FIRST SEMESTER QUESTION BANK

HUMAN ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY 1

1. ANATOMICAL POSITION IS:

A. Lying straight in a supine position with the arms by the side and both legs
tightly closed together
B. Standing upright, facing forward, arms abducted with pals facing forward and
feet slightly apart.
C. Standing upright, facing forward, arms at the sides with palms facing forward
and feet slightly apart.
D. Standing upright, facing forward, arms at the sides with palms facing forward
and feet everted.
2. Lying on the back, with face up is:
A. Anterior position
B. Prone position
C. Supine position
D. Ventral position
3. Which of the following is part of the AXIAL body?
A. Cervical vertebra
B. Pectoral girdle
C. Pedal (foot)
D. Pelvic girdle
4. The body has two major cavities; the DORSAL CAVITY and the:
A. Anterolateral cavity
B. Cranial cavity
C. Posterior cavity
D. Ventral cavity
5. The abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities make up the:
A. Anterior cavity
B. Cranial cavity
C. Dorsal cavity
D. Posterior cavity
6. A large dome-shaped respiratory muscle that DIFFERENTIATES the
thoracic cavity from the abdominal one is:
A. Deltoid
B. Detrusor
C. Diaphragm
D. External oblique
 7. The …………. is the membrane that lines the entire abdominal wall, and the
mesentery is the continuation of this membrane, folded around and covering
the outer surfaces of the abdominal organs:
A. Pericardial
B. Peritoneum
C. Plasmalemma
D. Pleura
8. A plane from front to back separates the body into right and left portions
called:
A. Coronal section
B. Cross-sectional section
C. Sagittal section
D. Transverse section
9. A plane from side to side separates the body into front and back portions is:
A. Coronal section
B. Cross-sectional
C. Sagittal section
D. Transverse section
10. One of these is NOT a viscus of the right lower quadrant:
A. Appendix
B. Caecum
C. Part of ascending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
11. ONE of these can be found in the left hypochondriac region:
A. Ascending colon
B. Gall bladder
C. Liver
D. Spleen
12. Eukaryotic cells have:
I. True nucleus,
II. Organelles,
III. More complex,
IV. No nucleus

A. I, II & III
B. I, II & IV
C. IV ONLY
D. None of the above
13. The main functions of cell include EXCEPT
A. Get rid of wastes
B. Metabolize
C. Respond to stimulus
D. None of the above
14. The outer boundary of a cell that is a fragile barrier that regulate the passage
of substances into and out of it is called:
 A. Cell organelle
B. Cellulose cell wall
C. Cytoplasm
D. Plasmalemma
15. Process in which membrane engulfs minute droplets of fluid from the
extracellular environment is:
A. Exocytosis
B. Mitosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
16. The process in which membrane engulfs solid particles from the extracellular
environment is:
A. Exocytosis
B. Mitosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. Pinocytosis
17. Glucose entering cell attached to carrier protein with energy source carrier
and molecular motion is:
A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Filtration
C. Osmosis
D. Simple diffusion
18. The glucose and amino acids move through membranes by the use of cellular
energy Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is:
A. Active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Filtration
D. Simple diffusion
19. ONE of the following functions as releasing energy from food molecules and
transform energy into usable ATP.
A. Mitochondrion
B. Nucleus
C. Ribosomes
D. Vacuoles
20. Organelles of cells that synthesize proteins are called:
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes
21. ONE of the following processes produce haploid cells:
A. Endocytosis
B. Fertilization
C. Meiosis
D. Mitosis
22. ONE of the following is produced from meiotic process:
A. Embryo
 B. Foetus
C. Ovum
D. Zygote
23. The MOST abundant mineral of the bone is the:
A. Calcium
B. Iodine
C. Magnesium
D. Phosphorous
24. The process of bone formation is called:
A. Calcification
B. Mineralization
C. Ossification
D. Osteocytosis
25. Bone develops from a:
A. Cartilage
B. Chondrocytes
C. Mesenchyme
D. None of the above
26. Angiogenesis occurs in bone formation between the ………… spaces.
A. Alveoli
B. Osteomere
C. Synaptic
D. Trabecular
27. All of the following factors affect growth and maintenance of bone EXCEPT:
A. Exercise
B. Hormones
C. Nutrition
D. None of the above
28. The red bone marrow produces these cells EXCEPT:
A. Erythrocytes
B. Leucocytes
C. Osteocytes
D. Thrombocytes
29. Which of the following is an example of sesamoid bone?
A. Calcaneus
B. Hallux
C. Hyoid
D. Patella
30. The radius is ………….. to the ulna:
A. Anterior
B. Lateral
C. Medial
D. Posterior

31. The head of the humerus fixes into the:

 A. Acetabulum
B. Cranial cavity
C. Glenoid cavity
D. Intrathecal cavity
32. The joints/fusion of the cranial bones are called:
A. Bregma
B. Fontanelle
C. Gomphosis
D. Sutures
33. The cervical vertebrae has ……….. vertebrae.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 12
D. 14
34. The last TWO ribs are termed:
A. False ribs
B. Filament ribs
C. Floating ribs
D. True ribs
35. The cervical and lumbar vertebrae are ………….. in nature.
A. Kypho-scoliotic
B. Kyphotic
C. Lordotic
D. Scoliotic
36. Between the coccyx and the sacrum, which one is proximal?
A. Coccyx
B. Sacrum
C. All the above
D. None of the above
37. Which of the following is NOT part of the carpals?
A. Calcaneus
B. Lunate
C. Scaphoid
D. Triquetrum
38. Knocking knees are termed:
A. Genu femoral
B. Genu patella
C. Genu valgum
D. Genu varum
39. ONE of the following is NOT part of the innominate bone:
A. Ileum
B. Ilium
C. Ischium
D. Pubis
40. The union of the THREE innominate bones form the:
A. Acetabulum
B. Cranial cavity
C. Cuff cavity
D. Glenoid cavity

41. Which of the following is referred to as the normal female pelvis?

A. Android
B. Anthropoid
C. Gynaecoid
D. Platypelloid
42. Smooth muscles of the urinary bladder is called:
A. Detrusor
B. Diaphragm
C. Dorsalis
D. Dupuytren’s
43. Which bone forms the medial malleolus?
A. Fibula
B. Peroneal
C. Tibia
D. Ulna
44. The following joints are also called synarthrodial joints:
A. Cartilagenous
B. Fibrous
C. Symphyseal
D. Synovial
45. Kwesi developed a transverse fracture in the right midshaft of the tibio-fibula
bone. The sole of the foot was found to be outward towards the lateral side.
This is termed:
A. Eversion
B. Inversion
C. Rotation
D. Supination.
46. The COMMONEST type of fracture in long bones of children is:
A. Comminuted
B. Compound
C. Green-stick
D. Simple
47. Extra-pulmonary tuberculosis infection of the spine is also called
A. Gout’s disease
B. Hansen’s disease
C. Pott’s disease
D. Smith’s disease
48. A 19-year old was struck on the right shoulder. For about 5 days the lady is
unable to elevate the ipsilateral scapula. The muscle affected is referred to as:
A. Cuff muscles
B. Depressor scapulae
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Levator scapula

49. Which of the following intercostal muscles elevate the ribs during
inspiration?
A. External intercostals
B. Infra-intercostals
C. Internal intercostals
D. Supra-intercostals
50. The muscle group of the posterior femur are called:
A. Gracilis
B. Harmstrings
C. Quadriceps
D. Rotator Cuff
51. During an investigation on a cadaver that underwent putrefaction, this bone
was NOT found after arranging thinking there is no more articulating point:
A. Femur
B. Humerus
C. Hyoid
D. Ulna
52. Infarction occurs after there is irreversible change in circulation through:
A. Infection
B. Infusion
C. Ischaemia
D. Necrosis
53. The heart starts beating at the end of the ………………. of fertilization.
A. 13th day
B. 13th week
C. 3rd month
D. 3rd week
54. Which vessels carry blood from the heart to the body?
A. Arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Foramen ovale
D. Veins
55. The formed elements of the blood include erythrocytes, leucocytes and
A. Basophils
B. Granulocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Thrombocytes
56. In blood clotting mechanism, fibrinogen is converted to ………….. to form a
mesh work:
A. Blood clot
B. Elastin
C. Fibrin
D. None
57. The RBCs have high affinity for oxygen due to the presence of:
A. Haemoglobin
B. Myoglobin
C. Oxyhaemoglobin
D. Plasma
58. The total blood volume in the average-sized adult is about ………,
constituting about 8% of the total body weight.
A. 5 litres
B. 50 litres
C. 500mls
D. 50mls
59. Blood has a viscosity that ranges between 4.5 and 5.5. which is thicker than
water that has a viscosity of:
A. 0.01
B. 0.1
C. 1.0
D. 100
60. Blood group B has antibody:
A. A
B. AB
C. B
D. None
61. Blood group A is compatible with A and:
A. AB
B. B
C. O
D. None
62. A patient with blood group B rhesus Negative (B-) can receive blood from:
A. A-
B. AB
C. O-
D. O+
63. The BEST donor to recipients is the one with blood group:
A. A
B. AB
C. O-
D. O+
64. The left chamber of the heart whose wall of the ventricle is thicker than the
right has atrioventricular valves called:
A. Aortic valves
B. Bicuspid
C. Tricuspid
D. Unicuspid

65. When the heart is found in the right chamber of the chest is termed:
A. Dextrocardia
B. Levocardia
C. Retrocardia
D. Retrosternocardia

66. One of the following carries deoxygenated (CO2) blood from the heart to the
lungs for exchange of gases.
A. Carotid arteries.
B. Jugular veins
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Pulmonary veins
67. It is during …………….. that the heart receives oxygenated blood via the
coronary arteries.
A. Adiastole
B. Asystole
C. Diastole
D. Systole
68. Which of the layers of the heart is responsible for the contraction of the
heart?
A. Endocardium
B. Epicardium
C. Myocardium
D. Pericardium
69. The oxygenated blood returns to the left atrium of the heart via:
A. Coronary arteries
B. Coronary sinuses
C. Pulmonary arteries
D. Pulmonary veins
70. When the ventricular walls contract, blood flows for systemic circulation
through the:
A. Ascending aorta
B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Pulmonary vein
D. None of the above
71. The FIRST heart sound, “lubb” is by the closure of the:
A. Aortic valve
B. Atrioventricular valves
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Semilunar valves
72. The SECOND heart sound, “dubb” is by the closure of the:
A. Atrioventricular valves
B. Mitral valves
C. Semilunar valves
D. Tricuspid valves
73. The cardiac cycle ends when the heart:
A. Constricts
B. Contracts
C. Relaxes
D. Restricts

74. The veins carry the following EXCEPT:

a. De oxygenated blood.
b. oxygenated blood.
c. Dark red blood.
d. A & B.

75. This about second heart sounds is not correct

a. It splits occasionally.
b. It is due to the closure of semilunar valve.
c. Indicates the beginning of diastole.
d. It has a longer duration than its first sound.

76. The ventricles contracts because it receives impulses directly from.?

a. AV node.
b. Bundle of its.
c. Right and left bundle brain.
d. Purkinje fibres.

77. P wave on an ECG strip indicates

a. Depolarization of the right ventricle
b. Depolarization of the left ventricle
c. Depolarization of both Atria.
d. Resitting membrane.

78. Ventricular muscle contraction is the shown on the ECG strip as;
a. P R interval.
b. P wave
c. U wave.
 d. QRS complex.

79. The cardiac muscle of the heart is the

a. Epicardium.
b. Endocardium.
c. Pericardium.
d. Myocardium.

80. The cardiac valves are held in position by;

a. Collagen fibres.
b. Endothelium.
c. Tendinous cords.
d. Suspensory ligament.

81. The Rate generated by the S A nodes is between.?

a. 70 – 90 bpm.
b. 50- 100 bpm.
c. 100- 120 bpm.
d. 60 - 100 pm.

82. Which vessels is responsible for distributing blood systematically?

a. Pulmonary artery.
b. Pulmonary vein.
c. The Aorta.
d. Right ventricle.

83. The blood vessels with venous blood proceeding from the right ventricle to the left
are the;
a. Vena cava.
b. Aorta.
c. Pulmonary arteries.
d. Pulmonary veins.

84. Impulses generated from the S A nodes is located in the;

a. Right atrium.
b. Left atrium.
c. Right ventricles.
d. Left ventricles.

85. Which parameters can be used to calculate the amount of blood ventricles ejected
from the left ventricles.
a. Heart rate and blood pressure.
b. Stroke volume and heart rate.
 c. Stroke volume and circulating blood volume.
d. Cardiac output and heart rate.

86. The bell of the stethoscope is used for:

a. Amplifying low pitch sounds
b. Decreasing high pitch sounds.
c. Assessing pulse.
d. Assessing cardiac output.

87. Which system describes systematic circulation.

a. Left ventricle – Aorta – Arteries – Veins – Capillaries.
b. Left ventricle – Aorta – Arteries - Capillaries – veins.
c. Right ventricles – Pulmonary trunk – Arteries – Capillaries – veins.
d. Right ventricles – Pulmonary trunk- Arteries – Veins – Capillaries.

88. The Right Atrioventricular valve is known as;

a. Scurilum valve.
b. Bicuspid valve.
c. Pulmonary valve.
d. Tricuspid valve.

89. This system itself repels invasion by the microorganisms is;

a. Immune system.
b. Musculoskeletal system.
c. Cardiovascular system.
d. Nervous system.

90. The volume of fluid in the body is maintained within the normal range by the;
a. Renal system.
b. Respiratory system.
c. Gastrointestinal system.
d. Cardiovascular system.

91. Which of these are not type of blood cell,

a. Thrombocytes.
b. Erythrocytes.
c. Leucocytes.
d. Myocytes.

92. Lymphocytes are involved in the body’s defence mechanisms and are comprised of;
a. Natural killer cells.
b. T- Cells.
c. All of these.
 d. B-Cells.

93. The lymphatic system consists of the following except;

a. Blood.
b. Lymph nodes.
c. Lymphatic vessels.
d. Lymph.

94. Which of the following applies to the thoracic duct?

a. It drains the entire body above the diaphragm.
b. It supplies its content into the subclavian vein.
c. It drains blood into the lymphatic system.
d. It drains for the heart.

95. The fluid that passes through the lymphatic vessels;

a. Moves in a single direction towards the heart.
b. Flows towards the lungs.
c. Passes from the lymphatic vessels to the arteries.
d. Enters the left ventricles of the heart through the right thoracic duct.

96. Lymph is mainly composed of;

a. Blood and hormones.
b. Enzymes and plasma.
c. Proteins and glucose.
d. Lymph nodes and lymph vessels.

97. The T and B lymphocytes are the major cells of the;

a. Lymph nodes.
b. Lymph vessels.
c. Adrenal gland.
d. Thymus.

98. Approximately how many lymph nodes are located in the body.?
a. 500
b. 800
c. 600
d. 250

99. The movement of the fluid through the lymphatic vessels is assisted by;
a. Pressure from the right ventricle.
b. Pressure of contracting skeletal muscles.
c. Movement of the red blood cells.
d. Fluids within the interstitial spaces.
100. Where is the spleen situated.?
a. Abdominal cavity.
b. Pelvic cavity.
c. Thoracic cavity.
d. In the neck.

101. One of the following is not a lymphatic organ.

a. Appendix.
b. Ilium
c. Thymus.
d. Tonsils.

102. The structure of the lymphatic system present in the intestine are called.
a. Villi.
b. Payers match.
c. Chyle.
d. Lacteals.

103. The lymphatic fluid returning from the small intestine is rich in;
a. Protein.
b. Calcium.
c. Fats.
d. Phosphorus.

104. Which of the following is not a type of blood circulation in the human body
a. Lymphatic Circulation
b. Portal Circulation
c. Pulmonary Circulation
d. Fetal Circulation

105. What is the name of the valve that separates the left atrium and the left
ventricle
a. Tricuspid Valve
b. Mitral valve
c. Aortic valve
d. Pulmonary Valve

106. All the following relate superiorly to the heart except

a. Superior Vena Cava
b. Pulmonary veins
 c. Diaphragm
d. Pulmonary veins

107. In Stenosis of heart valves, the valves become

a. Incompetent
b. Stiff
c. Loose
d. Hard
108. The sino-atrial node is also known as
a. S.A Node
b. Pacemaker
c. Sinus rhythm
d. Junction node

109. The layer of blood vessel which touches the blood in the lumen is
a. Tunica media
b. Tunica intima
c. Tunica magma
d. Tunica externa

110. The flow of blood back to the heart in the veins is made possible by
contraction of skeletal muscles around the veins and…….
a. Heartbeat
b. Blood pressure
c. Valves in veins
d. Drainage under gravity

111. The liver sinusoids are a special kind of

a. Vein
b. Arteries
c. Arterioles
d. Capillaries

112. The right ventricular outflow tract is the

a. Aorta
b. Pulmonary trunk
c. Superior vena cava
d. Lungs

113. The common carotid artery bifurcates into the internal and external carotid
at the
a. Carotid sinus
 b. Carotid body
c. Baroreceptors
d. Chemoreceptors
114. The pace-maker of the heart is the:
A. Atrioventricular bundle
B. Purkinje fibre
C. Sinoatrial node
D. Ventricular node
115. Which structure transports rich oxygenated blood from the placenta to
the foetus?
A. Ductus arterosus
B. Ductus venosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Umbilical vein
116. Tunica interna is composed of:
A. Connective tissues
B. Epithelial tissues
C. Smooth muscles and elastin
D. Squamous epithelium and elastin
117. The external/adventitial and medial layers of this vessel is thicker than
the rest:
A. Arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Veins
D. All the above
118. Which of the following vessels have valves to prevent regurgitation of
blood flow?
A. Arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Nerves
D. Veins

119. The lymphatic system has the following principal functions EXCEPT:
A. Fluid overload
B. Fluid recovery
C. Immunity
D. Lipid absorption
120. The vessels that sends fluids into lymph nodes are the:
A. Afferent
B. Affluence
C. Efferent
D. Effluence

121. The T-lymphocytes are also called T-cells because they are:
A. Thymic-dependent
 B. Time-dependent
C. Tissue-dependent
D. Tough-dependent
122. Dendritic cells are Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs) found in the
lymphatic tissues, mucous membranes and:
A. Epidermis
B. Fascia
C. Reticular cells
D. Spleen
123. Lymph from the lower part of the body drains through the thoracic duct
into the left subclavian vein from the:
A. Cisterna chyli
B. Coronary chyli
C. Inferior vena chyli
D. Superior vena chyli
124. The urinary system plays a vital part in maintaining ……………… of
water and electrolyte concentrations within the body.
A. Homeostasis
B. Metabolism
C. Recovery
D. Vital signs
125. One of the following hormones stimulates formation of RBCs:
A. Calcitonin
B. Erythrocytes
C. Erythropoietin
D. Renin
126. The functional units of the renal system is the:
A. Bowmann’s capsule
B. Calyx
C. Nephron
D. Pyramid

127. The 3 main parts of the nephron are proximal convoluted tubule,
medullary loop and:
A. Collecting ducts
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Glomerulus
D. Loop of Henle
128. The proximal arteriole has a larger diameter than the distal arteriole,
which increases pressure inside the glomerulus. This arteriole is called:
A. Afferent
B. Efferent
C. Effluence
D. Inferrent
129. Renal blood flow is protected by a mechanism called ……………….
whereby renal blood flow is maintained at a constant pressure across a wide
range of systolic blood pressures.
A. Autofiltration
 B. Autoregulation
C. Haemostatsis
D. Homeostasis
130. What hormone is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland that
increases the permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting tubules,
increasing water reabsorption?
A. Aldosterone
B. Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH)
C. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
D. Oxytocin
131. In diabetes mellitus when the blood glucose level is above the transport
maximum of the renal tubules, excess water is excreted with the excess glucose.
This is termed:
A. Polydipsia
B. Polyphagia
C. Polyresis
D. Polyuria
132. Which of the following part of the nephron is found in the medulla?
A. Bowmann’s capsule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
133. The average male urethra is about 18 to 20cm long whiles female is about:
A. 14 – 16 cm
B. 2- 4 cm
C. 4 – 6 cm
D. 6 – 10 cm
134. In adults, urine is passed when the urinary bladder muscle contracts, and
there is reflex relaxation of the internal sphincter and voluntary ……….. of the
external sphincter.
A. Constriction
B. Contraction
C. Relaxation
D. Restriction
135. Involuntary loss of urine is called:
A. Continence
B. Enuresis
C. Incontinence
D. Micturition
136. The MAIN characteristics of nephrotic syndrome are: marked
proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperlipidaemia and:
A. Generalised oedema
B. Haematuria.
C. Hypertension
D. Polyuria
137. The largest organ of the human body that has a surface area of 1.5 to 2m2
in adult is the:
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Stomach
 D. Urinary bladder
138. Sensory receptors (specialised nerve endings) sensitive to touch,
temperature, pressure and pain are widely distributed in the:
A. Adipose
B. Dermis
C. Epidermis
D. Fascia
139. The MOST important function of sweat, is in the regulation of:
A. Body temperature.
B. Concentration of ions
C. Electrolyte balance
D. Water balance
140. Contraction of these structures make the hair stand erect and raises the
skin around the hair, causing ‘goose flesh’:
A. Arrector pilli
B. Meissner’s corpuscle.
C. Sebaceous glands
D. Sweat gland