Microbiology 2nd Edition Wessner Test Bank

Microbiology 2nd Edition Wessner Test
Bank
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Package Title: Test Bank
Course Title: Wessner1e
Chapter Number: 7
Question Type: Multiple Choice
1) What did the experiment by Fred Griffith in 1928 with the R and S strains of Streptococcus
pneumoniae demonstrate?
a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.

b) R strain phenotype could spontaneously revert to S strain phenotype.
c) Genetic material from one strain could be transferred to another strain.
d) The ability of these bacteria to kill mice.
e) That some strains of Streptococcus were not pathogenic.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 7.1 Describe the history of DNA research, giving examples of important
experiments.
Section Reference: Section 7.1 The role of DNA
2) What did the experiment by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty in 1944 with the R and S strains
of Streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrate?
a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.

b) R strain phenotype could spontaneously revert to S strain phenotype.
c) Genetic material from one strain could be transferred to another strain.
d) The ability of these bacteria to kill mice.
e) That some strains of Streptococcus were not pathogenic.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
3) The Hershey and Chase experiment was able to conclusively demonstrate that DNA, not
protein, was the genetic material. They were able to distinguish DNA from protein since labeled
_____ incorporated into DNA while labeled _____ incorporated into proteins.
a) nitrogen; sulfur
b) magnesium; nitrogen
c) nitrogen; magnesium
d) phosphorous; sulfur
e) sulfur; nitrogen
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
experiments.
4) The Watson and Crick model showed that in the DNA molecule:
a) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
b) purines paired with purines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
c) purines paired with purines, and the strands align anti-parallel to one another.
d) purines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
e) pyrimidines paired with pyrimidines, and the strands align parallel to one another.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
experiments.
5) How do nucleotides connect to adjacent nucleotides in the Watson-Crick model of DNA?
a) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the 2’ deoxy of the other.
b) Via a hydrogen bond between the nitrogenous base of one nucleotide and the nitrogenous base
of the other.
c) Via a hydrogen bond between the nitrogenous base of one nucleotide and the 5’ phosphate of
the other.
d) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the nitrogenous base of
the other.
e) Via a covalent bond between the 3’ hydroxyl of one nucleotide and the 5’ phosphate of the
other.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
6) The Watson-Crick model of DNA shows that the base adenine pairs with:
a) cytosine while guanine pairs with thymine.

b) guanine while cytosine pairs with thymine.
c) thymine while cytosine pairs with guanine.
d) either thymine or guanine, while cytosine pairs with either thymine or guanine.
e) either thymine or cytosine while guanine pairs with either thymine or cytosine.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
7) The main differences between Bacteria and Archaea chromosomal DNA when compared to
Eukarya chromosomal DNA, is that the Bacteria or Archaea chromosome usually:
a) is circular while Eukarya is linear.

b) is diploid while Eukarya is haploid.
c) consist of several chromosomes while Eukarya has a single chromosome.
d) contains the base uracil while Eukarya has thymine in place of uracil.
e) is found in a non-condensed form while Eukarya DNA is highly condensed and packaged.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
8) Replication of the bacterial chromosome begins at how many locations?
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
e) five
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 7.2 Describe the components of bacterial DNA replication.
Section Reference: Section 7.2 DNA replication
9) What is the first protein to bind to the oriC region of the DNA molecule to start the replication
process?
a) DNA polymerase
b) the primase
c) DnaA
d) gyrase
e) DnaI
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
10) After the DNA is unwound at the site of DNA replication initiation,what binds to the
unwound DNA to prevent it from reannealing?
a) DNA gyrase
b) single-stranded DNA binding protein
c) DnaA
d) DNA polymerase
e) DnaB
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
11) What, in bacteria, is analogous to the autonomously replicating sequence (ARS) in yeast?
a) the promoter
b) a plasmid
c) a transposon
d) the oriC
e) a prophage
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
12) Which statement below is FALSE regarding replication of the bacterial chromosome?
a) Replication occurs in a bidirectional manner from the origin of replication.

b) The leading strand is replicated in the 5’ to 3’ direction and the lagging strand in the 3’ to 5’
direction.
c) The primase adds a short RNA primer to serve as a starting point for the DNA polymerase to
add new bases.
d) DNA replication is a semi-conservative process, where one strand serves as a template for the
synthesis of a complementary strand.
e) The incoming nucleotide triphosphate is covalently attached to the free 3’ hydroxyl.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Medium
13) Which enzyme removes the RNA primer and fills in the gap during DNA replication in
bacteria?
a) DNA polymerase III

b) DNA polymerase I
c) primase
d) ligase
e) DNAase
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
14) What are the main enzymes responsible for replication of DNA in eukaryal cells?
a) DNA pol III and DNA pol I

b) DNA pol III and DNA pol α
c) DNA pol I and DNA pol ε
d) DNA pol α and DNA pol ε
e) DNA pol ε and DNA pol δ
Answer: e
Difficulty: Medium
15) Replication termination in E. coli involves which two proteins?
a) Tus protein and topoisomerase II.

b) helicase and DnaG.
c) helicase and topoisomerase II.
d) Tus protein and DnaG.
e) Tus protein and helicase.
Answer: a
Difficulty: Medium
16) Term for a special sequence at the end of the chromosome in eukaryal cells.
a) a terminator
b) a centromere
c) a telomere
d) an antiorigin.
e) an enhancer
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
17) Which enzyme is responsible for adding the final bases to the end of a chromosome during
DNA replication in eukaryal cells?
a) DNA polδ
b) DNA polα
c) DNA primase B
d) telomerase
e) topoisomerase
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
18) Which of these best differentiates DNA and RNA?
a) RNA is single-stranded and DNA is double stranded.

b) RNA contains ribose and DNA contains deoxyribose.
c) RNA contains the base uracil in place of thymine, which is in DNA.
d) Both a and b are true.
e) a, b, and c are true.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 7.3 Discuss the types of RNA found in the bacterial cell, the process of
transcription, and the differences in transcription between prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Section Reference: Section 7.3 Transcription
19) A gene can best be described as a segment of DNA that:
a) encodes for a protein.

b) encodes for a protein or functional RNA.
c) is transcribed as well as the associated regulatory regions.
d) encodes for a protein as well as the associated regulatory regions.
e) is transcribed.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Medium
20) Messenger RNA (mRNA) can best be described as a molecule that contains the code for a:
a) protein.
b) polypeptide.
c) protein, rRNA or tRNA.
d) polypeptide, tRNA, or rRNA.
e) polypeptide or regulatory RNA.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
21) What are micro RNAs?
a) mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins

b) small regulatory RNAs
c) tRNAs
d) rRNAs
e) small mRNAs
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
22) For the initiation of transcription in bacteria, RNA polymerase binds to what region on the
gene?
a) promoter
b) operator
c) enhancer region
d) origin of replication
e) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
Answer: a
Difficulty: Easy
23) What is the sigma factor of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme responsible for?
a) initiation of transcription
b) recognition of the promoter region
c) transcription elongation
d) transcription termination
e) ribosome binding
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
24) Most bacterial promoters consist of two regions: __________ and ___________.
a) Pribnow box and operator.

b) enhancer region and operator.
c) enhancer region and -35 region.
d) -35 region and operator.
e) Pribnow box and -35 region.
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
25) In eukaryal cells, what does RNA polymerase II transcribe?
a) tRNA genes
b) small regulatory RNAs
c) the 5S and 18S rRNAs
d) mRNA genes
e) rRNAs genes
Answer: d
Difficulty: Medium
26) What does Rho-independent termination of transcription in bacteria involve?
a) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly A sequence.

b) The formation of a hairpin loop only.
c) A poly U sequence followed by a poly A sequence.
d) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly U sequence.
e) A poly A sequence followed by a hairpin loop.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
27) Transcription termination in eukaryal cells is more complex than in bacterial cells as the
RNA molecule undergoes further processing before becoming a functional mRNA. Which of
these BEST describes this processing?
a) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 5’ end and
removing internal sequences called introns.
b) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 5’ end and
removing internal sequences called exons.
c) Capping the 5’ end with 7-methyl guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end and
removing internal sequences called introns.
d) Capping the 5’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine, adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end and
removing internal sequences called exons.
e) Capping the 3’ end with 7-methyl-guanosine and adding a poly-A sequence at the 3’ end.
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
28) What is a codon?
a) Four bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
b) Four bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
c) Three bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 3’ to 5’ direction.
d) Three bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
e) Two bases on the mRNA that is read by the ribosome in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 7.4 Describe the components of protein synthesis found in the bacterial
cell, the process of translation, and the differences in translation between prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
Section Reference: Section 7.4 Translation
29) Initiation of translation in bacteria starts with the binding of the 30S ribosomal subunit to the
mRNA molecule. The ribosomal binding site is nearer the _________ end of the mRNA
molecule and is called the ________.
a) 3’; Pribnow box

b) 3’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
c) 3’; Rho sequence
d) 5’; Shine-Dalgarno sequence
e) 5’; Rho sequence
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
30) The mRNA of bacterial cells is often polycistronic. What does this term mean?
a) Tt can be translated more than once.

b) It contains the code for multiple peptides.
c) Tt can be translated from either end.
d) Tt is transcribed from multiple sites on the chromosome.
e) The translated protein may be modified in different ways.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
31) After the translational process the polypeptide folds into the appropriate conformation for
proper functioning. What group of proteins aids in protein folding?
a) proteases
b) cytokines
c) chaperonins
d) peptidases
e) lipases
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
32) Which of these would a signal peptide be used for?
a) To regulate translation.
b) To move a protein to the outside of the cell.
c) To help a protein fold correctly.
d) To help regulate the activity of an enzyme.
e) To initiate DNA replication.
Answer: b
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
33) Which of these is a term for a point mutation that results in a change in the amino acid
specificity of the codon?
a) frameshift
b) silent
c) nonsense
d) missense
e) amber
Answer: d
Difficulty: Easy
Learning Objective: LO 7.5 Explain the genetic code, the various types of mutations, and how
mutations lead to changes in an organism.
Section Reference: Section 7.5 The effects of mutations
34) Which of these is a point mutation that results in changing a codon from an amino acid
codon to a stop codon?
a) frameshift
b) silent
c) nonsense
d) missense
e) deletion
Answer: c
Difficulty: Easy
35) Which of these results from a deletion of base pairs such that the amino acid sequence is
disrupted from that point downward?
a) transversion mutation
b) transition mutation
c) nonsense mutation
d) missense mutation
e) frameshift mutation
Answer: e
Difficulty: Easy
Question Type: True/False
36) The DNA replication process in Archaea more closely resembles that in Eukarya than in
Bacteria.
Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy
37) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5’ to 3’ direction.
Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy
38) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis.
Answer: True
Difficulty: Medium
39) In the same bacterial cell, different sigma factors are able to control the expression of large
blocks of genes.
Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy
40) The RNA polymerase in Archaea is more similar to Bacteria RNA polymerase than Eukarya
RNA polymerase II.
Answer: False
Difficulty: Medium
41) All living organisms use the same genetic code for the translation of mRNA.
Answer: True
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
Question Type: Text Entry
42) Basic proteins that help to package the DNA in eukaryal cells are called ________.
Answer: histones
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
43) The origin of replication site in yeast is called the _____ _______ sequence.
Answer: autonomously replicating
Difficulty: Medium
44) The site on the DNA molecule that is recognized by the sigma subunit of the RNA
polymerase for binding to start transcription is called the _________.
Answer: promoter
Difficulty: Easy
45) The -10 element of the bacterial promoter is also referred to as the _______ _____.
Answer: Pribnow box
Difficulty: Easy
46) The Shine-Dalgarno sequence on a mRNA is recognized by the __________ of the 30S
ribosome.
Answer: 16S rRNA
Difficulty: Easy
eukaryotes.
Question Type: Essay
47) Describe the structure of DNA according to the Watson - Crick Model.
Answer:
Difficulty: Easy
experiments.
Solution: Watson and Crick determined that DNA was double-stranded in structure with the
strands being antiparallel to one another. That is, one strand arranged in the 5’ to 3’ direction and
the complementary strand running in the 3’ to 5’ direction. The strands are polymers of four
deoxynucleotides covalently bonded to one another via the 5’ phosphate of the deoxyribose of
one nucleotide to the deoxyribose 3’ hydroxyl of the adjacent nucleotide. The other important
part of their model is base pairing between the two strands. The base adenine always pairs with
thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine through hydrogen bonding. Hydrogen bonding
holds the two strands together, forming a coil or helix type structure.
48) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: The initiation of DNA replication occurs at a specific site on the chromosome called
the oriC. The oriC site contains several 9-base pair repeats that serve as binding sites for the
DnaA proteins. Several DnaA proteins bind and interact with 13-base pair repeats, causing the
DNA to unwind, and strand separation to occur. The enzymes DNA helicase and gyrase will
move into this site unwinding the DNA further. Single-stranded DNA binding protein will bind
to the unwound single stranded DNA to prevent the DNA from winding back upon itself. A
primase will now be able to synthesize a short primer strand of RNA to facilitate the binding of
the DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase will begin to catalyze the addition of deoxynucleotides
starting at the primer.
49) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: RNA polymerase II will transcribe the pre-mRNA in the eukaryal nucleus.
Immediately after RNA transcription the RNA will be processed to form a functional mRNA.
The 5’ end of the RNA molecule will be capped with 5’-methyl guanosine, and the 3’ end will be
polyadenylated by a poly(A)-polymerase, creating a long polyA-tail. Most eukaryal RNAs also
contain untranslated region called introns. These will be removed, leaving behind the exons,
which will be joined together to create a functional mRNA.
50) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?
Answer:
Difficulty: Medium
Solution: The genetic code is referred to as being degenerate because more than one codon
represents an amino acid. In addition, the multiple codons that represent a particular amino acid
usually only differ in the third base.

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Microbiology 2nd Edition Wessner Test

Question Type: Multiple Choice

a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.

a) DNA was the genetic material in cells.

5) How do nucleotides connect to adjacent nucleotides in the Watson-Crick model of DNA?

a) cytosine while guanine pairs with thymine.

a) is circular while Eukarya is linear.

8) Replication of the bacterial chromosome begins at how many locations?

a) Replication occurs in a bidirectional manner from the origin of replication.

a) DNA polymerase III

a) DNA pol III and DNA pol I

15) Replication termination in E. coli involves which two proteins?

a) Tus protein and topoisomerase II.

18) Which of these best differentiates DNA and RNA?

a) RNA is single-stranded and DNA is double stranded.

19) A gene can best be described as a segment of DNA that:

a) encodes for a protein.

21) What are micro RNAs?

a) mRNAs that encode for regulatory proteins

a) Pribnow box and operator.

25) In eukaryal cells, what does RNA polymerase II transcribe?

a) The formation of a hairpin loop followed by a poly A sequence.

28) What is a codon?

a) 3’; Pribnow box

a) Tt can be translated more than once.

32) Which of these would a signal peptide be used for?

Question Type: True/False

37) In DNA replication nucleotides are always added in the 5’ to 3’ direction.

38) Replication of eukaryal DNA requires RNA primer synthesis.

Question Type: Text Entry

Answer: autonomously replicating

Answer: 16S rRNA

Question Type: Essay

48) Describe the process of DNA replication initiation in Bacteria.

49) Describe the process of mRNA processing in eukaryal cells.

50) Why is the genetic code considered degenerate?

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