1.

Which of the following bones are part of

the axial skeleton?
A. Vomer D. Parietal
B. Clavicle E. Coxal bone (hip
C. Sternum bone)
2. A blow to the cheek is most likely to break
what superficial bone or bone part?
A. Superciliary arches
B. Zygomatic process
C. Mandibular ramus
D. Styloid process
3. Which of the following are part of the
sphenoid?
A. Crista galli D. Pterygoid process
B. Sella turcica E. Lesser wings
C. Petrous portion
4. Structural characteristics of all cervical vertebrae
are:
A. small body.
B. bifid spinous process.
C. transverse foramina.
D. small vertebral foramen.
E. costal facets.
5. Which of the following cartilages is involved
in endochondral ossification?
A. Fibrocartilage C. Elastic
B. Synovial D. Hyaline
6. Coxal bone (hip bone) markings include:
A. ala. D. pubic ramus.
B. sacral hiatus. E. fovea capitis.
C. gluteal surface.
7. Cartilaginous joints include:
A. syndesmoses. C. synostoses.
B. symphyses. D. synchondroses.
8. Considered to be part of a synovial joint are:
A. bursae. C. tendon sheath.
B. articular cartilage. D. capsular
Ligaments

9. Abduction is:
A. moving the right arm out to the right.
B. spreading out the fingers.
C. wiggling the toes.
D. moving the sole of the foot laterally.
10.In comparing two joints of the same type,
 what characteristic(s) would you use to
determine strength and flexibility?
A. Depth of the depression of the concave
bone of the joint
B. Snugness of fit of the bones
C. Size of bone projections for muscle
attachments
D. Presence of menisci
11. Which of the following joints has the greatest
freedom of movement?
A. Interphalangeal
B. Saddle joint of thumb
C. Distal tibiofibular
D. Coxal (hip)
12.Which specific joint does the following
description identify? “Articular surfaces are
deep and secure, multiaxial; capsule heavily
reinforced by ligaments; labrum helps prevent
dislocation; the first joint to be built
artificially; very stable.”
A. Elbow C. Knee
B. Hip D. Shoulder
13. An autoimmune disease resulting in inflammation
and eventual fusion of diarthrotic
joints is:
A. gout.
B. rheumatoid arthritis.
C. degenerative joint disease.
D. pannus.
14.Plane joints allow:
A. pronation. C. rotation.
B. flexion. D. gliding.

15.Which of these is part of the appendicular skeleton?

a. cranium c. clavicle e. vertebra
b. ribs d. sternum
16.A knoblike projection on a bone is called a
c. spine. c. tuberosity. e. ramus.
d. facet. d. sulcus.
17.The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the form
C. the nasal septum.
e. palatine process of the maxilla c. vomer e. lacrimal bone
f. horizontal plate of the palatine d. nasal bone
18.Which of these bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?
g. ethmoid c. frontal e. maxilla
 h. sphenoid d. temporal
19.The mandible articulates with the skull at the
i. styloid process. c. mandibular fossa. e. medial pterygoid.
j. occipital condyle. d. zygomatic arch.
20.The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the
k. cribriform plate. d. optic canal.
l. nasolacrimal canal. e. orbital fissure.
m. internal auditory canal.
21.The major blood supply to the brain enters through the
n. foramen magnum. d. Both a and b are correct.
o. carotid canals. e. All of these are correct.
p. jugular foramina.
22.The site of the sella turcica is the
q. sphenoid bone. c. frontal bone. e. temporal bone.
r. maxillae. d. ethmoid bone.
23.Which of these bones is not in contact with the sphenoid bone?
s. maxilla d. parietal
t. inferior nasal concha e. vomer
u. ethmoid

24. A herniated disk occurs when

a. the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
b. the intervertebral disk slips out of place.
c. the spinal cord ruptures.
d. too much fluid builds up in the nucleus pulposus.
e. All of these are correct.

25. The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the

a. vertebral arch. d. transverse process.
b. articular process. e. spinous process.
c. body.

26. Transverse foramina are found only in

a. cervical vertebrae. d. the sacrum.
b. thoracic vertebrae. e. the coccyx.
c. lumbar vertebrae.

27. Which of these statements concerning ribs is correct?

a. The true ribs attach directly to the sternum with costal cartilage.
b. There are five pairs of floating ribs.
c. The head of the rib attaches to the transverse process of the
vertebra.
d. Ribs 8–10 are classified as true ribs.
e. Floating ribs do not attach to vertebrae.
28. The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the
a. coracoid process. c. glenoid cavity. e. capitulum.
b. styloid process. d. acromion process.

29. The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the
a. epicondyle. c. malleolus. e. trochlea.
b. deltoid tuberosity. d. capitulum.

30. Which of these is not a point of muscle attachment on the pectoral

girdle or upper limb?
a. epicondyles c. radial tuberosity e. greater tubercle

31. The bone(s) of the foot on which the tibia rests is (are) the
a. talus. c. metatarsal bones. e. phalanges.
b. calcaneus. d. navicular.

32. The projection on the hip bone of the pelvic girdle that is used as a
landmark for finding an injection site is the
a. ischial tuberosity. d. posterior inferior iliac spine.
b. iliac crest. e. ischial spine.
c. anterior superior iliac spine.

33. When comparing the pectoral girdle with the pelvic girdle, which of
these statements is correct?
a. The pectoral girdle has greater mass than the pelvic girdle.
b. The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the
pectoral girdle.
c. The pectoral girdle has the limbs more securely attached than the
pelvic girdle.
d. The pelvic girdle allows greater mobility than the pectoral girdle.

34. When comparing a male pelvis with a female pelvis, which of these
statements is correct?
a. The pelvic inlet in males is larger and more circular.
b. The subpubic angle in females is less than 90 degrees.
c. The ischial spines in males are closer together.
d. The sacrum in males is broader and less curved.

35. A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the
a. greater trochanter.
b. epicondyle.
c. greater tubercle.
d. intercondylar eminence.
e. condyle.