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Pan

Aakash
Cowate cce: Aakash lowes Pusa Rod ew Oetu 11000s
PhOL4t623456
Q N E E
B T
R Ò K E R 1

MM:720 Tennt wn2024COYMI1)TEO5A

Topics Coverod
eot. Lectromaghec Waves
PhyaicsElectoneteUcON\et &LIkockieets C0odiabon
Botany.Sraeoest Fosns F Producon, Mcrobes in Humn Wellare
@N

Zoology: Human Heahi& Diseave

EE

General Instructions :
attetall 35 pstions om
There are vo sectons in each sutect, Le SectionA& Sect
SecionA& only 10 questions fom Secson i out of 1S all be deduced tom te kotl score
T_

2 Each quesion carries 4 marks For eveny g n

4. Mark should be dark and complesely Mi to Cic

5. Dark only one rcle lot each enty
in matekad on ib
BR

6.Dark the circle in the space provva do notue wise Bukd or any oter
.Rough work muss not be done ont
Answer sheet
OK

p A 2 4 P 1 T E O 5 A )

PHYSICS
ER

SECTON A

2. oencal induckors are connecled as

LCR Senes circuiL te circut The equlvalent
1

n
of circuit is # he
csace beteeen points Aand 0is
he
e

(0) 1ymes
330
times
(3) (P)
times

(4) 4 smes
Termtsarm2024CF0YMI
A circla
PL)HIOSA
resianceconducg
cot of
Ris placed in ds e vrng
heng
Vanverse unr sgpesc Seie6a
shown in the fgure The d g e h y en dga
Smet2ss(ooner cuet
n te col
lqses in
un)

D N E E T _
() 10 volt
B R O K E R 1

100 v
@N

ng
EE
T_

naenarg onent of Spdwi arglur

Cocase
rnd a 050 f capacE
The RMS vslue of persal drop aaoss e T) Firstcockatse ten ansdocaise
BR

(4) Zero

Energy sored in a pure inducaor ef

OK

inductane L when a current fows rough

N 2 3 2 4 P 1 T E O S A )

Fend e loing
ER

he cameG opson.
Statement A induced ty
agnesc ea
po by thangnagnesc Sed,in which
1

ecol is byng
hsteents Aand Bare u 10 dpowsLK
AWue bBis false led
3Bsue thut Ais false (3) Xys
9 Bot stemets Aand Bare fale (2) Uya volet cays
Mao waes
& The pesad of sn AC source conneced in
seres wh an induonr of inducance La
capecf of capacitanca C snd a resistor of
e V e (5 sin voL Curent in and are he two half power angular
nd is angular resonant
au s 2sin (ut+ )noc he equency of an LCR Sernes circCuit hen
din he orcut be
select incorect relason
(2-band wid
 ermExam2 024CF+OYM(PL)-TE05A

12 An AC source ol 25 von. b0 Hz is appled

across C-R sernes Circut as shown, If voltaoe 5 L-R series circuit is
across resistance s c0 VoIt, then volta0e shown, the energy
stored in inductor long time
across capacitor is key is after cdosing the
+20 V’ 24 Q L=100 mH
-6006
R

V=12V
25 V, 60 Hz (Y 125 mJ
(2) 12.5 J
(1) 20 V 2 (3) 25 mJ
(2) 15 V (4) 25 J
(3) 25 V
(4) 40 V 16. Magnetic Mux is
changing hrough a closed
@N

circuit as function of time as o (4 -3

A light bulb and an inductor coil are 6)Wb, The
13. resistance of circuit is 109. The
connected to an ac source through a key as indyced current at 0.5 second is
shown in the figure below. The key is closed ) 0.1A
EE

and after sometime an iron rod is

inserted
into the interior of the inductor. The glow
(2) 0.2 A
of (3) 0.3A
the light bulb
hoo (4) 0.4 A
T_

17. The current passing through a choke coil of St

self inductance 0.5 H is decreasing at the
rate of 12 A/s. The emt developed across the
Coil is
BR

(1) 0.6 V
(2) 6V
(1) increases (3) 10 V
(2) decreases
OK

(4) 12 V
(3) remains unchanged
(4) will fuctuate 18, An ideal transformer has 50 turns in its
primary winding and25 turns in its
ER

14 In the circuit shown, the current through sccondary winding. M the current in the
secondary winding in 4 A what is the current
battery just after switch is closed is
62 20 V in primary winding if a 200 VAC is applied
across it?
(1) 4A
1

32 (2) 24
(3) 3 A
(4) 8A

19. A 50 Hz a.c. current of peak value 2 A lows

w
42
through one of the pair of coils. It the mutual
inductance between pair of coils is 150 mH,
(1) A then peak value of voltage induced in the
1 second coil is

(2) 2 A (1) 20nV

(2) 30n V
(3) 4 A (3) 40n V
(4) 2A (4) 10n V
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TE05A
circuit in which
20 A uniform conducting rod of length / is 24 Consider a series L-R
100S2When
moing with speed Vo in a uniform L=H and resistance R= 220 V,
tansverse magnetic feld Bo as shown in to ac source
fhgure. The emf developed across the the circuit is connected from the source is
ends of the rod will be wo 50 Hz. The current drawn
"A B (1) 1.1/2A
(2) Zero

(3) A
(1) Bovo and A is at (4) /2A
higher potential
(2) Bovo and Bis at
higher potenial
(3) Bly and 25. Emf applied and current in an AC circuit are
Bis at higher potential E= 10/2 sin wt Volt and
(4) Bnl i 5/2 cos wt ampere respectively.
and A is at higher potential Average power loss in the circuit is
(1) 50 W
21. Radiaton of energy E falls normally on a (2) 25 Ww
@N

pertecty relecting surface. The momentum

transterred to the surface is (3) w
(1) Ec (4) Zero
(2) 2E/c
EE

(3) Ec 26 Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given

(4) EI2 by V =5sin(100nt )V and

I =4sin(100xt + ) A, hence
T_

22 fa square conducing loop is taken out from

region of uniform magnetic field with (1)_Woltage leads the current by 30
speed v as shown in figure. Then direction of (2) Current leads the voltage by 30
induced current in the loop will be
(3) Current leads the voltage by 60
BR

(4) Voltage leads the current by 60

B
X 27. A ransformer having
efficiency of 906 is
OK

working on 200 Vand 3 kW power supg

X the current in the secondary coil is Supply.
ne
voltage across the secondary coil and the
X Current in the primary coil respectively are
(1) 300 V, 15 A<
ER

(2) 450 V, 15A

(1) Clockwise
(2) Antdockwise
(3) 450 V,35 A
(4)
(3) Depending speed of loop
1

on
(4) No current will induce 28. For the series LCR circuit shown in hgure
23. the resonance frequency and the amplitude
The average power of current at resonant frequency are
inductor in one completedissipation
cycle
in pure
is (symbols respectively
have usual meaning) 8 mH
(1) 2L2
(2) Zero
2220 V 20 f
3 0 0 0

(4) Li?
44 n
(1) 2500 rad/s and 5A
(2) 250 rad/s and
5V2 A
(3) 2500 rad/s and A
(4) 2500 rad/s and
5/2 A
 AermExam2024CF+0YM(P1)-TEO5A

field
29, The electrid
omagnetic wave is B-=
associated witth
electromi (100 NIC) sin 32. n an electromagnetic wave
(300 10-r)k
with this
then magnetic field root mean square value of the
ee space the
1ssocialed
|Alt units are
solectromagnetic wave i
in Sl unitl
Ems 6 Vim,
magneic fheld is
The peak Cheld is
of the
(1) 141 108
()-(x10 "T) sin(300 10 z)i (2) 2 83 10# T
2)(x10T) sin(300- 10 ); (3) o 70 10 T
(4) 423 10
(9)-(}x 10 "T) sin (3000- 10 )j
(4)( x 10 *T) sin(300t-10 )j 33. A 200 watt
rot
bulb is connected in secondary
efficiency of traennected at 400 volt.
s 80% and the buth
a Is running wit
HAlternabng Current in a
circuit is given
peak power then, the
osin(100n), then ime taken
by the
Current in primay coil is
1o change
lis in ame zero to peak value willcurrent
(Here (1) A
ampere and tis in second)
(1 200
(9)A
@N

(2)
(3) 100
(4)A
(4) I 34. Amagnetic Mux of 8 10 weber is linked
EE

with eacth turn of coil h

nen
here is an electric curteont in it. Seltf
31. Light with average flux of 50 Wlcm falls inductance of the coil is
normally on non-reflecing surtace at normal (1) 80 mH
T_

incident having surtace area 10 cm. The (2) 160 mH

energy received by the surface during time (3) 32 mH
span of one minutes is (4) 40 mH
(1) 10 J
BR

(2) 3 x 10 J .35. Unit of inductance is

(1) volvampere
(3) 6 x 1o J
(4) 5 x 10 J (2) joulelampere
OK

(3) volt-second/armpere
Lx o

(4) volt-amperelsecond
Y M Z S 2 4 F
ER

SECTION-B
1

38
36. At an instant, magnetic field at a point due to The electric field associated with e.m wave
vacuum is given by
an electromagnetic wave is along x axis ancnd in
electric field is along y axis. The direction E= i 40 cos (kz -6x 10°)| where E.
propagaion of the wave is along Z and t are in vol/m, meter and seconds

(1) Positive z axis respectively. The value of wave veclor K is

(2) Negaive z axis (1) 2 m1
(3) Positive y axis (2) 0.5 m
(4) Negative x axis (3) 6m
(4) 3 m1
varies with
37. The voltage of an A.C supply
cos 50t. The
50xt
time (0 as V= 60 sin trequency
maximum voltage and
respectively are Vbo
(1) 30 V, 50 Hz
Hz
(2) 60 V., 100
(3) 60 V, 50 Hz
(4) 60/2 v, 50 Hz
 Termtxam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TEOSA index of the
transparent
refractive usual
Dimensional tormula of (LI is (where Lis 43. The symbols have their
inductance and i is current) medium f all
(1) (M² L T² A) meaning] is
(2) M'L21 ()
(3) (MLoT° A)
(2)
V Hafo
40. In
(3
the given network, the
inductance between X and Yequivalent (4
approximately
circuit)
(neglect mutual inductance in be

44, When a plane electrormagnetic wave travels

in vacuum the average electric fheld energy
density is given tby (here Eo is the arnplitude
of the electric held of the wave)
X
(1) eE,
(2) }eE7
@N

(3) 6g E
(1) 15 H
(2) 3.3H
(4) 2eoE
EE

(3) 4.4H
45. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in
(4) 1.1H series with an alternating voltage source of
frequency f. The current leads the voltage by
41. Aconducing rod of length l is rotating about 60. The value of (XC- XL ) is
T_

point P inna uniform transverse (1) 2R

fheld Bo as show magneic
in the igure. If angular (2) V2R
speed of the rod is an then the magnitude of
induced emf across the ends of the rod will (3) V3R
BR

be (PA = and PB=)

46 II potential difference across the plates of
capacitor of capacitance 10 uF changes at
OK

the rate of 10, then displacement

Current beweenthe plates of capacitor is
(1) 1A
ER

(2) 108
(3) À
1

47. If two coils of self inductaances 1 mH and

(1) Be
6
mH has coupling coefficient 0.5, then
coefficient of mutual inductance between
wo coils is
(2) Bownl
12 (1) 1 mH
(3) Bouol (2) 3 mH
(3) 2 mH
(4) SBun 15
(4) 4 mH

of
42. Current Mowing through an inductor
inductance 2 H., is 4 A. The magnitude of flux
h the
through inductor
is
(1) 2 Wb
(2) 3,Wb
(3Y 8 Wb
(4)) 6 Wb
 ormEx am202acF+OYM(P1)-TE05A

In an a.c. circuit and I are given by

48
volt,
V= 50sin (100t) 30. A series LCR circuit
100sin|100xt consists ot 6
l= +3| mA. The ie average resistance and 8 ohm
factor of the circuit is reactance.
onm
The power
power dissipated in the circuit (1)
(1) 2.5 w
(2) 5 W
(3) 05 W
(4) 125 W
(4)
The pressure exertea by an
49.
electromagnehe
wave of intensity I S on a non
refecting surtace is (c is the velocity of light
(1) lc
(2) I
(3) c?
@N

(4)
EE

CHEMISTRY
T_

SECTION-A

51. Which is correctly matched?

BR

55. Wiich gas is obtained on reacing copper

with dilute nitric acid?
(1) HzSO4- Haber's process
(1) NO
(2) HNO3- Contact process
(2) Nz
(Y Cl,- Deacon's process
OK

ATE05A)

(3) NO2
(4) HCI- Ostwald process (4) NZO
52. Number of P-H bonds in orthophosphoric
56. Which of the following has highest bond
ER

acidis dissociationenthalpy?
Zero
(1) Fz
(2) 1
1

(3) 2 (3) Br2

(4) 3
(4) ½
53. White phosphorous on reaction with thionyt
chloride produces 57. Shape of Xe OF is
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal
(1) PCl3 + SO, +S2Cl, (2) Square pyramidal
(2) PCls+ SO, only (3) See-saw
(3) PCls + SO, + S2Cl; (4) Square planar
(4) PCl3 + SO, only

54 XeFs on complete hydrolysis gives

(1) XeOF4
(2) XeO,
(3) Xe
(4) Xefz
 TermExam2 024CF+OYMIP1)TEO5A
of
of oxidising power
order
64. Cofrect and VO; is
58. Assertion (A): Extensive H-bonding is
Present in NH, while other hydrides of 15"n
Crz 0 , Mn0;
MnO,
group can not form H-bonding. (1) vo; > Cr 0 >
Reason (R): Among the hydrides of 15h 0 >vo;
group, NH, has highest boiling point. (2) MnO, >Cry
In light of above statements, choose the
correct answer (3) Crp0 >MnO, > Vo;
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) MnO, > Vo, > Cr; 0%
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reasfon are true but 65. Consider the following statements
ions are
the reason is not the correct () Manganate and permanganate
explanation of the assertion tetrahedral in shape.
(3)
in nature
(0) Manganate ion is paramagnetc I0dide
Asserton is true statement but Reason Permanganate ion oxidises to
sfalse (ii)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
iodate in alkaline medium
The correct statements are
statements
(1) (() and () only
@N

(2) (0) and (ii) only

59. The hybridisabon state of phosphorus in
PCls is (3) () and (ii) only
(4) (). (0) and (ii)
(1) sp
EE

(2) sp?
66. Corect order of basic strength of the given
(3) sp°d 2 In
2
lanthanoid hydroxides is
(4) sp (1) Er(OH)3> Gd(OH)3> Ce(OH)3
T_

(2) Ce(OH)3> Gd(OH) > Er(OH)3

60 Most basic hydride of group 15 elements is (3) Gd(OH)3> Er(OH)3 >Ce(OH}3
(1) NH (4) Ce(OH)3> Er(OH), > Gd(OH)3
BR

PH3
AsH3 67.Correct order of first ionisaion enthalpy of
the given metal atoms is
(4)SbHs (1) Mn > Cr> Sc
OK

(2) Sc> Cr> Mn

61 Peroxide linkage is present in ATE05A)

(3) Cr> Sc> Mn

(1) H2SzO7
(4) Mn > Sc> Cr
(2) H2S2Os
ER

(3) H2SzO8 68. Consider the following statements about

(4) HzSO4 interstitial compounds
() They are chemically inert
(Ci) They afe very hard
1

62 The brown coloured complex formed in (i) They retain metallic conductivity
brown ring test is Th¹ correct statements are
(1) (Fe(CN)r I) 0 and (ii) only
(2) (W) and (i) only
(2) (Fe(CN)S(NOS) (3) 0and (i) only
(3) Fe(HzO,NOJ* AY 0). (0) and (i)
(4) (Fe(CN),NO
69. Aqueous solution of which ion is colourless?

IUPAC Name of Fea[Fe(CN)e3 is (1) Co2*

(1) Ferrous ferric cyanide (2) Cu2
(2) Perric ferrous hexacyanate (3 Se*
3 Iron () hexacyanidolerrate () (4) y3"
(4) Ferrous hexacyanidolerrate (u)
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TFOSA

maximum for
70. lonic radii is
77. In
which of the follow
(1) Yb3+
formed as one nf temmonia
product? gas is
(2) Ce3* (1) NH,CI (ag) + NaNO, (ag)
(3) Ga (2)
(4) Tb (NH), Cr,0,,
(3) Ba (N),
The metal presenn wiIkinson catalvst is (4)
71.
(1) Rh
(NH,), SO, + NaOH
(2) Co 78.
(3) Ir (Co(NH3)5SOal Br and
(1) Linkage isomers (Co(NH35BrjSO,
are
(4) TC (2) Coordination isomers
(3) lonisation isomers
72. Enthalpy of atomisation is least for (4) Solvate isomers
(1) Mn
(2) Fe 79. The primary and secondary valency of the
@N

(3) Cr central atom of a schematic representation

(4) Ni of given complex are respectively

73. Inner orbital diamagnetic complex species in

OH,
EE

the following is
(1) Mn(CN)6I H,0. OH,
(2) (Fe(CN)E
T_

(3) [CoFa Co C
11
(4) (Co(C04)ai
Ho OH,
BR

74, Consider the following complex ions

OH,
(1) 6&6 31PTE05A)
Cocls
Co(oh)s
OK

L. (Cr(CN)GI
(2) 3&6
The correct order of crystal field splitting
energy is (3) 6 &3
(1) |> Il > | (4) 3&3
ER

(2) | > II| >|

80. Noble ga_ having minimum boiling point is
(2) He
(4) |> IIl >

(2), Ne
1

75. Which of the following complexes is opically (3) Ar

active? 14) Xe
(1) (Cr(NHg)6?* B1, In which of the following oxoacids of
(2) (NI(H,0)?" Phospnoro
rous, number of OH bonds is
maximum?
(3) (P(NH3),Br]NO,
(1) Pyrophosphorous acid
(41cr(ena))C, (2) Hypophosphorous acid
(3) Hypophosphoric acid
correct
76. For sane central atom and ligands, (4) Orthophosphoric acid
relation is
(2) A A, 82. Which of the tollowing complexes is a
(2YA,A, heterolepuc complex?
(1) (Fe(CN)a
(3) A, =A
() (Co(NHsi*
(4) A, =A (3) (Co(NH3)4Cl2l
(4) (Pdci,
 spin Basic oxide among the following is
has maximum 85.
Which of the following
83. value?
magneic moment
only (1) V,05
(1) Fe2* (2) Cro
(2) TI (3) Cr203
(3) Ni? (4) Croz
(4) Zn
series, which one has
84. Among lanthanide
largest size?
(1) Ce

(2) Pm
(3) Eu
(4) Gd
@N

SECTION-B

86. Which of the following metal carbonyls has

91. The spin only magneic moment of complex,
EE

longest M-C bond length?

(CoCl4?- is
(1) Mn(co)6J
(1) V8 B.M.
(2) [Cr(co)s]
(2) 3 BM.
T_

(3) Fe(cO)s]
(3) /15 B.M.
(4) M(cO)l
(4) /24 B.M.
BR

87. Which among the following is a n acid

ligand? 92. Find out the CFSE for high spin d
Hz0 octahedral complex
(2) CO
OK

ap1TE05A)
(3) F
(4) NH,
ER

88 Correct order of melting point is

(1) N >P> As > Sb > Bi 93. The hybridi|aion and shape of the complex
(2) Bi > Sb> As >P>N
[Ni(CO))'are
(1), s,square planar
(3) As > Sb > Bi > P>N
1

4) Sb >As >Bi >P>N 2rsp, tetrahedral

(3) sp, square planar
89 Stongest reducing agent arnong the (4) dsp, tetrahedral 2
hydrides of group 15 elements is
(1) NH3 94. The most common oxidation state of
PH3 lanthanoids is
(3) SbH3 (1) +2
(2) +3
(4) BiH3
(3) +4
(4) +5
90. The numnber of P-0-P linkages present in
PO10 is equal to
(1) Three 95. Mischmetall contains maximum percent of
(1) Lanthonoid metal
(2) Four
(2) Carbon
(3) Five
(3) Calcium
(4) Six (4) Aluminium
hrmExam2024
most posiive
Selec the element of 98, Element
96
among the following With valence
Ea. electron1c
Confiquration 3d as is
(1) TI (1) v
(2) V (2)
(3) Fe (3/Fe
(4) Co (4) Co

97
Gedoliniun belongs to 4f series. Its atomic 99, +2
oxidation stateis not shown by
umber is 64. Which of the following is the (1) Sc
orrect electronic configuration of
adolinium? (2) V
(3) Co
(1) xe<4r'sd'6s?
(4) Ti
(2) pxey4Psa'6s?
(3) (xe4f6d² 100. Correct drder of ligand field
strength is
(4) Xe<4f5s! ( co CN> NH, > H}0
@N

(2)
CN > CO > NH, > H,0
(3
CO> CN > H,0> NH,
EE

(4)
CO > NH, > CN > H,0
T_

BOTANY
BR

SECTION-A

103. Select the incorrect match wt microbes

101. Read the following statements and mark the
OK

correct option and their products.

Statement A : Ladybird, a beete with red (1) Aspergillus niger, Gluconic acid
and black markings is useful rolling (2) Lactobacillus FLactic acid
aphids. (3) PeniciliumAcetic acid
ER

Statement B : Dragonties are useful to get

rid of mosquitpes. (4) Cosium buicum - Butyric acid
(1) Only statement A is correct
(21 Both statements A and B are correct 104. A bioactive molecule used as an

immunosuppressive agent in
1

organ
(3) Only statement B is correct ransplant patents is obtained from
(4) Both staternents A and B are incorrect
(1) Clot buster, Steptococcus
102. Match the following w.r.t sewage teatnent (2) TPA, Steptobacillus
and select the correct opton.
(3) Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma
Pimary, ) Aoc formation polysporum
treatmnent (4) Stains, Monascus purpureus
OSe of reverse
e

(b Secondary
teatmen
(u osmosis
105. During sewage treatnent when the BOD
Tertary (Physical process reduced signihcandy, he etluent s passed
(Ceatnen to the
(1) Large aeration tank to form tocs
(1) a(), b(u). c(ui) (2) Prmary setting tank to remove primary
(2) a(i). b(). c(ui) sludge
(3) a(i), b(), c(0) (3) Secondary setting ank to sediment the
(4á(i), b(), c(i) focs
(4) Anaerobic sludge digester
TermExam2024CF+OYMIP1)-TEOSA

alcoholic beverage 's

Ernest chain and Howard
Which of the following
12. naturally
106., For which work, fermented?
Florey wereawarded Nobel prize?
penicill1n
(1Establ1shing ull potential of (1) Rum
as an effective anti
ntic
(2) Whisky
anibiotic Streptomycin
(2) Extracting the Streptomyces
trom a species of beneits of (4) Brarndy
the various
(3) Exploring
Saccharomyces
of various 13/ Which of the following enzyme is used tor
(4) Finding the use
microorganisms for human wellare. Vremoving clots of
om blo0d vessels
patients suffering from myocardial infarction
leading to heart attack
choose
107. Read the following statements and (1) Lipase
the correct option.
Statement A: Trichoderma species are free
(2) fotease
Iiving fungi that are very nmon in root (3Y Streptokinase
ecosystems. (4) Amylase
Statement B: Trichoderma species are
agents of several plant
@N

effective
A14. Stain lowers the cholesterol by
pathogens.
(1) Only statement A is correct compeiüvely inhibiting
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) Hexokinase
EE

(3) Both statements are correct (2) Amylase

4) Both statements are incorrect (3) Streptokinase
(4Y HMG-CoA-feductase
108. Activated sludge is used as inoculum in
T_

Anaerobic sludge digesters 115. During sevwage treatment, methane is

formed
Aeration tanks
(1) In anaerobic sludge digester
(3) Production of biogas (2) tn tertary treatment step
BR

(4) Teriary treatment

(3) In primary setling tank
(4) By aerobic bacteria
109. Which of the following is not a source of
biofertilizer?
OK

(1) Bacteria 116. Which antibiotic was extensively used to

treat Americansoldiers in Worid War i?
2) Virus
(2) Penicillin
(3) Fungi (2) Sveptomycin
ER

(4) Cyanobacteria (3) Erythromycin

(4) Neomydin
Select the incorrect statement regarding
baculoviruses.
1

117, Which ot the following products is formed

(1) These viruses are species-specific due to lermentaion activity of bacteria?
(2) Majority of them used as biocontrol (1) Roquelort cheese
agents are in the genus
(2) Bread
Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
(3) Have no negative impacts on non (3) Beer Yeast
arget insects (4) Swiss cheese
Broad spectrum insecticidal application
118. Select the stage of sewage treatrnent which
mainlyinvolves microbes
111. Which of the following is a major component
of biogas? (1Y Primary reatment
(2) Physical veatment
(1) COz
(3) Secondary teatnent
NH3 (4) Terthary treatrment
H2S
4)CH4
 nutritious than mnilk as it iS rich
more
Curdis
Mnvitatnspecially 125. Fil the blank
selecing the rightspaces in
option
the given table by
(2) A Crop Variety Resistance to
(3) Wheat A
diseases
(4) D Hill bunt
Cowpea Pusa
Is helphul in Komal .

120. Lactacillus
(YCurd formaion Brassica c
White rUst
() Degradatbon of petroleum A

.il#
(3) Vinegar produchon C

(4) Antbioic formation (1) Himgiri Black rot Pusa

Shubhra
(2) Pusa Snow
121, Which of the followingis a traditional drink of Balt Leaf curt Himgiri
some parts of South India and iis made by
fermening sap from palm? (3 Himgr Bacterial Pusa
(1) Tempeh blight Swarn1mn
@N

(a Pusa Leaf and Pusa

(2) Sofu Sadabahar stripe rust Komal
(3) Tohu (1) (1)
19 foddy (2) (2)
EE

(3) (3)
122. Ganga action plan (1985) and (4) (4)
Action plan was initiated by
Yamuna
(1) The Ministry of Environment and Forest 126. Mark he correctly matched pair wrt
T_

(2Y The Ministry of Agriculture and Co biofortifcation

operation (1) Atlas 66 - Donor lor improving
(3) The Ministry of Rural cultivated wheat
Development (2) Proúna - Tryptophan rich maize variery
(4) The Ministry of Health and Medicine
BR

(3) Spinach -Ca and Mg ennched

123. The greater the BOD of waste water, (4) IR-8-Fe enriched rice
(1) Lésser the amount of organic matter
127. Jaya and Ratna are
OK

(2Y More is its polluing potential

(3) More the number of anaerobic bacteria
(1) Semi dwarf varietes of wheat

are required to reduce BOD (2) Semi dwart varieies of rice

(4) More it is suitable for drinking (3) Mexican variebes of wheat
(4) Developed in Japan
ER

124. Single cell protein is obtained from

(a) Yeast 120. Me thylophitus
(b) Mushroom
methylottophus can be
expecled to produce about
(c) Cyanobacteria (1) 2 tprnnes of protein
1

(d) Viruses 12Y 25 tonnes of protein

(e) Mycoplasma
(3) 12 tonnes of protein
r (a). (b) &(c)
(4) 02 tonnes of protein
(2) (b). (c))&
&(d)
(3) (a). (d) &(e)
(4) (b). (a) &(e) 129. Which of the given vegetable crops
developed by lARI 0S vitamin A eniched?
) Pumpkin
(2) Bitter gourd
(3) Bathua
(4) Mustard
 TerrmExam2024CF+OYM(P1)T
)-TE05A

plants in
130. Solid stem of wheat leads
to non-preference 133. Propagation of larne number of
by
very short duration is called
(1) Stem saw ly (1) Biofortification

(2) Aphid {21 Micropropagation

(3) Protoplast husion
(3) Jassid
(4) Fruit borer (4) Somatic hybridisation

131. The crucial step for the success of breeding 134. International Rice Research Institute (RRI)
expeiment is is situated in
(1ySelection and testing of superior (1) Taiwan
recombinants
(2) Release and commercialisation of new
(2) Japan
cultivars
(3) Philippines
(4) Mexico
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents
(4) Cross hybridisation among the
selected parents 135. Breeding of crops with
higher levels of
vitamins and minerals or higher protein and
healthier fats is called
132 In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic
@N

viru_and powdery mildew were (1) Biomagnificaion

( Induced by mutatbons (2Biolortiñicaion
(2) Introduced by conventional breeding (3) Bioprospecting
(4) Bioremediation
EE

(3) Caried out by pure line selection

(4) Both (1) and (3)
T_

SECTION-B

136. Statins are produced by 140. In the production of which

BR

of the following.
(1) Fungus yeast is not used?
(2) Bacteria 1) Bread
(3) Viruses (2) Toddy
OK

(4) Cyanobacteria (3) Beer

(4) Dosa TE05A

137. Bacteria which can fix nitrogen while free
fiving in the soil are 141. The technology, of biogas production was
ER

(1) Frankia and Rhizobium developed itndia ly due to the efforts

(2) Azospirillum and Azotobacter of

(3) Azospirillum and Rhizobium (1) Ministeof Environment and Forest

(4) Azotobacter and Rhizobium (2) Indian Agricutural Research Insitute
1

O(AR) only
138, Large holed swiss cheese is ripened by 3) Khadi and Village Industries
Çommission (KVIC) only
(1) Penicillium (4Y Both ARI and KVIC
(2Propionibacterium
(3) Leuconostoc 142. The turbidity of botted truit juices is cleared
(4) SreptococcuUS wittr the help of enzyme
1) Pectinases
139. Focs in STP include (2) Lipases
(1) Filaments of anaerobic bacieria (3) Amylases
(2) Filaments of fungi and anaerobic (4) Streptokinase
bacteria
(3) Filaments of ftungi and aerobic bacteria
(4) Filaments of anaerobic and aerobic
(143 Cereals are commonly deicient in
bacteria
(2) tysine and methionine
(2) Lysine and tryptophan
(3) Methionine and Cysteine
(4Methionine and tryplophan
 resistant variey of Okra
1A4 Shoot and truit bofer
(Pusa Sawani
is 148. Karan Rai
(2) Pusa Gauray selection for bred
variety of
by
resistance tohybriwhitedisatirust,
on isand
(3) Pusa Sem-2 a
(1) Wheat
(4) Pusa Komal (2) Cowpea
(3) Chilli
145. In lndia, green revolution occurred during (4y Brassica
(1960s
2) 1950s 149. Pomato was produced by
(3) 1980s () Mutation
(4) 1990s (2) Somatic hybridization
(3) Pollen culture
146. The capacity to generate whole plant from its (4) Biofortiicaion
cell is, called
(1) Micropropagation 150. Mark the odd one
wrL fungal diseases
(2) Biofortification (1) Brown rust of
wheat
@N

(3) Somatic hybridisation (21 Black rot of crucilers

(4Y Toipotency (3) Late blight of potato
(4) Red rot of
sugarcane
147. From 1960 to 2000 wheat
EE

producion in
India increased from A million tonnes to
B million tonnes
Select the option which correctly ills A and
T_

B.
(2YA-11, 8 - 75
(2) A-35, B-89.5
BR

(3) A- 11, B 89.5

(4) A-35, B75
OK

M Z 3 2T4E
P O
1 5 A )

zoOLOGY
ER

SECTION-A

161. Intecive stage of Plasmodium to human is 53. Select

1

the pathogen mismatched with the

(3 Sporozoite $ymptoms of disease caussed by it from the
(2) Merozoite list given below:
(3) Gametocyte (1) Entamoeba hstolyica Consipaton,
(4) Cryptozoite abdominal pain.
(2) Epidemophyon : Dry scaly lesions on
nail.
152. An endoparasite of humans, that
causes Wuchereria
blockage of intestinal passage and causes banccot Chronic
internal tbleeding is inlammaton of lymphatic vessels of
(1) Wwchereria lower limb
(2) Microsporum
(4Y Haemophilus nuenzae Blockage of
the intestinal passage
(3) Trichophyton
(4Y Ascaris 154. The most serious and tatal form of
malaria is
caused by
(1Y P talciparum
P ovale

(3) P vivax
(4) P malariae
 AA Shogt and Iruit borer restsant Variety of Okra
(VPusaSawani 148. Karan Rai
(2) Pusa Gaurav selection for bred
variety of
by
resistance hybrwhiteid1satirust,on isand
to
(3) Pusa Sem-2 (1) Wheat a
(4) Pusa Komal (2) Cowpea
(3) Chilli
145, In india, green revoluton occurred during (9 Brassica
(1960s
Wa) 1950s 149. Pomato was
(3) 1980s produced
(1) Mutation by
(4) 1990s (2) Somaic hybridization
(3) Pollen culture
146. The capacity to generate whole plant from (4) Biofortiicabon
cell is, called
its
(1) Micropropagation 150. Mark the odd one
wrL fungal
(2) Biofortification (1) Brown rust of wheat diseases
(2 Black rot of
@N

(3) Somatc hybridisation crucilers

(4Y Totipotency (3) Late blight of potato
(4) Red rot of
sugarcane
147. From 1960 to 2000 wheat
EE

India
production in
increased from A million tonnes to
B milion tonnes
Select the option which correctly fills A and
T_

B.
(YA-11, 8 -75
(2) A-35, B- 89.5
BR

(3) A-11, B- 89.5

(4) A-35. B-75
OK

M2324P1TEO5A1

zOOLOGY
ER

SECTION-A

151. Infecive stage of Plasmodium to human is 153. Select the pathogen mismatched with the
1

symptoms of disease caussed by it irom the

( Sporozoite list given below:
(2) Merozoite
(1) Eatamoeba histolytica Consbpabon,
(3) Gametocyte abdominal pain.
(4) Cryptozoite (2) Epidermophyton :Dry scaly lesions on
nail
152. An endoparasite of humans, that causes (3) Wuchereria bancroti Chronic
blockage of intesinal passage and causes inflammaion of lymphatic vessels of
lower limb.
internal bleeding is
) Wuchereria (4 Haemophilus induenrae: Blockage of
the intestinal passage.
(2) Microsporum
(3) Trichophyton
154, 1he most serious and tatal form of malaia i
(9Y Ascaris caused tby
r1 P falciparum
(2) Povale
(3) P vivax
(4) P malariae
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TEO5A
162Mechanical carriers that serve to transmit the
dysentery is parasite of amoebiasis is
169. The pathogen causing amoebic (1) Mosquito
a 2YHousefly
(1) VirUS (3) Helminths
(Protozoan (4) Protozoan
(3) Bacterium

(4),Fungus
163 Select the factor responsible for the chill and
sauitoes act
given d1seases, mÍsquito
156An all of the tor pathogen
high fever recurring every 3 to 4 days in
transmission case of malaria,
as a vector the except
ahealthy person,
to (1) Rapid multiplication of sporozoites
(1) Dengue within hepatocytes
(2) Filaniasis (2) When mosquito bites host and inject
(3) Elephanbasis Sporozoites
K4) Amoebiasis
(3Y When ruptured RBCS release
hemozoin
of the following does not
spread Released parasite infect new RBCs in
157. Which
through faeco-oral route2 human blood
@N

(1) Poliomyelibs
(2) Amoebiasis 164. Seleçthe odd one wrt allergy
(3) Chikungunya
(Y Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Ascarnasis
EE

(2) Asthma
(3) Anaphylactic shock
158. Widal test is used to detect disease caused (4) Hay fever
by
T_

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides

165, Choose the correct option to complete the
(2) Salmonella typhi analogy.
(3) Entamoeba histolytica Microsporum : Ringworm : Haemophilus
(4) Plasmodium falciparum
inluenzae:
BR

(1) Common cold

159. Select the odd one w.r.t viral diseases. (2) Typhoid
(1) Poliomyeliis (3) Elephantiasis
(4YPneumonia
OK

(2) Dengue fever

(3) Chikungunya
166, Choose the correct option for the blanks (A,
(4) Filariasis
GBucOis
tuialec B,C& D) given belów.
ER

AIDS and hepatitis B are KCausative Transmission

460. Asserion (A) DiseaseOPathogen
chronic infecions and non-curable.
Reason (R):AIDS and hepatitis B can be Pneumonia A
transmited through sexual contact or nngma
Treponema Sexual
1

infected blood.
pallidum contact
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is correct explanauon of |'Yphoid Salmonella
the asserion yphi
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) A Sreptococcus, B Syphilis, C
the reason is not the correct Droplet, D- Faeco-oral
Sreptococcus, B - Syphilis, C
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true stalement but Reason Droplet, D- Droplet
Haemophilus, B Syphilis, C
is false (3) A
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are talse Faeco-oral, D - Droplet
Haemophilus, B Plague, C -
statements (4) A
Faeco-oral, D-Faeco-oral

261. Symptoms of Ascariasis include all, except

(1) Intermal bleeding
(2) Muscular pain
(3y Intestinal perloration
(4) Anaemia
 nExam2024CF+

through the bite

pathogens transmitedcausing chronic of the
163 TTheiemale mosquitO
following are properies
inlammation
loweimbsis
in the lymphatic vessels of malignant
(1)
tumor cells except of
Tumor cells
Wmalayi and damage grow
the
very rapidly.
invade
(2) E. histolyica (2) sSurrounding
Compete with the normal tissue
nutrients cells for vital
(3) P ivax
(4) Epidermophyton (3) They show
(4) They show
property of metastasis
inhibition property of contact
sporozoites that cause infection when a
168/The
female Anopneies bites a human being are
storedin 175. Agland that is
large at birth but keeps
( Liver of human teducing in size with age reaching a very
small size by puberty is
(2) RBCS of mosquito (1) Thyroid
(3) Salivary glands of mosquito (2) Pituitary
(4) Gut wall of mosquito
(3 Thymus
(4) Parathyroid
@N

18, Which of the tollowing is a fungal disease?

(1 Ascariasis 176. Saliva and tears belong to which barrier
Fijaiasis under innate immunity?
EE

(1) Physical
(4)
Ringworm
Kala-azar (2) Cytokine
(3) Cellular
hysiological
T_

170. Which of the following viral diseases are

transmitted by mosquitoes?
(1) Elephantiasis and dengue 127. Ater snake bite, the antvenom injected into
the body of the paient is an example of
(2) Malaria and yellow fever (1) Natural active immunity
BR

(3) Malaria and dengue (XNatural passive immunity

(4 Chikungunya and dengue (3) Arpficial acive immunity
(4) rtticial passive immunity
OK

17 Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Among non-infectious diseases, cancer
is the major cause of death
gacteria of pneumonia infects the nose
and the respiratory passage but not the
.178, Complete the analogy w.r.t causes of
Vcancer.
Chemical carcinogen: Tobacco - Biological
ER

carcinogen
lungs (4) X-taysO
(3) Mary Mallon was the biological carrier (2) Oncogenic viruses
yphoid
of typl
(3) UVtays
(4) Female Aedes is the vector of diseases
1

like dengue and chikungunya (4) Gamma rays

172/ Which of the following is a primary lymphoid 179. Memory based acquired immunity evolved
in higher vertebrates based on the atbility to
orgap? differentate foreign organisms trom selt
( Thymus cells.
(2) Thyroid Somebmes, due to genebc and other
(3) Spleen unknown reasons, the body attacks self-cells
(4) Lymph nodes and this results in damage to the body
causing certain diseases.
Idenuly the set of diseases as described
173/ The exaggeraed response of immune above and select the correct opbon
tain antgens present in the
system (1) Hay fever and theumatoid arthiis
environment results in
(2) Myasthenia gravis and muscular
(1) Withdrawal syndrome
dystrophy
(2Y Allergic response (3) Myasthenia gravis and rheumatoid
(3) Aulo-immune disease Varthrius
(4) Amnestic imune response only (4)) Diabetes insipidus and psoriasis
TermEXAn
BP
Assertion(A): Tobacco can raise 183/Histopathological examinations is also
180. increases heart rate. known as
nicotine
Deason/R): Tobacco contains release
Rea (1) Chemotherapy
adrenal cortex to
which stimulates
epinephrine and nor-epinephrine (2) MRI
In the light of the above statements, select (3) X>rays
the correct opbon.
1VBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Biopsy
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 194. Antigen binding site in an antibody is formed
the correct explanation of (A) by
(1) Variable regions of heavy chains only
(3) (A) is true but (R) 0s false
(21 Variable regions of light chain and
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true heavy chain
(3) Constant regions of light chains and
181. Choose the odd one w.r.t. drugsthat quickly lour heavy chain
reduce symptoms of allergy. (4) Constant regions of light chains only
(1) Antihistamine
(2) Histamine
185. Which of the following drug is not used as
(3) Adrenaline
@N

medicineto help patients cope with illnesses

(4) Steroids like paín or insomnia?
(Y Cannabinoids
182. How many of the statements given below (2) Barbiturates
EE

w.r.L health are incorrect? (3) Morphine

(1) When people are healthy, they are more (4) Benzodiazepines
efficient at work.
(2) Health increases longevity of people.
T_

(3) It reduces maternal mortality rate and

increases infant mortality rate.
(4) Earty Greeks like William Harvey
asserted that health is defined by balance
between "humors".
BR

Select the correct option.

(1) One
(2) Two
OK

A 2 3 21 T
4 E
P 0 5 A )

(3) Three
(4) Four
ER

SECTION-B

186. A drug X is a white, odourless, bitter 187. 'Statements A and B and select the
1

ystalline compound which is obtained by
acetylation of 'Y extracted from latex of 'Z
plant
Select the correct option for 'X', 'Y' and Z
Çorrect answer from the opion given below.
A: The colostrum secreted by mother during
initial days of pregnancy is an efcient way
to provide active immunity to the neonate.
B: Colostrum contains kgA which protects
the neonate
te

(1)lHashish Cannabis Erythroxylum (1) (A) is true, (B) is talse

|cOca
(2) (A) is talse, (B) is rue
(2)|Datura Cocaine ||Atropa belladona
(3Y Both (A) and (B) are true
|(3)||Heroin Morphine Papaver
somnilerum (4) Both (A) and (B) are false
(4) MorphineCannabisCannabis saiva
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(e (3)
(4) (4)
 02aCE+OYM(P1 ) TE05A
à

ormpound given below and

Ba. ldenily the only incorrect e2. Vaccinaion and
have enabled usimmunisation
the opton with
select
Alements.
programmes
to completely eradicate
whi deadly disease from world?
Small pox
hoaphine (2) AIDS
(3) Hepatitis-B
(4) Genital herpes
H
N-cHg 193 Given below are some barrners of innate
HO immunity in a box
A. tis extracted trom poppy plant.
PMNL, NK cell, HCI in stomach, Skin,
B. They are knoWn Tor their effects on central Salya, Mucus cAating. Interlerons, Te as
system and GIT
ner
inod from How many of them are physiological
C.
inoresuen and
). Gercraily taken only by
plant. barriers?
@N

ingestion. (1) Two

(1) A and C (2) Three
(2) Aand B (3) Four
(3C and D (4) Five
EE

(4) A, C and D
194, Modern day life style has resulted in
A of immunity and more sensitvity to
180. Which one is an incorrect match? B which couldbe due to pratected
() Morphine :Analgesic
T_

enviromerit Here Aand B are

(2 Marijuana : Hallucinogen (1Y A-Iowering:B- allergens
(3) Amplhetamines : Stimulant (2) A- increase;B- antbodies
(Nicotine : Hallucinogen (3) A -lowering ; B-antibodies
BR

(4) A-increase;B- allergens

190. Read the statements given below w.rt.
HIV/AIDS. 195, In recombinant DNA technology. hepatits B
vaccine is produced trom
a HIV is a retrovirus having an envelope
OK

énclosing the RNA genome. (1) Bacteria

b reatment of AIDS with
anti-retroviral
can cormpletely (2) Yeast
digs is very effective and
(3) Protozoa
ure it in
The RNA genome HIV replicates (4) Vius
X
ER

DNA by reverse
host, forming viral
fYanscriptase. period of HIV may vary
196. Mostly virus infected cells secrete proteins
dThe incubation which protect the non-nfected cells trom
from few months To any years
n further viral infection. The proteins secreted
How many of iven statements are
1

are
incorrect?
() Immunoglobulins
(1) One (eY interterons
(2) Two (3) Albumin
(3) Three (4) Serotonin
(4) Four
107, MALT Constitute about 509% of the total
nature of the drug that is
191 What is the primaryplant
obtained from the Atropa belladona? (1) Blood
2) Lymphoid tissue
(1) Painkiller (3) Neural tssue
(2) Antipyretic (4) Connectve tissue
(3) Depressant
(4Hallucinogenic
 TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)
-TEO5A
109. 198,
cannabinoids
Heroin, Cocaine,
4) (3)morphine
(Morphine, (1) Smack
(2) Common (4) Ar(e3) (1)
(2) Primary
Heroin to
Are
lymphocytes
differentiate e
ArProvides
lymphocytes
become
namnes of
and sites
Peyer'
spleenands
and sites lymphoids

coca heroin where

crack effector where the
into with
organs
sites
alkaloid arelymphocyte immature the
cells
@N
antigen
respectively antigen of
patches interaction
lymphocyte
EE
proliferate sensitive

the of
T_
BR
200/
aggressiveness
Decrease
Enlarged
clitoris hormone.
(4) (3) \(2) steroids Anabolic
(1) persons.
OK
Excessive Abnormal
in
They
females Thesteriods
ER
hair menstrual side are
are
growth include
effects
1
syntheticmostly
cycle
all, of
use used
except
testosteroneof by
anabolic
sports