Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg.

III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

1) Sketch and describe the working principles of positive displacement pump?

(16-marks)

(8-marks)
• Fluid is displaced from the suction to the discharge by the mechanical variation of the
volume of chamber or chambers at every stroke or rotation of the pump. (2-
marks)
• Volume of pump chamber alternately increases to draw the liquid in from suction pipe
& then decreased to force the liquid out into the delivery pipe.
(2-marks)
• This may be done by either a reciprocating motion of a piston or by a rotary motion of
specially designed vanes, gears or screws. (2-
marks)
• Although the pump is self-priming, to reduce wear and risk of seizure it should be
flooded with liquid before starting.
(2-marks)

2) Describe the gear pump? (16-marks)

(6-marks)
• It is a positive displacement pump and a relief valve must be installed in the system.
(2-marks)
• It consists of two identical meshing gears with one driving the other. (2-
marks)
• As the teeth come into mesh, liquid flows into the pumps and is carried between the
teeth and the casing to the discharge side of the pump. The teeth come back into mesh
and the liquid is forced out.
(2-marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Although gear pump is self-priming it should be flooded with liquid before starting to
reduce wear and risk of seizure.
(2-marks)
• The fluids being pumped are used to lubricate the gears, shafts and bearings. (1-
mark)
• Generally used as Fuel oil, Lube oil, Diesel oil, Cylinder oil pumps on board. (1-
mark)

3) Describe the working principles of centrifugal pump? (16-marks)

(8-marks)
• Impeller rotates at high speed and fluid enters through the ‘eye’ of the impeller.
(2-marks)
• Fluid is thrown by centrifugal force from the centre (suction side) radially outwards to the
periphery of impeller (discharge side). (2-marks)
• High velocity fluid enters the stationary volute casing. Volute casing converts the kinetic
energy of fluid into pressure energy at the discharge of the pump. (2-marks)
• Centrifugal pumps are suitable for most general marine duties. They are not self-priming
and required some means of removing air from the suction pipe line and filling it with
liquid. (2-
marks)

4) (a) State the characteristics of positive displacement pump. (8-marks)

• Liquid flows into the pumps as the cavity on the suction side expands and the liquid
flows out of the discharge as the cavity decreases. The volume is constant given each
cycle of operation.
(2-marks)
• It is self-priming pump but to reduce wear and risk of seizure it should be flooded with
liquid before starting. (2-marks)
• Check valves are used on the suction as near to the liquid level as possible to prevent
pump running dry. The fluids being pumped are used to lubricate the cylinder and the
piston. (2-
marks)
• All the v/vs at the discharge side of the pumps must be kept open prior starting. Relief
valve is always fitted in the system to avoid increasing pressure. (2-
marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

(b) Explain the starting procedure of centrifugal pump? (8-

marks)
• When starting a centrifugal pump the suction valve is opened and the discharge valve is
shut: then the motor is started and the priming unit will prime the suction line. (2-
marks)
• Once the pump is primed the delivery valve can slowly be opened and the quantity of
liquid can be regulated by opening or closing the discharge valve.
(2-marks)
• Where the liquid to be pumped is at level higher than the pump, and when the pump is
stopped: opening an air cock near the pump suction (usually the connection of the
suction pressure gauge) will enable the air to be forced out as the pipeline filled up under
the action of the gravity.
(2-marks)
• When the pump is running the pressure gauge connection on the discharge line might
disconnect to let the air vent out. (2-marks)
5) Sketch and describe axial flow pump? (16-
marks)

(8-marks)
• Depending on the supply head they may require positive displacement pump as priming
device. Generally for medium to high discharge rate, confined to low viscosity fluids.
(2-marks)
• The pump has a propeller-type of impeller running in a casing. The pressure in the pump
is developed by the flow of liquid over the blades of impeller. (2-
marks)
• The fluid is pushed in a direction parallel to the shaft of the impeller, that is, fluid
particles, in course of their flow through the pump, do not change their radial locations.
(2-marks)
• It allows the fluid to enter the impeller axially and discharge the fluid nearly axially.
(2-marks)

6) (a)Sketch and describe mechanical seal? (8-marks)

Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

(4-marks)
Mechanical seal –
• Mechanical seal to be checked during pump running and also stopping time.
• Mechanical seal prevents leakage along the rotor shaft. (1-mark)
• They are leak free and eliminate possible health hazard. (1-mark)
• Mechanical seal does not require adjustment and lubrication. (1-mark)
• When the seal becomes defective there will be a leakage and replacement will be
necessary. ( 1 -
mark)

6) (b)Sketch and describe gland packing? (8-

marks)

(4-marks)
Gland Packing seal –
• Packing as sealing is still popular in many rotary pumps because of their low cost, easy
installation and availability of materials. ( 1 -
mark)
• When application temperature exceeds 260 deg. C, the suitable type of packing should
be considered. (1-mark)
• Leakage is the most common problem. It requires adjusting for necessary lubrication of
the seal. (1-mark)
Packed gland can be adjusted while the pump is in service. (1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

7) (a) Explain the terms: suction lift and suction head of the centrifugal pump.
Describe the possible causes of centrifugal pump discharge failure?
(8-marks)
Suction lift Suction head

(2-marks)
• Suction Lift describes design calculation of distance fluid level can be below eye of pump
and still be pumped. A Suction Lift exists when the liquid is taken from an open-to-
atmosphere tank where the liquid level is below the centerline of the pump suction.
(2-marks)
• A Suction Head exists when the liquid is taken from an open-to-atmosphere tank where
the liquid level is above the centerline of the pump suction, commonly known as a
Flooded Suction.
(2-marks)
• Causes of operational failure such as no discharge, may be a result of:
- valves in the system being shut or malfunction,
- suction strainer s blocked or
- other faults occurring in the priming system. (2-marks)

7) (b)Describe the emergency generator on board? (8-marks)

• Emergency equipment is arranged to operate independently of all main power sources.
(1-mark)
• It includes such items as the emergency generator and the emergency fire pump.
(1-mark)
• Both items of machinery are located remote from the engine room and usually above the
bulkhead deck that is at the weather deck level or above. (1-mark)
• The emergency generator is usually on one of the accommodation decks while the
emergency fire pump is often inside the forecastle. (1-
mark)
• The emergency generator is a diesel-driven generator of sufficient capacity to provide
essential circuits such as steering, navigation lights and communications. (1-
mark)
• The diesel engine has its own supply system, usually of light diesel oil for easy starting.
(1-mark)
• Batteries, compressed air or hydraulic accumulator may be used for starting the
machine. (1-
mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Small machines may be air cooled but larger units are arranged usually for water cooling
with an air cooled radiator as heat exchanger in the system. (1-
mark)

8) (a) State the emergency equipments on board? (4-marks)

• Emergency equipment is arranged to operate independently of all main power sources.
(1-mark)
• It includes such items as the emergency generator and the emergency fire pump.
(1-mark)
• Both items of machinery are located remote from the engine room and usually above the
bulkhead deck that is at the weather deck level or above. (1-mark)
• The emergency generator is usually on one of the accommodation decks while the
emergency fire pump is often inside the forecastle. (1-
mark)

8) (b)Describe the emergency fire pump on board? (12-marks)

(6-marks)
• The emergency fire pump is arranged to supply the ship's fire main when the machinery
space pump is not available. The arrangement shown above is used on large tankers.
(1-mark)
• A diesel engine with its own fuel supply system, starting arrangements, etc., drives at
one end a main fire pump and at the other a hydraulic oil pump.
(1-mark)
• The hydraulic oil pump supplies a hydraulic motor, located low down in the ship, which in
turn operates a sea water booster pump. (1-
mark)
• The booster pump has its own sea suction and discharges to the main pump suction.
(1-mark)
• The main pump then supplies sea water to the fire main. (1-mark)
• The booster pump arrangement is necessary because of the considerable depth of
many large modern ships.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

9) (a) Describe the usage of the compressed air on board and also the personal
safety precautions to be taken prior air compressor maintenance work?
(8-marks)
The usage of the compressed air on board is
• CI engine starting air system (both direct air admission and using air motor) (1-
mark)
• Pneumatic control and safety systems (1-mark)
• As a power source for machinery and tools (1-
mark)
• Miscellaneous services such as Ship whistle, boiler soot blowing, life boat winch, etc.
(1-mark)
Pesonal safety
• Before any work is commenced electric power must be turned off at the starter panel
and the main switch board. Breaker on the main switch board must be marked with a
notice (eg. Repair work is in progress)
(1-mark)
• The discharge valve must be closed and the pressure must be released in all
pressurized part of the compressor.
(1-mark)
• The safety valve, bursting disc (safety plate) and other safety equipment must be
fitted and inspected regularly.
(1-mark)
• The compressor must never be used if the safety equipment is defective.
(1-mark)

9) (b) What should be checked during operation of air compressor? Describe the
indications of defective valve plates.
(8-marks)

• First identify which is running compressor and standby compressor (0.5-

mark)
• Check auto cut-in and cut-out pressure of each compressor (0.5-
mark)
• Ensure all unloader valves are functional during starting. If the motor ampere is
found abnormally high during starting, the unloader valves could be defective.(0.5-
mark)
• Check 1st stage (low pressure) and 2nd stage (high pressure) pressure gauges.
(0.5-mark)
• Check air temperature in/out of intercooler and cooling water temperature in/out
(0.5-mark)
• Check air temperature in/out of aftercooler and cooling water temperature in/out
(0.5-mark)
• Check Sump oil level (0.5-mark)
• Check lub: oil pressure (0.5-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Check lub: oil drip lubrication (0.5-mark)

• Check air compressor air system leakages (0.5-
mark)
• Check any other abnormality (eg. noise, vibration) (0.5-
mark)
• Check safety equipment (safety valve, bursting disc, fusible plug if fitted) (0.5-
mark)
Indications of defective suction and discharge valve plates
• Safety valve becomes open (0.5-mark)
• Compressor running time abnormally longer (0.5-mark)
• Air bottle pressure could not rise though compressor is running (0.5-mark)
• Delivery air temperature high (0.5-mark)

10) (a) Differentiate fan, blowers and compressor? (8-marks)

• Fans, blowers and compressors are differentiated by the method used to move the air,
and by the system pressure they must operate against. (2-
marks)
• As per American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) the specific ratio - is used for
defining the fans, blowers and compressors. (2-marks)
• Specific ratio is the ratio of the discharge pressure over the suction pressure.
(2-marks)

(2-marks

10) (b) Describe the principles of centrifugal fans & blowers operation? (8-marks)

• The Impeller rotates as fast as 15,000 rpm. Air enters the impeller parallel to the axis of
rotation. (1-
mark)
• Air then turns in radial direction at the blade inlet of Centrifugal Fan. (1-mark)
• Air is guided by the rotating blade in radially outward direction. (1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• The momentum provided to the air causes increase in kinetic and potential energy of air
thereby generating air flow and static pressure. (1-
mark)
• Air at outlet of Centrifugal fan impeller is at high velocity. (1-mark)
• The high velocity air discharge is guided by the volute casing. (1-mark)
• Centrifugal fan volute casing reduces the air velocity converting velocity head to static
head. (1-mark)
• If the high velocity of air coming out of the impeller is not reduced sufficiently and
properly guided it will lead to higher losses. (1-mark)

11) Explain the types of centrifugal fans & blowers? (16-marks)

• Forward Centrifugal Fan:
- Blades are curved forward with respect to direction of rotation. (1-mark)
- Forward curve centrifugal fan design is used for high volume and low pressure
application. (upto 2inch of WG) (1-
mark)
- Pressure rise is mostly due to high absolute velocity of air at outlet of impeller.
(1-mark)
• Backward Centrifugal Fan:
- Blades are curved backwards with respect to direction of rotation. (1-mark)
- Backward curve centrifugal fan design is used from low pressure to high pressure
application. (2inch to 60inch WG) (1-mark)
- Static Pressure rise is mostly due to momentum difference between blades at outlet
and inlet. (1-mark)
- Increase in absolute velocity imparts velocity pressure to the impeller.
(1-mark)
• Radial Blades Fan:
- Blades are perpendicular to the axis of rotation. (1-mark)
- Radial Blade design is used for high pressure application. (1-mark)
- Although low in efficiency the design is excellent for dusty environment as the dust
cannot stick on the blades because of geometry. (1-
mark)

(6-marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

12) (a) Describe 2-stage air compressor? (8-

marks)
• Bearing lubrication by a gear pump attached to the end of the crank shaft. (1-mark)
• Cooling water is circulated through the cylinder block, and safety valve or (bursting
disc) fitted to prevent excessive pressure. Thermostat is also fitted.
(1-mark)
• Inter-cooler is to cool the air after the first stage compression and after-cooler is to cool
the air after second stage compression. (1-
mark)
• Safety valve (lift at 10% excess pressure) fitted each after the first stage compression
and after the second stage compression.
(1-mark)
• Unloader valve is fitted to reduce the starting torque for the machine and clear out any
accumulated moisture and oil from the system. (1-
mark)
• Fusible plug is fitted at after last stage cooler air outlet. When the air temperature is
high (above 105˚C), it melts. (1-
mark)
• Low lift plate type compressor valve plates are made of specially hardened and heat
resistant grain flow. (1-
mark)
• This plate type of valve provides a large area of opening for a small amount of lift, open
and close in a minimum of time. (1-
mark)

12) (b) Describe air condition system on board? (8-

marks)
● Air conditioning system provides a comfortable working environment regardless of
outside conditions. (1-
mark)
● Relative humidity in conjunction with temperature more truly determines the environment
for human comfort. (1-mark)
● Relative humidity, expressed as a percentage, is the ratio of the water vapour pressure
in the air tested, to the saturated vapour pressure of air at the same temperature. (1-
mark)
● It involves a relatively 'closed' system where the air is circulated and returned. However,
some air is 'consumed' by humans and some machinery so there is a requirement for
renewal.
(1-mark)
● Public rooms and accommodation will operate with a reduced percentage of air renewal
since the conditioning cost of 100% renewal would be considerable.
(1-mark)
● Galleys and sanitary spaces, for instance, must have 100% renewal, but here the air
quantities and treatment costs will be much smaller. (1-
mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

● Systems may however be designed for 100% renewal of air although not necessarily
operated in this way. (1-
mark)
● Noise and vibration from equipment used in the system should be kept to a minimum to
avoid a different kind of discomfort. (1-
mark)

13. Explain types of most common heat exchanger configurations? (16-

marks)

(8-marks)

• Among the large variety of configurations the most common types of heat exchanger
configurations are:
(1) Parallel-flow or counter flow configuration,
(2) cross-flow configuration, and
(3) shell-and-tube configuration. (4-marks)
• Heat transfer is usually better when a flow moves across tubes than along their length.
Hence, cross-flow is often the preferred flow direction, and tends to be better than
parallel flow or counter flow configurations.
(2-marks)
• In shell and tube type heat exchanger, one of the fluids flows through the inside of the
shell and the other fluid flows through tubes passing through the inside of the shell,
thereby enabling heat transfer between the two fluids.
(2-marks)

14) (a) Explain shell and tube type heat exchangers and their maintenances? (8-
marks)
• One of the fluids flows through the inside of the shell and the other fluid flows through
tubes passing through the inside of the shell, thereby enabling heat transfer between the
two fluids.
(1-mark)
• Hot fluid enters the shell and passes around the tubes with flow guided by the baffle
plates and exits.
(1-mark)
• The baffles serve to induce turbulent mixing and a cross-flow component, both of which
increase the convection coefficient. (1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Tubes are fitted between the tube plates, one fixed and the other moveable. (1-
mark)
• Covers are fitted at the ends of tube plates. (1-mark)
• Cooling fluid enters the cover, passes through tubes and goes out through the opening
in the cover. (1-
mark)
• Flow of cooling fluid through tubes may be designed to be single pass or double pass or
more by means of division plates made on the inside of the covers.
(1-mark)
• Usually 10% defective tubes is allowed to plug in the tube stack. The tubes can be
replaced with new spares. (special tools are provided by maker)
(1-mark)

14) (b)Explain plate type heat exchangers and their maintenances? (8-marks)
• Consists of a frame holding heat transfer plates. (1-mark)
• The plate pack is compressed by a moveable pressure plate at the end opposite the
fixed frame and clamped by lateral bolts. All the threads of the bolts must be greased
and fitted with protective covers. (1-
mark)
• Plates are 0.6 mm to 0.8 mm thick, corrugated and rectangular in shape, and have
spacing 3 to 5 mm between each pair of plates. (1-
mark)
• The plates are fitted with gaskets which prevent leakage. (1-mark)
• Corrugations of plates provide extra strength, increase heat transfer surface and
produce turbulent flow. (1-
mark)
• Fluids enter and leave through ports formed in the corners of plates and working
pressure limit of heat exchanger is 14 bar. Temperature limits are 110˚C and 220˚C
depending upon gaskets.
(1-mark)
• Monitoring of inlet and outlet temperature and pressure of the cooling water and coolant
is required for satisfactory operation. (1-mark)
• While cleaning the cooler plates, suitable brush (eg. Teflon brush) should be used not to
damage the plate. Care to be taken on the seals while disassembling, cleaning,
assembling and tightening. (1-
mark)

15) (a) What are the SOLAS requirements for Main steering gear? (6-marks)
• Rudder stock shall be of adequate strength and capable of steering the ship at maximum
ahead speed. (2-marks)
• Capable of putting rudder over from 35° one side to 35° other side at its deepest draft
and maximum ahead service speed and (2-marks)
• 35° on either side to 30° on other side in 28 seconds. (1-mark)
• Operated by power and designed so as not to incur damage at maximum astern speed.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

15) (b) Briefly describe requirement of steering gear compartment. Explain steering
control systems: Follow-up, Non- Follow up, Auto pilot? (10-
marks)
• The steering gear compartments shall be:
1) readily accessible and, as far as practicable, separated from machinery spaces;
(2-marks)
2) provided with suitable arrangements to ensure working access to steering gear
machinery and controls. These arrangements shall include handrails and gratings or
other nonslip surfaces to ensure suitable working conditions in the event of hydraulic
fluid leakage.
(2-marks)
• Non follow up (NFU):
Operating the NFU control causes the rudder to rotate left or right for as long as the
control is held in the left or right position. On releasing the control the rudder remains
stationary, holding position until the NFU controller is again operated.
(2-marks)
• Follow up (FU) mode:
When the operator changes the position of the helm wheel, the rudder begins to move
and keeps moving until it reaches the ordered position indicated on the helm. To return
the rudder to midships, the helm must be manually positioned to the zero degree
position.
(2-marks)
• Auto Pilot (Auto):
The ship will automatically find its way to a pre-set route. If the ships is forced out of
course, the auto pilot will use the rudder to get the ship back on course. (2-
marks)

16) (a) What are the SOLAS requirements for Auxiliary steering gear? (8-marks)
• Capable of putting the rudder 15° one side to 15° the other side in 60 seconds, when
vessel at deepest draft and running ahead at ½ maximum ahead service speed or 7
knots whichever is greater.
(2-marks)
• Adequate strength and capable of steering at a navigable speed. (2-marks)
• Auxiliary steering gear controls from locally and if power operated also operable from
Navigation Bridge. (2-marks)
• Steering capability to be regained in not more than 45 seconds after the loss of one
power system. (2-marks)

16) (b) Describe the general cargo crane? (8-marks)

• Cranes have replaced derricks on many modern ships, located between the holds,
rotated through 360°, requiring only one man. (1-
mark)
• Double gearing is a feature of most designs, providing a higher speed at lighter loads.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• General duties crane uses a hook and grabbing crane for use with bulk cargoes.
(1-mark)
• Three separate drives: Hoisting motor for lifting the load, Luffing motor for raising or
lowering the jib, and Slewing motor for rotating the crane. (1-mark)
• The operator's cab provides clear views of all the cargo working area. (1-mark)
• Mounted on a pedestal to offer adequate visibility to the operator. (1-mark)
• Twinning can be made using a master & slave control system in the two cranes. A
common revolving platform will be necessary for this arrangement. (1-mark)
• Crane motors may be hydraulic or electric. (1-mark)

17) Describe the cargo handling equipment, Union purchase? (16-marks)

(8-marks)
• One derrick is positioned over the quay side and the other almost vertically over the
hold. (2-marks)
• Topping wires fix the height of the derricks and stays to the deck may be used to prevent
fore and aft movement. Cargo handling wires run from two winches and join at the hook.
(2-marks)
• A combination of movements from the two winches enables lifting, transfer and lowering
of the cargo. (2-marks)
• Although being very popular for many years, it requires considerable crew time to set up
and considerable manpower for operation. (2-marks)

18) (a) Describe mooring equipment? (8-marks)

• Winches with various arrangements of barrels are the usual mooring equipment used on
board ships. (1-mark)
• The winch barrel or drum is used for hauling in or letting out the wires or ropes which
will fasten the ship to the shore. (1-mark)
• The warp end is used when moving the ship using ropes or wires fastened to bollards
ashore and wrapped around the warp end of the winch. (1-mark)
• The motor drive is passed through a spur gear transmission, a clutch and thus to the
drum and warp end. (1-mark)
• A substantial frame supports the assembly of mooring equipment (1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• A band brake is used to hold the drum when required. (1-mark)

• The control arrangements for the drive motor permit forward or reverse rotation together
with a selection of speeds during operation. (1-mark)
• The flow of the tides or changes in draught due to cargo operations may result in
tensioning or slackening of mooring wires. (1-
mark)

18) (b) Write down short notes about anchor handling equipment, Windlass?(8-marks)
• It is anchor handling device where one machine may be used to handle both anchors.
The split windlass is the type where one machine is used for each anchor. (1-
marks)
• Rotating units consist of a cable lifter with shaped snugs to grip the anchor cable. The
cable lifter is to raise and lower the cable from the spurling pipe. (1-marks)
• A mooring drum is for paying out and letting go of mooring wires, and a warp end is for
warping duties. (1-
mark)
• Dog clutch is engaged or disengaged by means of a dog clutch, although the warp end
is often driven in association with the mooring drum. (1-
mark)
• Spur gear assembly transmits the motor drive to the shaft. (1-mark)
• Band brakes are fitted to hold the cable lifter and the mooring drum. (1-mark)
• Anchor capstans are used in some installations where the cable lifter rotates about a
vertical axis. (1-mark)
• A warping end or barrel may be driven by the same unit and is positioned near the
cable lifter. (1-
mark)

19) (a) Describe weather-deck and tween deck hatch covers? (8-marks)
• Steel hatch covers, comprising a number of linked steel covers, are now fitted
universally. (1-
mark)
• Simple and quick opening and closing, which speed up the cargo handling operation.
(1-mark)
• MacGregor single-pull weather-deck hatch cover is arranged to move on rollers along a
track on top of the hatch coaming. (1-mark)
• The individual covers are linked together by chains and ride up and tip onto a stowage
rack at the hatch end. (1-mark)
• A hydraulic power unit is used to open and close the hatch cover. It is operated from a
control box at the hatch end. It is also possible to open and close the covers with a
single wire pull from a crane or winch.
(1-mark)
• Water-tightness of the closed covers is achieved by pulling them down on to a
compressible jointing strip. (1-
mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• This is done by the use of cleats which may be hand-operated or automatically engaged
as the hatch closes. (1-mark)
• Some hatch covers below the weather decks (tween decks) are arranged flush with the
deck. (1-mark)

19) (b) Describe life boat gravity davit? (8-marks)

• They are provided as stowage for the lifeboats which can readily be released to lower
the boats without any mechanical assistance. (1-
mark)
• 'Gravity davits' slide down and position the boat for lowering as soon as they are
released. (1-
mark)
• It must be able to lower the boats when the ship is heeled to 15° on either side.
(1-mark)
• The lifeboat is held against the cradle by ropes called 'gripes'. Another wire, either
separate or combined with the gripes, holds the cradle in its upper position.
(1-mark)
• With the gripes and the cradle securing device free, the winch handbrake can be
released to enable the cradle to slide down and over the ship's side.
(1-mark)
• A tricing-in pendant (a wire) bring the lifeboat close to the ship's side to enable it to be
boarded. (1-mark)
• The bowsing lines which fasten to each end of the lifeboat are then used to hold it in to
the ship's side, the tricing pendant then being released. (1-mark)
• Once the crew are on board the bowsing lines are released and the lifeboat lowered to
the water. The wires which raise or lower the boat are called 'falls' and the speed of
descent is restricted to 36m/min by a centrifugal brake. (1-
mark)

20) Describe bow thruster? (16-

marks)

(8-marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Bow thruster is a propulsion device to improve manoeuvrability. (1-

mark)
• It consists of a propeller in an athwartships tunnel. (1-mark)
• Provided with some auxiliary drive such as an electric or hydraulic motor. (1-mark)
• Normally bridge controlled and most effective when the vessel is stationary. (1-
mark)
• A servo motor located in the gear housing enables the propeller blade pitch to be
altered, to provide water flow in either direction. With this arrangement any non-
reversing prime mover, like a single-speed electric motor, may be used.
(1-mark)
• The prime mover need not be stopped during manoeuvring and the blades can be
placed at zero pitch when no thrust is desired.
(1-mark)
• The drive is obtained through a flexible drive shaft, couplings and bevel gears. (1-
mark)
• Special seals prevent any sea water leakage into the unit. (1-mark)

21) (a) Describe water-tight door? (8-marks)

• Watertight doors are provided where an opening in a watertight bulkhead is essential.
(1-mark)
• On cargo ships with a shaft tunnel, the entrance would have a watertight door fitted.
(1-mark)
• All doors fitted below the waterline must be of the sliding type, arranged horizontally or
vertically. (1-mark)
• Robust frame fits into the bulkhead and provides the track way along which the door
slides. (1-mark)
• The door is moved by a hydraulic cylinder which may be power or manually operated.
(1-mark)
• The door must be arranged for local opening and closing as well as operation from a
point above the water deck. (1-
mark)
• Power unit situated above the bulkhead deck provides either powered or hand operation
of the door. (1-mark)
• Hydraulic system should be occasionally checked for leaks and to ensure sufficient oil is
present in the system. Bottom track way of the door should be checked for cleanliness
and free from obstructing matter. (1-
mark)

21) (b) Briefly explain axial cylinder pump- swash plate pump? (8-
marks)
• The swash plate and slipper pad designs are both axial cylinder pumps (1-
mark)
• The driving shaft rotates the cylinder barrel, swash plate and pistons. (1-
mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• An external trunnion (short shaft) enables the swash plate to be moved about its axis.
(1-mark)
• The cylinders in the barrel are connected to ports which extend in an arc around the
fixed port plate.
(1-mark)
• When the swash plate is vertical no pumping action takes place. (1-
mark)
• When tilted, pumping occurs, the length of stroke depending upon the angle of tilt.
(1-mark)
• Depending upon the direction of tilt the ports will be either suction or discharge.(1-mark)
• The same flexibility in operation as the radial piston type. (1-mark)

22) Briefly explain azipod propulsion? (16-marks)

(8-marks)
• It is electric podded azimuth thruster. Electric motor is mounted inside the propulsion unit
and the propeller is connected directly to the motor shaft. It can rotate around its mount
axis, the pod can apply its thrust in any direction. (2-
marks)
• Electric power for the propulsion motor is conducted through slip rings.
The Azipod unit can rotate 360 degrees about the vertical axis. (2-marks)
• Because Azipod units utilize fixed-pitch propellers, power is always fed through a
variable-frequency drive or cyclo-converter that allows speed and direction control of
the propulsion motors.
(2-marks)
• It allows ship to be more maneuverable and enable them to travel backward nearly as
efficiently as they can travel forward. Better fuel efficiency than the conventional
propulsion system.
(2-marks)

23) Briefly explain cycloidal propulsion? (16-marks)

Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

(6-marks)

• These propellers turn about a vertical axis. Several narrow vertical blades (vanes) are
suspended below the hull from a flat circular rotating plate that receives it power from
some prime mover such as a diesel engine.
(2-marks)
• Each blade rotates on its own vertical axis as the family of blades revolves about the
center of the turning plate. This rotation is controlled by internal eccentric gears in such
a way that the overall system produces thrust in any desired horizontal direction, or no
thrust at all when desired.
(2-marks)
• Ships fitted with these kind of propellers do not need a rudder and such ships have very
good maneuverability. (2-marks)
• These propellers were first commercially developed by the Voith Schneider Company
and therefore referred to as Voith Schneider wheels. (2-marks)
• It is highly maneuverable and able to change the direction of its thrust almost
instantaneously. But the blades of the drive protruding from the bottom of the hull make
shallow water operation a problem. (2-
marks)

24) Describe General cargo handling equipment? (16-

marks)
• Almost 90 percent of general cargo (goods, merchandise, commodities) in most liner
cargo trades today is containerized. (2-marks)
• General cargo is handled by cranes on the quay, floating cranes or by the ship's own
cargo gear (deck cranes, derricks, etc.). (2-
marks)
• Attached to such lifting gear is a shackle which links the crane or derrick with the form of
cargo-handling equipment being used. For most lifts a hook is used. (2-
marks)
• There are numerous types of tools or loose gear that can be attached to the shipboard
or shore-based lifting gear. (2-marks)
• Sling or strop, generally made of rope, is ideal for hoisting strong packages, such as
wooden cases or bagged cargo, which is not likely to sag or be damaged when raised.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Snotters or canvas slings are suitable for bagged cargo. (1-mark)

• Chain slings, are used for heavy slender cargoes, such as timber or steel rails.
(1-mark)
• Can or barrel hooks are suitable for hoisting barrels or drums. (1-mark)
• Cargo nets are suitable for mail bags and similar cargoes that are not liable to be
crushed when hoisted. (1-
mark)
• Heavy lifting beams are suitable for heavy and long articles such as locomotives,
boilers or railway passenger coaches. (1-
mark)
• Cargo trays and pallets, the latter being wooden or of steel construction, are ideal for
cargo of moderate dimensions, which can be conveniently stacked. (1-
mark)
• Plate clamps are used for lifting metal plates. (1-mark)

25) (a) Describe bulk cargo handling equipment? (8-

marks)
• Power-propelled conveyor belts are usually fed at the landward end by a hopper.
Grabs (which may be magnetic for handling ores) are fixed to a high capacity travelling
crane or travelling gantries. (2-marks)
• These gantries move parallel to the quay and are able to plumb the ship's hold. These
types of equipment are suitable for handling coal and ores. (2-marks)
• In the case of bulk sugar, when the grab is also used, the sugar would be discharged
into a hopper, feeding by gravity a railway wagon or road vehicle below. (2-marks)
• Elevators or silos are normally associated with grain. They may be operated by
pneumatic suction which sucks the grain out of the ship's hold. (2-
marks)

25) (b)Describe liquid cargo handling equipment? (8-marks)

• Liquid bulk cargo, crude oil and derivatives, from the tanker is discharged via pipelines
connected to the shore-based storage tanks. (2-marks)
• Pumping equipment is provided in the tanker storage plant or refinery ashore, but not on
the quayside. (2-marks)
• To handle the dangerous cargo, the special berths are built a small distance from the
main dock system on the seaward side. (2-
marks)
• Oil cargo is discharged from the ship’s tanks, via the cargo piping system to the main
ship’s manifold usually situated amidships, on either port or starboard side. From there
by means of shore-based loading arms oil is transferred to the shore manifold and is
then distributed to shore-based storage tanks on the oil terminal. The loading arm hose
must be flanged oil-tight to the ship’s manifold so that oil spills can be avoided.
(2-marks)

26) Describe types of air horn commonly found on board? (16-

marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

(8-marks)

• Create an extremely loud noise for signalling purposes. (1-

mark)
• International regulations require audible signals by a ship in conditions of poor visibility.
(1-mark)
• Give prolonged blasts at timed intervals when operated by a hand control or automatic
control setting. (1-
mark)
• Consists of a flaring metal or plastic horn or trumpet (called the "bell") attached to a
small air chamber containing a metal reed or diaphragm in the throat of the horn. (1-
mark)
• Compressed air flows from an inlet line through a narrow opening past the reed or
diaphragm, causing it to vibrate. Sound wave created and amplified in the horn.
(1-mark)
• Horn length determines the wavelength of the sound waves and the frequency (pitch) of
the note produced by the horn. The longer the horn, the lower the pitch. (1-
mark)
• In larger air horns, the air escapes from a closed cylindrical resonator chamber through
a precisely shaped slit directed against a knife edge (fipple). (1-
mark)
• Air blowing past the knife edge oscillates and creates sound waves. The oscillations
excite standing waves in the resonator chamber. The length of the chamber determines
the pitch of the note produced.
(1-mark)

27) Explain hydrophore system on board? (16-

marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

(8-marks)

• The system consists of hydrophore tank (pressure vessel) which contains water and
pressurized with air. It is the air pressure which propels the water to the uppermost deck
on the ship.
(1-mark)
• Initially a hydrophore tank is partially filled with water from fresh water storage tank by
using hydrphore pump. (1-
mark)
• Above the water level a compressed air is then charged to create head pressure. (1-
mark)
• Compressed air builds up head pressure. Hence the water can reach up to highest level
of accommodation. (1-mark)
• As the water is consumed, the level falls in the hydrophore tank and the air pressure
also decreases. When the pressure falls to the set pressure (cut in pressure) the
hydrophore pump will automatically cut in.
(1-mark)
• As the water then rises up in the tank the air pressure also increases to reach set
pressure, the pump will cut out.
(1-mark)
• Hydrophore system provides engine room service water, domestic service and drinking
water. (1-
mark)
• Water level in the hydrophore tank should be within the sight glass. The compressed air
pressure to be maintained within the preset range. (1-mark)

28) Describe the types of marine use air conditioning system? (16-
marks)
Single duct system
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

● Cargo ships widely use this system to distribute conditioned air to a number of cabins or
spaces via a single pipe or duct. (1-
mark)
● In warm climates a mixture of fresh and recirculated air is cooled and dehumidified
during its passage over the refrigeration unit.
(1-mark)
● In cold climates the air mixture is warmed and humidified either by steam, hot water or
electric heating elements. (1-
mark)
● The temperature and humidity of the air is controlled automatically at the central unit.
(1-mark)
● Within the conditioned space, the control is by variation of the volume flow of air.
(1-mark)
Twin-duct system
● Provides increased flexibility and is mainly used on passenger ships. (1-
mark)
● A central unit is used with cooled dehumidified air provided through one duct. (1-
mark)
● The other duct is supplied with cooled air that has been reheated. (1-mark)
● Each treated space is provided with a supply from each duct which may be mixed as
required at the outlet terminal.
(1-mark)
● In cold climates the preheater will warm both supplies of air, resulting in a warm and a
hot supply to each space. (1-
mark)

Single duct with reheat system

● It is used for vessels operating in mainly cool climates. (1-
mark)
● The central unit will cool and dehumidify or preheat and humidify the air as required by
outside conditions. (1-
mark)
● In addition, before discharge into the treated space a local reheating unit will heat the air
if required, depending upon the room thermostat setting. (1-
mark)
● The central unit is direct-expansion system which uses a reciprocating compressor, sea
water cooled condenser and a thermostatically controlled regulating valve.
(1-mark)
● The air to be cooled passes over the evaporator or cooler. (1-mark)
● The cooling effect of the unit may need to be reduced if there is no great demand and
the hot gas bypass system provides this facility.
(1-mark)

29) Describe the container ships and cargo handling system? ( 1 6 -

marks)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Container ships are characterized by the absence of cargo handling gear. (1-mark)
• Requires large hatches in the deck and standardized containers usually either 20 or 40
feet in length. ( 1 -
mark)
• Containers are most often measured in Twenty Feet Equivalent Units (TEU’s). ( 1 -
mark)
• Below decks, ship is equipped with a cellular grid of compartments called Rows, Bays
and Tiers opening to the weather deck.
(1-mark)
• The rows run abeam, or athwartship; the bays run fore and aft and the tiers are
horizontal layers.
(1-mark)
• The three-figure code on each container refers to this stowage system. ( 1 -
mark)
• One or two layers of containers are loaded on the hatch covers on deck depending upon
the size and stability of the ship
(1-mark)

Advantages
• An additional economy is the low cost of the crew of the ship while it is in port waiting
loading or unloading ( 1 -
mark)
• Ship can make more trips than before, container fleets require fewer vessels. ( 1 -
mark)
• Also less pilferage and, hence, lower insurance rates. ( 1 -
mark)
• Ship does not carry quite as much as with regular bulk stowage. ( 1 -
mark)
• Rather substantial capital investment is needed in port facilities. ( 1 -
mark)
• Moderate-size merchant vessels built for speeds of greater than about 20 knots. ( 1 -
mark)
• Small, compact, diesel power plants to provide more space for containers. ( 1 -
mark)
• Mooring winches to ensure accurate positioning of the ship under cranes in port(1-
mark)
• Special tanks to list (tip) and trim (level) the ship to permit a symmetrical loading or
unloading without excessive list or trim.
(1-mark)

30) (a) Describe ventilation system? (8-marks)

• Ventilation is the provision of a supply of fresh untreated air through a space.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• Natural ventilation occurs when changes in temperature or air density cause circulation
in the space. (1-
mark)
• Natural ventilation is used for some small workshops and stores but is impractical for
working areas where machinery is present or a number of people are employed.
(1-mark)
• Mechanical or forced ventilation uses fans for a positive movement of large quantities
of air. (1-
mark)
• Mechanical or forced ventilation may be used in cargo spaces where the movement
of air removes moisture or avoids condensation, removes odours or gases, etc. (1-
mark)
• As machinery space is large and consumes a large volume of air, a treatment plant
would be extremely costly to run.
(1-mark)
• Ventilation is therefore provided in sufficient quantities for machinery air consumption
and also to effect cooling. (1-
mark)
• Several axial-flow fans provide air through ducting to the various working platforms.
The hot air rises in the centre and leaves through louvres or openings, usually in the
funnel. (1-mark)

30) (b) Describe steering gear testing prior departure?

(8-marks)
Prior to a ship’s departure from any port the steering gear tests should include:
• 1. Operation of the main steering gear. (1-
mark)
• 2. Operation of the auxiliary steering gear or use of the second pump which acts as the
auxiliary.
(1-mark)
• 3. Operation of the remote control (telemotor) system or systems from the main bridge
steering positions. (1-
mark)
• 4. Operation of the steering gear using the emergency power supply. (1-
mark)
• 5. The rudder angle indicator reading with respect to the actual rudder angle should be
checked.
(1-mark)
• 6. The alarms fitted to the remote control system and the steering gear power units
should be checked for correct operation.
(1-mark)
• During these tests the rudder should be moved through its full travel in both directions
and the various equipment items, linkages, etc, visually inspected for damage or wear.
(1-mark)
Examination Course of Electro-technical Officer (STCW Reg. III/6)
Subject: General Engineering Knowledge (Model Answer)

• The communication system between the bridge and the steering gear compartment
should also operate. (1-
mark)