Statement 2: Sonar is used to locate submarines and glaciers
.m
A B
s:
C D
Method used to separate two immiscible liquids
A) Simple distillation B) Solvent extraction
tp
C D
Find the incorrectoption.
A) Liquid - Liquid –Emulsion B) Gas - Liquid - Foam
C) Solid - Liquid –Aerosol D) Liquid - solid - Gel
A B
C D
5
d f D
An element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 18, 8 is
c8
A) Helium B) Argon C) Krypton D) Xenon
A B C D
ps
Find the incorrectoption :
A) pHscale is used to find out Nitrogen ion concentration in a solution.
B) PH is measured from 0 to 14 on the scale
C) ThepH value of the acidic solution is less than 7
Tn
D) The pH value of the neutral solution is equal to 7
APH
B PH
e/
C
D
Which is used to know the content of water in the human body ?
.m
C D
Assertion A : Acetic acid (CH3COOH) is monobasic
Reason R :Acetic acid has four hydrogen atoms but only one canbe replaced
tp
D) A incorrect, R correct
CH3COOH
A
B
C D
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
Roots found in dicotyledonous plants are
A) Tap root B) Fibrous root C) Secondary root D) Tertiary root
ps
A) B)
C) D)
Statement 1: The leaves of the aquatic plant Victoria Amazonica grow up to 3 meters in diameter.
A) 1 2 correct
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect
Tn
Statement 2: A mature Victoria leaf can support an evenly distributed Load of 100 Kilograms or
apparently young person.
B) 1 2 incorrect
D) 1 incorrect 2 correct
e/
.m
A)
B)
C)
//t
D)
Marine plants perform about _____of all photosynthesis that occurs on the planet.
A) 60% B) 40% C) 70% D) 71%
s:
_____
A) B) C) D)
Match. Minerals &Diseases a b c d
tp
a) Calcium - 1) Cretinism A) 1 2 3 4
b) Phosphorus - 2) Osteomalatia B) 3 2 1 4
c) Iodine - 3) Rickets C) 4 3 2 1
ht
d) Iron - 4) Anemia D) 1 3 4 2
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
b B 3 2 1 4
c C 4 3 2 1
d D 1 3 4 2
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Match. a b c d
a) Cytoplasm - 1) Power house of the cell A) 1 2 3 4
ps
b) Mitochondria - 2) Area of movement B) 4 3 2 1
c) Vacuoles - 3) Cell’s control center C) 3 2 1 4
d) Nucleus - 4) Storage tanks D) 2 1 4 3
a b c d
a
c
d
b
Tn A
B
C
D
1
4
3
2
2
3
2
1
3
2
1
4
4
1
4
3
e/
Find the correct option about Gymnosperms.
1. Ovules are not enclosed 2. Ovary present
3. Naked seeded plant 4. It produces fruits
.m
A) Only 1,2 correct B) Only 2,4 correct C) Only 1,3 correct D) All correct
//t
A) B)
C) D)
The father of modern taxonomy is
s:
A) B)
C) R.H. D)
Statement 1: The smallest cell in the human body is the egg cell.
ht
Statement 2: The largest cell in the human body is the nerve cell.
A) 1 2 are correct B) 1 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect 2 correct
A) B)
C) D)
5
a
b
c8
c
d
A) B)
C) D)
ps
Which part of the flower attracts insects and birds for pollination ?
A) Petals B) Sepals C) Androecium D) Gynoecium
A) B) C)
Example of Aerial modified plant is
A) Vallarai
B) Cactus
Tn C) Strawberry
D)
D) Chrysanthanum
e/
A) B) C) D)
A watery fluid that is present in the area between the lens and the cornea is
A) Vitreous humour B) Pericardial fluid
.m
Match. a b c d
a) Ball and socket joint - 1) Spinal Axis A) 1 3 2 4
b) Hinge joint - 2) Shoulder B) 1 2 3 4
s:
a A 1 3 2 4
b B 1 2 3 4
c C 2 3 1 4
ht
5
c8
A B C D
ps
Which hormone influence the secretion of estrogen in women ?
A) GH hormone B) LH hormone
C) FSH hormone D) ACTH hormone
A) GH
C) FSH
B) LH
D) ACTH
Tn
Statement 1:In potato, parenchyma vacuolesare filled with starch.
e/
Statement 2: In apple,parenchyma stores sugar
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 Incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
.m
A B
//t
C D
Match : a b c d
a) 15 days - 1. MMR A) 1 2 3 4
s:
b) 6thWeek - 2. Measles B) 4 3 2 1
c) 9-12 months - 3. Oral polio vaccine C) 3 4 2 1
d) 15 months to 2 years - 4. DPT and polio D) 2 1 4 3
tp
a
b
ht
c
d DPT
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 2 1 4 3
5
A B
C D
c8
Find the incorrect option
1. India accounts for 3% of the world's land area.
2. 7.8 percent of all recorded species
ps
3. It contains over 45000 plant species.
4. It also includes 91000 animal species.
A) 1 only incorrect B) 2 only incorrect C) 3 only incorrect D) 4 only incorrect
Tn
e/
A B C D
The giant salamander Andriasdavidians is the largest amphibian in the world is found in
A) USA B) China C) Russia D) Canada
.m
A B C D
Match. a b c d e
//t
a.
b.
c.
ht
d.
e)
a b c d e
A) 1 2 3 4 5
B)
C)
D)
5
____________
c8
A) B)
C) D)
Which enzyme found in saliva converts starch into maltose ?
ps
A) Ptyalin B) Pepsin C) Rennin D) HCL
A B
C D HCL
Match the following:
a) Gymnosperms
b) Angiosperms
c) Kuppaimeni
-
-
-
1.Cold Tn
2.Naked seed plant
3.Fire burns
A)
B)
C)
a
2
1
4
b
4
2
3
c
3
3
2
d
1
4
1
e/
d) Thoodhuvalai - 4.Closed seed plant D) 3 2 4 1
a b c d
a. A)
.m
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
World Water Day is observed on
//t
A
B
C
D
5
c8
−89℃
0℃
47℃
ps
15℃20℃
A B
C D
C) Nematocysts
Tn
An outer ectoderm and inner endoderm are separated by noncellularjelly like substance called
A) Mesoglea B) Coelenteron
D) Spicules
e/
A B
C D
_____________are very small prokaryotic microorganism
.m
s:
tp
ht
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 A
11 A 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 A 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 A 30 A
31 B 32 A 33 C 34 B 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 A
41 D 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 C 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 B
51 C 52 D 53 B 54 C 55 B 56 A 57 A 58 D 59 B 60 A
61 D 62 A 63 A 64 C 65 D 66 D 67 B 68 A 69 D 70 D
5
71 C 72 B 73 C 74 D 75 D 76 A 77 D 78 A 79 C 80 C
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 C 86 C 87 A 88 C 89 D 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 C 94 B 95 C 96 B 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 C
c8
101 C 102 A 103 D 104 B 105 A 106 B 107 D 108 D 109 A 110 D
111 A 112 A 113 A 114 D 115 B 116 B 117 D 118 C 119 A 120 C
121 D 122 C 123 D 124 A 125 C 126 A 127 D 128 B 129 C 130 C
131 B 132 C 133 A 134 C 135 A 136 A 137 C 138 C 139 A 140 B
ps
141 D 142 C 143 C 144 A 145 B 146 D 147 D 148 D 149 B 150 B
151 D 152 C 153 D 154 C 155 C 156 B 157 A 158 B 159 C 160 A
161 C 162 A 163 A 164 B 165 A 166 D 167 C 168 A 169 C 170 B
171
181
191
B
C
D
172
182
192
B
C
C
173
183
193
D
C
D
174
184
194
C
C
A
175
185
195
Tn
B
A
A
176
186
196
D
C
A
177
187
197
B
C
C
178
188
198
A
B
B
179
189
199
B
A
A
180
190
200
D
B
B
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 6 ANS KEY
.m
1 B 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 A
11 A 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 A 16 D 17 D 18 C 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 C 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 A 30 A
//t
31 B 32 A 33 C 34 B 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 A
41 D 42 B 43 D 44 C 45 C 46 C 47 B 48 D 49 A 50 B
51 C 52 D 53 B 54 C 55 B 56 A 57 A 58 D 59 B 60 A
61 D 62 A 63 A 64 C 65 D 66 D 67 B 68 A 69 D 70 D
s:
71 C 72 B 73 C 74 D 75 D 76 A 77 D 78 A 79 C 80 C
81 C 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 C 86 C 87 A 88 C 89 D 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 C 94 B 95 C 96 B 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 C
tp
101 C 102 A 103 D 104 B 105 A 106 B 107 D 108 D 109 A 110 D
111 A 112 A 113 A 114 D 115 B 116 B 117 D 118 C 119 A 120 C
121 D 122 C 123 D 124 A 125 C 126 A 127 D 128 B 129 C 130 C
ht
131 B 132 C 133 A 134 C 135 A 136 A 137 C 138 C 139 A 140 B
141 D 142 C 143 C 144 A 145 B 146 D 147 D 148 D 149 B 150 B
151 D 152 C 153 D 154 C 155 C 156 B 157 A 158 B 159 C 160 A
161 C 162 A 163 A 164 B 165 A 166 D 167 C 168 A 169 C 170 B
171 B 172 B 173 D 174 C 175 B 176 D 177 B 178 A 179 B 180 D
181 C 182 C 183 C 184 C 185 A 186 C 187 C 188 B 189 A 190 B
191 D 192 C 193 D 194 A 195 A 196 A 197 C 198 B 199 A 200 B
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 7 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
A) Harihara B)Bukka Tn
Vijayanagara the city of Victory was established in Southern Karnataka by two brothers named
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
e/
A) B) C) a b D)
Battle of talaikota held in the year
A)1562 B)1563 C)1564 D)1565
.m
A) B) C) D)
How many dynasties ruled the Vijayanagar Kingdoms?
A) 3 B)4 C)5 D)6
//t
A) B) C) D)
Match the following : a b c d
s:
b B 4 3 2 1
c C 1 3 4 2
d D 1 2 3 4
The last king of Sangama dynasty was
A) Bukka B)Virupaksha Raya IIC)Harihara D)Devarayar
A) B)
C) D)
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Which of the following poem describe in detail about the conquest of the Madurai Sultanate by the
Vijayanagara empire?
A) Ganagvijayam B)Ain-i-Akbari C)Madura Vijayam D)None of the above
A) B) C) D)
Who began the practice of recruiting Muslim fighters to serve him and to train him in the new
methods of warfare?
A) Devaraya II B)Harihara C)Bukka D)Krishnadevarayar
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Statement 1:AfterDevarayaII,the vijayanagar empire went through a crisis.The able commander of
ps
the vijayanagar army,SaluvaNarasimha making use of this situation.
Statement 2:He declared himself the emperor after murdering the last ruler of Sangama dynasty
Virupaksharaya II
A) Statement 1 only is true B)Statement 2 only is true
C) Statement 1, 2 is true
Tn D) none
e/
A) B) C) D)
The most illustrious (or) famous ruler of the Tuluva dynasty was
.m
ht
A) B) C) D)
Structure of Governance in the Vijayanagar Kingdom
A) Mandalams - Nadus - Sthalas - Gramas
B) Nadus - Mandalams - Gramas - Sthalas
C) Gramas - Nadus - Sthalas - Mandalams
D) Sthalas - nadus - Gramas - Mandalams
5
A) Both assertion and reason are true B)Assertion is true,reason is false
C)Assertion is false,reason is true D) Both assertion and reason are false
c8
ps
A) B)
C) D)
The site of the city of Vijayanagar on the bank of the river Tungabhadra in eastern Karnataka is
now called
A) Hampi B)Gate of VictoryTn C)Vijayanagaram
D)None of the above
e/
A) B)
C) D)
Crafts and industries were regulated by guilds.Who makes a reference to separate guild for each
.m
A) B) C) D)
The temple building activity of the vijayanagar rulers produced a new style called the
s:
C)Pandurangamahatyam D)Maduravijayam
A) B)
C) D)
Each village had a GramaSabha ,Who looked after the affairs of the village?
A) Gramakizhar B) headman of Village C)Gauda D)None of the above
5
C)Statement 1, 2 true D)none
c8
ps
A) B)
C) D)
Which of the following statement is correct about the trade policy of Vijayanagara empire?
a b c d
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 4 3 2 1
tp
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 1 2 3 4
a
ht
5
A) Statement 1, 2 is true B)Statement 1 only true
C)Statement 2 only true D)None
c8
ps
A) B)
C) D)
Match the following :
a) Nazir
b) Wasir-i-ashraf
c) Kotwal
d) Sadr-i-Jahan
-
-
-
-
Tn
1.Minister of foreign affairs
2.Assistant Minister of finance
3.Chief Justice
4.Chief of police
e/
a b c d
A) 3 4 2 1
B) 1 3 4 2
.m
C) 2 1 4 3
D) 1 2 3 4
a b c d
a A 3 4 2 1
//t
b B 1 3 4 2
c C 2 1 4 3
d D 1 2 3 4
s:
A) B)
C) D)
ht
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Who founded the world famous madrasa in Bidar?
ps
A) Ala-ud-din hasanbhan Shah B)Muhammed Shah I
C)Mujakid D)Mahmud Gawan
A) B)
C) D)
Harihara celebrated his coronation in the year
A) 1346 B)1347
Tn C)1348 D)1349
e/
A) B) C) D)
In 1325-1351,who has tried to make Devagiri as the capital to command the Vast conquered
territory more effectively?
.m
C) D)
Statement 1:Several Persian accounts written by the court historians of the Bahmani sultanate
relating to BahamaniVijayanagar conflicts have survived.
s:
Statement 2:Though they contain some biased and exaggerated information they provide are eye-
witness accounts relating to the battles,the palace intrigues,the life and suffering of the people on
the either side
tp
A) B)
C) D)
5
d D 1 2 3 4
The reign of Alaudin Hasan Bahman Shah was__________years
c8
A) 10 B)11 C)12 D)13
A) B) C) D)
ps
Who assumed the title second Alexander in his coins?
A) Harihara B)Bukka
C)Alaudin hasan Bahman Shah D)Mahmud I
A)
C)
B)
D) Tn
Which of the following statement is incorrect about AlaudinHasanBahman Shah?
1. He divided his kingdom into five territorial divisions
e/
2. His attempt to exact an annual tribute from the state of Warangal,the redid kingdoms of
Rajahmundry and Kondavidu led to frequent wars.
A) 1 only false B)2 only false C)1,2 is false D)none
.m
//t
C) D)
Who constructed the Golkonda Fort?
A) Raja Krishna Dev B)Mahmud Gawan C)Mahmud I D)AlaudinHasan
ht
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Golkonda Fort?
1. By the 16th century Golkonda was a famous diamond Market
2. The golkonda fort is located about 11 kms from Hyderabad on a hill 120 metres height.
3. In this fort,one durbar hall is located to the one of the palaces at the foot of the hills.
A) 1only false B)2 only false C)3 only false D)1,3 false
5
A) 1only true B) 2 only true C) none of the above D)1,2 only true
c8
A) B) C) D)1, 2
ps
Statement 1:After the death of MoahmmedIII,Bahmini kingdom starts to decline.After this five of
his descendants succeeded him on throne
Statement 2:Four independent kingdoms were developed during this period.Bijapur,Ahmadnagar,
A) B)
C) D)
Statement 1:From the beginning both the bahmani and vijayanagar kingdoms were in constant
conflicit.The contest for territory,tribute and the control of horse trade were the major
//t
subjects of conflict.
Statement 2:None of them wanted to annex and dominate the fertile area between the Krishna and
the Tungabadhra
s:
ht
A) B)
C) D)
Who received tribute from the king of Sri Lanka?
A) Krishnadevaraya B)Devaraya II
C)Mahmud Gawan D)Alaudin Hun Urang
5
Reason R: It is also known as Pon in Tamil and Honnu in Kannada.
A) A & R correct B) A correct, R incorrect
c8
C) A & R incorrect D) A incorrect & R correct
A B
ps
C D
Assertion A: Mohammad Gawan used gunpowder.
Reason R: Persian chemists guided him for the preparation and the use of gun powder.
e/
A
B
C D
.m
B
tp
C
D
Find the incorrect pair :
ht
5
A B
c8
C D
INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT)
ps
Which of the following statement is/are true about the Kol tribal uprising?
I. Kols as tribes inhabited in Chotanagpur and Singhbum region of Bihar and Orissa
II. The immediate cause of the uprising was the action of the Raja of Chotanagpur in leasing
several villages to non-tribals
III. Buddha Bhagat was initiate the Kol revolt
III.
IV.
//t
A I, II, BI, III, CI, II,III DI, IV,
Match the following : a b c d
a) Second Mysore War - 1. 1799 A) 2 3 1 4
s:
a b c d
a) A) 2 3 1 4
b) B) 4 3 2 1
ht
c) C) 3 4 1 2
d) D) 1 4 2 3
Statement 1:TheMunda tribesman led by BirsaMunda started the rebellion against british in the
Chotta Nagpur region.
Statement 2:The indiscriminate slaughter of Munda women at Sail Rakab did not deter the follower
of Birsa
A) 1,2 is true B)1,2 is false C)1 is true,2 is false D)1 is false,2 is true
5
Assertion:The origin of the palayakkarar was in the year 1530.
c8
Reason:The literal meaning of the Palayakkarar is the holder of a camp as well as the holder of an
estate on military tenure.
A) Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion and reason are false
C)Assertion is true,reason is false D)Assertion is false,reason is true
ps
:
:
A
C
Tn
B
D
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Velunachiyar?
A) One of the Velunachiyar followers Kuyili,doused herself in oil,set herself alight and walked
e/
into the storehouse
B) Velunachiyar formed two women’s army
C) Udaiyal was the adopted daughter of Velunachiyar
.m
B
C
D
s:
A
B
C
D
The torture act was abolished in the year
A) 1858 B)1864 C)1865 D)1860
A B C D
5
A i, ii, iii Bi, ii Ci, iii D iii
c8
Statement 1: Mahalwari was introduced during the period of Bentinck
Statement 2:Under the system the revenue settlement was made with the proprietor of the estate.
Statement 3:The land revenue was collected from individual collectors
ps
A) 1,2 is true 3 is false B)2,3 is true 1 is false C)1,2,3 is true D)1,2 is false 3 is true
:
:
:
A
C
Match the following :
Tn
B
D
A) 3 2 1 4 B)3 2 4 1 C) 4 2 3 1 D) 2 3 4 1
//t
A B C D
s:
Assertion:Severe famine in the Madras presidency took place in the year 1876-78
Reason:The failure of the monsoon is the cause of the Madras presidency famine.
tp
5
a b c d
A) 2 3 4 1
c8
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 2 4 1
D) 1 2 3 4
ps
In which year did the ten lakh trees were cut to build railway tracks sleepers?
A) 1867 B)1870 C)1875 D)1885
A B C
Tn
D
Statement 1:DadhabhaiNaoroji lamented the money drained as the Drain of Wealth.
Statement 2:Gandhiji criticized Mahmud Ghazni drained as only 18 times but the british drained the
money was endless.
e/
A) 1 is true B)2 is true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
: (Drain of wealth)
.m
:
A B C D
Choose the correct statement
//t
ht
A B C D
Assertion:The british government initiated the steps for the building of dams.
Reason:There were successive famines in last quarter of the 19 th century
A) Assertion is true,reason is false
B) Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation
C) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
D) Assertion is false,reason is true
5
C)Rabindranath tagore D)Syed Ahmed Khan
c8
A B
C D
ps
Who wrote a play titled BrahmoSamajaNatakam and was an adherent of the Samaj?
A) Saidaiduraisamy B)saithai kasiViswanathaMudhalair
C)U.V.S.Iyer D)Vaiguda Swamigal
A
C
Tn
B
D
ht
5
c8
A B CD
Statement 1:Ramakrishna mission was started due to remembrance of Ramakrishna paramahamsa.
Statement 2:RamakrishnaParamahamsa was a poor priest in a temple at dakhineshwar near kolkatta
ps
A) 1 is true B)2 is true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
A B
Tn
C D
SathyaShodakSamaj Started in the year and founded by
A) 1863,Jyothiba Phule
C)1872,Savithri Phule
B)1873,Jyothiba phule
D)1890,Jyothibha Phule
e/
A B
C D
.m
Statement 1:Jyothiba Phule started a school for girls in poona in 1851 and one for depressed classes
with assistance of his wife savitri
Statement 2:In his work,we find the beginnings of the later day non Brahmin movement of
Maharashtra
//t
A B C D
tp
A B
C D
In which year and place did the vivekanandha attended the World Religious conference and made a
deep impact on those congregated there?
A) 1892,America B)1893,Chicago C)1982,Chicago D)1890,Chicago
5
a b c d
c8
a A
b B
c C
d D
ps
In which year and who founded the Ahamadiya Movement?
A) 1899,Mirza Kulam Ahmed B)1899,Syed Ahmed
C)Bairam Khan D)Rashath Ahmed
A
C
D
“Back to the Vedas”was the motto of
Tn
B
A) Rajarammohanroy B)DayanandhaSaraswathi
e/
C)Vivekanandha D)Ramakrishna paramahamsa
A B
.m
C D
Assertion:Theosophical society founded by Madam H.P.Blavatsky and Colonel H.S.olcott in the
united states of America in 1875.
Reason:Even as Indian itellectuals felt challenged by western enlightment and rationalistic
//t
movements there was a strain of thinking in the west which looked to the east for spiritual
salvation.
A) Assertion and reason are true,Assertion not explains the reason
s:
A
B
C D
5
C) Assertion is false,reason is true
D) Assertion and reason are false
c8
A
ps
B
C
D
The father of the Indian renaissance was
A) Swami Vivekananda
C)Raja Rammohan Roy
""
Tn B)DayanandhaSarswathi
D)AatmaramPandurung
e/
A B
C D
Syed Ahmed Khan founded a ____________ for the introduction of western sciences
.m
C D
Choose the correct statement
A) Suthi movement was founded by Dr.AathmarungPandurung
s:
A
B''
ht
C
D
Mysore was a small feudatory kingdom under the ___________empire
A) Vijayanagar B)Chola C)Chalukya D)Rhastrakutas
A) B) C) D)
5
Assertion:A palayakkarar was bound to pay a fixed annual tribute or supply troops to the king and
to keep order and peace over a particular area.
c8
Reason:In order to enable him to perform these duties and attend to other services,a certain number
of villages were granted for revenue collection.
A) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
ps
B) Assertion is true,reason is false
C) Assertion and reason are false
D) Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
A)
Tn
e/
B)
C)
D)
.m
A) B)
C) D)
Pick out the wrong one
s:
A) B)
C) D)
W.C.Banerjee elected as the president of Indian National Congress in the year
ht
5
A) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
B) Assertion is true,reason is false
c8
C) Assertion and reason are false
D) Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation
ps
A)
B)
C)
D) Tn
Which government appointed the Inam commission to enquire into the cases of land held rent free
without authority?
e/
A) Bombay Government B)Chennai government
C) Calcutta government D)Delhi government
.m
A)
tp
B)
C)
ht
D)
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. The two great southern powers ,the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Maratha Confederacy
supported the british as its allies
2. Hyderali used this situation took war against Karnataka
A) 1 is true B)2 is true C)1 and 2 are true D)Both are false
PHYSICS
5
Find the incorrect option (Newton's third law) :
c8
A) When birds fly they push the air downwards with their wings and the air pushes the bird
upwards
B) This principle is used in Gun firing
C) When a person swims he pushes the water using the hands backwards , and the water pushes the
ps
swimmer in the forward direction
D) This principle is used to define the path of celestial objects
A
B
Tn
C
e/
D
Statement 1: Value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1.625 ms –2.
Statement 2: If a person whose mass is 60 kg, weight 588 N on the moon
.m
In cricket, a fielder pulls back his hands while catching the ball to experience a smaller force for a
longer interval of time to catch the ball because
s:
A
B
C
D
Every body continues to be in its state of rest or the state of uniform motion along a straight line
unless it is acted upon by some external force is
A) Newton's first law B) Newton's second law
C) Newton's third law D) Law of gravitation
5
A) Weight = Mass xAcceleration due to Gravity B) Weight = Force x time
C) Weight = Mass x Force D) Weight = mass xtime
c8
A× B×
C× D×
ps
Examine the following statements. (Properties of light)
1. Light is a kind of energy.
2. Light travels in a straight line.
3. The velocity of light in air or vacuum is C = 3 x 10 8 m / s
A) 1,2,3,4 correct
C) 1,2 incorrect 3,4 correct
Tn
4. Among the visible light, violet light has the highest wavelength and red light has the lowest
wavelength
B) 1,2 correct 3,4 incorrect
D) 1,2,3 correct 4 incorrect
e/
C×
.m
A B C D
//t
A
B
C
ht
D
Statement 1: The eyeball is spherical in shape with a diameter of 2.3 cm approximately.
Statement 2: The internal organs of the eye are protected by a tough membrane called Iris
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1,2incorrect
5
A BC D
Examine the following statements (Travelling microscope)
c8
1. It is one of the best instruments that can accurately measure very small length of 0.01 m.
2. It works on the principle of Vernier
3. Its least count is 0.01 mm.
ps
A) 1,2,3 correct B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
C) 1,3 Correct 2 Incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2,3 correct
A
Tn
B
e/
C D
Find the incorrect option about Refracting telescope :
A) Cassegrain telescope B) Galileo telescope
.m
5
d D
Which scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds ?
c8
A) Raleigh scattering B) Mie scattering
C) Tyndall scattering D) Raman scattering
A B
ps
C D
Find the incorrect statement from the following :
A) Temperature is the property, which determines the direction of flow of heat
B) SI unit of temperature is Celsius
Tn
C) Kelvin (K) and Fahrenheit (° F) also used to measure temperature.
D) Temperature is a scalar quantity
e/
A
BSI
.m
CK℉
D
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the
//t
A B C D
Statement 1: The SI unit of heat energy absorbed or evolved is joule (J)
tp
Statement 2: Heat energy is always transmitted from a system of a lower temperature to higher
temperature
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
ht
5
𝑉
c 𝑇 C
d PV D
c8
Assertion A :When a solid is heated, for a given change in temperature, the extent of expansion is
smaller in solids than in liquids and gases.
Reason R : This is due to the rigid nature of solids.
ps
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
Tn
A
e/
B
C
D
.m
tp
ht
A B
C D
The value of the universal gas constant is
A) 1.381x10-23J K−1 B) 8.31 J mol−1 K−1 C) 20.7x10-5J K−1 D) 18.2x10-5JK−1
A) 1.381×10-23 JK-1 B) 8.31 Jmol-1K-1 C) 20.7×10-5 JK-1 D) 18.2×10-5 JK-1
5
Examine the following statements. (Parallel connection)
1. The Equivalent resistanceis more than the highest resistance
c8
2. Amount of current is less as effective resistance is more
3. If one appliance is disconnected, others will work independently.
A) 1,2, 3 correct B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
ps
C) 1,3 Correct 2 Incorrect D) 1,2 incorrect, 3 correct
A
C
Tn
B
D
e/
Statement 1: In India, domestic circuits are supplied with an alternating current of potential
220/230V and frequency 50 Hz.
Statement 2: In countries like USA and UK, domestic circuits are supplied with an alternating
.m
USA UK
Hz
s:
A B
C D
Find the incorrect option
tp
5
Statement 1: An LED bulb is a semiconductor devicethat emits visible light when an electriccurrent
passes through it.
c8
Statement 2: The chemical compounds used to make LED bulbs are Gallium arsenide and Gallium
phosphide.
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
LED
ps
LED
A
C
Tn
B
D
C D
Examine the following statements.
Heat produced in any resistor
1. Directly proportional to the square of the current passing through the resistor
//t
ht
A B
C D
One kilowatt hour is
A) 3.6 x 10 8 J B) 3.6 x 10 6 J C) 2.6 X 108 J D) 2.6 x 106 J
A× J B× J C× J D× J
5
d D
Fuse wire working principle is
c8
A) Joule’s Law of HeatingB) Henry Law C) Voltage effect D) Energy law
A B
C D
ps
Find the incorrect option aboutLight waves :
A) No medium is required for light waves to propagate.
B) Light waves are transverse
e/
B
C× ×
D
.m
A B
C℃ D
Assertion A : If we want to hear two sound waves clearly, the time interval between the two sounds
s:
is atleast 0.1 s.
Reason R :The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.5 seconds.
A) A & R correct B) A correct, R incorrect C) A incorrect, R correct D) A & R incorrect
tp
ht
A B
C D
Statement1 :Infrasonic waves are sound wave with a frequency below 20 Hz.
Statement 2: Sounds like ocean waves and the sound made by whales are infrasonic waves.
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1,2incorrect
5
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
c8
D) A incorrect, R correct
ps
A
B
C D
Tn
Assertion A :During rainy seasons, you can hear sound from long distances clearly
Reason R: Speed of sound increases as the humidity of the air increases.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
e/
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
.m
A
B
C
//t
D
Whenever there is a relative motion between a source and a listener, the frequency of the sound
heard by the listener is different from the original frequency of sound emitted by the source. This is
s:
_________
A) Photoelectric effect B) Doppler effect C) Current effect D) Magnetic effect
tp
A B
ht
C D
The velocity ___________, as the density of gas increases.
A) Increase B) Decreases C) Constant D) Decrease then Increase
A B
C D
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
Match. a b c d
a. Fuel - 1. Graphite A) 2 1 3 4
b. Moderator - 2. Uranium B) 2 1 4 3
c. Control rods - 3. Helium C) 2 4 1 3
d. Coolant
a
b
- 4. Cadmium
Tn D)
2
A
B
3
a
4
b
1
c d
e/
c C
d D
Which is used as a smoke detector in various industries ?
.m
ht
A B
C D
Nuclear Fission leads to emission of ___________, Radiation and triggers the mutation in the
human gene and causes genetic transform diseases.
A) Alpha rays B) Gamma rays C) Beta rays D) X rays
5
ANa
BP
c8
CI
DAu
The first nuclear reactor built in Asia and India is
ps
A) Cirus B) Dhuruva C) Poornima D) Apsara
A B C D
The safe limit of receiving radiation is about ________ per week
A) 100 ml watt
C
Tn
B) 100 ml of roentgen C) 10 ml of roentgen D) 100 ml Weber
A B
D
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 A
11 A 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 B
21 C 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 D 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 A
31 A 32 D 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 A 40 C
41 A 42 B 43 A 44 A 45 A 46 C 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 C
51 A 52 C 53 A 54 C 55 A 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 A 60 C
61 A 62 C 63 C 64 A 65 B 66 A 67 A 68 C 69 B 70 B
5
71 B 72 B 73 A 74 D 75 A 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 D 80 B
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 B 92 A 93 A 94 A 95 D 96 A 97 A 98 A 99 A 100 C
c8
101 D 102 B 103 B 104 A 105 D 106 A 107 D 108 D 109 B 110 B
111 D 112 A 113 A 114 C 115 B 116 B 117 B 118 B 119 B 120 A
121 A 122 C 123 B 124 A 125 D 126 A 127 C 128 A 129 A 130 D
131 C 132 B 133 A 134 A 135 D 136 D 137 B 138 A 139 A 140 A
ps
141 B 142 B 143 B 144 B 145 A 146 B 147 B 148 D 149 D 150 B
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 7 ANS KEY
.m
1 C 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 A
11 A 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 B
21 C 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 D 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 A
31 A 32 D 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 A 40 C
//t
41 A 42 B 43 A 44 A 45 A 46 C 47 D 48 A 49 C 50 C
51 A 52 C 53 A 54 C 55 A 56 B 57 D 58 A 59 A 60 C
61 A 62 C 63 C 64 A 65 B 66 A 67 A 68 C 69 B 70 B
s:
71 B 72 B 73 A 74 D 75 A 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 D 80 B
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 B 85 B 86 B 87 C 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 B 92 A 93 A 94 A 95 D 96 A 97 A 98 A 99 A 100 C
101 D 102 B 103 B 104 A 105 D 106 A 107 D 108 D 109 B 110 B
tp
111 D 112 A 113 A 114 C 115 B 116 B 117 B 118 B 119 B 120 A
121 A 122 C 123 B 124 A 125 D 126 A 127 C 128 A 129 A 130 D
131 C 132 B 133 A 134 A 135 D 136 D 137 B 138 A 139 A 140 A
ht
141 B 142 B 143 B 144 B 145 A 146 B 147 B 148 D 149 D 150 B
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 8 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
The revenue of the chola state came mainly from the land.The Land tax was known as
A) Kanikadan B)Jagirthar
Tn C)Zamindar
A B C D
D)All the above
C D
Statement 1:Matrimonial alliances between the cholas and the eastern chalukyas began during the
reign of RajarajaI..
//t
A B C D
tp
The temple was built to commemorate his victories in North India was
A) Brahadishwarartemple,thanjavur B)GangaikondaCholapuram
C)KanchiKailasanathar temple D)All the above
ht
A B
C D
The chola empire remained a powerful force in south India during his reign was
A) Rajendran I B)VijayalayaCholan C)Rajarajan I D)Rajavarman I
A B
C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Statement 1:Rajendra I chola successors were not capable rulers.
Statement 2:The Third successors Veerarajendra Son athiarjendra was killed in civil unrest.
A) Statement 1,2 is correct B)statement 1only correct
C) Statement 2 only correct D)none
A B
5
C D
In which year marks the end of chola dynasty when king MaravaramanKulasekarapandyan I
c8
defeated the last king RajendraChola III and established the rule of the pandyas in present day of
tamilnadu?
A) 1270 B)1279 C)1280 D)1281
ps
A B C D
Choose the correct statement about Uttiramerur Inscriptions?
Brahmins) Tn
1. Uttiramerur presently in Kanchipuram district was a Brahmadeya Village(land grants to
2. There is a detailed description of how memebers were elected to the committees of the Village
Sabha in the inscriptions found there.
e/
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
.m
A B C D
//t
A) Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion and reason are false
C)Assertion is false,reason is true D)Assertion is true,reason is false
tp
A B
ht
C D
The chola rulers carried out an elaborate survey of land in order to fix the government share of the
land revenue.How many part was collected as Land Tax?
A) 2/4 B)4/3 C)2/3 D)1/3
2 4 2 1
A B C D
4 3 3 3
5
A B CD
c8
Chola Kings were great patrons of learning.Who established a Vedic College at ennaiyiram (now in
Villupuram District)?
A) Rajarajan I B)Kulothungan I C)Kulothungan III D)Rajendiran I
ps
A B
C D
Tn
Assertion:Pandyas was one of the three ancient tamil dynasties that ruled southern India Since the
4th Century B.C (BCE) but intermittently
Reason:Korkaiassociated with pearl fisheries is believed to have been their early capital and port
A) Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion and reason are false
e/
C)Assertion is true,reason is false D)Assertion is false ,reason is true
.m
A B
//t
C D
Who converted Arikesari from Jainism to Saivism?
A) Ilangoadigal B)Thirugnanansambhandar
C)Thirunavukarasar D)Kalidasa
s:
A B C D
1. The earliest evidence of appearance of formal religious activities began was seen in his time.
tp
2. It was during his time that Buddhism spread in South India and Sri Lanka.
3. A legend associated with the movement of Chandragupta Maurya to Karnataka region before his
ht
arrival.
Find the person :
A) Ashoka B) Buddha C) Yuan Tsuang D) Mahavira
A B C D
5
A) Statement 1 only true B)statement 2 only correct
C)none D)statement 1, 2 correct
c8
A BC D
ps
Ettuthogai and Pathupattu have collections of __________poems
A) 2100 B)2200 C)2300 D)2400
A B C
Tn
D
Statement 1:Offering land grants was an important development of the Satavahanatimes.The
beneficiaries of these grants were mostly traders
Statement 2:TheNaneghat inscriptions refers to tax exemption given to the lands granted to the
e/
Buddhist monks
A) Statement 1 correct2 false B)statement 1, 2 correct
C)statement 2 false 1 correct D)statement both false
.m
//t
A B
C D
Match : a b c d
s:
d. Commander-in-chief - 4. Dandanayagam. D) 2 3 1 4
a b c d
a. A
ht
5
A B C D
The wild boar was the royal insignia of the
c8
A) Pallavas B)Chalukyas C)Cholas D)Cheras
A B C D
ps
Match the following :
a) Pradhana - Minister of foreign affairs
b) Mahasandhi-Vigrahika - Head Minister
c) Amatya - Minister of exchequer
d) Samaharta
A)
B)
a
4
2
b
3
1
c
2
4
-
d
1
3
Tn
revenue minsiter
e/
C) 2 3 4 1
D) 1 2 3 4
.m
a.
b.
c.
d.
//t
a b c d
A)
B)
s:
C)
D)
Choose the correct statement about Village administration of Chalukyas?
tp
1. The traditional revenue officials of the villages were called the nala-kavundas.
2. The central figure in the village administration was Kamunda or pokigan who were appointed
by the kings
ht
A) 1,2 is true B)1 only true C)2 only true D)1,2 is false
A B C D
5
Choose the correct statement about Chalukyas Architecture?
1. Historically in decaanchalukyas introduced the technique of building temples using soft
c8
sandstones as medium.
2. Four types of temples were seen in Vatapi.
3. Two temples are dedicated to Vishnu and one each to siva and to the jaintirthankars
ps
A) 1,2 is true B)3 only true C)1 only true D) All are true
A B
Tn
C D
e/
Statement 1:Built in 634,Aihole the headquarters of the famous medieval Ayyavole merchants guild
was an important commercial centre.
Statement 2:About seventy temples were located in Aihole.
.m
A B C D
s:
5
D)
In Pallavaadministration,the basic assembly of the village was
c8
A)Naddus B)Kurrams C)Sabha D)mandalam
A B C D
ps
Who is responsible for the death of Aprajitha during the Annexation of ThondaiMandalam?
A) Rajendra I B) AdhityaChola I C) Rajendra II D) AdhityaKarikalan
A
C
DTn
B
The chola kings created these as a government document for documenting their achievements?
A) Meikeerthi B) Architecture C) Sculpture D) Puranas
e/
A B C D
Which king defeated Chera ruler BaskaraRavivarman navy force in KandallorSalai?
.m
C D
Statement 1: Copper and lead coins were issued by the Cheras.
Statement 2: The coins of the Cheras are similar to the Roman coin with the bow and arrow emblem
s:
ht
A B
C D
Sri Lanka declared independence from the Chola Empire during _______
A) Kulothungan I B) Rajendran I C) Rajaraja Chola I D) Rajendran II
A B
C D
5
C D
Match. a b c d
c8
a) Mamallan - 1. Narasimhavarman I A) 1 2 3 4
b) Vadya Vidyadharan - 2. Narasimhavarman II B) 4 3 2 1
c) Sethakari - 3. Mahendravarman I C) 4 3 1 2
d) Devotee of Vishnu - 4. Nandivarman II D) 3 4 1 2
ps
a b c d
a A
b B
c
d Tn
C
D
1. The king who compiled a North language book called Mathavilasa Prahasanam.
2. The inscription Mandakapattu praises him as Vichitra Chitta.
e/
3. He has special names like Gunabhara, Satyasayandhan, Sethakari.
Identify the person?
A) Vishnu Gopan B) Mahendravarman II C) Simha Vishnu D) Mahendravarman I
.m
//t
A B
C D
During the Chola period, village assemblies levied ______tax for repairing irrigation tanks
s:
“Our people, when they see them, wonder at them, and are unable to describe them, much less
construct anything like them” said by ?
A) Ibn Battuta B) Alberuni C) Abdul Razak D) Marco polo
ht
A B C D
Match. a b c d
a. Land Revenue department - 1. Puravuvari-tinaikkalam A) 1 2 3 4
b. Land surveyors Work - 2. Head-channel B) 2 1 4 3
C.Talaivay - 3. Madagu or sluice C) 1 4 2 3
d. Kumizh - 4. Naduvagaiseykira var D) 1 3 2 4
5
C) A correct, R incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
c8
A
B
ps
C D
Choose the correct option . (Cholas)
1. Vijayalayan conquered the delta of the Cauvery River from the Muttaraiyar.
Tn
2. Vijayalayan built the city of Thanjavur and established the Chola kingdom in 859 CE
3. Historians refer to them as the Later Cholas or Imperial Cholas.
4. The king with the name of "Chola" is mentioned as their ancestor.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 only correct C) 1, 3, 4 correct D) All correct
e/
.m
A B C D
The Cheras, Cholas, and the Pandyas, became kings with the title of Vendar in the _____Age
A) Iron Age B) Copper Age C) Dark Age D) Bronze Age
//t
A B C D
s:
Statement 1 :Due to the defeat of Muvendars, Kalabhras Post sangam period was called an
interregnum or 'dark age'
Statement 2: The period of the Kalabhras is approximately CE 300 - 600.
tp
Statement 3: During the 3rd quarter of the 6th century, the Kalabhras rule brought to an end by the
Pandyas.
Select the incorrect statement.
ht
5
Nadu
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
c8
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
ps
A
B
C D
Tn
Assertion A: Vanji is the capital of the Cheras.
Reason R :Vanji is identified with Karur, while some scholars identify it with Tiruvanchaikkalam in
Kerala
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
e/
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
.m
A
//t
B
C
D
s:
tp
5
A) B) C) D)
c8
Arrange the chronological order of the Congress Conference
A) Meerut,Amaravathi,Delhi,Surat B)Amaravathi,Surat,Meerut,Delhi
C)Amaravathi,Surat,Meerut,Delhi D)Delhi,Surat,Meerut,Amaravathi
ps
A) B)
C) D)
The Viceroy Lytton adopted a hands-off approach similar to that followed in Orissa at
A) Madras Presidency
C)Orissa Presidency Tn
B)Bombay Presidency
D)None of the above
e/
A) B)
C) D)
The aim of the English Education Act was passed by the council of India in 1835 is
.m
D) Both A and B
A)
s:
B)
C)
tp
D) A B
Assertion:The Orientalist group advocated in education in vernacular languages.
Reason:TheAnglicists advocated western education in English
ht
5
A) 1,2 is true B)2,3 is true C)1,3 is true D)1,2,3 is true
c8
A) B) C) D)
ps
Match the following: a b c d
a) East India Association - 1865 A) 4 3 2 1
b) Madras MahajanaSangam - 1852 B) 3 2 1 4
c) Madras Native Association - 1884 C) 3 1 4 2
d) Indian Association
a
b
-
1866
Tn
A
B
D)
a
4
3
b
1
3
2
4
c
2
1
2
d
1
4
3
e/
c C 3 1 4 2
d D 1 4 2 3
In India,individual property rights in land during
.m
ht
''
A) B) C) D)
5
D)
Consider the statement about Odissa famine
c8
1. During 1866,for instance while a million and half people starved to death
2. The british exported 100 million pounds of rice to britian during famine
3. The Orissa famine prompted nationalist DadabhaiNaoroji to begin his lifelong investigations
ps
to Indian Poverty.
A) 1 is false B)2 is false C)3 is false D)All are false
A)
Tn
B)
e/
C) D)
Consider the following statements
1. Universities were established in Bombay,Madras and Calcutta in 1859 in India
.m
2. The british created an educated Indian middle class for their own ends but sneered at it as the
babu class
3. Babu class became the progressive intelligentsia of India and Played a leading role in
mobilisng the people for the liberation of the country
//t
tp
A) B) C) D)
ht
5
Which of the following is not matched with Special Session of Congress?
A) 1923 B)1918 C)1920 D)1947
c8
A) B) C) D)
Choose the correct one
ps
1. During Partition of Bengal,Lord Curzon became the viceroy of India.
2. Swadeshimovment held in the Pre Gandhian era
3. Swadeshi movement-boycott of foreign goods and government administered educational
institutions
A) 1,2,3 is true
B)2,3 is true
Tn
C)1,3 is true
D)1,2 is true
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
s:
A) B) C) D)
Who said the following Quote?
tp
A) B) C) D)
Assertion:Curzon assured the muslims about Partition of Bengal in his Dhakka Speech in 1904.
Reason: The partition instead of dividing the Bengali People along the religious line,united them.
A) Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion is true,reason is false
C)Assertion and reason are false D) Assertion is false,reason is true
5
3. Anger against Lord Curzon for dividing Bengal
4. Growth of Assam,Less effort of Bengal
c8
A) 1,4 is true B)1,3,4 is true C)1,2,3,4 is true D)1,2,3 is true
ps
A) B) C) D)
A) B)
C) D)
Which one of the following is not matched?
A) July 19,1905 - Partition of Bengal announced officially
//t
B) July 17,1905 - The day decided that Calcutta conference to campaign the partition of
bengal
C) August 17,1905 -The day announced the partition of Bengal at Calcutta town hall
s:
B)
B)
ht
D)
Which organization started the first swadeshi`dacoity to raise funds was organized in Rangpur in
August 1906?
A) Calcutta AnushilanSamity B)DhakkaAnushilanSamity
C)Both A and B D) None of the above
5
reformed by convincing the rulers through representation and petitioning
3. The militant nationalist on the other hand was of the opinion that the colonial rulers would
c8
never be amenable to reason as they would not like to give up the advantages of empire.
A) 1,3 is true B)2,3 is true C)All are true D)none of the above
ps
A) B)
Tn
C) D)
e/
Whose name was proposed by the president by militant nationalist for the surat session of the
congress?
A) Aurobindo Ghosh B)DadhabhaiNaoroji
.m
C) D)
Choose the correct statement
1. In the 1906 calcuttasession,by accepting demands of extremist leaders and electing
s:
DadhabhaiNaoroji as president.
2. Lord Minto elected as a Viceroy of India in the year 1906
3. The militants managed to pass four resolutions on Swadeshi,boycott,National education and
tp
self government
A) 1 is true B)1,3 is true C)1,2,3 is true D)2,3 is true
ht
A) B) C) D)
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following raw materials from India were taken to Britian?
1. Cotton
ps
2. Jute
3. Silk
4. Tusk
A) 1,2,3,4 B)1,2,3 C)4,3 D)2,3,4
A)
B)
Tn
C)
D)
e/
Assertion:Subsistence agriculture which was the mainstay for several hundred years suffering
leading to food scarcity
Reason:Indian farmers were forced to produce industrial crops like Indigo and other crops
.m
s:
Indigo
A)
tp
B)
C)
ht
D)
Which of the following was the aim of Madras Native Association sent its second petition to the
britishparliament,signed by fourteen thousand individuals?
A) Judiciary reforms
B) Education reforms
C) Pleading the termination of company rule in India
D) Land revenue method reforms
5
3. Yuganthar - Punjab
A) 2 only false B)2,3 is false C)3 only false D)None of the above
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
Who said “Swadeshi means of one‟s own country” and the origin of the idea can be traced in
1872
A) Vivekanandha
C)LalBahadurShastri Tn
B)MahadevGovindRanade
D)Gopala Krishna Gokhale
e/
A) B)
C) D)
Choose the correct statement
.m
1. The other point of departure of the militants from the moderates was over the rising extremism
in Bengal,Punjab and Maharashtra
2. Unlike the moderates who were critical of the reckless revolutionaries militant nationalist were
sympathetic towards them
//t
3. One of the common goals of the militant leaders was to achieve Swaraj or self rule
A) 1,2,3 is true B)1,3 is true C)2,3 is true D)1,2 is true
s:
tp
ht
5
A) B) C) D)
c8
The Swadeshi leaders in Tamil Nadu Planned to celebrate “SwarajyaDay”inTirunelveli on
A) March 9,1906 B)March 9,1907 C)March 9,1908 D)March 12,1908
''
ps
A) B) C) D)
Choose the incorrect statement
A) Annie bessant joined the theosophical society and came to India in 1893.
Tn
B) She founded the Central Hindu university in Benaras
C) With the death of H.S.Olcott in 1917,Besant succeeded him as the Interantional president of the
theosophical society
D) On September 28,1915,Besant started the Home rule league movement of India with objectives
e/
on the lines of the Irish Home league
A)
.m
B)
C)
D)
//t
Pick out the incorrect one
A) Swadeshi Movement - 1905
s:
A) B)
C) D)
ht
5
4.Mahatma Gandhi
A) 1 only true B)1,2 is true C)1,3 is true D)1,4 is true
c8
A) B) C) D)
ps
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A) Welcoming the separate electorates for Muslims
B) Ghadar means rebellion in Sanskrit
Tn
C) A.C.Mazumdar a congress leader welcomed the militants
D) The Ship Komadaguru returned from Canada to India
A)
e/
B)
C)
D)
.m
Statement 1:Annie bessant gave the call “The moment of England‟s difficulty is the moment of
India‟s opportunity”
Statement 2:She also tried to form an Indian Party in the british Parliament but was unsuccessful
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
//t
s:
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following party not participated in the Calcutta Annual Conference in 1916?
tp
A) B)
C) D)
Assertion:SarojiniAmmaiyar called the Jinnah as “the ambassador of Hindu-Muslim Unity”
Reason:The Chief architect of the Lucknow Pact was Jinnah
A) Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation
B) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
C) Assertion is false,reason is true
D) Assertion and reason are false
5
d) Minto-Morley reforms - 1915 D) 2 3 4 1
a b c d
c8
a A 2 4 1 3
b B 4 1 2 3
c C 1 4 3 2
ps
d D 2 3 4 1
Choose the correct statement
1. Due to the efforts of Tilak and Besant the Bombay session of the congress suitably altered the
constitution of the congress party to admit the members of the extremist section
B)1,2
Tn
2. She insisted on the congress taking up the Home rule league programme before September 1914
3. On Failing,she would organize the home rule league on her own
A) 1,2,3 C)2,3 D)1,3
e/
.m
//t
C)Tilak D)B.P.wadia
A) B)
tp
C) D)
The importance of Lucknow conference in 1916 was
A) Rise of Muslim league
ht
Statement 1: In endothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
Statement 2: In exothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect 2 correct
A) B)
5
C) D)
Examine the following statements.
c8
1. A solution of slaked lime is used for white washing walls.
2. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the oxygen in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate
on the walls
3. Calcium carbonate gives a shiny finish to the walls
ps
4. Chemical formula for marble isCaCoH2.
A) 1,2,3,4 correct B) 1,2 correct 3,4 Incorrect
C) 1,3 Correct 2,4 Incorrect D) 1,2,3 Correct 4 Incorrect
Tn
e/
(CaCoH)2
A)
B)
.m
C)
D)
Arrange the following elements in terms of reactivity. Mg, Au, Ca, Na
A) Au <Ca<Mg <Na B) Ca<Au <Na <Mg
//t
A) B)
C) D)
Assertion A :Food kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator
ReasonR :In the refrigerator, the temperature is lower than the room temperature .
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
5
3. When the pH of the mouth saliva falls below 6.5, the enamel gets weathered .
4. The toothpastes are generally acidic.
c8
A) 1,2,3,4 correct B) 1,2 correct 3,4 Incorrect
C) 1,3 Correct 2,4 Incorrect D) 1,2,3 Correct 4 Incorrect
ps
PH
C)
Tn
A) B)
D)
e/
Match. a b c d
a) Combination reactions - 1) CaCO3 Cao + CO2 A) 2 1 3 4
b) Decomposition reactions - 2) H2 + Cl2 2HCl B) 2 1 4 3
.m
a b c d
A 2 1 3 4
tp
B 2 1 4 3
C 3 4 1 2
D4 3 2 1
Statement 1: LPG is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases such as propane, butane and propylene.
ht
Statement 2: All hydrocarbons burn with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1,2incorrect
LPG
A) B)
C) D)
5
D)
Find the incorrect option :
c8
A) Solvent and antiseptic agent- Alcohol B) Stain remover - ketone
C) Painkiller – Ester D) Anesthetic - Ether
A)
ps
B) C)
D)
Examine the following statements. (Ethanol)
Tn
1. Ethanol is a colourless liquid, having a pleasant smell and a burning taste and volatile.
2. Boiling point of ethanol is 351K
3. The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid gives a compound having fruity odour.
A) 1,2,3 correct B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
e/
C) 1 Incorrect 2,3 Correct D) 1,2 Correct
.m
351K
//t
A) B)
C) D)
Which is used for the identification of alcohols ?
s:
A) B)
C) D)
Match. a b c d
a) Sugar - 1) C12H22O11 A) 1 4 3 2
b) Glucose - 2) CH3COOH B) 1 3 4 2
c) Ethanol - 3) C6H12O6 C) 1 4 2 3
d) Ethanoic acid - 4) C2H5OH D) 1 2 3 4
5
D) Methane and Ethane are hydrocarbons in gases.
c8
A)
B)
C)
D)
ps
Match. a b c d
a) Saturated compounds - 1) Ethane A) 2 1 3 4
b) Unsaturated compounds - 2)Ethene B) 2 1 4 3
c) Alicyclic compounds
d) Aromatic
a
Tn
- 3) Benzene
- 4) CycloButane
C)
D)
A
1
1
a
2
b
2
2
1
3
4
c
3
4
3
d
4
e/
b B 2 1 4 3
c C 1 2 3 4
d D 1 2 4 3
.m
Find the correct option
A) Gives a glow to the clothes - Sodium perborate
B) Prevents corrosion in washing machines - Enzymes
//t
A)
B)
C)
tp
D)
Which is used for coagulating rubber from latex ?
A) H2SO4 B)CH3COOH C) C2H5OH D) K2Cr2O7
ht
A) H2SO4 B)CH3COOH C)C2H5OH D) K2Cr2O7
Match. a b c d
a) Alcohol - 1) R - CHO A) 2 1 3 4
b) Aldehyde - 2) R - OH B) 2 1 4 3
e) Ketone - 3) R - COOR C) 3 4 1 2
d) Ester - 4) R-CO-R D) 4 1 2 3
5
A B
c8
C D
Which is not an atom of sulphuricacid ?
A) Two hydrogen atoms B) Two nitrogen atoms
ps
C) Four oxygen atoms D) A Sulphuratom
A B
C D
Elements and percentage compositionin Methane
A) Carbon - 75%, Oxygen - 25%
C) Carbon - 75%, Hydrogen - 25%
Tn
B) Carbon - 25%, Hydrogen - 75%
D) Oxygen - 75%, Carbon 25%
e/
A B
C D
If one mole oxygen atom contains 6.023 X 1023oxygen atoms then its gram atomic mass is
.m
A) 16 gm B) 18 gm C) 32 gm D) 20 gm
×
A B C D
Find the incorrect homo diatomic molecule
//t
2. The mass of an electron is very high compared to the mass of a proton and a neutron.
3. The sum of protons and neutrons is called the atomic number of an atom.
A) 1,2,3 Correct4 B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
ht
5
the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
A) 1/12th part B) 1/11th part C) 1/13th part D) 1/14th part
c8
C
1 1 1 1
A12 B11 C13 D14
ps
Examine the following statements.
1. If the difference in electron negativity between the two atoms is 1.7 then the bond is 50% ionic
and 50% covalent.
2. If the difference between the two bonds is less than 1.7 then its ionic bond.
//t
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
s:
5
A) 1,2,3 Correct B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
C) 1, 2 Correct 3 Incorrect D) 1 Correct, 2, 3 Correct
c8
ps
A B
C D
A) 1,2 Correct
C) 1 Incorrect, 2 Correct
Tn
Statement 1: Rust is chemically called hydrated ferric oxide Fe2O3.H2O.
Statement 2: The color of hydrated ferric oxide is yellow.
B) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect
D) 1,2 Incorrect
e/
Fe2O3.H2O
A B
.m
C D
Iron loses its reactivity due to
A) Concentrated nitric acid B) Concentrated hydrochloric acid
C) Sulphuric acid D) Acetic acid
//t
A B
C D
s:
A
B
C
D
5
d D
Chemical name of clay is
c8
A) Al2O3 B) Al2O3.2H2O C) Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O D) Al2O3.2SiO2
AAl2O3 B Al2O3.2H2O C Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O DAl2O3.2SiO2
ps
Metals which is less denser than water
A) Gallium, Mercury B) Sodium, Potassium
C) Mercury, Tungsten D) Gallium, Tungsten
A
C
Tn
B
D
Statement 1: Solution of syrups, mouth wash, antiseptic solution kind of concentration of the
ingredients is expressed as v/v.
e/
Statement 2: Ointments, antacid, soaps, etc. concentration of solutions are expressed as w/w.
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect C) 1,2Incorrect D) 1 Incorrect, 2 Correct
.m
V/V
W/W
//t
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
s:
b
c
d
a b c d
A
B
C
D
5
C D
Match. a b c d
c8
a. Blue vitriol - 1. MgSO4.7H2O A) 1 2 3 4
b. Epsom salt - 2. CuSO4.5H2O B) 1 2 4 3
c. Gypsum - 3. CaSO4.2H2O C) 4 3 2 1
ps
d. Green vitriol - 4. FeSO4.7H2O D) 2 1 3 4
a b c d
a MgSO4.7H2O A
b CuSO4.5H2O B
c
d
CaSO4.2H2O
FeSO4.7H2O Tn
If all the carbon atoms connected by a single bond?
A) Saturated compound
C
D
B) Acyclic compound
e/
C) Unsaturated compound D) A or B
A BCD A B
.m
C) Energy is absorbed when the bond breaks down and energy is released when the bond is formed
D) All correct
s:
A
B
tp
C
D
ht
5
A) Single displacement B) Double displacement
C) Triple displacements D) Four displacements
c8
A B
C D
ps
Example of neutralization reactions?
A) An acid reacts with base gives salt water
B) More acid reacts with less base gives salt water
C) The base reacts more and gives salt water
D) All correct
A
Tn
B
e/
C
D
The amount of energy released when a gaseous atom gains an electron to form its anion
.m
A B
C D
s:
ht
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 B 22 C 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B
31 C 32 B 33 A 34 A 35 A 36 A 37 B 38 D 39 A 40 D
41 C 42 B 43 C 44 A 45 D 46 A 47 D 48 B 49 A 50 A
51 C 52 C 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 A 58 A 59 D 60 A
61 C 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 C 66 B 67 D 68 A 69 B 70 A
5
71 A 72 D 73 A 74 D 75 A 76 B 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 D
81 A 82 C 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 B 87 A 88 B 89 C 90 C
91 C 92 B 93 B 94 C 95 C 96 B 97 A 98 D 99 B 100 C
c8
101 C 102 C 103 D 104 D 105 A 106 B 107 B 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 A 112 B 113 B 114 B 115 B 116 D 117 C 118 B 119 B 120 B
121 B 122 C 123 A 124 D 125 D 126 A 127 A 128 C 129 B 130 D
131 C 132 A 133 A 134 C 135 A 136 C 137 B 138 A 139 B 140 B
ps
141 D 142 A 143 D 144 C 145 B 146 D 147 C 148 B 149 A 150 C
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 8 ANS KEY
.m
1 A 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 D 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 B 22 C 23 B 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B
//t
31 C 32 B 33 A 34 A 35 A 36 A 37 B 38 D 39 A 40 D
41 C 42 B 43 C 44 A 45 D 46 A 47 D 48 B 49 A 50 A
51 C 52 C 53 D 54 C 55 A 56 C 57 A 58 A 59 D 60 A
61 C 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 C 66 B 67 D 68 A 69 B 70 A
s:
71 A 72 D 73 A 74 D 75 A 76 B 77 D 78 D 79 D 80 D
81 A 82 C 83 C 84 B 85 A 86 B 87 A 88 B 89 C 90 C
91 C 92 B 93 B 94 C 95 C 96 B 97 A 98 D 99 B 100 C
tp
101 C 102 C 103 D 104 D 105 A 106 B 107 B 108 A 109 A 110 C
111 A 112 B 113 B 114 B 115 B 116 D 117 C 118 B 119 B 120 B
121 B 122 C 123 A 124 D 125 D 126 A 127 A 128 C 129 B 130 D
ht
131 C 132 A 133 A 134 C 135 A 136 C 137 B 138 A 139 B 140 B
141 D 142 A 143 D 144 C 145 B 146 D 147 C 148 B 149 A 150 C
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 2 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
1. Match. a b c d
a. Mudrarakshasha
b. Priyadarshika
c. Neethi sastra
d. Harsha Charitam
- 1. Panar
- 2. Naradhar
- 3. Harshar
- 4. Visakhadattar
Tn A)
B)
C)
D)
3
4
2
4
4
3
4
2
2
2
3
3
1
1
1
1
a b c d
e/
a A
b B
c C
.m
d D
2. Find the incorrectoption (Archaeological evidence)
1. Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudra Gupta
//t
tp
5
c8
A B C D
6. The greatest of the Gupta dynasty was
A) Chandragupta I B) Samudragupta C) Sri Gupta D) Chandragupta II
ps
A B
C D
7. Find the incorrectoption.
A) Prayog Prashasti - Harisenar
C) Vikramaditya- Chandragupta I
A
Tn B) Buddhist monk- Fahein
D) Meghavarman- Sri Lanka
e/
B
C
D
.m
a. Dhanvantari - 1. Astrologer A) 2 1 3 4
b. Kahapanaka - 2. Sanskrit poet B) 3 2 4 1
c. Varahamihira - 3. Physician C) 1 2 3 4
tp
d. Kalidasa - 4. Astronomer D) 3 1 4 2
a b c d
a A
ht
5
c8
""
A B C D
ps
12. Find the incorrectoption.
A) Kshetra - Cultivable Lands B) Aprahata - Barren lands
C) Vasti - Habitable lands D) Gapata Saraha - Pastoral Lands
A
B
C
D
Tn
e/
13. Examine the following Statements.
1. There was no system of lending money at high rate of interest during the Gupta period.
2. There were three types of traders.
.m
3. The Land tax was the main source of revenue for the state.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 3 only correct D) All correct
//t
A B C D
s:
ht
5
A B C D
17. Match. a b c d
c8
a. Ajanta - 1. Madhya Pradesh A) 2 1 3 4
b. Bach - 2. Maharashtra B) 1 2 3 4
c. Udayagiri - 3. Odisha C) 1 3 4 2
ps
d. Structural Temple - 4. Guptas D) 3 1 2 4
a b c d
a A
b B
18.
c
d
Choose the correctoption.
A) Silver Coins - Dinara
Tn C
D
A B
C D
s:
A B C D
21. Who was the first Indian to explain the surgical process ?
A) Aryabhatta B) Dhanvantari C) Charaka D) Susruta
A B C D
5
A B C D
23. Examine the following Statements.
c8
1. The Gupta societyconsists of four varnas.
2. The Manu lawswere not in force.
3. The practice of Sati was followed.
ps
A) 1 incorrect B) 2 incorrect C) 3 incorrect D) All correct
""
24.
A B C
Examine the following Statements.
Tn
1. Jainism was the main subject of study in Nalanda.
D
e/
2. It had Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries.
3. Nalanda is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
A) 1,2 correct 3 incorrect B) 1 correct, 2,3 incorrect
.m
A B C D
25. Examine the Statements about Allahabad Pillar Inscription.
s:
A B C D
26. Find the correct option.
A) Parama-daivata -Worshipper of Krishna
B) Parama-Bhagavata - Worshipper of God
C) Purusha - Supreme being
D) None
5
A B C D
c8
28. The first Gupta king to issue silver coins
A) Samudra Gupta B) Chandragupta I C) Kumaragupta D) Chandragupta II
A B
ps
C D
29. Who is known as Sakraditya?
A) Samudra Gupta B) Chandragupta I C) Kumaragupta D) Chandragupta II
30.
A
C
Examine the following Statements.
Tn
B
D
e/
1. The word Amatya is found in many seals.
2. Kumaramathiya is the most important post among the amatyas.
3. The term Kumaramathiya is found in six Vaishali seals.
.m
A B C D
31. Find the incorrectoption.
s:
D) None
A
ht
B
C
D
32. Examine the following Statements.
1. The keeper of royal records known as Iranyavesti.
2. Akshapataladhikritameans forced labor.
A) 1 incorrect B) 2 correct C) Both incorrect D) Both correct
5
a b c d
a A
c8
b B
c C
d D
ps
34. 1. Bhumichitrayana - Exempted from rent.
2. Abrada Dharma - Can't gift land to others.
3. Nivi Dharma - Land endowment through a trusteeship..
A) 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 2, 3 correct D) All correct
A B
Tn
C D
e/
35. Statement 1: During the Gupta period , Nagara and Dravida styles developed .
Statement 2: This is the most creative period in the history of Indian architecture.
A) 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1,2 correct D) 1,2 incorrect
.m
A B C D
36. Which copper plate inscription indicates that the king was the sole proprietorof the land
//t
A B
C D
37. . "Lokpala" refers to?
tp
A B
C D
38. Examine the following Statements.
1. Ajanta wall paintings are not fresco paintings.
2. Because they should be drawn while the wall is wet.
Which of the following statement is false?
A) 1 incorrect B) 2 incorrect C) both incorrect D) none
5
A B C D
c8
40. Statement 1: In the early period, Buddhist works werewritten in Pali.
Statement 2: Later, Most of the workswere written in prose with verse passages in mixedSanskrit.
A) 1 incorrect B) 2 incorrect C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1,2 correct
ps
A B C D
41.
A) Vimala B) Visakhadattar Tn
The first regular Buddhist text on the logic was written by
C) Fahein
A B C D
D) Vasubandhu
e/
42. Find the correct option.
A) Panchamandali - Bhitari pillar inscription B) Nitisara - Vasubandhu
C) 7 ½ foot Buddha statue –sulthankanch D) Chandraviyakaranam –Grammar work
.m
A B
1
C D
2
//t
43. Match. a b c d
a. Dhanvantari - 1. Surya Siddhanta A) 4 3 1 2
b. Varahamihira - 2. Amaraghosha B) 3 4 1 2
s:
5
A B C D
46. Statement 1: The Navanitakam was a medical work, which is a manual of recipes, formulation and
c8
prescriptions.
Statement 2: Hastyayurveda by Palakapya is a medical textbook for birds.
A) 1 Incorrect B) 2 incorrect C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1,2 correct
ps
A B C D
47. Examine the following Statements.
Tn
1. The Gupta Empire emerged as a great power before the Mauryan Empire.
2. Srigupta founded the Gupta Empire.
3. Samudragupta captured and consolidated many regions.
e/
A) 1 incorrect B) 2 incorrect C) 3 incorrect D) none
.m
A B C D
48. Find the incorrectoption :
//t
A B
C D
49. Find the incorrect option
tp
A
B
C
D
50. The book which deals with arithmetic, geometry and algebra is
A) Biruhat Samhita B) Surya Siddhanta C) Aryabhattiyam D) Pancha Siddhantika
A B C D
51. The first revolt which can be regarded as peasants revolt was the
A)Indigo revolt B)The Santhal rebellionC)Pabna revolt D)Deccan riots
A B C D
52. Pick out the wrong pair:
A)Mahalwari system - Lord williambentinck
5
B)Ryotwari system - Thomas Munro
C)Permanent land revenue scheme - Lord Cornwallis
c8
D)Peasent’s revolt - Robert Clive
A
ps
B
C
D
53. Which system was called by different names like Jagirdari,Malguzari and Biswedari etc..?
A)Mahalwari
A
B)Ryotwari
Tn C)Zamindari
B
D)None of these
e/
C D
54. Who among the following governors introduced Mahalwari system?
A)Lord Hastings B)Lord Cornwallis C)Lord Wellesley D)Lord William Bentinck
.m
A B
C D
55. Which of the following statement is not true about Zamindari System?
//t
B
C
D
ht
5
A)Pabna Revolt B)Deccan riots C)Punjab Peasants D)Indigo revolt
c8
A B
C D
58. In which region Ryotwari system was not introduce by the british?
ps
A)Bombay B)Madras C)Bengal D)Both a and c
A B C D A C
59. Statement 1:TheChamparan Agrarian Act was passed in May 1918.
Tn
Statement 2:Permanent Land revenue Scheme-Madras
A)1 is true 2 is false B)2 is true,1 is false C)Both are true
D)Both are false
e/
A B C D
60. Which system should be followed by European planters at prices fixed by them?
A)Indigo B)Deccan C)ChamparanTinkathiaD)Moplah
.m
A B
C D
//t
61. To take control of the Indigo revolt,the government setup an indigo commission in the year
A)1860 B)1862 C)1865 D)1866
s:
A B C D
62. Name the leader of the local peasants who started a no tax movement in kheda district
tp
A B
C D
63. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
A)Bombay - Seven Island
B)Cantonment towns - Kanpur
C)Madurai - Ancient town
D)Kedarnath - Trade centre
5
65. Choose the correct one
A)Ancient towns - Developed as administrative and religious centres
c8
B)Medieval towns - Developed as states
C)Modern towns - Developed as trade centre
D)All the above
ps
A
B
C
66.
D
centres.
Tn
Statement 1:Thebritish first developed the cities as the administrative headquarters and trading
Statement 2:With the extension of domination they developed new towns depending on their
e/
purposes and resources
A)Statement 1 is true B)Statement 2 is true C)Both are false D)Both are true
.m
A B
C D
67. Which of the following is referred as “White town”?
//t
C D
68. State reorganization act was implemented in the year
A)1957 B)1956 C)1961 D)1959
tp
A B C D
69. Which year did the English east india company transferred its headquarters from Surat to Bombay?
ht
5
leadership of Yusuf Khan?
A)1956 B)1758 C)1753 D)1759
c8
A B C D
ps
73. Which of the following is not joined with South Indian confederacy of rebels against the british?
A)Rayagiri palayam B)Sivagiri palayam
C)Madurai palayam D)Tirunelveli palayam
74.
A
C
proclamation?
B
Tn
D
Which year did the MaruduPandyas issued a proclamation of Independence called Tiruchirapalli
e/
A)June,1801 B)August,1801 C)September,1801 D)November,1801
.m
A)4 only true B)2 only true C)3 only true D) 3 . 4 false
ht
A B C D
77. ___________resolution on local self government was a landmark in the history of local self
government
A)Lord Ripon B)Lord Mayo C)Francis day D)Lord William Bentinck
5
A
c8
B
C
D
ps
79. The Madras Presidency during the brotish regime covered by
1.Lakshadweep Island and Northern Kerala
2.Rayalaseema and Coastal Andhra
3.Karnataka
4.SouthOdisha
A)1,2 only B)2,4 only
TnC)1,2,3 only D)1,2,3,4 only
e/
.m
A B C D
s:
81. Which of the following statement is true about the Francis day?
1.He is the member of the Masulipatnam Council
tp
A B C D
5
d D) 3 4 1 2
83. Assertion :India became the agricultural colony of britian.
c8
Reason :Imports of Indian goods to other countries are low due to high import duty and export
restrictions.
A)Assertion is true,reason is false B)Assertion is true,reason is the explanation
ps
C)Assertion is false reason is true D)Both are false
84.
A
C
Tn
B
D
Which of the following peasants lands were returned to them when congress came to power in
1937?
e/
A)Bardoli B)Champaran C)Bapna D)Moplah
.m
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 3 1 2 4
C) 1 2 3 4
tp
D) 1 3 2 4
a b c d
a A)
ht
5
89. South Indian Confederacy declared a proclamation known as
A)Dindugul Proclamation B)Tiruchirapalli proclamation
c8
C)Coimbatore Proclamation D)Madurai Proclamation
A B
C D
ps
90. Match the following : a b c d
a) Sivagangai - 1. Kannada Marathas A) 4 3 2 1
b) Tirunelveli - 2. GoplaNayak B) 1 3 4 2
c) Dindugul
d) Thundaji
a
- 3. Palayakkarars
- 4. Marudu brothers
Tn A)
C)
D)
1
4
a
2
3
b
3
1
c
4
2
d
e/
b B)
c C)
d D) 4 3 1 2
.m
91. According to English Historians,the bravest among the leaders of the revolt of 1857 i
A)MangalPandey B)VeluNatchiyar C)Kattabomman D)Rani Lakshmibai
//t
A B
C D
92. Which is also known as Biswedari?
s:
ht
5
A B C D
95. Who were associated with the Mahalwari system?
c8
1.Robert Mertins 2.William Bentinck 3.Captain Reed
4.Holt McKenzie 5.Thomas Munro 6. Lord Cornwallis
A) 2, 4 only B) 1, 2, 4 only C) 2, 3, 4 only D) Only 1, 2, 3, 4
ps
A B
96.
C
A) Orissa B) Kerala
Tn
D
Where did the Mapillah Rebellion take place in 1920 - 21?
C) Andhra D) Karnataka
e/
A B C D
97. Which is the capital of the Territory ruled by the Maruthu Brothers?
A) Sivagangai B) Nagalapuram C) Siruvayal D) Kalayar kovil
.m
A B C D
98. Where was the Maruthu Brothers hanged?
//t
A B C D
5
101. Consider
the following statements
Statement 1:The leaves of Victoria amazonica plant grows upto 3 metres across.
c8
Statement 2: A mature Victoria leaf can support an evenly distributed load of 45 kilograms or
apparently young person.
Which of the following statement is true?
A)Statement 1 and 2 are true B)none
ps
C)Statement 1 is true D)Statement 2 is true
A B
Tn
e/
C D
102. Match the following : a b c d
a) Tap root system - 1. Sunflower A) 1 2 3 4
.m
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
s:
A B C D
104. One
of the fast growing plants,during active growth phase is
ht
5
Statement 2:A unicellular organism,Euglena moves from one place to another with the help of
Golgi body.
c8
A)Statement 1 and 2 are true B)Statement 1 is true,2 is false
C)Statement 1 and 2 are false D)Statement 1 is false,2 is true
ps
A B
C D
107. Match the Mineral deficiency diseases: a b c d
a)
b)
c)
d)
Calcium
Phosporous -
Iodine
Iron
-
-
-
1.Anaemia
2.Rickets
3.Osteomalatia
4.Cretinism
Tn A)
B)
C)
D)
1
4
2
3
2
3
3
4
3
2
4
1
4
1
1
2
e/
a b c d
a A) 1 2 3 4
b B) 4 3 2 1
.m
c C) 2 3 4 1
d D) 3 4 1 2
108. A virus that
contains R.N.A instead of D.N.A is called
A)Retro virus B)Petro virus C)Hydro virus D)Nitro virus
//t
A B C D
109. _____________are very small prokaryotic microorganism
s:
5
C D
112. Pick out the wrongly matched:
c8
Endocrine glands - Location
a) Pituitary gland - At the base of the brain
b) Pineal gland - At the base of the brain
ps
c) Thyroid gland - Neck
d) Adrenal gland - Abdomen
A) 1 B)2 C)3 D)4
A
B
C
Tn
e/
D
A B C D
113. Grey matter of the brain in our body contains__________of water
.m
5
A)Neuron B)Nephron C)Floora D)Hyaid
c8
A B C D
120. Choosethe correct one
Diseases - Caustaive agents
ps
A) Salmonella sis - Virus
B) Ranikhet diseases - Bacteria
C) Aspergillus - Fungus
D) All are true
A
B
Tn
e/
C
D
121. Statement1:India is the world’s first largest silk producing country.
.m
Statement 1:Kancheepuram,Thirubhuvanam and Arani are famous places for silk production in
Tamilnadu
A)Statement 1 and 2 are true B)Statement 1 and 2 are false
C)Statement 1 is false,2 is true D)Statement 1 is true,2 is false
//t
s:
A B
C D
122. In1992,which state of India proposed Ahimsa way of silk production for the making silks without
tp
A B C D
123. In
which year,the four notifications were released to prevention of cruelty to animals?
A)1959 B)1960 C)1961 D)1962
A B C D
5
Statement 2:Orchids have the smallest seeds in the plant kingdom.
A)Statement 1 and 2 are true B)Statement 1 and 2 are false
c8
C)Statement 1 is true,2 is false D)Statement 1 is false,2 is true
A B
ps
C D
127. Match the following: a b c d
a) Storage roots - 1.Cuscutta A) 1 2 3 4
b)
c)
d)
Mechanical support
Gases Exchange
Sucking root
-
-
-
2.Avicennia
4.Beet root
Tn
3.Banyan tree
B)
C)
D)
a
4
2
2
b
3
1
3
c
2
4
4
d
1
3
1
e/
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
.m
A B C D
129. Statement
1: The five kingdom classification was proposed by R.H.Whittaker in 1969.
s:
A B
C D
130. A female
reproductive organ ,ovary is develops into fruit and ovule develops into seed is seen in
A)Angiosperms B)Gymnosperms C)Ferns D)Mosses
A B
C D
5
A B
C D
c8
133. Suicidal Bag is called as
A) Golgi Complex B)Lysosome C)Ribosomes D)Endoplasmic reticulum
A B
ps
C D
134. The study of fungi is called
A) Mycology B)Cycology C)bacteriology D)Archaeology
A B C Tn D
135. Statement 1: Alexander fleming was the first person to discover small pox vaccine
Statement 2: Edward Jenner coined the term vaccination
e/
A) Statement 1 and 2 are true B)Statement 1 and 2 are false
C) Statement 1 is true ,2 is false D)Statement 1 is false,2 is true
.m
A B
C D
//t
A B
C D
137. Match the following: a b c d
a) Kharif crops - 1.Soya bean A) 1 2 3 4
b) Zaid crops - 2.Jute B) 4 3 2 1
c) Rabi crops - 3.Watermelon C) 1 3 4 2
d) Fibre crops - 4.Linseed D) 3 1 2 4
5
139. How many percent of freshwater is available for agriculture?
A) 70 % B) 60 % C) 65 % D)50 %
c8
A B C D
140. Thefunction of the harmone is milk secretion during lactation is
ps
A) Prolactin B)Oxytocin C)estrogen D)Progestrone
A B C D
141. Pickout the wrong one
1.Upper limb is made up of
2.Fore arm is made up of
3.Wrist
4.Palm
-
-
-
-
UlnaTn
Humerus
Carpals
Metacarpel
e/
A)1,3 B)2,4 C)2,1 D)None of the above
.m
A B C D
//t
142. Whichof the following organism body is covered by chitin ,a light protective material?
A) Earthworm B)Cockroach C)Snail D)frog
s:
A B C D
143. Pick
out the wrong one
tp
5
d. D)
145. Fungus like
Asbhyagospii and Eremothecium are used to produce ____________
c8
A)Vitamin A B)Vitamin B C)Vitamin B2 D)Vitamin C
AA BB CB2 DC
ps
146. Themost common edible mushroom is
A)Agaricus B)Polyporus C)Aspergillus D)Penicillium
A
147. It
B
Tn
C D
is the small opening located at the middle of iris.It allows light to come in
A) Sclera B)Conjunctiva C)Pupil
D)Cornea
e/
A B C D
148. Inaerobic respiration each glucose molecules produce
.m
A B
C D
150. Which of the following minerals intake needs to be increased to prevent osteoporosis in later life?
tp
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 B 72 D 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 D 77 A 78 D 79 D 80 A
81 D 82 B 83 B 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 C 88 D 89 B 90 A
c8
91 D 92 C 93 D 94 D 95 B 96 B 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 D
101 A 102 C 103 C 104 D 105 A 106 C 107 C 108 A 109 B 110 A
111 A 112 D 113 B 114 C 115 A 116 D 117 B 118 B 119 B 120 C
121 C 122 B 123 B 124 C 125 B 126 A 127 B 128 B 129 A 130 A
ps
131 B 132 C 133 B 134 A 135 D 136 D 137 C 138 B 139 A 140 A
141 D 142 B 143 C 144 A 145 C 146 A 147 C 148 B 149 B 150 D
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 2 ANS KEY
.m
1 B 2 C 3 C 4 D 5 A 6 B 7 C 8 C 9 D 10 C
11 C 12 B 13 C 14 C 15 B 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 D 20 D
21 D 22 D 23 B 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 B 28 D 29 C 30 D
31 D 32 D 33 D 34 D 35 C 36 C 37 D 38 D 39 C 40 D
//t
41 D 42 C 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 B 47 A 48 D 49 D 50 C
51 B 52 D 53 C 54 D 55 C 56 A 57 B 58 C 59 A 60 C
61 A 62 A 63 D 64 D 65 D 66 D 67 B 68 B 69 A 70 D
s:
71 B 72 D 73 B 74 A 75 A 76 D 77 A 78 D 79 D 80 A
81 D 82 B 83 B 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 C 88 D 89 B 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 D 94 D 95 B 96 B 97 C 98 C 99 D 100 D
tp
101 A 102 C 103 C 104 D 105 A 106 C 107 C 108 A 109 B 110 A
111 A 112 D 113 B 114 C 115 A 116 D 117 B 118 B 119 B 120 C
121 C 122 B 123 B 124 C 125 B 126 A 127 B 128 B 129 A 130 A
ht
131 B 132 C 133 B 134 A 135 D 136 D 137 C 138 B 139 A 140 A
141 D 142 B 143 C 144 A 145 C 146 A 147 C 148 B 149 B 150 D
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 3 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
B
C D
e/
2. Who completed the construction of qutub minar?
A)Balban B)Quibudin aibek
C) Razia D) Iltumish
.m
A B C D
3. Match the following: a b c d
//t
th
4. Who was established Muslim rule in India during 12 Century?
A) Muhammed Ghori B)Qutub-ud-din-aibak C)Iltutmish D)Balban
A B C D
5. In order to counter the possible attack of the Mongols,Iltutmish organized turkish nobility into a
select group of 40 nobles known as
A)Chahalgani B)The forty C)A and B D)None of the above
5
c8
""
A B
ps
C D
7. Qutub-ud-din aibak,Shamsudin-iltumish and Ghiyas-ud-din Balban were the three great sultans of
this dynasty.How many years they ruled over the slave dynasty?
A)70 B)74 C)80 D)84
A B C
Tn
D
e/
8. Who establishing Lahore as the capital of his kingdom?
A)Iltutmish B)Shamsud-din C)Qutub-ud-din-aibak D)Ghiyas-ud-din
.m
''
s:
A B C D
ht
11. Assertion :The Turkish nobles choose Iltutmish,the son-in-law of Aibak as the sultan,who served as
a military commander of Aibak.Iltutmish firmly established his control over the territories by
suppressing rebellions.
Reason :During his reign the threat of Mongols under Chengiz khan loomed over the large frontiers
of India.
A)Assertion is true,reasonis false B)Assertion is false,reasonis true
C)Assertion and Reason are true D)Assertion and reason are false
5
A B C D
c8
13. Who granted iqtas(land) to member of his army?
A)Iltutmish B)Balban C)Alaud-din-Khilji D)Jalal-Ud-din-Khilji
''
ps
A B CD
14. Assertion :As the most capable Son of Iltutmish ,Rukn-ud-din-firuz was dead Iltutmish nominated
his daughter Razia Sultana as his successor to the throne of delhi.
Reason :Razia was the able and brave fighter.
A)Assertion is false,reason is true
C)Assertion is true,Reason is false Tn B)Assertion and reason are true
D)Assertion and reason are false
e/
A B
.m
C D
15. Who raised a banner of revolt against balban,a provincial governor of Bengal was captured and
beheaded?
A)Alaud-din-khilji B)Jalal-ud-din-khilji C)Tughril Khan D)Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
//t
A B C D
s:
sternly.
A)Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion and reason are false
C)Assertion is false,Reason is true D)Assertion is true,reasonis false
ht
"
A B
C D
5
19. The Person who created charities to aid poor muslims is
A)Muhamed-bin-tughluq B)Firoz-Shah-Tughluq
c8
C)Alaud-din-Khilji D)Jalal-ud-din-Khilji
A B
ps
C D
20. The King who consolidated the Delhi sultanate is
A)Jalal-Ud-Din –Khilji B)Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
C)Ala-ud-din Khilji D)Iltutmish
21.
A
C
D
Tn
B
The King who patronized the famous Persian poet Amir-Khusru was
e/
A) Ghiyas-ud-din Balban B)Muhamed-bin-tughluq
C) Ala-ud-din Khilji D)Jalal-ud-din Khilji
.m
A B
C D
22. Who established a system of forced procurement of food grains for delhi and other garrison centres?
A)Muhamed-bin-tughluq B)Ala-ud-din Khilji
//t
A B
C D
23. Assertion :Ghiyas-ud-din tughluq sent his son Jauna Khan to fight against Warangal..
tp
Reason :Jauna Khan defeated Pratabarudra of Warangal and returned with rich booty.
A)Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion is true,reason is false
C)Assertion is false, Reason is true D)Assertion and reason are false
ht
A B
C D
5
many canals for irrigation was
A) Muhamed-bin-tughluq B)Firoz-Shah-tughluq
c8
C)Ala-ud-din Khilji D)Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
A B
ps
C D
27. Who followed the system of grain collected as tax?
A) Ala-ud-din B)Muhamed-bin-tughluq
C)Firoz-Shah-tughluq
A
C
Tn
D)Ghiyas-ud-din Balban
B
D
e/
28. Who changed Devagiri as Daulatabad?
A) Ala-ud-din Khilji B)Muhamed-bin-tugluq
C)Ghiyas-ud-din Balban D)Razia
.m
A B
C D
29. Tamerlane was called as
//t
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
33. Who is the author of Tarik-Al-hind(Written in Arabian Language as India Philsophy,Religion)?
A)Minhuj-Us-Kiraj B)Al-beruni C)Amir Khusru D)Ghiyaud-din-Bharuni
34.
AB
A) 1451-1526
C
Lodi Dynasty took over in the year
B)1526-1528
TnD
C)1529-1620 D)1624-1626
e/
A B C D
35. Assertion :The history of the Ghaznavid dynasty after the death of Mahmud is a story of endless
clashes over succession between brothers,cousins and uncles.
.m
Reason :However some exceptions like Sultan Ibrahim who ruled for over 22 years and his son
Masud ruled over for 15 years.
A)Assertion and reason are true B)Assertion is true,reason is false
C)Assertion is false,Reason is true D)Assertion and reason are false
//t
s:
A B
C D
tp
not muslims.
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is false D)1,2 is true
A B C D
5
emerged out of the broken Arab empire was the Samanid Kingdom which also splintered.
A)Assertion is true,reasonis false B)Assertion is false,reason is true
c8
C)Assertion and Reason are false D)Assertion and reason are true
ps
A B
39.
C
A)AmirKhusru
B)Minhaj-us-Siraj
Tn
D
Tabaqat-i-Nasiri –A World Islamic History written in Arabic by
C)Alberuni
D)Iltutmish
e/
A B C D
40. Choose the correct statement
.m
s:
A B C D
41. After the Ghazini Mahmud ascended throne , he conferred the title Right hand of the empire is
tp
5
and Rashtrakutas had lost their power.
Reason :Tomaras(Delhi),Chauhans (Rajasthan),Solankis (Gujarat),Paramaras
c8
(Malwa),Gahadavals(Kanauj) and Chandelas(Bundelkhnad) had become important ruling dynasties
of Northern India.
A)Assertion is true, reason is false B)Assertion is false,reason is true
ps
C)Assertion and Reason are true D)Assertion and reason are false
A
C
Tn
B
D
e/
46. Al-beruni a mathematician philosopher ,astronomer and historian came to India along with
A)Ghazini Mahmud B)PrithivirajChauhan
C)GhoriMuhammed D)Muhammed bin qasim
.m
A B
C D
MuhammedGhori attacked Ajmer in the year
//t
47.
A) 1191 B) 1192 C)1193 D)1194
A B C D
s:
Lakshmanatemple,Vishwanatha temple and Kandariya Mahdev temple was built by the chandelas
of Bundelkhand who ruled from Khajuraho.
2.The Slave dynasty is also known as the Mamluk dynasty.Mamluk means property.It is also term
ht
5
C) A & R correct and R is the correct explanation of A
D) None of the above
c8
A
B
ps
C
D
51. Who was the pioneer of Modern Bengali Prose?
A) Raja Rammohan Roy
C) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Tn
B) M.G.Ranade
D) Keshab Chandra Sen
e/
A B M.G
C D
.m
2
3
A B C D
tp
53. Name the Place in which the reform movement was spearheaded by the Arya Samaj
A) Bengal B)Bombay C)Agra D)Punjab
ht
5
A B
c8
C D
57. The main objectives of Deoband was a revivalist movement organized by the orthodox muslim
Ulema.
ps
1.Propagating the true teachings of Kushan and Shariath
2.Encouraging sentiments to wage holy war against non Islamic neighbours
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
Tn
1
2
A B C D
e/
58. Match the following :
a) Ayya Vazhi - 1.Niranka Movement
b) Thiruvarutpa - 2.Adi Brahmo samaj
.m
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 3 1 4 2
s:
a b c d
a. A
b. B
tp
59.
A) 1832 B)1847 C)1852 D)1855
A B C D
60. Which of the following activities involved in Ramakrishna Mission?
1.Religious activities 2.Education 3.Health Care 4.Relif in times of Calamities
A) 2,3,4 B)1,3,4 C)1,2,4 D)All the above
5
A) 1840 B)1850 C)1860 D)1870
c8
A B C D
63. Which of the following leader joined with Iyothee thasar established a movement called dravidar
Kazhagam in the year 1882?
ps
A) Rettaimalai Srinivasan B) p.Natesan
C)John Rathinam D)Rengaiyah
A B
64.
C D
Tn
Where did the first conference of Dravida Mahajana sabha were held?
A)Chennai B)Madurai
C)Nilgiris D)Salem
e/
A B C D
65. Who was a moderate reformer?
A) Debendranath Tagore B)Rabindranath Tagore
.m
66. A movement similar to the Brahmo samaj but founded in Bombay in 1867 was
A) Brahmo Samaj B)Arya Samaj C)Kanapathiyam D)Prarthana Samaj
s:
A B
C D
67. Who started the organization “Metropolitan” in Calcutta?
tp
A B
C D
68. Who was the forerunner of the extremist of the nation?
A)Vivekanandha B)Dayanand Saraswathi
C)Raja Rammohan Roy D)Ayyan Kali
A B
C D
5
A B
c8
C D
71. Which of the following organization was created by Debendranath Tagore?
A) Sangam Sabha B)Tattwabodhini Sabha
ps
C) India Reform society D)Brahmo Samaj
A B
C D
72.
A) Iyothee Thassar B)John Tiraviyam Tn
Who launched a magazine called Dravida Padian in 1885?
C)Brahmo Samaj
A B C D AB
D)Both A and B
e/
73. Assertion :Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows.
Reason : Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
A) Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation
.m
A
s:
B
C
D
tp
74. Who was the commander in chief responsible for the new military regulations in vellore fort?
A) Col.Fancourt B)Major Armstrong C)Sir John Cradock D)Colonel Agnew
ht
A B
C D
75. Statement 1:Gopala Nayak spearheaded the famous dindugul league
Statement 2:Cornwallis sent his English troops to tirunelveli in the year May 1799
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)2 is true,1 is false C)Both are true D)Both are false
5
A)Oomaithurai B)Gopala Nayak C)Sivasubramaniar D)Ramalinganar
c8
A B
C D
78. In the british records,rebellion of Marudu Brothers is referred as
ps
A) Kattabomman Revolt B)Tiruchirapalli Proclamation
C) Second Palayakkar War D)Pulithevar Revolt
A B
79.
C
Tn
D
Statement :According to the new military regulations,the sepoys wear a turban made up of leather.
Reason :Leather cockade made up of animal skin.
A) Assertion is false,reason is true
e/
B) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
C) Assertion and reason are false
D) Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
.m
A
//t
B
C
D
s:
80. Which of the following treaty deals with the palayakkar system came to an end in tamilnadu?
A) Carnatic treaty B)trichy proclamation
tp
C D
81. Who won the title of “Pattakarar of Palayakottai”?
A) Dheeran Chinnamalai B)Marudu Brothers C)Pulithevan D)Velunatchiyar
A B
C D
82. Vellore revolt was started at
A) 10 July,1806 B)10 June,1806 C)10 March, 1806 D)10 May,1806
5
A) Captain Campbell B)Colonel heron C)Mahfuz Khan D)None of the above
c8
A B
C D
Which of the following pulithevar’s three major ports came under the control of Yusuf Khan?
ps
85.
1.Vasudevanallur 2.Ottumalai,Surandai 3.Sethur 4.Nerkattumsevval,Panayur
A)1,3 only B)2,4 only C)1,4 only D)2,3 only
86.
B
Tn
A C D
Which of the following calls to the Indians to unite against the british?
e/
A)Tiruchirapalli Proclamation B)Palayakkarars Confederacy
C)South India Association D)None of the above
.m
A B
C D
87. Statement 1:The british referred Palayakkarars as “Poligar”.
Statement 2:The Palaykkarars system was not practiced under the Kakatiya Kingdom
//t
tp
5
C D
90. Who joined tipu with thousand of young people from the Kongu region who fought against the
c8
british?
A)Theerthagiri B)Dheeran Chinnamalai
C)French D)Velu natchiyar
ps
A B
C D
91. Choose the incorrect statement
A)Periya Marudhu headed the Dindugul league Tn
B)Muthu vaduganathar killed at the Kalayar koil battle
C)Marudu brothers are commander in chief of Muthu vadugnathar
e/
D)none
A
.m
B
C
D
92. Which of the following reason was colonel heron abandoned the plan and returned to Madurai?
//t
C D
93. The Palaykkarar system was introduced in tamilnadu by
A) Viswanatha Nayak B)Puli thevar
tp
C D
94. In March 1755 Mafuzkhan was sent with a contigent of the company army under colonel heron to
A) Kanniyakumari B)tirunelveli C)nerkattumsevval D)Naduvakurichi
A B CD
5
3
4
c8
A B C D
96. Which was an early call to the indians to unite against the british,cutting across region,caste ,creed
and religion?
ps
A)The Proclamation of 1802 B)The Proclamation of 1801
C)The Proclamation of 1803 D)The Proclamation of 1804
97.
A
C
A) Vellore fort
Tn
B
D
Which of the following forts were executed the marudhu brothers on October 24,1801?
B)Tirupathur Fort C)Rajapalayam fort D)Panchalankurichi fort
e/
A B
C D
.m
98. Which of the following rebellion was called as South India rebellion?
A) Sevathya B)Oomaithurai C)Ramalingar D)Marudu Brothers
A B C D
//t
A B
C D
tp
100. Who let Mohammed ali go by instructing him to tell his sultan that “Chinnamalai” who is between
Sivamalai and Chenniamalai was the one who took away taxes?
A) Theerthagiri B)Chinna marudhu
ht
C)French D)British
A B
C D
101. Findthe incorrect option
A) Fermi – 10 -15m B) Nanometer - 10-9m
C) Millimeter– 10-3 m D) Centimeter – 10-1 m
A) B)
C) D)
102. Match. a b c d
5
16
a) Kilometer - 1) 3.08 × 10 m A) 4 3 2 1
- 2) 9.46 × 10 15 m
c8
b) Astronomical unit B) 4 2 3 1
11
c) Light year - 3) 1.496 × 10 m C) 4 1 2 3
d) Astronomical radius - 4) 10 3 m D) 4 3 1 2
a b c d
ps
a × A 4 3 2 1
b × B 4 2 3 1
c ×C 4 1 2 3
d
TnD 4
103. If a mass of a humanis 50 kg on Earth, what is his weight?
A) 25 Newton B) 490 Newton
C) 250 Newton
3 1 2
D) 2500 Newton
e/
A) B) C) D)
104. Statement 1: The shell of an egg is 22% of the weight of the egg.
Statement 2: The weight of a blue whale is equal to that of 30 elephants.
.m
A) B)
C) D)
105. Find the incorrect option. (Weight)
s:
B)
C)
D)
106. Find
the incorrect option.
A) Velocity -m/s B) Momentum - Kg × m/s.
2
C) Acceleration - m / s D) Energy- Newton × m2
5
C) × D)
108. Find the incorrect option :
c8
A) Motion of the object along a straight line –Linear motion
B) Motion of the object in circular path - Circular motion
C) Motion of an object that runs to and fro repeatedly with a point as its center – Oscillatory motion
D) If an object crosses unequal distances at equal intervals- Uniform motion.
ps
A)
B) -
C)
Tn
D)
109. TheInitial velocity of a freely falling object is
e/
A) U = 0 B) U = 1 C) U = 2gh D) U = 1/2 mv2
______
A) U = 0 B) U = 1 D) U = ½ mV2
.m
C) U = 2gh
110. Examine the following statements.
1. Force acting on a body away from the center of circular path is called centrifugal force.
2. Centrifugal force is in a direction similar to the direction of centripetal force.
//t
C) 1,2,3 correct
D) 1,2,3 incorrect
tp
ht
A) B) C) D)
111. If
a single nail pricks our body it is very painful. How is it possible for people to lie down on a bed
of nails, still remain unhurt ?
A) Their body is physically strong
B) Less contact area with the body.
C) More contact area with the body.
D) Area where the body touches the nail is uniform
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
A)
B)
C)
D)
112. Match. a b c d
5
a) 1 atm - 1) 1 * 10 Pascal A) 1 2 3 4
5
b) 1 Bar - 2) 1.013 * 10 5Pascal B) 1 4 3 2
c) Density - 3) kg / m 3 C) 4 3 2 1
c8
d) 1 Pa - 4) 1 Nm-2 D) 2 1 3 4
a b c d
aatm × A 1 2 3 4
ps
b × B 1 4 3 2
c C 4 3 2 1
-2
dPa Nm D 2 1 3 4
113. Assertion A :Salt water provides more buoyant force than fresh water
C) A & R incorrect
Tn
Reason R: Buoyant force depends as much on the density of fluids as on the volume displaced.
A) A correct, Rincorrect B) Aincorrect R correct
D) A & R correct
e/
A)
.m
B)
C)
D)
114. Statement 1: Air pressure and density are higher at sea level because shorter column of air pushes
//t
down.
Statement 2: Air pressure and density are lower at a high altitude because taller column of air
pushes down.
s:
A) B)
ht
C) D)
115. Why scuba divers always wear special suits and equipment to protect them
A) For the purpose of swimming
B) The pressure inside the ocean is more than twice that of atmospheric pressure
C) The pressure in the sea is low
D) For breathing
5
117. Assertion A :The heating effect and the chemical effect experiments have to be performed only with
a dc cell of around 9V.
c8
Reason R :The 9V dc cell will not give any electrical shock.
A) A & R correct ,R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct , R is not the correct explanation of A
ps
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
9 V
9 V
A)
B)
C)
Tn
D)
e/
118. Electrostatic
forces between two point charges obeys_________
A) Newton's first law B) Newton's second law
C) Newton's third law D) The law of gravitation
.m
A) B)
C) D)
//t
A)
B)
C)
ht
D)
120. Number of electrons in 1 Coulomb of charge is
A) 6.25 x 10 21Electrons B) 6.25 X 10 18Electrons
C) 5.25 X 10 18 Electrons D) 6.26 X 10 18Electrons
C _______
A) × B) ×
C) × D) ×
5
123. Find the incorrect statements. (Magnetic lines of forces)
A) Magnetic lines of force start from the North Pole and end at the South Pole
c8
B) The magnetic lines of forces intersect each other
C) They will be maximum at the poles than at the equator
D) The magnetic lines of force penetrate inside the magnet.
ps
A)
B)
C)
D)
124. Statement Tn
1: Magnetic flux is the number of magnetic field lines passing through a given area.
Statement 2: The unit of magnetic flux is wb / m 2
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1,2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
e/
wb/m2
.m
A) B)
C) D)
125. The Unit of magnetic induction is
A) Weber B) Hertz C) Mole D) Tesla
//t
________
A) B) C) D)
126. Match. a b c d
s:
d) Generator - 4) Faraday D) 1 2 4 3
a b c d
a A 1 3 4 2
ht
b B 2 3 4 1
c C 2 1 4 3
d D 1 2 4 3
127. There will be loss of energy in a transformer in the form of ______
A) Heat, Sound B) Heat, Light C) Sound, Light D) Light, Energy
______
A) B) C) D)
5
A) Magnetic field of the human brain - 1 pT
B) Magnetic field of the galaxy - 0.5nT
c8
C) Earth's magnetic field in Chennai - 42 μT
D) Magnetic field of MRI scanner - 12T
A) PT
ps
B) 0.5nT
C) 42 𝜇T
D) MRI12T
130. The
C) Geomagnetic induction
Tn
Turtles used to find their home beach’s location through
A) Geomagnetic imprinting B) Electromagnetic induction
D) Geomagnetic displacement
________
e/
A) B)
C) D)
.m
s:
A) B)
C) D)
132. Equation for Snell's law of refraction is
tp
A) 1/V - 1/ M = 1/f B) R = 2F
C) sin i/ sin r = constant D) sin j / sin h = constant
________
ht
1 1 1 sin 𝑖 sin 𝑗
A) 𝑉 -𝑀 = 𝑓 B) R = 2F C) sin 𝑟 D) sin ℎ
133. Assertion A : Hotter air has lesser refractive index than the cooler air.
Reason R: The refractive index of air increases with density.
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A incorrect, R correct
C) A & R correct D) A & R incorrect
5
C) D)
c8
135. The Position of the image when the object is placed at the focus F is
A) Infinity B) At point F C) Between F and C D) At point C
F-________
A) B) F-
ps
C) F-C- D) C-
136. Statement 1: The velocity of light in vacuum is less.
Statement 2: Narinder kapany is known as the father of fiber optics
A) 1 correct 2 incorrect B) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
C) 1,2 correct
Tn
A)
D) 1,2 incorrect
B)
e/
C) D)
137. Match. a b c d
-1 -1
a) Water - 1) 504 Jkg k A) 2 1 3 4
.m
-1 -1
a Jkg k A 2 1 3 4
b Jkg-1k-1 B 2 3 1 4
c Jkg-1k-1 C 2 4 3 1
s:
C) Boiling water - F D) None
A) K B) C
ht
C) F D)
139. Examine the following statements
1. The process by which an object in the atmosphere releases heat and becomes liquid - Cooling
2. The process by which a substance absorbs heat and changes from a liquid state to a gaseous state
- Evaporation.
3. A substance that releases heat and changes from a liquid state to a solid state – Freezing
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 1 correct, 2,3 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2,3 incorrect D) 1,2,3 incorrect
5
140. The actual movement of molecules from high-temperature region to low-temperature region is
called
c8
A) Conduction B) Convection C) Radiation D) Latent heat
_______
ps
A) B)
C) D)
141. Assertion
A : In summer, mostly white clothes are used to keep our body cool.
Reason R: White clothes are the best absorbers of heat
A) A & R correct
C) A incorrect, R correct Tn B) A correct, R incorrect
D) A & R incorrect
e/
A) B)
.m
C) D)
142. InFahrenheit scale, the interval between the freezing point and the evaporation point is divided
into
A) 90 B) 180 C) 360 D) 120
//t
A) B) C) D)
s:
143. Whichis not among the factors that determines the amount of heat energy absorbed or lost by a
body ?
A) Mass of the body B) Change in Temperature of the body
tp
A) B)
C) D)
144. Match. (Sound level) a b c d
a) Urban traffic - 1) 90 A) 2 1 3 4
b) Subway train - 2) 70 B) 2 1 4 3
c) Boiler Factory - 3) 30 C) 1 2 3 4
d) Soft whisper - 4) 100 D) 3 2 4 1
5
A) B) C) D)
146. Which is used to study the organs of the human body ?
c8
A) Infrasonic B) Ultrasonic C) RADAR D) SONAR
__________
A) B) C) RADAR D) SONAR
ps
147. The principle that explains about the expansion of universe is
A) Helio centric theory B) Geocentric theory
C) Dark energy theory D) Big Bang theory
_________
A)
C)
148. Match. (Planets - Satellites)
a) Mars
- 1) Titan
Tn B)
D)
A)
a
4
b
2
c
1
d
3
e/
b) Jupiter - 2) Triton B) 4 3 2 1
c) Saturn - 3) Ganymede C) 1 2 3 4
d) Neptune - 4) Phobos D) 4 3 1 2
.m
a b c d
a A 4 2 1 3
b B 4 3 2 1
c C 1 2 3 4
//t
ht
A) B) C) D)
150. The
surface temperature of the sun is
A) C - C B) C - C C) C - C D) C - C
A) C - C B) C - C C) C - C D) C - C
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 B 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 A 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 B 80 A
81 A 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 B 88 D 89 C 90 B
c8
91 A 92 D 93 A 94 B 95 D 96 B 97 B 98 D 99 A 100 A
101 D 102 A 103 B 104 D 105 D 106 D 107 B 108 D 109 A 110 B
111 C 112 D 113 D 114 D 115 B 116 C 117 A 118 C 119 C 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 B 124 B 125 D 126 C 127 A 128 D 129 D 130 A
ps
131 A 132 C 133 C 134 C 135 A 136 B 137 D 138 D 139 A 140 B
141 B 142 B 143 C 144 B 145 C 146 B 147 C 148 D 149 B 150 D
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 3 ANS KEY
.m
1 D 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 C 7 D 8 C 9 A 10 C
11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 A 26 B 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 C
31 D 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 B 36 D 37 B 38 D 39 B 40 A
//t
41 B 42 C 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 A 47 B 48 C 49 D 50 C
51 C 52 C 53 D 54 D 55 B 56 D 57 C 58 B 59 C 60 D
61 C 62 C 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 D 67 A 68 B 69 A 70 D
s:
71 B 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 A 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 B 80 A
81 A 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 C 86 A 87 B 88 D 89 C 90 B
91 A 92 D 93 A 94 B 95 D 96 B 97 B 98 D 99 A 100 A
tp
101 D 102 A 103 B 104 D 105 D 106 D 107 B 108 D 109 A 110 B
111 C 112 D 113 D 114 D 115 B 116 C 117 A 118 C 119 C 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 B 124 B 125 D 126 C 127 A 128 D 129 D 130 A
ht
131 A 132 C 133 C 134 C 135 A 136 B 137 D 138 D 139 A 140 B
141 B 142 B 143 C 144 B 145 C 146 B 147 C 148 D 149 B 150 D
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
e/
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 4 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
Tn
Arrange the chronological order of the Mughal Dynasty
A) Aurangazeb,Shajahan,Babur,Akbar,Jahangir,Humayun
B) Akbar,Jahangir,Shahjahan,Babur,Humayun
e/
C) Babur,Humayun,Akbar,Jahangir,Shahjahan,Aurangazeb
D) Humayun,Akbar,Babur,Shahjahan,Aurangazeb,Jahangir
.m
A)
B)
C)
D)
//t
Which Mughal king created a policy integrating Hindus and Muslims into a unified nation forging a
composite identity?
A) Akbar B)Babur C)Humayun D)Aurangazeb
s:
A) B) C) D)
tp
5
Reason : Babur won this battle with the help of strategic positioning of his forces and the effective
use of artillery.
c8
A) Both assertion and reason are true
B) Assertion is true,Reason is false
C) Assertion is false,Reason is true
ps
D) Both assertion and reason are false
A)
C)
Tn
B)
D)
Name the battle in which babur supremacy over fought against the MediniRai at Chanderi
A) Battle of Khanwa B)Battle of Chanderi C)Battle of Ghagra D)Battle of Chausa
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
the Afghans
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) 1,2 are true D)1,2 are false
s:
tp
A) B) C) D)
The first Mughal king known in the world to have devised the “Ship’s Camel” was
ht
5
''
A) B) C) D)
c8
Match the following :
a) ZahiruddinMuhammed Babur - 1.1556-1605
b) Akbar - 2.1526-1530
ps
c) Jahangir - 3.1627-1658
d) Shahjahan - 4.1605-1627
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B)
C)
D)
2
1
4
3
1
2
2
3
3
1
4
4
Tn a b c d
e/
a A 2 1 4 3
b B 4 3 2 1
c C 2 1 3 4
.m
A) B) C) D)
Which Mughal king maintained a robust highway system for enhancement of trade and Commerce?
tp
5
A) B) C) D)
In Akbar’s court who won the tiltle of Khan-e-Khanan?
c8
A) Bairam Khan B)Abdur Rahim C) Jaimal D)Batta
A) B) C) D)
Choose the correct statement about Akbar Military Conquets.
ps
1.Malwa was conquered in 1562 from BazBahadur who was made a Mansabdar in Akbar’s court.
2.Thegondwana region of central India was annexed after a fierce battle with Ranudurgavati and his
son Vir Narayan in 1564
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) 1,2 is false D)1,2 is true
Tn
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
Akbar defeated Mirza hakim of kabul with help of ________and also conquered kashmir and
Sindh.
A) Raja Man singh B)Raja Bhagawan das C)Bairam Khan D)Shershah
//t
A) B) C) D)
Mansabdari system was introduced by
s:
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
The Mughal king who was more interested in art,Paintings,gardens and flowers was
ps
A) Jahangir B)Shajahan C)Aurangazeb D)Babur
A) B) C) D)
A Slave who was brought from Ethipoia to India was
A) Raja Bhagawan das B)Raja Mansingh
c d
e/
a) Bijapur - 1.Imad Shahs A) 1 2 3 4
b) Berar - 2.Adil Shahs B) 2 3 4 1
c) Bidar - 3.Nizam Shahs C) 2 1 4 3
.m
Nagar in 1636.With the Shi’te QutubShahi ruler of Golkonda imprisoned his own
minister,Aurangazeb to invade Golkonda
Reason:A treaty made the QutubShahi ruler a vassal of the Mughal empire
tp
5
Who reimposed the tax Jizya?
A) Akbar B)Babur C)Aurangazeb D)Shahjahan
c8
''
A) B) C) D)
Mansabadri system was introduced by
A) Shershah B)Akbar C)Jahangir D)Shahjahan
ps
A) B) C) D)
During whose reign,theZabt system was expanded to Deccan Provinces?
A) Shahjahan B)Akbar C)Shershah D)Jahangir
A) B) C)
Tn
D)
Assertion:Land revenue administration was toned by during the reign of Akbar. Peshwa
e/
Mal revenue minister of Akbar ,adopted and refined the system introduced by Sher Shah.
Reason:Todar Mal Zaby system was put in place in the north and north western provinces.
A) Assertion is true,reason is false
.m
s:
A) B)
C) D)
The towns and cities were administered by
tp
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Statement 1:To collect the revenue from the landholders were called Zamindars
Statement 2:Zamindars collected taxes with the help of Mughal officials and soldiers
Statement 3: And also maintained the law and order
ps
A) 1,2 is true B)1 is true C)2,3 is true D)All are true
A) B) C)
Tn
D)
e/
Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
A) Raja Man singh B)Birbal C)Raja Todarmal D)Raja Bhagawan das
.m
tp
A) B) C) D)
ht
5
2. He was the last of the great Mughals
3. He assumed the title of the Conqueror of the world
c8
4. He again removed Jizya
A) 1 and 2 are false B) 1 and 4 are false C) 2 and 4 are false D) All are false
ps
A)
C)
Tn
B)
D)
1. The rank of Mansabdar was not hereditary during Akbar’s time
2. Every Mansabdar was a Jagirdar if he was not paid in cash
e/
3. Tax free lands were called as Suyurghal
4. The AmalGuzar collected the tax at district level
A) All are true B) 1 and 4 are true C) 1 and 2 are true D) 3 and 4 are true
.m
//t
A) B) 1 4
C) D)
1.In 1532,Humayun besieged the powerful fort of Chunar
s:
ht
5
3. Raja Birbal is friend of Akbar
4.The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was the last war between Mughals and RanaPratap Singh
c8
A) 1 and 3 are true B) 2 and 4 are true C) 3 and 4 are true D) All are true
ps
A) B) C) D)
Tn
e/
Who was the commander in chief,during british won in the battle of plassey?
A) Robert Clive B)Wellesley C)Major Gillespie D)William Bentinck
.m
C)Due to pushed out of their family habitat D) Due to prohibit their jobs
A
tp
B
C
D
ht
The tribes followed the ______________system to suit the Indian agricultural environment.
A) Step Farming B) Horticulture farming
C)Shifting farming D)Mountain area farming
A B
C D
The main event of the 1857 revolt was the siege of
A) Nagpur B)Kanpur C)Calcutta D)Lucknow
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
A B C D
Assertion : Non co-operation movement resolution was subsequently passed in the Nagpur session
held on december 1920 Chaired by Salem C.Vijayaraghavachariar.
Reason : Surrender of all titles of honours and horonary offices.
A) Assertion is true,reason is false
B) Assertion, reason is true
C) Assertion is false,reason is true
D) Both are false
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
Which of the following statement is correct?
1.InChamaparan in Bihar,thetinkathia system was practiced
2.Reducing the sales of Indigo ,a red synthetic dyes
A) 1 and 2 are true B) 1 only true C) 2 is true D) none
Tn
A B
e/
C D
Match the following :
a) Indian Statutory Commission - 1.Commission which determining the boundary
.m
A) 2 3 4 1
B) 3 4 1 2
C) 4 3 1 2
s:
D) 1 2 3 4
a.
tp
b.
c.
d.
ht
a b c d
A
B
C
D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Initially the great rebellion began as a mutiny of madras presidency sepoys
2. The sepoys at barrackpur near Calcutta refused to cross the sea
3. This was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellion.
4. The company opposed the pension given to Nana sahib
A) 1,2,3 is true B) 2,4 is true C)1,3 is true D)2,3,4 is true
5
c8
A B C D
The Congress session in which joined by the Moderate and extremist were
ps
A) Surat Session B)Calcutta Session C)Nagpur Session D)Lucknow session
A B
C D
B)Jhansi Tn
Which of the following heir is not annexed according to the doctrine of lapse policy?
A) Satara C)Nagpur
A B C D
D)Jaipur
e/
Assertion : Indigo revolt were started by peasants
Reason :They should not permit to cultivate the Indigo Crops
A) Both are true
.m
A B
C D
s:
5
A B C D
Which of the following system can be abolished by Didumir movement?
c8
A) Polygamy B)Zamindhari system
C)Renaissance D)Money lender started year
A B
ps
C D
Kol Revolt started in the year
A) 1830-31 B)1831-32 C)1832-33 D)1833-34
A B Tn C
Who will be the viceroy of India during the Swadeshi Movement?
A) Lord Curzon B)Lord Irwin C) Lord Wellington
D
D)Lord Landstown
e/
A B
C D
.m
A B
C D
Which of the following tribal people lived around the Rajmahal Hills?
s:
C D
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Kol revolt?
A) Occurred between the Jharkhand and Odisha
ht
5
A B C D
c8
Which of the following objectives were correct about the Home rule movement?
1. To attain self-government within the british empire by using constitutional means
2. To obtain the status of dominion
ps
3. To use non- violent constitutional methods
A) 1,2 is true B)1,3 is true C)2,3 is true D)1,2,3 is true
A B C
Who started the Swadeshi navigation Company?
Tn
D
e/
A) V.O.Chidambaranar B)LalaLajpetrai C)Satyendranath Pal D)Subramaniya Bharathi
A B
.m
C D
Who started the Home rule movement?
1.LalaLajpetRai 2.Bal GangadharTilak 3.Annie Bessant 4.Bipin Chandra Pal
A) 1,2,3 is true B)2,3 is true C)2,3,4 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
//t
s:
A B
C D
ht
5
A) Madras B)Punjab C)Bombay D)Bihar
c8
A B C D
Arrange the chronological order of the event
1.Champaran Satyagraha 2.Kheda Satyagraha 3.Rowlatt Satyagraha 4.Bardoli Satyagraha
ps
A) 1,2,3,4 B)1,4,2,3 C)1,2,3,4 D)1,3,4,2
A
1.Punjab
B
2.Maharashtra
Tn
C
3.Bengal
D
Which of the following places were active of the extremist of the swadeshi movement?
4.Madras
A) 1,2,3 is true B)2,3,4 is true C)1,2,4 is true D) 1,2,3,4 is true
e/
A B C D
.m
Why did the traditional aristocracy and peasants in the early days revolt alongside the tribal people?
A) To expel the british from India
B) Insisting the re-establishing the status quo before colonial domination
C) To gain independence
//t
A
B
tp
C
D
Who wrote the Play Nil darpan?
ht
5
A) 1899 B)1905 C)1906 D)1909
c8
A B C D
Assertion : The revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the british army
Reason : The Failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority
A) Both assertion and reason are false
ps
B) Assertion is false,reason is true
C) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is the correct explanation of assertion
D) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
A
B
Tn
C
e/
D
Statement 1: A gujarati firm in south Africa sought the services of Gandhi for assistance in law-suit.
Statement 2:Gandhi accepted the offer and left for south Africa in April 1892.
.m
A) 1 is true,2 is false B) 1 is false,2 is true C)Both are true D)Both are false
//t
A B
C D
s:
Who was an agriculturist from Chamaparan prevailed on Gandhi to visit champaran?
A) Prej Kishore Prasath B) Rajkumar Shukla
tp
C D
The three proposal of national slogans of Shaukat Ali was
1.Allaho Akbar 2.Vande Mataram 3.Hindu-Musslamanki Jai 4.Jai hind
A) 1,2,3 B)2,3,4 C)1,3,4 D)1,2,3,4
A B C D
5
A.V
c8
A B C D
ps
Statement 1:Thebritish government arrested the INA officers and put them on trial in the red fort.
Statement 2: The congress setup a defence committee comprising
Nehru,TejBahadurSapru,Bhulabhai Desai and Asafali
A) 1 is true,2 is false
Tn
B) 1 is false, 2 is true C)Both are true
D)Both are false
e/
A B
C D
.m
In which of the following places were allied governments established during the quit india
movement?
1.Chathara 2.odisha 3.Bihar 4.United Provinces 5.Bengal
A) 1,2,4 B)2,3,5 C)1,4,5 D)1,2,3,4,5
//t
s:
Statement 2:The ban on the commonwealth party has been lifted in the year 1942.
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C)Both are true D)Both are false
ht
A B
C D
During which session was the resolution for the Non-Cooperation movement passed?
A)Nagpur B)Calcutta C)Bombay D)Chennai
A B C D
5
c8
A B C D
ps
Name the communist leaders were investigated in Kanpur Conspiracy case 1942.
1.M.N.Roy 2.S.A.Dhonge 3.Muzaffur Ahmed 4.Singaravelar
A) 1,3,4 B)2,3,4 C) 1,2,4 D)1,2,3,4
M.N
A
S.A
B C
Tn
D
Assertion:According to Communal award,Gandhiji strongly opposed the joining of depresses
classes in minorities
e/
Reason:Gandhiji argued that this would cause division among hindus and make the campaign
against untouchability meaningless as the oppressed class would be singled out more than hindus
A) Assertion is true,reason is false
.m
s:
A
B
tp
C
D
ht
5
A B
c8
C D
Find the incorrectoption
ps
A) Copper B) Hydrogen C) Water D) Oxygen
A B C D
Find the incorrect statement. (LPG)
A) It is a highly inflammable hydrocarbon gas Tn
B) It contains a mixture of butane and pentane gases
C) It is pressurized and liquefied
e/
D) It is used for heating, cooking and automotive fuel
LPG
A
B
.m
C
D
//t
ht
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
a. Solid in solid - 1. Sieving A) 1 2 4 3
b. Miscible liquids - 2. Fractional distillation B) 1 2 3 4
c. Soluble solids and liquids - 3. Evaporation C) 1 3 4 2
d. Insoluble solids and liquids - 4. Filtration D) 1 4 3 2
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
a
b
c
d
a b c d
A
B
C
5
D
Statement 1: The Headlights of vehicles work on the principle of Tyndall effect.
c8
Statement 2: Blue colour of sky is also a Tyndall effect.
A) 1,2 Correct B) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect
C) 1 Incorrect, 2 Correct D) 1,2 Incorrect
ps
A B
C D
Find the incorrect statement
Tn
A) The positive part at the centre of the atom is called nucleus
B) The size of the nucleus is very small compared to the size of the atom
C) The atom is neutral
e/
D) The number of protons and electrons in the atom is unequal.
A
.m
B
C
D
The ratio of Mass of Hydrogen and Oxygen is
//t
A) 1: 8 B) 2: 8 C) 8: 1 D) 8: 2
A B C D
s:
3. Atomsis an invisible tiny particle and it can be viewed through Scanning Electron Microscope.
A) 1,2,3 correct B) 1 correct, 2,3 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2,3 correct D) 1,2,3incorrect
ht
amu
A B
C D
5
C D
. In atoms, electrons revolve around the nucleus in certain permissible orbits known as
c8
A) Energy levels B) Neutrinos C) Nucleons D) Nucleus
A B
ps
C D
In the periodic table, Neutrons present in the nuclei of all the atoms except hydrogen
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Nitrogen D) Helium
A B
Tn
C D
“If two different elements combine separately with the same weight of a third element, the ratios of
e/
the masses in which they do so are either the same or a simple multiple of the mass ratio in which
they combine” is
A) Law of Conservation of Mass B) Laws of multiple proportion
.m
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
s:
5
c8
A B
C D
Who said that “The Chemical and Physical properties of elements are periodic functions of their
ps
atomic numbers” ?
A) Dobernier B) Newland C) Mendeleev D) Mosley
A B C
Tn
D
Statement 1: The number of electrons lost from a metal atom is the valency of the metal
Statement 2: The number of electrons gained by a non-metal is the valency of the non-metal
A) 1,2 Correct B) 1 Correct, 2 incorrect
e/
C) 1,2 inCorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 Correct
.m
A B
C D
//t
A B
C D
tp
5
d. Xenon -4. 36 D) 4 3 2 1
a b c d
c8
a A
b B
c C
d D
ps
Which bond is formed by the electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions.
A) Ionic bonding B) Covalent bond
C) Coordinate covalent bond D) Triple bonding
A
C
B
D
Tn
e/
Examine the following statements.
1. Polar solvents contain bonds between atoms with very different electro negativities, such as
oxygen and hydrogen.
.m
2. Non polar solvents contain bonds between atoms with similar electro negativities, such as carbon
and hydrogen.
3. Example of polar solvent is acetone, benzene
A) 1,2,3 Correct B) 1 Correct, 2,3 Incorrect
//t
tp
A B
C D
ht
Which law formulated by considering the charge of the cation and the relative size of the cation and
anion ?
A) Gay Lussac’s Law B) Fajan's law C)Octaves law D) Triads law
A B C D
5
C D
Find the incorrect option
c8
A) Grapes - Tartaric acid B) Tea –Tannic acid
C) Ant, bee sting - phosphoric acid D) Vinegar - Acetic acid
A
ps
B
C
D
Find the correct option from the following statements.
Tn
A) Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in acetic acid
B) Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in nitric acid
C) Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in phosphoric acid
-3
-1
-2
D) Number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in sulphuric acid -3
e/
A
.m
B
C
//t
D
Match. A b c d
a. Vehicle battery - 1. Sulphuric acid A) 1 2 4 3
s:
b
c
d
a b c d
A
B
C
D
5
A) Used to soften hard water - Na2CO3
B) Used for plastering broken bones - CaOCl2
c8
C) Used as a disinfectant - C6 H5OH
D) Used to soften cakes and breads - NaHCO3
ANa2CO3
ps
B CaoCl2
CC6 H5OH
DNaHCO3
DK, Ca, Mg
e/
Examine the following statements.
1. All acids contain one or more hydrogen atoms.
2. All the hydrogen containing substances are acids
.m
s:
CH4NH3
CH4, NH3
tp
A B C D
Find the incorrect option about Crystalline carbon.
A) Coal B) Diamond C) Graphite D) Fullerene
A B C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Find the incorrect option (Diamond)
A) It conducts heat and electricity
B) Each carbon has four covalent bonds
C) Hard, heavy and transparent.
D) It has tetrahedral units linked in three dimension.
A
B
C
5
D
The father of modern organic chemistry is
c8
A) Carl Scheele B) Francis Bundy C) AndreGeim D) Friedrich Wohler
A B CD
Burning PVC releases _____which is one of the most toxic chemicals known to humans.
ps
A) Styrene B) Dioxin C) Thalates D) Polystyrene
PVC
A B C D
B) Alcohols
Tn
Find the incorrect option about Organic Carbon Compounds.
A) Carbon dioxide C) Aldehydes D) Ketones
A) PS B) PA C) ABS D) PVC
Find the incorrect option. (Graphene)
A) Graphene is the most recently producedallotropes of carbon
B) Graphene is the thinnest compound known in the world
//t
A
B
tp
C
D
Number of carbon atoms in the allotrope form of carbon-fullerene is
ht
A) 60 B) 65 C) 15 D) 25
A B C D
Match. A b c d
a. Alkane - 1. Four A) 4 3 1 2
b. Alkyne - 2. Triple bonding B) 1 3 2 4
c. Alkyne - 3. Double binding C) 4 3 2 1
d. Carbon - 4. Single bond D) 4 2 1 3
5
A B
C D
c8
Which of the following are used as Artificial sweeteners in food?
A) Cyclamate B) Carotenoids C) Anthocyanin D) Sodium nitrate
A B
ps
C D
Find the correct option about Sodium-24
A) To diagnose blood clot and circulatory disorders
e/
A
B
C
.m
D
Examine the following statements. (Malaria)
1. Malaria is a vector borne disease which causes shivering and fever
2. Anti-Malarial drug is obtained from Cinchona bark
//t
°℉
ht
A B
C D
1% Iodoform solution is used as _________
A) Anti-microbial B) Anti-Malarial C) Antiseptic D) Antacid
A B
C D
5
A B C D
c8
ps
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 B 72 A 73 C 74 D 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 B 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 B 90 A
c8
91 A 92 C 93 D 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 D 98 C 99 A 100 B
101 C 102 B 103 D 104 B 105 A 106 D 107 A 108 A 109 C 110 A
111 B 112 C 113 B 114 D 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 C
121 C 122 A 123 C 124 B 125 D 126 D 127 C 128 B 129 B 130 C
ps
131 B 132 B 133 C 134 B 135 A 136 A 137 D 138 B 139 A 140 D
141 C 142 A 143 C 144 D 145 A 146 A 147 C 148 C 149 A 150 A
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 4 ANS KEY
.m
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B
11 D 12 A 13 C 14 A 15 B 16 B 17 D 18 C 19 A 20 B
21 D 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 B 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 C 30 B
31 C 32 A 33 C 34 B 35 A 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 B
//t
41 B 42 D 43 C 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 A 48 B 49 C 50 D
51 A 52 B 53 C 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 A 58 B 59 D 60 D
61 D 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 A 66 B 67 B 68 A 69 A 70 B
s:
71 B 72 A 73 C 74 D 75 A 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 A 82 A 83 B 84 D 85 B 86 A 87 C 88 A 89 B 90 A
91 A 92 C 93 D 94 C 95 A 96 B 97 D 98 C 99 A 100 B
tp
101 C 102 B 103 D 104 B 105 A 106 D 107 A 108 A 109 C 110 A
111 B 112 C 113 B 114 D 115 B 116 D 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 C
121 C 122 A 123 C 124 B 125 D 126 D 127 C 128 B 129 B 130 C
ht
131 B 132 B 133 C 134 B 135 A 136 A 137 D 138 B 139 A 140 D
141 C 142 A 143 C 144 D 145 A 146 A 147 C 148 C 149 A 150 A
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 5 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
HISTORY , INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT, SCIENCE
D
2. “The religious revival (in Maratha Country) was no Brahmanical” in its orthodoxy,it was
e/
heterodox in its spirit of protest against forms,ceremonies and Class distinctions.The Saints sprang
chiefly from the lower order of the society other than Brahmins-Said by
A)R.C.Bhanderaker B)M.G.Ranade
.m
AR.C BM.G
s:
C D
3. Choose the correct statement about Shivaji
1. Shivaji began his military career at the age of nineteen
tp
A B C D
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
5. Who succeeded the throne after the death of Mohammed Adilshah of Bijapur?
A)Serfoji II B)Adilshah II C)Bajirao I D)Bajirao II
6.
A
C
Tn
B
D
Who established Dhanvantri Mahal a research institution that produce herbal medicine of humans
and animals?
e/
A)Serfoji II B)Bajirao II C)Bajirao I D)Balaji Vishwanath
''
.m
A B
C D
7. Assertion: In July 1658,Aurangazeb ascended the throne as the emperor Shaista Khan was
appointed the governor of the Deccan in 1660 with the main purpose of crushing Shivaji
//t
Reason: Shivaji hit upon a bold plan.He entered Poona at night with 400 soldiers in the form of
marriage party and attacked the home of Shaista Khan
A) Both statement are true B)Statement 1 only true
s:
ht
A B
C D
8. Aurangazeb was forced to recall shaista khan from the Deccan in
A)December ,1663 B)November ,1664 C)Januray,1665 D)February,1666
A B C D
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
10. In which year did Shivaji resumed his belligerent policy?
A) 1666 B)1667 C)1668 D)1669
A B C D
11. Who was nominated as a Mansabdar of 5000?
A) Raja Jaswanth Singh B)Sambhaji Tn
A B C
C)Sivaji D)Serfoji
D
e/
12. Which of the following treaty were used to recovered almost all the forts of Shivaji?
A) Treaty of Agra B)Treaty of Madras C)Treaty of PurandarD)Treaty of Basin
.m
A B
C D
13. Which of the following fort was crowned by Shivaji on 6 June,1674?
A) Raigar B)Agra C)Dhorna D)Golkonda
//t
A B C D
14. Which part of the revenue as annual tribute on surat in 1672,themarathas imposed Chauth?
s:
1 1 2 3
A3 B4 C6 D4
15. Who enhanced the power and Prestige of the Maratha empire by defeating the Nizam of Hyderabad
ht
5
A B
C D
c8
17. “Peshwa” is a Persian word which means
A) Foremost B)First Minister C) a and b D)None of the above
''
ps
A B CA B D
18. “Ashtapradhan” was formed by
A) Shivaji B)Sarfoji C)Shambaji D)Balaji
19.
A B
The first powerful peshwa was
A) Balaji Bajirao
TnC
D)Bajirao I
e/
A B
C D
20. The commander in chief who troubled the Peshwa was
.m
A B
C D
22. Battle of Udgir was held in the year
tp
23. Assertion:Chanda Sahib Son-in-law of the Nawab of Arcot after capturing Tiruchirapalli threatened
to lay siege to Thanjavur.
Reason:Its Maratha ruler appealed to Shahu for help in 1739.Responding to this appeal,thepeshwa
sent RaghojiBhonsle (Sahu‟s brother in law) to thanjavur
A) Both statement are true B)Statement 1 only true
C)Statement 2 only true D)none
5
A BC D
c8
25. Nadir Shah invasions started in the year
A) 1737 B)1738 C)1739 D)1740
ps
A B C D
26. The battle which paved the way for the rise of the british power in India was
A) Third battle of Panipat B)Battle of Udgir
C)First battle of Panipat D)Second battle of Panipat
27.
A
C
B Tn
D
Who became an independent ruler of Afghanistan,after Nadir shah was assassinated in 1747 by
e/
one of his military generals?
A)Afsal Khan B)Ahmad Shah Abdali C)Jaisingh D)Aurangazeb
.m
A BC D
28. The first anglo Maratha war held in the year
A) 1775-1782 B)1782-1790 C)1790-1792 D)1792-1793
//t
A B C D
29. Assertion: After the battle of panipat,Abdali recognized Shah Alam II as the emperor of Delhi.He
s:
A B
C D
5
c8
A B
C D
31. Choose the correct statement about Third anglo Maratha war
ps
1.Thepeshwa resigned the headship of the Maratha Confedarcy
2.CededKonkan to the british and recognized the independence of the Gaikwar
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is false D)1,2 is true
A B
Tn
C D
e/
32. Choose the correct statement about the outcome of the third anglo Maratha war
1. PratapSingh,a descendent of Shivaji,was made the king of a small kingdom carved around
Satara
.m
2. The Maratha confederacy organized by BajiRao I comprising Bhonsle,Holkar and Scindia was
dissolved.
3. MountstuartElphinstone who had been resident at poona,became governor of Bombay.
A) 1 only true B)2,3 C)1,3 D)1,2,3
//t
s:
tp
A B C D
33. Provinces under the peshwas were of various sizes.Larger provinces were under the provincial
ht
governors called
A) Deshmukt B)Sar-Subahdars C)Deshpandes D)Barkir
A B C D
34. The chief village officer was called as
A) Patel B)Makarkal C)Deshmukh D)Deshpandes
5
b B
c C
c8
d D
36. Choose the correct statement about the factors of rise of marathas
1. The physical features of the Maratha country developed certain peculiar qualities among the
ps
Marathas.
2. It can distinguished them from the rest of the people of India
3. During the sixteenth century,thesulatns of Bijapur and Ahmad nagar had recruited them to serve
the cavalry
A) 1,2 B)2,3
Tn C)1,3
D)1,2,3 is true
e/
.m
Reason:In the Maratha region,the religious leaders were drawn from different social
groups.Eknath,Tukaram and Ramdas were the noted Bhakti Saints.Tukaram and Ramdas had
considerable influence on the life of Shivaji
s:
ht
A B
C D
38. Who was the guardian of the Shivaji?
A)Kavikalash B) DadajiKondadev C)Jijiabai D)Ramdas
5
40. Who was a commander of Rajput general was ordered to destroy Shivaji and annex Bijapur?
A) Raja Jai Singh B)Todar Mal C)shajiBhonsle D)Ramdas
c8
A B CD
A one-tenth of the tax as the chieftain‟s due was
ps
41.
A) Chauth B)Sardeshmukhi C) A and B D)None of the above
1
10
A B C A B D
42.
1. Villages can be administered by Deshmukhs.
Tn
Choose the correct statement about Village administration of Shivaji
A B C D
In Shivaji ministry ,Kulkarni was a
//t
43.
A) Record keeper B)External minister C)Army Chief D)Finance Minister
''
s:
A B
C D
44. Criminal law was based on the
tp
5
A B
c8
C D
48. Match the following: a b c d
a) Sar-i-Naubat/Senapati - 1. Foreign Minister A) 1 2 3 4
ps
b) Sumant/Dubeer - 2. Commander-in-chief B) 4 3 2 1
c) Nyayadhish - 3. High priest C) 1 3 4 2
d) Panditrao - 4. Chief Justice D) 2 1 4 3
a
b
c
d
Tn
e/
a b c d
A
B
.m
C
D
49. Match the following: a b c d
a) Gaikwad - Nagpur A) 1 2 3 4
//t
b) Bhonsle - Baroda B) 2 1 4 3
c) Holkar - Pune C) 3 4 2 1
d) Peshwa - Indore D) 4 3 2 1
s:
a b c d
a A
b B
tp
5
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 1 4 3 2
c8
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2
a b c d
a.
ps
A)
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
52.
twentieth century Tn
Statement 1:Tamil regained its prominence in the latter half of the nineteenth century and early
Statement 2:MaraimalaiAdigal Pure tamilmovement,the language reforms of periyar and Tamil Isai
movement helped to galvanise the tamil language
e/
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C)1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
.m
A B
C D
//t
A B
C D
54. Who declared that the introduction of Hindi over Tamil would deny the dravidians of their job
tp
opportunities?
A) Rajaji B)Kamarajar C)Singaravelar D)Periyar
ht
A B C D
55. Women India Association formed the All India Women‟s conference in
A) 1925 B)1926 C)1927 D)1928
A B C D
5
C
c8
D
57. Choose the incorrect statement
ps
A) Rajaji,the chief minister of Madras State (1952-54),introduced a vocational education
programme that encouraged imparting school children with training in tune with their father‟s
occupation.
B) Periyar Criticized it as Kula KalviThittam and opposed it tooth and nail
Tn
C) His compaigns against Kula kalvithittam led to the resignation of Rajaji
D) After Rajaji,M.G.Ramachandran became the chief Minister of Madras state
A
e/
B
.m
C
D
58. “Religion means you accept superstitious beliefs”-asserted by
//t
A B
C D
59. The word “Adidravida”, “Adi Andhra” was recommended by
tp
C D
60. Statement 1:MylaiChinnathabi Raja (1883-1943),popularly known as M.C.Rajah,was one of the
prominent leaders from the “depressed classes”.
Statement 2:Rajah started his career as a teacher and wrote different textbooks for schools and
colleges
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
5
A B
C D
c8
62. Periyar wrote columns under the pseudonym of
A) Visithrachithan B)Chitraputtiran C)Puthiran D)Eman
ps
A B C D
63. Periyar got Dr.B.R.Ambedkar‟s Annihilation of caste translated in the year
A) 1935 B)1936 C)1937 D)1938
B.R Annihilation of
caste
A B TnC
64. Choose the incorrect statement about self respect movement
D
A) The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings and
e/
held these as more important than self rule
B) The movement declared illiteracy as a source for women subordination and promoted
compulsory elementary education for all
.m
A
s:
B
tp
C
D
ht
65. After the introduction of the diarchy form of government in the provinces,the first election under
the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms was held in the year
A) 1918 B)1920 C)1923 D)1925
A B C D
5
c8
A B
CF.W. D
68. Who gave prominence to Tamil Music and published books on the history of Tamil Music?
ps
A) RamalingaAdigal B)Abraham Pandithar
C)Thiru.Vi.ka D)ParithimarKalignar
A B
69.
C D
Tn
Who promoted communism and socialism to counter the colonial power?
A) IyotheeThasar B)E.V.Ramasamy C)M.Singaravelar
D)S.Vaiyapuri
e/
A B C M. D
70. Which of the following were contributed to the revival of tamil literature in their own ways and
through their writings?
.m
s:
A)Thiru.Vi.Ka B)U.V.Sa
C)SuriyanarayanaSasthri D)RamalingaAdigal
ht
A B
C D
72. Who was considered as the father of tamil linguistic purism?
A) ParithimarKalaignar B)Thiru.vi.ka C)MaraimalaiAdigal D)P.Sundaranar
A B CD
5
A B
C D
c8
75. Which of the following organization was held the Indian national congress meeting before forming
the leaders?
A) AryaSamaj B)Theosophical Soceity C)PrarthanaSamaj D)VandhavasiSabha
ps
A B
C D
76.
A) Non-Brahmin movements
C)Partition of Bengal
Tn
Which led to the swadeshi movement and changed the course of the struggle for freedom?
B)Indian National Congress
D)MadrasMahajanaSabha
e/
A B
C D
.m
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 3 2 4 1
D) 3 4 1 2
tp
a.
b.
ht
c.
d.
a b c d
A)
B)
C)
D)
5
B
C
c8
D
79. Choose the correct statement
1. Bipin Chandra Pal was a moderates leader
ps
2. To avoid imprisonment,subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry was under French rule.
3. The non-brahmins organized themselves into a south indian liberal fedeartion to protect their
interest.
4. Gandhi as a national leader the home rule league were eclipsed
A) 1,2 is true
B)2,3 is true
Tn C)3,4 is true
D)1,2,3,4 is true
e/
.m
tp
A
B
C
ht
D
81. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Madras native association
A) It consisted primarily of merchants
B) The objective was to promote the interest of its members and their focus was on reduction in
taxation
C) This association agreed the support of the government to Christian missionary activities
D) It drew the attention of the government to the condition and needs of the people
5
1. It demands included conduct of simultaneous civil services examination in England and India.
2. Abolition of the council of India in London
c8
3. Reduction of taxes
4. Reduction of civil and administrative expenditure
A) 1,2,3,4 B)1,2,3 C)1,2,4 D)2,3,4
ps
83.
A B C
Tn
D
Choose the incorrect statement about RosaappuDurai
e/
A) Born in Chenganur and settled in Madurai.
B) He led the Vaikom Satyagraha in Kerala
C) He championed the cause of the criminal tribes of Tamilnadu
.m
C
D
s:
A B C D
85. Which of the following radical papers were come out of Pondicherry during Swadeshi Movement?
1. India 2.Sudesimithran 3.Vijaya 4.Suryodayam
A) 1,2,3,4 B)1,2,3 C)1,3,4 D)2,3,4
5
1. James Neil was the infantry man with fire arms
2. Many English women and children were killed in Kanpur rebellion 1857.
c8
3. Neill was later killed by an Indian Sepoy
4. A Statue was erected for him at Mount road,Madras
A) 1,4 is true B)2,3,4 is true C)1,2,3,4 is true D)1,3 is true
ps
88.
B
Tn
A C D
Statement 1:The swarajists did not contest the 1930 elections leading to an easy victory for the
e/
justice party.
Statement 2:The Justice party remained in office till 1945
A)Both statements are true B)2 only true C)Both statements are false D)1 only true
.m
A B
//t
C D
89. Which of the following is the reason for E.V.R leaving the congress?
1. The CheranmadeviGurukulam controversy
s:
2. Vaikom struggle
3. Opposition to communal representation
4. Salt Satyagraha
tp
A B C D
90. Which of the following is incorrect about objectives of Justice Party?
A) Reservation of jobs for non-brahmins in government service,and seats in representative bodies.
B) It opposed the home rule movement as a movement of Brahmins
C) The English rule was not conducive for the development of non-brahmins.
D) Justice party also criticized the congress as a party of the brahmins.
5
Statement 2:They implemented the programme of the Calcutta congress which called upon the
nation to promote swadeshienterprise,boycott foreign goods and promote national education.
c8
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true
C)Both statements are true D)Both statements are false
ps
92.
A
C
Choose the incorrect statement
Tn
B
D
1. Provincial associations such as the Madras MahajanaSabha led to the formation of an all India
e/
organization
2. The Indian national congress leaders from different parts of India attended several meetings
before the formation of congress.One such meeting was held in December 1884 in theosophical
.m
society
3. It was attended by DadabhaiNaoroji,K.T.Telang,Surendranath Banerjee and other prominent
leaders apart from G.Subramaniam,Rangaiah and Anandacharlu from Madras
A) 1 only false B)2,3 is false C)2 only false D)None of the above
//t
s:
tp
K.T
G. P.
ht
5
W.C.
A.O.
c8
A B C D
95. Statement 1: The Swarajya Party was formed on 1st January 1923
Statement 2: 1935 Provincial Autonomy was introduced.
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 Correct
ps
A BC D
96. Who released the "10 point demand" in 1928?
97.
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
A
B) C.R. Das
BC.R.
Choose the correct answer.
Tn
C
C) Rajaji D) Motilal Nehru
D
A B
s:
C D
98. Choose the correct answer.
1. The South Indian Liberal Federation was formed on November 20, 1916.
tp
A.
A B C D
99. The official newspaper of the Self-Respect movement?
A) Pagutharivu B) Kudiarasu C) Viduthalai D) Puratchi
A B C D
5
d.
BIOLOGY
c8
101. Statement
1: The notochord is not found in the tail region of the larva
Statement 2: The adults are mostly degenerate, and are sessile forms
ps
A) 1,2 Correct B) 1 Incorrect 2 correctC) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect D) 1, 2 Incorrect
A BC D
102. The
B) China Tn
giant salamander Andriasdavidians is the largest amphibian in the world is found in
A) USA C) Russia
D) Canada
e/
A B C D
103. Whichis the only invertebrate that is capable of emotion, empathy, cognitive function, self-
awareness, personality and even relationships with humans ?
.m
3. Frog - Podarcismuralis
4. Peacock - Pavocristatus
5. Tiger - Felisfelis
tp
A B
C D
5
c.
d.
c8
e)
a b c d e
A) 1 2 3 4 5
B)
ps
C)
D)
106. Findthe incorrect about Nastic movement :
1. Directional response to the stimulus
2. Growth independent movements
3. Temporary and reversible
Tn
4. Found only in a few specialized plants
e/
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
.m
A B C D
//t
5
A B C D
c8
113. IUCN founded at Gland, Switzerland in the year
A) 1945 B) 1946 C) 1947 D) 1948
IUCN
ps
A B C D
114. Statement
1: Earthworms are called as „Farmer‟s friend‟.
Statement 2: After digesting organic matter, earthworms excrete hydrogen nutrient rich wastecalled
Vermicasting
A) 1 &2 correct
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect
Tn B) 1 &2 incorrect
D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
e/
A B
.m
C D
115. Statement1: Opuntiastore water in succulent water storing parenchymatous tissues
Statement 2: Aloe vera have small sized leaves with waxy coating
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
//t
A B
s:
C D
116. Match. a b c d
a. Nitrogen fixation - 1.Nostoc A) 4 3 2 1
tp
a b c d
a. A) 4 3 2 1
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
117. Bacteria that live in the root nodules of leguminous plants called
A) Nostoc B) Rhizobium C) Nitrosomonas D) Nitrobacter
5
119. An
outer ectoderm and inner endoderm are separated by noncellularjelly like substance called
A) Mesoglea B) Coelenteron C) Nematocysts D) Spicules
c8
A B CD
120. Statement1: Body cavity is filled with haemolymph(blood).
ps
Statement 2: Excretion occurs by malphigiantubules or green glands
A) 1 ,2 correct B) 1, 2 Incorrect C) 1 Incorrect2 Correct D) 1 , 2 Incorrect
A
C
Tn
B
D
e/
121. Statement1: Parenchyma may store water in many succulent and xerophytic plants
Statement 2: Parenchyma providesmechanical support for growing organs.
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 Incorrect C) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect D) 1 2 incorrect
.m
A
B
//t
C
D
122. Whichis common in fruits and seeds ?
s:
123. Which
tissue in the skinfunctions as a water-proofmembrane ?
A) Connective tissue B) Muscle tissue C) Nerve tissue D) Epithelial tissue
ht
5
c. Blood clotting - 3. Mature red blood cells C) 4 3 2 1
d. Lack nucleus - 4. Leucocytes D) 2 4 1 3
c8
a.
b.
ps
c.
d.
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B)
C)
D)
Tn
126. Statement 1: The number of fat cells in obese adults is 50-60 billion.
e/
Statement 2: The number of fat cells in normal adults is 30-50 billion.
A) 1 correct 2 correct B) 1 correct 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
.m
//t
A B
C D
127. Choose the correctoption
s:
a
b
c
d
A B
C D
5
d.
a b c d
c8
A) 1 2 3 4
B)
C)
D)
ps
129. Statement 1: Nerve cells undergo cell division due to the presence of centrioles
Statement 2: These aredeveloped from glial cells by neurogenesis
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 Incorrect
C) 1 Incorrect 2 Incorrect
TnD) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
A B
e/
C D
130. Match. a b c d
a. Prophase - 1. First phase A) 1 2 3 4
.m
a. A) 1 2 3 4
b. B)
c. C)
s:
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
ht
A B
C D
132. Who introduced Binomial nomenclature?
A) Darwin B) Carolus Linnaeus C) Caspar Bahin D) Robert hooke
A B
C D
5
A B C D
135. Who identified the developing stages ofmalarial parasite in the gastrointestinal tractof mosquito and
c8
proved that malaria wastransmitted by mosquito?
A) Sir Ronald Ross B) Louis Pastor C) Robert Hooke D) Robert Brown
ps
A BC D
136. Pradhan
Mantri Fasal BimaYojana was launched in the year
A) 18 February 2016
C) 18 February 2017
A
Tn
B) 18 February 2015
D) 18 February 2014
B C D
e/
137. Match a b c d
a. World Health Day - 1. December 1 A) 1 2 3 4
b. World Malaria Day - 2. March 24 B) 4 3 2 1
.m
138. Which
is called as free floating nitrogen factory ?
A) Rhizobium B) Azolla C) Azospirillum D) Azotobacter
tp
A B C D
140. TheCentral Marine Fisheries ResearchInstitute (CMFRI) was established in the year 1947 in the
state of ______
A) Andhra B) Kerala C) Tamil Nadu D) Karnataka
A B C D
5
c.
d.
c8
e)
a b c d e
A) 1 2 3 4 5
B)
ps
C)
D)
142. Statement 1: Honey bee visits 50 to 100 flowers during a collection trip
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect
Tn
Statement 2: One kilogram of honey contains 1000 calories. It is a energy rich food
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
e/
A B
.m
C D
143. Theplace obtained by India in fish production
1. Southeast Asian countries - 2nd place
2. Total fish production - 7th in the world
//t
tp
A B C D
144. The
process by which nitrate ions formed in the process of nitrification in the soil, reduced into
ht
5
c. C)
d. D)
c8
146. Choose the correctoption
A) Pore bearers - 1. Porifera
B) Flatworms - 2. Annelida
ps
C) Nematode - 3. Roundworms
D) Segmented worms - 4. Arthropods
E) Arthropods -5. Platyhelminthes
F) Coelenterates - 6. Cnidaria
A) 1,2,3,4
A
B
B) 1, 3, 6
Tn
C) 2,4, 5 D) All correct
e/
C
D
E)
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F)
A B C D
147. Elephantiasis and Ascariasisdiseases caused by ______
A) Gall worm B) Tapeworm C) Roundworms D) Earthworm
//t
A B
C D
s:
c. Pancreas - 3. Chymotrypsin C) 3 4 1 2
d. Intestinal glands - 4. Maltase D) 2 1 4 3
ht
a b c d
a. A) 1 2 3 4
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
5
D)
c8
a. AGMARK
b. FSSAI
c. ISI
d.
ps
FPO
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B)
C)
D)
Tn
150. Which iscoated to give a shining appearance on fruits ?
e/
A) Carbon metal B) Calcium carbide
C) Shellac or Carnauba D) Hydrogen peroxide
.m
A B
C D
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 C 72 C 73 A 74 A 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 D
81 C 82 B 83 D 84 A 85 C 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 C
c8
91 C 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 C 96 D 97 C 98 D 99 B 100 A
101 C 102 B 103 C 104 B 105 D 106 A 107 C 108 C 109 A 110 B
111 C 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 C 116 B 117 B 118 B 119 A 120 A
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 D 125 D 126 C 127 D 128 C 129 D 130 A
ps
131 C 132 B 133 A 134 A 135 A 136 A 137 C 138 B 139 C 140 B
141 C 142 C 143 D 144 A 145 B 146 B 147 C 148 A 149 D 150 C
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 5 ANS KEY
.m
1 A 2 B 3 D 4 A 5 B 6 A 7 A 8 A 9 C 10 A
11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 A
21 B 22 A 23 A 24 A 25 C 26 A 27 B 28 A 29 A 30 B
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 A 35 C 36 D 37 A 38 B 39 D 40 A
//t
41 B 42 D 43 A 44 B 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 D 49 B 50 C
51 D 52 C 53 D 54 D 55 C 56 C 57 D 58 C 59 C 60 C
61 B 62 B 63 C 64 D 65 B 66 D 67 D 68 B 69 C 70 A
s:
71 C 72 C 73 A 74 A 75 B 76 C 77 A 78 C 79 B 80 D
81 C 82 B 83 D 84 A 85 C 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 D 90 C
91 C 92 D 93 A 94 D 95 C 96 D 97 C 98 D 99 B 100 A
tp
101 C 102 B 103 C 104 B 105 D 106 A 107 C 108 C 109 A 110 B
111 C 112 A 113 D 114 C 115 C 116 B 117 B 118 B 119 A 120 A
121 B 122 A 123 D 124 D 125 D 126 C 127 D 128 C 129 D 130 A
ht
131 C 132 B 133 A 134 A 135 A 136 A 137 C 138 B 139 C 140 B
141 C 142 C 143 D 144 A 145 B 146 B 147 C 148 A 149 D 150 C
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
GOAL - 3 1 TOTAL MARKS: 200
c8
TIME: 3 HRS
ps
“Ruined brick castle with very high walls and towers built on a hill”-The above quote is
1.Said by Charles Mason
2.It is a second historical existence of Harappa
A)1 and 2 are true B)1,2 only false
Tn C)1 only true
D) 2 only true
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
tp
ASI Archaelogical survey of india
A) 3 B) C) D)
ht
5
Mohenjodaro
A)Assertion is true,reason is false B)Both assertion and reason are true
c8
C)Assertion is false,reason is true D)Both assertion and reason are false
A) :
R) :
ps
A) A R B) A R C) A R D) A , R
Which of the following pair is incorrect about Indus valley?
1.Geographical range- South Asia
2.Period
3.Cities
A) 2 only false
- Iron Age
- 6 big cities
1.
B)3 only false
Tn C)2, 3 false
2.
D) none
e/
3.
A) B) C) D)
1.Meluha is the Precursor to Indus Civilisation
.m
A)1 only true B) 3 only true C)2 only true D)4 only ture
s:
tp
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
1.Lothal is situated on the banks of a tributary of Sabarmati river in Gujarat
2.Ivory scale found in Lothal in Gujarat had a small division of scale 1704mm
ps
3.The names of the river Kawri and Poruns are in Afghansitan
4.K.V.T means Korkai-Vanji-Thondi
Which of the following statement is ture?
A) 1 and 2 are true B)3 and 4 are true C)1 and 3 are true D)All are true
Tn
e/
A) B)
.m
C) D)
Match the following :
a) West - 1.Khagar-Haghra
b) East - 2.Afghanistan
//t
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 3 1 4 2
tp
D) 1 2 3 4
A)
ht
B)
C)
D)
a b c d
A 3 1 2 4
B 2 1 4 3
C 3 1 4 2
D1 2 3 4
5
D)
1.Harappan Civilization is spread in the regions of Gujarat,Paksitan and Haryana
c8
2.A civic authority perhaps controlled the planning of towns
3.A few of houses had more than one floor
4.Shortugai is the Northern border
ps
Which of the above statement is true?
A)1 and 2 true B)2 and 3 true C)3 and 4 true D)All are true
A) B)
Tn
C) D)
e/
Match the following : a b c d
a) Dholavira - 1.Rajasthan A) 1 2 3 4
b) Kalibangan - 2.Punjab B) 3 1 2 4
.m
c) Harappa - 3.Gujarat C) 3 1 4 2
d) Mohenjo-Daro- 4.Sindh D) 4 3 2 1
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
//t
b B 3 1 2 4
c C 3 1 4 2
d D 4 3 2 1
s:
5
1.The Harappans used pottery
2.The potteries can be painted using Carnelian a red quartz stone
c8
3.Rohri is situated at Pakistan
4.The bronze image of dancing girl from Haryana is suggestive use of the lost wax process
Which of the following statement is false?
ps
A) 1and 4 are true B)2 and 3 are false C)2 and 4 are false D)All are true
Tn
e/
A) B)
C) D)
1.Harappans did not possess knowledge about Iron
.m
A) 1,2,4 true B)1,3,4 true C)2 only false D)All are true
s:
tp
A) B)
C) D)
Which of the following is used for making ornaments by harappans?
ht
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
1.They worship the nature
ps
2.Theywoship the kings
3.The Indus people buried the dead
4.Zebu(Harppan cattle)Seals can be found in Harppans seals
Choose the correct statement?
A)1,2 only true
B)4 only ture
TnC)All are true D) 3,4 true
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
Who said the “ Indus Inscriptions have a Dravidian like word order”?
A)IravathamMahadevan B)Cunnigham C)John Marshall D)Yuri Knorozov
//t
5
A)1,2 true B)1,2,3 true C)1,4 true D)All are true
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
Who is the first surveyor of Archaeological survey of India?
A)AlexanderBurnes B)Cunnigham C)Charles Mason D)Sir John Marshall
A)
C)
B)
D)
Tn
The year visited by Alexander Cunnigham in Harappas
e/
1.1853 2.1856 3.1875 4.1831 5.1940
A)1,2 only B)1,3,4 only C)1,2,3 only D)All the above
.m
A) B) C) D)
Charles Mason visited harappa in the year
s:
A) B)
C) D)
Match the following : a b c d
a) Shell - Oman A) 1 2 4 5
b) Lapis Lazuli - Lothal B) 4 5 3 2
c) Steatite - Rajasthan (South) C) 5 4 1 2
d) Carnelian - Balakot D) 3 5 2 1
- Shortughai
5
A) B) C) D)
1.Rajasthan and Oman is famous for copper production
c8
2.The longest text has about 26 signs
3.There is an evidence of cremation in harappans is also reported
4.The Indus valley civilization declined from about 1900 BCE
ps
which of the following statement is true?
A)1,4 true B)1,2,4 true C)3,4 true D)All are true
A)
Tn
A) B)
s:
C) D)
Match the following : a b c d
a) Roobar - 1.Sindh Province A) 1 2 3 4
tp
b) Khotiji - 2.Haryana B) 4 3 2 1
c) Banawali - 3.Gujarat C) 4 1 3 2
d) Karkotta - 4.River Sutlej,Punjab D) 4 1 2 3
ht
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
b B 4 3 2 1
c C 4 1 3 2
d D 4 1 2 3
5
c8
A) B) C) 3 D)
Highlights of the Indus Valley Civilization
A) Dancing girl statue B) Writing form
ps
C) Dockyard D) Planned city structure
A B
C D
A) Ziggurat B) Abusimbal
A B C
Tn
Name the Site of two temples built by Egyptian king RamisesII ?
C) Makran D) Lothal
D
Which Inscription mentioned trade relations between Mesopotamia and Harappa
e/
A) Meluka B) Viraja C) Cuneiform D) Steatite
A B C D
.m
A B C D
Civis is a word originated from which language?
tp
Statement 1: The Great Pyramid of Giza built by King Khufu in 2500 BCE, built with lime stone.
Statement 2: Each weighs 15 tons.
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1 Incorrect, 2 Correct
C) 1, 2 Incorrect D) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect
A B C D
5
c8
A B C D
Who was responsible for realizing the importance of Harappa and conducted research there?
A) Charles Mason B) Sir John Marshall
C) Alexander Cunningham D) King of Khufu
ps
A B
C D
Those who study the ancient agriculture and the relationship between man and the environment is
called?
A) Archaeologist B) Scientists Tn C)Paleo zoologist
D) Archeobotanist
e/
A B
C D
Statement 1: There is no evidence that the people of Indus valley had an army.
.m
s:
A B C D
Where were the Fire altars found?
tp
5
When did William bentick pass the law XVII that Practicing sati was illegal?
c8
A)December 4,1829 B)March 15,1831 C)December 17,1830 D)None of the above
XVII
A) B) C) D)
ps
The victory of which war marked the beginning of british political power in India?
A)Battle of Bauxar B)Carnatic wars C)Battle of Plassey D)Battle of Ambur
A) B) C) D)
as a private company?
A)English east india company
Tn
Which of the following east india company was launched in india as a government project and not
C) D)
Why Fransisco De Almeida followed Blue water Policy?
A)to capture india B)To strengthen the economic zone
C)To strengthen the navy D)To increase the capital
//t
A) B)
s:
C) D)
Which kingdom has made thanjavur as the cultural capital of Tamilnadu?
A)Mughals B)Nayaks C)Marathas D)Dutch
tp
A) B) C) D)
The places in which administrative capital and economic centre are
ht
5
c8
A) B)
C) D)
ps
Who was the first Portuguese governor sent from India to Portuguese?
A)Alfonso-de-albuquerque B)Fransisco-de-almeida
C)Nino-de-kunha D)Bartholomeudiaz
A)
C)
Tn
B)
D)
The causes of the Second Carnatic war are
e/
1.Seven year war in Europe
2.Not followed the treaty of Aix-la-chappelle
3.War of succession between Karnataka and Hyderabad
.m
s:
5
c) Danish - 3. 1600 C) 2 3 4 1
d) French - 4. 1616 D) 2 4 3 1
c8
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
b B 4 2 1 3
c C 2 3 4 1
ps
d D 2 4 3 1
Statement 1:After the conquest of bengal,the rule of the English east india company
strengthened in India.
Statement 2:Its main purpose is to expand trade and governance
A)1 is false 2 is true B)Both are true
TnC)1 true,2 false
D)Both are false
e/
A) B)
C) D)
The report which gives more importance to women is
.m
C) D)
In 1887,National social conference was started
1.The movement which gives more importance to give power to women is –MahilaSamakya
s:
ht
A) B) C) D)
In which area did the british gain unfettered the trade rights after the battle of Plassey in 1757?
A)Bengal,Madras,Sikkim B)Bengal,Bihar,Orissa
C)Orissa,Calcutta,Patna D)Madras,Kerala,Andhra Pradesh
A) B)
C) D)
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Match the following :
a) First Anglo Mysore war - 1. Treaty of Madras
b) Second Anglo Mysore war - 2. Treaty of Mangalore
c) Third Anglo Mysore war - 3. Treaty of Srirangapattinam
d) Third Carnatic War - 4. Treaty of Paris
a b c d
A)1 3 4 2
B)2 3 4 1
C)1 2 3 4
5
D)2 4 3 1
c8
a
b
c
d
ps
a b c d
A 1 3 4 2
B 2 3 4 1
C 1
D2
2
4
A)JobCharnok
3
3
4
1
A factory was established at Sutanuti by
B)Eliyal
Tn C)Thomas roe D)Robert Clive
e/
A) B) C) D)
The objectives of geographical discoveries of Europeans are
.m
s:
A) B) C) D)
Which commission recommended to start primary school for girls?
tp
5
D)1930-Sarada Child Marriage bill
c8
A)
B)
C)
D)
ps
Who published a journal VivekaVardhani?
A)Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar B)Rajaram Mohan roy
C)M.G.Ranade D)KandukuriVeeresalingam
A)
C) M.G.
Match the following :
Tn
B)
D)
a b c d
e/
a) Devadasi abolition act - 1947 A) 4 3 1 2
b) Sarada act - 1930 B) 1 2 4 3
c) Native marriage act - 1872 C) 1 2 3 4
.m
C) C 1 2 3 4
D) D 4 2 1 3
Choose the correct statement about impact of reform movment
s:
A) B) C) D)
5
J.E.D
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following measures are correct about the abolition of Devadasi act?
1.AppreciatingDr.Muthulakshmireddy role in the agitation against the devadasi system ,she was
Tn
nominated to the tamilnadu legislative council in 1930.
2.Periyar was instrumental in passing the devadasi abolition bill3
3.MoovalurRamamirdham was yet another women fought for the emancipation of
4. devadasi.Rajaji,Periyar and Thiru.Vi.Ka was also support them.
e/
A)1,3,4 true B)1,2,3,4 true C)1,3,4 true D)2,3,4 true
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//t
A) B) C) D)
Assertion:InMoovalurRamamirdhammemory,the government of tamilnadu has instituted the
s:
A) B)
C) D)
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
Which of the following evils called by british as “Criminal related murder”?
A)Female infanticide B)Widow remarriage C)Child marriage D)Sati
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following statement is correct?
1.The constitution of India guarantees (Article 14) equal opportunity and equal pay for equal work.
2.The national policy for empowerment of women was passed under the National policy on
education(1986).
5
3.Reservation of 23 percent to women envisaged an improvement in the socio-political status of
women
c8
4.The main focus of MahilaSamakhya Scheme was on empower of women
A)1,2,3 true B)1,2,4 true C)1,3,4 true D)2,3,4 true
ps
A)
Tn
A B
C D
Match : a b c d
a.Travancore School - 1. Francis Xavier A) 1 2 3 4
//t
a b c d
a. A
b. B
tp
5
A B C D
Assertion : The dutch bought Pulicat are from the Gingeenayaks to setup a trading centre on the
c8
Cholamandalam beach
Reason :This is setup to purchase retail items needed for business with Indonesian islands which
produces perfumes
A)Assertion is true,reason is the explanation
ps
B)Both are false
C)Assertion is true,reason is not the explanation
D)Assertion is false,reason is true
Tn
A) B)
e/
C) D)
Which of the following statements is/are true?
.m
1.The weaving industry was the second major economic activity of India
2.The weaving industry was mostly carried out in the village
3.TheChola region is famous for its dyed cloth called “Kalamkari”
4.Textile is one of the important export items in the world
//t
''
tp
A) B)
C) D)
ht
Assertion :Danish established settlement at tranquebar (Tamilnadu) in 1620 and Serampore
(Bengal) in 1676.
Reason :Danish sold all their settlement in india to the French
A)Assertion is true,reason is the correct explanation
B)Assertion is true,reason is not the correct explanation
C)Assertion is true,reason is false
D)Assertion is false,reason is true
5
b) Chandranagore - 1690 B) 1 2 4 3
c) Mahe - 1725 C) 2 3 4 1
c8
d) Karaikal - 1739 D) 3 4 1 2
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
b B
ps
1 2 4 3
c C 2 3 4 1
d D 3 4 1 2
What is the name of those who were appointed in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries to
A)Dhivan B)Nithiraj Tn
examine the purity of coins and to assess their value at that time?
C)Sarab
D)None of the above
e/
A) B) C) D)
In which of the following places was the nayak rule was not established in tamilnadu?
A)Madurai B)Thanjavur C)Gingee D)Ramanathapuram
.m
A) B) C) D)
Which port brought valuable resources to west asia and the gateway to Europe?
A)Bombay B)Surat C)Cochin D)Calicut
//t
A) B) C) D)
s:
c) French - Cannore C) 1 2 3 4
d) Portuguese - Pulicat D) 4 3 2 1
a b c d
ht
5
3. In 1980 Nalanda University was declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO
4. The Nalanda University is currently located at Rajgriha, Bihar
c8
A) All Correct B) Only 1, 2 Correct C) 1, 2, 4 Only Correct D) 1, 2, 3 Only Correct
ps
A B C D
Education sector is present in which List?
1. State List
A) Only 1 correct
2. Central List
B) 2 only Correct
Tn 3. Concurrent List
C) 3 only Correct D) 1, 3 only Correct
e/
A B C D
During the British rule,Educational of India can be divided into ______ types ?
.m
A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 8
A B C D
//t
Assertion A : The weight of an object on the moon is six times less than that of the Earth.
s:
Reason R : The gravitational pull of the moon is one-sixth of the gravitational pull of the earth.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
tp
A)
B)
C) D)
Example of motion of a moving object coming back to the same position after a fixed time interval,
like a pendulum is
A) Motion of the Top B) Thrown ball
C) Motion of the child swinging D) Motion of the ball
5
D) Heat depends not only on temperature but also on how many molecules a substance contains.
c8
A)
B) SI
ps
C)
D)
How thermal energy is transmitted ?
Tn
A) From high temperature object to low temperature object
B) From high temperature object to high temperature object
C) From low temperature object to high temperature object
D) From low temperature object to low temperature object
e/
A)
B)
.m
C)
D)
Match. a b c d
a) Thermal Power Station - 1) Koodankulam A) 2 1 3 4
//t
b) Atomic - 2) Ennore B) 2 1 4 3
c) Hydroelectric - 3) Kayatharu C) 1 2 3 4
d) Windmills - 4) Papanasam D) 1 2 4 3
s:
a b c d
a A 2 1 3 4
b B 2 1 4 3
tp
c C 1 2 3 4
d D 1 2 4 3
Statement 1: An ammeter measures the amount of current flowing in an circuit
ht
5
D) None
A)
c8
B)
C)
D)
ps
Find the correct option : (Chemical change)
A) New products are formed. B) Change in the chemical composition
C) This is a temporary change D) This is anirreversible reaction
A)
C)
A) Sedimentation
D) Tn
B)
The method used to extract the most insoluble microscopic solids from their liquid
B) Filtration
e/
C) Magnetic separation method D) Decantation
_______
.m
A) B)
C) D)
Find the incorrect option (Water)
A) Lymph - 94% B) Skin - 54% C) Muscles - 75% D) Bones - 22%
//t
A) B)
C) D)
s:
5
c MgSo4 .7H2O C 2 3 1 4
d CaSo4.2 H2O D 1 2 3 4
c8
Which is used to promote plant growth in agriculture
A) Gypsum B) Epsom C) Plaster of Paris D) Phenol
_______
A) B) C) D)
ps
Assertion A : A balloon filled with hot air floats in the air.
Reason R : The density of air in the balloon is less than the density of air outside
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
Tn
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
e/
A)
B)
.m
C)
D)
Find the incorrectoption about the Non-metals.
//t
A × 10−27 B × 10−27
−27 −31
C× 10 D× 10
ht
The resultant obtained from the equation is Fe + 3O2 + 2H2O ????
A) Carbon-dioxide B) Rust C) Nitrogen oxide D) Water
Fe + 302H20 →?
A B CD
Gas obtained by mixing lemon juice with baking soda is
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Carbon – Dioxide D) Magnesium hydroxide
5
D) A incorrect, R correct
c8
A
B
ps
C
D
First fully processed synthetic fiber is
A) Rayon
A B
Find the incorrect option
B) Nylon
CPET
Tn
C) PET
DPVC
D) PVC
e/
A) Blue Flame - Bleaching Powder B) Green Flame - Borax Powder
C) Yellow Flame - Calcium Chloride D) Orange flame - Epsom salt
.m
A B
C D
s:
Match. a b c d
a. Gunpowder - 1. Silicon A) 4 3 2 1
b. Rat medicine - 2. Boron B) 4 2 1 3
tp
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
d. D)
Which is used as a cleanser and to soften hard waterin soap ?
A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Sodium carbonate C) Sodium chloride D) Dihydrogen monoxide
5
Assertion A : Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system.
Reason R : The surface temperature of Venus is 562 Capproximately
c8
A) A & R correct B) A correct, R incorrect
C) A incorrect, R correct D) A & R incorrect
C
ps
A B
C D
When invisible radiationfalls on materials like_______, they emit a visiblelight .
A) Zinc sulphate
C) Calcium sulphide Tn B) Zinc sulphide
D) Calcium carbonate
e/
A B
C D
Find the incorrect of the following statements (pure water)
.m
A C
B C
s:
C
D
Find the incorrect option
tp
A
B
C
D
Statement 1: The world's first petroleum oil well was dug in Pennsylvania, USA, in 1859.
Statement 2: The second oil well was dug in 1867 at Makum in Assam, India.
A) 1,2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1,2 incorrect
5
c. Solid angle - 3. Lumen C) 1 4 2 3
d. Object size -4. Steradian D) 3 1 4 2
c8
a b c d
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
ps
d. D)
Walking on the sand is easy for camels. Choose the correct reason.
A) Camel's legs are thicker
Tn
B) Camel's large and flat padded feet are in contact with more surface of sand
C) Camel's broad feet are in contact with the less surface of sand
D) Camels have a tendency to drink a lot of water
e/
A
B
C
.m
D
When the object is placed between F and P then the position of the image is
A) In C B) Beyond C
C) Infinite distance D) Behind the Mirror
//t
F P
A C B C
C D
s:
A
B
C
D
5
C D ab
How many times is the earth magnet more powerful than a fridge magnet?
c8
A) 10 times B) 20 times C) 30 times D) 40 times
A B C D
ps
Find the incorrect statements.
A) India launched its first satellite Aryabhatta in 1957
B) Chandrayaan 1 was launched on October 22, 2008
C) Mangalyaan was launched on November 5, 2013
Tn
D) The Indian Space Agency became the third space agency to send a spacecraft to Mars by
launching Mangalyaan.
e/
A
B
.m
C
D
//t
Find the incorrectoption about the substance that has Ferro magnetic property.
A) Mercury B) Iron C) Cobalt D) Nickel
s:
A C C B C, 39 C C C, 39 C D C,29 C
One coulomb is approximately equal to
ht
5
C D
One nautical mile is
c8
A) 1652 km B) 1752 km C) 1852 km D) 1952 km
A B C D
ps
Find the incorrect option about Transparent substance
A) Eyeglasses B) Pure Water C) Pure Glass bowl D) Wall
A B
C D
Tn
Why are red lights installed on the back of the vehicles. ?
A) Red colour is dispersed in large quantities by air molecules.
B) Red colour has shorter wavelength than other colours.
e/
C) Red colour travels long distances in air
D) Red colour travels short distance in air
.m
A
B
C
D
//t
A B C D
Find the incorrect option about the Ore of Iron :
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
5
71 C 72 A 73 C 74 C 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 D 82 B 83 B 84 B 85 C 86 C 87 D 88 A 89 B 90 C
c8
91 A 92 C 93 D 94 B 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 C
101 A 102 C 103 B 104 A 105 B 106 B 107 D 108 D 109 C 110 B
111 B 112 B 113 C 114 B 115 B 116 A 117 D 118 D 119 B 120 C
121 D 122 B 123 D 124 A 125 A 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 A
ps
131 D 132 A 133 D 134 B 135 D 136 A 137 B 138 C 139 B 140 D
141 A 142 C 143 C 144 A 145 C 146 D 147 C 148 D 149 B 150 D
Tn
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 1 ANS KEY
.m
1 C 2 A 3 D 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 D 8 B 9 B 10 D
11 A 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 D 20 D
21 D 22 C 23 D 24 B 25 B 26 A 27 D 28 B 29 C 30 B
31 C 32 B 33 B 34 C 35 D 36 D 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 B
//t
41 C 42 B 43 B 44 A 45 B 46 B 47 D 48 B 49 C 50 D
51 A 52 C 53 D 54 C 55 C 56 D 57 C 58 C 59 B 60 D
61 D 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B 66 A 67 B 68 C 69 A 70 C
s:
71 C 72 A 73 C 74 C 75 D 76 C 77 D 78 C 79 D 80 B
81 D 82 B 83 B 84 B 85 C 86 C 87 D 88 A 89 B 90 C
91 A 92 C 93 D 94 B 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 C
tp
101 A 102 C 103 B 104 A 105 B 106 B 107 D 108 D 109 C 110 B
111 B 112 B 113 C 114 B 115 B 116 A 117 D 118 D 119 B 120 C
121 D 122 B 123 D 124 A 125 A 126 B 127 D 128 B 129 B 130 A
ht
131 D 132 A 133 D 134 B 135 D 136 A 137 B 138 C 139 B 140 D
141 A 142 C 143 C 144 A 145 C 146 D 147 C 148 D 149 B 150 D
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
ht
50
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 9 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
1. Choose the correct statement about Adishankar
1. He preached the Advaita Philosphy.
e/
A B C D
.m
A B C D
ht
4. Who spread the Bhakthi ideology in northern India and made it a mass movement?
A) Vallabhachariyar B)Surdas C)Ramanandhar D)Mirabai
A B C D
5. Whose collection of poetry is called as Sursagar?
A) Surdas B) Vallabhachariyar C) Ramanandhar D) Mirabai
""
A B C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
6. Choose the correct statement about Gurunanak
1. He born in a village near Lahore in 1469
2. To mark the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanank a corridor is being constructed by the
Indian government
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
5
A B C D
7. Who preached that God is without form and wanted his followers to practice meditation upon the
c8
name of god for peace and ultimate salvation?
A) Thulasidas B)Surdas C)Gurunanak D)Kabir
ps
A B C D
8. Who founded the Shurawardi order?
A) Kabir B) Amirkhusru
C) Abdul Wahib Abu Najib
''
A
C
Tn
B
D
D) Gurunanaak
e/
9. Choose the correct statement about
1. Hinduism was revived.So it was protected from the attacks of Islams
2. Islamic philosophical elements such as the unity of god and the world brotherhood were
.m
s:
A B C D
10. Match the following: a b c d
tp
a) Ramacharitmanas - 1. Kabir A) 1 2 3 4
b) Srivaishnavism - 2. Abdul Wahid Abu Najib B) 3 4 1 2
c) Granthavali - 3. Tulsidas C) 4 3 2 1
ht
d) Suhrawardi - 4. Ramanujar D) 3 1 2 4
a b c d
a A
b B
c C
d D
5
C) none D) statement 1, 2 true
c8
ps
A B
C D
13. Statement 1:Agama Sutras consists of many sacred books of the Jain religion.
Statement 2:They have been written in the Ardha-magadhi Prakrit language
A) 1 only B) 2only
Tn
Statement 3:Containing the direct preaching of Mahavira consisting of 13 texts
Which is the correct statement?
C)1,2 is true D)1,2,3 is true
e/
.m
A B C D
s:
A B C D
17. Which of the following rock beds have no head rests?
A) Kanchipuram B) Madurai C) Chittanavasal D)Vellore
A B
C D
5
A B C D
19. Vihara in Sanskrit means
c8
A) Victory B) Dwelling C) Loss D) Research
A B C D
ps
20. Match the following: a b c d
nd
a) Jivaka Chintamani - 1. 22 Tirthankara A) 1 2 3 4
b) Neminatha - 2. Tiruthakkathevar B) 4 3 2 1
c) Milinda Panha - 3. Madurai C) 2 1 4 3
d) Kizha Kuyil Kudi
- 4. Nagasena
a
b
Tn
D)
A
B
2
a
4
b
1
c
3
d
e/
c C
d D
21. Who wrote the text Visuddhimagga?
.m
1. During the reign of Mahendravarman, Pulikesi II captured the northern part of the Pallava
king and almost reached the capital Kanchipuram.
2. Narasimhavarman I captured Vatapi, the capital of the Chalukya kingdom.
s:
A B
C D
5
c8
A B C D
ps
24. Assertion A: Jainism was more influential than Buddhism in Tamil Nadu
Reason R : Numerous cave shelters with Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions found in Tamil Nadu.
A) A & R correct
B) A & R incorrect
Tn
C) A & R correct& R is the correct explanation of A
D) A & R correct & R is not the correct explanation of A
e/
A B
C
.m
D
25. Who translated the Bhagavad Gita and the Upanishads into Persian?
A) Abul Fazal B) Abul Faizi
C) Abdul Hameed Lahori D) Dara Shukoh
//t
A B
C D
s:
26. Match. a b c d e
a.Fawaid ul Fawad - 1. Zia Nakshabi A) 3 4 2 1 5
b.Tuti Namah - 2. Amir Hassan B) 2 1 4 3 5
tp
a b c d e
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e.
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
27. Who ruled the Rashtrakuta dynasty for many years?
A) Krishna I B) Dhruvar C) Amogavarshar D) Krishna III
A B
C D
28. Find the correct option.
1. Those who explained the Bhakti exponents proposed that, unlike the fatalistic religions of
Buddhism and Jainism, devotion to Vishnu and Siva could overcome fate
2. The idea of renunciation, which is central to Buddhism and Jainism, was not adopted by
5
Saivites and Vaishnavites.
3. If the Bhakti movement flourished in the Tamil country from the seventh century, it was
c8
only from the fifteenth century in north India it reached its peak
A) 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) All correct
ps
A B
Tn
C D
e/
29. Who said “Be clean in a world full of impurities”?
A) Kabir B) Guru Nanak C) Shankarar D) Ramanandar
.m
tp
A B
ht
C D
31. Where was temple built for performing royal rituals by Chalukyas
A) Aihole B) Vatapi C) Megudi D) Pattadakal
A) B)
C) D)
5
34. Select the incorrect option . (Jains)
A) There is more evidence for Jainism in Tamil Nadu compared to Buddhism.
c8
B) Numerous cave shelters with Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions more than Buddhism show that Jainism
was more influential in the Tamil country.
CThe Jains contributed a great service to Tamil literature in the post Sangam period.
ps
D) None of these
A
Tn
B
C
D
e/
35. _________ Pallava king‟s reign was a period of peace without wars?
A) Rajasimhan B) Aparajithan C) Nandivarman II D) Parameswarman I
.m
A B
C D
36. Who Defeated Pulikesin II at the Battle of Manimangalam?
A) Simha Vishnu B) Vishnu Gopan
//t
C) Narasimhavarman I D) Parameswaran II
A B
s:
C D
37. Who assumed the title Vatapi Kondan?
A) Parameswaran II B) Parameswaran I
tp
C) Narasimhavarman I D) Narasimhavarman II
A B
ht
C D
38. Commander-in-Chief of Narasimhavarman I
A) Aparajithan B) Siruthondar
C) Amatya D) Ragasyathigirtha
A B
C D
5
c8
A B C D
40. The royal symbol of the Chalukya dynasty _______
A) Pig B) bull C) Ox D) Tiger
ps
A B C D
41. Match. a b c d
a) Mahendravarman - 1. MathavilasaPrahasana A) 1 2 3 4
b) Bharavi
c) Dandi
d) Pujyapatar
- 2. Kavyadarsa
- 3. KiratarjuniyaTn
- 4. Jainentriya-viyakarnam
B)
C)
D)
1
1
1
a
3
4
2
b
2
3
4
c
4
2
3
d
e/
a A
b B
c C
.m
A B C D
43. Who proclaims the philosophy Vishistadvaita?
s:
44. Assertion:The advent of Sufis to India dates back to the Arab conquets of Sind.
Reason:It gained prominence in the 10th and 11th centuries during the reign of the Delhi sultans.
ht
5
C) Boothathazhwar D) Peyazhwar
c8
A B
C D
47. Who made chishti order popular in India?
ps
A) Suravardi B) Moynudheen Chisty
C) Guru Nanak D) Amir Khusru
A B
48.
C D
Tn
How many philosophy school flourished in India during the 6th Century B.C according to the Bigha
Nitaya (an ancient Buddhist tract)?
A) 50 B)60 C) 62 D)65
e/
A B C D
.m
A B
C D
50. Match. a b c d
s:
a) Adisankarar - 1.Kaladi A) 1 2 4 3
b) Sriramanujar - 2. Sriperumbudur B) 1 2 3 4
c) Nammalvar - 3. Kurugur C) 1 4 3 2
tp
d) Periyazhvar - 4. Srivilliputhur D) 2 1 3 4
a b c d
a A
ht
51. Who of the following supported along with Gandhi in Kheda districts peasants movment?
1. Vallabhai Patel 2.Indulal Yagnik
3.Rajendra Prasad 4.Jawharlal Nehru
A) 1,2 is true B)1,3 is true C)1,4 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
5
A) B) C) D)
c8
52. Which of the following movement were launched by the Gandhi for the Khilafat and Punjab
masscre?
A) Civil disobedience movement B) Non Cooperation Movement
ps
C) Champaran Movement D) No tax comapign
A) B)
53.
C)
A) Nagpur
B) Calcutta
Tn
D)
In 1920,Congress was to recognize and set up linguistic provincial congress committee at
C) Bombay
D) Lucknow
e/
A) B) C) D)
54. From the following statements,choose the correct option
.m
s:
A) B) C) D)
tp
3. Non-Cooperation movement
4. Arrival of Simon Commission
A) 2 1 3 4 B) 3 1 4 2 C) 3 1 2 4 D) 4 3 2 1
A) B) C) D)
5
C)
c8
D)
57. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
ps
A) Due to Chamaparan movement,an enquiry committee with Gandhi also a member was formed
and resolved.
B) There was a dispute between the textile workers and the mill owners.He met both the parties
and when the owners refused to accept the demands
their wages. Tn
C) Gandhiji adivised Ahmedabad mill workers to go on strike demanding a 50 percent increase in
D) To bolster the morale of the workers ,Gandhiji went on fast.It leads to victory of the strike
e/
A)
B)
.m
C)
D)
//t
58. Which of the following statement is true about the Rowlatt Act?
1. The government passed the Rowlatt act in March 1919.This act empowered the government to
s:
A) B) C) D)
5
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
60. Which of the following movement was ended due to Gandhi-irwin pact?
A) Non Cooperation movement
C) Civil disobedience movement Tn
B) Swadeshi movement
D) Swarajya movement
e/
A) B)
C) D)
61. Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?
.m
1. To controlled the leftists leaders,Congress announced Subash Chandra Bose leader of the INC
at 1927 meet.
2. Jawarhalal Nehru and Subash Chandra bose contributed to the spread of leftist ideology.
A) 1 only false B) 2only false C) 1 and 2 false D)None of the above
//t
s:
A) B) C) D)
tp
5
c8
ps
A) B)
C) D)
64.
Tn
Choose the incorrect statement about Chamaparan movement
1. The first Satyagraha experiments made by Gandhiji
2. Indigo cultivators of the champaran in Bihar were severely exploited by the European planters.
3. The peasants to compulsorily grow indigo on lease 6/20 of their fields
e/
4. This movement was held in the year 1918.
A) 1,2 is false B) 3,4 is false C) 1,3,4 is false D) 2,3,4 is false
.m
//t
A) B) C) D)
s:
65. Which of the following person is not associated with Swarajya Party?
A) Mothilal Nehru B)Chitaranjan Das C) Rajaji D)Satyamurti
tp
A) B)
C) D)
66. In 1929,Lahore congress meet was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru Whereas in 1928 congress
ht
5
A)
c8
B)
C)
D)
ps
68. Consider the statements about Poona Pact
1. Gandhiji declared that he would resist separate electorates to untouchables with his life by
deeply upset mode
2. The new agreement between Ambedhkar and Gandhians called the Poona Pact was signed
made
A) 1,2,3 is true
B) 1,3 only true
Tn
3. The provisons of the reserved seats was incorporated in the constitutional changes which were
A) B) C) D)
69. Due to Montagu Chelmsford reforms,which of the following departments were handed over to the
//t
whitemen?
1. Law and order
2. Finance
s:
3. Helath
4. Education and Local self government
A) 1,2,3 B)2,3 C)1,2 D)1,2,3,4
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
72. Which of the following was the reasons of Kheda struggle?
1. Gandhiji joined with Vithalabhai patel fight unto death against such a spirit
A) B) C) D)
73. Which of the following was the reason for the arrival of simon commission?
1. Activities of Swarajyaist
//t
ht
5
D)
76. Which sessions of the INC a famous resolutions especially on fundamental rights and duties?
c8
A) Calcutta B) Nagpur C) Karachi D) Bombay
A) B) C) D)
ps
77. Tata Iron and Steel Corporation is
A) A part of Non-cooperation movement B) A part of Swadeshi effort
C) Both A and B D) None of the above
A)
B)
C) A B
Tn
e/
D)
78. Choose the correct statement
1. The british trade policy took a heavy toll on the indigeneous industry
.m
s:
tp
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
81. Arrange the chronological order of the event
ps
1. Kanpur Conspiracy case
2. Peshawar conspiracy case
3. Chittagong Armoury Ride
4. Meerut Conspiracy Case
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 4 1 3
Tn C) 2 1 4 3
D) 2 1 3 4
e/
A) B) C) D)
82. Match the following: a b c d
a) Kanpur Conspiracy Case - 1. Fundamental rights A) 1 2 3 4
.m
a
b
c
s:
d
a b c d
A 1 2 3 4
tp
B 1 3 2 4
C 4 2 3 1
D 4 3 2 1
ht
83. „A dedicated band of youth must show the path of organised armed struggle in place of individual
action‟ Who said this?
A) Bhagat Singh B) Ananda Gupta C) Suryasen D) Kalpanadutt
A B
C D
5
85. Following statements related to
1. Relative of the communist leader P.C.Joshi
c8
2. She/he is an author of Chittagong Armoury raiders Reminiscences
3. Waging a war against the King emperor
4. Related to Chittagong Armoury Raid trail
ps
A) Surya Sen B) Kalpana dutt C) Bhagat Singh D) jidendhra Das
""
86.
A) B)
Tn
C)
Which of the following is/are incorrect?
D)
e/
1. Communist Party of India started at 1925 in Bombay
2. In 1921 bholshoveik came to India belonged to Portugal
3. In Kanpur Conspiracy case,Bolshevik Ghulam Hussain sentenced to Hang
.m
A) B) C) D)
s:
87. Statement 1: The Meerut conspiracy case of 1929 was the most famous of all the communist
conspiracy cases
Statement 2: The British government arrested all 32 communist leaders in the Meerut
tp
conspiracy case.
Statement 3: National leaders like Gandhiji and Jawaharlal Nehrusupported and appeared in
court on behalf of the accused
ht
5
A BC D
c8
89. Choose the correct answer.
1.1931 Congress Conference was held in Karachi under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
2. The resolution on fundamental rights& duties was passed at the Karachi Conference.
ps
3.1931 Suryasen revolutionary group Indian Republican Army carried out Chittagong
Armory attack.
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 only correct C) 1, 3 only correct D) All correct
Tn
e/
A B C D
90. The Communist Defence Committee formed during ________conspiracy case
.m
C D
91. Choose the incorrect pair.
1.Industrial commission - 1916
s:
A B
C D
5
A B
C D
c8
93. What was Gandhi's first hunger strike?
A) The Kedah struggle B) Ahmedabad mill Struggle
C) Champaran Struggle D) Bardoli Satyagraha
ps
A B
C D
94. Which law brought by the English government to imprison anyone without any trial?
A) Government of India Act – 1909
C) Rowlatt Act – 1919 Tn
B) Government of India Act - 1919
D) Government of India Act - 1858
e/
A B
C D
95. Choose the correct answer.
.m
1) Michael O‟ Dwyer took office as the Lt. Governor of Punjab during the Jallianwala
Bagh massacre.
2) General Reginald Dyer Ordered firing people gathered at Jallianwala Bagh Park.
3) 1940, Udham singh assassinated General Reginald Dyer in London for the killings of
//t
Jallianwalla Bagh
A) Only 1 correct B) 1, 2 only correct C) 1, 3 only correct D) All correct
s:
tp
ht
A B
C D
96. Who is not a one of the Pro changers?
A) Satya Murthy B) Motilal Nehru C) C. R. Das D) Vallabhbhai Patel
A B
CC R. D
5
2. India's first jute mill in Calcutta was started by Dwarkanath Tagore.
3. The Bengal Coal Company was started in 1843
c8
4. Tata Iron &Steel company was set up in West Bengal in 1907.
A) All correct B) Only 1, 2 correct
C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 4correct
ps
Tn
A B
e/
C D
99. Who is known as the father of Indian modern industries?
A) Cowasjee Nanabhoy Davar B) Dwarkanath Tagore
.m
100. Match. a b c d
a.Communist Conference of India - 1. 1927 A) 3 4 2 1
b.South Indian Railway Workshop Strike - 2. 1929 B) 3 2 4 1
s:
a.
b.
ht
c.
d.
a b c d
A
B
C
D
5
c8
A B C D
102. Which is the third largest consumer of crude oil in the world, after United States and China ?
A) Sri Lanka B) Africa C) India D) Russia
ps
A B C D
103. Choose the correct one.
1. Project Tiger– 1973
3. Project Elephant – 1992
A) Only 1, 3 correct
C) Only 1, 2 correct
Tn 2. Crocodile Conservation Project - 1972
4. Sea Turtle Conservation Project - 2000
B) Only 2, 4 correct
D) Only 3,4 correct
e/
.m
A B C D
104. India's first female wildlife photographer to get an international reputation is
//t
A B
C D
tp
5
c8
A B
C D
108. WorldCancer Day –
ps
A) November 07 B) February 04 C) November 04 D) February 02
A B C D
109. Cancercausing virus called
A) Carcinogens
A
C
Tn
B) Oncogenic viruses C) Sarcoma
B
D
D) Leukemia
e/
110. Statement 1: "Chemotherapy" used for cancer treatment
Statement 2: "Carcinogens" used to kill cancerous tumors
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
.m
C D
111. Sunithi
Salmon team was the first to document evidence of HIV infection in India in
A) 1985 B) 1980 C) 1972 D) 1988
s:
112. Prolonged alcohol consumption causes excess fat to be stored in the liver leads to
A) Cirrhosis B) Leukemia C) Carcinoma D) Carcinogens
ht
A B
C D
113. POCSO Act was introduced in the year
A) 2010 B) 2011 C) 2012 D) 2013
POCSO
A B C D
5
1. Sunlight 2. Water 3. Pigments
4. Hormones 5. Minerals 6. Leaf age
c8
A) Only 1, 2, 3 correct B) Only 4, 5, 6 correct
C) Only 3, 4, 6 correct D) Only 1, 2, 5 correct
ps
A B
C D
116. ATP also
A) Cell wall B) Nucleus Tn
known as energy currency of the cell, produced in
C) Mitochondria
ATP
A B
D) Cytoplasm
e/
C D
117. Production of hydrogen fuel by artificial photosynthesis using sunlight
A) C.N.R.Rao B) Sternberg C) Caspar Maria D) W.F.Libi
.m
AC.N.R. B C DW.F.
118. Who
discovered the chemical pathway of photosynthesis and received noble prize in the year 1961
//t
A B
CJ.S. D
119. Kreb‟s cycle
take place in
tp
A B
C D
120. Disease caused by decrease in the number of Red blood cells
A) Leucocytosis B) Leukopenia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Anemia
A B
C D
5
c8
A B CDJ.S.
123. Match. (Heart chambers in vertebrate animals) a b c d
a. Two chambers - 1. Birds A) 1 2 3 4
ps
b. Three chambers - 2. Reptiles B) 2 1 4 3
c. Incomplete four chambers - 3. Amphibians C) 4 3 2 1
d. Four chambers - 4. Fish D) 3 2 1 4
a b c d
a
b
c
d
Tn A
B
C
D
e/
124. Find
the incorrect option from the following.
A) Absence of mitochondria in RBC allows transport of all the oxygen to tissues
B) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum allows more flexibility for RBC to move through the
.m
narrow capillaries
C) White blood cells can move like amoeba
D) No nucleus in white blood cells
//t
ARBC
B
s:
RBC
C
D
tp
125. Scientific
name of Leech is
A) Hydra vulgaris B) Hirudinaria granulosa
C) Platyhelminthes D) Nematodes
ht
A B
C D
126. The death of a plant or animal can be calculated by measuring the amount of _____ present in their
body
A) Carbon C11 B) Carbon C14 C) Carbon C12 D) Carbon C16
AC11 BC14 CC12 DC16
5
C
D
c8
128. Respiratory quotient
is
A) Volume of O2 liberated/ Volume of CO2 consumed
B) Volume of CO2 liberated/ Volume of O2 consumed
ps
C) Volume of O2 consumed/ Volume of CO2 liberated
D) None
A B
Tn
CO2 CO2
D
129. Choose the correct option from the following.
e/
1. Mitochondria were first identified in 1857 in striated muscles.
2. Mitochondria contain 60% - 70% protein, 25% - 35% lipids, 5-7% RNA, small amount of DNA
and minerals.
.m
s:
RNA, DNA
tp
A B C D
130. Which promotes the Leydig cells of the testes to secrete male sex hormone testosterone ?
ht
5
DNA 70S
c8
A B C D
ps
132. Accessory pigments involved
in photosynthesis are
A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b
C) Chlorophyll b, Anthocyanin D) Chlorophyll b, carotenoid
Aa
C b
133. The
Bb
Tn
D b
branch of biology which deals with the study of the endocrine glands and its physiology is
known as
e/
A) Electro encephalogram B) Endocrinology C) Ornithology D) Angiology
A B
.m
C D
134. Examine the following statements.
Statement 1: Charles Darwin was fascinated towards nature through J.S. Hensley‟s friendship.
Statement 2: Charles Darwin's voyage of exploration on a ship named H.M.S. Beagle around South
//t
America
Statement 3: Charles Darwin published theory of natural selection.
Statement 4: Darwin published his observations and conclusions under the name „Origin of species‟
s:
in 1859.
A) Only 1, 2, 3 correct B) Only 2, 3, 4 correct
C) 3, 4 only correct D) All correct
tp
J.S.
ht
H.M.S.
A B
C D
5
D
136. Find
the correct statements :
c8
A) The pituitary gland or hypophysis is a bean shaped compact mass of cells
B) The pituitary gland has three lobes
C) The anterior lobe is diencephalon.
ps
D) The posterior lobe is neurohypophysis
A
B
C
D
137. Match.
Tn a b c d e
e/
a. Increased blood sugar level - 1. Polydipsia A) 5 3 2 1 4
b. Excess glucose excretion in the urine - 2. Polyuria B) 1 2 3 4 5
c. Frequent urination - 3. Glycosuria C) 5 4 3 2 1
.m
b
c
d
s:
e
a b c d e
A
tp
B
C
D
ht
138. When a plant cell is placed in hypertonic solution (high salt concentrate solution), the protoplasm
shrinks away from the cell wall due to water leaving the cell. Its called
A) Osmosis B) Plasma decay C) Infiltration D) diffusion
A BC D
5
A B
C D
c8
140. Statement 1: Edward C. Kendal first crystallised thyroxine hormone in 1914 .
Statement 2: Charles Harrington and George Barger identified the molecular structure of thyroxine
in 1927 .
ps
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
C
Tn
A B
D
e/
141. Findthe incorrect Physiological effects of ethylene?
A) Promotes ripening of fruits
B) Accelerates the senescence of leaves and flowers
.m
B
C
D
s:
A
B
CJ L
D
5
c8
ps
A B C D
144. What are the small segments of DNA called
A) Ligase B) Okazaki fragments
C) RNA primer
A
C
Tn
B
D
D) Leading strand
e/
145. T.H. Morgan was awarded Nobel Prize for determining the role of chromosomes in heredity in the
year
A) 1992 B) 1993 C) 1994 D) 1995
.m
T.H.
A B C D
146. Find the incorrect option.
//t
4. It takes 15 days for the complete digestion and absorption of a full meal
5. In leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called nephridia.
A) 1, 2, 3 only incorrect B) 4, 5 only incorrect „
tp
A B
C D
5
D
c8
148. Thehuman brain constitutes nearly _______ percent of fat.
A) 50% B) 60% C) 70% D) 80%
A B C D
ps
149. Whichis called as Master gland ?
A) Adrenal gland B) Thyroid gland C) Pituitary D) Hypothalamus
""
A
year.
A) 1995 B) 1996
Tn
B C
C) 1997
D
150. Dolly was the first cloned female sheep, developed by Dr. Ian Wilmut and his colleagues in the
D) 1998
e/
A B C D
.m
//t
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
1 D 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 B
11 A 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 D 23 A 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 B 30 D
31 D 32 C 33 D 34 D 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 A
41 B 42 A 43 A 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 A 50 B
51 A 52 B 53 A 54 A 55 B 56 A 57 C 58 C 59 D 60 C
61 A 62 D 63 A 64 B 65 C 66 C 67 C 68 A 69 C 70 D
5
71 D 72 A 73 D 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 C 80 C
81 C 82 D 83 C 84 C 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 B 94 C 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 A
c8
101 D 102 C 103 A 104 C 105 C 106 A 107 B 108 B 109 B 110 C
111 A 112 A 113 C 114 D 115 C 116 C 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 D
121 D 122 C 123 C 124 D 125 B 126 B 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 C
131 D 132 D 133 B 134 D 135 A 136 D 137 A 138 B 139 D 140 A
ps
141 D 142 C 143 D 144 B 145 B 146 D 147 A 148 B 149 C 150 B
Tn
e/
.m
1 D 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 C 7 C 8 C 9 C 10 B
11 A 12 D 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B 20 C
21 A 22 D 23 A 24 A 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 B 30 D
s:
31 D 32 C 33 D 34 D 35 A 36 C 37 C 38 B 39 D 40 A
41 B 42 A 43 A 44 C 45 C 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 A 50 B
51 A 52 B 53 A 54 A 55 B 56 A 57 C 58 C 59 D 60 C
61 A 62 D 63 A 64 B 65 C 66 C 67 C 68 A 69 C 70 D
tp
71 D 72 A 73 D 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 C 80 C
81 C 82 D 83 C 84 C 85 B 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 B 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 B 94 C 95 B 96 D 97 C 98 C 99 C 100 A
ht
101 D 102 C 103 A 104 C 105 C 106 A 107 B 108 B 109 B 110 C
111 A 112 A 113 C 114 D 115 C 116 C 117 A 118 D 119 B 120 D
121 D 122 C 123 C 124 D 125 B 126 B 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 C
131 D 132 D 133 B 134 D 135 A 136 D 137 A 138 B 139 D 140 A
141 D 142 C 143 D 144 B 145 B 146 D 147 A 148 B 149 C 150 B
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
50
tp
50
ht
50
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 10 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
Who was the pioneer in rock cut architecture?
A)Narasimhavraman I B)Mahendravarman C) Narasimman II D)Rajasimman
A)
C)
B)
D)
Tn
In which year did UNESCO announced Mahabalipuram Shore temple as world heritage site?
e/
A)1981 B)1982 C)1983 D)1984
UNESCO
A) B) C)1983 D)
.m
A) B)
C) D)
ht
5
2. A rich in architectural splendor ,dedicated to Iravatheswara(Siva as a god of Lord Indira’s
elephant)
c8
3. Rajaraja I constructed this temple
A) 1,2 is true B)3,2 is true C)1 only true D) All are true
ps
A) B)
C) Narasimhavarman I
Who built the Kanchi Kailsanatha temple?
A) Mahendravarman II
Tn
C)D)
B)Rajasimha
D)Narasiman
e/
A) B)
C) D)
.m
b B 2 1 4 3
c C 4 3 2 1
d D 3 2 1 4
tp
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
ps
The contribution of Later pandyas to South Indian art was significant. which temple is example for
that ?
A) Pillayarpatti rock cut temple
B) Kanchipuram temple
C)Mandagapattu temple
D)Single stone ratha Mamallapuram Tn
e/
A) B)
C) D)
Choose the correct statement about Vijayanagara Epoch
.m
s:
tp
A) B) C) D)
The huge bull statue (Nandi) measures about 16 feet long and 13 feet height is carved out of Single
rock at
A) Gangaikonda Cholapuram B)Thanjavur Big temple
C)Tirupurambiyam temple D)Dharasuram temple
5
c8
A) B)
ps
C) D)
Where is the Azhagiya Nambi temple situated?
A)Madurai B)Tirunelveli C)Tirukkurungudi D)Srivilliputhur
A)
C)
Tn B)
D)
A) B)C) D)
//t
A) B) C)A &B D)
Culture
s:
A) B)
C) D)
tp
ht
A) B) C) D)
A) B)
C) D)
5
A) B) C) D)
c8
A) B) C)D)
ps
A) B) C)D)
A)
A) B)
Tn
B) C)
C)
D) A &B
D)
e/
A) B) C) D)
a
.m
b
c
d
a b c d
//t
A 1 2 3 4
B 4 3 2 1
C 2 1 4 3
D4
s:
2 1 3
A) B) C) D)
tp
a b c d
a A 1 2 3 4
b B 4 3 2 1
ht
c C 1 2 4 3
d D 2 1 4 3
A) B) C) D)
A) B)C) D)
5
A) B)
C) D)
c8
A) B)AC
C) D)
ps
Tn
A) B) C)
D)
e/
A) B) C) D)
.m
//t
b B 3 4 1 2
c C 1 3 4 2
d D 1 2 3 4
ht
A) B) C) D)
A) B) C) D)
Discovery of india
A) B)
C) D)A.C.
5
Match the following : a b c d
c8
a) Lucknow Pact - 1.1922 A) 4 3 2 1
b) Minto Morley reforms - 2.1915 B) 2 3 4 1
c) All India conference of Hindus - 3.1909 C) 3 1 4 2
d) End of Non-Cooperation movement - 4.1916 D) 1 4 2 3
ps
a b c d
a. A
b. B
c.
d.
Tn
C
D
Who reported “The Malaviya family have deliberately stirred up the Hindus and this has reacted on
e/
the Muslims”?
A) Mothilal Nehru B)Gandhiji C)Magistrate Crosthwaite D)Both A and C
.m
A B
C DAC
Arrange the chronological order of the events
//t
4. Lahore conference
A) 1 2 3 4 B) 4 3 2 1 C) 3 2 4 1 D) 3 2 1 4
tp
A B C D
ht
5
Who asserted “The Indian work is first of all the revival, strengthening and uplifting of ancient
religions”?
c8
A) Tilak B)Annie Besant
C)Dayanandh Saraswathi D)Madanmohan Malaviya
ps
A B
C D
Choose the correct statement
Tn
1. Cow riots were frequently occur after 1883
2. Between 1883 and 1891 ,fifteen riots were broke out only in haryana
3. Cow protectors from Punjab and cowrakshini sabha activities from the central provinces
joined the alliance
e/
A) 1,2 is true B)1,3 is true C)2,3 is true D)1,2,3 is true
.m
A B C D
//t
Statement 1:Numerous Hindu Muslim riots erupted in the last decade of the 19 th century
Statement 2:In 1892 July August,even in south India a big event was held in madurai
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
s:
tp
A B C D
Name the secretary of state who was concerned about the growing unity among the various
ht
religious and social groups when the Indian National congress was formed?
A) Elbun Burg B)Elgin C)Elphinstone D)Hamilton
A B
C D
5
A B
c8
C D
Which of the following activities supported by Muslim league?
1. Partition of Bengal
ps
2. Demanded separate electorates for Muslims
3. Pressed for safeguards for Muslims in government service
A) 1,2,3 B)1,2 C)2,3 D)1,3
A B C
Tn
D
e/
The sixth conference of Hindu Mahasabha was held at
A) Ferozepur B)Khargpur C)Punjab D)Varanasi
.m
A B C D
Which movement cause the Hindu Muslim divide?
s:
5
A B C D
In 1924 who openly advocated the Partition of the Punjab into Hindu and Muslim Provinces?
c8
A) Lala Lajpat Rai B)Gandhi C)Jawaharlal Nehru D)Aurobindo Ghosh
A B CD
ps
Which of the following is not the proposals of the muslims in Delhi conference for demand of
separate electorates?
A) The separation of Sind from Bombay
B) Reforms of the frontier and Baluchistan
Tn
C) Representation by population in the Punjab and Bengal
D) Fifty percent seats for the muslims in the central legislature
e/
A
B
.m
C
D
Who said “the hindus and Mussalams inhabiting this vast continent are not two communities but
should be considered two nations in many respects?
//t
A) B)
C) D)
Pick out the odd one
A) Forward Bloc Party - Subash Chandra Bose
B) Cripps mission - March 1942
C) Direct Action Day - Muslim League
D) Naukali - gujorrath
5
4. Gandhiji released from Prison
A) 1,2,3,4 B)2,1,3,4 C)1,2,4,3 D)2,4,1,3
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following offers offered by Linlithgow in August offer?
Tn
1. Dominion status at some unspecified future
2. Expansion of the viceroy council to accommodate more Indians in it
3. Setting up a war advisory council with Indians in it
4. Recognition of the rights of minority
e/
A) 1,3,4 B)2,3,4 C)1,2,3,4 D)1,2,4
.m
//t
A) B) C) D)
Subash Chandra Bose eventually removed from all positions from congress in
s:
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
ps
Statement 1:In 1942,Gandhi took Quit India Movement upon himself to steer the INC into action
Statement 2:Gandhi decision to launch a mass struggle this time,Rajaji and Nehru supported them
A) 1,2 is true B)1 is true,2 is false C)1 is false,2 is true D)1 and 2 are false
Tn
e/
A) B)
C) D)
Who had given as Legal practice when the INA trails were held at the Red Fort?
.m
C) D)
Which of the following resolution create the demand of separate nations for Muslims minorties?
A) Pune resolution B)Allahabad resolution
s:
A) B)
C) D)
Choose the incorrect statement
ht
1. Jinnah accepted out his acceptance of the cabinet mission plan on June 6,1946
2. Nehru conveyed through his speech at the AICC on july 7,1946 that the Indian national
congress accepted the cabinet mission proposal
3. Jinnah on July 19,1946 reacted to this and announced that the league stood opposed the plan
A) 1,2 is false B)2,3 is false
C)3 only false D)All are false
5
by congress in it?
1. Asaf Ali 2.Shafat Ahmed Khan
c8
3.Syed Ali Zaheer 4.Jahir Hussain
A) 1,2,4 B)1,2,3 C)2,3,4 D)1,3,4
ps
1.
A) B) C) D)
Tn
Who ran clandestine radio operations at Bombay during the quit india movement?
A) Usha Mehta B)Preeti Waddadar C)Asaf Ali
D)Captain Lakshmi
e/
A) B) C) D)
Who asserted “Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny and now the time comes when we shall
redeem our pledge”?
.m
C) D)
Who taken the resolution by All India Congress committee for approved the Partition in 15 th
June,1947?
s:
A)
B)
ht
C)
D)
Consider the following statements
1. The Karachi sessions of the Indian national congress enacted the famous resolution
Fundamental rights
2. It held at March 1931
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
5
A)
c8
B)
C)
D)
ps
Which of the following statement is correct about the partition of India divided into the provinces of
Bengal and Punjab?
1. People migration of Hindus from East Bengal to West Bengal and Muslims from Bihar and
West Bengal to East Bengal
Tn
2. Hindus and Sikhs in West Punjab had to migrate to eastern Punjab and muslims in eastern
Punjab to western Punjab
3. The boundaries between India and Pakistan were to be determined on the composition of people
e/
in each village on their religion
A) 1,2 is true B)2,3 is true C)1,3 is true D)All are true
.m
//t
s:
A) B)
C) D)
Which of the following statement is correct about the Challenges of after free India?
tp
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
The main objective of the Delhi Pact signed on April 8,1950
A) To restoring confidence among the minorities on both sides
ps
B) To restoring the confidence among the majorities
C) To develop the economic relationship on both sides
D) Both A and C
B)
C)
D)AC
Tn
A)
e/
Which of the following statement is correct about the JVP committee report?
1. The demand for the linguistic states in the given context as narrow provincialism
2. It could become a menace to the development of the country
.m
A B C D
s:
Which colonial expansionism china was liberated by its people in 1949?
A) America B)England C)Japan D)Germany
tp
5
D)
Under Which section the redistribution of provinces in based on linguistic basis under Nehru
c8
Committee report 1928?
A) Section 84 B)Section 85 C)Section 86 D)Section 87
ps
A) B) C) D)
In 1966,Punjab provinces divided into three states.Which of the following state is not present in it?
A) Punjab B)Haryana C)Himachal Pradesh D)Uttarkhand
A B
Tn
CD
Which of the following is not the basic principles of India foreign policy?
e/
A) Anti-colonialism B)Anti-imperialism
C)Anti-racism D)Alignment with Super powers countries
.m
A B
C D
In which of the following congress meet,Pattabhi Sittaramaya elected as the leader of the Indian
National Congrees?
//t
C D
The Congress ensured the election of Dr.B.R.Ambedhakar from a seat in
A)Amethi B)Bombay C)Nagpur D)Mhow
A B C D
5
c8
ps
A B C D
(SCIENCE)
A) Ca2+ ions are not important in maintaining the regular beating of the heart
B) Mg2+ ions are important in the green parts of the plants
C) Mg2+ ions form a complex with ATP
D) Ca2+ ions are important in blood clotting
//t
ACa2+
BMa2+
s:
CMg2+ATP
DCa2+
Statement 1: Gas is a substance that is normally in a gaseous state at room temperature and 1 atm
tp
pressure.
Statement 2: vapour is the gaseous form of any substance that is a liquid or solid at room
temperature and 1 atm pressure.
ht
5
A B
c8
C D
On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives _____
A) H3PO3 B) PH3 C) H3PO4 D) POCI3
PCl3
ps
A H3PO3 BPH3 CH3PO4 DPOCl3
Statement 1: Kidney malfunction results in the building up of electrolyte concentration within the
blood to toxic levels.
A) 1, 2 correct
C) 1, 2 incorrect
Tn
Statement 2 : In the Dialysis, recycling of patient’s blood is done through considerable length of
semipermeable tube in an isotonic saline solution.
B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
e/
.m
A B
C D
//t
To stop bleeding from an injury, ferric chloride can be applied. Which comment about the
statement is justified?
A) This is not correct. Ferric chloride is toxic
s:
B) This is correct. Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol
C) This is not correct, ferric chloride is ionic and gets into the blood stream.
D) It is correct, coagulation takes place because of formation of negatively charged
tp
A
3+
B Fe
C
-
DCl
5
C D
Carbolic acid is ------
c8
A) By phenol B) Picric acid C) Benzoic acid D) Phenyl acetic acid
A B
C D
ps
On reacting with neutral ferric chloride, phenol gives
A) Red B)Violet C) Dark green D) Pink
A B C
Tn
In a protein, various amino acids linked together by
A) Peptide bond
C) α - Glycosidic bond
B) Glycosidic bond
D
D) β - Glycosynthetic bond
e/
A B
C D
.m
Aspirin is
A) Acetylsalicylic acid B) Benzoic salicylic acid
C) Chlorobenzoic acid D) Anthranilic acid
s:
A B
C D
tp
Statement 1: The CGS, MKS and SI are metric or decimal system of units.
Statement 2: The fps system is not a metric system.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect
ht
5
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
c8
ps
A B
C D
Choose the correct statement from the following
B
C
D
//t
A Nm2 kg-2 B Nm2 kg-2
C Nm2 kg-2 D Nm2 kg-2
tp
When two different substances of the same mass are heated at the same rate then
A) The temperature of the substance with high specific heat capacity, will increase rapidly
B) The temperature of the substance with low specific heat capacity, will increase rapidly
ht
C) The temperature of the substance with high specific heat capacity, will decrease rapidly
D) The temperature of the substance with low specific heat capacity, will decrease rapidly
A
B
C
D
5
c8
A B
ps
C D
Statement 1: The human body contains a large amount of water which has low resistance of around
200 Ω
Tn
Statement 2: The dry skin has high resistance of around 500 k Ω.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
e/
K
A B
C D
.m
A freely suspended bar magnet in a non-uniform magnetic field. What will happen
A) It will undergo translatory motion
B) It will undergo rotational motion
C) It will undergo translatory motion and rotational motion
//t
A
B
C
tp
D
When an electromagnetic wave propagates through a medium --------
A) Electrical energy density is twice the magnetic energy density
ht
5
A) Positive B) Negative C) Neutral D) Not defined
c8
A B
C D
Emission of electrons by the absorption of heat energy is called………emission.
ps
A) Photoelectric B) Field C) Thermoionic D) Secondary
A B C D
The only tissue in the body that can be transplanted from one person to another with little or no
possibility of rejection is
A) Nerve Tissue B) Muscle Tissue Tn C) Cornea
D) Ground Tissue
e/
A B C D
Which of the following hormone is not secreted under the influence of pituitary gland
A) Thyroxine B) Insulin C) Estrogen D) Glucocorticoids
.m
A B
C D
Statement 1: The plant known as the "Terror of Bengal" is Water hyacinth.
//t
Statement 2: It spreads rapidly and increases the amount of oxygen in the water causing aquatic life
to survive.
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
s:
A B
C D
ht
5
D LH
ABO blood group in man is controlled by
c8
A) Multiple alleles B) Lethal genes C) Sex linked genes D) Y-linked genes
ABO
A B
C DY
ps
DNA and RNA are similar with respect to
A) Thymine as a nitrogen base
B) A single-stranded helix shape
A
Tn
C) Nucleotide containing sugars, nitrogen bases and phosphates
D) The same sequence of nucleotides for the amino acid phenyl alanine
RNA
B
e/
C
D
.m
Evolutionary history of an organism is called
A) Ancestry B) Ontogeny C) Phylogeny D) Paleontology
//t
A B
C D
Which of the following bacteria is widely used as a bio-insecticide?
s:
A B
C D
Statement 1: Duodenal and Gastric ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram negative
bacterium
ht
Statement 2: Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis finds application in raising insect resistant crops
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1 correct 2 incorrect
A B
C D
5
c8
A B C D
Select the incorrect option.
A) Catharanthus - Heterophyllus B) Lablab - Trifoliolate
ps
C) Begonia - Leaf mosaic D) Allamanda - Ternate phyllotaxy
A
B
C
D
Tn
Statement 1: Peter Agre, discovered the “Water Pore” Aquaporin in RBC
Statement 2: He received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2000
e/
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
RBC
.m
A B
C D
//t
Match. A b c d
a. Molybdenum - 1. Chlorophyll A) 1 3 4 2
b. Zinc - 2. Methionine B) 4 3 2 1
s:
c. Magnesium - 3. Auxin C) 4 3 1 2
d. Sulphur - 4. Nitrogenase D) 1 2 3 4
a b c d
tp
5
C D
What type of fibres are found in connective tissue matrix?
c8
A) Collagen B) Areolar C) Cartilage D) Tubular
A B C D
ps
Statement 1: Earthworms have most of their important organ in the first 20 segments
Statement 2: If earthworm gets cut after the 20th segment, the anterior half and posterior half cannot
be regenerated
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect C) 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
Tn
A B
e/
C D
The first vitamin produced by fermentation process using, Acetobacter bacteria is
A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin C D) Vitamin D
.m
AA BB C C DD
CO2 is transported through blood to lungs as
A) Carbonic acid B) Oxyhaemoglobin
//t
C D
Statement 1: Aquaporins are water–permeable channels
Statement 2: It allow water to move across the epithelial cells in relation to the osmotic difference
tp
A B
C D
The pigment that stores oxygen in muscle fiber
A) Myoglobin B) Troponin C) Myosin D) Actin
A B C D
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
1 B 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 C 14 A 15 D 16 D 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 D 36 C 37 A 38 B 39 A 40 C
41 A 42 D 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 B 50 D
51 A 52 C 53 C 54 C 55 B 56 D 57 A 58 D 59 D 60 B
61 A 62 A 63 C 64 A 65 D 66 A 67 A 68 D 69 C 70 B
5
71 D 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 C
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 C 87 D 88 D 89 A 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 A 94 B 95 D 96 D 97 B 98 B 99 B 100 C
c8
101 D 102 A 103 A 104 D 105 B 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 A 110 A
111 B 112 A 113 D 114 A 115 A 116 B 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 C 124 C 125 D 126 B 127 B 128 C 129 C 130 B
131 C 132 A 133 C 134 A 135 C 136 C 137 A 138 A 139 C 140 D
ps
141 C 142 C 143 B 144 A 145 A 146 C 147 C 148 C 149 A 150 A
Tn
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 10 ANS KEY
e/
1 B 2 D 3 B 4 A 5 C 6 D 7 B 8 B 9 A 10 B
11 B 12 B 13 C 14 A 15 D 16 D 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 D
21 C 22 A 23 D 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 C 28 D 29 B 30 D
.m
31 A 32 C 33 B 34 A 35 D 36 C 37 A 38 B 39 A 40 C
41 A 42 D 43 C 44 D 45 C 46 B 47 C 48 B 49 B 50 D
51 A 52 C 53 C 54 C 55 B 56 D 57 A 58 D 59 D 60 B
61 A 62 A 63 C 64 A 65 D 66 A 67 A 68 D 69 C 70 B
//t
71 D 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 C
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 C 86 C 87 D 88 D 89 A 90 A
91 D 92 C 93 A 94 B 95 D 96 D 97 B 98 B 99 B 100 C
101 D 102 A 103 A 104 D 105 B 106 A 107 A 108 B 109 A 110 A
s:
111 B 112 A 113 D 114 A 115 A 116 B 117 A 118 D 119 A 120 B
121 C 122 A 123 C 124 C 125 D 126 B 127 B 128 C 129 C 130 B
131 C 132 A 133 C 134 A 135 C 136 C 137 A 138 A 139 C 140 D
tp
141 C 142 C 143 B 144 A 145 A 146 C 147 C 148 C 149 A 150 A
ht
C
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
60
tp
70
ht
70
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 3 HRS GOAL - 3 11 TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
The basic unit at Village level in the Pallava administration was
A)Nadu B)kurram C)Sabha D)Mandalam
A B C Tn D
Statement 1:Matrimonial alliances between the cholas and the eastern chalukyas began during the
reign of Rajaraja I.His daughter Kundavi was married to chalukya prince Vimaladitya
Statement 2:Their son was Rajaraja Narendra who married the daughter of rajendra chola named
e/
Anmmnagadevi,Their son was Kulothunga I
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
.m
//t
A B C D
s:
Statement 1:Later Rajendra I and his successors ruled the empire from gangaikonda
Cholapuram the newly built capital
Statement 2:Rajaraja I (985-1014 A.D) was the most powerful ruler of chola empire
tp
A B
C D
How many songs comprises of Ettuthogai and Pathupattu?
A)2100 B)2200 C)2300 D)2400
5
Chola III and established the rule of Pandyas in present day of Tamilnadu?
A)1279 B)1280 C)1281 D)1282
c8
A B C D
The chola rulers carried out an elaborate survey of land in order to fix the government share of the
ps
land revenue.How many part produce as land tax?
A)2/4 B)4/3 C)1/3 D)2/3
A
A) Rajaraja I
B C
B)Kulothunga I
Tn
D
Who established a Vedic college at Ennayiram (now in Villupuram district)?
C)Kulothunga III
D)Rajendra I
e/
A B
C D
.m
C D
Who hailed the Pandyan Kingdom as the „the richest and the most splendid province in the world‟?
A) Alexander Cunningham B)Marco Polo
s:
A B
C D
ht
5
What was the special feature of the architecture of the early chola period?
A)Bas-reliefs B)Gopurams C)Vimanas D)corridors
c8
A B C D
Who was the greatest of the Chola kings of the Sangam period?
ps
A) Aditya Chola B) Vijayalayan C) Paranthaka Chola D) Karikala Chola
A B C D
Who performed the RajasuyaYaga?
A) Perunarkilli
A
B) Karikalan
B
Tn C) Ilanchetchenni D) Satyaputra
C D
Which book mentions about the great expedition in North India by Cheran Chenguttuvan?
e/
A) Manimegalai B) Sulamani C) Silapathigaram D) Pathitrupathu
A B C D
.m
A B
C D
s:
Who invaded south kerala and brought Nelkinda port under their control near Kottayam?
A) Pandyas B) Cheras C) Cholas D) velir chieftains
tp
A B C D
ht
Who is praised as the lord of Korkai, and as the overlord of the southern Paratavar, a martial and
fishing community of the Tirunelveli coast?
A) Talayalanganathu cheruvendra Nedunchezhiyan
B) Nedunchezhiyan C) Muthukudumi peruvazhuthi
D) Ilanchet senni
AB
C D
5
A
B
c8
C
D
Which book mentions that Magadha artisans, Maratha mechanics, Malvasmiths worked in
collaboration with Tamil artisans?
ps
A) Manimegalai B) Silapathigaram C) Pathitrupathu D) Pattinapalai
A
A) Andhra
B C
B) Karnataka
Tn D
Which is not a region ruled by the Satavahanas who were contemporaries of the Muvendars?
C) Kerala
D) Maharashtra
B
C
D
Assertion A: The Rajaguru of Rajaraja I is referred as as Sarva Sivan in their inscriptions.
s:
A
B
C D
Select the incorrect one. (Local government of Chola period)
A) Various local bodies functioned actively during the Chola period.
B) These were bodies such as Urar, Sabhaiyar, Kizhar and Nattar.
C) The Local Body were relatively autonomous organizations
D) The Chola Empire was built on the foundation of these groups.
5
A B
C D
c8
Kanchi Kailasanathar Temple was built by ______
A) Aparajithan B) Narasimhavarman II
C) Mahendravarman I D) Simha Vishnu
ps
A B
C D
Find the incorrect option.
A) Valvil Ori –The one who gave gifts to Panars who makes music with Yazh instrument
D) Began - The one who gave the chariot to the Mullai kodi.
e/
A
B
C
.m
D
Who ConqueredGangai konda Chola Puram, the capital of the Cholas?
A) Maravarman Kulasekara Pandian I B) Jatavarman Sundara Pandian I
C) Maravarman Sundara Pandian I D) Sezhiyan Arikesari
//t
A B
C D
s:
5
step undertaken by the kings to glorify their name, fame and also their territories
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
c8
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
ps
C
Tn
A
B
D
Who is responsible for collecting taxes at the village level and pay it to the government?
e/
A) Urar B) Nattar C) Nadu D) Local leader
A B C D
.m
Assertion A : The basic assembly in the village is sabha. The Sabha is a non-executive body
Reason R: The sabha worked closely with the urar, an informal gathering of the entire village
A) A correct, R incorrect B) A & R incorrect
C) A incorrect, R correct D) A & R correct
//t
s:
A B
C D
Dakshinachitram” aExplantaory note on painting was compiled during the period of?
tp
A) Rajasimhan B) Vishnugopan
C) Simhavishnu D) Mahendravarman I
ht
A B
C D
Which is not related to "Varahan"?
A) Cow B) Elephant C) Gandaberunda D) None
A B C D
5
c8
A B C D
Match. a b c d
a.IbnBattutah - 1. Persia A) 3 1 4 2
b.AbdurRazak - 2. Portugal B) 2 1 4 3
ps
c. Nikitin - 3. Morocco C) 4 3 2 1
d.Nuniz - 4. Russia D) 1 2 3 4
a b c d
a. A
b.
c.
d.
B
C
D
Which is called as the murmuring Gallery ?
Tn
C D
During whosereign did Abdul Razakcome to VijayanagaraEmpire?
A) Bukkar II B) Krishnadevarayar
s:
C) Devarayar II D) Devarayar I.
A B
tp
C D
SaluvaNarasimha died in the year ?
A) 1491 B) 1419 C) 1427 D) 1489
ht
A B C D
Which dynasty was formed in the year 1505?
A)Sangama B)Saluva C) Tuluva D) Aravidu
A B C D
5
B
C
c8
D
Mohammad Gawan was the Prime Minister under ______
A) HasanshahBamini B) Mohammed I C) Mohammed III D) All the above
ps
A BC D
Assertion A:Vijayanagara kings issued a gold coin called "Varaha".
Reason R: It is also known as Pon in Tamil and Honnu in Kannada.
A) A & R correct
C) A & R incorrect TnB) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect & R correct
A B
e/
C D
Match the following : a b c d
a) Sangama dynasty - 1.1485-1505 A) 2 1 4 3
.m
d D 1 2 3 4
Statement 1:Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and reservoirs for harvesting
tp
rainwater.
Statement 2:He built the famous temples of Krishnaswamy,HazaraRamaswamy and
Vithalaswamy in the capital city of Hampi.
ht
5
C) D)
Which of the following statement is correct about the trade policy of Vijayanagara empire?
c8
1. During the Vijayanagarempire,inland,coastal and overseas trade flourished .
2. It consist of goods such as silk ,spices from china , Malabar region and precious stones from
Burma (Myanmar)
ps
A) 1,2 is true B)1 only true C)2 only true D)none
A) B) C) Tn
D)
Kumara Kambanarbrought an end to the Madurai Sultanate in the year
A) 1370 B ) 1372 C) 1346 D) 1376
e/
A B C D
Match. a b c d
.m
a b c d
a. A
b. B
s:
A) B) C) D)
ht
A) B)C) D)
A) B) C) D)
A) B)
C) D)
5
c8
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. When Gandhi launched the Non cooperation movement ,he returned all the medals
2. Khilafat is derived from the Urdu Word Which means “Revolt”
3. The first union founded in Tamilnadu was Madras Labour Union
ps
4. Madras Labour Union was started by C.R.Das
A) 1,3 is false B)1,4 is false C)4 is false D)2,3,4 is false
""
Tn
"".
e/
A B C D
Name the medal Gandhi had been honored for his humanitarian work in South Africa
.m
Who was the president of the first All India trade union congress?
A) B.P.Wadia B)Lala Lajpet rai C)Annie bessant D)Tilak
s:
ii) Arousing in the Indian Masses a sense of pride for the motherland
A) i is true B)ii is true C)Both are false D)Both are true
ht
і
іі
Aі Bіі Cііі Dііі
Choose the correct statement
1. Gandhi reached Dandi on April 6,1930
2. 78 members joined with Gandhiji in dandi march
3. In Tamilnadu Salt Satyagraha was led by kamaraj
A) 1 is true B)2,3 is true C)1,2 is true D)1,2,3 is true
5
C) During the Poona Pact,Gandhi was at Lahore Prison
D) None of the above
c8
A
B
ps
C
D
Choose the correct statement about the Jallianwala bagh
1. Jallianwala Bagh massacre held in the year April 13,1919
D)Both are false
e/
A B C D
Pick out the correct pair
.m
Movement - Origin
1. Nam sudra Movement - East India
2. Adidharma Movement - North West India
3. Satya Sodhak movement - West India
//t
tp
ht
5
A B C D
c8
Who was took part in tamilnadu in the communist conference held at December 1925 in bombay?
A) Thiru.vi.ka B)M.Singaravelar C)C.Rajaji D)V.O.C
ps
A BM. CC. D
Choose the incorrect statement
A) Lal Chand was one of the leaders of Arya Samaj
B)
C)
D)
Tn
Sankathan was a Cow protection association
All India Hindu Mahasbha was established at Dehradun as its capital
Punjab Hindu Sabha established at 1909
e/
A
B
C
.m
D
Statement 1:Forward Bloc Party was started by Subash Chandra Bose
Statement 2:Subash escaped from America to New Zealand,due to efforts of british arrest
Statement 3:After Bose escape from India,he carried on his revolutionary activities
//t
tp
2. U.S.president F.D.Roosevelt and Chinese president Chiang Kai Shek were concerned with
halting Japan on its march
3. The way the south east Asian region fell raised concerns to Britain and the Indian National
congress
A) 1 only false B)2,3 is false C)2 only false D)3 only false
5
Reason:Churchill was worried that Calcutta and Madras might fall in Japanese hands.Congress
leaders also worried the similar thought
c8
A) Assertion is false,reason is true B)Assertion is true,reason explains assertion
C)Assertion is true,reason does not explains assertion
B) Assertion and reason are false
ps
A
B
C
D
Tn
Statement 1:In the wardha congress meeting resolved to launch a mass civil disobedience
e/
movement
Statement 2:C.Rajaji and Bhulabhai desai who had reservations against launching a movement at
that time resigned from the congress working committee
.m
A) 1,2 is true B)1 only true C)2 only true D)1,2 is false
//t
A BCD
How many days was strike were held at the Tata Steel Plant in Jamshedpur closing down by the
striking workers begin on August 20?
s:
5
radio
2. He addressed at Rangoon
c8
3. And also this is addressed particularly to Gandhi
4. Calling him the “father of the nation” Bose appealed to Gandhi for his blessings in what he
described as “India‟s last war of independence”
A) 1,2 is false B)2,4 is false C)1 only false D)2 only false
ps
Tn
””
A B CD
e/
When was bose arrested by the british under the defence of India act and kept under constant
surveillance?
A) June 2,1942 B)July 8,1941 C)July 3,1940 D)July 8,1942
.m
A B C D
After Gandhi release from Prison in July 1944,he proposed to talks with ___________based on
//t
””
A B
tp
C D
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Lord Wavell moved to negotiate and called for the Shimla conference
ht
5
When was the All India congress committee meet was held that the resolution moved by Govind
Ballabh Pant accepting partition was approved?
c8
A) May 15,1947 B)June 15,1947 C)July 15,1947 D)August 15,1947
A B C D
ps
When was the Gandhiji assassination was held?
A) January 15,1948 B)January 20,1948
C)January 28,1948 D)January 30,1948
A Tn
B C D
Who was in charged to redraw the map of India according to Partition as a Lawyer from London?
A) Sir Cyril Joseph B)Sir Cyril Heri
e/
C)Sir Cyril Prabhu D)Sir Cyril Radcliffe
.m
tp
ht
A B C D
Statement 1:In the four months between August and November 1947 as many as four and half
million people left west Pakistan to India reaching towns in East Punjab or Delhi
Statement 2:Five and half million Indians move to Pakistan
Statement 3:Peoples were accommodate nearby places by violent mobs to seek asylum in camps
setup around the Red fort and the Purana Quila
A) 1,2 is true B)1,2,3 is true C)1,3 is true D)2 only true
5
A B
c8
C D
J.V.P.Committe was setup for the demand for linguistic reorganization of states.Among the
following who were not the members?
ps
A) Jawaharlal Nehru B)Pattabhi Sittaramaya
C)Vallabhai Patel D)Rajaji
J.V.P Committee)
A
C
A) Pattabhi Sittaramaya
D Tn
B
Who was serving as fast and died for demanding the separate state of Andhra?
B)Potti Sriramalu
e/
C)Ramasamy Chettiyar D)None of the above
.m
A B
C D
Who was the Prime architect of India Foreign Policy?
A) Gandhiji B)Vallabhai Patel C)Jawaharlal Nehru D)Radhakrishnan
//t
A B
C D
s:
How many more countries attended the Asian relations conference organized by Nehru in March
1947?
A) 25 B)22 C)18 D)20
tp
A B C D
ht
Who said “Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny and now the time comes when we shall
redeem our pledge not wholly or in full measure but very sustainably ?
A) Gandhi B)Lord Mountbatten C)Rajendra Prasad D)Jawaharlal Nehru
A B
C D
5
AR.H. BW.H.
C D
c8
Who was a firm believer that the lower middle classes, peasants,artisans and workers could play a
very important role in the Indian National movement ?
A) Aurobindo Ghosh B)Lala Lajpet Rai
ps
C)Dadhabhai Naoroji D)Tilak
A B
C D
Tn
Who was the first law member of the Governor General in council from 1834 to 1838?
A) William Digby B)T.B.Macaulay C)A.O.Hume
D)William Jones
e/
A BT.B.
CA.O. D
.m
Who wrote “ A wholesale vengeanance is being taken without distinction of friend or foe.As
regards the looting we have indeed surpassed Nadirshah”?
A) Elphinstone B)Sir John Lawrence
C)A.O.Hume D)T.B.Macaulay
//t
s:
A B
CA.O. DT.B
Choose the statement not matched about the Madras Native Association?
tp
5
Pick out the odd one(Indian National Congress Confernece)
1. Belgaum - 1924
c8
2. Surat - 1907
3. Haripura - 1938
4. Meerut - 1947
ps
5. Ramgarh - 1941
A) 1,2 is false B)4,5 is false C)1,5 is false D)2,3 is false
A
B
Tn
Match the following and select the correct one
C
D
e/
a) Balaganagdhar Tilak - 1.Voice of India
b) Dadhabhai Naoroji - 2.Madras times
c) Macaulay - 3.Kesari
.m
b
C
d
s:
B) Hemachandra Kanungo
C) Jatindernath Banerjee and Barindarkumar Ghoshe
D) Khudiram ghoshe and Prafulla khaki
ht
A
B
C
D
Who outlined the constructive programme spreading self-help to people by festival called “Mela”?
A) Mahadev Govind Ranade B)Mahatama Gandhi
C)Rabindranath Tagore D)G.Subramaniam
5
c8
A B C D
ps
Match the following :
a) Indian Press Act - 1.Self Rule
b) Dawn Society - 2.a revolt against their state of dependence
c) Swaraj - 3.Crushed the nationalist activities
d) Swadeshi
A)
B)
a
2
1
b
1
2
c
4
3
-
d
3
4
Tn
4.The National council of education
e/
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
.m
a)
b)
c)
d)
//t
a b c d
A)
B)
s:
C) 3 4 1 2
D) 4 3 2 1
Who said “ a revolt against their state of dependence in all branches of their national life”?
tp
5
C)Rabindranath Tagore D)Satish Chandra
c8
A BG.
C D
Match the following :
ps
a) Public meetings Act - 1.1907
b) Explosive substances act - 2.1908
c) Scheme of Partition - 3.1860
d) Indian Press act - 4.1910
A)
B)
a
2
1
b
1
2
c
4
3
d
3
4
Tn
C) 3 4 2 1
e/
D) 4 3 2 1
a b c d
a) A) 2 1 4 3
.m
b) B) 1 2 3 4
c) C) 3 4 2 1
d) D) 4 3 2 1
//t
Who was the editor of Madras times pointed out in Just ten years (1891-1900),nineteen million had
died in India in famines alone?
A) William Digby B)T.B.Macaulay
s:
A BT.B.
CA.O. D
Which is the correct chronological sequence of the following associations?
ht
5
A) Vanchinathan B)Oomaithurai C)U.V.Subramaniam D)Bharathiyar
c8
. ""
A B C D
In which Indian National conference did Annie besant elected as President?
ps
A) Chennai -1917 B)Calcutta-1917 C)Bombay-1917 D)Belgaum-1917
A B
a)
b)
C
Match the following :
-
-
1.Indian Commonwealth League
2.Valentine Cyrol
e/
c) Person who changed Indian League - 3.Hala Hardyal,1913
d) Founder of Pacific coast Hindustan Association - 4.V.K.Krishnamenon
a b c d
.m
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 4 2 3
//t
C) 1 2 4 3
D) 2 1 3 4
s:
c)
d)
a b c d
ht
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 4 2 3
C) 1 2 4 3
D) 2 1 3 4
Who was served as the president of Indian National Congress during Lucknow Pact?
A) C.R.Das B)B.P.Wadia C)H.S.Olcotti D)A.C.Mazumdar
A B CD
5
A) 1,2,3 is true B)2,4 is true C)1,4 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
c8
ps
A B C D
Choose the correct statement
1. The british trade policy took a heavy toll on the indigeneous industry
A B C D
//t
5
Match the following : a b c d
c8
a) Lucknow Pact - 1.1922 A) 4 3 2 1
b) Minto Morley reforms - 2.1915 B) 2 3 1 4
c) All India First hindu Conference - 3.1909 C) 3 1 4 2
d) End of Non-cooperation movement - 4.1916 D) 1 4 2 3
ps
a b c d
a) A
b) B
c)
d)
Tn
Arrange the chronological order of the events
1. Quit India Movement
C
D
e/
2. Bombay League Conference
3. Allahabad Conference
4. Lahore Conference
.m
A B C D
s:
A B C D
Caliph post was abolished in the year
ht
/SCIENCE
131. Examine the following statements.
1. Heat is a measure of the total kinetic energy of the molecules contained in an object.
2. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of molecules.
3. The average temperature of the human body is 37 C
4. Thermal equilibrium does not exists when two objects in thermal contact no longer affect each
other's temperature
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2 Correct 3, 4 Incorrect
5
C) 1 Incorrect, 2, 3, 4 Correct D) 1, 2, 3 Correct 4 Incorrect
c8
ps
A B
C D
132. Match.
a. Lung
b. Brain
c. Kidneys
(Water)
- 1. 64%
- 2. 83%
- 3. 80%
Tn A)
B)
C)
a
3
3
3
b
4
1
1
c
1
4
2
d
2
2
4
e/
d. Skin - 4. 75% D) 3 4 2 1
a b c d
a A
.m
Elements of Chemistry
tp
A B C D
134. Statement 1: Molecular formula of calcium sulphate hemihydrate is CaSo4.7H2O
ht
Statement 2: Plaster of Paris is used in surgery to treat fractures and cast statues.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct 2 incorrect
C) 1 incorrect, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
CaSO4.7H2O
A B
C D
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
136. AssertionA : If we put one drop of water in cooking oil, water drop sinks
Reason R : Water is more denser than cooking oil.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct Tn
e/
A
B
C
.m
D
137. Statement 1: Every year human body replace about 98% of the cells
Statement 2: There are approximately 70 billion cells in our body.
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
//t
A B
C D
tp
138. Find
the incorrect option about metal that is solids at room temperature
A) Bromine B) Calcium C) Graphite D) Mercury
ht
A B C D
139. Boiling andfreezing of mercury
A) 350 ° C, -40 C B) 355 C, -38 C C) 357 C, -39 C D) 356 ° C, 39 C
A B C D
5
A
c8
B
C
D
ps
142. Chandrayaan2 entered into the lunar orbit in the year
A) 2019 June 15 B) 2018 July 15 C) 2019 August 20 D) 2019 July 20
A B C D
143. Whichis used to make electrical switches and handles of various utensils ?
A) Terephthalate B) Melamine
Tn C) Polyethylene
A B C D
D) Bakelite
144. Statement1: Vehicles move safely due to the surface tension between the tyres and the road.
e/
Statement 2: The friction between footwear and the ground help us to walk without slipping
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
.m
A B
//t
C D
145. Match.
Position of the object & Position of the image a b c d
s:
d. Between F and P - 4. At C D) 2 1 4 3
ht
5
c8
A B
C D
147. Rotteneggs develop a bad smell due to formation of ____________gas.
ps
A) Nitrogen sulphide B) Hydrogen sulphide
C) Carbon dioxide sulphide D) Hydrogen chloride
A B
C
148. Find
the incorrect option. (Valency)
A) Chlorine - 1 B) Oxygen - 2
Tn
D
C) Nitrogen - 5 D) Carbon - 4
e/
A B
C D
149. Findthe incorrect option
.m
A
B
s:
C
D
150. Which chemical is not present in matchstick & matchbox
tp
A) Red phosphorus
B) Potassium chloride
C) Antimony tri sulphide
ht
D) Potassium permanganate
A
B
C
D
5
D) 3 2 4 1
c8
a
b
c
d
ps
a b c d
A
B
C
D
152. Statement 1: Convex gives virtual images
Statement 2: Concave gives real images.
Tn
e/
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1, 2 Incorrect C) 1 Incorrect, 2 Correct D) 1 Correct, 2 Incorrect
.m
A B
C D
153. Examine the following statements.
1. Nichrome is a conductor with a very high resistivity.
2. Its value is 1.5 X 10 -6 Ω m.
//t
tp
A B
ht
C D
154. AssertionA : Velocity decreases as the density of gas increases.
Reason R : The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of the density
of the gas.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
5
Statement 2: SI unit of radioactivity is Becquerel
A) 1, 2 correct
c8
B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect
C) 1, 2 incorrect
D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
ps
A B
C
156. Gram
Tn
D
molecular mass of hydrochloric acid (HCI) is
A) 18 kg B) 44 kg
HCl
C) 17 kg D) 36.5 kg
e/
A B C D
157. Match. a b c d
a. Oxide ore - 1. Siderite A) 1 2 3 4
.m
5
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 correct, 2 incorrect C) 1, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
c8
A B
ps
C D
162. When you go for a ride in a merry-go-round in amusement parks, you will experience an outward
pull due to
A) Centripetal force B) Centrifugal force
C) Gravitational force D) electro static force
A
C
Tn
B
D
e/
163. Resistivity of human body in dry state is
A) 100 Ω B) 100000 Ω C) 10000 Ω D) 10000 Ω
A B C D
.m
164. Which
mirror is used in astronomical telescopes?
A) Convex mirror B) Concave mirror C) Plane mirror D) Biconvex mirror
A B C D
//t
2. In 1920, James Chadwick predicted the presence of another particle in the nucleus as neutral.
3. James Chadwick discovered the neutron.
A) 1, 2, 3 correct B) 1,2 Correct 3 Incorrect
tp
A B
C D
5
167. Theelement which does not have valency 2 is
A) Beryllium B) Oxygen C) Magnesium D) Chlorine
c8
A B C D
168. Findthe incorrect statement from the following
A) Dmitri Mendeleev proposed the law of periodicity
ps
B) Dobereiner grouped the elements based on their relative atomic masses in a group of three
C) In the modern periodic table all the elements are arranged in the increasing order of their mass
number
D) There are seven periods and 18 groups in the modern periodic table
Tn
A
B
e/
C
.m
D
169. A freely suspended bar magnet in a non-uniform magnetic field. What will happen
A) It will undergo translatory motion
B) It will undergo rotational motion
//t
A
B
tp
C
D
170. Match. a b c d
ht
5
D
171. Examine the following statements. (Aquaregia)
c8
1. It is a mixture of hydrochloric acid and nitric acid prepared in the ratio of 3:1.
2. It can also dissolve metals such as gold, platinum and palladium.
3. Its boiling point is 100 C
ps
A) 1, 2, 3 Correct B) 1, 3 Correct 2 Incorrect
C) 1, 2 Correct 3 Incorrect D) 1 Correct, 2, 3 Correct
Tn
e/
A B
C D
172. Statement 1: The part where the leaves of the stem arises is called the node.
.m
Statement 2: The bud that appears at the tip of the stem is called the auxillary bud.
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect C) 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
//t
A
B
C
s:
D
173. Choose the correct option
1. It is a unicellular organism.
tp
5
dD D
175. Find the incorrect option : Glands & Location
c8
1. Pituitary gland - Base of the brain
2. Thymus gland - Chest
3. Adrenal gland - Above the kidney
ps
4. Pancreas - Abdomen
A) Only 1, 2 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 3, 4 correct D) All correct
Tn
e/
A B C D
176. WorldFood Day is observed on
A) October 15 B) October 16 C) October 17 D) October 18
.m
A B C D
177. Findthe correct option.
1. Membrane bounded sacs are stacked on top of the other
//t
2. Secretion of enzymes
3. Digests food
4. Separates protein from food and provides to the cell
s:
ht
A B
C D
178. Ovary,style and stigma is present in
A) Petals B)Sepals C) Stamen D) Pistil
A B C D
5
180. Air
chambers provide buoyancy and mechanical support to plants in
A) Velambasi B) Ulfia C) Eichhornia D) Water algae
c8
A B CD
ps
181. Whichis the biggest vertebrate animal that is 35 meters long and 120 tons in weight
A) Octopus B) Blue whale C) Giant salamander D) Andrias Davidians
A
B
D
C
Tn
e/
182. Findthe incorrect option.
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis - Cholera
2. Vibrio cholerae - Typhoid
.m
A B
s:
C D
183. Statement 1: India tops in silk production in the world
Statement 2: Places like Kanchipuram , Tirubhuvanam and Arani in Tamil Nadu are famous for silk
tp
production.
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
ht
A B
C D
5
A B C D
185. Match. a b c d
c8
a. Skin cell - 1. 120 days A) 1 2 3 4
b. Bone cells - 2. Every 300-500 days B) 4 3 2 1
c. Liver cells - 3. Every 2 weeks C) 3 4 2 1
ps
d. Red blood cells - 4. Every 10 years D) 2 1 4 3
a b c d
a A
b
c
Tn
B
C
dD
e/
186. Example of Thermonasty - a movement of part of a plant is associated with change in temperature
A) Sunflower B) Tulip flowers C) Hibiscus D) Lily flower
.m
A B C D
187. Which is not the functions of the kidneys
//t
A B C D
ht
188. Match. a b c d
a. Nitrogen fixation - 1. Pseudomonas A) 1 2 3 4
b. Ammonification - 2. Nitrosomonas B) 4 3 2 1
c. Nitrification - 3. Putrefying bacteriaC) 3 2 1 4
d. Denitrification - 4. Azoto bacter D) 1 4 3 2
5
D
189. Find the correct option Tamil name & Botanical name
c8
1. Nannari - Cinchona officinalis
2. Nithya Kalyani - Wrightia tinctoria
3. Sarpagandha - Rauwolfia serpentina
ps
4. Tulsi - Ocimum sanctum
A) Only 1, 2 correct B) Only 2, 3 correct C) Only 3, 4 correct D) All correct
Tn
e/
A B C D
190. World Health Organization (WHO) declared swine flu a major pandemic in the year
A) 2008 B) 2009 C) 2010 D) 2011
.m
WHO
A B C D
191. Statement 1: Chikungunya is caused by a single strand of RNA virus.
//t
Statement 2: The disease is transmitted by the infected mosquito Aedes aegypti, which bites
humans during the day
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect C) 1 correct, 2 incorrect D) 1 incorrect, 2 correct
s:
tp
A B
C D
ht
5
A) Psychology B) Mycology C) Bacteriology D) Virology
c8
A B C D
194. Choose the correct option.
1. A simple virus particle is often called a virion.
ps
2. It consists of an outer protein shell called capsid
3. Viruses found outside the cell are virions.
4. Virions are capable of infecting living tissues.
A) Only 1, 2 correct B) Only 2, 3 correct C) Only 3, 4 correct D) All correct
Tn
e/
A B C D
195. Which
protects against allergy ?
.m
196. Whichis a watery fluid that is present in the area between the lens and the cornea ?
A) Vitreous HumourB) Aqueous Humour C) Posterior fluid D) Pericardial fluid
s:
A B
C D
197. Statement1: Aerobic respiration releases 19 times more energy than anaerobic respiration from the
tp
ATP
A B
C D
5
3. In that, 10 bones are fixed together to form the cranium
4. 12 bones fuse to form the face
c8
A) Only 1, 2 incorrect B) 2, 3 only incorrect C) only 3, 4 incorrect D) All incorrect
ps
A B
C
200. Which
D
Tn
hormone in female influences the secretion of estrogen ?
A) LH Hormone B) GH Hormone
C) FSH Hormone D) ACTH Hormone
e/
ALH BGH CFSH DACTH
.m
s:
tp
ht
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
1 C 2 C 3 A 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 B
11 A 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 B
31 D 32 B 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 A
41 D 42 C 43 C 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 A 49 A 50 A
51 A 52 B 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 A 57 B 58 A 59 C 60 A
61 C 62 B 63 B 64 D 65 C 66 C 67 C 68 C 69 B 70 D
5
71 B 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 C 79 C 80 C
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 D 86 D 87 D 88 B 89 B 90 D
91 B 92 C 93 D 94 D 95 B 96 B 97 D 98 B 99 A 100 B
c8
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 C 108 A 109 C 110 A
111 B 112 A 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 D 118 B 119 D 120 A
121 C 122 B 123 A 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 B
131 D 132 D 133 B 134 C 135 C 136 A 137 B 138 D 139 C 140 A
ps
141 B 142 C 143 D 144 D 145 D 146 D 147 B 148 C 149 D 150 D
151 C 152 B 153 A 154 C 155 A 156 D 157 D 158 C 159 A 160 D
161 A 162 B 163 B 164 B 165 D 166 C 167 D 168 C 169 C 170 B
171
181
191
C
B
A
172
182
192
C
D
A
173
183
193
A
D
B
174
184
194
D
D
D
175
185
195
Tn
D
C
C
176
186
196
B
B
B
177
187
197
B
C
A
178
188
198
D
B
A
179
189
199
A
C
C
180
190
200
C
B
C
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM - 11ANS KEY
1 C 2 C 3 A 4 D 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 D 9 C 10 B
.m
11 A 12 A 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 D
21 B 22 A 23 C 24 D 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 B
31 D 32 B 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 D 38 A 39 D 40 A
41 D 42 C 43 C 44 A 45 C 46 C 47 C 48 A 49 A 50 A
//t
51 A 52 B 53 A 54 B 55 C 56 A 57 B 58 A 59 C 60 A
61 C 62 B 63 B 64 D 65 C 66 C 67 C 68 C 69 B 70 D
71 B 72 B 73 C 74 A 75 B 76 A 77 C 78 C 79 C 80 C
s:
81 B 82 A 83 C 84 B 85 D 86 D 87 D 88 B 89 B 90 D
91 B 92 C 93 D 94 D 95 B 96 B 97 D 98 B 99 A 100 B
101 C 102 B 103 B 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 C 108 A 109 C 110 A
tp
111 B 112 A 113 C 114 A 115 A 116 A 117 D 118 B 119 D 120 A
121 C 122 B 123 A 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 C 128 B 129 C 130 B
131 D 132 D 133 B 134 C 135 C 136 A 137 B 138 D 139 C 140 A
141 B 142 C 143 D 144 D 145 D 146 D 147 B 148 C 149 D 150 D
ht
151 C 152 B 153 A 154 C 155 A 156 D 157 D 158 C 159 A 160 D
161 A 162 B 163 B 164 B 165 D 166 C 167 D 168 C 169 C 170 B
171 C 172 C 173 A 174 D 175 D 176 B 177 B 178 D 179 A 180 C
181 B 182 D 183 D 184 D 185 C 186 B 187 C 188 B 189 C 190 B
191 A 192 A 193 B 194 D 195 C 196 B 197 A 198 A 199 C 200 C
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
GOAL - 3
//t
150
s:
60
tp
60
ht
80
IAS
43
5
c8
TIME: 2 HRS GOAL - 3 12 TOTAL MARKS: 150
ps
Sher Shah built his own mausoleum in_________ ?
A) Purana Qila B) Sasaram C) Bulandarwasa D) Delhi
A B
Tn
C
To whom did Shivaji's father Shaji Bhonsle work?
A) Akbar B) Jahangir C) Shahjahan
D
D) Aurangzeb
e/
A B C D
Choose the correct statements.
.m
s:
A B C D
Choose the correct statements.
tp
5
A
c8
B
C
D
Choose the correct statements
ps
Statement 1:Nalanda University was established by Kumaragupta I
Statement 2:He is called as Chakraditya.His son was Skandagupta is the last ruler of the Gupta
dynasty
A) 1,2 is true
B) B)1 is true,2 is false
C)1 is false,2 is true
D)1,2 is false
Tn
e/
.m
A B
C D
Match the following :
Council of Minsiters Designation
//t
a b c
A) 3 1 2
tp
B)1 2 3
C)3 2 1
D)2 3 1
ht
a b c
a. A
b. B
c. C
D
5
c8
A B C D
Statement 1:Charles Mason from British arrived first in Harappa in the year 1831
Statement 2:The site of Harappa was destroyed for laying the railway line from Lahore to Multan
A) 1,2 is true B)1,2 is false C)1 is true,2 is false D) 1 is false,2 is true
ps
A B
C
Choose the incorrect one
A)
B)
Tn
D
A
B
C
D
//t
A
B
C
ht
D
Choose the incorrect statement
A) Hieun Tsang’s Si-yu-ki is an example to know the Gupta period
B) Ratnavali,Naganandha and Priyadarshini were a work of Har
C) Devichandra Gupta and Mudraraksham were the works of Vishakadatta
D) Har saridha and Har specials were the works of Paanar
5
C) Assertion is true,reason is false
D) Assertion is false,reason is true
c8
A
ps
B
C
D
Statement 1:The Structural temple was first built by Guptas
C D
Choose the correct statement
1. The excavation of Indus valley was made by Archaeologist Sir John Marshall
2. According to Marshall,Indus civilization was a civilization before the Vedic age.The period
//t
tp
5
A B
C D
c8
Choose the correct statement about Cholas
Statement 1:During the Chola reign,the naval achievments of the Tamil reached its peak
Statement 2:The Cholas controlled both the Coromandel and Malabar coast
A) 1,2 is true B)1 only true C)2 only true D)1,2 is false
ps
A B Tn C
Karandai copper plates was related to the chola king
A) Rajendiran I B)Rajaraja I C)Kulothungan
D
D)Vijayalayan
e/
A B
C D
.m
In which of the following places bring it under the control of Cholas and called as Mummudi-
Cholamandalam?
A) Andhra B)Karnataka C)Uttar Pradesh D) Sri Lanka
//t
A B C D
Assertion :After Rajendra I accession ,he made a strong military expedition to North India
s:
Reason:He led the expedition up to the Kaveri river.After crossing the Kaveri river he handed over
his general to lead it
A) Assertion is false,reason is true
tp
A B
C D
5
Match the following :
a) Cantonment - 1.Nilaipadai
c8
b) Military Outpost - 2.Padaimudali
c) Captain - 3.Padaividu
d) Commander-in-chief - 4.Dandanayagam
ps
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 1 4 3
D)
a
3 1 2
b
4
Tn A
B
a
b
c
d
e/
c C
d D
Choose the correct statement about Socio-economics
.m
1. Long distance trade existed and the connections with the Roman empire and the Southeast
Asia are in evidence at many archaeological sites.
2. Roman gold and silver coins have been found in many hoards in the Coimbatore region and in
many other places in south India
//t
tp
A B C D
Rajasuya yaga done by
A) Adhiyaman B) Perunarkalli
C)Muthukudumbi Peruvazhithi D)Pandiyan Nedunchezhiyan
A B
C D
5
c8
A B C D
Name the King in which a group of inscriptions found at Pulangurichi in the middle of fifth century
A) Chendan B)Kurran C) Perunarkalli D) Both A and B
ps
A B C DAB
Arrange the chronological order of the Chola administration
A)
B)
C)
D)
Nadus,Kurrams,Gramam,Mandalams
Kurrams,Mandalam,Gramam,Nadus
Mandalam,Nadus,Kurrams,Gramam
Gramam,Nadus,Kurrams,Mandalam
Tn
e/
A
B
.m
C
D
During the whose reign the matrimonial alliance between the cholas and the eastern chalukyas were
began?
//t
A B
C D
Who established the rule of Pandyas in Present day of tamilnadu by defeating Rajendra Chola III in
tp
1279?
A) Kulothungan I B)Maravaraman I C)Arikesari D)Kulasekara Pandiyan
ht
A B
C D
Statement 1:In the temple of rameswaram,the predominace of corridors is striking
Statement 2:It is claimed that this temple has the longest set of corridors in the world
A) 1 only true B)2only true C)1,2 is false D)1,2 is true
5
Choose the correct statement about Dharasuram
1. Later Chola period temple were more seen in Dharasuram near Kumbakonam
c8
2. A rich in architectural splendor ,dedicated to Iravatheswara(Siva as a god of Lord Indira’s
elephant)
3. Rajaraja I constructed this temple
A) 1,2 is true B)3,2 is true C)1 only true D) All are true
ps
A) B)
Tn
C)D)
Statement 1:The Pallava period witnessed a transition from rock cut to free standing temples
Statement 2:Rock cut temples were built initially by carving a rock to the required design and
e/
then rocks were cut to build temples
A) Statement 2 only true B)Statement 1 only true
C)None of the above D)Statement 1,2 true
.m
//t
A) B) C) D)
Statement 1:The Tamil Dravida tradition is exemplified by rock-cut monuments such as
s:
Statement 2:The outer wall of the rathas decorated with niches and motifs.
Which of the following statement is/are true?
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
ht
A) B) C) D)
5
C) D)
Choose the correct statement about Vijayanagara Epoch
c8
1. Vijayanagar kings built Mandapams in temples.
2. It is the mandapam(pavilion) to where the gods are carried every year.
3. Pillared outdoor mandapams are meant for public rituals
ps
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)All are true
A) B) C)
Tn
D)
Who said “Literature is the mirror of time that reflects human life.So the dimensions of time can be
e/
found in the literature of the respective period”?
A) E.P.taylor B)G.A.Deraveliyan C)Walter D)C.C.North
.m
A) B)
C) D)
Who use the word “Panpaadu” in tamil world instead of the word Culture used in the 1937?
//t
A) T.K.Chidambaranar B)S.Vaiyapuri
C)Thevaneya Pavanar D)K.M.Munshi
Culture
s:
A) B)
C) D)
tp
2. There is a detailed description of how memebers were elected to the committees of the Village
Sabha in the inscriptions found there.
A) 1 only true B)2 only true C)1,2 is true D)1,2 is false
A B C D
5
C D
Who converted Arikesari from Jainism to Saivism?
A) Ilangoadigal B)Thirugnanansambhandar
c8
C)Thirunavukarasar D)Kalidasa
A B C D
Arrange the chronological order of the Chola administration
ps
A) Nadus,Kurrams,Mandalams,Ur B)Mandalam,Nadus,Kurrams,Ur
C)Ur,Nadus,Kurrams,Mandalam D)Kurrams,Mandalam,Nadus,Ur
A) B)
C) Tn
D)
Which of the following two kings combined their rule along with Sundarapandiyan?
A) Vikaramapandiyan B)Veerapandiyan C)Both A and B D)None of the above
e/
A) B) C) A & B D)
The bustling trading activity of during the rule of Karikalan was described in
.m
A) B)
C) D)
tp
Assertion :Offering land grant was an important development of satvahana times.The
beneficiaries of these grants were mostly traders
Reason:The naneghat inscription refers to tax exemption given to the lands granted to
Buddhist monks
ht
5
Who formed the group Chahalgani?
A) Qutbuddin Aibak B) Ghiyasuddin Balban
c8
C) Mohammad bin Tughlaq D) Iltumish
A B
C D
ps
Match. a b c d
a. Hasan Nizami - 1. Mohammad bin Tughlaq A) 3 4 2 1
b. Sahana i Mandi - 2. QutbuddinAibal B) 2 4 3 1
c. Diwani Kairat
d. Token currency
a.
- 3. Alauddin Khilji
Tn
- 4. Feroz Shah Tughlaq
C)
D)
A
2
2
a
3
1
3
b
4
3
4
c
2
4
1
d
1
b. B 1
e/
2 4 3
c. C 2 1 3 4
d. D
.m
Statement 1: Alauddin Khilji handed over the task of collecting the revenue to the military officers
Statement 2: He introduced the compulsory food grain procurement system
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) Both correct D) Both incorrect
//t
A B C D
Choose the correct one.
s:
B
C
D
Choose the correct one:
A) Shivaji ascended the throne performing Vedic rites at Raigarh Fort on June 6, 1647
B) He assumed the title “Chhatrapathi” at Raigarh Fort
C) Rajapaiformed an alternative government with Poone as capital
D) All of the above
5
A B C D
c8
Choose the correct one.
A) Krishnadevarayar wrote the Sanskrit book Amuktamalyadam
B) ChellappaNayakwho worked with Krishnadevarayarbelongs toBalija race.
C) Vijayanagara rulers adopted the emblem of the Chalukyas
ps
D) None of the above
A
B
C
D
Tn
Who established the rule of Tuluvadynasty?
e/
A) TuluvaNarasimhar B) Krishnadevarayar C) Narasa Nayakar D) Devarayar II
A BC D
.m
Who wrote the books “How India wrought for freedom and India:A Nation”?
//t
A) B) C) D)
Madras Dravidian Association was founded in the year
tp
The Place in which the epicenter of Khilafat agitation in Tamilnadu was
A) Madurai B)Erode C)Vaniyambadi D)Thanjavur
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following port was the gateway to West Asia and Europe and also used trading the
valuable resources?
A) Bombay B) Surat C) Cochin D) Calicut
5
A) 1,2 only B) 1,2,3 only C) 1,2,4 only D) All the above
c8
A) B) C) D)
ps
Who became the governor of Pondicherry later had spent four years in Madagascar before arriving
Surat?
A) Francis Martin B) Francis William C) Francis Xavier D) Francis David
A)
C)
B)
D)
Tn
e/
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Weaving was mostly done in rural areas
2. Indian craft communities also possessed specialized knowledge about dyeing cotton
.m
s:
tp
5
D)
Who published as a tracts making the point that the rite of sati?
c8
A) Lord William Bentinck B) Raja Rammohan Roy
C)Vivekanandha D) Bhavani Saran Banerjee
ps
A) B)
C) D)
Statement 1:Moovalur Ramamirdham was yet another woman who fought for the emanicipation of
Tn
the devadasi system along with reformers Dr.MuthulakshmiAmmaiyar
Statement 2:On Memories of RamamirdhamAmmaiyar,Tamilnadu Government announced the
MoovalurRamamirdham memorial marriage assistance scheme
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true
e/
C) 1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
.m
A) B)
C) D)
In which of the following places Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar founded schools for girls?
//t
revenue system?
A) Cornwallis B) Warren Hastings C) Dalhousie D) Thomas Munro
ht
A) B)C) D)
Choose the correct pair (Introducer of Land revenue scheme by British rule)
1. Permanent Land revenue system - Lord Cornwallis
2. Ryotwari System - Thomas Munro
3. Mahalwari system - Lord William Bentinck
A) 1,3 is true B)2,3 is true C) 1,2 is true D)1,2,3 is true
5
3. They ensured a steady income for the English government
A) 1,3 is true B)1,2 is true C) 2,3 is true D) 1,2,3 is true
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
In which year did the European government formed the Auri commission to control the Indigo
revolt?
A) 1859
A) B)
B)1860
C)
Tn C)1861
D)
D)1862
e/
Match the following : a b c d
a) Santhal rebellion - 1855-56 A) 2 1 3 4
b) Indigo revolt - 1859-60 B) 3 2 1 4
.m
b B 3 2 1 4
c C 1 2 3 4
d D 2 1 3 4
s:
Which of the following is /are the outcome of the Vellore Revolt?
1. New methods and uniform ordering methods were removed
2. As a Precautionary measure,Tippu’s family was sent from Vellore to rangoon
tp
A) B) C) D)
Statement 1:The British captured Indian territory and political power by their military force
Statement 2:The British needed strong army camps and established military settlements
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 and 2 are true
C)1 is false,2 is true D) 1 and 2 are false
5
c8
A) B) C)D)
Choose the incorrect statement about JyotibaPhule
1. Phule opposed Child Marriage
ps
2. Phule supported Widow remarriage and opposed higher caste Hindu Marriage
3. Jyotiba dedicated his life to the upliftment of women
4. Jyotiba opened orphnages for children and homes for widows
A) 3 only false B) 3,4 is false C) 2 only false D) 1 only false
Tn
e/
.m
A) 1 is true,2 is false B)1 is false,2 is true C) 1 and 2 are true D)1 and 2 are false
s:
A) B)
C) D)
tp
After which battle,Kongu Nadu completely under the control of British?
1. First Mysore war
2. Second Mysore war
ht
5
D)
Nana Sahib defeated by
c8
A) General Havelock B)General Nicholson
C)Campbell D)Neil
A) B)
ps
C) D)
In which Palayam the company considered the expedition of Kattabomman as a challenge to their
authority?
A) SivagiriPalayam
C)PanchalankurichiPalayam Tn
B)SivagangaiPalayam
D)AnaimalaiPalayam
e/
A) B)
C) D)
Which of the following persons participated the Second Palayakkarar war?
.m
1. Marudu Brothers
2. GopalaNayak
3. Malabar Kerala Varma
4. Krishnappa and Dhoondaji
//t
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following person is not associated with organizing Part of the Vellore revolt?
tp
A) B)
C) D)
Which of the following british removed from their office after Vellore Revolt?
1. Commander in chief Sir John Cradock
2. Adjutant General Agnew
3. Governor William Bentinck
A) 1,2 is true B)1,3 is true C)1,2,3 is true D)2,3 is true
5
A)
B)
c8
C)
D)
Which of the following tribals around the Rajmahal Hills?
ps
A)KolTribals B)Santhaltribals C)Mundatribals D)None of the above
A) B)
C) D)
1824?
A)Indonesia B)Burma
Tn
Which of the following countries were refused to go by sepoys at barrackpore near Calcutta in
C)Myanmar
D)Singapore
e/
A) B) C) D)
Who were the important persons for illustrating the economics status during the colonial period?
.m
1. DadhabhaiNaoroji
2. Justice ranade
3. RemochChandradutt
4. LalaLajpetrai
A)1,2,3 is true B)1,3,4 is true C)2,3,4 is true D)1,2,3,4 is true
//t
s:
A) B) C) D)
tp
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
In which year did Gandhi presided over the All India khilafat conference held at delhi?
A)April ,1918 B)October 1918 C)April 1919 D)November 1919
ps
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following act said for the need of creation of All India federation?
A) Rowlatt Act B)Government of India Act 1935
C)Charter Act 1853
A)
C)
Tn D)Government of India Act 1923
B)
D)
e/
Who were presided over the third Indian National conference held in the year 1887?
A) DadhabhaiNaoroji B)BakrudinTyabji
C)Gopala Krishna Gokhale D)G.Subramanian
.m
A) B)
C) D)G.
//t
Choose the incorrect statement about the Self Respect movement
A) The movement declared rationality and self-respect as the birthright of all human beings and
held these as more important than self-rule
s:
D) The self respect movement championed the cause of non Brahminhindus only
A)
ht
B)
C)
D)
5
4. Thiru.Vi.Kaliyanasundaranar
A)1,2 B)2,3 C)1,4 D)2,4
c8
ps
A) B) C) D)
The person who promoted communism and socialism to counter the colonial power was
A)IyotheeThaasar B)E.V.Ramasamy C)M.Singaravelar D)S.Vaiyapuri
A) B)
Match the following :
Tn
C)M. D)
e/
a) Dravidian Home - 1.MaraimalaiAdigal
b) Thozhilalan - 2.Rettaimalai Srinivasan
c) Tani Tamil Iyakkam - 3.Singaravelar
.m
d) Jeeviyasarithasurukkam - 4.Natesanar
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 1 4 3 2
//t
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2
a b c d
s:
a A 2 1 3 4
b B 1 4 3 2
tp
c C 4 3 2 1
d D 4 3 1 2
Who declared that introduction of Hindi over Tamil would deny the Dravidians of their job
ht
opportunities?
A)Rajaji B)Singaravelar
C)Rettaimalaisrinivasan D)Periyar
A) B)
C) D)
5
A) B)
C) D)
c8
Choose the correct statement
1. British administration,Education and European literature brought new waves of thought to India
2. Print technology played an important role in spreading ideas
ps
A) 1 is true B)2 is true C)Both are true D)Both are false
A) B) C) D)
In which year did Mahatma Gandhi presided the Indian National movement?
s:
Which of the following is the basic reason for the rise of militant nationalist ?
1. Subcommittee’s formed within congress
2. Depression over the political activities of the moderate nationalist
3. Anger over the Curzon against partition of bengal
ht
5
When Annie Besant lived in Ireland,which of the following movement was participated by her?
1. Ireland Home rule movement
c8
2. Fafien Socialist
3. Family Planning movement
A) 1,2,3 B)2,3 C)1,2 D)1,3
ps
A) B) C) D)
B
C
D
What is known as the stronghold of radical nationalists?
//t
5
H.D.
A.O.
c8
A B C D
ps
Which scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds ?
A) Raleigh scattering
C
B) Mie scattering
B
D
Tn
C) Tyndal scattering
A
D) Raman scattering
When the pressure of gas is kept constant, the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the
e/
temperature of the gas is
A) Boyle's law B) Law of Volume C) Avogadro’s law D) Henry's law
.m
A B C D
Examine the following statements ( Travelling microscope)
//t
ht
A B
C D
Statement 1: Ammeter is an instrument used in electric circuits to find the quantity of current
flowing through the circuit.
Statement 2: The device must be connected in series
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect C) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct D) 1 2 incorrect
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1311,481+43
A B
C D
Examine the following statements. (Physical change)
1. No new substance formed
2. There is no change in the chemical composition
3. This is a permanent change
4. It is a irreversible reaction.
5
A) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct B) 1, 2 correct 3, 4 incorrect
C) 1, 3 incorrect 4, 2 correct D) 1, 4, correct 3, 2 incorrect
c8
ps
A B C D
Statement 1: Dilute or concentrated nitric acid does not react with aluminium,
Tn
Statement 2: It renders aluminium passive due to the formation of an oxide film on its surface
A) 1, 2 Correct B) 1 Correct, 2 Correct C) 1, 2 Incorrect D) 1 inCorrect 2 Correct
e/
A B
C D
.m
A B
C D
Examine the following statements
s:
C
A B C D
If the difference in electronegativity between two elements is 1.7, then the bond is
A) Bond will be covalent B) Bond will be ionic
C) Bond will be coordinate covalent D) 50% ionic and 50% covalent
5
C) Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system
D) The amount of carbon dioxide present is high, the surface of Venus retains more heat
c8
A
B
C
ps
D
Statement 1: Enzymes and yeasts are called biocatalysts
B
C
D
tp
Who is not among the crew of Apollo-11 spacecraft that landed on the moon
A) Rakesh Sharma B) Neil Armstrong C) Michael Collins D) Buzz Aldrin
ht
A B
C D
Earth’s magnet is _________times more powerful than a fridge magnet.
A) 10 times B) 5 times C) 15 times D) 20 times
A B C D
5
A
B
c8
C
D
1 atm is equivalent to
A) 1.013x 10 4 Pascal C) 1.013X102 Pascal
ps
B) 1.013 Bar D) All correct
atm
A B
C D
B) Heat, Sound
A B C
Tn
Power loss in a transformer can occur in _______form
A) Sound, Light C) Heat, Light D) Heat, Energy
D
e/
The line connecting the planet and the Sun covers equal areas in equal intervals of time is
A) Law of ellipses B) Law of equal areas C) Law of Harmonics D) Law of gravity
.m
A B
C D
Find the incorrect option (Electron affinity)
//t
1) Alcohol - R-CHO
2) Aldehyde - R-OH
3) Ketone - R-O-R
ht
4) Ether - R-CO-R
A) 2 1 3 4 B) 2 143 C) 1 2 3 4 D) 4 3 2 1
1 R-CHO
2 R-OH
3 R-O-R
4 R-CO-R
A B C D
5
c8
A B
C D
ps
Choose the correct option :
1. The weight is inversely proportional to the mass on earth’s surface
2. Moon’s gravitational force is lesser than earth
B) 1,3, correct
Tn
3. The mass remains the same on both the earth and the moon
4. The weight of an object on the moon is one-sixth of the weight of the earth.
A) 1, 2 correct C) 2,3,4 correct D) All correct
e/
.m
A B C D
tp
5
C
D
c8
Match. Medium & velocity of light (m/s) a b c d
a. Water - 1. 2 x A) 3 1 4 2
b. Glass - 2. 3 x B) 4 3 2 1
c. Diamond - 3. 2.25 x C) 1 2 4 3
ps
d. Air - 4. 1.25 x D) 2 1 4 3
a b c d
a. x A
b.
c.
d.
x
x
x
Tn
C
D
s:
(G)
A Nm2 Kg-2 B
2 -2
C D Nm Kg
ht
5
c8
ps
A B
C D
First antibiotic for humans discovered from the fungus ___________
A) Meningococcus
C) Diphtheria bacillus Tn
A B
B) Streptococcus
D) Penicillium notatum
e/
C D
Examine the following statements:
Assertion A : A balloon filled with hot air floats in the air.
.m
Reason R : Air density in balloon is higher than the density of outside air
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
//t
D) A incorrect, R correct
s:
A
tp
B
C
D
ht
Which is used in the construction of buildings, machinery, transmission cables and T.V towers and
in making alloys ?
A) Cast iron B) Steel C) Wrought iron D) None
T.V.
A B C D
5
c) Human saliva - 3. 6-8 C) 5 4 3 2 1
d) Pure water - 4. 7 D) 3 5 4 1 2
c8
e) Coffee - 5. 5.6
PH a b c d e
a A
ps
b B
c C
d D
e
The unit of ionic product of water is
A) Mol 3 dm-6
A
B) Mol 2 dm-6
B C
Tn
C) Mol 2 dm 6 D) Mol 3 dm 6
D
e/
Assertion A : If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate
Reason R: This is because, increasing the pressure, the reacting particles come closer and
collide frequently.
.m
s:
A
B C
D
tp
5
c8
A B C D
Find the correct option : Common name & molecular formula
ps
1) Epsom salt - MgSo4.7H2O 2) Gypsum - CaSo4.2H2O
3) Green vitriol - FeSo4.7H2O 4) White vitriol - ZnSo4.7H2O
A) 1 correct 2, 3, 4 incorrect B) 2, 4 correct 1, 3 incorrect
C) 1, 3, 4 correct 2 incorrect
Tn
D) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct
MgSo4.7H2O
e/
CaSo4.2H2O
FeSo4.7H2O
ZnSo4.7H2O
.m
ht
A B
C D
Assertion A : When a drop of water is applied to the castor oil, the water drop sinks
Reason R : The water is less dense than the castor oil.
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect D) A incorrect, R correct
5
A B C D
Statement 1: Vitamins B and C are water soluble vitamins.
c8
Statement 2: Vitamins A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins
A) 1 2 Correct B) 1 2 Incorrect
C) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct D) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect
BC
ps
A,D,EK
A B
C D
A) 1 2 correct
C) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
Tn
Statement 1: The smallest of the bones found in our body is the stapes in our ear.
Statement 2: The longest bone in our body is the femur.
B) 1 2 Incorrect
D) 1 Correct 2 Incorrect
e/
.m
A B
C D
Which is not among the jute growing states?
1. West Bengal 2. Assam 3. Odisha
//t
A B C D
tp
Match. a b c d
a. Storage Roots - 1. Cuscuta A) 1 2 3 4
b. Support roots - 2. Avicenna B) 4 3 2 1
ht
5
Examine the following statements
1. Pest control - Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt cotton)
c8
2. Control of Plant Pathogens - Trichoderma (Fungus)
3. Attack insects and other arthropods - Baculo viruses
A) 1, 2 correct 3 incorrect B) 2,3 correct 1 incorrect
ps
C) All incorrect D) All correct
Bt
A
C
Match.
D
Tn
B
a b c d
a. Kharif crops - 1. Soya beans A) 1 2 3 4
e/
b. Zaid Crops - 2. Jute B) 4 3 2 1
c. Rabi Crops - 3. Watermelon C) 1 3 4 2
d. Fiber Crops - 4. Flax Seed D) 3 1 2 4
.m
a b c d
a. A)
b. B)
c. C)
//t
A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 2,1 D) None
ht
A B C D
Which is called as floating nitrogen factory
A) Rhizobium B) Azospirillum C) Azolla D) Azotobacter
A BC D
5
c8
A B C D
Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) was established in 1947 in the state of
A) Tamil Nadu B) Kerala C) Andhra D) Telangana
ps
A B C D
Match : Vitamin & Deficiency Disease a b c d
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B3
c) Vitamin B6
d) Vitamin C
- 1. Scurvy
- 2. Beri beri
- 3. Pellagra
- 4. Dermatitis
Tn A)
B)
C)
D)
1
2
4
3
2
3
3
1
3
4
2
4
4
1
1
2
a b c d
e/
A) 1 2 3 4
aB1 B) 2 3 4 1
bB3 C) 4 3 2 1
.m
cB6 D) 3 1 4 2
d C
What causes the spindle fibers to multiply during cell division?
A) Centrosome B) Centrioles C) Ribosome D) Mitochondria
//t
A B C D
Who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1993 for determining the role of chromosomes in heredity
s:
Statement 2: Genes are responsible for the physical outlook and biological functions
A) 1 2 correct B) 1 2 incorrect C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
A B
C D
5
D) Cytokinins prevent the formation of abscission layer.
c8
A
B
C
ps
D
Assertion A : Mankombu Sambasivan Swaminathan is known as the father of the Indian Green
Revolution.
A
//t
B
C
D
s:
IDDM
IDDM
A B
C D
5
d
c8
a b c d
A) 1 4 2 3
B) 1 4 3 2
ps
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 3 2 1
AB blood type was recognized by
A) Weiner B) Decasello & Steini
C) Warmolt Went
AB
A
C
TnD) Carol Landsteiner
B
D
e/
Which is called as master gland
A) Adrenal gland B) Thyroid gland C) Pituitary gland D) Hypo thalamus
.m
A B C D
Which is known as life-saving hormone ?
s:
B
C
D
ht
5
A) 1 2 incorrect B) 1 2 correct C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
c8
ps
A B
C D
Find the incorrect option :
A) Androecium is the female reproductive part of the flower
B) It is composed of stamens
Tn
C) Each stamen consists of a stalk called the filament and a small bag like structure called
anther.
D) The pollen sheet is found inside the pollen sac.
e/
A
B
.m
C
D
How many levels are there in classification of living things ?
A) 9 B) 8 C) 7 D) 5
//t
A B C D
Father of modern taxonomy is
s:
C D
Find the correct option about diseases & pathogens in chickens
1) Salmonellosis - Disease caused by bacteria
ht
5
A B C D
Which produces adenosine tri phosphate in cells ?
c8
A) Cytoplasm B) Ribosome C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles
A B CD
How many ATP molecules each glucose molecule produces during aerobic respiration
ps
A) 35 B) 36 C) 37 D) 38
ATP
A B C
Tn
D
Find the correct option from the following statement :
1. These are eukaryotic
2. Absence of chlorophyll
e/
3. They grow in light independent conditions
4. The study is called Mycology
A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Algae D) Protozoa
.m
//t
A B C D
Choose the correct option about Solanum trilobatum
s:
B
C
D
Which is the centre part of the Iris and acts as pathway for the light to retina ?
A) Conjunctiva B) Sclera C) Cornea D) Pupil
A B C D
5
c8
ps
Tn
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 A 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 B 20 A
21 A 22 D 23 B 24 B 25 D 26 C 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D
31 C 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 C 36 A 37 D 38 C 39 A 40 B
41 D 42 B 43 A 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 C 50 A
51 B 52 A 53 D 54 D 55 C 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 C 60 C
61 B 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B 66 A 67 D 68 A 69 D 70 B
5
71 C 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 D 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 C 82 A 83 C 84 C 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 D 89 C 90 B
91 B 92 B 93 A 94 A 95 B 96 D 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 D
c8
101 D 102 A 103 C 104 D 105 D 106 B 107 A 108 C 109 A 110 A
111 B 112 D 113 C 114 A 115 C 116 D 117 D 118 D 119 D 120 D
121 B 122 B 123 D 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 C 128 C 129 D 130 A
131 B 132 C 133 A 134 D 135 A 136 B 137 B 138 B 139 D 140 B
ps
141 C 142 C 143 C 144 B 145 A 146 A 147 C 148 A 149 D 150 B
151 C 152 D 153 A 154 B 155 C 156 A 157 B 158 A 159 C 160 D
161 D 162 B 163 C 164 A 165 A 166 A 167 D 168 B 169 D 170 D
171
181
191
C
D
A
172
182
192
D
A
C
173
183
193
C
A
B
174
184
194
A
A
D
175
185
195
Tn
B
B
C
176
186
196
B
C
C
177
187
197
B
D
B
178
188
198
A
C
B
179
189
199
A
D
B
180
190
200
B
B
D
e/
GR–II MUTHAMIL TEST BATCH – NADAKAM – 12 ANS KEY 03.12.2021
.m
1 B 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 B 6 A 7 A 8 C 9 A 10 D
11 B 12 A 13 A 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 D 18 B 19 B 20 A
21 A 22 D 23 B 24 B 25 D 26 C 27 B 28 B 29 D 30 D
//t
31 C 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 C 36 A 37 D 38 C 39 A 40 B
41 D 42 B 43 A 44 C 45 A 46 B 47 B 48 C 49 C 50 A
51 B 52 A 53 D 54 D 55 C 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 C 60 C
61 B 62 C 63 C 64 B 65 B 66 A 67 D 68 A 69 D 70 B
s:
71 C 72 A 73 B 74 C 75 D 76 B 77 C 78 B 79 B 80 C
81 C 82 A 83 C 84 C 85 A 86 A 87 C 88 D 89 C 90 B
91 B 92 B 93 A 94 A 95 B 96 D 97 D 98 B 99 B 100 D
tp
101 D 102 A 103 C 104 D 105 D 106 B 107 A 108 C 109 A 110 A
111 B 112 D 113 C 114 A 115 C 116 D 117 D 118 D 119 D 120 D
121 B 122 B 123 D 124 A 125 B 126 A 127 C 128 C 129 D 130 A
ht
131 B 132 C 133 A 134 D 135 A 136 B 137 B 138 B 139 D 140 B
141 C 142 C 143 C 144 B 145 A 146 A 147 C 148 A 149 D 150 B
151 C 152 D 153 A 154 B 155 C 156 A 157 B 158 A 159 C 160 D
161 D 162 B 163 C 164 A 165 A 166 A 167 D 168 B 169 D 170 D
171 C 172 D 173 C 174 A 175 B 176 B 177 B 178 A 179 A 180 B
181 D 182 A 183 A 184 A 185 B 186 C 187 D 188 C 189 D 190 B
191 A 192 C 193 B 194 D 195 C 196 C 197 B 198 B 199 B 200 D
5
TENKASI AKASH FRIENDS (TAF)
c8
ps
TAF TEST BATCH
TNPSC GROUP – II
Tn
ONLINE/OFFLINE TEST BATCH
e/
.m
//t
s:
tp
ht
IAS
45
5
c8
TIME: 3 HRS GOAL - 4 TOTAL MARKS: 200
ps
A) Coimbatore B) Chennai C) Tiruchengode D) Rajapalayam
A B C D
Who established Samathuva samajam?
A) Ramalinga Swamigal
C) Periyar
A
Tn B) Vaikunda Swamigal
D) C. Nadesanar
B
e/
C D
In which year did MC Raja form the All India Depressed Classes Association?
A) 1926 B) 1927 C) 1928 D) 1929
.m
A B C D
Which of the following statements about Vaikunda Swamigal is correct?
A) He asked the people, to abandon unnecessary rituals and ceremonies during worship
//t
A
tp
B
C
D
ht
Viswanatha Nayak discussed with his Minister ________and created palayakarar system.
A) Ariyanathar B) Thandavarayar
C) Thandavamoorthy D) Arunachaleswar
A B C D
When was the Tamil Nadu Panchayat Act passed?
A) 1958 B) 1955 C) 1963 D) 1956
5
C) 1 correct 2, 3 incorrect D) 1, 2, 3 incorrect
c8
ps
A B C D
Choose the correct option.
1. Annamalai University was established during the rule of Dravidar Party.
A) 1 only correct
B) 2 only correct Tn
2. Periyar went to jail twenty-three times in fifteen years and was known as the "Siraiparavai"
C) 1, 2 correct
D) 1, 2incorrect
e/
A B C D
.m
The use of pure Tamil words and also encouraged removal the influence of Sanskrit from the
Tamil language
A) Partithimar Kalaignar B) Maraimalai adigal
C) U.V. Saminathar D) C.W. Damodaranar
//t
A B
C D
s:
3. One of the earliest Tamil scholars who recognized Sanskrit's influence on Tamil
A) Maraimalai adigal B) Arumuga navelar
C) P Sundaranar D) Parithimar kalaignar
ht
A B
C D
5
from the North.
A) (iii) and (iv) are correct B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c8
C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct D) (ii) and (iii) are correct
ps
A B C D
B) Thomas Munro
Tn
Who was assigned as the English officer to examine the Ryotwari system ?
A B C D
Which year was the case filed seeking separate reservation for scheduled tribes ?
//t
A
B
C
D
Which book says that the northern end of Tamil Nadu is Venkata hill and the southern end is
Kumarimunai?
A) Thirukkural, Purananuru B) Silappathikaram, Manimegalai
C) Purananuru, Silappathikaram D) Naladiyar, Thirukkural
5
c8
A B C D
ps
The location of Special Economic Zones for export of auto engineering, electronics, Aero space
and defence products in Tamil Nadu
A) Ennore (SEZ) B) Nanguneri (SEZ) C) Coimbatore (SEZ) D) Hosur (SEZ)
Tn
A(SEZ) B(SEZ)C(SEZ)D(SEZ)
In the 1937 elections, the Congress party won ______seats in the Legislative Assembly and _____
in Legislative Council.
e/
A) 215, 46 B) 215, 26 C) 152, 26 D) 155, 46
A B C D
.m
A B
C D
Statement 1: The first Chief minister of congress party in Tamilnadu is Rajaji
s:
A B
C D
Women's Helpline allotted by Government of India for 24 hours to help women affected by
violence
A) 180 B) 181 C) 182 D) 183
A) B) C) D)
5
A) E.V.R. Maniammaiyar B) Mother Teresa
C) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy D) MuvalurRamamirthamAmmaiyar
c8
A) B)
C) D)
ps
A)
B)
C)
D)
Tn
e/
A
.m
B
C
//t
D
s:
A B C D
tp
ht
A B C D
A B C D
A B C D
5
C D
c8
A B C D
Statement 1: Takshashila , which was an ancient Indian city, is located in Northwest Pakistan at
present.
ps
Statement 2: Takshashila was declared a World Heritage Site was 1980.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
A
C Tn
B
D
What is the main purpose of Wardha education scheme?
A) Primary education B) English Education
e/
C) Vernacular Education D) Ahimsa education
A B
.m
C D
Choose the correct answer.
1.Tamilnadu Education Development Day - July 15
2.Free Education Program - Kamarajar
//t
tp
A)
B)
C)
D)
“
”
A B C D
5
A B C D
c8
A B C D
A B
ps
C D
A B C D
A) 2013 B) 2014 Tn
TRANSTAN (Transplant Authority of Tamilnadu) created in the year?
C) 2015 D) 2016
TRANSTAN (Transplant Authority of Tamilnadu)
A B C D
e/
Match a b c d
a) Tamil Nadu State Health Transport Department - 1. 2019 A) 2 3 4 1
b) Tamil Nadu Medical Services Corporation - 2. 1981 B) 2 4 1 3
.m
A) 1, 2 B) 3 C) 1, 4, 2 D) 1, 2, 3
A B C D
5
D)
A
c8
B
ps
C
D
Tn
Statement 1: Beautiful natural resources, dense forests, rare animals, cold mountains, Dravidian
Hindu temples and sculptural galleries are the sole possessions of Tamil Nadu.
Statement 2: It ranks 6th in population density, 3rd in growth and 6th in human resource
Development.
e/
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 1, 2 correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
.m
A B C D
//t
The height of the Mullai periyar dam constructed in 1895 is ________
A) 175 feet B) 190 feet C) 185 feet D) 195 feet
s:
(ii) Fewer than 2700 flowering plant species are found here.
(iii) State Animal Nilgiri tahr is found in the Nilgiris.
A) (i), (ii), (iii) Right B) (i), (ii)Right C) (i), (iii) Right D) None of these
ht
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
A)(i),(ii), (iii) B) (i),(ii)
C)(i), (iii) D)
5
dissolve the legislature
3. Governor appoints Advocate General, Chairman &members of the State Public Service
c8
Commission.
A) Only 1 correct B) 2, 3 correct C) 1, 2 correct D) All correct
ps
A B
Who designed the Indian National Flag?
A) Pingali Venkaiah B) Kanishkar
Tn
C D
resources.
A) 1 only true B) 2 only true C) Both are true D) Both are false
tp
ht
A B C D
Tax levied by organization and industrial organization is____________
A) Individual income tax B) Commercial tax C) Customs tax D) objective tax
A B
C D
5
3. Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers
A) Only 1 correct B) 2 correct C) 1, 3 correct D) 1, 2correct
c8
ps
A B C D
In the 1952 parliamentary elections, the Indian National Congress won _____seats and formed the
government.
A) 489 B) 364
Tn C) 389
D) 454
e/
A B C D
Provincial autonomy was introduced by the act
A) Panchayat Raj Act B) Government of India Act 1935
.m
A B
C D
tp
Who was the first Prime Minister of independent India to be elected by the people?
A) Indira Gandhi B) Jawaharlal Nehru C) Rajendra Prasad D) Rajaji
ht
A B
C D
General elections were held by the British India in the year _______ to elect members to the
Imperial Legislative Council and the Provincial Councils.
A) 1918 B) 1919 C) 1920 D) 1921
A B C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1312,281+45
How much annual rainfall is received by Tropical deciduous forest?
A) 50 cm – 100 cm B)100 cm-200 cm C) 200 cm-300 cm D)300 cm-400 cm
A B
C D
Assertion: Weather is the day to day conditions of the atmosphere at any place regards sunshine,
temperature, cloud cover, wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and
such other elements.
Reason : Weather refers to short periods like a day, a week, a month or a little longer.
5
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true B) Assertion is false, but reason is true
C) Assertion is true but reason is false D) Both Assertion and Reason are false
c8
ps
A B
C D
The word “Klimo” means
A) Acute angle B) Equilateral triangle
C) Inclination
A
Tn D) Triangle
B
C D
e/
Where was the first printing press of the Reserve Bank of India started?
A) Dewas B) Mysore C) Nasik D) Salboni
.m
A B
s:
C D
The first article of the Indian Constitution speaks about ________
A) Territory of India B) Indian politics C) Rules of India D) People of India
tp
A B
C D
ht
5
1.The National Harbour board was set up in 1950.
2.Air India and Indian Airlines were merged on August 27,2007
c8
3.Indian railways provide Wi-Fi facility first in India is Chennai railway station
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 3 only D) None of the above
ps
Wifi
A B C D
Wildlife (Protection) Act enacted in the year?
A) 1932
B) 1970
B
Rio + 20 Earth Summit held on?
C
Tn
A
C) 1972 D) 1975
D
e/
A) 2011 B) 2014 C) 2012 D) 2016
A B C D
In which district Karaivetti birds sanctuary is located?
.m
A) Chola B) Pari
C) Kalinga King Karavela D) KarikalaChola
s:
A B
C D
Find the incorrect statement about the Panchayat Raj system?
tp
5
C D
Match the following: a b c d
c8
a) First aerial images of earth - 1. 2017 A) 1 2 3 4
b) First aerial photograph of space - 2. 1981 B) 4 3 2 1
c) First domestic communication satellite - 3. 1858 C) 1 2 4 3
d)Kalamsat - 4. 1859 D) 4 3 1 2
ps
a b c d
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. Tn D
Find the correct statements about Functions of the Prime Minister's Office
1. It helps the prime minister in his responsibilities as chairman of the Niti Aayog and the National
Development Council
e/
2. Maintaining public relations of the Prime Minister with the media and the public.
3. To take necessary steps as per rules for the office of the Deputy Prime Minister
4. Provides assistance to the Prime Minister in the examination of cases submitted to him for orders
.m
s:
A
B
C
D
5
c8
A B C D
ps
Match the following: a b c d e
a) Arakkonam - 1. Metropolitan city A) 4 5 1 2 3
b) Kumbakonam - 2. Conurbation B) 5 4 3 2 1
c) Madurai
d) Chennai
e) Delhi
- 3. Megacity
- 4. Town
- 5. City
Tn C)
D)
a
4
4
b
5
5
c
1
2
d
3
3
e
2
1
e/
a Metropolitan city A
b Conurbation B
c Megacity C
.m
C D
The planets in the solar system revolve in their respective orbits because of the
A)Gravitational force B)Gravitational pull of the sun
tp
C D
Assertion : International trade refers to the trade or exchange of goods and services between two or
more countries
Reason : It is a trade among different countries or trade across political boundaries
A)Both assertion and reason are true reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B)Assertion is true reason is false
C)Both assertion and reason are true reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
D)Both assertion and reason are false
5
C)Banker‟s Bank D)Giving Lend to the peoples
c8
A B
C D
Credit Formation is one of the functions of
A) Reserve bank of India B) Commercial bank
ps
C) Indian service administration D) Indian government
A B
C D
Tn
Pick out the incorrect statements regarding the functions of commercial banks
1.Commercial banks are institutions that conduct business with profit motive by accepting public
deposits
2.Commercial banks helps in providing foreign exchange to businessman dealing in exports and
e/
imports
3.Commercial bank pays lower interest on time deposits
4.Commercial bank refers to granting loans to individuals and businesses
.m
s:
A BC D
“Though the country and the people may be divided into different states for convenience of
tp
administration ,the country is one integral whole, its people a single people living under a single
imperium derived from a single source.” said by
A) Nehru B) Gandhi C) Ambedkar D) M.N. Roy
ht
A B C D M.N.
Statement 1: “Indian federalism is a system of Government which is quasi-federal. a Unitary State
with subsidiary federal features” by Prof. Wheare.
Statement 2: Prof Alexandrowicz described that meaning Indian federalism is unique one.
Choose the correct statement :
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1 only correct C) 2 only correct D) 1, 2 incorrect
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1312,281+45
A BCD
Which GOI act does the Constitution provides power between the Central and State Governments?
A) Government of India Act - 1919 B) Government of India Act - 1935
C) Government of India Act - 1947 D) Government of India Act - 1853
5
A B
c8
C D
Find the correct statement about the Indian Police Service.
1. Indian Police Service is under the control of the Government of India.
ps
2. Service given in the State levels
3. It was supervised by the Ministry of Home Affairs
A) 1 only correct B) 2 only correct C) 3 only correct D) 1, 2, 3 correct
A B
Tn
C D
International Monetary Fund was an outcome of
e/
A) Pandung Conference B) Singapore Conference
C) Bretton Woods Conference D) Dohvara Conference
.m
A B
C D
NITI means
A) National Institution for transforming India
//t
NITI
ANational Institutions for Transforming India
BNational Indian Tele Communications Institute
tp
Assertion:The researchers concluded that Harappa was older than Mohenjo-Daro
Reason :They are found some slight differences in the earthenware‟s of Harappa and
Mohenjodaro
A)Assertion is true,reason is false B)Both assertion and reason are true
C)Assertion is false,reason is true D)Both assertion and reason are false
A) :
R) :
A) A R B) A R C) A R D) A , R
5
1.Meluha is the Precursor to Indus Civilisation
2.Bolan Basin is situated at Balochistan
c8
3.Balochsitan is one of the provinces of Afghanistan
4.Rakhigarhi is situated at Gujarat
Which of the following statement is true?
A)1 only true B) 3 only true C)2 only true D)4 only ture
ps
A) B) C)
Tn D)
Where has been discovered a granary belonging to mature Harappan phase?
A)Kalibangan B)Lothal C)Dholavira D)Haryana
e/
A) B) C) D)
Which of the following statement is correct about maritime trade that took place during the English
.m
period?
Statement 1:The ports of Kallikottai on the west coast or surat in Gujarat are known as
intermediate ports
Statement 2:Kallikottai was devalued in 16thCentury.Instead the coastal ports of Gujarat gained
//t
prominence
A)1 only true B)2 only true C)Both are true D)Both are false
s:
tp
ht
A) B)
C) D)
Who was the first Portuguese governor sent from India to Portuguese?
A)Alfonso-de-albuquerque B)Fransisco-de-almeida
C)Nino-de-kunha D)Bartholomeudiaz
A) B)
C) D)
5
c8
A) B) C) D)
Assertion A : A balloon filled with hot air floats in the air.
Reason R : The density of air in the balloon is less than the density of air outside
ps
A) A & R correct. R is the correct explanation of A
B) A & R correct. R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A correct, R incorrect
D) A incorrect, R correct
A)
Tn
e/
B)
C)
D)
.m
A B
C D
tp
The resultant obtained from the equation is Fe + 3O2 + 2H2O ????
A) Carbon-dioxide B) Rust
ht
5
A) Prayog Prashasti - Harisenar B) Buddhist monk- Fahein
C) Vikramaditya- Chandragupta I D) Meghavarman- Sri Lanka
c8
A
B
C
ps
D
Which of the following peasants lands were returned to them when congress came to power in
1937?
A)Bardoli
A
B)Champaran
B
Tn
C
C)Bapna
D
D)Moplah
e/
Match the following :
a) Permanent settlement act - 1.Bengal
b) Mahalwari system - 2.Northwest Province
.m
B) 3 1 2 4
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 1 3 2 4
a b c d
s:
d D) 1 3 2 4
The newspaper which brought to light the misery of cultivators is
ht
5
A) Prolactin B)Oxytocin C)estrogen D)Progestrone
c8
A B C D
Pick out the wrong one
1.Upper limb is made up of - Humerus
ps
2.Fore arm is made up of - Ulna
3.Wrist - Carpals
4.Palm - Metacarpel
A)1,3 B)2,4 C)2,1 D)None of the above
Tn
e/
A B C D
Who got the assurance that Mongols would not advance beyond Sutlej river?
.m
C D
Who was the forerunner of the extremist of the nation?
A)Vivekanandha B)Dayanand Saraswathi
C)Raja Rammohan Roy D)Ayyan Kali
A B
C D
TELEGRAM –TAF IAS ACADEMY YOUTUBE - TAF IAS ACADEMY
1312,281+45
Number of electrons in 1 Coulomb of charge is
A) 6.25 x 10 21Electrons B) 6.25 X 10 18Electrons
C) 5.25 X 10 18 Electrons D) 6.26 X 10 18Electrons
C _______
A) B)
C) D)
Which instrument used to measure the value of the current flowing in an circuit
A) Voltmeter B) Coulomb meter C) Ammeter D) Galvanometer
_________
5
A) B)
c8
C) D)
Which is used to convert direct current to alternating current ?
A)Inverter B) Rectifier C) Eliminator D) Adaptor
________
ps
A) B) C) D)
Match the following : a b c d
a) Bijapur - 1.Imad Shahs A) 1 2 3 4
b) Berar - 2.Adil Shahs B) 2 3 4 1
c) Bidar
d) Ahmednagar -
a
-
3.Nizam Shahs
4.Barid Shahs
Tn
A 1
C)
D)
a b
2
4
2
1
3
c
3
4
2
d
4
3
1
e/
b B 2 3 4 1
c C 2 1 4 3
d D 4 3 2 1
.m
Assertion:ShahJahan with the help of Mahabat Khan subdued the NizamShahi rulers of Ahmed
Nagar in 1636.With the Shi‟te QutubShahi ruler of Golkonda imprisoned his own
minister,Aurangazeb to invade Golkonda
Reason:A treaty made the QutubShahi ruler a vassal of the Mughal empire
//t
A) B)
ht
C) D)
Which of the following provinces congress council ministry not formed at Government of India act
1935?
A) Madras B)Punjab C)Bombay D)Bihar
A B C D
5
3.Communal award provided separate elctorates to the minorities
4.Police officer saunders committed the suicide due to the death of LalaLajpetrai
c8
A) 1,2 is true B)2,3 is true C)3,4 is true D)1,2,3 is true
ps
A B C D
Find the incorrect option
A) Grapes - Tartaric acid
C) Ant, bee sting - phosphoric acid
Tn B) Tea –Tannic acid
D) Vinegar - Acetic acid
e/
A B
C
D
.m
Assertion: Rajabai the second wife of Rajaram and her son Sambhaji II imprisoned Tara bai and
her son in 1714
Reason:Tara Bai carried on a parallel rival government with Kolhapur as Capital
A) Assertion is false,reason is true
//t
tp
A
B
ht
C
D
“Peshwa” is a Persian word which means
A) Foremost B)First Minister C) a and b D)None of the above
''
A B CA B D
5
A
c8
B
ps
C
D
A) 1918 B)1920
Tn
After the introduction of the diarchy form of government in the provinces,the first election under
the Montagu-Chelmsford reforms was held in the year
C)1923 D)1925
e/
A B C D
.m
In the context of congress party boycotting the legislature,the justice party continued to remain in
office till___________elections were held.
A) 1923 B)1926 C)1930 D)1937
//t
A B C D
Statement 1: Opuntiastore water in succulent water storing parenchymatous tissues
s:
Statement 2: Aloe vera have small sized leaves with waxy coating
A) 1, 2 correct B) 1, 2 incorrect
C) 1 correct 2 incorrect D) 1 Incorrect 2 Correct
tp
A B
ht
C D
Match. a b c d
a. Nitrogen fixation - 1.Nostoc A) 4 3 2 1
b. Ammonification - 2. Putrefying bacteria B) 1 2 3 4
c. Nitrification - 3. Nitrobacter C) 3 1 4 2
d. Denitrification - 4. Pseudomonas D) 2 4 1 3
5
c8
A B C D
Statement 1:Thechola rulers gifted tax free lands to royal officials,Brahmins,temples(devadana
Villages) and religious institutions.
Statement 2:Land granted to jain institutions was called Pallichchandam.
ps
A) Statement 1 only correct B)statement 1,2 correct
C)statement 2 only correct D)none
Tn
A B CD
e/
Who is responsible for the death of Aprajitha during the Annexation of ThondaiMandalam?
A) Rajendra I B) AdhityaChola I C) Rajendra II D) AdhityaKarikalan
.m
A B
C D
The temple which was built to commemorate his victories in North India was
//t
A
B
tp
C
D
What was the special feature of the architecture of the early chola period?
ht
5
Find the incorrect option.
A) Valvil Ori –The one who gave gifts to Panars who makes music with Yazh instrument
c8
B) Nalli –The one who gave all the goods to the tribals
C) Thirumudikari- The one who gifted the horses
D) Began - The one who gave the chariot to the Mullai kodi.
ps
A
B
C
D
C) Ashoka Inscription
Tn
The famous inscription that describes about music is
A) Tamilbrahmi Inscription B) Kudumiyan Hill Inscription
D) Uttiramerur Inscription
e/
A B
C D
Match. a b c d
.m
a.IbnBattutah - 1. Persia A) 3 1 4 2
b.AbdurRazak - 2. Portugal B) 2 1 4 3
c. Nikitin - 3. Morocco C) 4 3 2 1
d.Nuniz - 4. Russia D) 1 2 3 4
//t
a b c d
a. A
b. B
s:
Who was the president of the first All India trade union congress?
A) B.P.Wadia B)Lala Lajpet rai C)Annie bessant D)Tilak
A BC D
Which of the following person was not charge sheeted as four year in the Kanpur Conspiracy Case?
A) Muzaffar Ahmed B)Shaukat Usmani
C)Nalini Gupta D)Jitendranath Banerjee
5
A) 1,2 is false B)2,4 is false C)1 only false D)2 only false
c8
ps
””
A B CD
B
C)Jawaharlal Nehru D)Radhakrishnan
e/
C D
In which year did UNESCO announced Mahabalipuram Shore temple as world heritage site?
A)1981 B)1982 C)1983 D)1984
.m
UNESCO
A) B) C)1983 D)
A) B)C) D)
//t
a b c d
a A 4 3 2 1
b B
s:
3 4 1 2
c C 1 3 4 2
d D 1 2 3 4
tp
Who asserted “The Indian work is first of all the revival, strengthening and uplifting of ancient
religions”?
A) Tilak B)Annie Besant
ht
5
A B
C D
c8
In 1924 who openly advocated the Partition of the Punjab into Hindu and Muslim Provinces?
A) Lala Lajpat Rai B)Gandhi C)Jawaharlal Nehru D)Aurobindo Ghosh
ps
A B CD
Subash Chandra Bose eventually removed from all positions from congress in
A) August ,1939 B)October ,1939
C)August ,1940
A)
Tn
B) C)
D)October ,1940
D)
In place of the Muslim league nominees in the Interim government members,Who were appointed
e/
by congress in it?
1. Asaf Ali 2.Shafat Ahmed Khan
3.Syed Ali Zaheer 4.Jahir Hussain
.m
A) B) C) D)
Who ran clandestine radio operations at Bombay during the quit india movement?
s:
A B C D
On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives _____
A) H3PO3 B) PH3 C) H3PO4 D) POCI3
PCl3
A H3PO3 BPH3 CH3PO4 DPOCl3
(?-968) 79 4=512
5
A) 10185 B) 10190 C)11080 D) 10180
(?-968) 79 4=512
c8
A) 10185 B) 10190 C)11080 D) 10180
X = 1+ Which of the following is correct?
ps
A) x2+x+1 = 0 B) x2-x+1 = 0 C) x2+x-1 = 0 D) x2-x-1 = 0
X = 1+
=?
B) 1/3
Tn C) 1/9 D) 0
e/
A) 1 B) 1/3 C) 1/9 D) 0
When a number is decreased by 25%, it becomes 120. Find the number.
A) 140 B) 180 C) 160 D) 170
.m
A) 140 B) 180 C) 160 D) 170
Akila scored 80% of marks in an examination. If her score was 576 marks, then find the maximum
marks of the examination.
//t
Find the difference between simple interest and compound interest for Rs. 3000 at the rate interest
10% for 4 years
A) Rs. B) Rs. C) Rs. D) Rs.
A) B) C) D)
5
A B C D
A shopkeeper gives two successive discounts on an article whose marked price is Rs.180 and
c8
selling price is Rs.108. find the first discount percentage if the second discount is 25%.
A B C D
ps
A B C D
A girl bought some eggs at the rate of 4 eggs for Rs.18 and sold them at the rate of 5 eggs for
Rs.24. She gained 90 rupees in selling all the eggs. How many did she buy?
A B Tn C
D
e/
A B C D
If the selling price of a LED TV is equal to of its cost price, then find the Gain/Profit Percentage.
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A wire can form a square of area 36 sq.cm. What is the area of rectangle when the same wire forms
a rectangle in which one side is 2 cm?
A) 12 cm2 B) 18 cm2 C) 20 cm2 D) 24 cm2
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A cylindrical shaped well of depth 20 m and diameter 14m is dug. The dug out soil is evenly spread
to form a cuboid – platform with base dimension 20m 14 m. Find the height of the platform?
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A) 11m B) 22m C) 77m D) 33m
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A B C D
The volume of a sphere of radius r is obtained by multiplying its surface area by
A) B) C) D) 3r
A) B)
B) √ √
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r
C)
C) 2:3
D) 3r
If two cylinders of equal volumes have their heights in the ratio 2:3, then the ratio of their radii is
A) √ √ D) √ √
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A) √ √ B) √ √ C) 2:3 D) √ √
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If a company pays `6 lakh for 15 workers for 20 days, how much would it need to pay for 5 workers
for 12 days?
A) 1.2 lakh B) 1.1 lakh C) 1.5 lakh D) 1.3 lakh
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A) 1.2 B) 1.1 C) 1.5 D) 1.3
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X, Y and Z can do a piece of job in 4, 6 and 10 days respectively. If X,Y and Z work together to
complete, then find their separate shares if they will be paid ` 31000 for completing the job.
A) x 15000, Y10000, Z 6000
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X y
Zx,yZ
A) x 15000, Y10000, Z 6000
B) x 18000, Y13000, Z 7000
C) x 17000, Y14000, Z 8000
D) x 15000, Y12000, Z 6000
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Which number will come from the following at place of „c‟?
A) 321 B) 277 C) 519 D) 502
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8 584 143 467 242 386
43 (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
„c‟
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A) 321 B) 277 C) 519 D) 502
A is B‟s sister. C is B‟s son. D is C‟s daughter. A is ___ of D.
A) Grandfather B) Grandmother C) Son D) Daughter
A B C B D C A
D
A) B)
In an A.P the sum of first n terms is
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D)
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A) 664 B) 84 C) 748 D) 48
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What is the condition that three non zero numbers a, b, c are in Arithmetic progression.
A) 2b = a+c B) 2a = b+c C) 2c = a+b D) a =
a, b, c
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3 3 3
(1 +2 +……………..+15 ) – (1+2+………….+15)
A) 14400 B) 14200 C) 14280 D) 14520
Kumar writes a letter to four of his friends. He asks each one of them to copy the letter and mail to
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four different persons with the instruction that they continue the process similarly. Assuming that
the process is unaltered and it costs ₹2 to mail one letter, find the amount spent on postage when 8th
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hour. Find the average speed of both the trains
A) 100 km/hr B) 80 km/hr. C) 90 km/hr D) 110 km/hr
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A B C D)
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