Anatomy Physiology and Disease Foundations For The Health Professions 1st Edition Roiger Test Bank 1

Chapter 005 The Skeletal System
Anatomy Physiology and Disease

Foundations for the Health Professions 1st
Edition Roiger Bullock 0073402117
9780073402116
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Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following combining forms mean rib?

A. cost/o
B. orth/o
C. myel/o
D. stern/o
5-1
2. Which of the following combining forms means straight?

A. humer/o
B. ili/o
C. orth/o
D. carp/o
3. Which of the following combining forms means lower back?

A. maxill/o
B. femor/o
C. phalang/o
D. lumb/o
4. Which of the following combining forms means joint?

A. burs/o
B. arthr/o
C. tars/o
D. synov/o
5-2
5. Which of the following combining forms means upper jaw?

A. maxill/o
B. crani/o
C. pub/o
D. oste/o
6. All of the following combining forms refer to a bone in the hip except which one?
A. pub/o
B. ili/o
C. ischi/o
D. condyl/o
7. Which of the following combining forms means cartilage?

A. chondr/o
B. carp/o
C. cranio/o
D. cost/o
8. What are the two major divisions of the human skeleton?

A. Limb and trunk
B. Appendicular and trunk
C. Axial and limb
D. Axial and appendicular
9. Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

A. Bones of the leg
B. Bones of the neck
C. Bones of the girdle
D. Bones of the arm
5-3
10. All of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton except which one?
A. Bones of the leg
C. Bones of the head
D. Bones of the trunk
11. Which statement best describes a short bone?

A. A bone that looks like a sheet of modeling clay molded over an object
B. A bone that is longer than it is wide and has clubby ends
C. A bone that is not longer than it is wide
D. A bone that looks like a sesame seed
12. Which statement best describes a flat bone?

13. All of the following bones are flat bones except which one?
A. Ribs
B. Sternum
C. Cranial bones of the skull
D. Vertebra
14. What type of bone resembles a sesame seed and grows in tendons where there is a lot of
friction?
A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Long bone
D. Flat bone
5-4
15. What type of bone is a vertebra?

A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Irregular bone
D. Flat bone
16. Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

A. Frontal
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Foramen
17. What is the name of the large opening in the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord to
exit the cranial cavity?
A. Foramen magnum
B. Magnum foramen
C. Occipital foramen
D. Foramen occipital
18. What type of bone is the sphenoid bone?

A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Long bone
D. Irregular bone
19. What structure protects the pituitary gland?

A. The cribiform plate
B. The concha
C. The ethmoid bone
D. The sella turcica
5-5
20. Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

A. Frontal
B. Lacrimal
C. Zygomatic
D. Nasal
21. What is a sinus?

A. Holes in the facial bones that allow nerves and blood vessels to pass through
B. Attachment points for ligaments
C. Cavities within the bone
D. Attachment points for tendons
22. All of the following bones have sinuses except which one?
A. Frontal
B. Ethmoid
C. Mandible
D. Sphenoid
23. What are sinuses lined with?

A. Muscle
B. Mucous membranes
C. Connective tissue
D. Cartilage
24. All of the following are functions of the mucous membrane lining of the sinuses except
which one?
A. Fill the sinus with air.
B. Warm the air.
C. Give resonance to voice.
D. Moisten the air.
5-6
25. How many bones make up the adult spinal column?

A. 20
B. 26
C. 31
D. 22
26. Which of the following lists the number of each type of vertebrae correctly?
A. Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
B. Seven cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, twelve lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
C. Twelve cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
D. Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, two sacra and
one coccyx
27. Starting at the superior end of the spinal column, name the type of vertebrae in order.
A. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar
B. Thoracic, cervical, lumbar
C. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic
D. Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx
28. What is the most common abnormal curvature of the spine?

A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Swayback
29. Which statement correctly describes kyphosis?

A. Lateral curvature of the spine
B. Exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae
C. Exaggerated abnormal curvature of the thoracic vertebrae
D. Swayback
5-7
30. Which term describes an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae?

A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Hunchback
31. What is the function of the spinous and transverse process of the vertebrae?
A. To allow spinal nerves to exit the vertebrae
B. To support the weight of the body
C. An opening that allows the spinal cord to pass through the vertebrae
D. Attachment points for tendons and ligaments
32. What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

33. All of the following are functions of the intervertebral disc except which one?
A. Support body weight.
B. Allow nerves to exit between vertebrae.
C. Act as shock absorbers.
D. Cushion to vertebrae with each step.
34. Compression of the intervertebral disc causing the disc to bulge out laterally is called
what?
A. Intervertebral hernia
B. Intervertebral compression
C. Herniated compression
D. Herniated disc
5-8
35. What type of vertebrae are the axis and the atlas?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
36. How many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
37. How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
38. Which type of vertebrae has costal facets?

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
39. What allows the ribs to attach to the thoracic vertebrae?

A. Odontoid process
B. Costal facets
C. Xyphoid process
D. Dens
5-9
40. How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?

A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
41. All of the following are functions of the sternum except which one?
A. A protective plate for the heart
B. Attachment site for ribs
C. A protective plate for the lungs
D. Attachment point for pectoral girdle
42. What part of the sternum can be broken during CPR?

A. Manubrium
B. Body
C. Xyphoid process
D. Hyoid
43. All of the following are types of ribs except which one?
A. True ribs
B. False ribs
C. Costal ribs
D. Floating ribs
44. Which statement is false regarding the hyoid bone?

A. The hyoid bone is attached to the mandible.
B. The hyoid bone is not attached to another bone.
C. The hyoid bone forms the angle between the chin and neck.
D. A fractured hyoid bone can be an indication of strangulation.
5-10
45. Which statement correctly describes the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle?
A. The pelvic girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pectoral girdle
bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.
B. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle
C. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle
bones attach the leg bones to the appendicular skeleton.
D. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the appendicular skeleton while the
pelvic girdle bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.
46. Which two bones connect the arm to the axial skeleton?
A. Fibula and tibia
B. Radius and ulna
C. Humerus and femur
D. Clavicle and scapula
47. All of the following are prominent features on the scapula except which one?
A. Acromion process
B. Coracoid process
C. Glenoid cavity
D. Capitulum
48. What is the proximal long bone of the arm?

A. Ulna
B. Radius
C. Humerus
D. Clavicle
49. What is the function of the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus?

A. Articulate with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.
B. Points of attachment for muscles by tendons
C. Articulate with the radius.
D. Articulate with the scapula.
5-11
50. All of the following are parts of the humerus except which one?
A. Head
B. Greater and lesser tubercles
C. Styloid process
D. Capitulum
51. Which bones are long bones of the forearm?

A. Fibula and tibia
B. Radius and ulna
52. Which of the following bones are located in the hand?

A. Metatarsals
B. Tarsals
C. Metacarpals
D. Calcaneus
53. The following bones make up the pelvic girdle except which one?
A. Acetabulum
B. Ilium
C. Ischium
D. Pubis
54. The right and left pelvic girdle along with the sacrum and coccyx form the what?
A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Pubic symphysis
C. Pelvis
D. Acetabulum
5-12
55. What is the function of the pubic symphysis?

A. To connect the right and left pelvic girdles
B. The hip socket that allows the pelvic girdle to articulate with the femur
C. To connect the ilium and the sacrum
D. To fuse the ilium, ischium and pubis together
56. What is the proximal long bone of the leg?

A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Femur
D. Ilium
57. Which bone articulates with the femur at the knee?

A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Patella
D. Ilium
58. Tarsal bones are bones of the what?

A. The hand
B. The pelvic girdle
C. The ankle and foot
D. The toes
59. Which of the following features can be found on the humerus, radius and femur?
A. Neck
B. Condyles
C. Head
D. Styloid process
5-13
60. All of the following bones are found only in the ankle and foot except which one?
A. Talus
B. Tarsal
C. Metatarsal
D. Phalanges
61. The Achilles tendon attaches the calf muscles to what bone?
A. Talus
B. Calcaneus
C. Navicular
D. Cuneiform
62. What is the function of hydroxyapatite in bone?

A. Make the matrix flexible.
B. Harden the matrix.
C. Soften the matrix.
D. Hydroxyapatite has no function in bone tissue.
63. What are osteoblasts?

A. Cells that break down bone
B. Cells that build bone
C. Cells that build cartilage
D. Cells that break down cartilage
64. What are osteoclasts?

5-14
65. Osteoblasts perform all of the following functions except which one?
A. Osteoblasts build bone by forming a soft matrix of protein and carbohydrates with collagen
molecules.
B. Osteoblasts allow hard minerals to be deposited in the matrix.
C. Osteoblasts break down bone when necessary.
D. Osteoblasts build bone tissue.
66. Which disorder is a congenital defect characterized by brittle bones that lack collagen
fibers?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Rickets
C. Osteomalacia
D. Osteoarthritis
67. What type of bone is dense and highly organized?

A. Cancellous bone
B. Compact bone
C. Haversian bone
D. Trabeculae bone
68. Which statement is false regarding cancellous bone?

A. This type of bone is found in the end of long bones.
B. This type of bone is does not have Haversian systems.
C. This type of bone is arranged in slivers and plates called trabeculae.
D. This type of bone is arranged in a series of osteons.
69. Which of the following is not a feature of compact bone?

A. Lacunae
B. Trabeculae
C. Haversian canal
D. Lamellae
5-15
70. What type of cartilage covers the ends of long bones?

A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Fibroelastic cartilage
71. What types of cartilage is found in the pinna of the ear and in the epiglottis of the throat?
C. Fibrocartilage
72. What type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral disks?

C. Fibrocartilage
73. What term below describes the shaft of the long bone?
A. Epiphyses
B. Marrow
C. Diaphysis
D. Endosteum
74. Which of the following describes the periosteum?

A. The fibrous covering of the diaphysis
B. The lining of the marrow cavity
C. The nutrient artery that enters the diaphysis
D. A source of osteoclasts
5-16
75. What part of the long bone is a source of osteoblasts?

A. Cartilage
B. Marrow
C. Endosteum
D. Periosteum
76. What type of bone marrow is found in the cavity of mature long bones?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. White
D. Brown
77. Which statement about red bone marrow is false?

A. Red marrow is composed of stem cells.
B. Red marrow is found in the cavity of long bones.
C. Red marrow produces both red and white blood cells and platelets.
D. Red marrow is found in the spaces of cancellous bone.
78. What type of joint is formed by fibrous ligaments holding a tooth in its socket?
A. Suture joint
B. Syndesmoses joint
C. Gomphoses joint
D. Symphyses joint
79. Which type of joint has a joint cavity?

A. Suture joint
C. Synovial joint
D. Symphyses joint
5-17
80. Which type of synovial joint has concave surfaces of the bones that articulate with one
another?
A. Hinge
B. Ball and socket
C. Saddle
D. Gliding
81. Which statement is false regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

A. It is the most common form of arthritis.
B. It is an autoimmune disorder.
C. It is a progressive disease.
D. It can affect a person of any age.
82. What is ankylosis?

A. Creaking noises made when moving arthritic joints
B. An autoimmune disorder that attacks the joints' synovial membranes
C. The destruction of cartilage between joints eventually leading to fusion of the articulating
bones
D. Arthritis that occurs in people over the age of 40
83. Which statement is false regarding mineral deposition in bone?

A. Osteoblasts produce the bone's hydroxyapatite crystals.
B. Osteoblasts allow hydroxyapatite crystals to be deposited.
C. Calcium phosphate circulates through the blood and other bodily fluids.
D. Osteoblasts produce the collagen fibers of bone.
84. Which statement about intramembranous ossification is false?

A. It forms the long bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, scapula, pelvis, and limb bones of the
developing fetus.
B. It forms the bones of the skull in the developing fetus.
C. Osteoblast deposit bone in membranes.
D. The site of ossification is the center of future bone.
5-18
85. Which statement about endochondral ossification is true?

developing fetus.
86. Which type of ossification is complete when the epiphyseal plates are completely closed?
A. Intramembranous
B. Endochondral
C. Intermembranous
D. Epichondral
87. Which of the following correctly compares endochondral bone growth and appositional
bone growth?
A. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
B. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow wider. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
C. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs only in long bones and allows bone to become
more massive.
D. Appositional bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow
longer. Endochondral bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
88. All of the following are required for bone remodeling except which one?
A. Decreased stress on bones
B. Increased stress on bones
C. Sufficient calcium in the blood
D. Sufficient vitamin D in the diet
5-19
89. What must be present for calcium to be absorbed from the small intestine?
A. Vitamin D
B. Fat
C. Calcitriol
D. Phosphorus
90. Which gland secrets calcitonin?

A. Parathyroid
B. Ovaries
C. Thyroid gland
D. Testes
91. All of the following are functions of parathyroid hormone except which one?
A. Causes osteoclasts to reabsorb bone therefore increasing blood calcium levels
B. Causes the kidney to reabsorb calcium in order to maintain blood calcium levels
C. Causes osteoblasts to deposit bone, reducing blood calcium levels
D. Causes the small intestines to absorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels
92. All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except which one?
A. Communication
B. Movement
C. Protection
D. Electrolyte balance
93. What is the relationship between bone deposition and bone reabsorption in people 45 and
older?
A. Deposition = Reabsorption
B. Deposition < Reabsorption
C. Deposition > Reabsorption
D. There is no relationship between deposition and reabsorption.
5-20
94. What type of fracture causes a crack in the bone?

A. Greenstick
B. Depressed
C. Hairline
D. Compression
95. Which of the following is true about closed reduction?

A. Closed reduction sets bone in proper alignment using surgery.
B. Closed reduction uses pins, plates and screws to ensure bones stay aligned.
C. Closed reduction sets bones in proper alignment without using surgery.
D. Closed reduction uses move the fragments of fracture bone to ensure healing.
96. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry is commonly used to diagnose which of the following
skeletal conditions?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Gout
C. Cleft palate
D. Osteoporosis
97. Which statement regarding x-rays is false?

A. X-rays use radiation.
B. X-rays and DEXA scans both measure bone density.
C. X-rays allow the visualization of dense structures.
D. X-rays can be used to visualize fractures associated with osteoporosis.
98. All of the following are disorders that cause bone softening except which one?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Rickets
5-21
99. All of the following are abnormal curvatures of the spine except which one?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteoporosis
100. All of the following conditions affect the joints except:

A. Gout
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Rickets
D. Bursitis
101. Which condition is characterized by a congenital defect resulting in failure of the hard
and/or soft palate to fuse?
A. Cleft palate
C. Rickets
D. Bursitis
102. Which condition is characterized by a malignant tumor of the bone?

A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Mastoiditis
5-22
Chapter 005 The Skeletal System Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms mean rib?

A. cost/o
B. orth/o
C. myel/o
D. stern/o
The combining form cost/o means rib.
ABHES: 3.a. Define and use entire basic structure of medical words and be able to accurately identify in the correct context, i.e., root,
prefix, suffix, combinations, spelling and definitions
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remember
CAAHEP: I.C.1. Describe structural organization of the human body
Learning Outcome: 05-01 Use medical terminology related to the skeletal system.
Level of Difficulty: 1 Easy
2. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms means straight?

A. humer/o
B. ili/o
C. orth/o
D. carp/o
The combining form orth/o means straight.
5-23
3. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms means lower back?
A. maxill/o
B. femor/o
C. phalang/o
D. lumb/o
The combining form lumbo/o means lower back.
4. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms means joint?

A. burs/o
B. arthr/o
C. tars/o
D. synov/o
The combining form arthr/o means joint.
5-24
5. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms means upper jaw?
A. maxill/o
B. crani/o
C. pub/o
D. oste/o
The combining form maxill/o means jaw.
6. (p. 121) All of the following combining forms refer to a bone in the hip except which one?
A. pub/o
B. ili/o
C. ischi/o
D. condyl/o
The combining form condyl/o means condyle not a bone in the hip.
5-25
7. (p. 121) Which of the following combining forms means cartilage?

A. chondr/o
B. carp/o
C. cranio/o
D. cost/o
The combining form chondr/o means cartilage.
8. (p. 123) What are the two major divisions of the human skeleton?
A. Limb and trunk
B. Appendicular and trunk
C. Axial and limb
D. Axial and appendicular
Axial and appendicular are the two major divisions of the human skeleton.
ABHES: 2.b. Identify and apply the knowledge of all body systems, their structure and functions, and their common diseases, symptoms and
etiologies.
CAAHEP: I.C.2. Identify body systems
Learning Outcome: 05-02 Distinguish between the axial and the appendicular skeleton.
5-26
9. (p. 123) Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
A. Bones of the leg
C. Bones of the girdle
D. Bones of the arm
The appendicular skeleton consists of bones of the arms, legs and girdles. The axial skeleton
consists of bones of the head, neck and trunk.
etiologies.
10. (p. 123) All of the following bones are part of the axial skeleton except which one?
A. Bones of the leg
C. Bones of the head
D. Bones of the trunk
The appendicular skeleton consists of bones of the arms, legs and girdles. The axial skeleton
consists of bones of the head, neck and trunk.
etiologies.
5-27
11. (p. 124) Which statement best describes a short bone?

A short bone is not longer than it is wide, they are more cubed shaped like wrist bones.
etiologies.
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understand
Learning Outcome: 05-03 Describe five types of bones classified by shape.
12. (p. 124) Which statement best describes a flat bone?

A short flat bone is flat and looks like a sheet of modeling clay that has been molded over an
object.
etiologies.
5-28
13. (p. 124) All of the following bones are flat bones except which one?
A. Ribs
B. Sternum
C. Cranial bones of the skull
D. Vertebra
Ribs, sternum, and skull bones are all examples of flat bones. The vertebra is an example of
an irregular bone.
etiologies.
CAAHEP: I.C.4. List major organs in each body system
14. (p. 125) What type of bone resembles a sesame seed and grows in tendons where there is a
lot of friction?
A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Long bone
D. Flat bone
Sesamoid bones resemble sesame seeds and grow in tendons where there is friction.
etiologies.
5-29
15. (p. 124) What type of bone is a vertebra?

A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Irregular bone
D. Flat bone
Irregular bones have processes, spines, and ridges. Vertebrae are an example of this type of
bone.
etiologies.
16. (p. 125) Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

A. Frontal
B. Occipital
C. Temporal
D. Foramen
Cranial bones include frontal, occipital, temporal and parietal bones. Foramen are openings
within the bone.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-04 Identify bones, markings, and structures of the axial skeleton and appendicular skeletons.
5-30
17. (p. 127) What is the name of the large opening in the occipital bone that allows the spinal
cord to exit the cranial cavity?
A. Foramen magnum
B. Magnum foramen
C. Occipital foramen
D. Foramen occipital
The foramen magnum is the large opening in the occipital bone that allows the spinal cord to
exit the cranial cavity.
etiologies.
18. (p. 127) What type of bone is the sphenoid bone?

A. Short bone
B. Sesamoid bone
C. Long bone
D. Irregular bone
Sphenoid bone is an irregular bone that helps form the cranial floor.
etiologies.
5-31
19. (p. 129) What structure protects the pituitary gland?

A. The cribiform plate
B. The concha
C. The ethmoid bone
D. The sella turcica
Inside the skull, the sphenoid bone forms another important structure called the sella turcica
(turkish saddle). The pituitary gland sits in this bony saddle, and the saddle's broad bar helps
protect the pituitary gland by surrounding it in bone.
etiologies.
CAAHEP: I.C.5. Describe the normal function of each body system
20. (p. 130) Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?
A. Frontal
B. Lacrimal
C. Zygomatic
D. Nasal
Together, the following bones make up your facial bones: two nasal, two lacrimal, two
zygomatic, two inferior nasal concha, two maxilla, two palatine, one mandible, and one
vomer. The frontal bone is a cranial bone.
etiologies.
5-32
21. (p. 130) What is a sinus?

A. Holes in the facial bones that allow nerves and blood vessels to pass through
B. Attachment points for ligaments
C. Cavities within the bone
D. Attachment points for tendons
The frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and the maxilla (a facial bone) have cavities within the bones
themselves called sinuses.
etiologies.
22. (p. 131) All of the following bones have sinuses except which one?
A. Frontal
B. Ethmoid
C. Mandible
D. Sphenoid
The frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and the maxilla (a facial bone) have sinuses.
etiologies.
5-33
23. (p. 130) What are sinuses lined with?

A. Muscle
B. Mucous membranes
C. Connective tissue
D. Cartilage
The sinuses are lined by mucous membranes and filled with air, and they help to warm and
moisten inspired air, while giving resonance to the voice.
etiologies.
24. (p. 130) All of the following are functions of the mucous membrane lining of the sinuses
except which one?
A. Fill the sinus with air.
B. Warm the air.
C. Give resonance to voice.
D. Moisten the air.
The sinuses are lined by mucous membranes and filled with air, and they help to warm and
moisten inspired air, while giving resonance to the voice.
etiologies.
5-34
25. (p. 130) How many bones make up the adult spinal column?
A. 20
B. 26
C. 31
D. 22
In an adult, the spinal column is composed of 26 bones.
etiologies.
26. (p. 131) Which of the following lists the number of each type of vertebrae correctly?
A. Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
B. Seven cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, twelve lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
C. Twelve cervical vertebrae, five thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum and
one coccyx
D. Seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, two sacra and
one coccyx
There are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five lumbar vertebrae, one
sacrum, and one coccyx.
etiologies.
5-35
27. (p. 131) Starting at the superior end of the spinal column, name the type of vertebrae in
order.
A. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar
B. Thoracic, cervical, lumbar
C. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic
D. Cervical vertebrae, thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae, sacrum, coccyx
In an adult, the spinal column is composed of 26 bones. It is contains three types of vertebrae,
the sacrum and the coccyx. There are seven cervical vertebrae, twelve thoracic vertebrae, five
lumbar vertebrae, one sacrum, and one coccyx.
etiologies.
28. (p. 132) What is the most common abnormal curvature of the spine?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Swayback
The most common abnormal curvature is scoliosis.
etiologies.
CAAHEP: I.C.6. Identify common pathology related to each body system
5-36
29. (p. 132) Which statement correctly describes kyphosis?

A. Lateral curvature of the spine
B. Exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae
C. Exaggerated abnormal curvature of the thoracic vertebrae
D. Swayback
Kyphosis, commonly called hunchback, is an exaggerated abnormal curvature of the thoracic

vertebrae. Lordosis, commonly called swayback, is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar
vertebrae. The most common abnormal curvature is scoliosis and it is characterized by a
lateral curvature of the spinal column, often in the thoracic region.
etiologies.
30. (p. 132) Which term describes an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Hunchback
Kyphosis, commonly called hunchback, is an exaggerated abnormal curvature of the thoracic

vertebrae. Lordosis, commonly called swayback, is an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar
vertebrae. The most common abnormal curvature is scoliosis and it is characterized by a
lateral curvature of the spinal column, often in the thoracic region.
etiologies.
5-37
31. (p. 133) What is the function of the spinous and transverse process of the vertebrae?
The spinous and transverse processes are attachment points for tendons and ligaments. The
body of the vertebra supports the weight of the body. The vertebral foramen allows the spinal
cord to pass through the vertebra. Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord between vertebrae.
etiologies.
32. (p. 133) What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

The vertebral foramen allows the spinal cord to pass through the vertebra. The spinous and
transverse processes are attachment points for tendons and ligaments. The body of the
vertebra supports the weight of the body. Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord between vertebrae.
etiologies.
5-38
33. (p. 133) All of the following are functions of the intervertebral disc except which one?
A. Support body weight.
B. Allow nerves to exit between vertebrae.
C. Act as shock absorbers.
D. Cushion to vertebrae with each step.
The intervertebral discs support the body weight and act as shock absorbers, cushioning the
vertebrae from the impact of each footstep.
etiologies.
34. (p. 133) Compression of the intervertebral disc causing the disc to bulge out laterally is
called what?
A. Intervertebral hernia
B. Intervertebral compression
C. Herniated compression
D. Herniated disc
Herniated disc can be caused by improper heavy lifting which compresses the intervertebral
discs. The pressure of extra weight may cause one of these discs to bulge out laterally. This
bulge may allow the softer matrix to ooze out.
etiologies.
5-39
35. (p. 134) What type of vertebrae are the axis and the atlas?
A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
The first two cervical vertebrae are the atlas and the axis.
etiologies.
36. (p. 134) How many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
There are 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic, and 5 lumbar.
etiologies.
5-40
37. (p. 134) How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spinal column?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
etiologies.
38. (p. 134) Which type of vertebrae has costal facets?

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
Thoracic vertebrae have costal facets for rib attachment.
etiologies.
5-41
39. (p. 134) What allows the ribs to attach to the thoracic vertebrae?
A. Odontoid process
B. Costal facets
C. Xyphoid process
D. Dens
The twelve thoracic vertebrae are distinctive because they are the only vertebrae in the body
that have smooth surfaces called costal facets. Ribs attach to the facets on the bodies and
transverse processes of these vertebrae. The odontoid process and dens are part of the axis.
The xyphoid process is a part of the sternum.
etiologies.
40. (p. 135) How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?
A. 7
B. 12
C. 5
D. 2
etiologies.
5-42
41. (p. 135) All of the following are functions of the sternum except which one?
A. A protective plate for the heart
B. Attachment site for ribs
C. A protective plate for the lungs
D. Attachment point for pectoral girdle
The sternum is a flat bone composed of three parts: the manubrium, the body, and the xyphoid
process. Together, they serve as a protective plate for the heart and as an attachment site for
the ribs encasing the thorax. The manubrium is the attachment point for the pectoral girdle.
etiologies.
42. (p. 135) What part of the sternum can be broken during CPR?
A. Manubrium
B. Body
C. Xyphoid process
D. Hyoid
Care must be taken to avoid breaking the xyphoid process of the sternum during CPR.
etiologies.
Bloom's Taxonomy: Apply
Level of Difficulty: 2 Medium
5-43
43. (p. 135) All of the following are types of ribs except which one?
A. True ribs
B. False ribs
C. Costal ribs
D. Floating ribs
The superior seven pairs of ribs are connected to the sternum by their individual costal
cartilages. These are considered true ribs. Pairs eight through twelve are considered false ribs
because they do not have individual costal cartilages connecting them to the sternum. Of the
false ribs, pairs eight through ten share a costal cartilage to connect to the sternum. Pairs
eleven and twelve are considered to be false, floating ribs because they are not connected to
the sternum. The costal cartilages are composed of hyaline cartilage connective tissue.
etiologies.
44. (p. 136) Which statement is false regarding the hyoid bone?
A. The hyoid bone is attached to the mandible.
B. The hyoid bone is not attached to another bone.
C. The hyoid bone forms the angle between the chin and neck.
D. A fractured hyoid bone can be an indication of strangulation.
The hyoid bone is unique because it is not attached to another bone.
etiologies.
5-44
45. (p. 137) Which statement correctly describes the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle?
A. The pelvic girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pectoral girdle
B. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle
C. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle
bones attach the leg bones to the appendicular skeleton.
D. The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the appendicular skeleton while the
pelvic girdle bones attach the leg bones to the axial skeleton.
The pectoral girdle bones attach the arm bones to the axial skeleton while the pelvic girdle
etiologies.
46. (p. 137) Which two bones connect the arm to the axial skeleton?
A. Fibula and tibia
B. Radius and ulna
The clavicle and scapula attach the arm to the axial skeleton. The humerus, radius and ulna
are arm bones and the femur, tibia and fibula are leg bones.
etiologies.
5-45
47. (p. 137) All of the following are prominent features on the scapula except which one?
A. Acromion process
B. Coracoid process
C. Glenoid cavity
D. Capitulum
The capitulum is a feature of the humerus.
etiologies.
48. (p. 138) What is the proximal long bone of the arm?
A. Ulna
B. Radius
C. Humerus
D. Clavicle
The humerus is the proximal long bone of the arm; the radius and ulna are distal long bones of
the arm. The clavicle is in the pectoral girdle.
etiologies.
5-46
49. (p. 138) What is the function of the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus?
A. Articulate with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.
B. Points of attachment for muscles by tendons
C. Articulate with the radius.
D. Articulate with the scapula.
Tuberosities are rough areas on a bone that serve as attachment points of muscles by tendons.
The deltoid tuberosity is an attachment point for the deltoid muscle.
etiologies.
50. (p. 138-139) All of the following are parts of the humerus except which one?
A. Head
B. Greater and lesser tubercles
C. Styloid process
D. Capitulum
The styloid process is a feature found on the radius not the humerus.
etiologies.
5-47
51. (p. 139) Which bones are long bones of the forearm?
A. Fibula and tibia
B. Radius and ulna
The ulna and radius are long bones of the forearm. The fibula and tibia are long bones of the
lower leg. The clavicle and scapula are a part of the pectoral girdle. The humerus and femur
are long bones of the proximal arm and leg respectively.
etiologies.
52. (p. 140) Which of the following bones are located in the hand?
A. Metatarsals
B. Tarsals
C. Metacarpals
D. Calcaneus
Metacarpals are found in the hand, all the other bones listed are found in the foot.
etiologies.
5-48
53. (p. 142) The following bones make up the pelvic girdle except which one?
A. Acetabulum
B. Ilium
C. Ischium
D. Pubis
The acetabulum is a feature of the pelvic girdle not a bone.
etiologies.
54. (p. 142) The right and left pelvic girdle along with the sacrum and coccyx form the what?
A. Sacroiliac joint
B. Pubic symphysis
C. Pelvis
D. Acetabulum
The right and left pelvic girdle along with the sacrum and coccyx form the pelvis.
etiologies.
5-49
55. (p. 142) What is the function of the pubic symphysis?

A. To connect the right and left pelvic girdles
B. The hip socket that allows the pelvic girdle to articulate with the femur
C. To connect the ilium and the sacrum
D. To fuse the ilium, ischium and pubis together
The function of the pubic symphysis is to connect the right and left pelvic girdles together.
etiologies.
56. (p. 143) What is the proximal long bone of the leg?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Femur
D. Ilium
The femur is the proximal long bone of the leg and the tibia and fibula are distal long bones of
the leg. The ilium is a part of the pelvic girdle.
etiologies.
5-50
57. (p. 143) Which bone articulates with the femur at the knee?
A. Tibia
B. Fibula
C. Patella
D. Ilium
The tibia articulates with the femur at the knee.
etiologies.
58. (p. 145) Tarsal bones are bones of the what?

A. The hand
B. The pelvic girdle
C. The ankle and foot
D. The toes
Tarsal bones are ones of the ankle and foot.
etiologies.
5-51
59. (p. 138-139) Which of the following features can be found on the humerus, radius and femur?
A. Neck
B. Condyles
C. Head
D. Styloid process
The head, located at the proximal end of the bone, can be found in the humerus, radius and
femur.
etiologies.
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyze
Level of Difficulty: 3 Hard
60. (p. 144-145) All of the following bones are found only in the ankle and foot except which
one?
A. Talus
B. Tarsal
C. Metatarsal
D. Phalanges
Phalanges are found in the foot and the hand.
etiologies.
5-52
61. (p. 144) The Achilles tendon attaches the calf muscles to what bone?
A. Talus
B. Calcaneus
C. Navicular
D. Cuneiform
The Achilles tendon attaches the calf muscles to the calcaneus bone.
etiologies.
62. (p. 147) What is the function of hydroxyapatite in bone?

A. Make the matrix flexible.
B. Harden the matrix.
C. Soften the matrix.
D. Hydroxyapatite has no function in bone tissue.
The function of hydroxyapatite in bone tissue is to harden the matrix. Collagen is responsible
for making the matrix somewhat flexible.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-05 Describe the cells, fibers, and matrix of bone tissue.
5-53
63. (p. 147) What are osteoblasts?

Osteoblasts are osteocytes that build bone.
etiologies.
64. (p. 147) What are osteoclasts?

Osteoclasts are osteocytes that break down bone.
etiologies.
5-54
65. (p. 147) Osteoblasts perform all of the following functions except which one?
A. Osteoblasts build bone by forming a soft matrix of protein and carbohydrates with collagen
molecules.
B. Osteoblasts allow hard minerals to be deposited in the matrix.
C. Osteoblasts break down bone when necessary.
D. Osteoblasts build bone tissue.
Osteoblasts build bone tissue, while osteoclasts destroy it. Both types of cells are necessary
for the skeletal system to function properly. Osteoblasts build new bone by forming a soft
matrix of protein and carbohydrate molecules with collagen fibers. The osteoblasts then allow
hard mineral crystals to be deposited in the matrix.
etiologies.
66. (p. 147) Which disorder is a congenital defect characterized by brittle bones that lack
collagen fibers?
A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Rickets
C. Osteomalacia
D. Osteoarthritis
Osteogenesis imperfecta, commonly called brittle bones, is a congenital defect in which the
bones lack collagen fibers. With this defect, the bones are very brittle and break easily.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-23 Describe skeletal system disorders and relate abnormal function to the pathology.
5-55
67. (p. 147) What type of bone is dense and highly organized?
A. Cancellous bone
B. Compact bone
C. Haversian bone
D. Trabeculae bone
Compact bone is very dense and highly organized. Cancellous bone is spongy in appearance,
characterized by delicate slivers and plates of bone with spaces between.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-06 Compare and contrast the histology of compact and cancellous bone.
68. (p. 149) Which statement is false regarding cancellous bone?

A. This type of bone is found in the end of long bones.
B. This type of bone is does not have Haversian systems.
C. This type of bone is arranged in slivers and plates called trabeculae.
D. This type of bone is arranged in a series of osteons.
Cancellous bone is found in the end of long bones and in the middle of flat and irregular
bones. Cancellous bone is not as organized as compact bone and it does not have Haversian
systems. Here, the matrix is arranged in delicate slivers and plates called trabeculae. The
spaces between the interlocking trabeculae give cancellous bone a spongy appearance.
etiologies.
5-56
69. (p. 147-149) Which of the following is not a feature of compact bone?
A. Lacunae
B. Trabeculae
C. Haversian canal
D. Lamellae
Compact bone is found in the shafts of long bones and the surfaces of flat bones. Compact
bone tissue is arranged in a series of osteons (Haversian systems) that appear as targets. The
central osteonic or Haversian canal contains blood vessels and a nerve. Matrix is formed
around the canal in concentric layers called lamellae. The osteocytes are found in spaces
called lacunae arranged in circles around the central canal. They have boxed themselves in the
lacunae by depositing matrix around themselves. Tiny cracks called canaliculi in the matrix
allow the osteocytes to reach out to each other and to the central canal for nutrients. Trabecula
is a feature of cancellous bone.
etiologies.
70. (p. 149-150) What type of cartilage covers the ends of long bones?
C. Fibrocartilage
Hyaline cartilage connective tissue is found covering the ends of long bones, in the costal
cartilages of the ribs, and in the nasal cartilages of the nose. Elastic cartilage connective tissue
is found in the pinna of the ear (outer ear flap) and the epiglottis in the throat. Fibrocartilage
connective tissue is found in the intervertebral disks, the pubic symphysis, and the meniscus
of the knee.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-07 Compare and contrast the histology of hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage connective tissues.
5-57
71. (p. 149-150) What types of cartilage is found in the pinna of the ear and in the epiglottis of the
throat?
C. Fibrocartilage
of the knee.
etiologies.
72. (p. 149-150) What type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral disks?
C. Fibrocartilage
of the knee.
etiologies.
5-58
73. (p. 150) What term below describes the shaft of the long bone?
A. Epiphyses
B. Marrow
C. Diaphysis
D. Endosteum
The diaphysis is the shaft of the long bone.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-08 Describe the anatomy of a long bone.
74. (p. 152) Which of the following describes the periosteum?

A. The fibrous covering of the diaphysis
B. The lining of the marrow cavity
C. The nutrient artery that enters the diaphysis
D. A source of osteoclasts
Periosteum covers the diaphysis of the long bone. Endosteum lines the marrow cavity of the
long bone and supplies the bone with osteoclasts. The nutrient artery enters the diaphysis
through a foramen in the bone.
etiologies.
5-59
75. (p. 152) What part of the long bone is a source of osteoblasts?
A. Cartilage
B. Marrow
C. Endosteum
D. Periosteum
Periosteum covers the diaphysis of the long bone and supplies the bone with osteoblast.
Endosteum lines the marrow cavity of the long bone and supplies the bone with osteoclasts.
etiologies.
76. (p. 152) What type of bone marrow is found in the cavity of mature long bones?
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. White
D. Brown
Yellow bone marrow is found in the cavity of mature long bones, red marrow is found in the
spaces of cancellous bone.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-09 Distinguish between two types of bone marrow as to location and function.
5-60
77. (p. 152) Which statement about red bone marrow is false?
A. Red marrow is composed of stem cells.
B. Red marrow is found in the cavity of long bones.
C. Red marrow produces both red and white blood cells and platelets.
D. Red marrow is found in the spaces of cancellous bone.
Yellow bone marrow is found in the cavity of mature long bones.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-09 Distinguish between two types of bone marrow as to location and function.
78. (p. 152-158) What type of joint is formed by fibrous ligaments holding a tooth in its socket?
A. Suture joint
C. Gomphoses joint
D. Symphyses joint
A gomphosis is formed by fibrous ligaments holding a tooth in its socket. They are
immovable joints.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-10 Describe three major structural classes of joints and the types of joints in each class.
5-61
79. (p. 152-158) Which type of joint has a joint cavity?

A. Suture joint
C. Synovial joint
D. Symphyses joint
Synovial joints have a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid.
etiologies.
80. (p. 152-158) Which type of synovial joint has concave surfaces of the bones that articulate
with one another?
A. Hinge
B. Ball and socket
C. Saddle
D. Gliding
The human body contains six types of synovial joints: Hinge: A hinge joint is very movable in
one direction like a door hinge. Ball and socket: The ball of one bone fits into a socket of
another bone. Saddle: Concave surfaces of the bones articulate with one another. Gliding: Flat
surfaces of the bones glide past one another. Ellipsoid: This is a reduced ball and socket.
Pivot: A ring of bone articulates with a post of bone.
etiologies.
5-62
81. (p. 158) Which statement is false regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

A. It is the most common form of arthritis.
B. It is an autoimmune disorder.
C. It is a progressive disease.
D. It can affect a person of any age.
Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-11 Differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.
82. (p. 159) What is ankylosis?

A. Creaking noises made when moving arthritic joints
B. An autoimmune disorder that attacks the joints' synovial membranes
C. The destruction of cartilage between joints eventually leading to fusion of the articulating
bones
D. Arthritis that occurs in people over the age of 40
Ankylosis occurs with rheumatoid arthritis. It is the destruction of the cartilage in a joint
resulting in the fusion of articulating bones.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-11 Differentiate between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis.
5-63
83. (p. 160) Which statement is false regarding mineral deposition in bone?
A. Osteoblasts produce the bone's hydroxyapatite crystals.
B. Osteoblasts allow hydroxyapatite crystals to be deposited.
C. Calcium phosphate circulates through the blood and other bodily fluids.
D. Osteoblasts produce the collagen fibers of bone.
Osteoblasts produce the collagen fibers of bone but they do not produce bone's hydroxyapatite
crystals. They simply allow hydroxyapatite to be deposited. Calcium phosphate is dissolved in
body fluids and blood. If it is highly concentrated, it will settle out of solution to form
crystals. Most body tissues make a chemical that prevents calcium phosphate crystals from
forming. This prevents tissues like those in the muscles, liver, and eyes from calcifying.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-12 Explain how minerals are deposited in bone.
84. (p. 161) Which statement about intramembranous ossification is false?

developing fetus.
Endochondral ossification forms the long bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, scapula, pelvis, and
limb bones of the developing fetus.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-13 Compare and contrast endochondral and intramembranous ossification.
5-64
85. (p. 161-162) Which statement about endochondral ossification is true?

developing fetus.
Endochondral ossification forms the long bones, vertebrae, ribs, sternum, scapula, pelvis, and
limb bones of the developing fetus. The other statements are true about intramembranous
ossification.
etiologies.
86. (p. 161-162) Which type of ossification is complete when the epiphyseal plates are completely
closed?
A. Intramembranous
B. Endochondral
C. Intermembranous
D. Epichondral
Endochondral ossification is complete when the epiphyseal plates are completely closed.
etiologies.
5-65
87. (p. 163-164) Which of the following correctly compares endochondral bone growth and
appositional bone growth?
A. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
B. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow wider. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
C. Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to
grow longer. Appositional bone growth occurs only in long bones and allows bone to become
more massive.
D. Appositional bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow
longer. Endochondral bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become
more massive.
Endochondral bone growth deposits bone at the epiphyseal plate, allowing the bone to grow
longer. Appositional bone growth occurs in all types of bone and allows bone to become more
massive.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-14 Compare and contrast endochondral and appositional bone growth.
88. (p. 164) All of the following are required for bone remodeling except which one?
A. Decreased stress on bones
B. Increased stress on bones
C. Sufficient calcium in the blood
D. Sufficient vitamin D in the diet
Bone remodeling happens daily if there is sufficient stress on bone and calcium in the blood.
Vitamin D is required for small intestine to absorb calcium. Decreased stress on bones does
not allow bone remodeling to occur.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-15 Explain how bone is remodeled by reabsorption.
5-66
89. (p. 165) What must be present for calcium to be absorbed from the small intestine?
A. Vitamin D
B. Fat
C. Calcitriol
D. Phosphorus
Calcitriol is needed for the small intestine to absorb calcium. Vitamin D is converted into
calcitriol.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-16 Explain the nutritional requirements of the skeletal system.
90. (p. 165) Which gland secrets calcitonin?

A. Parathyroid
B. Ovaries
C. Thyroid gland
D. Testes
The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-17 Describe the negative feedback mechanisms affecting bone deposition and reabsorption by identifying the relevant
glands, hormones, target tissues, and hormone functions.
5-67
91. (p. 165) All of the following are functions of parathyroid hormone except which one?
A. Causes osteoclasts to reabsorb bone therefore increasing blood calcium levels
B. Causes the kidney to reabsorb calcium in order to maintain blood calcium levels
C. Causes osteoblasts to deposit bone, reducing blood calcium levels
D. Causes the small intestines to absorb calcium in order to increase blood calcium levels
The thyroid gland causes osteoblasts to deposit bone and reduce blood calcium levels.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-17 Describe the negative feedback mechanisms affecting bone deposition and reabsorption by identifying the relevant
glands, hormones, target tissues, and hormone functions.
92. (p. 167) All of the following are functions of the skeletal system except which one?
A. Communication
B. Movement
C. Protection
D. Electrolyte balance
The six functions of the skeletal system are support, movement, protection, acid/base balance,
electrolyte balance, and blood formation.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-18 Summarize the six functions of the skeletal system and give an example or explanation for each.
5-68
93. (p. 168) What is the relationship between bone deposition and bone reabsorption in people
45 and older?
A. Deposition = Reabsorption
B. Deposition < Reabsorption
C. Deposition > Reabsorption
D. There is no relationship between deposition and reabsorption.
Due to a decrease in testosterone and estrogen bone deposition is less than reabsorption and
causes decreasing bone mass and density.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-19 Summarize the effects of aging on the skeletal system.
94. (p. 169-170) What type of fracture causes a crack in the bone?
A. Greenstick
B. Depressed
C. Hairline
D. Compression
A hairline fracture is characterized by a crack in the bone.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-20 Classify fractures using descriptive terms.
5-69
95. (p. 170) Which of the following is true about closed reduction?
A. Closed reduction sets bone in proper alignment using surgery.
B. Closed reduction uses pins, plates and screws to ensure bones stay aligned.
C. Closed reduction sets bones in proper alignment without using surgery.
D. Closed reduction uses move the fragments of fracture bone to ensure healing.
Closed reduction sets bones in proper alignment without using surgery, while open reduction
uses surgery to align the bone.
ABHES: 2.c. Assist the physician with the regimen of diagnostic and treatment modalities as they relate to each body system.
Learning Outcome: 05-21 Explain how a fracture heals.
96. (p. 172) Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry is commonly used to diagnose which of the
following skeletal conditions?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Gout
C. Cleft palate
D. Osteoporosis
A DEXA (dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry) scan uses low-dose radiation to measure bone
density in the hip and vertebrae. It can be performed on a yearly basis to detect a decrease in
bone density before osteoporosis progresses to the point of causing fractures.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-22 Describe a diagnostic test commonly used when diagnosing skeletal system disorders.
5-70
97. (p. 172) Which statement regarding x-rays is false?

A. X-rays use radiation.
B. X-rays and DEXA scans both measure bone density.
C. X-rays allow the visualization of dense structures.
D. X-rays can be used to visualize fractures associated with osteoporosis.
DEXA scans use low-dose radiation to measure bone density in the hip and vertebrae while x-
rays use electromagnetic radiation that sends photons through the body to create a visual
image of dense structures such as bone.
etiologies.
Learning Outcome: 05-22 Describe a diagnostic test commonly used when diagnosing skeletal system disorders.
98. (p. 176) All of the following are disorders that cause bone softening except which one?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Osteomalacia
D. Rickets
Osteoarthritis is a disorder that affects the joints.
etiologies.
5-71
99. (p. 176) All of the following are abnormal curvatures of the spine except which one?
A. Scoliosis
B. Lordosis
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteoporosis
Scoliosis, kyphosis and lordosis are abnormal curvatures of the spine.
etiologies.
100. (p. 172-176) All of the following conditions affect the joints except:
A. Gout
C. Rickets
D. Bursitis
Rickets affects the deposition of bone in children.
etiologies.
5-72
101. (p. 175) Which condition is characterized by a congenital defect resulting in failure of the
hard and/or soft palate to fuse?
A. Cleft palate
C. Rickets
D. Bursitis
A cleft palate is characterized by a congenital defect resulting in failure of the hard and/or soft
palate to fuse.
etiologies.
102. (p. 173) Which condition is characterized by a malignant tumor of the bone?
A. Chondrosarcoma
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Mastoiditis
Osteosarcoma is a condition characterized by a malignant bone tumor.
etiologies.
5-73

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Anatomy Physiology and Disease Foundations For The Health Professions 1st Edition Roiger Test Bank 1

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Chapter 005 The Skeletal System

Anatomy Physiology and Disease

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Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following combining forms mean rib?

2. Which of the following combining forms means straight?

3. Which of the following combining forms means lower back?

4. Which of the following combining forms means joint?

5. Which of the following combining forms means upper jaw?

7. Which of the following combining forms means cartilage?

8. What are the two major divisions of the human skeleton?

9. Which of the following is not part of the appendicular skeleton?

11. Which statement best describes a short bone?

12. Which statement best describes a flat bone?

15. What type of bone is a vertebra?

16. Which of the following is not a cranial bone?

18. What type of bone is the sphenoid bone?

19. What structure protects the pituitary gland?

20. Which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

21. What is a sinus?

23. What are sinuses lined with?

25. How many bones make up the adult spinal column?

28. What is the most common abnormal curvature of the spine?

29. Which statement correctly describes kyphosis?

30. Which term describes an exaggerated curvature of the lumbar vertebrae?

32. What is the function of the vertebral foramen?

36. How many cervical vertebrae are in the spinal column?

37. How many thoracic vertebrae are in the spinal column?

38. Which type of vertebrae has costal facets?

39. What allows the ribs to attach to the thoracic vertebrae?

40. How many lumbar vertebrae are in the spinal column?

42. What part of the sternum can be broken during CPR?

44. Which statement is false regarding the hyoid bone?

48. What is the proximal long bone of the arm?

49. What is the function of the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus?

51. Which bones are long bones of the forearm?

52. Which of the following bones are located in the hand?

55. What is the function of the pubic symphysis?

56. What is the proximal long bone of the leg?

57. Which bone articulates with the femur at the knee?

58. Tarsal bones are bones of the what?

62. What is the function of hydroxyapatite in bone?

63. What are osteoblasts?

64. What are osteoclasts?

67. What type of bone is dense and highly organized?

68. Which statement is false regarding cancellous bone?

69. Which of the following is not a feature of compact bone?

70. What type of cartilage covers the ends of long bones?

72. What type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral disks?

74. Which of the following describes the periosteum?

75. What part of the long bone is a source of osteoblasts?

77. Which statement about red bone marrow is false?

79. Which type of joint has a joint cavity?

81. Which statement is false regarding rheumatoid arthritis?

82. What is ankylosis?

83. Which statement is false regarding mineral deposition in bone?

84. Which statement about intramembranous ossification is false?

85. Which statement about endochondral ossification is true?

90. Which gland secrets calcitonin?

94. What type of fracture causes a crack in the bone?

95. Which of the following is true about closed reduction?

97. Which statement regarding x-rays is false?

100. All of the following conditions affect the joints except: