Social Psychology Canadian 2nd Edition Kassin Test Bank

Social Psychology Canadian 2nd
Edition Kassin Test Bank

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Chapter 8: Group Processes
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Martha and Janice both live in Vancouver. Martha lives in False Creek and Janice lives in the
West End. In which of the following scenarios would they be most likely to consider
themselves in the same group?
a. They both play softball and their teams are playing in a local tournament.
b. They both raise funds for the same charity.
c. They both shop at Safeway, the grocery store chain in their neighbourhood.
d. They both use Vancouver transit.
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 271 BLM: Higher order
2. How do groups differ from collectives?

a. Groups, but not collectives, engage in common activities.
b. Collectives, but not groups, engage in common activities.
c. Groups have more direct interaction with one another than collectives do.
d. Collectives have more direct interaction with one another than groups do.
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 273 BLM: Remember
3. What do psychologists call people who are engaged in a common enterprise but have little
direct interaction?
a. a minimal group
b. a collective
c. conspecifics
d. a disjunctive group
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 273 BLM: Remember
4. Which of the following would most likely be described as a collective?

a. members of a fraternity
b. children attending summer camp
c. passengers on a plane
d. a family
ANS: C PTS: 1 REF: 273 BLM: Higher order
5. What do psychologists call the extent to which group members think, act, and feel like a
single entity?
a. social integration
b. social facilitation
c. need for affiliation
d. groupthink
6. In one of the earliest social psychological experiments, Triplett (1898) had children wind
fishing reels as quickly as they could. What did he find?
a. The children were fastest when observed by the experimenter.
b. Winding times were faster without an audience than with an audience.
c. The children were faster when working next to another child rather than alone.
d. The children were faster working alone than with a partner.
7. What do psychologists call the tendency for the presence of other people to increase
performance on easy tasks and impair performance on difficult tasks?
a. social loafing
c. group polarization
d. groupthink
8. Vladimir, a basketball novice, makes about 70 percent of his free throws when practising
alone. However, when playing with his friends, he only makes about 50 percent of his free
throws. What is the most likely cause of this decrease?
a. social facilitation
b. deindividuation
c. group polarization
d. groupthink
9. What effect will facilitation of the dominant response from increased arousal tend to have?
a. It will make easy tasks easier, but difficult tasks more challenging.
b. It will make both easy and difficult tasks easier.
c. It will have no effect on easy tasks, but will make difficult tasks more challenging.
d. It will have no effect on challenging tasks, but will make easy tasks easier.
10. Zajonc's model for how the presence of others influences individual performance is known as
social facilitation. In this case, what does “facilitation” refers to?
a. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's ability to focus on the
task at hand
b. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's task performance
c. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's evaluation
apprehension
d. the fact that the presence of others facilitates a performer's dominant response
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 279 BLM: Higher order
11. According to the theory of social facilitation, what effect should the presence of others have
on someone who is performing a task?
a. It should improve performance on both easy and challenging tasks.
b. It should impair performance on both easy and challenging tasks.
c. It should improve performance on easy tasks and impair performance on
challenging tasks.
d. It should impair performance on easy tasks and improve performance on
challenging tasks.
12. Your psychology professor calls you in front of the class and asks you to answer practice
exam questions in front of everyone. You find the questions to be easy. According to the
model of social facilitation, how should you perform in front of the class compared to
working on the questions alone?
a. You would respond more slowly but get more correct answers.
b. You would respond more quickly but get more incorrect answers.
c. You would perform better if the task is well practised.
d. You would perform worse if the task is newly learned.
13. Consider the research by Zajonc et al. (1969), in which cockroaches run in simple or complex
mazes either alone, in pairs, or with an audience. Which explanation of social facilitation does
this research provide support for?
a. the evaluation apprehension theory
b. the distraction-conflict theory
c. the persuasive arguments theory
d. the mere presence theory
14. According to Zajonc's mere presence hypothesis, what does social facilitation result from?
a. the physical immediacy of others
b. concerns about being evaluated by others
c. dividing attention between the task at hand and the audience
d. a reduction in arousal
ANS: A PTS: 1 REF: 280 BLM: Remember
15. Cottrell et al. (1968) found that dominant responses were no more frequent among people
working in the presence of blindfolded others than among people working alone. Which
theory of social facilitation is this finding consistent with?
a. the evaluation apprehension theory
b. the distraction-conflict theory
c. the persuasive arguments theory
d. the mere presence theory
16. Which of the following has been proposed to explain social facilitation?
a. group cohesiveness
b. norms of group behaviour
c. distraction, which can create attentional conflict
d. the tendency for people to feel less accountable in a group context
17. Consider the research of Ingham and colleagues (1974), in which blindfolded people were led
to believe they were pulling a rope with others. What did the researchers find about the effort
expended by those blindfolded participants?
a. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled as hard during their peaks of effort,
but they took more rests
b. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled harder.
c. Compared to those pulling alone, they pulled as hard during their peaks of effort,
but they took fewer rests.
d. Compared to those pulling alone, they did not pull as hard.
18. What did Ringelmann's research in the 1880s demonstrate?

a. People exert less effort in simple group tasks than they would if working alone.
b. The presence of other people improves performance on simple group tasks.
c. Groups tend to make more extreme decisions than individuals.
d. Individual performance is impaired by the distraction of an audience.
19. Ingham (1974) asked participants to pull on a rope and found that participants pulled almost
20 percent harder when they thought they were pulling alone than when they thought they
were part of a group. What does this example illustrate?
a. social loafing
b. a social dilemma
c. groupthink
d. social facilitation
20. What do psychologists call the decrease in individual effort that occurs when people engage in
a shared group activity?
b. social loafing
c. deindividuation
d. group polarization
21. Professor Fester notices that her students seem to put more effort into their individual
assignments than into their group projects. What is the most likely cause of this result?
a. social loafing
b. group facilitation
c. groupthink
d. group polarization
22. An employee is working with a group of co-workers to finish a project at work. In which of
the following cases will the employee be most likely to engage in social loafing?
a. if the employee is high in need for cognition
b. if the employee is from an individualist culture
c. if the employee perceives the project outcome to be personally important
d. if the employee is female
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 281-282 BLM: Higher order
23. Social loafing is usually reduced when people believe which of the following?
a. that their contribution to the group project is anonymous
b. that others will join them in working on a project
c. that their efforts are necessary for a successful outcome
d. that the task will be easy
24. Lynn needs to get her subordinates to all invest considerable time and energy into the
development of a new design for the company's fall clothing line. If she wants to reduce the
likelihood of social loafing, what should she do?
a. bring together a large group of diverse individuals
b. tell the subordinates how important the project is to her
c. bring together a small group of people who don’t know each other well
d. communicate to them how success of the project will benefit each of them
personally
25. Esteban's work group has been assigned a new project by management. Before deciding how
much effort to exert on this new assignment, Esteban considers how important the group goals
are to him and whether his input will help the group reach its goals. Which of the following is
most consistent with Esteban's thinking?
a. distraction-conflict theory
b. the collective effort model
c. the social identity model of deindividuation
d. persuasive arguments theory
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 282 BLM: Higher order
26. Which of the following does the collective effort model proposed by Karau and Williams
(1993) help to explain?
a. group polarization effects
c. social loafing
d. deindividuation
27. According to the collective effort model, in which of the following conditions is social loafing
most likely?
a. when people see the group outcome as personally important
b. when people believe the group outcome is important to other group members
c. when people believe that their efforts will lead to the desired outcome
d. when people feel that their input will not compensate for social loafing by others
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 282 BLM: Remember
28. Henderson suspects that the other members of his work group may slack off, so he works late
and puts in extra time on their proposal. What is Henderson engaging in?
a. social compensation
c. social loafing
d. deindividuation
29. According to the model of social facilitation, when the presence of others is physiologically
arousing, what tends to happen to a person's performance?
a. It tends to decrease on a task that is well-practised.
b. It tends to increase on a task that is well-practised.
c. It tends to increase on a task that is newly-learned.
d. It tends to improve on any type of task.
30. The presence of others can improve performance on difficult tasks when the individual's
arousal level is low but only when also paired with which of the following?
a. high evaluation pressure
b. low evaluation pressure
c. high cultural collectivism
d. low cultural collectivism
31. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to deindividuation?
a. strong emotions
b. feelings of being alone
c. low arousal
d. anonymity
32. What is deindividuation?

a. the loss of individuality and reduction of constraints against deviant behaviour
b. the decrease in individual effort on simple group tasks
c. the tendency for group decisions to be more extreme than the decisions of the
individuals comprising the group
d. the impairment in group decision making that results from a concern with
unanimity
33. At crowded parties, Amy loses her sense of self and, as a result, often behaves in ways that
she later regrets. For Amy, what do these parties seem to create?
a. deindividuation
b. cohesiveness
c. groupthink
d. entrapment
34. How do accountability cues contribute to deindividuation?

a. by increasing self-awareness
b. by decreasing arousal
c. by producing evaluation apprehension
d. by altering cost-reward calculations
35. In which of the following conditions is deindividuation most likely?

a. when accountability for behaviour is high
b. when accountability for behaviour is low
c. when the group is engaged in a conjunctive task
d. when the group is engaged in a disjunctive task
36. Sheila and Peter are invited to a masquerade party. At the party, people start insulting and
pushing around Parker, another guest at the party. Given the research on deindividuation, in
which of the following situations are Sheila and Peter likely to join in the harassment?
a. If Sheila was dressed as a nun and Peter was dressed as a priest.
b. If Sheila and Peter were dressed as gangsters.
c. If Sheila and Peter wore masks and could not be recognized.
d. If Sheila and Peter wore make-up and could be recognized
37. Which of the following is most likely to be increased by attentional cues that decrease
self-awareness?
a. deindividuated behaviour
b. social facilitation on an easy task
c. cooperation in a prisoner's dilemma
d. groupthink in a decision-making process
38. Which of the following is most likely to occur in conditions when an actor feels anonymous
and free from evaluation apprehension?
b. social influence
c. social conformity
d. social loafing
39. It seems that every Halloween night, the city of Gotham is marred by violence and vandalism.
Which of the following recommendations by the leaders of Gotham should lead to the
reduction of such behaviour?
a. decrease self-awareness by making sure everyone who goes out has a cellphone or
mp3 player
b. decrease anonymity by making sure that everyone goes out alone
c. make sure that people only venture outside in groups
d. create a highly stimulating environment by playing loud Halloween music over all
public address systems
40. Harriett goes trick-or-treating on Halloween. She arrives at her neighbour's door just as the
phone is ringing. Her neighbour puts the candy on the table and says, “I need to get the phone,
so help yourself to whatever kind of candy you want, but please take only one piece.” Which
of the following would most encourage Harriett to take only one piece of candy?
a. if her neighbour was not able to identify Harriett behind her costume
b. if Harriett is dressed up as a Girl Scout
c. if the candy is placed in front of a Jack-o-lantern
d. if Harriett is two years old rather than twelve years old
41. Johnson and Downing (1979) found that participants wearing nurses' uniforms delivered
lower levels of shock when they were anonymous than when they were identifiable. What
does this finding suggest that deindividuation causes people to do?
a. It causes them to feel that the normative standards of the group do not apply to
them.
b. It causes them to engage in destructive behaviour when they are anonymous.
c. It causes them to rely more heavily on personal standards of behaviour when they
are anonymous.
d. It causes them to act in ways that are consistent with the norms of the most salient
group.
ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: 285-286 BLM: Higher order
42. According to the social identity model of deindividuation effects, what does deindividuated
behaviour result from?
a. a reduction in social identity
b. concerns about being evaluated by group members
c. conformity to the most immediate group norms
d. simultaneous social categorizations
43. According to the textbook, which of the following reasons is the most important influence on
why people join groups?
a. to be free from social threat
b. to fulfill the need to belong
c. to reduce superordinate identities
d. to reduce interactions with disliked others
44. Sharice has just joined the theatre group in her community. Which of the following is most
likely?
a. She is optimistic that joining the group will be beneficial.
b. Because she is new to the group, it won't matter if she is rejected from the group.
c. She will feel good about herself even if the group is of low status.
d. Belonging to the group will not affect her sense of self.
45. Madeline has recently been accepted into a sorority at her university. Which of the following
is most likely to happen?
a. She will look to the other new members of the group to determine appropriate
group behaviour.
b. She will be skeptical that sorority membership will be advantageous until she is
more comfortable within the group.
c. She will engage in social loafing until she feels like an accepted member of the
group.
d. She will model her behaviour on that of long-standing group members.
46. Nita has just joined the rowing club, an organization that has been low in members for the last
several years. Which of the following will most likely happen?
a. She will assimilate into the club, making whatever changes are necessary to fit in,
while the club will make little accommodation.
b. She will become committed to the group if the group members accept each other
and the group.
c. She will make few changes to fit in, hoping the group will accept her as she is.
d. She will rarely rely on her relationships with established members of the club.
47. Tuckman and Jensen propose that groups develop through stages. In order, what are these
stages?
a. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning
b. forming, norming, storming, performing, adjourning
c. forming, performing, storming, norming, adjourning
d. forming, norming, performing, storming, adjourning
48. The members of the student council are in the process of reconciling their conflicts and
developing a common sense of purpose. Which of Tuckman and Jensen's (1977) stages of
group development is the student council at?
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
49. Compared to Tuckman and Jensen's (1977) stages of group development, what does Gersick
(1988) suggest about groups?
a. Groups develop gradually through a series of stages.
b. Groups adopt problem-solving strategies relatively quickly in their development.
c. Groups progress through the first stage of development rather quickly, but
relatively slowly through the latter stages.
d. There is little variability between groups in the course of development.
50. Which of the following is one of the essential components of groups?

a. rules
b. norms
c. collectivism
d. status
51. What are group roles?

a. Group roles are the rules of conduct for group members.
b. Group roles are the forces that keep groups together.
c. Group roles are the set of expected tasks for group members.
d. Group roles are the titles assigned to different group members.
52. What types of roles develop in groups?

a. instrumental and emotional roles
b. informational and informal roles
c. motivational and political roles
d. formal and gender roles
53. Deborah has just joined a sorority. She is unsure what she should wear when she goes to eat at
the sorority's dining hall. What is Deborah uncertain about?
a. the informal role
b. the formal role
c. the informal norm
d. the formal norm
54. If a leader focuses his or her group on the tasks it needs to achieve, what role is he or she
playing?
a. a facilitator role
b. an instrumental role
c. a normative role
d. an expressive role
55. In her group, Melanie is always the one who breaks the tension with a funny story and
provides a shoulder to cry on when things go wrong. Which role is she playing?
a. an expressive role
b. a facilitator role
c. an instrumental role
d. a normative role
56. In which of the following scenarios is productivity likely to be highest?

a. Daphne isn't quite sure what her role in the group is.
b. Frank must play both an instrumental and an expressive role in the group.
c. Amanda's role in the group seems to be constantly changing.
d. Pierre assumes a clearly defined instrumental role in the group.
57. How are group norms and roles similar?

a. Neither will directly influence group productivity.
b. Both can be formal or informal.
c. Both negatively impact group cohesiveness.
d. They are both more important to men than women.
58. Which of the following is most likely to decrease group cohesiveness?

a. threats from within the group
b. commitment to the group cause
c. high costs associated with leaving the group
d. a dangerous environment
59. Calvin is part of a highly cohesive group and wants to be sure that this cohesiveness positively
impacts the performance of the group. In which of the following situations could Calvin be
most certain of this?
a. if his group was large rather than small
b. if his group works on tasks that are interdependent
c. if the prevailing norms in the group are negative
d. if successful performance requires creativity
60. What has research concerning the relationship between group performance and cohesiveness
shown?
a. Group performance and cohesiveness are largely unrelated.
b. The relationship is stronger in large groups.
c. The relationship is stronger when interdependence between members is required
for the task.
d. The causal direction of this relationship is mostly one-way, such that cohesiveness
increases group performance.
61. What do psychologists call the tendency for groups to become more extreme in their positions
following discussion?
a. group polarization
b. social loafing
c. a social dilemma
62. Following group discussion, which of the following is most likely result?
a. Group decisions will tend to become more conservative than the positions of the
individuals comprising the group.
b. Group decisions will tend to become more risky than the positions of the
c. Group decisions will tend to reflect the average of the positions of the individuals
comprising the group.
d. Group decisions will tend to become more extreme than the positions of the
63. Before a meeting, each of several city council members was tentatively considering an air
pollution ordinance. After a meeting, they expressed strong support of the ordinance. What
does this example illustrate?
b. social loafing
c. group persuasion
64. A group of high school students is discussing the legalization of drugs. The students taking
part in the discussion mildly support the position that drugs should not be legalized. If group
polarization were to occur following the discussion, which of the following would most likely
happen?
a. Students would be less strongly opposed to the legalization of drugs.
b. Students would be more strongly opposed to the legalization of drugs.
c. Students would be more likely to experiment with drugs.
d. Students' attitudes would not change as a result of the discussion.
65. Myers and Bishop (1970) set up groups of relatively prejudiced and unprejudiced high school
students and asked them to respond to issues concerning racial attitudes, both before and after
discussion of these issues. Following the group discussions, what was the result?
a. Both groups became more prejudiced.
b. Both groups became less prejudiced.
c. Those who were relatively unprejudiced became less prejudiced and those who
were relatively prejudiced became more prejudiced.
d. Those who were relatively unprejudiced became more prejudiced and those who
were relatively prejudiced became less prejudiced.
66. In which of the following cases is group polarization most likely to occur?
a. when group members are discussing important issues
b. when group members are discussing unimportant issues
c. when group members know one another
d. when group members do not know one another
67. Which of the following makes the greatest contribution to group polarization?
a. an increase in dominant responses under conditions of high arousal
b. lack of group cohesiveness
c. deindividuation of group members
d. the desire to distinguish one's group from other groups
68. Based on the social comparison explanation of group polarization, which of the following
should have the most influence on group members' attitudes toward an issue?
a. how different their attitudes are from those of an outgroup
b. those in the ingroup who favour a cautious approach
c. the number of people in their group who share that attitude
d. those in the ingroup who offer the most arguments relevant to the issue
69. Latasha joined a campus group called “Young Conservatives.” Which of these outcomes is
most consistent with the persuasive-arguments explanation for group polarization?
a. In the attempt to fit in, Latasha adjusts her attitudes to be even more conservative.
b. Latasha self-categorizes as a conservative, and her political beliefs become more
extreme as a result.
c. After exposure to ideas she has not thought of before, Latasha comes to possess
even more conservative beliefs.
d. In an attempt to convince others she is a “good” conservative, Latasha persuades
herself to be more conservative.
70. Which theory maintains that group polarization is the result of the quantity and quality of
ideas exchanged in the group?
a. social comparisons theory
b. balance theory
c. social categorizations theory
d. persuasive arguments theory
71. Which of the following is an informational social influence explanation for group
polarization?
a. mindless conformity
b. persuasive arguments
c. social comparisons
d. biased samplings
72. In which of the following situations is group polarization least likely to occur?
a. In deciding the best way to recruit new members, the members of Alpha Beta
Fraternity are concerned that their fraternity is distinct from the other fraternities
on campus.
b. While discussing the possibility of offering more outpatient services, the members
of the hospital board are surprised that so many members favour the proposal.
c. The re-election committee discusses both the potential advantages and
disadvantages of leaking negative information about the opposing candidate.
d. In one of the most important decisions it has ever faced, the prosecution team must
decide whether to press criminal charges against a high-ranking public official.
73. In which of the following situations is groupthink most likely to emerge?
a. when the need for agreement takes priority over the desire to obtain correct
information
b. when group members feel that they will be unable to compensate for social loafing
c. when individual benefits are in conflict with the needs of the group
d. when group norms overwhelm individual identities
74. In which of the following cases is groupthink most likely to occur?

a. when groups have systematic decision-making procedures
b. if the group lacks a strong directive leader
c. in low-stress situations
d. in highly cohesive groups
75. Which of the following characteristics of groups contribute to groupthink?

a. having several different ingroup orientations
b. having several different group leaders
c. group size
d. group stress
76. Hendrika owns a small aerospace company and wants to make sure that she recognizes the
signs of groupthink if it crops up in her group meetings. She should be especially concerned
that groupthink may be occurring if the group exhibits which of the following characteristics?
a. coalition formation
b. social loafing
c. divergent thinking
d. closed-mindedness
77. According to Janis, what is the most important behavioural symptom of groupthink?
a. an illusion of similarity
b. a tendency to cautiously support decisions
c. a tendency toward self-censorship
d. pessimism about what might happen
78. When groups exhibit groupthink, which of the following tends to characterize their decisions?
a. an examination of the risks associated with their preferred course of action
b. an exhaustive survey of group goals and objectives
c. a comprehensive contingency plan should their preferred course of action fail
d. a selective bias in processing of the information relevant to their decision
79. Four groups, A, B, C, and D, are meeting separately. Each is making an important decision.
Below is one quotation overheard from each group's meeting. Based on these quotations,
which group seems least likely to fall victim to groupthink?
a. A: “The good Lord is on our side.”
b. B: “This is not the time nor the place to bring up worst-case scenarios.”
c. C: “This has to be done right even if it takes us all day to decide.”
d. D: “The threat is very real and we must act decisively and unanimously.”
80. John, Greta, Paul, and Celine are air traffic controllers. They encounter a stressful, anxious
situation in which two planes might soon collide. Which of the following conditions would
most encourage this group of air traffic controllers to display groupthink when pondering their
next step?
a. A majority decision is more acceptable than a unanimous decision.
b. There are systematic procedures in place to handle such situations.
c. None of them is considered to be a supervisor of any of the others.
d. They are a cohesive group.
81. Which of the following combinations of factors would produce the most biased decision?
a. a non-directive leader and an isolated group
b. a directive leader and a cohesive certainty-oriented group
c. a directive leader and a very diverse group
d. a non-directive leader and a group under stress
82. Why are self-directed work groups particularly susceptible to groupthink?

a. because they often operate under time pressure
b. because they lack group cohesion
c. because they tend to be relatively heterogeneous
d. because they tend to have strong decision-making procedures in place
83. Which of the following would be an effective way for a leader to reduce the possibility of
groupthink?
a. express her opinion only after other group members have voiced their opinions
b. emphasize that the group decision must be a unanimous one
c. take a more directive role in the group discussion
d. appoint a few people in the group to act as “mindguards”
84. Sharon, a corporate executive, and several of her subordinates are in a plane crash and find
themselves on a deserted island. They have to decide the best strategy for survival. As the
leader of the group, what can Sharon do to help the group avoid groupthink?
a. break the group into several smaller groups to discuss the issue
b. encourage the group to seek agreement
c. assign someone the role of “mindguard”
d. take a strong stand in the discussion of what she thinks they should do
85. How do computerized group support systems help to minimize the potential for groupthink?
a. by providing more power to the leader of the group
b. by allowing group members to raise concerns anonymously
c. by focusing the attention of group members on their relationships with one another
d. by increasing the cohesiveness of the group
86. In conjunctive tasks, how is group performance determined?

a. by the sum of the performance of each individual in the group
b. by the ratio of individual performance to group performance
c. by the performance of the weakest group member
d. by the performance of the strongest group member
87. Sam, Dana, and Franz are members of a team competing in a test of general knowledge. Any
team member can answer the moderator's questions. What kind of task are they engaging in?
a. an additive task
b. a conjunctive task
c. a disjunctive task
d. a collective task
88. A team of people decides to donate money to their favourite charity. What kind of task are
they engaging in?
a. an additive task
b. a conjunctive task
c. a disjunctive task
d. a collective task
89. On which of the following types of tasks do groups tend to outperform individuals?
a. additive tasks
b. disjunctive tasks
c. conjunctive tasks
d. communal tasks
90. What is the most important reason for process loss?

a. Extreme motivation causes process loss.
b. Social loafing causes process loss.
c. Social cohesion causes process loss.
d. Deindividuation causes process loss.
91. Coach Valentine does not think that his team is playing up to its full potential. What should
the coach do to increase the performance of the team?
a. build the team's confidence by setting goals that are not challenging and are easy to
attain
b. urge each team member to try to do his best
c. set specific, challenging, and reachable goals for the team
d. avoid giving the team any particular goals to minimize the pressure on the team
92. What effect does being in a group have on setting goals?

a. Groups tend to set less ambitious goals than individuals.
b. Groups tend to set more ambitious goals than individuals.
c. Groups are more likely than individuals to set goals for disjunctive tasks, but not
conjunctive tasks.
d. Groups are more likely than individuals to set goals for conjunctive tasks, but not
disjunctive tasks.
93. Pat is leading a task force on drug problems in high schools. She asks members to think of as
many solutions as they can, but also to postpone commenting on any proposal until later.
What strategy is Pat using?
a. brainstorming
b. polarization
c. groupthink
d. entrapment
94. What effect does group brainstorming have on the quality of ideas produced?
a. People brainstorming together produce fewer and lower-quality ideas than those
brainstorming individually.
b. People brainstorming together produce more and higher-quality ideas than those
brainstorming individually.
c. People believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are not as
good as those generated by individuals but they do not actually differ in quality.
d. People believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are as good
as those generated by individuals but they do not actually differ in quality
95. Terry and his co-workers are trying to develop a creative direct mail campaign that will
increase sales of their new snowboard. Which of the following strategies is least likely to
yield high-quality ideas?
a. holding a brainstorming session with a facilitator trained in group brainstorming
b. forming an interactive group employing electronic brainstorming
c. holding a brainstorming session using Osborn's ground rules for brainstorming
d. creating “nominal groups” and working independently
96. Which of the following appears to increase the effectiveness of group brainstorming?
a. production blocking during brainstorming
b. electronic brainstorming
c. evaluation brainstorming
d. performance matching prior to brainstorming
97. What is biased sampling in groups?

a. the process whereby people tend to choose those they know well to be in a group
b. the process whereby information that is known by many group members tends to
enter into the discussion more than information known only by a few
c. the process whereby people tend to discuss negative information more than
positive information in their discussion about an important decision
d. the process whereby sharing information in a group can be impeded by the gender
composition of the group
98. Three students form a study group for their social psychology course. Which of the following
possibilities would be the best indication that the group is experiencing biased sampling?
a. The students focus on the information they all already know instead of reviewing
the unique knowledge that each person brings to the group.
b. The students assign specific roles and tasks to each other.
c. In the effort to categorize themselves as “good” group members, the students
conform to each other's opinions about the quality of the course instruction thus
far.
d. The students refuse to utilize the strategy of brainstorming.
99. In which of the following situations is biased sampling is least likely to occur?
a. when members know each other well, and they share the same information
b. when members know each other well, and they do not share the same information
c. when members know each other very little, and they do not share the same
information
d. when members know each other very little, and they share the same information
100. In discussing which of several job applicants to invite for an interview, the hiring committee
discusses only information known to all committee members. What is the name for this
practice?
a. biased sampling
b. production blocking
c. social compensation
d. the risky shift
101. How does working in groups affect the use of heuristics in information-processing?
a. If the individuals who comprise the group are prone to rely on a particular
heuristic, the group will be even less likely to use this heuristic.
b. If the individuals who comprise the group are prone to rely on a particular
heuristic, the group will be even more likely to use this heuristic.
c. Regardless of the information-processing propensities of individual group
members, groups are less likely than individuals to rely on heuristics.
d. Regardless of the information-processing propensities of individual group
members, groups are more likely than individuals to rely on heuristics.
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 294-295 BLM: Higher order
102. What do psychologists call the condition in which commitments to a failing course of action
are increased to justify investments already made?
a. the lost cause effect
b. the escalation effect
c. the loss justification effect
d. the polarization effect
103. Though the new mentoring program doesn't seem to be working very well, Principal
McVickers argues that the school should continue to invest in it because they have already
committed so many resources to it. What does this example illustrate?
a. social loafing
b. groupthink
c. the escalation effect
d. the loss justification effect
104. Rashid is considering employing a computerized group decision support system to increase
the quality of decision-making in his company. Which of the following explains why this may
work?
a. The anonymity of computer-mediated discussions increases reliance on
information-processing heuristics.
b. There is no accountability in computer-mediated discussions.
c. The probability of process loss will be increased as multiple people attempt to
speak at the same time.
d. Computer-mediated discussions tend to reduce biased sampling of information.
105. What do psychologists call a shared system for remembering information that allows groups
to demonstrate more efficient memory than individuals?
a. semantic memory
b. transactive memory
c. process memory
d. facilitative memory
106. Viviana lives in an ethnically diverse community. She is attending a PTA meeting concerning
how to provide a complete and fair history curriculum. Which of the following is most likely
to happen?
a. The members of the PTA will judge their own work more positively than will
members of PTAs in ethnically homogenous communities.
b. The PTA will come up with more creative solutions than will PTAs in ethnically
homogenous communities.
c. Misunderstandings will be less likely among her PTA members than among PTA
members from ethnically homogenous communities.
d. Cliques will be less likely to form in her PTA than in PTAs from ethnically
homogenous communities.
107. What do psychologists call a situation in which a self-interested choice is good for an
individual and bad for the group?
a. groupthink
b. a risky shift
c. a social dilemma
d. entrapment
108. According to research on the prisoner's dilemma, how do people tend to respond to
mixed-motive situations?
a. with depression
b. with reciprocity
c. with duplicity
d. with confusion
ANS: B PTS: 1 REF: 298-299 BLM: Remember
109. Why is the prisoner's dilemma difficult?

a. because one player's outcome depends on what the other person decides to do
b. because competition on one trial may provoke the other player not to cooperate in
the future
c. because cooperation decreases as the number of players increases
d. because a single player's best possible outcome occurs when both players
cooperate
110. Consider the prisoner's dilemma. In which situation will you receive the worst possible
outcome?
a. if you are selfish and your partner is selfish
b. if you are selfish and your partner cooperates
c. if you are cooperative and your partner is selfish
d. if you are cooperative and your partner is cooperative
111. Jean-Paul works for a public television station. He has been assigned to run the fund drive
necessary to keep the station on the air in various communities. Suppose that keeping the
station on the air in a given community is contingent upon the percentage of people in the
community that donate money. Which of the following is most likely to happen?
a. Jean-Paul will get more donations from people who have a collectivist orientation
than from those who have an individualist orientation.
b. Jean-Paul will be likely to get a greater percentage of donations from people living
in the city than from people living in smaller close-knit communities.
c. Whether the people Jean-Paul speaks with are in a good mood or a bad mood will
have no influence on their willingness to donate.
d. If Jean-Paul is truthful and tells people that many others have already donated,
people will be less likely to donate their own money.
112. Five students move into a house together and discover they share the odd habit of drinking
milk with ice in it every night before bed. They own several ice trays and make a pact to
always refill the trays when they are emptied so that the supply of ice will never run out. But
the five often do not have the time or energy to refill the trays, and after a few weeks it
becomes quite common for them to meet in the kitchen and discover that they have no ice.
What type of dilemma does this situation illustrate?
a. a prisoner's dilemma
b. a normative dilemma
c. a tit-for-tat dilemma
d. a resource dilemma
113. The leaders of a certain country believe that, because they can punish anyone who disagrees
with their policies, residents will not dare to challenge those policies. These leaders thus
believe in the efficacy of which of the following?
a. social loafing
b. social comparison
c. entrapment
d. threat capacity
114. Two competing companies are hooked up to the Internet through the same wiring. Each has
the capacity to sever the connection, which would reduce the ability of both companies to
communicate via e-mail with their clients, and thus impede their work. According to research
on dilemmas, which of the following is most likely to happen?
a. Both companies will be negatively affected if they are unaware of their ability to
sever the connection.
b. Both companies will probably each sever the connection, leading to the worst
outcome for both companies.
c. Both companies could be affected more negatively if only one company could
sever the connection.
d. Both companies are likely to form committees to decide how to proceed.
115. Which of the following is least likely to exacerbate conflict between groups?
a. the ability to carry out a threat against the other side
b. a mismatch in the perceptions each side has of the other
c. dehumanization of individuals on the other side
d. holding the other side to a different standard
116. At Midtown High School, the football players and cheerleaders do not get along at all. The
cheerleaders think the football players are shallow and obnoxious. The football players feel
the same way about the cheerleaders. What do the football players and the cheerleaders seem
to suffer from?
a. a resource dilemma
b. superordinate identities
c. mirror image perceptions
d. groupthink
117. Bart hopes to employ the GRIT strategy with his opponent, Harry. In order for the strategy to
work, which of the following is necessary?
a. Harry must like Bart.
b. Harry must have a cooperative orientation.
c. Bart must retaliate equally if Harry acts competitively.
d. Bart must carry out an initiative only after the previous one has been reciprocated.
118. The success of GRIT in reducing conflict can best be attributed to which of the following?
a. bilateral concessions
b. building trust between conflicting groups
c. greater liking between the conflicting groups
d. the reciprocation of cooperative but not competitive moves
119. What do psychologists call a negotiated reduction to a conflict in which all parties obtain
outcomes that are superior to those they would have obtained from an equal division of
contested resources?
a. a social dilemma
b. a superordinate identity
c. an integrative agreement
d. a prisoner's dilemma
120. What do psychologists call individuals who have the power to impose a settlement on
opposing parties?
a. arbitrators
b. free riders
c. role models
d. mediators
121. After a long strike at General Hospital, the nurses ask Dwight for help. He listens to the
positions of both the nurses and the administration, suggests some compromises, and
communicates each side's reaction to the other. What is Dwight’s role in this situation?
a. an arbitrator
b. a competitor
c. a role model
d. a mediator
122. What do psychologists call the perception that members of different groups belong to a larger
whole that encompasses both groups?
b. an integrative agreement
c. a superordinate identity
123. How do shared superordinate identities affect group conflict?

a. focusing on shared superordinate identities increases conflict between groups
b. focusing on shared superordinate identities decreases conflict between groups
c. focusing on shared superordinate identities is more helpful than creating shared
goals to decrease conflict
d. focusing on shared superordinate identities is required to establish the
superordinate goals that can decrease conflict.
124. Hans and Fred are young men who grew up in Toronto. Hans goes to the University of
Toronto to major in biology. Fred, who is two years younger, still lives at home, but hopes to
one day major in psychology. Which of the following is presently a superordinate identity for
the cousins?
a. resident of Toronto
b. university student
c. psychologist
d. scientist
125. What do psychologists call objectives that elicit cooperation by appealing to people's
self-interest?
a. superordinate goals
b. self-serving biases
c. dominant responses
d. social comparisons
ESSAY
1. Explain how the presence of others affects performance on easy and hard tasks, and give three
explanations to account for these effects.
ANS:
The presence of others facilitates performance on easy tasks and impedes performance on
hard tasks. Three mechanisms have been proposed to account for this phenomenon, which is
called social facilitation: (1) the mere presence theory suggests that the mere presence of
others is arousing and it is this general arousal that is responsible for the effects of social
facilitation; (2) the evaluation apprehension model suggests that it is the fear of being
evaluated by others that is responsible for social facilitation effects; and (3) the
distraction-conflict theory suggests that other people are distracting and it is simply the
distraction provided by their presence that enhances performance on an easy task and impedes
performance on a difficult task.
PTS: 1
2. Describe how being in a crowd can lead people to engage in destructive behaviours.
ANS:
Being in a crowd can cause people to lose their sense of individuality and self-awareness,
leading to a loosening of normal restraints against deviant behaviour. This state is called
deindividuation. Once the normal restraints on deviant behaviour have been removed, violent
and destructive behaviours often ensue.
PTS: 1
3. Explain how discussion of a topic with like-minded others can lead people to hold their views
with greater conviction, and why this happens.
ANS:
When people discuss a topic with like-minded others, people often experience an exaggeration
of the initial tendencies in their thinking. This phenomenon is called group polarization, for
which three explanations have been proposed. (1) Persuasive arguments theory suggests that
people in a group discussion with like-minded others hear novel arguments to support their
initial views that then intensify these views. (2) Social comparison theory suggests that once
people get in a group they compare themselves with others and a stronger group norm is
formed than any individual's views. Each member of the group then tends to conform with the
group norm. And (3), the social categorization approach suggests that people tend to pay more
attention to views held by ingroup members with whom they agree than those of outgroup
members with whom they disagree, resulting in their greater conviction that their own views
are valid.
PTS: 1
4. Define groupthink, and identify antecedents that contribute to the phenomenon as well as
strategies for preventing it.
ANS:
Groupthink is an excessive tendency to seek agreement among group members. It emerges
when seeking such agreement takes precedence over the motivation to get accurate
information and make appropriate decisions. In Janis's model of groupthink, there are three
primary antecedents to groupthink: (1) group cohesiveness, (2) group structure (e.g.,
unsystematic procedures, isolation, etc.), and (3) stressful situations. It should be noted,
however, that recent work indicates that high cohesiveness may not by itself encourage
groupthink. Rather, high cohesiveness in conjunction with other conditions conducive to
groupthink can encourage the phenomenon. Janis has offered several strategies for preventing
groupthink, including consulting with outsiders, having leaders encourage open debate and
refrain from taking a strong position, assigning an individual in the group the role of
challenging the group's ideas, and meeting for a second time after a decision has been reached
before implementing a chosen action. Recent research suggests some additional strategies,
including holding members of the group personally accountable for the decision, having a
member of the group assigned the role of “reminder,” having leaders encourage information
seeking and independent thinking and discourage seeking agreement, and using computerized
group support systems.
PTS: 1
5. Discuss how GRIT can lead to the reduction of group conflict.
ANS:
GRIT (graduated and reciprocated initiatives in tension-reduction) is a unilateral strategy
aimed at reducing conflict between groups. When using GRIT, an individual or group issues a
general statement of intention to reduce conflict and proposes an initiative aimed at reducing
tension. The individual or group then carries out the initiative as proposed. If the other party
makes a cooperative move, the initiator reciprocates with a more cooperative move, if
possible. The initiator always maintains a retaliatory capability to avoid exploitation. This
strategy has been shown to have quite a bit of promise.
PTS: 1

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Social Psychology Canadian 2nd Edition Kassin Test Bank

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Social Psychology Canadian 2nd

Edition Kassin Test Bank

2. How do groups differ from collectives?

4. Which of the following would most likely be described as a collective?

18. What did Ringelmann's research in the 1880s demonstrate?

32. What is deindividuation?

34. How do accountability cues contribute to deindividuation?

35. In which of the following conditions is deindividuation most likely?

50. Which of the following is one of the essential components of groups?

51. What are group roles?

52. What types of roles develop in groups?

56. In which of the following scenarios is productivity likely to be highest?

57. How are group norms and roles similar?

58. Which of the following is most likely to decrease group cohesiveness?

74. In which of the following cases is groupthink most likely to occur?

75. Which of the following characteristics of groups contribute to groupthink?

82. Why are self-directed work groups particularly susceptible to groupthink?

86. In conjunctive tasks, how is group performance determined?

90. What is the most important reason for process loss?

92. What effect does being in a group have on setting goals?

97. What is biased sampling in groups?

109. Why is the prisoner's dilemma difficult?

123. How do shared superordinate identities affect group conflict?

5. Discuss how GRIT can lead to the reduction of group conflict.

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