1 Laws, Econ

Review questions for Related Air Laws and Regulations:
1. Which regulation abolished the Air Transporation Office and established the
Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines?
a. PD 1570
b. RA 776
c. RA 9497
2. What is the title of the law RA 9497?
a. Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines Act of 2008
b. Civil Aviation Authority Act of 2008
c. Civil Aeronautical Act of 2008
3. What is the position title of the head of CAAP?
a. Assistant Secretary
b. General Director
c. Director General
4. What is the definition of “Aircraft” according to RA 9497?
a. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the
reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's
surface
b. A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air
c. Anything that flies
5. What is the meaning of “Airworthiness” according to RA 9497?
a. An aircraft, its engines, propellers, and other components and
accessories, are of proper design and construction, and are safe for air
navigation purposes
b. The measure of an aircraft's suitability for safe flight
c. The aircraft meets established standards for safe flight
6. When did RA 9497 became a law?
a. 1952
b. 1994
c. 2008
7. In which part of RA 9497 would you see the Aeronautical Engineer was
written?
a. In the definition of Airman
b. In the definition of Certifying staff
c. In the definition of both Airman and Certifying staff
8. Is RA 776 still in effect?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, but only for the CAB
9. How many CAR Parts are currently in force?
a. 11
b. 13
c. 20
10. Which CAR part provides a general procedure or defines the technical terms
used in the regulations?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 3
11. Which CAR part must an organization follow to get an approval for
maintaining an aircraft?
a. Part 1
b. Part 6
c. Part 9
12. Which CAR part must an individual follow to get a maintenance license?
a. Part 2
b. Part 5
c. Part 6
13. What are the maintenance licenses that can be acquired from the CAR?
a. AML and AMS
b. AMT and AMS
c. A and P and AMS
14. Which CAR part must be followed by a maintenance personnel whenever they
perform maintenance tasks?
a. Part 2
b. Part 5
c. Part 8
15. Who is responsible for maintaining the airworthy condition of the aircraft?
a. AMO
b. Owner
c. Pilot
16. What does the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) signify?
a. It signify the aircraft may be operated
b. It signify the maintenance has just been completed
c. It signify the aircraft does not need maintenance
17. Does the CAR allow the pilot to perform maintenance?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, but only preventive maintenance
18. Does the CAR allows exemption to the rules?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, but only if the person pays for it
19. Which CAR part would tell you what to do when you lose or destroy your
license?
a. Part 1
b. Part 2
c. Part 5
20. At what age would a person be eligible for a maintenance license according to
the CAR?
a. 18
b. 20
c. 21
21. In a Part 6 Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO), who would issue or
approve the maintenance release or return to service?
a. Anyone
b. Accountable Manager
c. Certifying staff
22. How many months of training is needed to be eligible for an AMT license
with Airframe rating?
a. 30 months
b. 24 months
c. 12 months
23. To be able to apply for an AMT license, a person must have both experience
and training. Is this statement true or false?
a. True
b. False
c. True, minimum of 1 year experience
24. How long is the AMT license valid?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. As long as the holder maintains his/her competency
25. Do avionics rated personnel allowed to sign for the release of an engine?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, but for the control unit only
26. Does a person with an airman license from CAR Part 2 always have to carry
his license?
a. Yes
b. No
c. No, It may be kept at home
27. Which document provide detailed requirements that support the intent of a
regulation presented in a CAR Part, but gain the force and effect of the
governing regulations only if specifically referred to in the governing
regulation?
a. Advisory Circular
b. Acceptable Means of Compliance
c. Implementing Standards
28. When a person commits a violation of the regulations, what would be the first
action that CAAP would do?
a. Certificate Action
b. Administrative Action
c. Judicial Action
29. How many months of experience is needed in order to renew a maintenance
license?
a. 6 months
b. 6 months but must be within the preceeding two years
c. 1 year which must be recent
30. How long would an AMS remain valid?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. As long as the holder remains competent
31. What does FAR mean?
a. Federal Aviation Requirements
b. Federal Aviation Regulations
c. Federal Agency for Regulations
32. Which title of the CFR does Aeronautics and Space belong?
a. Title 1
b. Title 14
c. Title 49
33. Which FAR Part would you find the regulations you need to follow when you
are performing an inspection?
a. Part 8
b. Part 43
c. Part 145
34. Which FAR Part would you find the requirements for Repair Stations?
a. Part 6
b. Part 43
c. Part 145
35. Who is the accountable manager of repair stations according to the FAR?
a. Always the President or the person who holds the highest position
b. The person in charge of the Quality system
c. The person designated by the certificated repair station who is
responsible for and has the authority over all repair station operations
that are conducted under part 145
36. Where would you find the information to know what information should be
put in the maintenance records according to the FAR?
a. Part 5
b. Part 43
c. Part 145
37. How long is the duration of certificates of repair stations located outside the
United States?
a. It has unlimited duration
b. 1 year but may be up to 2 years
c. 1 year always
38. Are you required to have a repair station certificate even if you would only be
maintaining components?
a. Yes
b. Yes but only for overhaul of components
c. No
39. Do all repair stations required to have a hangar?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes and must include office accomodation and storage areas
40. Does the FAR requires repair station personnel to be able to speak in English?
a. Yes
b. No
c. No, but must be able to read, write and understand English
41. What does EASA mean?
a. European Air Safety Administration
b. European Aviation Security Administration
c. European Aviation Safety Agency
42. Which law established EASA?
a. Implementing Rule for Continuing Airworthiness
b. Implementing Rule for Initial Airworthiness
c. Basic Regulation
43. Which implementing rule contains the law for certification of aircraft
components?
a. Implementing Rule for Continuing Airworthiness
b. Implementing Rule for Initial Airworthiness
c. Basic Regulation
44. What is Part M all about?
a. Maintenance
b. Continuing Airworthiness
c. Management of Airworthiness
45. What are the annexes found in the implementing rule for continuing
airworthiness?
a. Part 21, Part 145, Part 66 and Part 147
b. Part M, Part 145, Part 66 and Part 147
c. Part 21, Part 66, Part M and Part 147
46. Which EASA regulation would give you information about maintenance
licenses?
a. Part M
b. Part 21
c. Part 66
47. Which EASA Part 66 license category would allow a person to be a certifying
staff for base maintenance?
a. Category A
b. Category B
c. Category C
48. How long is the duration of maintenance organization approvals in accordance
with EASA Part 145?
a. 1 year for organizations located within Europe
b. 2 years for organizations located within Europe
c. Unlimited
49. Which class rating would allow a maintenance organization approved by
EASA to perform maintenance on Engines and APU?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
50. Which document will tell you ways to comply with the requirements of EASA
regulations but which is not mandatory?
a. Implementing Standards
b. Acceptable Means of Compliance
c. Advisory Circulars
Answers:
1. c. RA 9497
2. b. Civil Aviation Authority Act of 2008
3. c. Director General
4. a. Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the
reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the
earth's surface
5. a. An aircraft, its engines, propellers, and other components and
accessories, are of proper design and construction, and are safe for
air navigation purposes
6. c. 2008
7. a. In the definition of Airman
8. c. Yes, but only for the CAB
9. b. 13
10. a. Part 1
11. b. Part 6
12. a. Part 2
13. b. AMT and AMS
14. b. Part 5
15. b. Owner
16. a. It signify the aircraft may be operated
17. b. Yes
18. b. Yes
19. a. Part 1
20. a. 18
21. c. Certifying Staff
22. b. 24 months
23. b. False
24. c. As long as the holder maintains his/her competency
25. a. No
26. b. No
27. c. Implementing Standards
28. b. Administrative Action
29. b. 6 months but must be within the preceeding two years
30. c. As long as the holder remains competent
31. b. Federal Aviation Regulation
32. b. Title 14
33. b. Part 43
34. c. Part 145
35. c. The person designated by the certificated repair station who is
responsible for and has the authority over all repair station
operations that are conducted under part 145
36. b. Part 43
37. b. 1 year but may be up to 2 years
38. a. Yes
39. a. No
40. c. No, but must be able to read, write and understand English
41. c. European Aviation Safety Agency
42. c. Basic Regulation
43. b. Implementing Rule for Initial Airworthiness
44. b. Continuing Airworthiness
45. b. Part M, Part 145, Part 66 and Part 147
46. c. Part 66
47. c. Category C
48. c. Unlimited
49. b. Class B
50. b. Acceptable Means of Compliance
AIRLAWS, ENGINEERING ECONOMY and MANAGEMENT
Directions. In the Answer Sheet provided, shade the box of the letter that corresponds to your
answers. Pencil no. 2 should be used in marking your answers. Careless marking of your answer
sheet may lower the scores you earn on this test.
You will have FOUR (4) hours for this test. Work as rapidly and as accurately as you can. If
you are not sure of an answer, mark the choice which is your best guess. Only one answer should
be marked for each problem.
1. What section of PD 1570 IRR Article IV Code of Professional Ethics states “As a witness
before a court, commission, and/or tribunal, he shall express an opinion only when it is founded
on adequate and honest conviction.”
A. Section 2: Relation with the State

B. Section 3: Relation with the Public
C. Section 4: Relation with the Clients and Employers
D. Section 5: Relation with the Engineers
E. Section 6: Relation with the Profession
2. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for a sale at a certain price at a given place
and time.
A. Demand C. Stocks
B. Goods D. Supply
3. The Flight Standards Inspectorate Service (FSIS) of the CAA assists the Director General in
carrying out the responsibilities of his office for certification and ongoing inspections of aircraft,
airmen and air operators. Which of the following functions shall not be performed by the said
permanent office:
A. Airworthiness Inspection
B. Flight Operation and Evaluation
C. Personnel Licensing
D. None of the Above
4. As per Part 43 of the Federal Aviation Regulations, who among the following is not
authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, and alterations;
A. Holder of a repair station certificate

B. Holder of a manufacturer certificate
C. Holder of a repairman certificate
D. A person working under the supervision of a holder of a mechanic or repairman
5. EASA Part 145
A. Maintenance Organization Approval

B. Continuing Airworthiness
C. Training Organization Requirements
D. Certifying Staff – Maintenance
A. Rome Convention Regulations

B. Warsaw Convention Regulations
C. The basic regulation EC Regulation 216/2008
D. CFR
7. After the expiration of ___ years from the date of revocation or suspension of a certificate of
registration, the Board may, in its discretion and for reason it may deem meritorious, reinstate the
validity of a revoked or suspended certificate, or issue a new one in lieu of the one previously
revoked upon payment of the required fee.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
8. That part of an aircraft which generates power mainly to produce the force or thrust necessary
to cause the aircraft to move horizontally, or to be lifted, or both a small fraction of the power
generated by the power plant is used to drive aircraft accessories and equipment, a propeller or a
rotary wing is not part of the powerplant.
A. Auxiliary Power Unit

B. Ground Power Unit
C. Propulsion System
D. Integrated Drive Generator
9. The act of rendering or offering to render professional services in aeronautical engineering in

the form of direct work participation, consultancy, supervision, or management, with or without
fee, salary or any other kind of compensation, the professionals services as enumerated in
Section 27 and 28 (b) of PD 1570.
A. Aeronautical Engineering Practice

B. Planning and Control
C. Powerplant Theory and Practice
D. Research and Development
10. Under Article I Section II of P.D. 1570 IRR, between the two (2) concentric circles along the
circumference of the seal shall be inscribed the words
___________________________________ and ________________________________ at the
upper and the lower portion of the circumference respectively.
A. Professional Regulation Commission, Aeronautical Engineering

B. Professional Regulation Commission, Philippines
C. Professional Regulation Commission, Board of Aeronautical Engineering
D. Professional Regulation Commission, Board Members
11. PCAR Part 2 Medical Certificate Validity for Private Pilot
A. 12 Months
B. 6 Months
C. 24 Months
D. 30 Months
12. Sometimes called second hand value
A. Book Value
B. Salvage Value
C. Scrap Value
D. Going Value
13. The recorded current value of an asset is known as
A. Salvage Value
B. Scrap Value
C. Book Value
D. Going Value
14. How much must be deposited at 6% each year beginning on January 1, year 1 in order to
accumulate $5000 on the last deposit on Jan 1, year 6?
A. $756.22
B. $800
C. $705.81
D. $716.81
A. AMT
B. Pilot-in-Command
C. Owner or Operator
D. Authority
16. What category of a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower
than 60m (200ft), but not lower than 30m (100ft), and runway visual range not less than 350m.
A. CAT I
B. CAT II
C. CAT IIIA
D. CAT IIIB
17. Leads a function that creates indirect inputs
A. Line Manager
B. General Manager
C. Project Manager
D. Staff Manager
18. Find the compound amount if $2,500 is invested at 8% compounded quarterly of 5 years and
6 months.
A. $3964.95
B. $3578.89
C. $3864.95
D. $3764.95
19. Which statement is true?
A. Director General have the power to promote safety of light

B. Director General is authorized to issue Airmen Certificate
C. Director General is authorized to issue Airport Certificate
D. Director General is authorized to issue AOC
E. All of the Above
20. What freedom has the right to carry passenger from Country A to Country B by stopping in
home country?
A. 7th
B. 8th
C. 6th
D. 5th
21. Section 25 of PD 1570
A. Reinstatement/Replacement of Certificate
B. Seal and its use
C. Posting Certificate
D. Meaning of Practice of Aeronautical Engineers
22. Which statement/s is true for Qualification for exemption from the Board Exam under PD
1570 IRR Article II. Sec. 4?
(1) Possess all qualifications under Section 14 and above
(2) Practice at least 5 years
(3) Supporting Papers under Article II Section 2
A. 1&3
B. 2&1
C. 3&2
D. 3
E. All of the Above
23. All of the following are members of the board except
A. Sec. of DOLE
B. Sec. of Justice
C. Sec. Foreign Affairs
D. DGCA Chairman
24. FAR Part 33
A. Airworthiness Standards for Helicopters

B. Airworthiness Standards for Ultralight Aircraft
C. Airworthiness Standards for Aircraft Engines
D. Airworthiness Standards for Propellers
25. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) code for hijacking
A. 1200
B. 2000
C. 7500
D. 7600
E. 7700
26. Authorized to issue CPCN for Domestic and FACP for International
A. CAAP
B. Director General
C. Board
D. CAB
27. Who is the Accountable Manager of repair stations according to the FAR?
A. The person designated by the certificated repair station who is responsible for and has
the authority over all repair station operations that are conducted under part 145
B. The person in charge of the Quality system
C. The Chief Maintenance Officer
D. Always the President or the person who holds the highest position
28. An applicant for a standard Certificate of Airworthiness for an import aircraft type
certificated in accordance with Part 5 is entitled to a Certificate of Airworthiness if the country in
which the aircraft was manufactured or previously registered certifies, and the Authority finds,
that
A. The applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a type
design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to the
applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture.
B. The aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules of this
regulation for inspections and found airworthy by persons Authorized by the
Authority to make such determinations within the last 30 calendar days.
C. The Authority finds after an inspection that the aircraft conforms to type design and is
in condition for safe operation.
D. All of the Abovc
29. FAA regulation requires a transport aircraft to carry ___ more fuel than needed on a flight for
45 minutes to observe airworthiness standard.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 15%
D. 25%
30. An airspace of defined dimensions established around an airport for the protection of airport
traffic (ref. PCAR)
A. Airport Traffic Zone (ATZ)

B. Air Traffic Service (ATS)
C. Airport
D. Alternate Airport
31. In weighing of aircraft, a revised Load Data Sheet shall be issued before flight for airplanes,
when the empty weight has changed by more than one half of one percent of the maximum take-
off weight or 10 kg, whichever is the greater, or
A. the empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than 2% of the
maximum permissible center of gravity range or 5 mm, whichever is the greater.
B. the empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than 1% of the
maximum permissible center of gravity range or 10 mm, whichever is the greater.
C. the empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than 2% of the
minimum permissible center of gravity range or 5 mm, whichever is the greater.
D. the empty weight center of gravity position has changed by more than 1% of the
minimum permissible center of gravity range or 10 mm, whichever is the greater.
32. In conformity with the conditions prescribed in the Articles of the Chicago Convention,
which of the following documents may not be carried by every aircraft of a Contracting State
engaged in international navigation
A. Its maintenance log book

B. Its certificate of registration
C. Cargo manifest
D. Radio License
33. Convention on Commercial Aviation
A. Guadalajara
B. Habana
C. Rome
D. Montreal
34. A bond in which the security consists of intangible property
A. Joint Bond
B. Collateral Trust Bond
C. Equipment Obligation Bond
D. Registered Bond
35. “When free competition exists, the price of a product will be that value where supply is equal
to the demand”
A. Law of Demand
B. Law of Supply and Demand
C. Law of Diminishing Return
D. Law of Supply
36. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is different to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate increase in
output.”
A. Law of Demand
B. Law of Supply and Demand
C. Law of Diminishing Return
D. Law of Supply
37. The total income equals the total operating cost.
A. In-place value
B. Break even
C. Balanced sheet
D. Check and Balance
38. If you borrowed $5000 from a friend with a simple interest of 12% per year. Find its worth
when it’s due after 7 months.
A. $5250
B. $5300
C. $5350
D. $5200
39. What is the highest position in the corporation?
A. Chairman of the Board

B. Board of Directors
C. President
D. Stockholders
40. Work-in process is classified as
A. An asset
B. An expenses
C. An owner’s equity
D. A liability
41. FAR Part 23 category with 12,500 MTOW with 9 or less seating configuration and intended
for limited operations
A. Normal
B. Utility
C. Acrobatic
D. Commuter
42. EASA Part 21 Subpart J
A. Continuing Airworthiness
B. Design Organization
C. Production Organization
D. Training Organization Requirements
43. PD 1570 IRR was adopted
A. Sept. 20, 1982

B. Sept. 21, 1983
C. Sept. 23, 1982
D. Sept. 22, 1983
E. Sept. 23, 1983
44. The keystone of professional conduct is _______

A. Integrity
B. Fidelity
C. Courtesy
D. Wisdom
45. Which document provide detailed requirements that support the intent of a regulation
presented in a Part, but gain the force and effect of the governing regulations only if specifically
referred to in the governing regulation?
A. Implementing Standards
B. Advisory Circulars
C. Code of Federal Regulations
D. TCDS
46. There shall be a seal to be used by the Board authenticate its official documents. This seal
which shall be circular in shape with maximum diameter of _________
A. 1-7/9 inches C. 47 millimeters

B. 1-7/8 inches D. 49 millimeters
47. Based on FAR part 23, a single engine aircraft and multi-engine aircraft with a MTOW of
less than 6000lbs may not have a stall speed greater than ___ knot.
A. 60 C. 62
B. 61 D. 63
48. Creation of MIAA
A. RA #7227
B. EO #193 s. 2003
C. EO #903 s. 1983
D. RA #6958
49. Meaning of JAA
A. Joint Aviation Administration

B. Join Aviation Authority
C. Joint Authority Administration
D. Joint Aviation Authority
50. A type of signal when an aircraft is in grave and imminent danger and requires immediate
assistance.
A. Distress C. Assistance is required

B. Urgency D. Morse code of XXX
ANSWER KEY:
1. B 26. D
2. D 27. A
3. D 28. D
4. B 29. B
5. A 30. A
6. C 31. A
7. B 32. A
8. C 33. B
9. A 34. B
10. C 35. B
11. C 36. C
12. B 37. B
13. C 38. C
14. D 39. A
15. C 40. A
16. B 41. B
17. D 42. B
18. C 43. C
19. E 44. A
20. C 45. A
21. B 46. A
22. E 47. B
23. D 48. C
24. C 49. D
25. C 50. A
Chapter 3 - Airworthiness of Aircraft
Terms in this set (4)
The State of Design is to ensure that a B

continuing structural integrity
programme, including information
concerning corrosion control, is
maintained in respect of aeroplanes:
a. with maximum certificated take-off
mass less than 5700 kg
b. with maximum certificated take-off
mass greater than 5700 kg
c. with maximum certificated take-off
mass equal to 5700 kg
d. with maximum certificated take-off
mass not more than 5700 kg
The continuing validity of a Certificate A

of Airworthiness of an aircraft is
subject to the laws of:
a. the State of Registration
b. the State of Registration or the
State of the Operator
c. the State of the Operator
d. the State of Registration and the
State of Design
When a Contracting State first enters C

on its register an aircraft and issues or
validates a Certificate of
Airworthiness, it shall inform:
a. The State of Registry
b. The State of Manufacture
c. The State of Design
d. The State of the Operator
Chapter 3 - Airworthiness of Aircraft

Which document contains information D
concerning the flight limitations of the
aircraft ?
a. The C of A
b. The C of R
c. The C of L
d. The aircraft Flight Manual
What is the age requirements for the issuance of aviation
technical license PCAR 2?
 18 years old
This permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not

currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is
capable of safe flight.
 All of the above
The overhauling on electrical equipment, all necessary

information should be obtained from:
 Maintenance instructions published by the aircraft or

equipment manufacturer.
The approved maintenance organization (AMO) shall relive
the person performing maintenance functions from all duties
for 24 consecutive hours, PCAR Part 6.
 During any 7 consecutive day period
The contracting state which approved original type

certificate in any subsequent supplemental type certificates
of an aircraft, or which approved design of an aeronautical
product or appliances PCAR Part 1.1.1.2
 State design
All Philippine registered aircraft, use for commercial or

aerial work shall be reweighed?
 Every 3 years
All Philippines registered aircraft, use of the general aviation
shall be reweighed?
 Every 5 years
The alteration of an aircraft or aeronautical product

conformity with an approved standard?
 Modification
Calibration of avionics computer equipment PCAR Part

5.1.1.2
 Appliance Major Repair
Calibration and repair of instruments is an example of PCAR

Part 5.1.1.2
 Appliance major repair

Removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment
on the aircraft or engine specification is an example of?
 Powerplant major modification
A document signed by an authorized representative of an

approved maintenance organization (AMO) in respect of an
inspection
 Return to service
Changes to the basic design of the fuel or oil cooling, cabin

system is considered:
 Airframe major modification
A certificate confirming that the maintenance work to which

it relates has been complied with in accordance with the
applicable standards of airworthiness, using approved data.
 Maintenance repair
Replacing or cleaning spark plug and setting of sparkplug

gap clearance is considered as?
 Preventive maintenance
Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter pins:
Simple or minor preservation operation and replacement of

small standards parts not involving complex assembly
operation is known
An example of power plant major repair is?

Who is responsible for ensuring that all of the aircraft
maintenance records keep up to date?
 Aircraft owner
Who is authorized to repair an aircraft instrument?
 A certified repair station approved for that class

instrument.
Modification of the basic design not made in accordance

with recommendation of the appliance manufacturer is?
 Appliance major alterations
A permanent record of every maintenance (not including

preventive maintenance) repair of building or alteration of
any airframe, powerplant propeller or appliance shall be
maintained by:
 Registered owner or operator
Where would you find the recommended statement for

recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of
an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?
 14 CFR Part 43
Who is responsible for maintaining aircraft from unworthy

condition?
 Licensed aircraft maintenance
The restoration of an aircraft aeronautical product by using

methods techniques and practices acceptable to the authority
when it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as
permitted, repaired as necessary, assembled and tested to the
same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new
parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and
limits.
 Rebuild
Who is responsible for ensuring that all maintenance

required to be carried out in the hangar plus any defect
rectification carried out during base maintenance, is carried
out to specified design and quality standards?
 Line maintenance manager
The owner of an aircraft on in the case of lease of an aircraft

shall be responsible for maintaining the aircraft in an
airworthy condition.

The installation or removal of equipment of equal or less
weight and in the same location as the last listed as optional
equipment in the aircraft specification is?
 An airframe minor alteration
The contracting state which approved original type

certificate in any subsequent supplemental type certificates
of an aircraft or which approved design of an aeronautical
product or appliances PCAR Part 1.1.1.2
 State design
The alteration or aeronautical product in conformity with an

approved standard.
 Modification
Who is responsible for maintaining an aircraft airworthy
condition including compliance with all airworthiness
directives? PCAR 8.3.1.2
 Registered owner or operator
An aviation maintenance technician or specialist who seek

reinstatement of their license that already expired for 24
months from expiration of license.
 He shall pass the civil aviation regulations test and must

undergo appropriate recurrent training from an approved
maintenance organization or any school or facility
accredited by the authority for such purpose.
In compliance with the recent experience requirements
 24 months
Which part of Philippines Civil Aviation and Regulation
prescribe the requirements for certification of an aircraft and
aeronautical components or continuing airworthiness?
 PCAR Part 5
An aircraft is not approved for return to service after an

annual inspection and the owner need to modify the aircraft
 The owner must obtain a special flight permit
Which is considered a critical preventive maintenance

operation?
Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires in

PCAR 5.1.1.2 is?
Special repair to the structural engine parts by welding,
skating, metalizing or other methods is an example of
 Powerplant major repair
Any maintenance operation requiring opening of the cold

and hot sections of a turbine is considered powerplant:
 Powerplant major repair (Don’t select preventive

maintenance to this question)
The holder of AMT license is
 30 days
Simple or minor preservation operation and the replacement

of small standard parts not involving complex assembly
operation is known
Changes to the hub design?
 Propeller major modification
Installation of an accessories which is not approved for the

engine
 Power plant major alterations
In compliance with the recent experience requirements an

AMT license may exercise publish in?
 24 months
When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary

information should be obtained from:

equipment manufacturer
Which is considered a critical preventive maintenance
operation?
Which is considered a typical preventive maintenance

operation?
Fabrication of main ribs and compression members is a?
 Major modification
Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessories is an

example of?
 Airframe minor repair

A finishing decorative coating of fuselage and tail groups,
surfaces are considered?
What is the age requirement for the issuance of aviation

technical license?
 18 years old
An applicant for an AMT license with powerplant and

aiframe rating relying on practical experience only applying
for the issuance of license is upon completion of?
 60 month practical experience
Replacement of an autopilot with parts manufactured in

accordance with approved drawing is considered:

Replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the
propeller or any disconnecting of flight controls is
considered:
Which statement about airworthiness directives is true?
 Compliance with an applicable AD is mandatory and

must be recorded in the maintenance records
The installation or removal of equipment of equal or less

weight and in the same location as the last listed as optional
equipment in the aircraft specification is:
 An airframe minor alteration
Modification to the basic design of the exhaust system is

considered:
 Airframe major alteration
Which is not considered an airframe major alteration?
 Strengthening or reinforcing the fuselage longeron
The repair station or manufacturer may use a maintenance

release of its own design provided the release includes the
following:
 Make of aircraft, model, serial number, nationality and

registration
Repair made on the hydraulic/pneumatic system is

considered:
 An airframe minor repair

Changes made to structural elements for the purpose of
improving the service life or reducing maintenance cost, but
that the cumulative weight changes of all such maintenance
work done since the aircraft was re-weight or the weight and
balance data re-compared do not exceed two percent of the
certificate empty weight on aircraft under 12,500 pounds
gross weight is classified as:
 Airframe minor alterations
Airframe shall mean:
 Any and all kinds of booms, landing gear, empennages,

fairing, or control of any and all kinds of fuselage,
booms, empennages, nacelles, fairing, cowlings, control
surfaces.
Which of the following is considered to be typical

maintenance?
 Repairing dents, cuts, and small cracks on wooden
propeller
No aircraft which has undergone any major repair or major

alteration shall be returned to service unless such aircraft has
thereafter been test flown by a person holding at least:
 A private pilot licensed
Any restoration or maintenance work done on an airframe to

place it back to a condition for safe operation after damage
or deterioration shall mean:
 A repair
It means that the supervising mechanic personally maintain

such observation of the work being performed as is
necessary to insure that the work being performed properly,
and the supervising mechanic is readily available for
consultation with the person performing work.
 Direct supervision
The procedure recommended in making a scarf for a spar

splice is
 A jointer
When overhauling electrical equipment, all necessary

information should be obtained from

equipment manufacturer
Radio equipment installations made in accordance with the

Supplemental Type Certificate data require approval for
return to service
 By the holder of an inspection authorization
Who is authorized among the following to perform

maintenance Preventive maintenance, repair or alteration on
civil aircraft of Philippine registry
A simple minor preservation operations and the replacement

of small standard parts no involving complex assembly
operations is classified as
Changes of the following type to a powerplant, or airframe

when not listed in the specifications issued by the Air
Transportation office in accordance with the manufacturer,
are considered
 Aircraft major alteration
No airframe, powerplant or appliance which has undergone

maintenance, minor repair or minor alteration may be
approved and returned to service except by one of the
following
 An appropriate licensed aircraft mechanic
Where would you find the recommended statement for

recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of
an aircraft after a 100-hour or annual inspection?
 14 CFR Part 43
Airframe minor repairs include
 Wing and control surface fairings

When can you consider the repair on the following airframe,
a major repair
 The repair of damaged areas in the plywood stressed

covering exceeding 6 inches in any direction
Changes to the basic design of the fuel or oil system is

considered
 Airframe major modification
A permanent record of every maintenance (not including

preventive maintenance) repair of building or alteration of
any airframe, powerplant, propeller or appliances shall be
maintained by
 The registered operator
Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter pins is
Where would you find the operating conditions that make a
100-hour inspection mandatory?
 14 CFR Part 91
Any repair to spars, ribs and surface involves
 Airframe minor repair techniques
What does it mean it is said that a component conforms with

a technical standard order?
 It does not require an STC when used in an alteration
The restoration of an engine mounts to a condition for safe

operation after damage is classified as
 An airframe major repair
Strengthening or reinforcing the fuselage longeron

 Airframe major repair
When a major repair alteration results in any change in the

aircraft operating limitations or data contained in approved
airplane flight manual appropriate amendments to the
aircraft operating limitations shall be made in
 The form and manner prescribed by the CAAP
Replacement of components or complete units such as

landing gears with parts supplied by the original
manufacturer or manufactured in accordance with approved
drawings is considered:
 Airframe minor repair
When can an aircraft be operated with a 100-hour inspection

overdue?
 If necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can
be done
Which of the following is a portion of the required

permanent maintenance record entry after a 100-hour
inspection?
 The date of the inspection and aircraft time in service
Change to the basic design made in accordance with the

“ASSEC” of the air transportation approved
recommendation of the “Landing gear shock strut”
manufacturing or in accordance with ATO airworthiness
directives are considered to be
 Appliance minor alteration

Calibration and repair of instruments is an example of Part
5.5.1.1.2.
The alteration of an aircraft or aeronautical product in

conformity with an approved standard
 Modification
In accordance with the table of sanction under PCAR’s 1, the

penalty for falsification.
 Revocation
Who is responsible for ensuring that all aircraft maintenance

records are kept up to date?
 Licensed mechanic/owner
Disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating
engine equipped with an integral supercharger is an example
of Part 5.1.1.2.
 Powerplant major repair
In accordance with the table of sanction under PCAR’s part

the penalty for failure to complete and sign maintenance
release.
 15 to 30 day suspension
A document signed by an authorized representative of an

approved maintenance organization in respect of an
inspection repair, or modification on a complete aircraft,
engine or propeller after it has received a maintenance
performed (Part 1 S 5.1.1.2)
 Return to service
An example of powerplant major repair (Part 1 S 5.1.1.2)
Conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a

rating or grade other than that listed in the engine
specifications (Part 1 S 5.1.1.2)
 Powerplant major modification
Which of the following is not considered as powerplant

major alteration?
 Disassembly of non-float type carburetor
This regulation prescribes the requirements of aircraft and

aeronautical components issuance of certificate of
airworthiness and other certifications of aeronautical
products, continued airworthiness of aircraft and
aeronautical components.
 Continuing airworthiness
No person or entity other than the authority may approve an

aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance or
components, part for return to service after it has undergone
maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding or
modification except as provided in the following
 A, B & C are correct
Each person performing maintenance, preventive

maintenance or modification on an aeronautical product
shall use the methods, techniques and practices prescribed in
part 5.6.1.6.
 Performance rules, current manufacturers name,

techniques and practices
Who may perform inspection of the aircraft if it is away from
the station where inspection is normally conducted?
 A, B & C can be performed
In accordance with the table of sanctions under PCAR’s part

1, the penalty for improperly releasing an aircraft to service
is
 30 to 60 days suspension
Each person performing a major repair or major

modification shall forward a copy of that form to the
authority in accordance with the authority instructions
within 48 hours after the aeronautical product is approved
for return to service
 48 hours
Which is considered to be typical preventive maintenance
operations
 Removal, installation, repair of landing gears
Require owner shall retain maintenance and inspection

records for minimum period of
 90days
PCAR part for MRO/AMO
 PCAR Part 6
Notes:
Choices: True or False
Answer: TRUE
Answer: Part 5
Answer: Maintenance Release
Answer: Special flight permit
Answer: Preventive maintenance
Choose “Both 1 and 2 or All of the above”
Human Performance
What is human factor in maintenance?
 Safe operation
It is a self-satisfaction as accompanied by loss of awareness

of the danger
 Complacency
An informal work practices or unwritten rules that is
acceptable to the group
 Norm
It is a mental, emotional or physical tension strain or distress
 Stress
Creating a sense of urgency or haste
 Pressure
Lack of working together to achieve a common goal
 Lack of teamwork
Weariness from labor, or exertion, nervous exhaustion,

temporary loss of power and ability to respond
 Fatigue
Lack of experience of training for the task at hand
 Lack of knowledge
Lack of clear direct statement and good active listening skills
 Lack of communication
Occur when members fail to carry out a required task
 Omission
When crew members carry out a task incorrectly or do

something that is not required
 Commission
Chapter 5 - Flight Crew Licensing
According to JAR-FCL class ratings A

shall be established for single-pilot
aeroplanes not requiring a type rating
including:
a. all touring motor gliders.
b. all types of single-pilot, single-
engine aeroplanes fitted with a
turbojet engine.
c. microlights having fixed wings and
moveable aerodynamic control
surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
d. any other type of aeroplane if
considered necessary.
Which of the following is the privilege A

of the holder of a CPL(A)?
a. To act as PIC of any aeroplane
engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation.
b. To act as PIC of any aeroplane
engaged in commercial air
transportation.
c. To act as PIC of any aircraft
certificated for single-pilot operation
other than commercial air
transportation.
d. To act as co-pilot of any aircraft
engaged in commercial air transport
operations.

What age do you need to be to A
exercise the privileges of a CPL
licence?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 16
d. 23
When you are over 60 and the holder A

of an ATPL(A), how often are you
required to have a medical
examination?
a. The 12 month period reduces to 6
months.
b. The 24 month period reduces to 12
months.
c. The 6 month period reduces to 3
months.
d. The 9 month period reduces to 3
months.
You can use simulator hours towards C

the 1500 hours required for an ATPL.
How are simulator hours limited?
a. Maximum of 100, not more than 15 in
a procedural flight trainer.
b. Maximum of 100, not more than 30
in a procedural flight trainer.
c. Maximum of 100, not more than 25
d. Maximum of 100, not more than 50
What is the night flying hours B

requirement for an ATPL(A) licence?
a. 75 hours PIC.
b. 100 hours PIC or co-pilot.
c. 100 hours PIC.
d. 75 hours PIC or co-pilot.

One of the privileges of the holder of D
a CPL(A) is to:
a. act as co-pilot of aircraft in
commercial air transport operations.
b. act as PIC of single engine
aeroplanes in commercial air transport
operations.
c. act as a flying instructor.
d. act as PIC of aeroplanes involved in
operations other than commercial air
transportation.
Included in the requirements for 1500 A

hours, an ATPL(A) holder must have:
a. 500 hours multi-pilot operations in
transport, commuter or equivalent
category aircraft.
b. 500 hours multi-pilot operations
and 250 hours as PIC.
c. 500 hours multi-pilot operations
including up to 150 hours flight
engineering time.
d. 500 hours multi-pilot operations
including 200 hours night time.
When are you required to tell the A

authorities of an illness?
a. After the period of 21 days of illness
has elapsed.
b. On the 21st day of the illness.
c. After a month.
d. After medical has expired.
To obtain a CPL(A), how many hours B

of cross-country flying are required?
a. 15 hrs.
b. 20 hrs.
c. 25 hrs.
d. 35 hrs.

What medical is required for the issue C
of a CPL(A)?
a. Class 2.
b. As required by particular state.
c. Class 1.
d. JAR Class A (as from 1 Jan 2001).
The holder of a pilot licence when C

acting as co-pilot under supervision of
the PIC and performing the functions
and duties of the PIC shall be entitled
to be credited:
a. with 50% of the flight time towards
the total time required for a higher
grade of licence.
b. in full, but not more than 300 hrs
towards the total time required for a
higher grade of licence.
c. the flight time in full towards the
total time required for a higher grade
of licence.
d. the flight time in full towards the
total time required for a higher grade
of pilot licence according to the
requirements of the licensing
authority.
For an ATPL(A), how many night hours C

are required?
a. 30
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150
For an ATPL, how many cross-country A

hours are required, and how many of
these must be as pilot-in-command?
a. 200/100
b. 200/75
c. 150/75
d. 250/75
How long would you have to spend in C
a clinic or hospital before you would
have to inform the authorities?
a. 24 hrs or more.
b. Not less than 20 days.
c. More than 12 hours.
d. 12 days or more.
When you are a newly qualified flying B

instructor you have to be supervised
by a qualified flying instructor. When
will the period of supervision cease?
a. Once you have passed a
competency check.
b. When you have completed 100
hours instruction and sent 25 students
solo.
c. When you have completed 25 hours
instruction and sent 100 students solo.
d. When you have completed 100
hours solo.
Between what ages can you exercise B

the privileges of an ATPL(A) on an
unrestricted basis?
a. 21 - 60
b. 21 - 59
c. 18 - 59
d. 18 - 60
How long would a non-JAA licence be C

valid for if validated for use in a JAA
state?
a. Not less than 6 months.
b. 12 months from the date of
validation.
c. 12 months providing the licence is
still valid in the State of Issue.
d. Not more than 3 months.

Which of the following correctly B
identifies the cross-country hours
requirement for a CPL(A)?
a. 100 hours PIC or SPIC.
b. 20 hours cross-country as PIC
including a cross-country flight not
less than 540 km (300 NM) in the
course of which full stop landings are
made at two different aerodromes.
c. 25 hours including at least one flight
of 2 hours duration covering at least
300 NM and to include 2 full stop
landings.
d. 10 hours solo with at least one flight
over 300 NM with at least two full
stop landings.
What is the minimum age for a holder B

of a PPL?
a. 16
b. 17
c. 18
d. 21
What is the period of validity of a JAR- C

FCL class 2 medical?
a. 24 months until age 30, then 24
months until 50, then 12 months
thereafter.
b. 24 months until age 30, then 12
thereafter.
c. 60 months until age 40, then 24
thereafter.
d. 60 months until age 30, then 24
thereafter.

A PPL(A) or Commercial licence B
holder, before taking his/her
Instrument Rating, must have
completed ................. hours of cross-
country of which .............hours must be
in an aeroplane ?
a. 50, 15
b. 50, 10
c. 40, 15
d. 40, 10
A PPL(A) holder shall demonstrate C

competence for an IR(A) in a............
aircraft type with ................... .?
a. Amphibian, all engines running only
b. Seaplane, one engine inoperative
c. Multi-engine, one engine
inoperative
d. Multi-engine, all engines running
Of the 1500 hours required C

experience for an ATPL(A). ......... hours
may be in a simulator but not more
than ....... hours may be in a basic
instrument trainer or basic procedure
trainer.
a. 100, 15
b. 100, 20
c. 100, 25
d. 75, 25
Which of the following types of B

aircraft requires a type rating?
a. Each type of multi-engine aircraft.
b. Each type of single-pilot multi-
engine turbine.
c. Each type of micro-light with fixed
wings and able to move its surfaces in
three dimensions.
d. Each type of touring motor glider.

To have an unrestricted FI(A) rating D
and to instruct for the issue of a
CPL(A) or a PPL(A), you must have a
CPL(A) or:
a. at least 250 hours as a pilot.
b. not less than 15 hours in the last 12
months on the relevant type.
c. at least 200 hours of flight
instruction.
d. 200 hours flight time of which not
less than 150 hours is PIC.
According to JAR-FCL, what classes of B

medical exist?
a. Class 1 only.
b. Classes 1 and 2.
c. Classes 1, 2 and 3.
d. Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4.
According to JAR-FCL, a single-engine A

class rating is valid for:
a. 2 years.
b. 2 years up to the age of 40 then 1
year thereafter.
c. 5 years after licence issue.
d. 1 year.
The validity of a multi-engine class A

rating or a type rating shall be 1 year
from:
a. date of issue or the date of expiry if
re-validated within the validity period.
b. date of application received by the
authority.
c. date of skills test.
d. date of medical examination.

In order to carry out PPL(A) B
instruction you must:
a. hold a PPL(A) with instrument rating.
b. have passed the CPL theoretical
knowledge exams and hold an FI(A)
rating.
c. hold a CPL(A)/IR(A).
d. hold an ATPL(A).
For a pilot to hold an ATPL(A), the D

hours required are:
a. 500 PIC, or 300 PIC and 200 as co-
pilot acting as PIC under supervision.
b. 200 PIC, or 100 PIC and 100 as co-
c. 250 PIC, or 150 PIC and 100 as co-
d. 500 hrs as PIC under supervision or
250 hrs, either as PIC, or made up by
not less than 70 hrs as PIC and the
additional flight time as PIC under
supervision.
A pilot holding a CPL(A) can act as: C

a. PIC of any aircraft in non-
commercial aviation.
b. PIC in any single-engine aeroplane
engaged in commercial aviation.
c. PIC of any single-pilot aeroplane
engaged in commercial aviation.
d. PIC in any aircraft for which he/she
is class/type rated engaged in
noncommercial aviation.

From what date is a medical certificate A
valid?
a. The date of the initial general
medical examination.
b. The date the certificate is delivered
to the pilot.
c. The date of licence issue.
d. The date of the re-validation of the
licence
Which of the following annexes of the C

Chicago Convention contains the
minimum specification for a crew
member's licence to be recognized by
Contracting States?
a. Annex 2.
b. Annex 3.
c. Annex 1.
d. Annex 4.
For the holder of a commercial pilot's A

licence for single-pilot fixed-wing and
helicopters who has attained the age
of 40, the period between medical
reports decreases from:
a. 12 months to 6 months.
b. 60 months to 24 months.
c. 24 months to 6 months.
d. 24 months to 12 months.
An applicant for an ATPL(A) for aircraft C

shall have at least:
a. 100 hours night flying purely as PIC.
b. 75 hours night flying as PIC or as
co-pilot.
c. 100 hours night flying as PIC or as
co-pilot.
d. 75 hours night flying as PIC.

A CPL(A) applicant undergoing an A
integrated course of flight training
shall have completed:
a. 150 hours flight time of which 5
hours may be instrument ground time.
b. 150 hours flight time.
c. 200 hours flight time including 10
hours instrument ground time.
d. 200 hours flight time.
If an applicant for a CPL(A) wishes to B

exercise the privileges of the licence
at night, flight experience will include:
a. 5 hours of night flight including 3
take-offs and 5 landings as PIC.
b. 5 hours of night flight including 5
take-offs and 5 landings as PIC.
c. 5 hours of night flight including 5
take-offs and 5 landings as PIC or co-
pilot.
d. 5 hours of night flight including 3
take-offs and 3 landings as PIC or co-
pilot.
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument A

rating is valid for:
a. one year.
b. two years.
c. the period of validity of the licence.
d. indefinitely.

When acting as co-pilot of an D
aeroplane that requires a co-pilot, the
pilot shall be entitled to credit not
more than:
a. 40% of the co-pilot time towards
the total flight time required for a
b. 60% of the co-pilot time towards
c. 100 hours of the co-pilot time
towards the total flight time required
for a higher grade of licence.
d. 100% of the co-pilot time towards
An applicant for a CPL(A) shall have C

completed in aeroplanes, not less
than:
a. 200 hours of flight time including 70
hours as PIC.
b. 150 hours of flight time including 100
hours as PIC.
c. 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours
if completed during an integrated
course of approved training as a pilot
of aeroplanes.
d. 200 hours of flight time including 80
hours as PIC

The holders of pilot licences are B
required to inform the authority if,
through illness, they are unable to
undertake those functions to which
the licence relates throughout a
certain number of days. The number of
days is:
a. 14
b. 21
c. 28
d. 30
The cross-country requirement for the B

issue of a CPL(A) is to include:
a. 20 hours cross country with one
flight including 2 full stop landings
over a total distance of 270 km (150
NM).
b. 20 hours cross country with one
NM).
c. 10 hours cross country with one
NM).
d. 15 hours cross country with one
NM).
An applicant for a CPL(A) shall hold: C

a. a current class 3 medical
assessment.
b. a current class 2 medical
assessment.
c. a current class 1 medical
assessment.
d. a current medical assessment to a
level prescribed by the authority of
the state of licence issue.

How many synthetic flight trainer C
hours may be included by an
applicant for an ATPL(A) as part of the
1500 hours necessary experience?
a. 100 hours of which not more than 15
hours have been completed in a flight
procedures trainer or basic instrument
trainer.
b. 75 hours of which not more than 20
trainer.
c. 100 hours of which not more than 25
trainer.
d. 100 hours of which not more than
20 hours have been completed in a
flight procedures trainer or basic
instrument trainer.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant B

for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL(A) with a
night qualification, or a CPL(A), and
have completed at least 50 hours:
a. instructional time as student PIC of
aeroplanes or helicopters of which at
least 10 hours is to be in aeroplanes.
b. cross-country time as PIC of
c. cross-country time as a pilot of
d. instructional time as student PIC of
aeroplanes.

For which of the following are type D
ratings established?
a. Each type of multi-pilot aeroplane.
b. Each type of single-pilot multi-
engine aeroplane fitted with turbine
engines.
c. Any type of aircraft whenever
considered necessary by the
authority.
d. All the above answers are correct.
According to JAR-FCL, establishment A

of separate type rating for aeroplanes
will be assessed on the basis of three
criteria. One of these criteria is that
the aeroplane has:
a. handling characteristics that require
the use of more than one crew
member.
b. a certificate of airworthiness issued
by a non-JAA state.
c. a certificate of airworthiness issued
by the manufacturer.
d. handling characteristics that require
additional flying or simulator training.
Which annex to the Chicago C

Convention contains minimum
specifications for a crew licence to
have international validity?
a. Annex 3.
b. Annex 4.
c. Annex 1.
d. Annex 2.

A type rating is applicable to: C
a. an aeroplane requiring a certificate
of airworthiness.
b. an aeroplane with a certificate of
airworthiness issued by the state of
licence issue.
c. an aeroplane that requires multi-
pilot operation.
d. an aeroplane that requires
additional skills training.
According to JAR-FCL, recognized D

instructor categories are:
a. FI(A); TRI(A); CRI(A); IRI(A) only.
b. FI(A); CRI(A) only.
c. FI(A); TRI(A) only.
d. FI(A); TRI(A); CRI(A); IRI(A);
MCCI(A) and SFI(A) only.
When a state renders valid a licence B

issued by another Contracting State,
as an alternative to issuance of its own
licence, the period of validity shall:
a. not extend beyond 15 days after the
validity of the licence.
b. not extend beyond the period of
validity of the licence.
c. be at the discretion of the validating
state.
d. be at the discretion of ICAO.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL ATPL(A) C

has to demonstrate the ability to pilot:
a. training aircraft.
b. multi-crew aircraft requiring a Flight
Engineer.
c. multi-crew aeroplanes under IFR.
d. night flights with passengers on
board.

A pilot is not to operate an aircraft as B
PIC or co-pilot in CAT or carry
passengers unless he/she has carried
out at least:
a. 5 take-offs and landings in the
preceding 90 days
b. 3 take-offs, approaches and
landings in the preceding 90 days
c. 5 take-offs, approaches and
d. 5 take-offs, approaches and
A pilot is not to operate an aircraft as A

PIC at night in CAT or carry
passengers at night unless he/she has
carried out at least:
a. 1 take-off, approach and landing at
night in the preceding 90 days or
holds an Instrument Rating
b. 5 take-offs, approaches and
landings at night in the preceding 90
days or holds an Instrument Rating
c. 3 take-offs, approaches and
d. 3 take-offs, approaches and
Professione Volare Domande Human Factor
Data:
Nome Allievo:
Pagina domande 1 di 85
246) Which one of the following statements characterizes a 254) Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:
democratic and cooperative leadership style? 1. euphoria
If conflicts evolve, the leader 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
A decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through 4. visual disturbances
B tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all A 1,2 and 4 are correct
persons involved
B 1,3 and 4 are correct
C mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict
and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within C 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
the team
D keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing

D 1,2 and 3 are correct
253) The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by

257) Which of the following statements regarding
the concentration of:
interpersonal interactions are correct?
-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she
tends to A water vapour in the alveoli
reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences
-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native tongue, the sender B oxygen in the cells
will reinforce
what he is saying by using more complicated words C carbon dioxide in the blood
so as to
optimize understanding D nitrogen in the air
-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify
the content
of sentences
-4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each 252) Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in
other the blood?
essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal
conflict A Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
The correct statement(s) is (are): B White blood cells.
A 1 and 2 are correct

C Plasma.
B 2 and 3 are correct D Blood fat.
C 3 and 4 are correct
251) Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:

D 1 and 3 are correct
1. Adrenalin
2. Cortisol
3. Physical exercise.
256) The semicircular canals form part of the 4. Glucose concentration in the blood
A 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

A inner ear
B 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
B middle ear
C 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
C ear drum
D 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D external ear
250) The inner ear is able to perceive:

255) Which of the following statements concerning 1. angular acceleration
hypovigilance is correct ? 2. linear acceleration
Hypovigilance : 3. noise
A essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off A 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
phase
B tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a

B 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
relaxation in the operators' attention
C 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
C only affects certain personality types
D 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
D may occur at any moment of the flight
249) Which symptom does not belong to the following list: 244) A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress
factors can perceive:
A leans A stressors
B bends B distress (stress reactions)
C chokes
C coping stress
D creeps D eustress
236) How would you call the leadership style of a captain who 243) Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach
primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere within and intestinals can lead to:
his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging,
who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, A barotitis
who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and
who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions, even if
this makes the process more difficult? B decompresion sickness
A Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation C barosinusitis
B Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation D pressure pain or flatulence
C High task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

242) With regard to decompression sickness associated with
D High task-orientation and high relationship-orientation flight, we know that :
A physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of

decompression sickness symptoms to appear
247) Our mental model of the world is based
B age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
A on both our past experiences and our motor programmes
C scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent
B on both our past experiences and the sensory information flight
we receive
D sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three
C entirely on the sensory information we receive women being sensitive to it
D entirely on past experiences

241) With regard to short-term memory, we can say that :
260) The development of procedures makes pilots more A it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and
effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called: is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data
A knowledge-based behaviour B it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and

is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not
B procedural confusion in its storage capacity
C it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very

C procedural consistency sensitive to any disturbance
D mental model D it mainly contains procedural knowledge
245) The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a 240) The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called :
result of the:
A rods located in its peripheral zone A Poikilothermy
B cones located in its central part B Homeostasis
C rods located in its central part C Heterostasis
D crystalline lens D Homeothermy
239) Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 270) You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease
1. flying in IMC of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in
2. frequently changing between inside and outside barometric pressure is greatest between :
references
3. flying from IMC into VMC A 10.000 and 15.000 feet
4. having a cold
B 45.000 and 50.000 feet
A 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C 0 and 5.000 feet
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D 5.000 and 10.000 feet
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D 2, 3 and 4 are correct

189) The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision
238) Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills A is the cornea
B are the rods

A only at a certain level of flying experience
C are the cones
B at all levels of flying proficiency
D are rods and cones
C only for student pilots
D only for instructor pilots

280) At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart
pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately:
282) The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way A 5 liters/min
that:
B 450 ml/min
A their execution may be done simultaneously with other
actions
C 45 liters/min
B their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
D 75 liters/min
C it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check
list will serve as verification
279) Pilot stress reactions :
D their execution must not be done simultaneously with other
actions
A are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors
where the top-ten items should be avoided by all means
248) Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:
1. bad night's sleep
B do not change with the environment or different situations
but mainly with the characters themselves
2. day flight Amsterdam - New York
3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg
4. night flight New York - Amsterdam
C differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person
manages the particular stressors
A 2 and 4 are correct D seem to be always the same for most pilots
278) The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's

sleep.
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct REM-
sleep.
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a
human being
in the long run.
A 1 and 2 are both not correct
B 1 and 2 are both correct
C 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 1 is not correct 2 is correct
277) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can 258) Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and
you expect: sacculus?
A bends A Gravity alone
B chokes B Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
C hypoxia C Angular acceleration
D pain in the sinuses D Gravity and linear acceleration
276) Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: 271) What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate
implicitly ('between the lines')?
A oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will A The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means.
be supplied with more blood than normal
B blood circulation to the brain is slowed down B He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the
communication partner.
C oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased

C Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been
misunderstood.
D not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
D There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to
communicate.
275) Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain.
When is this the case?
259) Which problem may be overlooked in the process of
A During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin making a decision?
pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000 FT
A Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum
B More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non- commitment
pressurized aircraft.
B Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of
C At lower altitudes. inflexibilities
D Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels. C The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
D Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current

actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared
274) The Eustachian tube connects: beforehand
A the middle ear and the pharynx

269) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The
B the auditory duct and the inner ear reason for this is:
A swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of

C the semi circular canals
metabolic production resulting in hyperventilation
D the middle ear and the inner ear B because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
C the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is

273) Which of the following mechanisms regulate body likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the
temperature when expored to extreme high pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area.
environmental temperatures? Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly
-1 : Shivering during fast descents
-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
-3 : Sweating D although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower
-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If
the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen,
A 1,3,4 gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to
the ear drum
B 2,3
C 1
D 3,4
268) Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot 263) A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e.
get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34
spin? He will get the illusion of 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this
gas is :
A climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
A smaller
B spinning into the opposite direction
B constant
C spinning into the same direction
C first larger, then smaller
D straight and level flight
D larger
267) The first stage in the information process is

262) What is the effect of stress on performance ?
-1 : It always reduces performance.
A sensory stimulation -2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum
arousal.
B perception -3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.
-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.
C selective attention
The combination of correct statements is:
D the recognition of information
A 1,3,4
B 1,2,4
266) Stress management programmes usually involve:
C 2,3,4
A the prevention and/or the removal of stress
D 1,2,3
B only the removal of stress
C only the prevention of stress 261) Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of
D the use of psychoactive drugs the risk of an event occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our
decision even in the face of facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to
265) Which of the following tasks are possible to do influence the particular decision
simultaneously without mutual interference? 4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts
for decision-making purposes
A Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.
A 1,2,4
B Listen attentively and solve a problem.
B 1,2,3
C Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.
C 1,2
D Read and listen attentively.
D 3,4
264) During paradoxical sleep

235) Which of the following statements best fits the definition
A the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state of an active error?
Active error is:
B respiration is very regular
A produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote
operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a
C the rhythm of the heart is very regular specific moment of the action
D rapid eye movements can be observed B essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the
poor application of a good rule by airplane designers
C rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the

fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of
uncontrolled and involuntary deviations
D produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the

effects and consequences which it induces on the overall
action
272) In order to get colour vision, it is necessary : 208) Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to
-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient breathe ambient air at :
luminosity)
-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an A 8 000 ft
angle of 15°
-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the B 14 000 ft
light
-4 : to avoid white light
C 18 000 ft
A 2,4
D 10 000 ft
B 3
C 1 207) Workload essentially depends on:
D 1,2,3 A the pilot's knowledge
B the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft

199) When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity load, type of flight, etc)
have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention
has to be payed to C the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the
ergonomics of the system
A schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these
medications D the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system
B the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional

awareness
206) A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a
captain. Which psychological consequence is most
C the effect they have on hearing
likely?
D the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep A His/her self-concept is going to change because of new
produced under the influence of those drugs compared to roles and tasks which have to be incorporated.
normal drug-free sleep
B His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the
higher status as a captain.
210) What are the main factors which bring about reduced or
low vigilance (hypovigilance) ? C The increased command authority leads to a higher
1. The monotony of the task professionalism.
2. Tiredness,the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation D An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned
4. Excessive stress psychological consequences.
A 1,2,3
205) What is a stressor?
B 2,4
A The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
C 1,3
D 3,4
B An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an
individual as beeing stressful
C All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the

209) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the internal equilibrium
blood leads to:
D A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
A an improving resistance to hypoxia
B shortness of breath 204) Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
C a decrease of acidity in the blood

A physical skills
D a reduction of red blood cells
B interpersonal relations
C good maintenance of aircraft
D good judgement
203) Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by 198) During a final approach under bad weather conditions,
you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands
and a rapid heart rate.
A the cochlea These symptoms could indicate:
B the semicircular canals A hyperventilation
C the tympanum B disorientation
D the saccule and the utricle C hypoxia
D carbon monoxide poisoning

202) Hyperventilation is:
A an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing 197) According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based
blood-pressure control mode are of the following type(s) :
B a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain A handling errors
C a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in B creative errors

partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)
C errors of technical knowledge
D an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing
blood pressure D routine errors
237) Which of the following statements is true?

196) How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ?
A People are capable of living without stress.

A Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body
forward.
B Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to
exhaustion. B Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind
of pressure breathing.
C Stressors are independent from each other.
C Tighten shoulder harness.
D Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.
D Take an upright seat position.
200) The ozone-layer is situated in the

195) Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-
blindness?
A thermosphere
A Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the
B ionosphere photosensitive cells
C stratosphere B The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve

impulse depends on vitamin A
D troposphere
C Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
D Accomodation is destroyed
213) The requirement of good sunglasses is to
A eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields 194) If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of
"optimum arousal" he/she will be:
B increase the time for dark adaptation
A in a confused mental state
C absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without
decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and B prepared best to cope with a difficult task
absorb all colors equally
D fit to the pilots individual taste

C unprepared to handle a difficult situation
D approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue
193) Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the 201) Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous
following statement is correct: expansion after decompression at high altitude may be
associated with the following part(s) of the body:
A flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is 1 the digestive tract
safe up to this limit 2 the ears
3 the eyes
B no flying under the influence of alcohol 4 the sinuses
C flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol A 1
D flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol B 1,2,3
C 2,3,4
192) Which of the following statements are correct ?
1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities. D 2,4
2 Man has effective natural protection against intense
cold.
3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a 223) The "gestalt laws "formulates :
certain
extent, but uses up a lot of energy
4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a A basic principles governing how objects are mentally
body organized and perceived
temperature of less than 35°C
B basic principles governing the relationship between stress
A 2,4 and performance
B 2,3,4 C basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience
C 1,3,4 D basic principles regarding to the relationship between

motivation and performance
D 1,2,3
234) The process of responding to a sender by confirming

the reception of a message is called
191) Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the
result of: A feedback
A undergoing positive G B redundancy
B gazing in the direction of a flashing light

C synchronization
C normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age D transference
D simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
233) What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on

performance ?
376) When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should
A It causes muscular spasms
A make up his mind before consulting other crew members
B It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss
greater than 48 hours
B take as much time as he needs and is available to make up
his mind
C It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties,
the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders
C always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much
spare time as possible D It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but
facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,
D avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
232) Hypoxia will effect night vision
A and causes hyperventilation
B at 5000 FT
C less than day vision
D and causes the autokinetic phenomena
231) Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning 227) The planning and anticipation of future actions and
hyperventilation? situations makes it possible to:
-1 : create a precise reference framework.
A Slow heart beat -2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.
-3 : automate planned actions.
B Slow rate of breathing -4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary
for the
period to come.
C Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
The correct statement(s) is (are):
D Dizzy feeling
230) Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. B 1, 2 and 4 are correct

This reaction
A can only be controlled by medical treatment
B is purely physiological and automatic
C may include various psychological and physiological

226) The consumption of medicines or other substances may
elements which one can learn to manage
have consequences on qualification to fly for the
following reasons:
D is always linked to excessive fear
1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for
disqualification.
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the
229) 1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust body to a
your treatment.
Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense. 3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight
2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory safety.
organs 4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily
and the instruments you must believe the instruments. immediately
disappear when the treatment is stopped.
A 1 and 2 are false
A Only 2 is false.
B 1 is false, 2 is correct
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D 1 is correct, 2 is false
D 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
228) The body loses water via:

1. the skin and the lungs 211) You can survive at any altitude, provided that
2. the kidneys
A 1 is correct and 2 is not correct

A 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in
B 1 is not correct and 2 is correct

B pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude
C both are false C the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10" C

D enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
224) A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:

1. decompression sickness
2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines
3. hypoxia
4. coronary desease
A 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
B 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
D 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
212) What characterises the notion of role ? 219) One of the waste products of the metabolic process in
the cell is :
A The hierarchical position of the function and the associated A sugar

behaviour
B The function and behaviour associated with the particular B fat

role
C water
C Only the functions associated with role
D protein
D The characteristic behaviour associated with the description
of the various roles of a particular status
218) The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental
model is, that it
222) An non-synergetic cockpit :
A is frequently extremely resistant to correction
A is not very dangerous as each person checks everything
personally B will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
B is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear C will only occur under conditions of stress
communication
D can easily be changed
C is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating
appropriately with the outside
D always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere 217) Which of the following are primary sources of
motivation in day-to-day professional life ?
1. Beeing in control of one's own situation
2. Fear of punishment
221) In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx): 3. Success (achievement of goals)
- 1 : do not exist 4. Social promotion, money
- 2 : have slight physiological consequences
- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of A 3,4
consciousness
- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
B 2,4
A 2,4
C 1,2,3,4
B 1
D 1,2,3
C 3,4
D 3 216) Which of the following statements concerning stress is

correct?
A Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it

220) When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating improves or reduces performance.
due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide
level in the blood is lowered, resulting in: B Stress always creates a state of high tension which
decreases cognitive and behavioural performance.
A a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
C Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in
B the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in
hypoxia aeronautics
C less oxygen to be diffused into the cells D Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
D a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood

215) What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
A Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of

flying
B Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
C To question possible solutions
D An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew

Resources Management
214) What are the most frequent and the least appropriate 351) If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude,
reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a exactly following the approach procedure, and you
highly authoritarian captain ? encounter no inexpected or new problems you show:
1. Self-assertion
2. A scapegoat feeling A knowledge based behaviour
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
4. Disengagement B rule based behaviour
A 3,4
C rule and skill based behaviour
B 1,3,4
D skill based behaviour
C 2,3,4
D 1,2 350) To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access

information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:
A structure irrelevant information as much as possible before

283) The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, committing it to memory
when
B avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need
A there is contradictory information between the instruments soon
and the vestibular organs
C mentally rehearse information before it is needed
B the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the
attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants- D learn and store data in a logical and structured way
Sense
C the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check

and is ignoring illusions 349) In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-
4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is
D informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are advisable to :
ignored 1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the
arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure
country for as long as possible
225) Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping
altitude to approximately:
alternation and regular meal pattern )
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome
A 45 000 ft
negative arousal effects
B 38 000 ft A 2,3
C 10 000 B 1,3
D 22 000 ft C 2,4
D 1,4
340) The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"
A is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the 348) A study by NASA has examined the relationships
correct body position in space between incidents linked with ground-to-crew
communication. Which of the following factors is the
B can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of
a message?
C can be used as a reference for determining attitude when
A Listening errors.
operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions
D can give false inputs to body orientation when visual B Errors in understanding clearance values.
reference is lost
C Radio failure.
D Mother tongue differing from working language.
347) Divided attention is the ability : 344) All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration
1. to execute several mental activities at almost the as part of the process of growing old.
same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside The effects of aging
the aircraft
to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel) A will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all
2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. the time
flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively
subconscious level, B are to cut out the high tones first
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a
rather C are to cut out the low tones first
conscious level)
3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the
task in hand. At the same time no other operation can
D are to cut out all tones equally
be
performed.
4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on 343) To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is
the procedures necessary :
- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of
A 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false illumination
- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by
B Only 3 is false reducing the
cockpit lighting
- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed
C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
- 4 : to avoid blinding
A 1,2,4
B 2,3,4
346) What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?
1. Decrease in sensory perception C 2
2. Increase in selective attention
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness
4. Decrease in complacency
D 1,3,4
A 1,3
330) A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism
B 1,4 on stimulation of receptors is called:
C 2,3 A data processing
D 2,4 B control system
C change of stimulation level
345) Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get,

when he is subjected to hypoxia?
D reflex
1. Fatigue.
2. Euphoria.
3. Lack of concentration. 341) Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is
4. Pain in the joints. about:
5. Sensation of suffocation.
A 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
B 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases
B 4 and 5 are correct
C 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
C 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
D Only 5 is false
354) Which statement is correct? 335) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs,
following a decompression are called:
A There is no relation between inadequate communication and A creeps

incidents or accidents.
B Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety. B leans
C Problems in the personal relation between crew members C chokes

hardly hamper their communication process.
D bends
D Problems in the personal relation between crew members
very likely hamper their communication process.
334) Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ
means:
339) Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not
using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone? A a greater sensitivity
It starts at:
B a greater selectivity
A 18000 FT
B It25000 FT
C a lesser selectivity
D a lesser sensitivity
C It38000 FT
D 22000 FT.
333) What impression do you have when outside references
are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)?
338) The area in front of a threshold descends towards the A Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
threshold.
Possible danger is: B There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and
sunny day
A approach is lower than normal and may result in a short
landing C It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
B to misjudge the length of the runway
D Objects seem to be closer than in reality
C approach is higher than normal and may result in a long

landing
332) A large number of medical preparations can be bought
D to drop far below the glide path without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using
these preparations, which of the following is correct:
337) The atmosphere contains the following gases:

A They have no side effects which would give problems to a
pilot during flight
A 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare B The side effects of these types of preparations are
gases sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilots
B 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare C They will cause a condition of over-arousal
gases
D A pilot using any of these preparations should get
C 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare professional advice from a flight surgeon if he intends to fly
gases and self-medicate at the same time
D 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest:

rare gases 281) A fatigued pilot
336) The part of blood without cell is called : A is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
B will get precordial pain

A lymph
C considerably increases the ability to concentrate
B serum
D will show signs of increased irritability
C water
D plasm
342) Although the anticipation of possible events is a good 372) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to
hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select
the response below which could lead to such a hazard: A higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
A anticipating that the weather may deteriorate B lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric
air.
B anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
C lower than in the blood
C anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.
D almost the same as in the atmospheric air
D mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic
controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a
standard procedure was anticipated 371) During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which
should be used to overcome illusions is the:
364) Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot A visual sense by looking outside
believe to
B visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator
A climb
C "Seat-of-the-pants-Sense"
B descent
D vestibular sense
C turn into the opposite direction
D increase the rate of turn into the same direction 370) In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :
1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
117) A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit 3. on the risks associated with each solution
floor during a tight turn, experiences: 4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
A pressure vertigo A 1,3
B coriolis illusion B 4
C autokinetic illusion C 1,2,3,4
D barotrauma D 1,2,4
374) During a climb, we can observe the following with 369) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The
regard to the partial oxygen pressure : reason for this is:
A an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure A swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from
drop above that altitude ventilating through the tympanic membrane
B an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease B swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent
in atmospheric pressure hearing loss
C an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure C pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly
during fast descents
D a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in D gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the
atmospheric pressure ear drum
373) With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it

may be said that they:
A are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning

attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew
B are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception

of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and
the visual system
C originate from a conflict between instrument readings and

external visual perceptions
D are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
368) What elements establish synergy within the crew ? 353) Between which components is an interface mismatch
causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-
point altimeter?
A Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right
through from briefing to debriefing A Liveware - Hardware
B Synergy is independent of the natural individual
characteristics of the group members (communication, B Liveware - Software
mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
C Liveware - Environment
C It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment
of synergy within the crew D Liveware - Liveware
D Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission

(briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end
(debriefing) 363) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should
not occur (indifferent phase)
367) Motor programmes are:

A between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
B between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

A rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
C below 3 000 m
B rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations
D up to 5 000 m
C stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be
executed only under continuous conscious control
D stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be 362) The maximum number of unrelated items that can be
executed without continuous conscious control stored in working memory is:
A unlimited
352) Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can

end up in
B about 7 items
A a ruptured ear drum C very limited - only 3 items
B noise induced hearing loss D about 30 items
C conductive hearing loss

361) The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information
D presbycusis (eefects of aging) processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs:
A on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
365) When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the

blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which
B on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
result in:
1. an increase of respiratory activity C on stimulating the cochlea intensely
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output D when no semicircular canal is stimulated
4. the heart rate to rise

360) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a
plastic or paper bag. The intention is:
B 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
A to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
C 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
B to reduce blood pressure
C to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
D to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
359) Adaptation is 355) We can observe the following in relation to a state of
hypothermia :
A the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of A a rapid fall in ambient temperature
illumination
B the change of the diameter of the pupil B greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
C the reflection of the light at the cornea C reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls
below 37°C
D the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the D a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas
retina peripheral temperature at the skin is stable
358) The purpose of action plans which are implemented 329) The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to
during briefings is to: his surroundings, but informs him of
A activate a collective mental schema with respect to non- A the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
procedural actions to be carried out
B initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most B a touch on the skin
likely, risky or difficult during the flight
C our surroundings
C define general planning of the flight plan
D the condition in the body itself
D allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult
situation
366) A system is all the more reliable if it offers good
detectability. The latter is the result of:
357) The effects of sleep deprivation on performance: -1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.
1. increase with altitude -2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and
2. decrease with altitude warning facilities.
3. increase with higher workload -3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.
4. decrease with higher workload -4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.
A 1 and 3 are correct The combination of correct statements is:
B 1,2 and 3 are correct A 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4 are correct B 1 and 3
D 2, 3 and 4 are correct C 3 and 4
D 2 and 4
356) Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual
systems are :
1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC 293) Which of the following statements are correct with
2 - sensed via impressions of rotation regard to the design of a check list?
3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of -1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be
the aircraft subdivided into
4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under logical parts.
IMC -2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of
the check
A 3,4 list.
-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that
B 1,2,3,4 they can be
lumped together with other tasks.
-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should
C 2,3,4
be
applied
D 1,3 -5 : Critical points should have redundancies.
304) The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on 300) In the pulmonary artery there is :
A both pilots wearing the same uniform A oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
B both pilots flying together very often for a long period B oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
C both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude C oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
D both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same D oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond
goals
299) In order to make communication effective, it is

303) Once we have constructed a mental model we tend necessary to:
-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal
channels.
A to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding
abilities.
B to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming -3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of
information the
message only.
C to alter that model unnecessarily frequently -4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
channels, in
D to give undue weight to information that confirms the model order to simplify communication.

302) Decompression sickness can be prevented by:
1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying
at high B 2 and 4 are correct
altitudes
3. performing physical exercises before and during the C only 2 is correct
flight
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during D 1,2 and 3 are correct
the flight
A only 3 is correct
298) Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo?
Turning the head while
A climbing
B descending
D 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C flying straight and level
301) In the initial phase of flight training the relationship D banking

between confidence and expertise can be described as:
A during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving

full potential knowledge of the machine 297) When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you
can protect yourself from flashblindness by:
B the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights
use of his skills b) looking inside the cockpit
c) wearing sunglasses
C the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
but does neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her
abilities nor in the whole system A a), b), c) and d) are correct
D the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this B a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false
stage what he can and cannot do
C a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false
D c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false
296) As a cause of accidents, the human factor 291) When assessing an individuals risk in developing
coronary artery disease, the following factors may
contribute:
A has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of 1.obesity
accident in which this factor has been involved has more 2.distress
than tripled since this date 3.smoking
4.family history
B which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew
and ATC only A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is
B 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
much more important in general aviation
D is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents C Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
D 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

331) When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin
heating):
290) Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
A his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays
conscious
A attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells
B his oxygen need will not be affected
B the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
C his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better
tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes C the blood plasma
D his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia D attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma
will be increased
289) The cabin pressure in airline operation is

294) To prevent vertigo in flight we should
A look towards the sides when we make a turn

A normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
B breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency

B normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
C keep breathing normally C normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
D not move the head suddenly while we are turning

D always equivalent to sea level
288) Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot

307) "Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be
observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
A is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing
A + 3.5 Gz any stage of hypoxia
B - 3.5 Gz B is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
C + 3.5 Gx C will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude
D - 3.5 Gy D is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet
292) When accelerating forward the otoliths in the 287) Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a
utriculus/sacculus will decompression is called:
A give the illusion of banking A chokes
B give the illusion of straight and level flight B creeps
C give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or C leans

forwards, nose of the airplane going down)
D bends
D give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of
the a/c going up)
286) Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they 328) In case of in-flight stress, one should :
don't have to think up every time what they have to do.
A this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and A demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
the procedures they have to comply with
B always carry out a breathing exercise
B this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a
moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation. C use all available resources of the crew
C this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases D only trust in oneself; beeing sure to know the own limits
consistency in action
D this is dangerous for every situation is different

327) Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :
285) Judgement is based upon: A insinuating
A a decision making process involving physical sensations B obvious

and their transfer to manually operate the aircraft controls
C sudden
B the development of skills from constant practice of flight
manoeuvres D intense
C the ability to interpret the flight instruments
D a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate 326) Which of the following measures can reduce the chance
of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres?
risks by assessing the situation and making decisions
based upon knowledge, skill and experience
A Breathing oxygen.
284) The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as

B Sit in upright position and keep relaxed.
stressful
C Hyperventilation.
A depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in
comparison to the situational demands D A tilt back seat.
B does not depend on his capacity to absorb information

325) Metacommunication is defined as
C depends on the level of demand but not on individual
interpretation of the situational demands
A active listening
D depends on self-confidence alone
B communicating about the communication
295) Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by C balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the
interlocutor
A the duration and intensity of a noise D having an assessment conversation
B the duration of a noise but not its intensity

324) The ability of detecting relevant information which is not
C the suddenness of onset of a noise presented in an actively monitored input channel is
known as
D the intensity of the noise but not its duration
A appreciation
317) What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very B attention

demanding stress situation?
C perception
A The time available to cope with the situation.
D sensation
B The objective threat of the situation.
C The unexpected outcome of the situation.
D The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
323) The effectiveness of the individual depends on: 318) To maintain good situational awareness you should:
(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data
(2) gather as much datas as possible from every
A the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs possible
and the demands of reality source before making inferences
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the
B the ability to repress the dictates of needs situation as
events progress and try to make time to review the
C the ability to go beyond one's own capabilities situation
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis
D the total independence with respect to the environment to see
whether it is correct

322) What are the main strategies for adapting to time
constraints ?
A The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
B The preparation of action and the application of procedures
D all answers are correct
C The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
D The preparation of action and time management 306) After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you
have to wait a period of time before flying again. This
period is at least:
321) Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on: A 24 hours
A the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided B 6 hours

by the environment
C 12 hours
B the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of
capabilities to cope with it D 48 hours
C the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of

the individual
316) What is synergy in a crew ?
D the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the
time available
A The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances
in achieving a non-standard task
320) A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways B The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a
only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to common objective
:
C The coordinated action of all members towards a common
A the risk to land short of the overrun objective, in which collective performance is proving to be
more than the sum of the individual performances
B an early or high "round out"
D A behavioural expedient associated with the
C a steeper than normal approach dropping low desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
D a flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking

under" 315) Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
A a blocked Eustachian tube

305) What optimises crew co-operation ?
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each others capability
B pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each
crew C reduced mobility of the ossicles
members role
D damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to
A 1,2 overexposure to noise
B 2,3
C 1,2,3
D 1
314) Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate) 309) After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT
the first action of the pilot shall be:
A is approx. 0.3% per hour A preventing panic of the passengers
B depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks B maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of
oxygen mask)
C definitely depends on the amount and composition of food
which has been eaten C informing ATC
D is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited D informing the cabin crew
313) Scanning at night should be performed by: 308) Decompression symptoms are caused by:
A scanning with one eye open A release of locked gases from joints
B concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the B dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body
fovea centralis)
C avoiding food containing Vitamin A C low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air
D slight eye movements to the side of the object D low oxygen pressure of inhaled air
312) Which of the following statements concerning check list 188) How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic
is correct? stress?
A The most important items must be placed in the middle of A Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which
check list so that they come to be examined once attention is approaches the entire body and improves wellness.
focused but before concentration starts to wane
B Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight.
B All the items of a check list are equally important; their
sequence is of no importance C Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical
exercises.
C The most important items should be placed at the beginning
of a check list since attention is usually focused here D Always consult a psychotherapist before the next flight.
D The most important items must be placed at the end of

check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they
319) The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be
are quickly available for any supplementary check
based on
A situational factors only

311) The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
B subjective perception and evalutation of situational factors
A 32 cycles per minute
C external factors only
B 72 cycles per minute
D the emergency checklist only
C 16 cycles per minute
D 4 cycles per minute 31) The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):
A the quantity of data which may be stored

310) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a
moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in B the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information
the blood equal to an altitude collected during the day, which comes to saturate it
A above 10 000 FT C the data storage time
B of 10 000 FT D Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored

information
C lower than 10 000 FT
D of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen
42) If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the 37) The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is
captain in an unjustified way, then he should (systolic/diastolic):
A internally retire and think positive A 220/180 mm Hg
B duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and B 120/80 mm Hg
clear the matter in a more appropriate occasion
C 80/20 mm Hg
C freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate
confrontation
D 180/120 mm Hg
D speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour
persists
36) The readiness for tracing information which could
indicate the development of a critical situation
41) Which of the following elements make up the personality
of an individual ? A is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the
1. Heredity aircraft
2. Childhood environment
3. Upbringing B makes no sense because the human information processing
4. Past experience system is limited anyway
A 2,3 C is responsible for the development of inadequate mental

models
of the real world
B 2,3,4
D is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
C 1,2,3,4
D 1,2,4
35) Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-
pressure in the brain to:
40) The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is A decrease
A to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds

B remain constant
B to believe the attitude indicator C increase
C a poor instrument cross-check and permanently

D first increase, then decrease
transitioning back and forth between instruments and visual
references
34) Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for
D the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator conducting safe flight ?
A Dizziness.
39) Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during
flight: B Lack of adaptation.
A if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot C Lack of accomodation.
does not believe the instruments
D The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
B when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains
good instrument cross check
C when flying in light rain below the ceiling 21) Which of the following responses is an example of
"habit reversion" (negative habit transfer):
D when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer
A habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the
second item when two items are on the same line
38) What are the advantages of coordination? B A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the
fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may
unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position,
A Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.
when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to
point aft to be in the ON position
B Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
C Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the
C Redundancy, exploration, risky shift. right
D Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility. D Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions
32) Experiencing stress depends on: 27) The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily
by
A the individual interpretation of the situation A the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system
B the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation B the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to
sleep
C the individual's state of tiredness
C the duration of your previous sleep
D the environment of the situation which the individual will live
through or is in the process of living through D the amount of time you have been awake
45) Which of the following operations are performed more 26) To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise
effectively by people than by automatic systems ? should be
1. Qualitative decision-making
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
A triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
exceeded
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.) B double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three
times a week
A 2,3,4
C avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the
heart
B 1,4
D double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a
C 1,2 week
D 3,4
25) The capacity of the short-term memory is
30) The primary factor to control the rate and depth of A very limited - only one item
breathing is the:
A pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

B about 30 items
B partial pressure of nitrogen

C unlimited
D about 7 items
C partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
D total air pressure in the blood

24) Decompression sickness occurs in association with
exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.
The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of
29) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of solution in body tissues can be derived from:
time may even get unconscious.
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: A Boyle Mariotte´s law
A there is a low CO-pressure in the blood

B Dalton´s law
B he is flying a tight turn

C Gay Lussac´s law
C there is an increased blood flow to the brain

D Henry´s law
D the pilot is emotionally aroused
23) A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult

to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs
28) When focussing on near objects: when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding
A the pupil gets larger A 0.2 % blood alcohol
B the shape of lens gets more spherical

B 0.05 % blood alcohol
C the shape of lens gets flatter C 0.1 % blood alcohol
D the cornea gets smaller

D 0.15 % blood alcohol
67) A pilot will get hypoxia 64) The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of
approximately
34 000 ft is :
A after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional
oxygen in time A 10,5%
B after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 %
oxygen via an oxygen mask B 42%
C if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min C 21%
D if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 D 5%

000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen
63) What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying

33) Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive into fog, snow or haze?
pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of
actions. A Objects seem to be farther away than in reality
A It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if B Objects will appear closer than they really are
imagination
B It is more effective than training by doing C Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality
C It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual D Objects seem to move slower than in reality
motor skills
D It is most important for selfcontrol 62) 1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is
followed
by psychological stress.
55) In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in
diving, subsequent flights should be delayed professional
aviation because of the strict selection for this
particular
A 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been
profession .
made
B 24 hours A 1 and 2 are both correct
C 3 hours after non decompression diving B 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 36 hours after any scuba diving C 1 is not correct 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both not correct
190) Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled

cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called:
61) When accelerating in level flight we could experience
A hyperventilation the sensation of a
B barotrauma A climb
C ebulism B descent
D hypoxia C turn
D spin
65) Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion,

is toxic because
A it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract
B it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys
C it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary

membrane
D it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
60) Our body takes its energy from : 44) During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain
1: minerals notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather
2: protein unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand
3: carbonhydrates highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour
4: vitamines most likely is inappropriate?
A 1,3 A The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each
action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his
B 2,3 decisions
B The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled
C 1,2,3,4
instructions what to do
D 1,4 C The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to
ask for any support that needed
59) Pain in the Joints ("bends"), which suddenly appear D The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour
during a flight , are symptoms of without any comments
A hypoxia
54) Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the
B decompression sickness captain should emphasize
C barotrauma
A to depart on schedule
D air-sickness
B to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls
C particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due

to specific circumstances
58) The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
D complete delegation of all duties
A binocular vision
B depth perception 53) Fatigue and permanent concentration
C adaptation A do not affect hypoxia at all
D accomodation B will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15

000 feet
43) Discussing private matters in the cockpit C lower the tolerance to hypoxia
D increase the tolerance to hypoxia

A can improve team spirit
B should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

52) In the following list you find some symptoms for
hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
C is appropriate in any phase of flight Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
D decreases the captains role of leadership A Dull headache and bends.
B Dizziness, hypothermia.
56) Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is
correct ? C Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
A Performance is not impaired by an increase in body D Nausea and barotitis.

temperature to 40°C or more.
B Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a

fortnight.
C Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of

reducing body temperature.
D Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
51) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and 46) You should not despense blood without prior
incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful information from your flight surgeon. The most
Consciousness). It important reason for this advise is:
A varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude A your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation
B is the same amount of time for every person B your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation
C is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure C you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation.
D varies individually and does not depend on altitude D the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
50) Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance 20) Which of the following symptoms can indicate the
beginning of hypoxia?
1. Blue lips and finger nails.
A the primary and the side effects have to be considered 2. Euphoria.
3. Flatulence.
B the side effects only have to be considered 4 .Unconsciousness..
C medication has no influence on pilot´s performance A 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
D only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects B 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
are negligable
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
49) The retina of the eye D 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
A is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the

photoreceptors essential for vision 57) The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:
B filters the UV-light

A the coronary arteries
C is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens
B the auricles
D only regulates the light that falls into the eye
C ventricles
D the pulmonary veins

48) If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
A relay on instruments 127) Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:

1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by
B look outside infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
C descend 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
D check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast
B 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

47) At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system
available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to trapped
gases. The correct counter-measure is:
C 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
A perform "valsalva maneouvre"

B use supplemental oxygen

138) Excessive exposure to noise damages:
C descend to lower altitude
A the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
D climb to a higher altitude
B the semi circular canals
C the ossicles
D the eardrum
137) A pilot approaching an upslope runway 133) Which of the following statements about long-term
memory are correct?
-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive,
A may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may rule-based
cause him to land short. and schematic knowledge.
-2: The period of time for which information is retained
B is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long is limited by
the frequency with which this same information is
C establishes a higher than normal approach speed used.
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective
D establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the mode of
risk of stalling out access in real time.
-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for
a reduction
in access time.
136) What is "divided attention"?
A Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
B Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
C The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's
attention being dispersed D 2 and 4 are correct
D Alternative management of several matters of interest
132) Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by

an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects:
135) What counter-measure can be used against a 1. Drowsiness, dizziness
barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)? 2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
A Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby 4. Impaired depth perception
increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the 5. Nausea
same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva)
B Increase rate of descent
B only 1 is correct
C Stop climbing, start descent
C 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
D Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to
prevent barotrauma in the middle ear D only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
134) What are the most frequent results of an self-centred

captain on the flight deck ? 131) The semicircular canals detect
A Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to A linear accelerations

an increase of cooperation and efficiency
B In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may

B changes in arterial pressure
react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or
demonstrate the scapegoat effect C angular accelerations
C High group performance despite the strained relations D sound waves
D A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertive

130) Hypoxia effects visual performance.
A pilot may:
A get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
B get blurred and/or tunnel vision
C have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
D be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
22) What is the effect of tiredness on attention ? 125) Decision-making can be influenced by the following
factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a
A It has no specific effects on attention majority
within the group they belong to
B It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters 2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line
with
C It increases the ability to manage multiple matters those their superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the
D It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different expectations
centres of interest 4. people hardly base decisions on their personal
preferences but
rather on rational information
128) According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the A 2,3

temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is
approximately
B 1,4
A constant in the troposphere
C 2,4
B - 2 °C every 1000 feet
D 1,3
C 10 °C every 100 feet
D 2 °C every 1000 metres 124) Success in achieving the objectives of a message

requires:
A differences in contexts for the sender and the receiver

141) The blood-pressure depends on:
1. the work of the heart
2. the peripheral resistance
B a form of the message, which should not match the
expectation of the receiver
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the bloode volume and viscosity
C different codes between form and meaning
D the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
B 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
C 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 123) A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to
transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
D 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation
capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack
of cigarettes a day?
126) Mental schemes correspond to: A 12 - 18%
A the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a

B 20 - 25%
particular situation
C 5 - 8%
B memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly
during change-over to a new machine D 0.5 - 2%
C daily planning of probable dangerous situations

122) The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time
D memorised representations of the various procedures and
shift is normally more difficult
situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will
A with flights towards the West
B with flights towards the North
C with flights towards the South
D with flights towards the East
121) Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the 129) Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is
perception of noise? important during flight to use the scan ning technique,
because
A The semicircular canals
A only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good
B The sacculus and utriculus enough to see an object clearly
B the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is

C The eustachian tube
due to a lack of vitamin A
D The cochlea C only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an
object clearly
120) The vestibular system is composed of

D it is tiring to look continually in the same direction
-1: two ventricles
-2 : a saccule
-3 : an utricle 8) The relevance of check procedures during flight
-4 : three semicircular channels becomes even more important when:
A 1,4 A conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
B 2,3 B flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before
C 1,3,4 C flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental

pressure
D 2,3,4
D flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
119) Which of the following components belong to the middle

ear? 19) After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of
useful consciousness is about:
A Semicircular canals
A 10 minutes.
B Ossicles
B 30 to 60 seconds
C Otoliths
C 15 seconds or less
D Endolymph
D 5 minutes.
118) Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical

factors and essential to good night vision: 18) "Pilot's vertigo"
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision
performance
2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision A is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation
performance significantly caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced system (CNS)
diet
containing sufficient vitamin A B is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in
photopic C is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear
vision but not in scotopic vision acceleration
A Only 4 is false D announces the beginning of airsickness
B 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
17) What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s 12) The quality of learning :
vertigo"?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
check. A is independent of age
2. Believe the instruments.
3. Ignore illusions. B is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own
4. Minimize head movements. performance
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct C depends on long-term memory capacity
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false D is independent of the level of motivation

11) Information stays in the short-term memory
D Only 4 is false
A around 24 hours
16) Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a B about 20 seconds
lack of oxygen up to
A 20.000 feet
C less than 1 second
B 25.000 feet
D from 5 to 10 minutes
C 10.000 - 12.000feet
139) Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to
D 15.000 feet teamwork under high workload conditions in the
cockpit?
A Mentally absent.
15) Hypoxia can occur because:
B Sensitive.
A you inhale too much nitrogen
C Disciplined.
B the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
D Jovial.
C you are hyperventilating
D you are getting toomuch solar radiation 9) Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
A due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems

14) When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the
sensation B due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
A of turning in the same direction

C solely induced in the absence of external reference points
B of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
D associated with the task of mental construction of the
environment
C of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
D that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction

140) Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor
blades
13) How is haze effecting your perception? A can be neglected
B can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on

A Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
B Objects will give better contrast.

C should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve
D can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked

C Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity at for a longer period of time
D Objects seem to be closer than in reality.
7) Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or 2) You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft
false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen
ground, because this sensation mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
A will not stimulate the "seat-of-the-pants" sense A your judgement could be impaired
B corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a B the blood-pressure can get too high
climb or performing a level turn
C the blood-pressure can get too low
C corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying
straight and level or starting a descent
D you will get the bends
D makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level
flight
1) Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms
of decompression sickness occur?
6) Stress is a response which is prompted by the
occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be A Only medical treatment is of use
called physiological ?
B Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary
A Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
C Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as
B Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation possible
C Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death D Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the
symptoms to disappear before climbing again
D Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problems
143) In order to overcome an overload of work during the

flight, it is necessary to:
5) Safety is often improved by applying the principles of -1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in
CRM, e.g.: order to
ease the burden on the crew.
A abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely -2 : divide up tasks among the crew.
-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as
B the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's much
synergy information as possible consciously.
-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.
C expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as
this doubt can not be rejected on the base of evidence The correct statement(s) is (are):
D unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions A 3 and 4 are correct

4) Improvement of human reliability should entail:
A in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line D 1, 2 and 3 are correct
operators
B the elimination of latent errors before they can effect

performance 142) Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide
poisoning?
C the analysis of modes of human failures
A A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide
D an effort to understand the causes and find means of poisoning is euphoria.
recovery for errors committed
B The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide
poisoning.
3) Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time
of useful consciousness would be about: C Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
A 5 to 10 minutes D Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon

monoxide poisoning.
B 10 to 12 minutes
C 1 to 2 minutes
D 3 to 5 minutes
68) Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia? 161) Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot
1. Descend below 10 000 FT. because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this
2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. type of stress are:
3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. 1. nervousness and chanellized attention
4. Reduce physical activities. 2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
A 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 4. airsickness, lack of sleep
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct B 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D only 1 is correct C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
D 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct,

10) What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ?
160) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia

A The high level of independence granted to each member by concerning flight safety is:
the captain quickly leads to tension between the various
crew members A reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot
to spin
B A passive approach by the captain allows decisions,
choices and actions by other crew members B cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
C Each member carries out actions and makes choices

without explicity informing the other members about them C hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
D The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions D impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the
associated with the situation symptoms
152) How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By 159) Visual disturbances can be caused by:
1. hyperventilation
2. hypoxia
A maintaining a good instrument cross check. 3. hypertension
4. fatigue
B believing your body senses only.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
D looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude
indicator. C 2, 3 and 4 are correct

163) Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
A blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand 158) Which combination of elements guarantee the
understanding of a message without adding new
information to it?
B increasing the rate of descent
A Synchronization.
C using an oxygen mask
B Encoding.
D leveling off and possibly climbing
C Feedback.
162) If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that D Coding.

man :
A has more effective means of action (output) and is above all

capable of considerable synergy
B has less effective means of action (output) than the

computer
C has less effective means of data collection than the computer
D is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of

data collection or means of action are referred to
157) The fovea 166) What distinguishes status from role ?
A is an area in which rods predominate A While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be
performed by individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a
B is the area responsible for night vision hierarchical position and its recognition by the group
C is an area in which cones predominate

B While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position
and its recognition by the group, status defines - via
behaviour- the functions that must be performed by
D is sensitive to very low intensities of light individuals
C Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the

156) Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
D Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the

A are generally forbidden for pilots situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
B are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects

151) What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic
C are advantageous for pilots vision)?
D can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to A Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
their dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by
the cockpit glass B Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-
blindness
155) The physiological effects of accelerations to the human

C Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces D Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces. 150) A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than
normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually
A 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false is. To compensate he may fly a
B 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false A higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
C 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false B flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct C compensatory glide path and land long
D compensatory glide path and stall out

115) The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful
Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:
149) What means can be used to combat human error?
A between 30 and 60 seconds -1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into
B approximately 3 minutes account in training.
-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.
C approximately 5 minutes -4 : Improving recovery from errors and its
consequences.
D less than 20 seconds
A 1 and 2
153) Working memory enables us, for example,
B 2, 3 and 4
A to remember our own name
C 1, 2 and 4
B to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
D 3 and 4
C to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5
seconds
D to ignore messages for other aircraft
148) What happens in problem-solving when the application 66) The individual's perception of stress depends on:
of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ?
A A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the A the conditions of the current situation only
results
B the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to
B A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to cope with it
continue monitoring of the problem
C the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to
C A second monitoring rule must be applied cope with it
D Actions return to an automatic mode D the pilot's increasing level of arousal
147) Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by: 154) Stress is above all :
1. SCUBA-Diving
2. Obesity A a response by man to his problems, which automatically
3. Age leads to a reduction in his performance
4. Body height
B a phenomenon which is specific to modern man
C the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for
B 1, 3 and 4 are correct responding to the various situation which he may have to
face
C only 4 is correct
D a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
176) Vertigo is the result of

146) Studies of human error rates during the performance of
simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can
normally be expected to occur about
A "Oculogyral illusion"
A 1 in 50 times B "Autokinetic-illusion"
B 1 in 100 times C "Elevator illusion"
C 1 in 250 times D "Coriolis-effect"
D 1 in 10 times
187) In the absence of external reference points, the
sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving
when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is
145) The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
moving is called :
A shortage of CO2 in the blood A somato-gravic illusion
B surplus of CO2 in the blood B illusion of relative movement
C surplus of O2 in the blood C autokinetic illusion
D shortage of CO in the blood D cognitive illusion
144) With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . 186) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an
This is due to anticipated period of time pressure ?
A conflicting information between the semicircular canals and A A strategy of preparing decisions
the tympanic membrane
B A non-sequential strategy
B oxygen deficiency
C A Laissez-faire strategy
C the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
D A strategy of no commitment
D tuned resonance caused by vibration
185) The descriptive aspect of errors according to 181) Check the following statements:
Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable 1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be
types of erroneous actions which are : aware of
1. Repetition and omission personal performance degradation
2. The forward leap and the backward leap 2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes
3. Intrusion and anticipation after
4. Intrusion awaking from a short sleep (nap)
A 1,2,4 A 1 and 2 are both correct
B 1,3 B 1 is correct 2 is false
C 2,4 C 1 is false, 2 is correct
D 1,2,3 D 1 and 2 are both false
184) Which of the following statements concerning conflicts 180) Out of the list of possible measures to counteract
is correct ? hyperventilation, the most effective measure against
hyperventilation tetany is:
A Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must
necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effective A speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly
B Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a B breathe into a plastic or paper bag
general detachment of involved parties
C The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into C hold breath
question the general abilities of one of the involved parties
D avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres
D Conflict management involves the participation of all
involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution
179) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of
pressure take place, when altitude is changed?
183) One of the substances present in the smoke of
cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the A Eustachian tube
red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance B Cochlea
are we referring to?
A Carbonic anhydride
C Tympanic membrane
B Tar
D External auditory canal
C Carbon dioxide
164) According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:
D Carbon monoxide
A cognitive resources which are centered on action
182) The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, B processing capabilities which function at peak level when
when different tasks call for the same resources
A the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli C different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one
of flying is in the information-gathering, information-processing or
action phase
B the student has good outside visual reference
D unlimited information-processing resources
C the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
D the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies 177) Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may
prior flight
A intensify the effects of the drugs
B compensate for side effects of drugs
C show undesired effects only during night flights
D increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood
165) In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human 171) The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
beings, which of the following responses is correct?
A Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical A constant speed only

condition.
B linear acceleration and gravity
B Self imposed obligations will not create stress.
C angular acceleration
C ´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to
demands placed upon him/her. D angular speed
D All forms of stress should be avoided.
170) Between which components is an interface mismatch

causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus
175) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking leading to reduced human peformance?
about a problem he will probably
A Liveware - Hardware
A find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to
try a different interpretation of the data B Liveware - Software
B find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
C Liveware - Liveware
C find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
D Liveware - Environment
D find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever
happens
169) A selective attentional mechanism is required
174) Angular accelerations are perceived by: A because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
A the receptors in the skin and the joints B because of the limitations of the sense organs
B the semi circular canals C because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
C the cochlea D because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker
and working memory
D the otholits
168) Please check the following statements:

1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional
173) What are the main limits of short-term memory ? stressors
It is :
can be manifested in organic stress reactions.
-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is
-2 : difficult to access
always
-3 : limited in size
followed by psychological stress.
-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
A A 1 is false, 2 is correct
2,4
B 1,3 ,4
B 1 and 2 are both false
C 1,2 ,3
C 1 is correct, 2 is false
D D 1 and 2 are both correct

2 ,3
167) The following applies for the physical properties of

172) The time for dark adaptation is gases:
A 10 min A at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as

large as it would be at sea-level
B 30 min
B a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its
volume as it would have at sea-level
C 10 sec
C at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of
D 1/10 sec 65°C
D at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at

27000 ft
114) Which of the following sentences concerning crew- 88) An increase in workload usually leads to:
performance is correct?
A Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the A a longer and less frequent exchange of information
individual
B a shorter and more frequent exchange of information
B The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-
competence of individual team members C a longer and more frequent exchange of information
C The quality of crew-performance depends on the social- D a shorter and less frequent exchange of information
competence of individual team members
D To be a member of a team can not increase one's own

motivation to succeed in coping with task demands 87) The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the
sum of the partial pressures of the gases which
compose the mixture corresponds to:
178) Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during
flight are important physiological factors limiting the A Dalton´s law
pilots performance if not taken into consideration.
Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body B Graham´s law
A will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs C Henry`s law
B are of no interest when performing aerobatics D Boyle Mariotte´s law
C change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the

body
86) The mechanism of accomodation is caused by:
D will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the
accelerative force acts across the body at right angles to the A the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lens
body axis
B the elasticity of the optic nerves
78) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and

hyperventilation is:
C the functioning of the muscles of the eye
A symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately

D the diameter of the pupil
vanish when 100% oxygen is given
B cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in 85) The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations
hypoxia between the frequencies
C there are great differences between the two A 30 - 15000 dB
D altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes B 16 - 20,000 Hz

above 10 000 ft
C 0 - 16 Hz
89) Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on: D 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases
2. permeable membranes
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood 84) The workload may be said to:
-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the
A only 1 is correct crew
resources.
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct -2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew
resources.
-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
-4 : correspond to the amount of resources available
D 2 and 3 are false The combination of correct statements is:
83) An individually given feedback improves 79) Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by
communication. Which of the following rules should a
feedback comply with?
A dizziness
A The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation.
B noises in the ear
B The feedback should always relate to a specific situation.
C pain in the joints
C The feedback should only be given if requested by the
captain. D a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing
pressure
D The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his
behaviour.
92) The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:
82) Murphy's law states :

A 90 to 100 beats/min
A Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one B 110 to 150 beats/min
person to another
B Expectation has an influence on perception

C 60 to 80 beats/min
D 30 to 50 beats/min
C Performance is dependent on motivation
D If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be

operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will be 77) The procedure to be followed in the event of
decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must :
81) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at

A make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the
sudden pressure changes
30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure of
oxygen :
B allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the
pilot becoming hypoxic
A remains constant, independent from altitude
C allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply
B increases by expansion of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia
C decreases significantly with lower temperatures D make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the
inhalation of 100 % oxygen
D decreases with decreasing barometric pressure
76) In the following list you will find several symptoms

listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
116) According to the different phases of the "General Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide
Adaptation Syndrom" check the following statements: poisoning.
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e.
adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into
the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure
A Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.
as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic B High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of
system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol) accuracy.
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing
sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for C Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
sustained operation.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given D Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.
time to eliminate the waste products which have been
generated excessively during the two preceeding
phases,
A 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
B only 1 is correct
75) You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a 71) What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:
certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at -1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght
destination tends to be much worse than expected, so of time.
you consider to divert. The businessman offers you -2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl
money if you manage to land there at any case. conditions.
What is your appropriate way of action? You will -3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator
whose mental
A divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out
aboard formal errors.
-4 : lull the pilots into security.
B see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any
decision The correct statement(s) is (are):
C decide to divert if you think it is necessary. A 1 and 3
D continue and think about the nice things you can buy from B 2, 3 and 4
the money
C 1,2 and 4
74) Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in D 1 and 2

aviation shows that :
A only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation

70) The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during
decompression can be explained by the principle that:
B failure of the human factor is always connected with
technical breakdowns
A a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of
this gas at constant temperature (Boyle's law)
C there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
B the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum
D only front-line operators are involved of the partial pressures of the separate gases (Dalton's Law)
C the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher

73) If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will concentration or partial pressure to an area of lower
remain in the state of: concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion)
A hypoxia
D the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the
pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)
B eustress
69) Which of the following characteristics apply to short-

C distress
term memory ?
- 1 : It is limited in time and size
D adaptation - 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size
- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances
- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
72) When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for
several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion A 2,3
that:
B 1
A the size of the lightis varying
C 1,3
B the intensity of the light is varying
D 3,4
C the colour of the light is varying
D the light is moving
80) Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated 112) How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during
cooperation? a real or simulated instrument flight?
-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
captain and the check.
pilot. 2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your
-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single sense of feeling.
action by 3. Ignore arising illusions.
the various members of the crew. 4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to
-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of "shake-off"
synchronizing illusions.
actions and distributing responsibilities.
-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on A 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
temporal and
cognitive synchronisation. B Only 4 is correct
A 1,2 and 4
B 2 and 3
C 1 and 4 111) Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given

by
D 1 and 3
A subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle
activity sensors
102) During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your B blood rushing into legs
acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can
increase your acuity by: C acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
A breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask. D pressure of the heart on the diaphragm
B closing one eye
110) Short term memory can already be affected when flying

C scanning sectors of the field of vision
as low as:
D dim the instrument lights
A 12000 FT
B 15000 FT
113) General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the
following phases : C 20000 FT
-1 : alarm
-2 : alert phase
-3 : resistance phase
D 8000 FT
-4 : exhaustion phase
-5 : vigilance phase
109) The relationship between arousal and flying
A 2,3,4,5 performance is
B 1,3,4 A approximately linear increasing
C 2,3,4 B approximately exponential
D 1,2,4,5 C approximately sinusoidal
D approximately the form of an inverted U
108) Which is the audible range to human hearing?
A Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz
B Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
C Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz
D Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
107) Which part of the ear could be affected due to air 91) Approaches at night without visual references on the
pressure changes during climb and/or descent? ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the
pilot believe of beeing
A The sacculus and utriculus
A lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
B The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
B lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
C The semicircular canals
C higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short
D The cochlea ("ducking under")
D higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
106) Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the

flyer, because there are long-term and short-term
harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can 101) What type of acceleration has the most significant
get: physiological effect upon the pilot?
A a suppressed desire to eat and drink A Linear acceleration (+ Gx)
B a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s B Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)
tolerance to hypoxia
C Combined linear and transverse acceleration
C a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's
tolerance to hypoxia D Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
D a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s

tolerance to hypoxia
100) Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
105) During final approach under bad weather conditions you A sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of
are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling commitments concerning flight situations
sensations in your hands.
When hyperventilating you should B the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of
specific actions
A descend
C working parallel to achieve one common objective
B apply the Valsalva method
D working parallel to achieve individual objectives
C use the oxygen mask
D control your rate and depth of breathing 99) Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
A the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitude

90) With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal
or overstress:
B the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altitude
A more oxygen will reach the brain
C hyperventilation with increasing altitude
B peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved
D the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with
increasing altitude
C an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing
muscular spasms and even unconsciousness
D finger nails and lips will turn blue ("cyanosis") 98) What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when
flying in the clouds?
A Switch strobe-lights off

103) What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when
faced with explosive decompression?
B Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
A Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency
C Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
B Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain
level flight D Fly straight and level and avoid head movements
C Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
D First inform ATC
97) The semicircular canals monitor 93) Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in
the pilot's work to maintain safety.
A gravity A A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for

insufficient knowledge in complete safety
B angular accelerations
B A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance
C relative speed
C However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly
D horizontal and vertical accelerations affects performance
D Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
96) Stress appears:

-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.
-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable 377) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing
phenomenon. and can produce the following symptoms:
-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a
situation or its A blue finger-nails and lips
outcome.
-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced B dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea
stressful and blurred vision
situation
C reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
D a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
A 3,4
B 1,2
104) Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
C 2, 3
A making decisions independently of others
D 1,2,4
B they are not constrained by time
95) Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is C making a flight over unfamiliar territory
achieved through
D they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are
A good visibility only beeing observed and admired (e.g. air shows)
B visual memory only

622) Glaucoma is characterised by:
C the "blind spot" at the retina 1. disturbed light adaptation
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field
D seeing with two eyes (binocular vision) 3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure
A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

94) 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia.
2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to B 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
error.
A 1 is not correct, 2 is correct

C 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

B 1 and 2 are both not correct
C 1 and 2 are both correct

633) According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the
D 1 is correct, 2 is not correct following type(s) in skill-based control mode:
A creative errors
B routine errors
C knowledge errors
D handling errors
632) Orientation in flight is accomplished by 628) If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the
1. eyes allocation of cognitive resources :
2. utriculus and sacculus
3. semicircular canals A the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to
4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense rules-based mode for the two tasks
A only 1 and 4 are correct B the sharing of resources causes performance on each task
to be reduced
B 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false
C a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and
performance will then tail off
C 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct
D the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct knowledge-based mode for the two tasks
631) Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance 627) Which of the following statements are correct ?
is primarily due to -1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in
the cabin
A binocular vision air under any conditions of flight, which is
satisfactory for the
B interactions between cones and rods body
-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such
C peripheral vision
as
dizziness and fatigue
D the high sensitivity of the retina -4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be
avoided since
resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise
be lost
630) Symptoms of decompression sickness
A 1,2,4
A disappear on landing and never appear again
B 1,4
B sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on
the ground C 2,3
C always begin immediately after the decompression during D 2,3,4

the flight
D normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a

hypobaric atmosphere 626) Which elements of communication are prone to
malfunctioning?
629) What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during A Coding and decoding
explosive decompression ?
B The sender
A Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment
of judgement, memory disorders C The receiver
B Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations D The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding
C Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature

impairment of judgement
625) Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from
D Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood
rate, memory disorders
A to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
B not to change at all
C to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to

be attached to the hemoglobin at lung area
D to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the

hemoglobin
612) What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the 620) Blood-pressure depends on:
stress reactions? 1. the cardiac output
-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline 2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)
secretion.
-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of A 1 and 2 are correct
glucose.
-3 : a decrease in stress resistance. B 1 is correct 2 is false
-4 : activation of the digestive system.
-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.
C 1 is false 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both false
A 1,2
B 2,4,5 619) Anxiety and fear can cause
C 1,3,5
A hyperventilation
D 1,2,3
B hypoxia
C spatial disorientation
623) Which of the following operations are performed more
effectively by automatic systems than by people ? D hypoglycemia
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of
trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not 618) Stress may be defined as:
exceeded (e.g holding of flight path)
4. Qualitative decision-making
A a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt
A 1,2,3 to encountered situations
B 2,4
B a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in
capabilities
C 3,4 C a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile

personalities
D 2,3,4
D a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate
636) Which of the following is most true?

617) Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under
which of the following circumstances does it occur?
A Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most 1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan
efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric of action
consumption and does not immediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the
B Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it situational
increases the metabolic rate demands exceed their individual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be
C Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the able to
only effective way to lose weight find a solution for the problem he just is confronted
with
D Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are
both essential in order to lose weight A 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B Only 1 is false
621) Hyperventilation is:
A a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
D 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
B a decreased lung ventilation
C a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.
D an increased lung ventilation
616) Carbon monoxide poisoning 624) Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments
when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy
winterday? Because
A is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is
technically supplied by coating the exhaust A the danger of a "greying out" will make it impossible to
determine the height above the terrain
B is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines
because of high engine efficiency B pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong
information
C only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
C perception of distance and speed is difficult in an
D occurs only above 15 degrees OAT environment of low contrast
D his attention will be distracted automatically under these

conditions
615) Flying a coordinated level turn will
A make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure 646) What is decompression sickness ?
along the body`s vertical axis
B make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased A A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the
pressure along the body`s vertical axis pressurisation curve of modern aircraft
C first give the impression of climb , then the impression of B A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
descent
C The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no
D make the blood being pooled in the head consequences for people's capabilities
D An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen

bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure
614) In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently
loss at high altitude
correct explanation for the problem. The chance that
he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
565) The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin
A not applicable with old and experienced pilots following a decompression are called:
B decreasing A bends
C increasing B chokes
D the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her C leans

mind
D creeps
658) Which of the following statements concerning tiredness

is correct ? 656) Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be
affected by:
A Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in 1. anaemia
hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual 2. smoking in the cockpit
capabilities 3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
B Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
A 1,3 and 4 are correct
C Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of
performance B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a

C 1,2 and 3 are correct
reduction in attention capabilities
655) Which of the following statements fits best the concept 651) What are typical consequences of conflicts between
of latent error? crew members?
Latent errors: -1 The quality of work performance decreases as a
result of the
A are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line impoverishment of communications
operators and are only detected after advanced problem- -2 A decrease in the quality of communications
solving -3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts
only result in
B rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences a deterioration in relations between the individuals
on the action in progress -4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the
flight
C have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time deck
and are difficult to understand as a result of the time lag
between the generation and the occurence of the error The correct statement(s) is (are):
D are rarely made by front-line operators, and are A 1, 2 and 4 are correct
consequently readily identified and detected by the
monitoring, detection and warning links B 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C 1,3 and 4 are correct

654) When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we
are talking about D 1,2 and 3 are correct
A myopia
B hypermetropia 650) Which of the following statements are correct:

-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction
-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible
C presbyopia
with flight
safety
D astigmatism -3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when
flying
-4: Diet has no repercussion on health
653) Professional languages have certain characteristics, for
example: A 2 and 3 are correct
-1 : They use a limited vocabulary .
-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which B 1, 2 and 3 are correct
sometimes
lead to ambiguities. C 2, 3 and 4 are correct
-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.
-4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk D 1, 3 and 4 are correct
of
ambiguities.
The correct statement(s) is (are): 649) A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired
(dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to
A only 4 is correct prevent vertigo?
B 1 and 4 are correct A Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the
inner ear, because those are the only ones giving correct
information
B Depend on the instruments
C Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then
breathe normal again
652) Vibrations can cause blurred vision.
This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the: D Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
A optic nerve
B cristalline lens
C photosensitive cells
D eyeballs
634) Which of the following drawbacks are associated with 644) Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
automation ?
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the
aircraft A are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming result of the actions associated with them
automatic
systems B are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
4. General decrease in technical reliability C Are the product of personal disposition and past experience
with reference to an object or a situation
A 2,3,4
D form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be
B 1,3 changed in an adult
C 1,2
643) TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:
D 1,4
A the time between the start of hypoxia and death
647) What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ? B the length of time during which an individual can act with
both mental and physical efficiency and alertness;
measured from the moment at which he is exposed to
A The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia hypoxia
B The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the C the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden
moment that the pilot becomes aware of it pressure loss
C The length of time during which an individualcan act with D the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness
both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, sets in
measured from the moment at which he loses his available
oxygen supply
642) Informal roles within a crew
D The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual
decompression
A characterize inefficient crews
635) Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous B evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among
during flying. crew members
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
C are explicitely set out by the crew
A With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon
monoxide poisoning will be compensated. D do not impair the captain's influence
B Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.

641) An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as
C Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled. exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as
threatening. In both cases:
D Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the
blood. A both pilots will loose their motor-coordination
B both pilots will experience the same amount of stress

645) Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head
movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of
C the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than
the pilot looking forward to what may happen
A "Pilot`s vertigo"
D the arousal level of both pilots will be raised
B "Nystagmus"
C "Flicker-vertigo"
640) Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are
caused by :
D "Oculogravic illusion"
A disorientation
B accelerations
C increased atmospherical pressure
D decreased atmospherical pressure
639) A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and 575) Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:
without using supplemental oxygen will pass the
"critical threshold" at approximately:
A carbon dioxide
A 38 000 ft
B carbon monoxide
B 22 000 ft
C nitrogen
C 16 000 ft
D oxygen
D 18 000 ft
586) 1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep

638) Between which components is an interface mismatch cycle
responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of during the night.
warning systems? 2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of
mental and
A Liveware - Hardware physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.
B Liveware - Environment
A 1 is not correct 2 is correct

C Liveware - Liveware
D Liveware - Software
C 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 1 and 2 are false
637) A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When

approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot
may feel he is at a 585) Which of the following systems are involved in the
appearance of motion sickness ?
-1 : Hearing
A greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land
-2 : The vestibular system
short
-3 : Vision
B lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot -4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense")
-5 : The gastrointestinal system
C greater height and the impression of landing short

A 1,2,5
D lower height and the impression of landing slow

B 2,3,4
C 1,2,3
611) Which of the following applies when alcohol has been
consumed? D 2,3,4,5
A Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
B Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% 584) Someone who has anaemia has:
oxygen is taken
A not enough functional hemoglobin
C Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol,
normal cautionary attitudes may be lost
B not enough platelets
D Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination
rate of alcohol C not enough plasma
D not enough white blood cells

648) The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three
decades seems to be related to :
583) Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse
A the manufacturer from the blood to the alveoli:
B the number of engines A nitrogen
C the year of manufacture B oxygen
D the crew C carbon dioxide
D carbon monoxide
582) Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC 578) How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not
communicate'?
A will improve the pilots depth perception A You cannot influence your own communication.
B will effect the pilots binocular vision B The statement above is a missprint.
C can cause disorientation

C Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour
patterns which express a meaning.
D can cause colour-illusions
D Each situation requires communication.
581) Which of the following statements best characterise a

self-centered cockpit ? 613) The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
A The communication between crew members always

increases when the captain takes charge of a situation A nose, pharynx and inner ear
B While decreasing communication, the independence of B nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
each member bolsters the crew's synergy
C sinuses and the pharynx
C Without taking note of what the other members are doing,
each one does his own thing while at the same time
assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or
D nasopharynx and the middle ear
what is going on
D The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a 576) On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will
synergetic cockpit
A expand
580) 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe
which of the following statements? B stay the same
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an
environment in C shrink
which it is frequently exercised, even if it is
inappropriate to do D be absorbed by tissues and blood
so
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to
be
executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is 589) Autokinesis is
inappropriate to do
so
3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways
A the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects
situated at different distances
in different
social situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills
B the apparent movement of a static single light when stared
at for a relatively long period of time in the dark
A 4 is correct
C the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
B 1 and 2 are correct D the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
D 2 and 3 are correct 574) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of
Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
A 5-15 seconds
579) Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is
generally most efficient, if all crew members concerned B 30-45 seconds
A adapt their management style to meet the situational

C 45-60 seconds
demands
B are always task oriented D 60-90 seconds
C are always relationship oriented
D always ask the captain what to do
573) Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling 569) The following course of action must be taken if
out of a coordinated level turn? gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain
arise before take-off :
A Flying straight and level -1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor
on
B Climbing returning from the flight
-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the
help of a
C Turning into the original direction
doctor
-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!
D Descending and turning into the opposite direction -4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you
are thirsty
so as to avoid dehydration
572) Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle
ear and the ambient, when: A 2,3
A the nose is pinched B 1,3
B you breath through the mouth C 1,4
C barotrauma exists in the sinuses D 1,2,4
D the eustachian tube is blocked

568) How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
571) What may be the origins of representation errors ? A Always try to catch outside visual cues.
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
B Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural
senses.
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information
A 3,4
C Rely on the kinaesthetic sense.
B 2,3
D Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.
C 1,3,4
567) Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:
D 1,2
A the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when
sitting, standing or lying down
570) Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-
over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your B a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
circadian rhythm on the 3. day?
C environmental stressors
A ZT (zonal time).
D the condition of the body itself
B UTC (universal time coordinated).
C LT (local time). 375) Which of the following statements summarises the

impact that motivation may have on attention ?
D MEZ (middle european time).
A It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
B Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it

facilitates alertness
C It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
D It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates

the quality of alertness and attention
577) What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the 608) Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk
perception mechanism ? of getting:
A The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on A hyperventilation

all relevant information
B hypoxia
B The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an
uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions
C stress
C Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a
particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected D decompression sickness without having a decompression
D They always lead to routine errors

607) To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following
can be done:
599) The intended recipient of a message must:
-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation. A look out for additional references inside and/or outside the
-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt. cockpit using peripheral vision also
-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication
attempt if B fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the
the pilot is too busy. other
-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before
starting a C look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
discussion.
D turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously

606) With regard to the practice of English, which of the
following statements is correct?
A The composition of every crew should be geared to a
C 2 and 3 are correct command of the official aeronautical language of the
destination country.
B All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world
needs one common language.
610) In terms of decision-making, the intention to become C Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this
integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader allows for effective management of any flight's
or to avoid conflicts may lead to : communication.
A an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own D It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of
ability to lead the official languages of the ICAO.
B the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities

605) Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for :
C the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone
can contribute what he/she knows
A red vision, both during the day and at night
D the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew
members B good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
C good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)

609) Which procedure is recommended to prevent or
overcome spatial disorientation? D precise vision of contours and colours
A Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the
semicircular canals.
604) What triggers stress in humans?
B Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.
A Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of

C Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and
light, noise, the smell of smoke
use off-center vision all the time.
D Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

B Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological
activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)
C The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation

experienced
D Objective stimulation from the environment regards of

subjective perceptions
603) Human errors are frequent and may take several forms : 598) The decision making in emergency situations requires
firstly:
A an error of intention is an error of routine A speed of reaction
B an violation is an error which is always involuntary B informing ATC thoroughly about the situation
C representational errors in which the pilot has properly

C the whole crew to focus on the problem
identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure
D an error can be described as the mismatch between the D distribution of tasks and crew coordination
pilots intention and the result of his/her actions
597) "Grey out" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to

602) Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is more than:
transported by
A + 3 Gz
A white blood cells
B - 3 Gz
B red blood cells
C + 3 Gx
C platelets
D + 3 Gy
D blood plasma
596) Which behaviour does most likely promote a

587) In a complex task high levels of arousal constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
A Active listening.
A reduce failures
B Responding with counter-arguments.
B narrow the span of attention
C Staying to the own point of view.
C improve performance
D Giving up the own point of view.
D lead to better decision-making
595) Which of the following statements is correct ?

600) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by
changes in gravity and linear acceleration?
A 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual
A The semicircular canals channel
B The cochlea B The kinesthetic channel provides the most important

information for flying
C The eustachian tube

C 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual
channel
D The sacculus and utriculus
D Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man
588) Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the

effects of adjustment to destination time : 594) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system
1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights in an operations manual are related to an interface
2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights mismatch between
3. vary little between individuals
4. may vary greatly between individuals A Liveware - Liveware
A 1,3 B Liveware - Software
B 1,4
C Liveware - Hardware
C 2,3 D Liveware - Environment
D 2,4
593) The needs of an individual lead to : 659) What should a pilot do if he has no information about
the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the
terrain underneath the approach? He should
A prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high
self-actualization A make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance
B a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to
an adaptation of the behaviour B be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot
feel that he is lower than actual height
C preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing
satisfied C make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory
effects that can be induced
D no change in his motivation and conrequently to the
persistence of the individuals behaviour in regard to the D be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will
desired outcome make him believe that he is higher than actual
592) Gases of physiological importance to man are: 601) How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
A oxygen and carbon monoxide A By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection,

warning and monitoring systems
B oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor B By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is
low
C oxygen and carbon dioxide
C By constantly complying with cross-over verification
D nitrogen and carbon dioxide procedures (cross monitoring)
D By increasing error detection in all circumstances
591) The cognitive effects of stress may include :

-1 : excessive haste.
-2 : an improvement in memory. 716) What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.
-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.
-5 : ease of decision-making.
A 1to 2 hours
-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.
B 5 to 10 minutes
The combination which brings together all correct
statements is : C about 30 minutes
A 1,3,4,6 D 1 to 2 minutes
B 1,2,5
727) What is understood by air-sickness?
C 2,3,5,6
D 3,4,5 A An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear
B A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied

by nausea, vomiting and fear
590) The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled
by:
C An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood
A the cornea
D An illness caused by reduced air pressure
B the lens
C the pupil 726) What does not impair the function of the photosensitive
cells?
D the ciliary body
A Oxygen deficiency
B Acceleration
C Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)
D Fast speed
725) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for 720) Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be
the impression of angular acceleration? sufficient up to an altitude of:
A The eustachian tube A 60000 FT
B The semicircular canals B 80000 FT
C The cochlea C 38000 FT
D The sacculus and utriculus D 45000 FT
724) In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external 719) Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia
respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into is correct?
the lungs?
A It has little effect on the body, because the body can always
A Ambient air. compensate for it.
B Oxygen. B It is a potential threat to safety.
C Carbon monoxide. C It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.
D Carbon dioxide. D It activates the senses and makes them function better.
723) If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will 706) Concentration is essential for pilots.
get:
A All intellectual processes, including very routined ones,
A more alkaline make demands on resources and therefore on one's
concentration
B less satured with oxygen
B However, capacity of concentration is limited
C more satured with carbon dioxide
C It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of
D more acid concentration without limits
D Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
722) With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke

volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about:
717) Thinking on human reliability is changing.
A 6 liters/min
A It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the
B 7 liters/min near future
C 8 liters/min B Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the

cognitive function of human and are generally inescapable
D 5 liters/min
C Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant
and to extend one's knowledge
721) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed D The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the
gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) systemic view of safety
A are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

730) Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude?
B should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
C are forbidden A Domination
D can be performed without any danger B Macho
C Anti-authority
D Impulsivity
715) The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric 710) With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in
information (piercing vision): the attention mechanism, we know that :
A is limited to the foveal area of the retina A the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires
conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental
B is limited to daytime using the rod cells resources
B the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires

C is almost equally shared by the entire retina
attention and the more it frees resources
D is governed by peripheral vision over an area of C the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires
approximately 20 degrees of angle attention and the less it frees resources
D the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires

714) The pressoreceptors are located in attention and the more it frees resources
A the carotid and aortic arterial vessels

709) The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour,
B the intestines
A rather "person" than "goal" oriented
C the heart
B neither "person" nor "goal" oriented
D the lungs
C rather "goal" than "person" oriented
713) If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without

D "person" and "goal" oriented
physiological need
A the acid-base balance of the blood will not change 708) Which of the following statements in regard to
motivation is correct?
B the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly
A Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in
C the blood turns less more alkaline a decrease in attention
D the blood turns more acid

B Motivation will reduce the task automation process
C Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention

management capabilities
712) Dalton's law explains the occurance of :
D Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive
stress will limit attention management capabilities
A bends
B decompression sickness
657) Decision-making results in:
C creeps
A an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a
D altitude hypoxia given end
B a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
711) We know that transverse accelerations (Gy) C a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs
- 2 : are present during take-off and landing
- 3 : are rare during routine flights
D a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
A 3 718) Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
B 1,4
A altitude decreases
C 2,3
B air pressure increases
D 1,2,3
C relative humidity decreases
D altitude increases
740) Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ? 748) What is hypoxia ?
1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature A The respiratory symptom associated with altitude
4. Humidity decompression sickness
A 3,4 B A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen

which may be due to maladjustment of the mask
B 1,2 ,3
C Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is
below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the
C 1, 2 ,4 body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
D 2,3 ,4 D The total absence of oxygen in the air
751) Hypoxia can be caused by: 747) What are the various means which allow for better error
1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere detection?
when flying at -1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.
high altitudes without pressurisation and -2 : Development of systems for checking the
supplemental oxygen consistency of
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to situations.
carbon -3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures
monoxide attached to the hemoglobin by the
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ crew.
Gz) -4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen
(i.e. after The correct statement(s) is (are):
a hangover)
A 1and 3
A 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false
C 3 and 4
D 1, 2 and 3
D 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
746) Different non-technical related opinions between pilots

750) A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis) from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in
connection with:
-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.
A is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an -2 : communication problems.
emergency descent immediately following the -3 : conflicting ways of management.
decompression will eliminate the problem -4 : interpersonal problems.
B is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory The combination of correct statements is:
infection and during descent
C is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
D causes severe pain in the sinuses
C only 1 is correct
749) The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a D 2 and 3 are correct
rotation begins. This is because
A the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression
745) "The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness
consists of:
B the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal
walls
A pain in the joints
C the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds
B pain in the thorax and a backing cough
D the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags
behind the accelerated canal walls C CNS-disturbances
D loss of peripheral vision
744) Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately : 739) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m)
to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your
destination there is a risk of performing a:
A 5% oxygen
A high approach with overshoot
B 15% oxygen
B high approach with undershoot
C 10% oxygen
C low approach with overshoot
D 21% oxygen
D low approach with undershoot
743) The confirmation bias of decision making is

738) The physiology of stress is now well known:
A a tendency not to look for information which would reassure
oneself about a decision A stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism
and thereby slows down the heart rate
B a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before
implementing one's decision B stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than
promoting mental oerformance
C a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a
decision is poor; C the only stress hormone is adrenaline
D a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a
judgement D stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and
then acceleration of heart rate and increase in vision
728) We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina

allows for : 737) Symptoms of decompression sickness
A the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation A are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological
process symptoms and circulatory shock
B binocular vision B are only relevant when diving
C the analysis of visual signals C can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
D the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into D are flatulence and pain in the middle ear
physiological data
736) Once detected, an error will result in cognitive

741) The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many
consequences which:
factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of
alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
A are prompted by inductive factors
A 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
B have virtually no interaction with behaviour
B 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
C make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
C 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
D destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error
D 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
735) Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the

individual, can be caused by
729) Working memory :
A angular velocity
A is unlimited in size
B vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
B is unlimited in duration
C vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
C varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a
novice pilot D acceleration along the longitudonal body axis
D is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of

its content
734) The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to 742) In the event of rapid decompression the first action for
high positive radial accelerations is the flight deck crew is:
A red-vision A don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
B grey-out B descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
C loss of consciousness C transmit mayday call
D black-out D carry out check for structural damage
733) The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in 669) In order to completely resynchronise with local time
various concentration. Match the following: after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require
1 nitrogen A 0,03% A more time when flying from east to west

2 oxygen B 0,92%
3 carbon dioxide C 20.95% B about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
4 rare gas D 78,10%
A 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

C about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift
B 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

D less time when flying from east to west
C 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

680) What are the various factors which guide attention ?
D 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A 1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations
732) What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz)
accelerations? A 1,4
A An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body B 1,2

(above heart-level)
B Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory C 2,3,4

disorders
D 1,3,4
C A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and
hence less blood available
679) The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half
D An improvement of peripheral vision the atmospheric pressure at sea level.
In accordance with this statement,
731) During running your muscles are producing more CO2, A the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by
raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is: one half also
A hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will B the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled
increase)
C the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to
B cyanosis 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea level
C hypoxia D the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by
50 % too
D vertigo
678) The atmospheric gas pressure
705) Haemoglobin is:

A decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher
levels and equivalent altitude changes
A dissolved in the plasma
B drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same
B in the white blood cells altitude changes at higher altitudes
C in the red blood cells C rises with altitude
D in the platelets D decreases linear with altitude
677) Barodontalgia 673) The 'cocktail party effect' is
A arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression A the ability to drink too much at social gathering
B even arises with healthy teeth B the tendency to believe information that reinforces our
mental model of the world
C arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of
descent C the tendency not to perceive relevant information
D arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues D the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
close to the root of a tooth
672) 1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration

676) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without for creating
pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? a mental picture than boring information.
2.The sequence in which information is offered is also
A 22 000 ft important for
the use the pilot makes of it.
B Approximately 35 000 ft.
C Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
D Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
C 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
675) What are the communication qualities of a good D 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
briefing?
A good briefing must:
-1 : contain as much information and be as 707) Glaucoma
comprehensive as 1. can lead to total blindness
possible. 2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for 3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
another flight
of the same type. A 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
-3 : be short and precise.
-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).
B 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
C 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct 670) The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit
aircraft has:
A improved man-machine communication as a result of flight
sensations
674) Which scanning technique should be used when flying B facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data
at night? for communication on the flight deck
A Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object. C considerably improved all the communication facilities of the
crew
B Look directly at the object.
D reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in
C Blink your eyes. interpersonal relations
D Look with one eye.
683) A barotrauma of the middle ear is 665) In relation to hypoxia, which of the following
paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
A an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid A This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to
decompression meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and
muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor
B an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a judgement and slow reactions
difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum
B This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the
C a bacterial infection of the middle ear circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart
rate.
D a dilatation of the eustachian tube
C Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots
turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in
which the aircraft is turning
668) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is
21% which
D This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen
saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.
A is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
B decreases with increasing altitude

664) A high level of motivation is related
C increases with increasing altitude

A to high levels of arousal
D is dependent on the present air pressure
B to high levels of intelligence
667) Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. C to complacency

This saturation decreases with:
1. decreasing air pressure D to monotony states
2. carbon monoxide poisoning
3. increasing altitude
4. increasing air pressure
663) Which of the following illusions are brought about by
conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular
A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false system ?
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false -2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of
C 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false objects
-4 : Illusions of rotation
D 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
A 3,4
B 1,4
666) Which problem may occur, when flying in an
environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness,
haze)? C 2,3,4
Under these conditions it is:
D 2
A impossible to detect objects
B no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of 662) Attitudes are defined as:
approaching objects
C improbable to get visual illusions A tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either
positively or negatively
D difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of
approaching objects B the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
C the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
D a synonym for behaviour
661) The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches 703) Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot
is lacking of visual cues other than those of the
aerodrome there is an illusion of A are saturated with nitrogen
A climbing B are saturated with oxygen
B being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal C have a shortage of carbon dioxide
C being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing D have a shortage of oxygen
short
D being too close, landing long

702) Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns
1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and
lack of
660) Please check the following statements: concentration
1. A stressor causes activation 2. will make an individual more prone to make errors
2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it
A 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
B 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C 1 and 2 are both not correct
D 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
D 1 and 2 are both correct
701) Why must flight safety considerations consider the

671) The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding human error mechanism?
sabotage and acts of terrorism) : -1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will
make it
A represents about fifty accidents around the world every year possible to identify what error has been committed
and by
B is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is
made
responsible which may lead to elimination of the
C has improved considerably over the last fifteen years error.
-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive
D is a long way short of the safety level of road transport error
mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures,
aircraft
interfaces, etc.
693) The severity of hypoxia depends on the:
-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us
1. rate of decompression
to
2. physical fitness
continuously adjust our actions. The better we
3. flight level
understand the
4. individual tolerance
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be
our means
for detecting and adapting future errors.
-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been
B 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false identified by
the use of procedures, a person will be able to
C 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false anticipate and
deal with it automatically in the future.
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
A 3 and 4
704) Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient
decision making on the cockpit?
B 2 and 4
A Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of
action. C 1 and 4
B Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view. D 2 and 3
C Communicational skills and social competence.
D Ability to search for and examine all available information

regarding a situation.
700) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled 696) Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the
by: human body?
A the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood A An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of
alcohol.
B the amount of nitrogen in the blood
B When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol
at a faster rate than normal.
C the total atmospheric pressure
C Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a
D the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood small amount of alcohol.
D A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.

699) In order to provide optimum human performance it is
advisable to
681) The chemical substance responsible for addiction to
A plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in tobacco is
advance
A the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
B establish strategies for planning, automating and managing
resources (in real time)
B nicotine
C plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions
C carbon monoxide
D avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks
D tar
698) What would be the priority aim in the design of man-

machine interfaces and in the creation of their 694) The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
application procedures for combatting problems
associated with human error ?
A are virtually unlimited
A To put in place redundant alarm systems
B allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of
effectiveness
B To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of
errors entailing serious consequences
C are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional
tasks at the same time
C To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuring
D are limited but make it possible to easily perform several
D To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in tasks at the same time
order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic
parameters
682) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m),
to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On
697) What are the main characteristics of active errors ? reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
They :
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line A high approach with overshoot
operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in B high approach with undershoot
progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing C low approach with overshoot
may be
affected significantly D low approach with undershoot
A 3,4
B 1,4
C 2,3
D 1,2
692) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? 688) The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce
- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the
on its bronchi of the lungs is
central zone
- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has A lead
rods
- 3: The rods allow for night-vision B tar
- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the
retina
C nicotine
A 2,3
D carbon monoxide
B 4
C 1,3 687) 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having

coped with
D 1 a stressful situation.
2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her
abilities to
cope with it will determine the type and strength of
691) Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to stress.
A 1 and 2 are both false

A sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below
18000 FT
B emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss
C 1 is correct, 2 is false
C fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure
area when flying an unpressurized aeroplane D 1 is false, 2 is correct
D cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above

18000 FT)
686) A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
690) To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft A depending on instruments

system should at least be able to
B increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate
A correct the deviation harmful carbon dioxide
B tolerate the deviation C the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
C report its malfunction D controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a
bag or speaking with a loud voice
D report the deviation
685) Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving

equipment (> 10 m depth)
689) Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you
experience pain in the joints. Which of following A has no influence on altitude flights
answers is correct?
A This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will

B is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia
disappear when you take some exercise.
C can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at
B This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy. pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT
D prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism

C This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
(decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not
exceeding 30 000 FT
D You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this
is a symptom of decompression sickness.
684) Which of the following are the most favourable solutions 444) Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to
to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance conflicts ?
(hypovigilance)? 1. Seeking arbitration
1. Healthy living 2. Actively listening to other people
2. Use of amphetamines 3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a
3. Reducing the intensity of the light more emotional level
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight 4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
A 1,4 A 2,3,4
B 1,2 B 2,4
C 1,3 C 1,2,4
D 3,4 D 1,2,3
564) Human behaviour is determined by: 443) "Pilot's vertigo":
A cultural influences A a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to

multiple irritation of the utriculus and sacculus at the same
B biological characteristics, social environment and cultural time
influences
B the impression of climbing when banking
C biological characteristics
C is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple
D the social environment irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time
D the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft

is spinning
695) The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of
about:
442) The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal
A 1.5 hours breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
B 12 hours A 500 ml of air
C 48 hours B 350 ml of air
D 24 hours C 150 ml of air
D 75 ml of air
434) A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may
get:
441) Which of the following statements is correct?
A the feeling of rotation The blood-pressure which is measured during flight
medical checks is the pressure
B the illusion to turn
A in the veins of the upper arm
C the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or
left B in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at
heart level)
D the illusion of climbing or descending
C in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the
pressure in the whole body)
445) Presbyopia is:
D in the mussles of the upper arm
A far sightedness linked with age
B short sightedness
C myopia
D high intraocular pressure
440) Henry's Law explains the occurence of: 435) Decompression sickness may occur as from :
- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft
- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft
A hyperventilation - 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding
18,000 ft
B hypoxia - 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
C decompression sickness A 1,3,4
D diffusion B 2,4
C 1,3
439) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely
to occur D 2,3
A with colds and slow ascents

448) Autokinetic illusion is:
B after a decompression
C with colds and rapid descents

A poor interpretation of the surrounding world
D with colds and fast climbs

B an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for
several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of
reference - appear to move
438) An overstressed pilot may show the following C the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed
symptoms: reference point moving into the opposite direction of the
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention acceleration
2. resignation, frustration, rage
3. deterioration in motor coordination D a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct 433) Which of the following statements best characterise a
synergetic cockpit?
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by
the crew
C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 2. There is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and
D 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false geared purely to the flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to
leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and
laissez-faire
437) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
A 1,4
A gravity
B 1,3,4
B angular accelerations
C 2,3
C movements with constant speeds
D 2,4
D relative speed and linear accelerations
432) When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?

When:
424) In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms
A latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety
A may affect people with defect tympanic membrane
B the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise
B may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin safety
pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude
C its safety system is too permeable to error
C may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15
000 FT D its safety system has taken account of all statistically
probable errors
D appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving
activities
431) Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a 427) Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to
way that:
A one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by A workload, because using checklists will increase the pilot´s
new decisions workload prior take-off
B professional pilots will never question established B frustration

procedures
C safety, because the concentration on the check list items
C one always selects a choice in accordance with the will draw the pilot´s attention to flight related tasks, reducing
company's usual practices distraction from personal stress
D a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and D stress, because time pressure prior take-off is always
foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best present
possible result
426) Exchange of gasses between the body and the

430) What are the effects of distress (overstress) ? environment takes place at the:
A lungs
A It activates resources stored in memory
B heart
B It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
C muscles
C It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself,
but may focus attention
D central nervous system
D It reduces vigilance and focusses attention
470) The relationship which exists between crew error and

flight safety :
429) Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and
hyperventilation?
A is dependent on the social and technical system and also on
the operational context created by the system
A Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).
B is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the
B Severe headache. main factor
C Euphoria. C is independent of the operational context, with the latter

being identical for any flight operation
D Tingling sensations in arms or legs.
D has been evolving for 40 years and has now become
independent of the social and technical system
428) The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized

by:
436) The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be
converted into A 5 minutes
sugar.
-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.
-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when
B 10 minutes
lasting over
a prolonged time. C 10 seconds
D 25 - 30 minutes
B 2 , 3 and 4 are correct 458) Which of the following responses lists most of the
common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for
C 3 and 4 are correct pilots to develop?
D 1 and 4 are correct A Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation,

machismo complex
B Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making

decisions, lack of situational awareness
C Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcism
D Resignation, confidence, inattention
566) If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying 464) What is meant by metabolism ?
you should:
A dim the cockpit lighting A Transfer of chemical messages
B scan the surroundings B Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood
C use your oxygen mask C The transformation by which energy is made available for
the uses of the organism
D continue on instruments D Information exchange
468) The eustachian tube serves for the pressure 463) Which of the following could a pilot experience when he
equalization between is hyperventilating?
1. Dizziness
A frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses 2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
B middle ear and external atmosphere 4. Cyanosis
C sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere A 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere B 1 is false, all others are correct
C 2 and 4 are false

467) A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the
traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that D 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
A it is guaranteed that the crew maqintains always situational

awareness 462) The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are
important for motor coordination.
B Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights They
without compromizing safety
A are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
C the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an
abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems
B indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces
D the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with
the consequence of 'being out of the loop' C allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight
condition
466) Conscious perception

D are important senses for flight training in IMC
A relies upon the development of intuition

461) Decision-making is a concept which represents :
B involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the

brain only A an automatic process of selection from among the various
solutions to a given problem
C relates to the correct recognition of colours
B a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a
D is a mental process involving experience and expectations given situation when faced with a defined problem
C a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among

possible solutions, for a given problem
465) The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according
to : D an automated or automation-like act of applying defined
1 : physical activity of the subjected crew procedures
2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in
question
3 : the strength and time of decompression
446) The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
4 : the cabin temperature
A 4 A hyperventilation
B 1,3 B sensation of heat and blurred vision
C 1,2 C breathlessness and reduced night vision
D 3,4 D euphoria and impairment of judgement
459) Long-term memory is an essential component of the 454) The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a
pilot's knowledge and expertise. clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of
the following ?
A The recovery of information from long-term memory is
immediate and easy A The cones
B It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term B The retina

memory to have it available when required
C The capacity of long-term memory is limited C The crystalline lens
D Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis

D The rods
453) Getting uneasy will effect:

447) The choice of the moment you select flaps depending
1. attention
on situation and conditions of the landing is:
2. concentration
3. memory
A skill based behaviour
4. prudence
B knowledge based behaviour A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C pressure based behaviour B 1 and 2 are correct
D rule based behaviour C 1 and 3 are correct

457) Which of the following statements is correct regarding
decision making?
452) The effect of experience and habit on performance
A Deciding means imposing one's point of view.
B Deciding means applying an automatic procedure. A is always negative
C Deciding means choosing between alternatives. B is never negative
D Deciding means being able to come up with original C is always beneficial

solutions.
D can both be beneficial and negative
456) The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense")

451) The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for :
A is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct
attitude A protein
B can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
B red blood cells
C can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC
C gases
D give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
D platelets
455) What could cause hyperventilation ?

450) Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are
due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
A Abuse of alcohol - 1: Decrease in heart rate
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
B Extreme low rate of breathing - 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or
mobile organs
C Fatigue
A 1
D Fear, anxiety and distress
B 1,3,4
C 2,3,4
D 1,2,3
449) The vestibular organ 397) Which of the following human error rates can be
described as both realistic and pretty good, after
methodical training
A reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
A 1 in 100 times
B gives the impression of hearing
B 1 in 1000 times
C reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
C 1 in 10000 times
D reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
D 1 in 100000 times
423) The human information processing system is highly

efficient compared to computers because of its 396) The peripheral vision is important for:
A speed
A visual acuity
B working memory capacity
B binocular vision
C independancy from attention
C colour vision
D flexibility
D detecting moving objects
460) After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT

the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be 395) Which of the following factors may have an influence on
approximately: medical disqualification?
A 30 -90 seconds A Low blood pressure only.
B 10-15 seconds B High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of
the circulatory system.
C 3-4 minutes
C High blood pressure only.
D 5 minutes or more
D Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because
they always can be treated by in-flight medication.
387) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying

without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
394) In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the
members of the crew:
A Trembling, increase in body temperature,
convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
A are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the
increased availability wich results from technical lightening
B Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
of the workload
C Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse B does not loose its importance
D Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of C will increase as a result of the increase of technical
consciousness dissemination of information
D will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about

398) What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" by technical improvements
cockpit ?
A Disengagement of the co-pilot 393) What are easily observable indications of stress?
B Inversion of authority
A Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing
pain around the heart.
C Lack of communication
B Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
D Appearance of agressiveness
C Lowering of the blood pressure.
D Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
392) When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of 401) Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against
acceleration will be a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis).
A angular acceleration A Increase the rate of descent
B radial acceleration B Stop chewing and swallowing movements ("Valsalva")
C linear acceleration C Use drugs against a cold
D vertical acceleration D Stop descending, climb again and then descend with
reduced sink rate
391) The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night

vision are called: 386) The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless
of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three
A the rods phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General
Adaptation Syndrome".
The sequence is:
B the fovea
A alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase
C the cones
B exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phase
D the cones and the rods
C resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase
390) Which of the folllowing statements concerning D alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase
barotrauma are correct? They are:
A caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen

associated with a decrease in altitude 385) The DECIDE model is based on :
B more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid

A a prescriptive generic model which is subject to
descent
mathematical logic
C mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability
B a normative generic model based on mathematical logic
of the body to balance its internal pressures
D due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow C a statistical model based on observation of human decision-
cavities of the body and the ambient pressure making
D a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method

which seems most likely to come up with the solution
425) Acute stress quickly leads to
A a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the 384) The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the
situation pressure at sea level at
B a permanent state of incapacitation A 30 000 feet
C a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower B 18 000 feet
D the mobilization of resources required to cope with the C 10 000 feet

stressor
D 25 000 feet
388) The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the
-1 Pilot in Command
383) You suffered a rapid decompression without the
-2 Co-pilot
appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms.
-3 Navigator
How long should you wait until your next flight?
-4 Air traffic controller
The correct statement(s) is (are): A 48 hours
A 1 and 2 B 12 hours
B 2 and 3 C 24 hours
C 4 D 36 hours
D 1
382) With regard to central vision, which of the following 378) One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit
statements are correct ? results in :
-1: It is due to the functioning of rods
-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen A pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
-3: Its very active both during the day and at night
-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per B constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring
mm are tasks
located to give high resolution capacity
C less experienced crews because of more transparent
A 1,2,4 system details
B 2,3,4 D complacency among the crewmembers
C 1,3
389) Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood
D 2,4 to carry oxygen. This is because:
A hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it

has for oxygen
381) CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
B carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists
A intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
improving attitudes towards flight safety and human
relationship management C carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen
in the alveoli
B not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
D the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the
respiratory tract
C intended solely to alter an individual's personality;
D is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or

inappropriate attitudes 411) Glaucoma is:
A high intra-ocular pressure

380) A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
B disturbed colour vision
A excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
C disturbed adaptation
B close the eyes and relax
D disturbed night vision
C talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to
emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing
simultaneously 422) During sustained positive G-forces the order of
symptoms you can expect is:
D don an oxygen mask
A grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness.
379) When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a B unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out.
slight degree of hypoxia is the
C black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.
A sense of balance
D grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision
B proprioceptive sensitivity
C vision
421) An excessive need for safety
D cochlea
A guarantees the right decision making in critical situations
B hampers severly the way of pilot decision making
C is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation
D is the most important attribute of a line pilot
420) The performance of the man machine system is above 415) The impression of an apparent movement of light
all : when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the
dark is called
A a balanced combination between someone actively engaged
in his work and automated systems which serve to control A "oculogyral illusion"
the pilot's workload
B "oculografic illusion"
B a combination which must make the pilot available for the
sphere in which he is most qualified, namely checking
departures from the normal operating range C "autokinesis"
C a combination in which the pilot must keep the main D "white out"
repetitive tasks and automated systems under his control in
line with rule-based behaviour
414) The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects
D a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's the sitting pilot with inertia along :
workload and increasing his time for supervision
A the transverse body axis to the right
419) The metabolisation of alcohol B the transverse body axis to the left
A is a question of time C the vertical body axis upwards
B is quicker when used to it D the vertical body axis downwards
C can be accelerated even more by coffee

399) During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the
D can be influenced by easy to get medication following symptoms:
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
418) Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying 4. reduction of peripheral vision
solo? Which is the possible cause?
A Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect A Hypoxia.
(hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react
in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)
B Glaucoma.
B Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the
plane. C Hypothermia.
C Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no D Hypoglycaemia.

indication of danger.
D The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen

mask. 412) Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes
differ from experienced pilots in the following way :
417) The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can
A experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots
because they know that routine causes mistakes
be discribed by:
B task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's
A Boyle's Law one
B Dalton's Law C flight planning performance decreases with age, and

experience is unable to mask this deficiency
C Henry's Law
D unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts
D the law of diffusion when carrying out the same task
416) Nonverbal communication
A is of no meaning in the cockpit
B is always used intentionally
C should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
D supports verbal communication
400) What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ? 407) With regard to the average influence of age on pilot
performance, it may be said that age:
A It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue A has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
B Its main role is associated with activities of memory B increases in impact as speed of thought and memory
activities and restoration of attention capabilities deteriorate
C Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of

C has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by
dream phases and paradoxical phases his/her flight experience
D It essentially allows for physical recovery and the D sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting
reconstitution of neuron energy reserves cognitive capabilities
410) The human performance is generally 406) The effect of hypoxia to vision
A better when relaxed, independent of the period of day A can only be detected when smoking tobacco
B better very early in the morning B does not depend on the level of illumination
C always better in the evening than in the morning

C is stronger with the rods
D constant throughout the day D is usual stronger with the cones
409) Concerning the relation between performance and 405) Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is
stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are)
correct?
A rule based behaviour
A A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress
completely when he is scheduled to fly. B skill based behaviour
B A moderate level of stress may improve performance.

C coping behaviour
C A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.

D knowledge based behaviour
D Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance

because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground.
404) The following actions are appropriate when faced with
symptoms of decompression sickness:
1. climb to higher level
408) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as
extra risk of:
soon as
1. flatulence
possible
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. breathe 100 % oxygen
3. pressure vertigo
4. get medical advice about recompression after landing
4. pain in the nasal sinuses


C 1 and 2 are correct C 1 and 4 are correct

403) Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz

are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because they
A upset the vestibular apparatus
B interfere with those of the own blood thus causing

circulation problems
C interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system
D make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same

frequency
402) The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a 538) How can you determine if a person is suffering from a
explained by: barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or
the middle ear (aerotitis) ?
A Henry´s law
A There is no difference
B Graham´s law
B Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
C Dalton´s law
C Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
D Boyle Mariotte´s law
D Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing
471) A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at

8.000 feet. You advise him to: 537) Hyperventilation causes
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated A acidosis
beverages
before flight in the future B hypochondria
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
C a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
A only 4 is correct
D an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood

536) After a decompression at high altitude
D 1 and 3 not advisable
A automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
413) The following occurs in man if the internal body B temperature in the cockpit will increase
temperature increases to 38°C :
C pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin
A impairment of physical and mental performance
D nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids
B apathy causing gas embolism, bends and chokes
C considerable dehydration
535) How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?
D nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first
clinical signs only start to appear at 39°C A Nothing, because it is system-inherent
B Regard the automatic system as additional crew members

528) It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of that needs to be crosschecked as well
behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in
commercial aviation mainly because C Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge
during low workload periods
A it makes the flight deck easier to design
D Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-
B such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse machine loop
circumstances
C this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection 534) Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
D this reduces the amount of training required

A when climbing
B in sudden steep turns

539) Which of the following characteristics form part of
decision-making on the flight deck ?
C when descending rapidly
A A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
D during a long high altitude flight
B A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
C A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not

come up to expectations
D A group decision must always be established prior to action
533) What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease 542) Of the following statements concerning the effects of
in hull loss rates in the eighties? circadian rhythms on performance, we know that :
A SSR A Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the

morning and are sensitive to the duration of the sleep state
B TCAS
B Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the
evening and very sensitive to the duration of the waking
C GPWS
period
D DME C Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas
intellectual performance is better in the morning
532) The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :

D Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide intellectual performance is better in the evening
2. transportation of information by chemical substances
A 1 is false and 2 is correct 527) With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say
that:
B both are false
A communication uses up resources, thus limiting the
resources allocated to work in progress
B communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an
D 1 is correct and 2 is false activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the
same time
531) Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected C communication is only effective if messages are kept short
when : and sufficiently precise to limit their number
A stress is medium
D all the characteristics of communication, namely output,
duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable and are not much
affected by changes in workload
B stress and motivation are medium
C stress and motivation are low

526) Empty field myopia is caused by:
D stress is high
A atmospheric perspective
518) One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression

B ozone at altitude
sickness emerging after a decompression in airline
operation C flying over mountainous terrain
A are the chokes D lack of distant focal points
B is a shock
525) The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates
C are neurological damages to the CNS the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On
the other hand, it may result in :
D are the bends
A errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
529) The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the

B routine errors (slips)
alveoli can be described by:
C mistakes
A Boyles Law
D decision-making errors
B Dalton's Law
C Henry's Law 524) When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:
D the law of diffusion

A the composition of the blood changes
B the composition of the air is different from sea level
C the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level
D the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.
523) Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an 469) As a result of automation in cockpits,
earlier behaviour pattern" are :
1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed
2. when situations are characterised by medium A coordination between the members is facilitated by the
workload provision of more precise and more important information
3. when situations are characterised by stress
B communication and coordination have clearly improved in
A 2. and 3. man-man and man-machine relations
B 1. and 3.
C communication and coordination call for an even greater
effort on the part of the crew members
C 1. and 2. D man-man communication has been significantly improved
D 3.
530) When turning in IMC , head movements should be
avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention
522) Errors which occur during highly automated actions against:
may result from :
1. the capture of a poor action subprogram A oculogyral illusion
2. a mistake in the decision making process
3. the application of a poor rule B pressure vertigo
4. an action mode error
A C coriolis illusion
1,4
D autokinesis
B 1,2
C 3,4
552) With regard to the humidity of air in current in a
pressurized cabin, we know that it :
D 2,3,4
-1 : varies between 40 and 60%
-2 : varies between 5 and 15%
-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of
521) The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( the crew
Anderson model): -4 : has no special effects on crew members
A automatic, cognitive and knowledge A 1,4
B cognitive, associative and autonomous B 2,3
C cognitive, associative and knowledge C 1,3
D associative, autonomous and expert D 2,3,4
520) An autocratic cockpit is described by : 563) Pre-thought action plans may be said to:
-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.
-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to
A Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling come.
the others and in the belief that everyone is aware of what he -3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be
is doing reformulated
at any time during the flight.
B The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves -4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the
complete freedom to the various members of the crew encountered situation.
C The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces The combination of correct statements is:
communications and consequently the synergy and
cohesion of the crew A 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything
functions correctly owing to his natural leadership
562) A pilot is skilled when he : 558) The following can be observed when the internal body
-1 : trains or practises regularly temperature falls below 35°C :
-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself
-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his A shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of
aircraft apathy
-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping
with the B the appearance of intense shivering
unexpected
C mental disorders, and even coma
A 1,2
D profuse sweating
B 2, 3,4
C 1,2,4
557) The intensity of a sound is measured in
D 1,2,3,4
A hertz
561) Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: B cycles per second
1. loss of muscular power
2. headache C curies
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints D decibels
5. loss of consciousness
A 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
556) The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I
C A O standard atmosphere) is
B 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
A 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 %
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct argon
D 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false B 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 %
argon
560) Which of the following statements concerning

C 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon
dioxide
communication is valid?
D 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon
A Professional communication means: using a restricted and dioxide
specific language, tailored to minimize misunderstandings.
B Professional communication means to exchange information

as little as possible. 555) Which of the following is true concerning carbon
monoxide?
C The syntax of communication is of little importance to its
success. Only the words uttered are important. A It is always present in the lungs.
D Communication must take priority over any other flight B It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a
activity under all circumstances smoker's "physiological altitude".
C It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen.

559) Hypoxia can also be caused by
D It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.
A increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of

gases
540) Very high ambition and need for achievement
B a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of
the hemoglobin to transport oxygen
A always promote teamwork
C a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
B improves the coping process with personal failures
D too much carbon dioxide in the blood
C disturbe the climate of cooperation
D fulfil the requirements of stress resistance
553) The respiratory process consists mainly of 549) Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust
gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon
monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
A the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes
into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the A Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed
cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body to them for a long period of time.
B the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of B When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time,
carbon monoxide the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are
experienced
C the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of
nitrogen
C A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon
monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an
D the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and aircraft.
elimination of oxygen
D Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.
541) The behavioural effects of stress may include :

-1 : manifestation of aggressiveness.
-2 : a willingness to improve communication. 548) The fovea centralis is
-3 : a willingness for group cohesion.
-4 : a tendency to withdrawl. A the area of best day vision and no night vision at all
-5 : inappropriate gestural agitation.
The combination of correct statements is :

B the area of the blind spot (optic disc)
A 2,4 and 5 are correct C where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
B 1,4 and 5 are correct D the area of best day vision and best night vision

547) What does not apply to a constructive and helpful
D 1,2 and 3 are correct feedback?
A Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of

the receiver
551) Which of the following personality characteristics makes
crew decision making most effective? B It should be individually tailored to the receiver's background
A General intelligence.
C It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I'
instead of 'one')
B Friendliness.
D It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned
C Assertiveness. situation
D Competitiveness.
546) Mark the two most important attributes for a positive
leadership style:
(1) dominant behaviour
550) What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis')
(2) examplary role-behaviour
mean?
(3) mastery of communication skills
(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour
A The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal
tensions between captain and co-pilot
A 2 and 4
B The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before
the end of a flight B 2 and 3
C The result of a poor preflight planning C 1 and 4
D The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds D 1 and 3
545) Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in 554) Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive
IMC may give the illusion of: to hypoxia?
A descending A Speech.
B yawing B Night vision.
C spinning C Motor coordination.
D climbing D Hearing.
544) A pilot can be described as being proficient, when 481) During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the
he/she: captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The
flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a
A has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your
routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resources problem', and continues smoking. What should the
copilot do?
B is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the
entire flight A He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the
captain
C knows how to invest the maximum resources in the
automation of tasks in real time B He should not further discuss this issue but should come
back to this conflict during the debriefing
D is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a
great bulk of the flight C He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in
the cockpit
543) Which statement is correct? D He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from and should argue with the captain about this problem until
coronary heart disease the conflict is solved
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals
pysiological altitude
during flight 492) Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities
3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung
cancer
A can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
B will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
B 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
C will have no effect at all
D may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of
D 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false hypoxia are much better to be identified
491) Concerning the capacity of the human long-term

517) What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required memory
by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing.
2. Anxiety or fear.
A its storage capacity is unlimited
3. Overstress.
4. Strong pain. B it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but
5. Jogging. unlimted in terms of storage time
A Only 2 and 3 are correct C it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in
terms of capacity
B 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct D its mode of storing information is passive, making memory
searches effective
C 1and 5 are both false
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
490) Which of the following provides the basis of all 485) Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may
perceptions? cause a false sensation of:
A The aural or visual significance attributed in long term A pitching up

memory.
B pitching down
B The seperation of figure and background.
C apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
C The intensity of the stimuli.
D vertigo
D The aural or visual significance attributed in short term
memory.
484) Which of the following physical stimuli may cause

stress reactions?
489) What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness
-1 : noise.
with passengers?
-2 : interpersonnal conflict.
1. Avoid turbulences.
-3 : temperature.
2. Avoid flying through rough weather.
-4 : administrative problem.
3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.
-5 : hunger.
4. Give pertinent information.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
A 1,3,5
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B 1,3,4
C 3,4,5
D Only 4 is correct
D 2,3,5
488) Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?

519) The organism is mobilized by a process known as:
A Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
A NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndrome
B Pain in the joints
B GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome.
C Low blood pressure
C GAF : General Adaptation Function.
D Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains
in the chest area
D GAS : General Adaptation Syndrome
487) Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)

482) Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal
equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by
A is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the external stimulations.
sinus cavity and the ambient air This internal equilibrium is called :
B is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport A Heterostasis
C is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays B Isothermy
D is only caused by colds and their effects C Metastasis
D Homeostasis
486) When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an
isolated star) you will find the light appears to move
after some time. This phenomenon is called: 495) The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup)
are situated in
A autokinetic phenomenon
A the middle ear
B black hole illusion
B the inner ear
C coriolis illusion
C the outer ear
D leans
D the maxillary sinus
480) Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: 475) What are the three phases of General Adaptation
Syndrome ?
A arteriols A alert, resistance, exhaustion
B adrenal glands B Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
C pacemakers
C Alert, resistance, performance.
D pressoreceptors D alarm, resistance, performance,
479) At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory 474) Of the following statements, select those which apply to
reactions") does the human organism start with "information".
remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 -1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for
when climbing? receivers.
At about: -2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.
-3 : It is measured in bits.
A 6000-7000 FT -4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a
quarter.
B 8000-9000 FT
C 9000-10000 FT
D 10000-12000 FT
B only 1 is correct
478) The main function of the red blood cells is

D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

A to contribute to the immune response of the organism
B to transport oxygen
473) A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog,
dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get?
C to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood
A The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is
D the cellular defense of the organism climbing
B The source of light moves away from him

477) The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is
C The source of light stands still
A depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the D The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
alveoli
B dependent on the pressure gradient between the

participating gases during respiration 472) A stress reaction is:
C the excess pressure caused by inhaling

A the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
D independent from the partial pressures of the participating

B the non-specific response of the body to every demand
gases
placed on a person
C the specific response of the body to every demand placed on

476) CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of a person
cigarettes can lead to:
1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness D the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
A 1 and 2 are both correct
B 1 is correct, 2 is false
C 1 is false, 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both false
483) Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due 513) When exhaling, the expired air contains:
to
A maturation A less water vapour than the inhaled air
B drug influence B more oxygen than the inhaled air
C practice and experience C more carbon dioxide than the inspired air
D innate mechanisms D more nitrogen than the inhaled air
505) How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"? 512) What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid
decompression at 25,000 ft ?
A Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off- A Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
center vision.
B About 30 seconds
B Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments.
C Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical
C Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as activities of the subjected pilot
possible and rely upon the senses of balance..
D About 18 seconds
D Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and
maintain an effective instrument cross check.
511) Under what circumstances will a pilot change from

automated level to rule-based level ?
516) The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone
will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of
about A An automated cognitive check procedure
A 1 - 1.5 hours a day B When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer
lead to the intended outcome
B 2 - 2.5 hours a day
C Failure of all the known rules
C 3 - 3.5 hours a day

D The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown
and completely new
D 4 - 4.5 hours a day
510) The normal rate of breathing is

515) The time required for complete adaptation is
A 32 to 40 cycles a minute
A for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of
illumination 30 minutes B 60 to 100 cycles a minute
B for day and night: 30 min

C 20 to 30 cycles a minute
C for night 10 sec and for day 30 min

D 12 to 16 cycles a minute
D for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark

adaptation 30 min
509) When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into
the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into
the blood, it is called:
514) An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be
observed when:
A ventilation
A the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his
experience level B hyperventilation
B the Captain delegates the decision making process to other C internal respiration
crew members
D external respiration
C decisions do not need to be discussed because of a
common synergy between the crew members
D decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and

participation of the other crew members
508) The following may occur during gradual 503) What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring
depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of
several semicircular canals at the same time?
A a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to
headache and also to a loss of coordination A "Pilot's" Vertigo.
B sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache B Sudden incapacitation.
C a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable C "Seat-of-the-Pants" illusions.

somnolence
D a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache

D Graveyard spin.
502) In problem-solving, what determines the transition from

493) To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude
rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ?
is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure
after a rapid decompression ?
A The unsuitability of the automated actions
A Approximately 14 000 ft.
B The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
B Approximately 20 000 ft.
C Attentional capture
C Approximately 45 000 ft.
D Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
D Approximately 38 000 ft.
501) What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after

a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?
506) Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
A More than 1 minute
A only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect
individual operators cockpit philosophies B About 12 seconds
B be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each

C Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
C be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate

D About 40 secods
the normal operation of the aircraft
D only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current 500) Check the following statements:
MCC procedures 1. The first information received determines how
subsequent
information will be evaluated.
494) How can the process of learning be facilitated? 2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory
information may
not get the attention it really needs.
A By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials 3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is
limiting the flow
B By reinforcing errors of information to the central decision maker (CNS).
C By reinforcing successful trials A 1and 3 are correct
D By increasing the psychological pressure on the student B 1 and 2 are correct

504) The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is
A the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC
499) In the short-term-memory, information is stored for
B not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual approximately
references are lost
A a couple of days
C only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to
fly in IMC
B 20 seconds
D useful for instrument and contact flight
C 5 minutes
D 1 hour
498) Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level
?
1.Omission
2.The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
A 1,2
B 3,4
C 1,3
D 2,4
497) Which statement applies to hypoxia?
A carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to

oxygen deficiency
B you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed

repeatedly to hypoxia
C it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia

reaction starts to set in
D sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to

person
496) The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the
A skin of the breech only
B muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and

movement of body parts
C semicircular canals
D utriculus and sacculus
752) Hypoxia is caused by
A a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen
B reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
C reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
D an increased number of red blood cells
507) Which statement is correct ?
A Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not
depend on partial oxygen pressure.
B Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on

their partial oxygen pressure gradient.
C The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen.
D The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-

level.
Professione Volare Risposte esatte Human Factor
A B C D A B C D A B C D
246 272 283
X X X
257 199 225
X X X
256 210 340
X X X
255 209 351
X X X
254 208 350
X X X
253 207 349
X X X
252 206 348
X X X
251 205 347
X X X
250 204 346
X X X
249 203 345
X X X
236 202 344
X X X
247 237 343
X X X
260 200 330
X X X
245 213 341
X X X
244 198 354
X X X
243 197 339
X X X
242 196 338
X X X
241 195 337
X X X
240 194 336
X X X
239 193 335
X X X
238 192 334
X X X
282 191 333
X X X
248 376 332
X X X
270 201 281
X X X
189 223 342
X X X
280 234 364
X X X
279 233 117
X X X
278 232 374
X X X
277 231 373
X X X
276 230 372
X X X
275 229 371
X X X
274 228 370
X X X
273 227 369
X X X
258 226 368
X X X
271 211 367
X X X
259 224 352
X X X
269 212 365
X X X
268 222 353
X X X
267 221 363
X X X
266 220 362
X X X
265 219 361
X X X
264 218 360
X X X
263 217 359
X X X
262 216 358
X X X
261 215 357
X X X
235 214 356
X X X
Data:
355 31 136
X X X
329 42 135
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366 41 134
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293 40 133
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304 39 132
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303 38 131
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302 37 130
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301 36 22
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300 35 128
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299 34 141
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298 21 126
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297 32 125
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296 45 124
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331 30 123
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294 29 122
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307 28 121
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292 27 120
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291 26 119
X X X
290 25 118
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289 24 129
X X X
288 23 8
X X X
287 67 19
X X X
286 33 18
X X X
285 55 17
X X X
284 190 16
X X X
295 65 15
X X X
317 64 14
X X X
328 63 13
X X X
327 62 12
X X X
326 61 11
X X X
325 60 139
X X X
324 59 9
X X X
323 58 140
X X X
322 43 7
X X X
321 56 6
X X X
320 44 5
X X X
305 54 4
X X X
318 53 3
X X X
306 52 2
X X X
316 51 1
X X X
315 50 143
X X X
314 49 142
X X X
313 48 68
X X X
312 47 10
X X X
311 46 152
X X X
310 20 163
X X X
309 57 162
X X X
308 127 161
X X X
188 138 160
X X X
319 137 159
X X X
Data:
158 81 636
X X X
157 116 621
X X X
156 79 620
X X X
155 92 619
X X X
115 77 618
X X X
153 76 617
X X X
166 75 616
X X X
151 74 615
X X X
150 73 614
X X X
149 72 658
X X X
148 71 624
X X X
147 70 646
X X X
146 69 565
X X X
145 80 656
X X X
144 102 655
X X X
66 113 654
X X X
154 112 653
X X X
176 111 652
X X X
187 110 651
X X X
186 109 650
X X X
185 108 649
X X X
184 107 634
X X X
183 106 647
X X X
182 105 635
X X X
181 90 645
X X X
180 103 644
X X X
179 91 643
X X X
164 101 642
X X X
177 100 641
X X X
165 99 640
X X X
175 98 639
X X X
174 97 638
X X X
173 96 637
X X X
172 95 611
X X X
171 94 648
X X X
170 93 575
X X X
169 377 586
X X X
168 104 585
X X X
167 622 584
X X X
114 633 583
X X X
178 632 582
X X X
78 631 581
X X X
89 630 580
X X X
88 629 579
X X X
87 628 578
X X X
86 627 613
X X X
85 626 576
X X X
84 625 589
X X X
83 612 574
X X X
82 623 573
X X X
Data:
572 710 660
X X X
571 709 671
X X X
570 708 693
X X X
569 657 704
X X X
568 718 703
X X X
567 740 702
X X X
375 751 701
X X X
577 750 700
X X X
599 749 699
X X X
610 748 698
X X X
609 747 697
X X X
608 746 696
X X X
607 745 681
X X X
606 744 694
X X X
605 743 682
X X X
604 728 692
X X X
603 741 691
X X X
602 729 690
X X X
587 739 689
X X X
600 738 688
X X X
588 737 687
X X X
598 736 686
X X X
597 735 685
X X X
596 734 684
X X X
595 733 564
X X X
594 732 695
X X X
593 731 434
X X X
592 705 445
X X X
591 742 444
X X X
590 669 443
X X X
659 680 442
X X X
601 679 441
X X X
716 678 440
X X X
727 677 439
X X X
726 676 438
X X X
725 675 437
X X X
724 674 424
X X X
723 673 435
X X X
722 672 448
X X X
721 707 433
X X X
720 670 432
X X X
719 683 431
X X X
706 668 430
X X X
717 667 429
X X X
730 666 428
X X X
715 665 427
X X X
714 664 426
X X X
713 663 470
X X X
712 662 436
X X X
711 661 458
X X X
Data:
566 419 557
X X X
468 418 556
X X X
467 417 555
X X X
466 416 540
X X X
465 415 553
X X X
464 414 541
X X X
463 399 551
X X X
462 412 550
X X X
461 400 549
X X X
446 410 548
X X X
459 409 547
X X X
447 408 546
X X X
457 407 545
X X X
456 406 544
X X X
455 405 543
X X X
454 404 517
X X X
453 403 554
X X X
452 402 481
X X X
451 471 492
X X X
450 413 491
X X X
449 528 490
X X X
423 539 489
X X X
460 538 488
X X X
387 537 487
X X X
398 536 486
X X X
397 535 485
X X X
396 534 484
X X X
395 533 519
X X X
394 532 482
X X X
393 531 495
X X X
392 518 480
X X X
391 529 479
X X X
390 542 478
X X X
425 527 477
X X X
388 526 476
X X X
401 525 475
X X X
386 524 474
X X X
385 523 473
X X X
384 522 472
X X X
383 521 483
X X X
382 520 505
X X X
381 469 516
X X X
380 530 515
X X X
379 552 514
X X X
378 563 513
X X X
389 562 512
X X X
411 561 511
X X X
422 560 510
X X X
421 559 509
X X X
420 558 508
X X X
Data:
493
X
506
X
494
X
504
X
503
X
502
X
501
X
500
X
499
X
498
X
497
X
496
X
752
X
507
X
Data:
Social Science / Law / Civil Law
Chapter 2 - International agreements and Organizations

What does cabotage refer to? A

a. Domestic air services within a state
b. An international air carrier
c. A flight above territorial waters
d. Crop spraying
The Convention signed by the states B

relating to damage caused by foreign
aircraft to persons and property on
the ground is:
a. the Tokyo convention
b. the Rome convention
c. the Warsaw convention
d. the Paris convention.
The Convention on offences and A

other acts committed on board an
aeroplane is:
a. the Tokyo convention
b. the Paris convention
c. the Rome convention
d. the Chicago convention

Which of the following is an obligation B
of being an ICAO contracting state?
a. ICAO must be informed about all
new flight crew licences and any
suspended validity of such licences
b. ICAO must be informed about
differences from the standards
detailed in any of the annexes to the
Chicago Convention
c. ICAO must approve the pricing of
tickets on international airline
connections
d. ICAO must be informed about
changes to national regulations
Which of the following annexes to the D

Chicago Convention contains the
minimum specifications for the
construction of aerodromes?
a. Annex 6
b. Annex 11
c. Annex 10
d. Annex 14
The ICAO annex containing the A

standards and recommended
practices for Personnel Licensing is:
a. Annex 1
b. Annex 2
c. Annex 11
d. Annex 12

The aircraft commander may, when D
he/she has reasonable grounds to
believe that a person has committed
or is about to commit an offence
against penal law on board the
aircraft:
a. ask the person to disembark
b. ask the crew to assist in restraining
the person
c. order the passengers to assist the
crew in restraining the person
d. deliver the person to the
competent authority
The international convention D

concerning the responsibilities of
international air carriers (operators),
for the carriage of passengers,
baggage and freight is the:
a. Tokyo convention
b. Hague convention
c. Montreal convention
d. Warsaw convention
The Rome convention and its later B

amendments deals with:
a. offences and other acts committed
on board an aeroplane
b. damage caused by foreign aircraft
to third parties on the ground
c. regulation of the transportation of
dangerous goods
d. damage caused by any aircraft to
third parties on the ground

The Warsaw convention and its later D
amendments deals with:
a. regulation of the transportation of
dangerous goods
b. operator's licence for international
scheduled operations
c. security systems at airports
d. limitation of the Operator's liability
concerning passengers and goods
transported
The objectives of ICAO were defined B

by:
a. the Geneva Convention of 1936
b. the Chicago Convention of 1944
c. the Warsaw Convention of 1929
d. the Geneva Convention of 1948
The annex to the Chicago convention C

which deals with the entry and
departure of cargo and other articles
on international flights is:
a. Annex 15
b. Annex 16
c. Annex 9
d. Annex 8
Which freedom of the air is applicable D

to a flight which wishes to land in a
foreign state for technical reasons?
a. 1st freedom
b. 3rd freedom
c. 4th freedom
d. 2nd freedom

ICAO establishes: D
a. aeronautical standards adopted by
all states
b. proposals for aeronautical
regulations in the form of 18 annexes
c. standards and recommended
practices applied without exception
by all states which are signatory to the
Chicago Convention of 1944
d. standards and recommended
practices for contracting states
The first freedom of the air is: B

a. The right to board passengers from
the state where the aircraft is
registered and fly to any other state
b. The right to over fly without landing
c. The right to land for a technical stop
d. The right to operate a commercial
flight with passengers on board
between two states
The Convention which deals with C

offences against penal law is:
a. the convention of Rome
b. the convention of Madrid
c. the convention of Tokyo
d. the convention of Warsaw
One of the main objectives of ICAO is A

to:
a. develop principles and techniques
for international aviation
b. approve the ticket prices set by
international airlines
c. approve new airlines operating
turbine engine powered aircraft
d. approve new international airlines

Which international convention A
established ICAO?
a. Chicago
b. The Hague
c. Warsaw
d. Montreal
The standards contained in the B

annexes to the Chicago convention
are to be considered:
a. binding upon all airlines operating
international routes
b. binding for contracting states that
have not notified ICAO about national
differences
c. advice and guidance for the
aviation legislation within contracting
states
d. binding for all contracting states
Which body of ICAO finalizes the C

SARPs to be submitted for adoption?
a. The Council
b. The Regional Air Navigation
Committee
c. The Air Navigation Commission
d. The Assembly
The second freedom of the air is the: C

a. right to cabotage traffic
b. right to operate a commercial
passenger flight with passengers on
board between two states
c. right to land in a foreign state for a
technical stop
d. right to over fly a foreign state
without landing

Which annex contains information A
concerning Air Traffic Services?
a. Annex 11
b. Annex 10
c. Annex 14
d. Annex 15
To which passengers does EU B

Regulation 261/2004 apply?
a. To all passengers travelling on an
EU registered aircraft wherever it may
be operating
b. Those departing from an EU
member state or travelling to an EU
member state on an airline based in
an EU member state
c. Only to those departing from an EU
member state or travelling on an
airline based in an EU member state
d. To all passengers who are citizens
of an EU member state

To which passengers does EU B
Regulation 261/2004 apply? Those
who
a. arrived in time for check-in as
indicated on the ticket or
communication from the airline, or, if
no time is so indicated, no less than 30
minutes prior to the scheduled
departure time of the flight
b. arrived in time for check-in as
minutes prior to the scheduled
c. arrived in time for check-in as
hour prior to the scheduled departure
time of the flight
d. arrived in time for check-in as
hours prior to the scheduled
How much is the cash compensation C

given to a passenger under the EU
Regulation 261/2004 travelling on a
flight not within the EU of greater than
3500 km if the flight is cancelled?
a. €250
b. €400
c. €600
d. €800

How or where are airlines obliged to D
inform passengers stating that : "If you
are denied boarding or if your flight is
cancelled or delayed for at least two
hours, ask at the check-in counter or
boarding gate for the text stating your
rights, particularly with regard to
compensation and assistance."
a. This is given verbally to individual
passengers by airline staff at check-in
b. Printed on the airline ticket or the
on-line receipt
c. Printed on a leaflet attached to the
boarding pass
d. On a notice and on display at the
passenger check-in counter
MODULE 10 – AVIATION LEGISLATION
1 The abbreviation "ICAO" means:

a) International Organization of Aircraft Operators.
b) International Civil Aviation Organization.
c) International Air Transport Organization.
2 What stands the abbreviation JAR for?
a) Joint Aviation Requirements.
b) Joint Aviation Registration.
c) Joint Aircraft Rules.
3 When comes a new JAA regulation into executive power?
a) When the JAA releases the final draft.
b) When a NAA integrates this regulation into there national law.
c) When the JAA publishes the new regulation.
4 Who issues a JAR 66 certifying staff license?
a) The head office of the JAA.
b) The local office of the JAA.
c) The NAA.
5 If an airline from an non-JAA country flies to an airport located in a JAA member state what
aviation law applies?
a) JAA regulations.
b) The NAA regulations of the destination country.
c) ICAO regulations.
6 Where are the minimum requirements defined for commercial air traffic between different
countries?
a) In the JAA regulations.
b) In the national law of the country the airline is belonging to.
c) In the ICAO regulations.
7 What is the minimum training requirements by a JAR 147 school for the JAR 66 CAT-A
license?
a) 2400 hours. b) 800 hours. c) 1600 hours.
8 How many practical experience in a JAR 145 maintenance organization is required to qualify
for the JAR 66 CAT-A license if the applicant has graduated from a JAR 147 school?
a) 6 months.
b) 1 year.
c) 2 years.
9 What are the privileges of a Certifying Staff category C only?
a) Release to Service after line maintenance inclusive electric and avionics components.
b) Release to Service after Base Maintenance.
c) Release to Service of a component after overhaul in the workshop.
10 What are the categories according to JAR-66?
a) Cat. A,B, C, D.
b) Cat. A, B, C1, C2.
c) Cat. A, B1, B2, C.
11 How many sub-categories has a JAR 66 CAT-A certifying staff license?
a) 2.
b) 3.
c) 4.
12 Who is responsible that the physical condition of a JAR 66 license holder does not adversely
affect his ability to satisfactorily certify the work for which he is responsible?
a) The JAA.
b) The JAR 145 maintenance organization.
c) The Jar 66 license holder himself.
13 According to JAR-145: What must be issued after each kind of maintenance?
a) A Certificate of Release to Service.
b) Certificate of Airworthiness.
c) A Maintenance Statement.
14 Which category is allowed to sign a release to service after overhaul?
a) Line Maintenance Certifying Mechanic.
b) Line Maintenance Certifying Technician.
c) Base Maintenance Certifying Engineer.
15 How is a major change defined? A change is a major change if .....
a) ... different airworthiness standards has been used than the original ones.
b) ... the applicant is the type certification holder.
c) ... the airworthiness is affected.
16 What is the function of the quality personnel?
a) Monitoring the maintenance personnel if they work properly.
b) Issuance of all Certificates of Release to Service.
c) To audit the entire organization.
17 The JAR-145 aims to which kind of organization?
a) Organizations which perform only line maintenance on small aircraft.
b) Organizations which maintain aircraft or components used for commercial air transportation.
c) Organizations which maintain only components.
18 In a JAR 145 maintenance organization what language(s) must certifying staff be able to use?
a) The local language.
b) The English language.
c) The language in which the documents and procedures are written and the language which is usually
spoken in the maintenance organization.
19 How long is the validity of an Certificate of Airworthiness?
a) 12 months.
b) Until the loss of airworthiness.
c) Until the revocation or withdrawal.
20 What is the Certificate of Airworthiness?
a) The evidence for air traffic permission.
b) The evidence for the airworthiness of the aircraft. It is issued once a year.
c) An official statement for the airworthiness, issued after each overhaul.
21 Who issues the type certificate of an aircraft?
a) An approved JAR-145 organization.
b) An approved JAR-21 organization.
c) The national Civil Aviation Authority.
22 ICAO Article 29 requires documents to be carried: Certificate of Registration, Certificate of
Airworthiness, license of the crew members, aircraft log book, passenger manifest, cargo
manifest. What is missing in this list?
a) Flight Manual.
b) Type Certificate.
c) Radio station license.
23 Which requirements describe the papers which must be carried on board of an aircraft used
for passenger transportation?
a) JAR-21.
b) JAR-145.
c) JAR OPS 1.
24 If registration numbers are to be applied to an aircraft with a letter height of 12 inches, what is
the minimum space required for the registration mark N1683C?
Noote: 2/3 x height = character width.
1/6 x height = width for 1.
1/4 x 2/3 height = spacing.
1/6 x height = stroke or line width.
a) 52 inches.
b) 48 inches.
c) 57 inches.
25 Who issues Airworthiness Directives?
a) The Design Organization.
b) The National Authority.
c) The JAA.
26 What is the consequence if the time limit written in the AD is not overdue (exceeded).
a) The aircraft must not be operated unless for test flight.
b) The type certificate becomes invalid.
c) The maintenance organization will be advised to cancel the Certificate of Airworthiness.
27 If work performed on an aircraft has been done satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized
person on the maintenance records for maintenance alterations performed constitutes
a) approval of the aircraft for return to service.
b) approval for return to service only for the work performed.
c) only verification that the maintenance or alterations were performed referencing maintenance data.
28 What is the means by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other interested persons of
unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be
operated?
a) Airworthiness Directives.
b) Airworthiness Alerts.
c) Aviation Safety Data.
29 Which aircraft record entry is the best description of the replacement of several damaged
heli-coils in a casting?
a) Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted, the
tapped holes gauged, then new inserts installed, and tangs removed.
b) Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils were installed in place of damaged ones.
c) Eight 1/4 - 20 inch standard heli-coils inserts were repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a
lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were checked for corrosion.
30 Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100
hour, or progressive inspection?
a) The owner or operator of the aircraft.
b) The person approving or disapproving for return to service.
c) The designee or inspector representing the FAA administrator.
MODULE 10 – AVIATION LEGISLATION

1) a (b) c
2) (a) b c
3) a (b) c
4) a b (c)
5) a b (c)
6) a b (c)
7) a (b) c
8) a (b) c
9) a (b) c
10) a b (c)
11) a b (c)
12) a b (c)
13) (a) b c
14) a b (c)
15) a b (c)
16) a b (c)
17) a (b) c
18) a b (c)
19) a b (c)
20) (a) b c
21) a b (c)
22) a b (c)
23) a b (c)
24) (a) b c
25) a (b) c
26) (a) b c
27) a (b) c
28) (a) b c
29) (a) b c
30) a (b) c
(Air Laws) P.D. 1570 and its Implementing Rules and
Regulations
The design of the seal of an d

Aeronautical Engineer includes
a _____. 1996
a. aircraft model
b. rocket
c. propeller
d. wing section
Section 22 of P.D. 1570 states c

that the Board may refuse to
issue Certificate of Registration
to any person who is/has the
following, except _____. 1996
a. unsound mind
b. guilt of civil offense
c. incurable disease
d. None of the above
(Air Laws) P.D. 1570 and its Implementing Rules and Regulations
He shall act in professional c
matters as a faithful agent or
trustee, and treat as confidential
all matters and information
concerning business affairs,
technical
processes, and others. This code
of ethics is included in _____. 1996
a. Relationship with State

b. Relationship with Engineers
c. Relationship with Clients and
Employers
d. Relationship with the Public
The imprisonment period for d

violating the law governing the
practice of Aeronautical
Engineering is _____. 1996
a. from one year to ten years

b. from one year to five years
c. from six months to one year
d. from six months to six years
Section 2 of the P.D. 1570 a
describes its objectives. Which
of the following is not an
objective of the P.D. 1570?
a. Creation of a Society for

Aeronautical Engineers in the
Philippines.
b. Provide for and govern the
examination for registration of
Aeronautical Engineering.
c. Standardization and
regulation of Aeronautical
Engineering.
d. Supervision, control, and
regulation of the practice of
Aeronautical Engineering in the
Philippines
Which of the following is not b

considered as an Aeronautical
Engineering practice?
a. Selling of aircraft components

b. Directing and controlling an
aircraft in flight
c. Construction of aircraft
structures
d. All of these
The Rules and Regulations a
including the Code of Ethics of
the Board of Aeronautical
Engineering shall be published
in the Official Gazette and shall
take effect in how many days
after the date of their
publication?
a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 60 days
d. 90 days
In the interest of national c

economy and well-being, he
shall always strive in the
execution of his work for
optimum efficiency, economy,
and safety. This code of ethics is
under _____. 1996
a. Relation with the Public

b. Relation with Engineers
c. Relation with the State
d. Relation with Clients and
Employers
What is the maximum diameter b
of the seal of the Board of
Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 45 mm
b. 48 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 52 mm
The keystone of professional b

conduct is _____.
a. justice
b. integrity
c. honesty
d. courtesy
He shall be dignified in a
explaining and discussing his
work and shall refrain from self-
laudatory advertising or
propaganda. This code of ethics
is included
in _____.
a. Relationship with the

Profession
b. Relationship with Clients and
Employers
c. Relationship with Engineers
d. Relationship with the Public
The Code of Ethics for b
Aeronautical Engineers
encompasses relations with
certain entities. Which of the
following is not among the
specified entities?
a. State
b. School
c. Profession
d. Public
The qualifications for a person b

to be appointed as member of
Engineering is provided in P.D.
1570 at what section?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
What should be issued to all d

successful examinees of the
technical written examination for
aeronautical engineers upon
payment of the required fee?
a. Certificate of Competence
b. Certificate of Recognition
c. Certificate of Reciprocity
d. Certificate of Registration
President Decree No. 1570 was d
signed last _____.
a. June 11, 1968

b. June 11, 1973
c. June 11, 1976
d. June 11, 1978
What document must a d

foreigner submit to qualify to
take the technical written
examination prior to registration
for the practice of aeronautical
engineering?
a. Proof of Residency
b. Proof of Competency
c. Proof of Registration
d. Proof of Reciprocity
Presidential Decree No. 1570 c

shall be known as the "_____."
a. Philippine Aerospace
Engineering Decree
b. Philippine Aeronautics
Empowerment Decree
c. Philippine Aeronautical
Engineering Decree
d. Philippine Aeronautical
Entitlement Decree
The Certificate of Registration d
given to the successful
examinees of the technical
written examination is signed by
_____.
a. the members of the Board of

Aeronautical Engineering
b. the members of the Board of
Aeronautical Engineering and
SAEP president
c. the members of the Board of
Philippine president
d. the members of the Board of
PRC chairperson
The Board of Aeronautical b

Engineering under the
Professional Regulation
Commission is composed of
how many members?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
Which is not a requirement to be d
a member of the Board of
Engineering?
a. Not a member of the faculty

of any university, college,
institute, or school where a
regular course in aeronautical
engineering is taught or review
classes conducted
b. Not financially interested,
directly or indirectly, in any
university, college, institute, or
school where a regular course in
aeronautical engineering is
taught or review classes
conducted
c. Not an elective officer of any
professional association or
organization of aeronautical
engineering
The members of the Board of b

Aeronautical Engineering shall
hold office for a term of _____
year/s.
a. one (1)
b. two (2)
c. three (3)
d. four (4)
No member of the Board shall b
serve for more than _____
successive complete terms.
a. one (1)
b. two (2)
c. three (3)
d. four (4)
Which among the following d

statements regarding the
removal of board member is
incorrect?
a. Any member of the Board

may, upon recommendation of
the Commission be
removed by the President of the
Philippines.
b. The reasons for removal
include neglect of duty,
incompetence, commission or
tolerance of irregularities in the
examinations, malpractices, or
unprofessional or unethical,
immoral, or dishonorable
conduct.
c. The member to be removed
must be given the opportunity
to defend himself in a proper
administrative investigation.
d. No member of the Board may
be removed.
Who shall conduct the written c
examinations?
a. Commission alone
b. Board alone
c. Commission and Board
d. SAEP and Board
The Board shall, within _____ days c

following the end of each fiscal
year, submit to the Commission
an annual report on its activities.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. sixty (60)
d. ninety (90)
Any person who shall apply for b

admission to take the written
examinations for aeronautical
engineers should possess all the
qualifications stated in section
_____.
a. 4
b. 14
c. 25
d. 27
statements is not necessary to
take the written examination?
a. Good moral character and

reputation
b. Graduate of Bachelor of
Science in Aeronautical
Engineering from any institution
of learning recognized by the
Government of the Philippines
or of an equivalent course
offered in any institution of
learning in a foreign country
subject to the provisions of
existing laws
c. Not have been convicted of
any crime involving moral
turpitude
Written examinations of b
candidates desiring to practice
aeronautical engineering in the
Philippines shall be given by the
______ once a year at a date and
place to be fixed by the _____.
a. Board; Board
b. Board; Commission
c. Commission; Commission
d. Commission; Board
The relative weight for every c
subject shall always be divisible
exactly by _____.
a. three (3)
b. four (4)
c. five (5)
d. ten (10)
In order to pass the written b

examination, the candidate's
GWA must be equal to or
greater than _____%, with no
rating below _____% in any
subject.
a. 75; 75
b. 75; 50
c. 50; 75
d. 50; 50
Within ______ days after the last d

day of the examinations or on
such date as may be determined
by the Commission, the Board
shall submit its report on the
ratings obtained by each
candidate to the Commissioner
of the Commission for approval
or
other appropriate action.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety
(Air (90)P.D. 1570 and its Implementing Rules and Regulations
Laws)
All ratings shall be released at c
least _____ days before the next
examination period.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety (90)
All successful candidates in the d

written examinations shall
receive a _____ upon payment of
the required fee.
a. Certificate of Excellence
b. Certificate of Public
Convenience
c. Certificate of Reciprocity
d. Certificate of Registration
statements is incorrect.
a. The certificate, which will be

signed by the Members of the
Board and approved by the
Commissioner, shall bear the full
name of the registrant and the
serial number of the certificate,
and shall be authenticated with
the official seal of the Board.
b. The issuance of the certificate
by the Board under this Decree
shall be evidence that the
person named therein is entitled
to all the rights and privileges of
a registered aeronautical
engineer while it remains
unrevoked or unsuspended.
c. Before commencing the
practice of aeronautical
engineering, all registrants
under this Decree shall be
required to take professional
oaths before the Board or
before any person authorized to
administer the same.
d. None of the above.
statements regarding refusal to
issue certificate is correct?
a. The Board may refuse to issue

certificate to any person
convicted by a court of
competent jurisdiction of any
criminal offense involving moral
turpitude.
b. The Board may refuse to issue
certificate to any person guilty
of unprofessional, unethical,
immoral or dishonorable
conduct, or to any person of
unsound mind
c. In the event of refusal to issue
a certificate, the Board shall
forthwith furnish the applicant a
written statement setting forth
its reason/s.
d. All of the above
Section _____ of the P.D. 1570 c
states that "The Board shall have
the power suspend or revoke a
certificate by reason of
malpractice, incompetence,
gross negligence, use or
perpetration of any fraud,
deceit, or false statement in
obtaining such certificate, or
refusal to join and to remain a
member of the accredited
organization.
a. 4
b. 14
c. 23
d. 25
Under what section of the P.D. b

1570 is the seal discussed?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 36
Under what section of the P.D. c

1570 is the practice of
aeronautical engineering
defined?
a. 23
b. 25
c. 27
d. 36
Which among the following c
statements regarding the seal is
incorrect?
a. All aeronautical engineers

shall obtain official seal bearing
the registrant's name, the
number of his registration
certificate, and the words;
"Aeronautical Engineer."
b. Plans, specifications, reports,
and such other professional
documents prepared by or
executed under the immediate
supervision of, and issued by
an aeronautical engineer shall
be stamped on every sheet
thereof with the official seal
when filed with government
authorities, or when submitted
or
used professionally during the
life of the registrant's certificate.
c. It is not punishable by law if
anyone affixes his official seal
on any documents after his
certificate of registration has
expired or has been revoked or
suspended.
Who signed the P.D. 1570? a
a. Ferdinand E. Marcos
b. Fidel V. Ramos
c. Joseph E. Estrada
d. Gloria M. Arroyo
The IRR of the P.D. 1570 a

including the Code of
Professional Ethics, when
approved by the Commission,
shall take shall take effect _____
days following the date of their
publication in the Official
Gazette.
a. fifteen (15)
b. thirty (30)
c. seventy (70)
d. ninety (90)
The P.D. 1570 was adopted by a

Engineering at the Metropolitan
Manila, Philippines last _____.
a. September 23, 1982

b. October 12, 1982
c. June 11, 1978
d. June 20, 1952
The P.D. 1570 was approved and b
promulgated as the Rules and
Regulations of the Board of
Aeronautical Engineering last
_____.
a. September 23, 1982

b. October 12, 1982
c. June 11, 1978
d. June 20, 1952
Who is not a member of the first d

Board of Aeronautical
Engineering?
a. Recaredo R. Albano
b. Teofilo P. Alberto
c. Timoteo A. Cordova Jr.
d. Numeriano G. Tanopo Jr.
What is the relative weight of d

the subject Aerodynamics in the
written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
What is the relative weight of c
the subject Aircraft Powerplant
in the written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
What is the relative weight of c

the subject Aircraft Structures
and Design in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
What is the relative weight of a

the subject Mathematics in the
written examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
What is the relative weight of b
the subject Airframe
Construction, Repair, and
Modification in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
What is the relative weight of a

the subject Engineering
Economics & Management, Laws
& Ethics in the written
examination?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
statements regarding an aircraft
is incorrect?
a. An aircraft is any contrivance

now known or hereafter
invented, used, or designed for
navigation of or flight in the air.
b. This contrivance can also be
winged or finned weapon
system (missile, bomb) or any
other device that is designed to
operate fully or partly in air and
whose motion and flight path is
influence or determined by the
combined effects of forces and
moments created by its mass, its
power system, and
the air, or by its mass and the air
if non powered.
c. A spacecraft designed for
operation in the outer space,
can be treated as an aircraft
while operating in transit within
the limits of the earth's
atmosphere.
Which is/are considered as a d
engineering?
a. Basic and applied research in

fluid mechanics
b. Formulation of plans,
specifications, standards,
technique and procedures:
preparation of project feasibility
study
c. Research activities leading to
or resulting in the development
of new or improved aircraft
and/or its components
d. All of the above.
Which is/are considered as a d

engineering?
a. Planning design, analysis,

construction/fabrication, sub-
assembly, test and evaluation of
aircraft structures, powerplant,
and other aircraft components
b. Final assembly of aircraft
c. Pre-flight inspection
d. All of the above.
Which is not considered as a c
engineering?
a. Pre-flight, post-flight checks

and functional test of aircraft
and its components
b. Release of aircraft for flight,
monitoring of aircraft
performance, and other
activities performed on the
group and in flight to ensure
aircraft airworthiness and flight
safety
c. Directing and controlling
aircraft in flight
d. Marketing or selling of aircraft
and/or its components, which
require thorough technical
knowledge of aircraft
/components specifications,
performance, maintenance,
repair and other pertinent
information
Which is not true regarding the a
seal of the Board of
Aeronautical Engineering?
a. The seal shall be circular in

shape with maximum diameter
of 48 centimeters.
b. The atom as a whole
symbolizes engineering activity
with its four (4) orbiting
electrons signifying the four (4)
major areas in the practice of
c. Between the two (2)
concentric circles along the
circumference of the seal shall
be inscribed the words
"Professional Regulation
Commission" and Board
of Aeronautical Engineering" at
the upper and the lower portion
of the circumference
respectively.
d. Between the two (2)
"Aeronautical Engineer" and
"Philippines" at the upper and
the lower portion of the
circumference respectively.
Which is not true regarding the d
seal of the Aeronautical
Engineering?
a. The seal shall be circular in

shape with maximum diameter
of 48 millimeters.
b. The atom as a whole
symbolizes engineering activity
with its four (4) orbiting
electrons signifying the four (4)
major areas in the practice of
c. Between the two (2)
"Aeronautical Engineer" and
"Philippines" at the upper and
the lower portion of the
circumference respectively.
d. Either the full name of the
engineer or his/her registration
number shall
appear slightly below the center
of the seal.
The _____ in the seal of an b
Aeronautical Engineer
symbolizes that aeronautical
engineering is a dynamic and
progressive profession.
a. wing section
b. shockwaves
c. electrons
d. atom
Per Section 17, the _____ shall have b

the power to prescribe, amend,
or revise the subjects and their
corresponding relative weights.
a. Commission
b. Board
c. Commission and Board
d. SAEP President
Aeronautical Engineering Decree and its Implementing Rules and Regulations:
1. Which law regulates the practice of aeronautical engineering in the Philippines?
a. PD 1570
b. RA 9497
c. Civil Aviation Regulations
2. Which government body implements the requirements under PD 1570?

a. The Civil Aeronautics Board
b. The Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines
c. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering of PRC
3. According to PD 1570, how many members are there in the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
4. Who appoints the members of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?

a. The Chairperson of the Professional Regulations Commission
b. The Director General of the CAAP
c. The Secretary of DOTC
d. The President of the Philippines
5. What is the minimum age to be a qualified member of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 31
d. 41
6. According to PD 1570, how long could a person serve as a member of the board?
a. Indefinitely
b. 3 years only
c. 2 years per term with a maximum of two successive terms
d. 3 years per term with a maximum of two successive terms
7. Does the board have power over those who have no certificate but practice the profession of
aeronautical engineering?
a. Yes
b. No
c. It is not defined in PD 1570
d. Yes, only if the person have a CAAP license
8. According to PD 1570, if a person is below 21 years old, can that person be allowed to take the
licensure examination for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the CAAP Board of Directors
d. Yes, only if permitted by the CAAP Director General
9. Are foreigners allowed to take the licensure exam for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the Director General of CAAP
d. Yes, only with proof of reciprocity from his State
10. Can an aerospace engineering graduate take the licensure exam for aeronautical engineers?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Yes, only if permitted by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering
d. Yes, only if he also holds a CAAP license
11. How many times in a year are licensure exams for aeronautical engineers held?
a. Once a year
b. Twice a year
c. Once every two years
d. As many times as the Board of Aeronautical Engineering may require
12. Is there a specific date and place when and where the licensure exams are held?
a. No
b. Yes
c. The CAAP will determine the date and place
d. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering will determine the place but the date is fixed
13. If an examinee has a general weighted average of 90% but has a score of less than 50% in one of
his/her subject, did he/she pass?
a. No
b. Yes
c. The Board of Aeronautical Engineering will decide
d. The Chairman of the PRC will decide
14. Which document/s is/are issued by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering to a successful examinee
entitling him/her the rights and privileges of a registered aeronautical engineer?
a. The Aeronautical Engineer License
b. The Identification Card of an Aeronautical Engineer
c. The Certificate of Registration of an Aeronautical Engineer
15. Is it legal for the professional organization to require all aeronautical engineers to remain a member in
good standing?
a. Yes
b. No
d. It is legal but is not being implemented
16. Which organization of aeronautical engineers is accredited by the government?

a. The Society of Aeronautical Engineers of the Philippines
b. The Philippine Technological Council
c. The Aeronautical Engineering Research Organization
d. The Philippine Society of Aeronautical Engineers
17. When a certificate of registration is revoked by the Board of Aeronautical Engineering, when can it be
reinstated?
a. After 1 year
b. After 2 years
c. After 3 years
d. Never
18. Is operating an aircraft considered a practice of aeronautical engineering?

a. Yes
b. No
d. Only when the Aeronautical Engineer is acting as Captain
19. Is it allowed by law to practice aeronautical engineering without a certificate of registration as an

aeronautical engineer?
a. Yes
b. No
d. Only when he has an identification card as an engineer
20. Who is allowed to enforce PD 1570?

a. Police officers
b. CAAP
c. Either CAAP or police officers or both
21. According to PD 1570, which of the following is not considered an aircraft?

a. Missile
b. Airship
c. Kite
22. Which of the following is not considered practice of aeronautical engineering?

a. Designing an aircraft structure
b. Teaching Aerodynamics
c. Flying an Airplane
23. Which statement is true with regards to the seal of the Board of Aeronautical Engineering?
a. The design of the seal shows an airplane
b. The leading edge of the wing is on the left side
c. The leading edge of the wing is on the right side
d. The atom in the design has five electrons
24. Which of the following statement is true with regards to the scope of the examination?
a. There are five major subjects
b. The relative weight of the subject Aircraft Construction, Repair and Modification is 10%
c. Both choices are true
25. Who are exempted from the examination?

a. No one is exempted
b. Those that have at least 3 years’ experience as a Practicing Aeronautical Engineer
c. Anyone who applies may be granted exemption if he/she pays for it
Aircraft Weight and Balance:
26. What is meant by residual fuel or unusable fuel?
a. The fuel that remains in the lines and tanks after draining.
b. The deposits on the exhaust duct after combustion.
c. The fuel that remain with the products of combustion.
d. All of the above are correct.
27. The removal and/or installation of standard items may change the
a. Basic empty weight of the aircraft.
b. C.G. range
c. C.G. Limits
d. All of the above
28. When weighing aircraft for weight and balance check, it should be in
a. Normal ground attitude
b. Level flight attitude
c. Either a or b is correct
29. What is the maximum payload under these conditions?

BOW 100,000 lb
Max. zero fuel weight 145,000 lb
Max. landing weight 155,000 lb
Max. takeoff weight 200,000 lb
Fuel tank load 75,000 lb
Est. fuel burn en route 55,000 lb
a. 35,000 lb
b. 45,000 lb
c. 55,000 lb
30. A 120-cm wing has a LEMAC at STA. 1000. If CG is at 40% of MAC, in what station is it located?
a. STA 952
b. STA 1040
c. STA 1048
31. When performing weight and balance computation for airplanes, which is more critical?
a. Longitudinal balance
b. Lateral balance
c. Directional balance
32. Which statement is true with regards to the center of lift?

a. The center of lift does not move
b. The center of lift moves backward when the airplane pitches up
c. The center of lift moves forward when the airplane pitches up
d. The center of lift always moves back and forth
33. Which is not included as tare weight?

a. Weight of chocks
b. Weight of Ballast
c. Weight of a jack
34. If the CG is located at 30% of MAC and the LEMAC is at station 1010, in what station would you find
the CG if the MAC is 100 inches?
a. Station 980
b. Station 1010
c. Station 1040
d. Station 1400
35. The point on the scale at which the weight of the aircraft is said to be concentrated
a. Center of gravity
b. Weighing point
c. Both options are correct
36. What does it mean when you compute for the C.G. and the result is a negative number?
a. It means that the C.G. is located forward of the datum
b. It means that the C.G. is located aft of the datum
c. It means that the C.G. has exceeded the forward or aft C.G. limits
d. It means that the computation is wrong
37. Which of the following are considered part of the payload?

a. The weight of the fuel and oil
b. The weight of non-revenue passengers
c. The weight of the pilot and crewmembers
38. Zero fuel weight is

a. Take-off weight minus Fuel load
b. Basic Operating weight plus payload
c. Both options are correct
39. A nose heavy aircraft is balanced by adding weight at the ______ cargo compartment
a. Forward
b. Center
c. Aft
d. No additional weight will solve a nose heavy condition
40. What will be the weight condition of a modern aircraft if all seats are occupied, full baggage weight is
carried, and all fuel tanks are full?
a. It will be in excess of maximum takeoff weight
b. It will be at maximum basic operating weight (BOW)
c. It will be at maximum taxi or ramp weight
d. It will be in normal weight capacity
41. What tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight?
a. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
b. Remove all items on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight
c. Remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list; drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir
42. What determines whether the value of a moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in
aircraft weight and balance?
a. The location of the weight in reference to the datum
b. The result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum
c. The location of the datum in reference to the aircraft CG
d. The moment calculated will always be positive
43. The useful load of an aircraft consists of the
a. Crew, usable fuel, passengers, and cargo
b. Crew, usable fuel, oil, and fixed equipment
c. Crew, passengers, usable fuel, oil, cargo, and fixed equipment
d. Crew, Passengers, oil, cargo, fixed equipment, usable and unusable fuel
44. Zero fuel weight is the

a. Dry weight plus the weight of full crew, passengers, and cargo
b. Basic operating weight without crew, fuel, and cargo
c. Maximum permissible weight of a loaded aircraft (passengers, crew, and cargo) without fuel
45. An aircraft's LEMAC and TEMAC are defined in terms of distance

a. From the datum
b. From each other
c. Ahead of and behind the wing center of lift, respectively
d. Ahead of and behind the center of gravity, respectively
46. When computing the maximum forward loaded CG of an aircraft, minimum weights, arms, and
moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the
a. Aft CG limit
b. Forward CG limit
c. Datum
d. LEMAC
47. A dead weight, usually sandbags, installed in the aircraft to maintain the desired balance is called
a. Gross weight
b. Tare weight
c. Ballast
d. Chocks
48. The aircraft condition wherein the center of gravity is located forward of the forward C.G. limit
a. Nose heavy
b. Tail heavy
c. Overloaded
d. Normal
49. How can you find the balance point of an aircraft?

a. Divide the total weight by the total moment.
b. Divide the total moment by the the total arm.
c. Divide the total moment by the total weight.
d. Multiply the total weight by the total arm.
50. The maximum weight as used in weight and balance control of a given aircraft can normally be found
a. By adding the of full fuel, oil, pilot, passengers, and maximum allowable baggage to the empty weight.
b. By adding the empty weight and payload.
c. In the Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.
Gas Turbine Engine:
51. “For every force, there’s an equal and opposite reaction”
a. Newton’s First Law of Motion
b. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
c. Newton’s Third Law of Motion
d. None of the choices are correct
52. In the P-V diagram of the Brayton Cycle, which parameter is constant?
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Temperature
d. Entropy
53. Provided the engine speed is kept constant, which condition would increase Thrust?
a. Increase in ambient Temperature
b. Increase in ambient Pressure
c. Decrease in air density
d. Increase in Altitude
54. Which of the following condition would produce the highest thrust?
a. high acceleration of a small amount of air
b. low acceleration of a large amount of air
c. high acceleration of a large amount of air
d. low acceleration of a small amount of air
55. Which Thrust rating is allowed for a limited time only?

a. Maximum Take-off Thrust
b. Maximum Climb Thrust
c. Maximum Cruise Thrust
d. Maximum Idle Thrust
56. On a twin spool engine, where would the air go next after the combustor?
a. LPC
b. HPC
c. LPT
d. HPT
57. On a twin-spool engine, which is commonly rotated by the last stage turbine?
a. The fan
b. LPC and the Fan
c. HPC and accessories
d. LPC and HPC
58. Which thermodynamic cycle explains how a turbojet engine operates?

a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Brayton cycle
d. Diesel Cycle
59. Which parameter/s is/are used to represent thrust on most dual-spool gas turbine engines?
a. N1
b. N2
c. N1 or EPR
60. It is the ratio of the mass of secondary air to the mass of primary air
a. Bypass ratio
b. Stoichiometric ratio
c. Aspect ratio
d. Relative wind ratio
61. What is the main advantage of centrifugal flow compressor over axial flow compressor?
a. The drag
b. The over-all pressure ratio
c. The number of stages
d. The increase in pressure per stage
62. Which compressor control system component protects the LPC by venting the air during low power
operation?
a. VSV
b. VBV
c. LP compressor bleed valve
d. All of the above
63. What happens to the air when it passes through a turbine nozzle guide vane?
a. It slows down due to the convergent shape
b. It speeds up due to the convergent shape
c. It slows down due to the divergent shape
d. It speeds up due to the divergent shape
64. Which statement is true with regards to thrust reversers?

a. Thrust reversers are used to fly in the reverse direction
b. Full Reverse thrust can be applied immediately after touchdown
c. Thrust reversers can be applied on just one engine for turning
d. Thrust reversers are used to assist the brakes in stopping the aircraft on ground
65. Which component of the lubrication system triggers a warning when system pressure drops below a
specified level?
a. The pressure transmitter
b. The pressure switch
c. The bypass filter
d. All of the above
66. Fuel with high flash point

a. Provides good ignition capabilities
b. Is safe for handling
c. Has low freezing point
67. What prevents fuel from vaporizing inside the tanks when the aircraft is at high altitude?
a. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from the engine
b. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from ram air
c. Negative air pressure on the top surface of the fuel from the pneumatic system
d. Negative pressure on the top surface of the fuel from ram air
68. Which accessory is not found in an APU?
a. Fuel pump
b. Oil pump
c. Electric generator
d. Hydraulic pump
69. Which cooling method is used to protect the inner liner from the intense heat of the combustion
gases?
a. Impingement cooling
b. Splash cooling
c. Film cooling
70. Which component prevents cavitation at the inlet of the high pressure fuel pump?
a. Fuel boost pumps in the tank
b. Low pressure fuel pump
c. LP fuel shut-off valve
71. Which control lever is used to open the fuel valves and starts the ignition?
a. Forward thrust lever
b. Start lever
c. Reverse thrust lever
72. Which group of engine indications helps detect problems at an early stage?
a. Performance indication
b. System indication
c. Engine trend monitoring
73. What does the thrust reverser interlock system do?

a. It prevents deployment of the reverser if the opposite reverser does not deploy
b. It prevents the engine from increasing power until the reverser is fully deployed
c. It prevents the reverser from deploying while in flight
74. Which statement is true with regards to heat exchangers?

a. Air is used to cool the oil
b. Fuel heats up while the oil cools down
c. Oil heats up while the fuel cools down
d. Fuel and oil mixes inside a heat exchanger then separates when it leaves
75. Which type of jet engine incorporates movable vanes that cause an intermittent entry of air inside
the engine?
a. Gas turbine engine
b. Rocket
c. Pulse jet
d. Ram jet
76. What happens to pressure of supersonic air when it flows through a convergent nozzle?
a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains constant
d. It fluctuates
77. When the engine is running on ground and the aircraft is not moving, what would be the pressure at
the inlet section?
a. Lower than ambient
b. Higher than ambient
c. Same as ambient
d. Inlet pressure is always higher than ambient
78. How is anti-ice performed on the air intake nose?

a. By electrical heaters
b. By pneumatic boots
c. By spraying anti-ice fluid
d. By spraying hot gas
79. How are compressor stages counted?

a. Counting a rotor followed by a stator is one compressor stage
b. Counting a stator followed by a rotor is one compressor stage
c. One blade whether it’s a rotor or a stator is one compressor stage
d. A pair of rotor and stator is one compressor stage no matter which one is counted first
80. What are the two main elements of a centrifugal flow compressor?
a. Rotor and stator
b. Impeller and diffuser
c. Rotor and diffuser
d. Impeller and rotor
81. What type of damage may happen on turbine rotor blades because of high temperature and high
centrifugal forces?
a. Elongation
b. Cavitation
c. Erosion
d. Creep
82. Which component experiences the highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine?
a. Combustor
b. Ignition Plug
c. Fuel Nozzle
d. Turbine Inlet Nozzle Guide Vane
83. During engine deceleration or shutdown, which would contract first, the rotors or the casing?
a. The rotors because of the reduction in centrifugal force
b. The rotors because of the thermal contraction
c. The casing because of the reduction in centrifugal force
d. The casing because of the thermal contraction
84. What type of air seals are usually used on turbofan engines?
a. Labyrinth seals
b. Carbon seals
c. Both a and b are correct
85. What happens to viscosity when the temperature increases?

a. It increases
b. It decreases
c. It remains the same
d. temperature change does not affect viscosity
86. Which statement is true with regards to mixing of fuel and water?
a. Water and fuel separates at low temperature
b. Water and fuel separates at high temperature
c. Water is always dissolved when mixed with fuel
d. Fuel is heavier than water
87. Which air-fuel ratio allows complete combustion?

a. 13:1
b. 15:1
c. 1:15
d. 1:13
88. What happens to the fuel coming from the HP pump of the fuel control unit?
a. It all goes to the combustion
b. Part of it goes to combustion while the excess goes back to the tank
c. Part of it goes to combustion while the excess goes back to the pump
89. On a twin spool engine, which turbine usually has active clearance control system?
a. HPC
b. LPT
c. HPT
d. All of the above
90. A start that failed to produce combustion due to faulty ignition

a. Hung start
b. Hot start
c. Dry start
d. Wet start
91. Which statement is true with regards to the speed of a dual spool gas turbine engine?
a. Fan speed is represented by N2
b. Fan speed and core speed is the same
c. Fan speed is faster than core speed
d. Core speed is faster than fan speed
92. Which statement is true with regards to the accessory gear box?
a. Engine core rotor rotation is transferred to the horizontal driveshaft via the transfer gearbox
b. Radial drive shaft directly connects to the accessory gearbox
c. Horizontal drive shaft transfers the rotation to the radial drive shaft via the transfer gearbox
d. Engine core rotor rotation is transferred to the radial driveshaft via the transfer gearbox
93. The engine component that controls servo fuel pressure to the VBV actuator
a. The ECU
b. The servo motor
c. The servo valve
d. The HMU
94. Symbol used to represent the highest gas pressure in a gas turbine engine
a. Ps12
b. Pt2
c. Ps3
d. Pt5
95. Pump used to suck the oil from the users in a dry sump lubricating system
a. Supply pump
b. Scavenge pump
c. Lubrication unit
96. Which statement is true with regards to oil filters?

a. Supply filters have a bypass valve
b. Supply filters are located in the return line
c. Supply filters give a warning when the filter is clogged
d. Scavenge filter will allow unfiltered oil to pass thru if the filter is clogged
97. Which indication would show that the HP fuel valve is open?
a. The LP valve position is always the same as the HP valve position
b. The HP valve position is shown in the Primary display
c. The light on the controls
d. The fuel flow transmitter
98. Which statement is true with regards to the VSV?

a. All stators in the HPC are VSV
b. VSVs from different stages move at different angles
c. VSVs are located on the aft stages of the LPC
d. VSVs are located on the forward stages of the HPC
99. Which parameters are used for the Compressor Control System?
a. Rotor speed
b. Compressor Inlet Temperature
c. Both rotor speed and compressor inlet temperature
100. Which thrust reverser is used by turbo prop engines?

a. Pivoting door
b. Translating Cowl
c. Bucket type
d. Reverse Pitch
Answers:
1. A 51. C
2. C 52. A
3. B 53. B
4. D 54. C
5. C 55. A
6. D 56. D
7. A 57. B
8. A 58. C
9. D 59. C
10. C 60. A
11. A 61. D
12. A 62. B
13. A 63. B
14. C 64. D
15. A 65. B
16. A 66. B
17. B 67. B
18. B 68. D
19. B 69. C
20. C 70. B
21. C 71. B
22. C 72. C
23. C 73. B
24. D 74. B
25. D 75. C
26. A 76. A
27. A 77. A
28. B 78. D
29. A 79. A
30. C 80. B
31. A 81. D
32. C 82. D
33. B 83. A
34. C 84. C
35. B 85. B
36. A 86. A
37. B 87. B
38. C 88. C
39. C 89. C
40. A 90. D
41. C 91. D
42. B 92. C
43. A 93. D
44. A 94. C
45. A 95. B
46. B 96. D
47. C 97. D
48. A 98. D
49. C 99. C
50. C 100. D
Chapter 6 - Rules of the Air
When, in airspace where VFR is C

permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight
wishes to continue the flight in
accordance with VFR until
destination:
1. the pilot must inform the control
unit of his intention using the
expression "cancelling my IFR
flight".
2. the pilot must request and obtain
clearance to continue under VFR.
3. the pilot must communicate the
necessary changes to the current
flight plan.
4. the flight plan automatically
becomes a VFR flight.
Which of the following

combinations is correct?
a. 2 and 3.
b. 2 and 4.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 and 4.

An aircraft flying in the visual circuit B
at an aerodrome sees a series of
red flashes from the control tower.
What does this mean?
a. Do not land.
b. Do not land because the
aerodrome is unusable.
c. Give way to other aircraft.
d. Return for landing and await
clearance to land.
An aircraft has flight visibility of 3 C

km, and is heading 355° T in an area
where the variation is 6° west. There
is no appreciable wind. Which of
the following is the appropriate
flight level?
a. FL60.
b. FL65.
c. FL70.
d. FL75.
An aircraft is converging from the B

left. Which light will you see first?
a. Red.
b. Green.
c. Blue.
d. White.
What letter goes in item 8 of a B

flight plan for a flight starting under
IFR then changing to VFR?
a. Z
b. Y
c. I
d. V

What are the VMC limits for class B D
airspace?
a. 8 km flight visibility, clear of
cloud and in sight of the surface.
b. 8 km flight visibility, 1000 ft
vertically and 1500 m horizontally
from cloud.
c. 5 km flight visibility, 1000 ft
vertically and 1500 m horizontally
from cloud.
d. The same as class D.
When is a flight plan required? A

a. For IFR flight in advisory
airspace.
b. For all IFR flights.
c. For all flights in controlled
airspace.
d. For all VFR and SVFR flights in
controlled airspace.
Whilst airborne in the vicinity of the B

aerodrome, you see a flashing
green light from the Tower. What
does this mean?
a. Cleared to land.
b. Return for landing and await
clearance to land.
c. Give way to other landing
aircraft.
d. Land at this aerodrome after
receiving clearance to land and
proceed to the apron.

You see a double white cross in a A
signal square, what does this
mean?
a. Glider flying in progress.
b. Tow ropes and banners may be
dropped.
c. Runway unfit for aircraft
movement.
d. Aerodrome unfit for aircraft
movement.
You are taxiing on the maneuvering B

area of an aerodrome and see a
flashing green light from the tower.
What does it mean?
a. Return to start point.
b. Clear to taxi.
c. Clear to take off.
d. Stop.
You have been intercepted in the D

airspace of a foreign contracting
state. What is the signal for 'clear to
proceed' from the intercepting
aircraft?
a. Rocking wings.
b. Flashing lights.
c. Cut across track.
d. Breaking turn up and left.
Which has priority to land? B

a. A hospital flight.
b. An emergency.
c. A military flight.
d. A VIP flight.

What does a double horizontal A
white cross on an aerodrome
indicate?
a. Glider flying in progress.
b. Runway unfit for use.
c. Light aircraft may taxi on the
grass.
d. Runway to be used for take-off
but aircraft may taxi on the grass.
Which of these is not a distress D

frequency?
1. 121.5 MHz
2. 2182 kHz
3. 243.0 kHz
4. 2430 kHz
a. 4 only.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 2, 3 and 4.
d. 3 and 4.
If you are intercepted by another D

aircraft, what do you set on the SSR
transponder?
a. A/2000 + C.
b. A/7500 + C.
c. A/7600 + C.
d. A/7700 + C.
You are taxiing an aircraft on the B

ground at an aerodrome and you
see a flashing red light from the
tower. What does it mean?
a. Stop.
b. Taxi clear of the landing area.
c. Give way to approaching aircraft.
d. You are not clear to take off.
Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating D
in a CTR under an ATC clearance.
Aircraft B is entering the CTR
without clearance. As they
converge, which one has the right
of way?
a. B has right of way regardless of
aircraft type and position.
b. A has right of way regardless of
aircraft type and position.
c. A has right of way if B is on the
right.
d. B has right of way if A is on the
left.
What minimum ground visibility is B

required to enable a SVFR flight to
take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?
a. 1000 m
b. 1500 m
c. 2000 m
d. 3000 m
If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR C

flight plan and proceed under VFR
in VMC, he/she must inform ATC
and include the phrase:
a. "cancelling my flight plan".
b. "cancelling my flight".
c. "cancelling my IFR flight".
d. "cancelling my IMC flight plan".

What signal from a marshaller to a C
pilot indicates "apply brakes"?
a. Waving the arms across the face.
b. Drawing the palm across the
throat.
c. Clenching a raised fist.
d. Holding both arms up with palms
facing forward.
ATC has given you the transponder A

code of A/5320. In case of a radio
failure in flight you must squawk:
a. A/7600 + Mode C.
b. A/0020 + Mode C.
c. A/5300 + Mode C.
d. A/7620 + Mode C.
For a controlled flight, a flight plan B

must be filed before departure at
least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block
time.
Which Mode A code must be used B

to make sure that your aircraft is
recognized as an aircraft in
distress?
a. Code 7500
b. Code 7700
c. Code 7000
d. Code 7600

An aircraft which is intercepted by A
another aircraft must immediately
try to contact the intercepting
aircraft on the following
frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz and/or 243.0 MHz.
b. 121.5 MHz and/or 282.8 MHz.
c. 121.5 MHz and/or 125.5 MHz.
d. 243.0 MHz and/or 125.5 MHz.
Your aircraft is intercepted by a C

military aircraft. Instructions given
by this aircraft do not comply with
ATC instructions. You should:
a. select code 7500 A on your
transponder.
b. ask ATC for different instructions.
c. comply with instructions given by
the intercepting aircraft.
d. comply with ATC instructions.
A pilot crosses his/her hands in C

front of the face, palms outwards
and then moves the arms outwards.
What does this signal indicate?
a. Clear to move forward.
b. Brakes off.
c. Remove chocks.
d. Clear to close all engines.

A red flare fired at a flying aircraft B
means:
a. do not land, the aerodrome is
unfit.
b. notwithstanding any previous
instructions, do not land for the
time being.
c. return to the aerodrome for
landing.
d. give way to another aircraft and
continue to circle.
In order to avoid confusion, the A

identification numbers given to
each prohibited, restricted and
danger area shall not be re-used
for a period of:
a. at least 12 months after the
cancellation of the area referred to.
b. at least 6 months after the
c. at least 3 months after the
d. at least 2 months after the
When an aircraft has been A

subjected to unlawful interference,
the pilot may wish to indicate the
fact by squawking which SSR
code?
a. 7500
b. 7700
c. 7600
d. 7000

Which of the following procedures B
would a pilot follow in the event of
communications failure whilst
under IFR in VMC?
a. Return to the aerodrome of
departure.
b. Continue the flight whilst
maintaining VMC and land as soon
as possible.
c. Continue the flight at the
assigned level and route and start
the approach at the stated ETA.
d. Maintain the assigned level and
route and land at the nearest
aerodrome that is reporting VMC.
If so equipped, when should an D

aircraft display the anti-collision
light?
a. Only at night in flight, but not on
the ground if being towed.
b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst
being towed.
c. Only at night with engines
running.
d. At all times on the ground when
the engines are running.

The 'estimated elapsed time' in field D
16 of a flight plan for a VFR flight is
the estimated time:
a. From which the aircraft first
moves under its own power until it
finally comes to rest after landing.
b. From brakes release at take-off
until landing.
c. At cruising level taking into
account temperature and pressure
for that day.
d. From take-off until overhead the
destination aerodrome.
What is the minimum vertical C

separation between IFR flights
flying in the same direction below
FL 290?
a. 500 ft
b. 1000 ft
c. 2000 ft
d. 4000 f
The cruising speed entered in item B

15 of a flight plan is:
a. TAS.
b. TAS or Mach No.
c. IAS or TAS.
d. TAS at 65% engine power.

What action is required by the pilot A
of an aircraft flying in the vicinity of
an aerodrome to indicate that the
aircraft is experiencing radio failure
or another difficulty that requires
immediate landing but no other
assistance?
a. The repeated switching on and
off of the landing lights.
b. Switching the landing lights on
and off three times.
c. Switching the landing lights on
and off four times.
d. Switching the navigation lights
on and off three times.
A position report shall contain the C

following information in the order
listed?
a. Aircraft identification, position,
time, true airspeed, flight level or
altitude, next position and time
over.
b. Aircraft identification, position,
time, flight level or altitude, next
position and time over.
c. Aircraft identification, position,
time, flight level or altitude, next
position and time over, ensuing
position.
d. Aircraft identification, position,
flight level or altitude, next position
and time over, ensuing position and
time over

What defines EET for an IFR flight? A
a. from time of take-off until
overhead the IAF.
b. from time of take-off until
overhead the destination
aerodrome.
c. from push back until overhead
the IAF.
d. from push back until overhead
the destination aerodrome.
A DISTRESS message differs from A

an URGENCY message because:
a. there is grave and imminent
danger which requires immediate
assistance.
b. the aeroplane has suffered
damage that endangers the ability
to fly.
c. the aeroplane will not be able to
reach a suitable aerodrome.
d. the situation concerns the safety
of passengers on board or within
sight.
If radio contact with an D

intercepting aircraft is established
but not in a common language,
what would the pilot of an
intercepted aircraft say, if he/she is
unable to comply with the
instruction from the interceptor?
a. "KAN NOTT KOMPLY"
b. "UNN-ABOL TOO KOMPLY"
c. "NOTT POSS ABOL"
d. "KANN NOTT"

Which of the following flight has C
the highest priority to land?
a. VIP flight.
b. Hospital flight.
c. Emergency aircraft.
d. Military aircraft.
What letter is put in item 8 of a A

flight plan to indicate that a flight is
to begin under IFR and finish under
VFR?
a. Y
b. I
c. V
d. Z
A white dumb-bell with black B

perpendicular bars indicates that:
a. glider flying is being conducted
outside the landing area.
b. landing and take-off is restricted
to the runways but taxiing is not
confined to the pavement areas.
c. this aerodrome is using parallel
runways.
d. taxiing is confined to the
taxiways.
If an ATC clearance is not suitable, B

the PIC may:
a. offer ATC an acceptable
alternative.
b. request and if practicable accept
an amended clearance.
c. demand an alternative clearance
and ATC must comply.
d. decline the clearance on the
grounds that it is not in accordance
Chapter 6 -flight
with the filed Rules
plan.of the Air
What letter is put in item 8 of a D
flight plan to indicate that a flight is
to begin under VFR and finish
under IFR?
a. Y
b. I
c. V
d. Z
Who has final authority as to the C

disposition of an aircraft during
flight time?
a. The owner.
b. The Operator.
c. The Commander.
d. The ATC controller.
The vertical separation minima for D

IFR flights in CAS applied by ATC
above FL290 is:
a. 500 ft.
b. 1000 ft.
c. 2000 ft.
d. 1000 ft if RVSM is applied
otherwise 2000 ft.

Unless authorized by ATC, a VFR B
flight is not permitted to take off
from an aerodrome within a CTR
when:
a. cloud ceiling is less than 1000 ft
and ground visibility is less than 5
km.
b. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 ft
km.
c. cloud ceiling is less than 1000 ft
km.
d. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 ft
km.
An aircraft is flying over the sea B

between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL
and outside CAS. To continue
under VFR the meteorological
conditions must remain:
a. 2000 ft horizontally and 1000 ft
vertically from cloud with visibility
of 8 km.
b. 1500 m horizontally and 1000 ft
of 5 km.
c. 1500 m horizontally and 1000 m
of 5 km.
d. clear of cloud and in sight of the
surface, with visibility of 5 km.

A change in flight rules from IFR to A
VFR will only take place:
a. when initiated by the PIC.
b. when ordered by ATC.
c. at a point specified by the
operator.
d. when the aircraft leaves CAS in
VMC.
An aircraft is overtaking another C

aircraft if it is closing to the other
aircraft from behind in a sector:
a. 50° either side of the longitudinal
axis.
b. 60° either side of the longitudinal
axis.
c. 70° either side of the longitudinal
axis.
d. 80° either side of the
longitudinal axis.

When may a Repetitive Flight Plan A
be submitted?
a. When flights are operated on the
same day(s) of consecutive weeks
and on at least 10 occasions or
every day over a period of at least
10 consecutive days.
b. When flights are operated on the
10 consecutive days.
c. When flights are operated on the
7 consecutive days.
d. When flights are operated on the
7 consecutive days.
Professione Volare Domande Air Law and ATC
Data:
Nome Allievo:
168) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a 171) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for
controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a the provision of approach control service is:
clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under
certain conditions A To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
A The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km B To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
B The air traffic controller will provide separation to other C To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between
controlled traffic IFR and VFR flights.
C Continued approach will be according to VFR D To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
D The approach must be passing the FAF

176) Alert phase is defined as follows:
161) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives

a series of red flashes from the control tower. This A A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel
signifies that the aircraft must : on board is exhausted.
A not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. B A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of
an aircraft and its occupants.
B not land because the airport is not available for landing.
C An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be threatened by a danger.
C give way to another aircraft.
D A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are
D return to land and that clearance to land will be considered to be in a state of emergency.
communicated in due
course.
169) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence
shall not be less than :
174) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) A 17 years of age
AMSL, is :
B 16 years of age
A Not applicable
C 18 years of age
B 250 KT IAS
D 21 years of age
C 250 KT TAS
D 240 KT IAS
177) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
interference?
173) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or
more) and the short-term extensive or graphical A Code 7600.
information are published as follows:
B Code 2000.
A NOTAM
C Code 7500.
B Trigger NOTAM
D Code 7700.
C AIP Supplements
D AIP Amendments
167) The closure of a runway for a year, because of
maintenance, will be published :
172) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 A only in NOTAM
shall identify:
B only in AIP
A The width of the aircraft wing.
C NOTAM, AIP and MAL
B The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
D in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
C The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
D Only the aircraft wing span.
166) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of 170) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
the intermediate approach segment in an instrument Tokyo by notification addressed
approach procedure?
A the other Contracting States
A 450m (1476 ft).
B United Nations
B 600m (1968 ft).
C to all States Members of United Nations
C 150m (492 ft).
D International Civile Aviation Organisation
D 300m (984 ft).
184) At what moment during the approach should the

165) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
criterion):
B When passing the transition level
A +/- 150 ft.
C When passing the transition altitude
B +/- 250 ft.
D Within the transition layer
C +/- 300 ft.
D +/- 200 ft.

129) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C.
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance
to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
164) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL
classified as B, is : 140 or below can be expected ?
A 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL A When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
and clear of clouds
B When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 70
and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
C When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of
clouds
D When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended
through FL 130
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500
m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
190) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its

current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
163) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for: A it is a deviation from the track.
A 1minute 30 seconds. B the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in
the flightplan.
B 2 minutes.
C of an emergency.
C 1 minute.
D the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
D 1 minute 15 seconds.
189) "Cabotage" refers to:
192) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be

turned off, provided that they can be again brought into A domestic air services ;
operation :
B a national air carrier;
A At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
C a flight above territorial waters;
B At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D crop spraying
C At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
188) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for 160) The convention signed by the states and moved by a
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids desire to endure adequate compensation for persons
permit frequent determination of position and speed who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true aircraft is :
air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be A the Tokyo Convention
A 10 minutes B the Rome Convention
B 2 minutes C the Warsaw Convention
C 5 minutes D the Paris Convention
D 3 minutes
183) A contracting state which continues to require the
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the
187) When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as information indicated in the heading of the format of the
a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when cargo manifest, not require more than the following
the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an item(s) :
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying,
but as far in advance as possible and: A The air waybill number; the number of packages related to
each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
A At least immediately before landing.
B The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
B At least 30 minute prior to land.
C The air waybill number and the number of packages related
C At least one hour prior to land. to the air way bill number
D At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.

D The air waybill number
182) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

175) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A the first part of the segment ;

A Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and
transponder codes.
B the outside part of the segment where the obstacle B Read back should be unsolicited.
clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
C A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal

C Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
D Read back those parts containing level assignments,
D the most critical part of the segment where the minimum vectors or any part requiring verification.
altitude should be kept very carefully;
181) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

185) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers
some supplementary safeguards are to be observed
such as :
A Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
A the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion B Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for
the time being.
B the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
C Come back and land.
C boarding prior to all passengers D Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
D boarding after to all other passengers
180) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it

approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than :
A 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
B 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
179) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the 142) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared
radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar under the procedure applicable to :
approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, at a distance of: A accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs
procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other
A 1 NM from touchdown. cargo
B 2 NM from touchdown. B cargo and is covered by a traffic document
C 3 NM from touchdown. C cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
D 2.5 NM from touchdown. D cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be
completed by the passenger prior to shipment
178) The transition level:

141) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers
given to each prohibited area, restricted area and
A Is published on the approach and landing chart for each danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
aerodrome
A At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they
B Is calculated by the commander refer
C Will be distributed via NOTAM B At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
D Is calculated by ATS
C At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
186) The convention on offences and certain acts committed D At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they
on board aircraft, is : refer
A the convention of Tokyo

140) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established
B the convention of Paris for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating,
including :
C the convention of Rome
A All self.-sustaining gliders.
D the convention of Chicago
B All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with
a turbojet engine.
136) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot C Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic
licence-aeroplane shall be : control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
A to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in D Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
operations other than commercial air transportation
B to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in

139) Which of the following is obligating for members of
commercial air transportation
ICAO ?
C to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for
A ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and
single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation any suspended validity of such licenses
D none of the answers are correct B ICAO must be informed about differences from the
standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international

162) Aerodromes signs should be in the following airline connections
configuration :
D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national
A mandatory instruction signs; black background with red regulations
inscriptions.
B information signs; yellow or black background with black or

yellow inscriptions.
C mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black

inscriptions.
D information signs; orange background with black

inscriptions.
144) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering 133) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A air traffic coordination centres. A 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
B control centres only.
B 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
C air traffic control and flight information centers. concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
D search and rescue coordination centres.
C 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
137) When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions,
pilots shall: D 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
A Read back only the code to be set. approaches may be made.
B Read back the mode and code to be set.

132) We can distinguish two types of departure routes.
C Use only the word ROGER. During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within :
D Use only the word WILCO.
A 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
145) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft

B 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
established on the localizer course shall be:
C 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
A 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
D 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
C 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 131) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
D 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, is:
A 15 minutes.
135) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago
convention contains minimum specifications for the
design of aerodromes?
B 3 minutes.
A Annex 6 C 10 minutes.
B Annex 11 D 5 minutes.
C Annex 10
1) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
D Annex 14 classified as C has to maintain the following minima of
flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

134) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
containing standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is : B 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A Annex 1
C 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of
B Annex 2 clouds
C Annex 11 D 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
D Annex 12
138) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate 156) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at
cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
given in the flight plan by plus or minus: A the pilot is following the published approach procedure
A 5% B all mentioned answers are correct
B 3% C the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and
will keep it in sight;
C 2%
D the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
D 10 %
155) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an

area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear
152) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft (free of clouds), when it totally loses
departed from the same aerodrome and following the radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
A 3 minutes. B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received

clearances then with filed flight plan.
B 10 minutes.
C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest
airfield open to IFR operations
C 2 minutes.
D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air
D 5 minutes. Traffic Services of landing
159) The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the 143) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area
transition level will be reported : extends the buffer area?
A as flight level. A 3 km.
B as height. B 5 NM.
C as altitude. C 3 NM.
D According to pilot's choice. D 5 km.
158) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in- 153) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum
VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway
equals:
A When seems possible to land
A 0 ft.
B When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and
with the runway lights in sight B 3.3 % gradient.
C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight C 35 ft.
D When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with D 0.8 % gradient.
the runway in sight yet
193) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be

157) Except in some special cases the establishment of prescribed
change-over points should be limited to route segments
of A by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
A 60 NM or more B by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
B 75 NM or more
C by regional air navigation agreements
C 50 NM or more D by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
D 100 NM or more
151) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a 147) Two minutes separation may be used between departing
departing aircraft may take off in any direction aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
A until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to A The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the
be over the instrument runway following aircraft.
B until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to B The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the
C until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to C The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the
D until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to D The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the
150) When a member state allows police officers, security 146) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant
staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the
carry weapons in their territory for the protection of privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons
should be conditional upon : A 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5
landings as pilot in command
A Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign
state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of B 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision landings as pilot in command
to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
C 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
B Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
D 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3
C Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state landings as pilot in command
of destination
D Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport 154) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this
of arrival marking shall commence at :
A 450 m from threshold

149) The runway edge lights shall be :
B 600 m from threshold
A white
C 300 m from threshold
B blue
D 150 m from threshold
C green
D red 232) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
A to the left
148) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall B in a direction depending on the entry ;
be:
A 3.5 NM.
C in a direction depending on the wind direction
B 5.0 NM.
D to the right
C 3.0 NM.
D 10.0 NM.
225) The pilot in command of an aircraft: 235) What will be your action if you can not comply with a
standard holding pattern?
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received
from ATC. A Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. B inform the ATC immediately and request a revised
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to clearance.
comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory C a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the

D it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern
at pilots discretion.
correct statements?
A 2-3-5
240) Given:
B 3-5
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
C 3-4-5 FL = flight level
D 1-4 within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR

must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two
levels:
238) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving
aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall
A 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ? B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
B medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes D 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

233) The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent
D medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes collisions with terrain.
A Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

237) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR
flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: B Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
A Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or C Prevent collisions with terrain
aircraft stations.
D Do not prevent collisions with terrain
B Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
C Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or

241) The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and
aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details
required 2 times. buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
called:
D Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the
termination of the flight to ATC. A Security program.
B Manoeuvring area.
236) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications
shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: C Terminal.
A 7700. D Aeronautical part
B 7600.
C 2000.
D 7500.
231) According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the 227) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States,
"Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field which are not engaged in schedule international
length of: services, and which are making flights across the
territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non
A 1 500 m. traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate
B 1 200 m. advance notification. This information is to be received :
C 1 800 m and over.

A at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
D 1 600 m.
B at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
230) Flight information service shall be provided to all D at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information
and which are:
A Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise 191) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
known to the relevant air traffic service units.
B Provided with air traffic control services, only. A one year
C Known to the relevant air traffic services units. B two years
D Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed C The period of validity of the licence.
flight plan.
D Indefinitely
229) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight

tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B 234) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
envelope, is:
A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
A 120 kt stopway (if stopway provided) .
B 125 kt
B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway
available (if stopway provided).
C 150 kt C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway and clearway (if provided) .
D 135 kt
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway.
228) Runway threshold lights shall be:
248) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot

A Fixed lights showing green or white colours. performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of command shall be entitled to be credit :
approach to the runway.
A the flight time towards the total time required for higher
C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of
approach to the runway. the licensing authority
D Fixed lights green colours. B 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
C in full with his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
D in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the
total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
255) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, 251) When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be
the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by identified by one of the following procedures:
setting the transponder to:
A Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate
A 7500. transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
B 7700. B To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
C 7600. C To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
D 7000. D To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
254) For a category I precision approach, the decision height 239) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
cannot be lower than : interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
A 150 ft communicate with ATS shall try to:
B 100 ft
A Declare an emergency
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in

C 200 ft
order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
D 250 ft
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule
with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
253) Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle

A ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors
and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has
been lost.
249) Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
B Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and
radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated. A At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the FIX.
C Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive
B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar
facility. the FIX.
D You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
service has been terminated or that radar contact has been from the FIX.
lost.
D At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the fix.
252) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable

grounds to believe that a person has commited or is
about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense 224) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in
VMC you have two way communication failure?
against penal law
A may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew

A Return to the aerodrome of departure.
members
B Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as
B may deliver such person to the competent authorities practicable.
C may request such person to disembark C Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start
approach at your ETA.
D may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such D Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the
person nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
247) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway 242) When a RADAR operator says the following to an
shall be: aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
A Fixed lights showing blue. A 030° true
B Fixed lights showing yellow. B 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
C Fixed lights showing white. C 030° magnetic
D Fixed lights showing green. D 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the
magnetic track)
246) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are

permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control 250) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder
service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights operating in an area distant from designated medical
and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion
VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all of the licence authority, provided that such deferment
other flights, is classified as : shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A Airspace A A A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
B Airspace D
B Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a
flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
C Airspace B commercial operations.
D Airspace E C A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations.
245) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the D Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a
outbound track is performed from the start of the turn flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
for categories C, D, E aircraft for: commercial operations.
A 1 minute 15 seconds.
200) The transition level:
B 1 minute.
C 1 minute 30 seconds. A shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition
altitude that has been established
D 2 minutes.
B shall be the highest available flight level below the transition
altitude that has been established
244) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a C for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
controlled flight at least:
D is calculated and decided by the commander
A 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 60 minutes prior to departure.

226) Turning departures provide track guidance within :
C 10 minutes prior to departure.

A 15 Km
D 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 20 Km
243) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of C 10 Km

an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall
be entitled to be credit with not more than : D 5 Km
A 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time

required for a higher grade of pilot licence
B 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
C 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot

licence
D 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
206) The color identification of the contents of droppable 201) Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for
containers and packages containing survival equipment flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to consecutive weeks and :
the following code:
A On at least 20 days consecutively
A Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
B On at least 20 occasions
B Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
C On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
C Blue for blankets and protective clothing. least ten consecutive days
D Black for food and water. D On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
least 20 consecutive days
205) The color identification of the contents of droppable

209) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
containers and packages containing survival equipment
classified as B has to maintain the following minima of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
flight visibility and distance from clouds
the following code:
A Black for miscellaneous equipment.

A 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds
B Blue for blankets and protective clothing. B 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal
and 300 m vertical from clouds
C Red for food and water.
C 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. clouds
D 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
204) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences

aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th
birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : 199) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 12 months to 6 months
A 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
B 12 months to 3 months
B 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
C 24 months to 12 months
C 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a
course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
D none of the answers are correct
D 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
203) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision

light:
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
A outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR
when it is being towed; flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in
B while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
C outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the A Airspace E

daylight-period this is not applicable;
D on the ground when the engines are running

B Airspace B
C Airspace C
208) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which D Airspace D

causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action
must be taken?
A Squawk 7700
B The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action

taken as soon as circumstances permit
C Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
D Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
197) The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight 216) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose
plan is the estimated time : of:
A required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own A Providing advisory service
power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
B required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until
landing.
C Achieving separation between IFR flights
C of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure
and temperature on that day. D Providing flight Information Service
D required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the

destination airport. 223) Contracting states shall carry out the handling,
forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as prescribed :
196) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :
A by the Regional Postal Office
A 18 years
B in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
B 21 years
C by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
C 17 years
D by IATA and accepted by ICAO
D 16 years
222) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance

using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and
195) The informations on holding, approach and departure track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track"
procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining
simultaneous DME readings, is :
A AD
A 40 NM
B MAP
B 20 NM
C ENR
C 10 NM
D GEN
D 25 NM
194) In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with
"location indicators"? 221) When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C
equipment, the pilot:
A GEN
A Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise
B AGA directed by ATC.
C ENR B Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by

ATC.
D AD
C Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC
instructions.
202) Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC D Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no is within controlled airspace.
ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has
the right of way? 220) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and
receive flight information service if requested, is
A Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right classified as
B Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is A Airspace C

approaching
B Airspace E
C Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
D Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

C Airspace G
D Airspace F
219) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued 214) The units responsable for promoting efficient
by another contracting state, the validity of the organization of search and rescue service are:
authorization:
A Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
A Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
B Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
B Is only considered for PPL.
C Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue
C Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. coordination centre.
D Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which D Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
renders valid the licence.
213) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft

207) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The
cannot be below: aircraft :
A the OCH A must give way to another aircraft.
B 200 ft B must come back to land and the landing clearance will be
sent in due time.
C 350 ft
C is cleared to land.
D 400 ft
D must land immediately and clear the landing area.
217) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light

or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a 212) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier private pilots will be valid for
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the A 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6
opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction months thereafter
runway separated by :
B 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12
A 730 m months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
B Less than 760 m

C 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12
months thereafter
C 760 m D 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
D Less than 730 m

211) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the
centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
128) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording
devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure A Flashing lights showing variable green.
correct time to within plus or minus
B Fixed lights showing variable white.
A 10 seconds of UTC at all times
C Flashing lights showing variable white.
B 1 minute of UTC at all times
D Fixed lights showing variable green.
C 30 seconds of UTC at all times
D 15 seconds of UTC at all times
215) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall

be issued at intervals of :
A Not more than 28 days
B Not more than 2 months
C Not more than one month
D Not more than three months
210) "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which 45) A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a
the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but designated track followed by a turn in the opposite
which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed
separated therefore by the appropriate separation along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied.
The following flights are considered essential traffic one A Procedure turn.
to each other.
B Base turn.
A Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
C Race track.
B All IFR flights.
D Reversal track.
C Only controlled IFR flights.
D All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.

44) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical
Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
218) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in Services outside its territory, and this shall include the
VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility preparation and origination of:
of:
A Only NOTAM's and Circulars.
A the pilot in command.
B Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
B the approach controller.
C Only AIP and NOTAM's.
C the radar controller.
D AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
D the airport controller.
43) Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway

40) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A Code letter "D".
A 6 NM
B Code letter "E".
B 3 NM
C Code letter "C".
C 2 km
D Code letter "B".
D 10 km
48) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by

33) "TODA" take-off distance available is: ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
A 2000 feet (600 m).

A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided).
B 500 feet (150 m).
B The length of the runway available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided). C 2500 feet (750 m).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the D 1000 feet (300 m).
stopway and clearway (if provided).
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
stopway. 41) An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled
international air services and which is making a flight to
or through any designated airport of a Contracting State
and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed
46) What is the minimum vertical separation between to remain within that State without security for customs
aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? duty.
A 500 feet A for a period of 48 hours
B 1500 feet B for a period of 12 hours
C 2000 feet
C For a period to be established by that State
D 1000 feet D for a period of 24 hours
49) The international convention defining rules relative to 36) The national civil aviation security programme shall be
the responsibilities of international air carriers for the established by :
carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
A ECAC
A Tokyo Convention.
B ICAO and other organisations including the contracting
B Hague Convention. state concerned
C Montreal Convention. C Each contracting state
D Warsaw Convention. D ICAO
39) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until 35) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted : A 30 m (98 ft)
A 1.0 NM B 50 m (164 ft)
B 2.0 NM C 90 m (295 ft)
C 3.0 NM D 120 m (384 ft)
D 5.0 NM
64) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary
38) "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway area is equal to :
used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span
of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: A 300 m (984 ft)
A 25 m. B 210 m (690 ft)
B 18 m. C 120 m (394 ft)
C 15 m. D 150 m (492 ft)
D 23 m.
42) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
37) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS instructions
procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from You should :
a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
A request ATC for other instructions.
A Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in
length. B select code A7500 on your transponder.
B Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in C follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
length.
D follow ATC instructions.
C Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in
length.
D Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in 56) Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern,
length. there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors
boundaries of:
A 10°.
B 15°.
C 20°.
D 5°.
130) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior 59) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another
to departure and restorage is impossible, than : aircraft on the same track, the following minimum
longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be
effected is allowed A 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
B you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the B 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
C the flight can only continue in the most direct manner; C 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
D you are not allowed to commence the flight

D 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
47) Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful

62) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
seizure acts, it can be said:
types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation
accuracy of
A The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids,
air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful
A plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
seizure act.
B plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis B The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of
consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected
C plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft
operator's State.
D plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
C The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its
61) When independent parallel approaches are being departure is justified to protect lives.
conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall D The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
not greater than :
A 20 degrees 57) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

possesses wind information in the form of components,
B 15 degrees significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
C 30 degrees cross-wind component significant change is :
D 25 degrees A 5 KT
B 3 KT
60) Which statement regarding approach control service is
correct ? C 10 KT
A During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own D 8 KT

separation ;
B If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes

32) (For this question use annex 010-9802A)
or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning
the most expeditious means to the aircraft
"we have found all personnel" is :
C Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about
A 2
substantial delays in departure in any event when they are
expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
B 3
D An approach sequence shall be established according to
the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and C 4
approach control ;
D 1
55) A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : 51) Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation
between aircraft on the same direction is:
A during IFR and VFR flights in VMC; A 3 000 feet.
B during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the B 1 500 feet.
appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
C as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 C 4 000 feet.

km or more
D 2 000 feet.
D during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the
movement area and the underlying ground;
50) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS
authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
54) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
is done :
A 4 NM.
A through a central control unit.
B 5 NM.
B by agreement with the receiving unit.
C 3 NM.
C automatically at the control zone boundary.
D 2 NM.
D with the pilot's consent.
58) The informations concerning charges for

53) Which of the following is information that is not given in aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are
AIP approach and landing charts on the following part of the AIP
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A GEN

approach sector
B FAL
B OCH or OCA
C RAC
C DME-frequencies
D AD
D Visibility minima
8) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been

52) An AIRAC is : established the obstacle clearance altitude/height
(OCA/H) is determined:
A A notice distributed by means of telecommunication
containing information A For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of
concerning the establishment, condition or change in any them.
aeronautical
facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge B For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for
of which each one of them.
is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
C Only for categories A and B aircraft.
B A package which consists of the following elements : AIP,
supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and D Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
summaries.
C An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification

34) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate
based on common effective dates, of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
D A publication issued by or with the authority of a state A write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
containing aeronautical information of a lasting character information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
essential to air navigation.
B write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
C write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
D write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
14) A flashing red light from control tower during an 16) It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a
approach to land means: particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in
the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final
A The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling approach and missed approach area. When this option
is exercised, the published procedure:
B Give way to other aircraft in emergency
A Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
C Continue circling and wait for further instructions
B Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle
exists.
D The airport is unsafe, do not land
C Permits circling only in VMC.
13) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the D Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector
Authority of any illness which they are suffering which in which the obstacle exists.
involves incapacity to undertake those functions to
which the licence relates throughout a period of a
certain number of days or more. The number of days is :
9) Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you
A 30 will squawk code :
B 60 A A 0020 Mode C
C 90 B A 7600 Mode C
D 21 C A 5300 Mode C
D A 7620 Mode C
12) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is :
17) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the
minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
A 260 KT IAS
A 18 and 60 years
B 250 KT IAS
B 21 and 59 years
C 250 KT TAS
C 16 and 60 years
D Not applicable
D 17 and 59 years
11) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed will
containers and packages containing survival equipment
be
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
the following code:
A 5 minutes
A Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
B 3 minutes
B Red for food and water.
C 10 minutes
C Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
D 15 minutes
D Black for food and water.
6) The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the

transition altitude will be reported:
A as hlight level.
B according pilot's choice.
C as altitude.
D as height.
5) Which information is not included in Instrument 24) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification
Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
approach sector
B White colour identification given by Morse Code.
B OCA or OCH
C Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
C DME-frequencies
D Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
D Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as
alternate
31) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have

crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level
4) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
information indicates that it has passed this level in the
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
required direction by:
A 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
A +/- 300 ft.
B 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
B More than 200 ft.
C 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

C More than 300 ft.
D 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
D 300 ft.
3) The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

30) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the
single, two and three light sources on the centre line
A Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach have a length of:
Control Office and Tower.
A 200 m.
B Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach
Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic B 250 m.
Services reporting office.
C 300 m.
C Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and
Aerodrome Control Tower.
D 150 m.
D Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information
Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
29) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who
has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated
2) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued
or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
A offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
A 150 hours of flight time
B Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the
surface B 200 hours of flight time
C Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

C 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
D Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the
surface D 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
10) A circling approach is:

28) A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument
runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for
A A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar
operations down to:
vectoring.
B A contact flight manoeuvre. A a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
C A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. B a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
D A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. C a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
D a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
27) The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used 23) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten
for a controlled flight to cross the level of another minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft
controlled flight when: accident.
A Requested by the pilot and during the day light. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the
Search and Rescue Centre
B Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown. -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue
Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
C This procedure is not allowed.
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
D Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized
by the state overflown. A (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of
operations.
15) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised B (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
to consider executing a missed approach, if the position
or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any C (1) until the completion of operations.
portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for significant interval D (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
during the last:
A 3 NM.
22) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack
B 1 NM. procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
C 4 NM.
A 2 minutes.
D 2 NM.
B 3 minutes.
C 1 minute 30 seconds.
25) Alerting service shall be provided: D 1 minute.
A In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan

or otherwise known by the ATS. 21) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach
procedure end?
B For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to
be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as A At the missed approach point.
practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or
otherwise known to the ATS.
B At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is
obtained and can be maintained.
C For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
D To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful

C At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-
route flight is initiated.
interference, only.
D At the point where the climb is established.
65) What is a "barrette"?

20) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
A a CAT II or III holding position. parallel runways provided that :
B a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. A the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
C three or more groundlights closely spaced together to
appear as a bar of lights.
B the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
D a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
adjacent approach
C the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
D the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
19) During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a 110) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what
missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower- minimum separation should be applied when a medium
controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
moment the aircraft is : using the same runway ?
A 3 NM from touch-down; A 2 minutes
B 4 NM from touch-down; B 3 minutes
C 2 NM from touch-down; C 4 minutes
D 1NM from touch-down; D 1 minute
18) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, 109) What action should be taken if contact is los with the
ATC unit shall: aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
A Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice A Request an amended clearance
based on the use of radar.
B Initiate a missed approach
B Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
C Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is
C not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions. better at a lower altitude
D Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been D Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the
achieved without availability of SSR. aerodrome
26) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is 108) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-
based on: approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle
between the final approach track and the runway
A The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. centreline is :
B The longuest aeroplane maximum width only A 30 degrees or less
C The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using B 40 degrees or less
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
C 20 degrees or less
D The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. D 10 degrees or less
104) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the

107) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust
inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
the speed where the aircraft has passed:
established for a distance from the IAF of:
A 20 NM
A 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
B 10 NM
B 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
C 5 NM C 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
D 25 NM
D 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
112) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the
97) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in
holding pattern shall be according to:
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes :
A Heading.
A C, D, E, F, and G
B Course.
B F and G only
C Bearing.
C A, B, C, D, E, F and G
D Track.
D F only
105) "Instrument runways" are the following runways 101) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of
intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument a controlled flight deviates from the track?
approach procedures.
A Inform the ATC unit immediately
A Precision approach runways in general.
B If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC
B Non precision approach runways, precision approach instructions
runways category I, II and III.
C Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
C Precision approach runways category I, II and III. instructions
D Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways D Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
category I, II and III. practicable
113) The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres 100) Which statement is correct?
obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from
the navigation facility upon which the instrument
approach procedure is predicated:
A The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of
at least 700ft AGL;
A 20 NM (37 km). B The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of
at least 1500ft AGL;
B 30 NM (55 km).
C The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of
C 25 NM (46 km). at least 3000ft AMSL;
D 15 NM (28 km). D The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising
level
103) (For this question use annex 010-9803A) 99) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes,
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
A Drop emergency supplies at this point
A at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
B Require medical assistance
B at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
C Require assistance
C at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
D Landing here impossible
D at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
102) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise

the privileges of their licences, related ratings or 63) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above
authorisations at any time when they are aware of any FL 140?
decrease in their medical fitness which might render
them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They
shall without undue delay seek the advice of the
A 2 minutes 30 seconds.
authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or
clinic admissions for: B 1 minute 30 seconds.
A More than 12 days C 1 minute.
B More than one week D 2 minutes.
C Any period
106) The following minimum radar separation shall be
D More than 12 hours provided between aircraft on the same localizer with
additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
A 5 NM.
B 2.5 NM.
C 3 NM.
D 2 NM.
120) The protection areas associated with instrument 124) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight
approach procedures are determined with the instruction for the issue of a PPL
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A With an ATPL
A The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with
airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. B With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
B 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, C With a CPL
25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
for missed approach procedures. D With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
C 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure, approach or missed approach 123) What does the abbreviation DER mean?
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or
without prescribed flight tracks).
A Distance end of route.
D 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, B Departure end of route.
as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach
procedures.
C Distance end of runway.
D Depature end of runway.

127) The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control
service
A An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and 111) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew
departing controlled flights. functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the
authority must be informed :
B An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and
departing. A if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate
expires
C An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR
flights within a Control Zone. B After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
D An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a

C as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more
Control Zone. than 21days
D after one calendar month of consecutive illness

126) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within
which the following services are provided:
121) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
A Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory
Service.
A Fixed showing blue.
B Flight Information Service only.
B Fixed showing green.
C Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
C Fixed showing yellow.
D Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
D Flashing showing blue.
125) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued

by another contracting state the validity of the
96) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position
authorization
indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
A the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend
A They operate within non controlled airspace.
the date of the validity at its own discretion
B shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence B Requested by ATC.
other than for use in private flights
C They operate within controlled airspace.
C shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
D They operate a transponder with Mode C.
D shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the
licence
119) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 114) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach
track, a descend shall be made so as to :
A 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 A leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until
reaching the MAPt.
B 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
B pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
C 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
C follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
D 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
D pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is
obligatory.
118) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport
controller the following light signal : a series of green
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : 122) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
A must return to its point of departure. cross-country flight time, of which not less than ......
hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
B is cleared for take-off.
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in
command, provided that the method of supervision
C may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively :
D must stop.
A 150 hours and 75 hours
117) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall B 200 hours and 75 hours
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
C 200 hours and 100 hours
A 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30
hours of instrument ground time D 250 hours and 10 hours
B 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75

hours of instrument ground time.
72) When letters are used for registration mark
C 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 combinations shall not be used which might be
hours of instrument ground time. confused with urgent signals for example
D 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 A LLL

hours may be instrument ground time.
B DDD
116) (For this question use annex 010-9806A) C PAN

What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the
ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ? D RCC
A we have found all personnel
B we have found only some personnel 98) The common mark shall be selected from the series of
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :
C we are returning to base

A to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the
International Telecommunication Union
D operation completed
B to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation
Organisation
115) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that
all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP C to the State of registry by the International
Telecommunication Union
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
D to state of the operator
A 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
B 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above

FL200
C 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
D 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

250
78) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals 80) Each contracting state shall establish measures to
with: ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when
passengers are obliged to travel because they have
A the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures
B operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation can be taken
C the security system at airports

A These measures are of the discretion of the contracting
state.
D limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis B The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in
passenger and goods transported command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
C Correct.
77) Which of the following alternatives describes the
complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light D The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be
system? informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial
proceedings.
A 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit 73) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance
Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
C 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
A the operator
D 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
B the pilot-in-command ;
76) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be C the "flight-operations" of the company
achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain
distance from the end of the runway. D the state
Identification has to be achieved within :
A 5NM
81) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the
B 1NM speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
C 2NM A true air speed (TAS).
D 3NM B estimated ground speed (G/S).
C indicated air speed (IAS).

75) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away
from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate D true air speed at 65% power.
from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
71) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
A The operator has no obligation. interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
B The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator. communicate with ATS shall try to:
C The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the A Declare an emergency

person leaves the aeroplane.
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in
D The stated above is correct. order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule

with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle
70) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 66) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the
ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
A Obstacle identification surface.
A An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
B Obstacle in surface.
B An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-
C Obstacle identification slope. off.
D Obstruction in surface. C A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of

runway.
D A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

69) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
A only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an 74) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centreline, after being established on
B caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft track, more than:
regardless the registration
A Half a scale deflection.
C the above convention does not deal with this item
B One scale deflection.
D caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or
aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the
territory of another contraction state
C A quarter of scale deflection.
D One and a half of scale deflection.

68) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all
turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be
made into which direction? 88) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.
In section I the pilot fills in :
A To the right.
A weather noted ;
B To the left.
B flight identification and weather noted ;
C First right and then to the left.
C urgent messages
D Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
D a position report, including aircraft identification, height,
position and time ;
67) According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew
licence license issued by a non JAA State may be
rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA 95) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane
Member State shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in command including a
A At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-
concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
basic licence different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and
distance referred are :
B At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year A 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
C At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State B 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided
that the basic licence remains valid. C 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
D At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State

D 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that
the basic licence remains valid.
94) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for 89) (For this question use annex 010-9805A)
the provision of approach control service is: Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter
similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL
A To conduct surveillance radar approaches. ASSISTANCE" is :
B To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between A 3

IFR flights and VFR flights.
B 4
C To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
C 1
D To provide instructions in order to reduce separations
minima, if accepted by the pilots. D 2
93) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a

258) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air
specified limit above the earth is:
Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A Advisory airspace.
A A NOTAM RAC.
B Flight Information Region.
B An ATS NOTAM.
C Control area.
C An Advisory NOTAM.
D Control zone.
D An AIRAC.
92) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is

established, the procedures applicable there in :
87) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to
A have to be as indicated by ICAO council
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
B have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
A The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
C need not to be identical with those applicable in the
underlying flight information region B Switching on and off three times the landing lights
D has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
C Switching on and off four times the landing lights
D Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

91) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
Montreal by written notification to the depositary
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
86) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a
A 2 months following the date ICAO is informed height above the ground level or water of not less than:
B 4 months following the date on which notification is received

A 150 metres.
by the Depositary Governements
B 500 metres.
C 6 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments C 200 metres.
D 3 months following the date on which notification is received D 300 metres.

by the Depositary Governments
85) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

79) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
controller have to be executed as:
permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
A the weather permits.
air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be
B Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
A 5 minutes
C Decided on pilot's discretion.
B 10 minutes
D Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes
84) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : 418) Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you
receive and acknowledge the following instruction from
the radar controller:
A always of a straight row of lights towards the runway "Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised".
B of flashing lights only; Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that
radio communication cannot be stablished again and
C of an arbitrary amount of green lights; you have to return to your current flight plan route:
D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence A With an intercept of at least 45°.
towards the runway ;
B With an intercept of at least 30°.
83) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR C On the nearest way.
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive D With an intercept of 20° or more.
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
A Airspace D
431) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that : the missed approach
B Airspace B track for one approach diverges by :
C Airspace A A at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
D Airspace E
B at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
82) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed C at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the adjacent approach
final phase of this missed approach is :
D at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
A 90 m (295 ft) adjacent approach
B 120 m (384 ft)

430) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an
C 50 m (164 ft) airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing.
The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
D 30 m (98 ft) away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield
are:
90) The rule governing flight over water for a single engined A VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for
passengers: landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
A limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the B ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal
engine fails. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure
B does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
C VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
C limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest landing on the runway to be used
shore.
D ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal
D limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged
with one engine out
425) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

429) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used
A a current class III medical assessment by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall
be expressed in:
B a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the
state issuing the licence A flight level on or below the transition level
C a current class I medical assessment B flight level on or below the transition altitude
D a current class II medical assessment C altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
D altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
428) In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will 424) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the
see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the
units farthest from the runway as white when: centre line more than :
A Only on the approach slope. A full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
B On or close to the approach slope. B half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal
35 ° off the centerline.
C Above the approach slope.
C full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale
deflection of the glidepath indicator.
D Below the approach slope.
D half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
433) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that

all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
423) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
segments with a radius of :
A 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

A Advisory airspace.
200
B Control zone.
B 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
250 C Control area.
C 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190 D Air traffic zone.
D 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL

190
422) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different
runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
426) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not runway code 4?
available, radar identification may be achieved by one of
the following procedures: A 45 metres
A To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30°

B 35 metres
or more.
B To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° C 40 metres

or more.
D 50 metres
C To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
D To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°. 421) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the
purpose of:
434) The position reports shall contain the following A Providing alerting services
elements of information in the order listed:
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
A Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight
level or altitude, next position and time over. C Providing flight Information Service
B Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

D Providing advisory services
next position and time over.
C Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

next position and time over and ensuing significant point. 420) Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide
recognition of an emergency aircraft?
D Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time,
next position and time over and ensuing significant point. A Code 7500.
B Code 7600.
C Code 7000.
D Code 7700.
449) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a 447) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty,
nominal missed approach climb gradient of: the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
A 0.8%.
A operational air traffic control centres
B 3.3%.
B flight information or control organisations
C 5%.
C air traffic co-ordination services
D 2.5%.
D search and rescue co-ordination centres
427) Except in special circumstances determined by the

public authorities concerned, when a passenger is 446) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted
passing through the territory of a contracting state and in a holding pattern is called:
has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight
for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the A Racetrack pattern.
contracting state where the international airport is
located shall permit such a passenger to remain within B Procedure turn.
its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival
when
C Shuttle.
A the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks
from the day of his (her) arrival D Based turn.
B the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from
the day of his (her) arrival 445) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival
route is :
C the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two)
hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
A ± 10 NM
D the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from
the day of his (her) arrival B ± 12.5 NM
C ± 2.5 NM
441) Air Traffic Service unit means:
D ± 5 NM
A Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
444) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the

B Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which
the aircraft:
C Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air
Services reporting offices. A will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
D Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
B will land.
C will stop on the parking area.

256) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from
"Urgency" because in the first case: D will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
A There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate
assistance.
432) Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
B The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its
fitness to fly.
A Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
C The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
B Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
D The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight
immediately interrupted. C Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
D Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
442) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: 437) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a
precision-approach runway CAT II :
A Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and A 900m

obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
B 150m
B Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic C 300m
C Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and D 600m

expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
D Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an

orderly flow of air traffic 436) The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication
(AIP) are :
417) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the

A GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled
and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: B GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
A 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. C GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
B 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. D GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
C 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

435) Which of the following correctly lists special purpose
D 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
440) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

A Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
B Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

A Geneva convention 1936
C Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
B Chicago convention 1944
D Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
C Warzaw convention 1929
D Geneva convention 1948 443) What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied
by ATC?
439) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies A Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given
for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What B Time separation and track separation.
should be the length of this approach light system?
C Composite separation.
A 420 metres
D Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
B 1000 metres
C 1200 metres
393) The Alerting Service is provided by:
D 900 metres
A The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
438) How many separate segments has an instrument B The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment,
approach procedure. when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
A Up to 4. C Only by ATC units.
B Up to 5.
D The Area Control Centres.
C 3.
D 4.
419) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is 401) When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
established but communication on a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable A Only when weather conditions change enough to require a
to comply with the instructions received ? change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
A CAN NOT COMPLY B Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a
reportable value
B UNABLE TO COMPLY
C Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content
change or reported values
C NOT POSSIBLE
D Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for
D CAN NOT VFR ; otherwise hourly
399) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights 394) The licensing authority shall determine whether
inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight
3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is : trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of
the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
A Not applicable
A 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been
B 250 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 250 KT TAS
B 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
D 260 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been
398) The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
A MET
D 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
B GEN
C ENR
402) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact',
what does that mean to the pilot?
D AGA
A The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
397) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the B The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the
vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: aircraft
A At the discretion of the air traffic controller C The aircraft is subject to positive control
B If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests D Position reports may be omitted
C Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in

sight 392) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to
land ?
D When the commander in the following aircraft has the
preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own A VIP (Head of state) aircraft
separation
B Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing
immediate medical attention
396) A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be
used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each C Emergency aircraft
aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is: D Military aircraft
A 60 NM.
B 50 NM.
C 20 NM.
D 80 NM.
391) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, 395) When letters are used for the registration mark
air navigation, technical, administration or legislative combinations shall not be used which might be
matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: confused with urgent or distress signals for example
A Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A RCC
B NOTAM. B LLL
C AIRAC. C XXX
D Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). D DDD
390) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the 409) Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible
flight commences in accordance with IFR and by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be
subsequently changes to VFR? vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace
than :
A Y
A 5 NM
B I
B 2,5 NM
C V
C 1,5 NM
D Z
D 3 NM
389) The longitudinal separation minima based on time

between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation 416) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not
aids permit frequent determination of position and below:
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A 3.0 NM.
aircraft, is:
B 5.0 NM.
A 10 minutes.
C 2.0 NM.
B 3 minutes.
D 1.5 NM.
C 5 minutes.
D 6 minutes.
415) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed
of two elements which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These
388) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light elements are a combination of a number and a letter as
signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This in the example under listed:
signal means that the aircraft :
A 2B.
A must vacate the landing area in use.
B 6D.
B must stop.
C 5E.
C must return to its point of departure.
D 4F.
D may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
414) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation

387) In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a
approach segment provides at least : medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
A 984 ft A 3 minutes
B 1476 ft B 1 minute
C 492 ft C 5 minutes
D decreasing from 984 to 492 ft D 2 minutes
413) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall 450) When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not
hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at
and shall have completed at least 50 hours : another international airport, the contracting state where
the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been
A Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of no gross negligence or careless by the operator
aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes. A shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes
on the operator
B Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes
or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in B shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and
aeroplanes. taes on thexes on the operator
C Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters C shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but
of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. taxes on the operator
D Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of D shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom
aeroplanes. duties on the operator
412) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, 408) Each member state should designate an appropriate
which will be the maximum speed ? authority with its administration to be responsible for
the development implementation and maintenance of a
A 230 kt IAS. national aviation security programme. This programme
should apply :
B 230 kt TAS.
A to all international civil air transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic
C 240 kt IAS.
flights at the discretion of each member state
D 240 kt TAS. B only to all international civil transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
400) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : C only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport
flights
A 6 months D only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport

flights and domestic flights
B 5 years
C 2 years 407) An information issued by a meteorological watch office

concerning the occurence or expected occurence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
D 1 year
the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was
not already included in the forecast issued for low level
flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-
410) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: area thereof is
A An AIRMET information
A Flashing red or preferably yellow.
B A SIGMET information
B Fixed red or preferably orange.
C A NOTAM
C Fixed red or preferably blue.
D An En-Route Meteo Report
D Flashing blue.
406) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
head-wind component significant change is :
A 10 KT
B 5 KT
C 8 KT
D 4 KT
405) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 489) Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information
departed from the same aerodrome and following the shall be updated
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A as prescribed by the meteorological office
aircraft, is:
B as prescribed by the state
A 5 minutes.
C immediately a significant change occurs
B 10 minutes.
D at least every half an hour independently of any significant
C 8 minutes. change
D 3 minutes.
482) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled
airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
404) A strayed aircraft is :
A When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
A an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been B only in airspace class A
established
B An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended C if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
track or which reports that it is lost
D Above the transition altitude when applicable
C only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended
track
495) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and
D only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
danger area shall be composed by :
A The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)

403) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, followed by figures
and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number
equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV B The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the
distance based separation minimum may be used on state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes
longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is : C The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)
for the area concerned and figures
A 80 NM
D The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to
the state, followed by P, R and D
B 100 NM
C 70 NM
494) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in
respect to terrain clearance?
D 60 NM
A The ATC.
411) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. B The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the
The published holding procedure is: all turns to the flight plan.
right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. C The pilot in command.
Select the available entry procedure.
D The aircraft operator.
A Either "off set" or "parallel".
B Off set.
493) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above
10 000 feet MSL are :
C Parallel.
A 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from
D Direct. clouds; 8 km visibility
B clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
C 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km

visibility
D 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8

km visibility
492) One minute separation may be used between departing 488) If radio communication is established during an
aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
A 25° immediately after take-off. the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing ?
B 45° immediately after take-off.
A Descend for landing
C 30° immediately after take-off.
B Descend
D 15° immediately after take-off.
C Let down
D You land
497) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true 487) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding immediately attempt to establish radio communication
aircraft, is: with the intercepting aircraft on the following
frequencies:
A 15 minutes.
A 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
B 5 minutes.
B 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
C 3 minutes.
C 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
D 10 minutes.
D 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
490) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in

the final approach segment to ensure the required 486) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped
minimum obstacle clearance, is : with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed
by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following
A 8%. code on mode "A"
B 6,5%. A 7 500
C 5%. B 7 600
D 7%. C 7 000
D 7 700
498) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in
command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination 485) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance. A A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a 1000 feet above the earth.
VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight B A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified
plan. limit above the earth.
The correct combination of statements is:
C A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
A 1 and 3 900 feet above the earth.
D A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of

B 1 and 4 the earth to a specified limit.
C 2 and 4
D 2 and 3
484) When mixing or contact does take place between 512) Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
passengers subjected to security control and other
persons not subjected to such control after the security
screening points at airports serving international civil A Fixed red.
aviation have been passed
B Flashing red.
A the persons not subjected to security control shall be
identified C Flashing yellow.
B the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be D Fixed orange.
re screened before boarding an aircraft
C only the passengers are to be re screened

511) When independent parallel approaches are being
D only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept
the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the
vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be
established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
448) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of approach track in level flight for :
activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or
is expected to be of operational significance. This A at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
information is provided using the volcano level of specified MLS elevation angle
colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash B at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to specified MLS elevation angle
rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
C at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
A ORANGE specified MLS elevation angle
B RED D at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or

specified MLS elevation angle
C YELLOW
D GREEN 510) An airline is planning a flight that will require a

Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom
of the Air will be exercised ?
491) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of A 1st freedom
cargo and other articles on international flights is :
B 3rd freedom
A annex 15
B annex 16
C 4th freedom
D 2nd freedom
C annex 9
D annex 8
509) Type ratings shall be established
505) The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a A only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew
flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off of at least two pilots
weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
B only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum
A 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters. crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
B 7 000 kg. C all the answers are correct
D for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by

C 14 000 kg.
the authority
D 20 000 kg.
508) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar 503) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
indicates that : establishes;
A gliderflying is performed outside the landing area; A aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
B landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or B proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18
taxiway only; annexes.
C this aerodrome is using parallel runways C standards and recommended practices applied without
exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
D taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
D standards and recommended international practices for
contracting member states.
496) In which section of AIP are contained information

elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations
on refuelling services?
The ground - air visual code illustrated means :
A AD.
A Require assistance
B FAL.
B Please indicate direction
C GEN.
C Proceding in the direction shown
D SAR.
D Require medical assistance
506) A "precision approach" is a direct instrument

501) The duration of the period of currency of a medical
approach...
assessment shall begin on the date :
A using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing
A the licence is delivered to the pilot
the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a
height below 200 ft.
B the medical assessment is issued
B carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a
specific working method. C the licence is issued or validated
C using bearing, elevation and distance information. D the licence is issued or renewed
D using at least one source of bearing information and one

source of elevation or distance information.
500) The separation method whereby the vertical and
horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of
half the standard criteria is called :
481) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting
aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the A Composite separation
intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
A Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

B Combined separation
B Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. C Reduced separation
D Essential separation
C Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without
crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
D Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. 499) "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:
A Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

504) On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring
area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
B Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
A all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me"
vehicle C Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
B aircraft taking off or about to take off D Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a
specific height.
C other vehicles and pedestrians
D other converging aircraft
507) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, 461) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in
should be: which alignment and descent for landing are made is
called:
A Flashing white.
A Initial approach segment.
B Fixed green.
B Intermediate approach segment.
C Flashing green.
C Arrival segment.
D Fixed white.
D Final approach segment.
457) The applicant to exercise the functions of an

Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall 460) The "PAPI" shall consist of:
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING,
his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _________. A A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
A Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. B A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units
equally spaced.
B Single-engine/inactive.
C Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
units equally spaced.
C Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
D Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
D Land/inactive. units equally spaced.
483) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of 465) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
persons and their baggage in international flights is :
A annex 6
A maximum bank angle of 25°.
B annex 15
B rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever
requires the lesser bank.
C annex 9 C rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever

requires the lesser bank.
D annex 8
D rate of 3°per second.
463) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued

at the AFTN at intervals of : 458) Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be
published in accordance with :
A Not more than 28 days
A AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed
B Not more than 10 days by a number
C Not more than one month

B AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
D No more than 15 days C NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM

followed by a number
D AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical

462) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting
service is correct?
A The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known

or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference
B Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be

the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about
this;
C Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often

provided by the same ATS unit
D The Alert phase is established when no communication has

been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a communication should have been
received;
466) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent 453) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall,
or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft
concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and be entitled to compensation as provided by :
stores list. The numbers of the copies are :
A the Montreal Convention
A 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and
one copie of a simple stores list. B the Rome Convention
B 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and

of a stores list C the Chicago Convention
C 2 of each D the Warsaw Convention
D 3 of each
452) When letters are used for registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
456) According to international agreements wind direction
shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in
degrees magnetic : A TTT
A When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. B FFF
B In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° C RCC
south.
D LLL
C When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch
office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
D Before landing and take-off 451) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and
455) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in control, in respect of aeroplanes :
final approach, is following a normal glide path defined
by a PAPI? A over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
A 1. B over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
B 2. C up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
C 3. D up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing

mass
D None.
459) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding

454) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside
flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified controlled airspace?
as:
A 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
A B and C. course
B B, C and D.
B 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
C B, C, D and E. C 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
D B.
D 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
the estimated position of the aircraft
473) High intensity obstacle lights should be: 477) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
A Flashing white. and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-
wind component significant change is :
B Flashing red.
A 3 KT
C Fixed red.
B 2 KT
D Fixed orange.
C 4 KT
480) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values D 5 KT

are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
and glide path antenna, not greater than: 476) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a
flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
A 9m. amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one
cancelled, when:
B 12m.
A The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-
C 6m. blocks.
D 3m. B The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-
blocks.
C The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of

479) The first freedom of the air is: departure.
D The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off

A The right to board passengers from the state where the departure.
aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
B The right to overfly without landing.

464) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
C The right to land for a technical stop.
A Arrival, intermediate and final.
D The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with
passengers on board B Initial and final.
between two states.
C Initial, intermediate and final.
478) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in D Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
command of an aircraft:
A The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC

concerned. 474) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance
using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
B He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended stations, is:
clearance.
A 10 NM.
C He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned
has to accept the pilot request. B 5 NM.
D The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has

C 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D 20 NM.
384) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid 469) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a
passport and no visa is required of him, contracting distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
states determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be
A none of the answers are applicable continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the
touchdown. In this case distance and level information
B shall not require him to obtain any other identity document shall be given at each
from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
A half NM
C may require him to obtain any other identity document prior
to the commencement of his flight B 1 NM
D in certain cases any other identity may be required C 1.5 NM
D half mile
472) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is
expected:
468) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
A To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
A Good
B To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the
track. B Medium/poor
C To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind

C Medium
correction.
D To correct for known wind to remain within the protected D Poor

airspace.
467) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned

471) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) information indicated that it is within:
AMSL, is :
A +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
A 250 KT TAS
B +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
B Not applicable
C +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
C 240 KT IAS
D +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
D 250 KT IAS
475) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and

470) The convention which deals with offences againts penal arrival information should include cloud cover, when the
law, is clouds are :
A the convention of Rome A below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
B the convention of Madrid
B below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
C the convention of Tokyo
C cumulonimbus
D the convention of Warsaw
D below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum
sector altitude, whichever is the greater
296) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type 299) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing
rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of bar?
three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has : A 4.
A Handling characteristics that require the use of more than B 5.

one crew member
B A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. C 3.
D 2.
C A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
D Handling characteristics that require additional flying or

simulator training 304) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced
threshold shall be:
289) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark

A Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
registering authority will be made by :
B Flashing white.
A the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C Fixed lights showing variable white.
B the state of registry and accepted by the International
Telecommunication Union D Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
C the International Telecommunication Union

297) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS
D the state of registry authority, a radar controller may request radar-
controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when
established on intermediate and final approach. This
302) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after speed adjustment should not be more than:
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft
into position for landing on runway which is not suitably A +/- 8 kt.
located for straight-in approach, is:
B +/- 20 kt.
A Contact approach.
C +/- 10 kt.
B Aerodrome traffic pattern.
D +/- 15 kt.
C Visual manoeuvring (circling).
D Visual approach. 305) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach

segment begins at the:
301) The MSA, which must be established around a A IF.

navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
B FAP.
A 15 NM
C FAF.
B 30 NM
D MAP.
C 25 NM
D 10 NM 295) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate

locally within a control zone when the ground visibility
is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
300) In which section of AIP are contained information not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within
elements relating to prohibited, restricted and class :
dangerous areas?
A D and E airspaces
A AGA.
B D airspace
B ENR.
C C, D and E airspaces
C MAP.
D E airspace
D GEN.
294) When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the 298) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you
pilot shall operate the transponder: experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will :
A Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes. A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC
and inform ATC ;
B Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
B Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to
C Only when directed by ATC. destination ;
D At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is C Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS
purposes. D Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
293) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP 312) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be
supplements of long duration and information of short below:
duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics
shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered A 2500 ft.
a long duration.
B 1500 ft.
A Three months or longer
C 1000 ft.
B Six months or longer
D 3000 ft.
C One year or longer
D Two months or longer

319) Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the
state of occurrence for participation, the state of design
and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an
292) In which section of AIP are contained information accident or serious incident inform the state of
elements relating to areas and/or routes for which occurence of the name of its representative to be
meteorological service is provided? present at the investigation when the aircraft :
A RAC. A Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
B COM. B Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
C MET. C Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
D GEN. D Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
291) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by 318) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
the following signals:
A Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from A develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
extended position inwards.
B approve the ticket prices set by international airline
B Crossing arms extended above his head companies
C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms C approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft
toward ground
D approve new international airlines
D Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in
front of body , then clench fist
386) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of

the aligment of the runway centre line within:
A 45°.
B 12.5°.
C 15°.
D 30°.
317) "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to 288) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a
expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. combination of letters and numbers and shall be that
This will be obtained requesting aircraft: assigned by :
A To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified A the state of registry or common mark registering authority
time.
B the state of registry only
B To pass a specified point.
C the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the
approach sequence.
D the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
D To maintain a specified speed during the approach
procedure.
311) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
316) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal
area means: A Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers
extended then clenching fist.
A Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
B Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
B The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider
flights are being performed.
C Crossing arms extended above his head.
C An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
D Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward
ground.
D Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of
the taxiways.
310) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until

aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer
315) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum
number shall be supplemented:
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted :
A By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and
the central has no letter.
A 100 m (330 ft)
B By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for
3 "L", "C" and "R". B 300 m (1000 ft)
C By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. C 200 m (660 ft)
D By a letter for 2 parallel runways. D 150 m (500 ft)
303) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to 309) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
FL 140? to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land
has been received from the non-radar controller by the
A 2 minutes time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
B 1,5 minutes A 4 NM from the touchdown
C 30 secondes B 5 NM from the touchdown
D 1 minute C 1.5 NM from the touchdown
D 2 NM from the touchdown

313) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final
approach may be requested to make minor speed
adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be 308) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class
more than : ratings are valid for :
A 15 knots at any stage A One year
B 25 knots at any stage B Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
C 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold C Five years after licence issuie.
D 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold D Two years
307) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) 270) Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate
was established by the international convention of : authority within its administration to be responsible for
the development, implementation and maintenance of
A Chicago the national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
B The Hague
A Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
C Warsaw
B Shall be specified to ICAO
D Montreal
C Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
D Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting

306) Where does the initial approach segment in an states
instrument approach procedure commence?
A At the FAF.
269) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
B At the final en-route fix.
A 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
C At the IAF. airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D At the IF. B 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true

airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
314) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as

C 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
possible, in case the expected delay is :
D 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
A 20 minutes airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
B 5 minutes or more.
268) The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
C 15 minutes or more
D 10 minutes A Precision Approach Power Indicator.
B Precision Approach Power Index.
264) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot

licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, C Precision Approach Path Indicator.
shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight
time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories D Precision Approach Path Index.
acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours,
are respectively 267) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the
flight commences in accordance with VFR and
A 50 hours and 10 hours subsequently changes to IFR?
B 40 hours and 10 hours A I
C 40 hours and 15 hours B V
D 50 hours and 15 hours C Y
D Z
290) An integrated aeronautical information package consists
of the following elements
A AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;
checklists and summuries
B AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP,

NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
C AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and

checklist summaries
D AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
272) Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR 262) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: the initial approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
A At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the facility. A At least 300m (984 ft).
B At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from B 150m (492 ft).

the facility.
C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from C 300m (984 ft).

the facility.
D At least 150m (492 ft).
the facility.
261) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
265) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the A 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
intermediate phase of this missed approach is : including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
A 120 m (384 ft)
B 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
B 30 m (98 ft) including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
C 50 m (164 ft)
C 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
D 90 m (295 ft) (300NM)
D 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command

273) What is meant when departure control instruct you to including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored (300NM)
to an airway?
A Radar Service is terminated. 260) ATIS broadcast
B Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

A Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
B Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
D You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation

C shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
equipment.
D Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a
discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
263) Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently
on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
departure. 259) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft
is not visible on the radar display for any significant
A This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform
interval during the :
the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
B This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it A Last 3 NM of the approach
to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
B Last 5 NM of the approach
C This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure
relevant to this case. C Last 2 NM of the approach
D Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is D Last 4 NM of the approach
over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to
the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of
the runway and taxiways.
513) The person who has final authority as to the disposition 286) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
of an aircraft during flight time is: parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least :
A The aircraft owner
A 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines
B The airliner operator and as is depicted on the radar display
B 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines

C The commander
and as is depicted on the radar display
D The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled C 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines
airspace and as is depicted on the radar display
D 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines

266) Select the acronym corresponding to the following and as is depicted on the radar display
definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means
of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft
operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption 285) The system notifying in advance the circumstances
or a volcanic ash cloud. requiring important changes in the methods of
operation, based on common effective dates, is
A NAVTAM identified by the acronym:
B VULTAM A NOTAM
C ASHTAM B EATCHIP
D GVATAM C AIRAC
D IFPS
280) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
284) When letters are used for the registration mark

A two way radiocommunication is not required.
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the
B a clearance is required.
A three letters combinations used in the international code of
C a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. signals
D a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required. B letters used for ICAO identification documents
C five letter combinations used in the international code of

signals
287) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome
control service is correct?
D four letter combinations beginning with Q
A ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a
vehicule
283) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and
B An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ; responsability of
C The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the
movement area; B both air traffic services and the meteorological office
D Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the
aerodrome controller; C the unit as prescribed the states
D the air traffic services
271) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than 277) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence
air aircraft shall be expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
A at least 60 centimetres A After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
B at least 75 centimetres B If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
C at least 50 centimetres C Do not take off before 0920
D at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres D The take off clearence is expected at 0920
281) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : 276) Which of the following is NOT an international distress
frequency ?
A are accepted at the contracting state discretion A 2.182 KHz
B are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink B 2430 KHz
C has to be typewritten
C 121.5 MHz
D has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data D 243.0 MHz

processing techniques
322) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial 275) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the
approach between the end of the outbound track and "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track
is a: A 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
A Procedure turn B 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
B Reversal procedure C 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
C Race track D 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
D Base turn
274) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
containers and packages containing survival equipment A 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
should take the form of coloured streamers according to distance from clouds ;
the following code:
B 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
distance from clouds ;
A Black for food and water.
B Red for miscellaneous equipment.

C No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
D 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;

C Blue for food and water.
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

282) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer
course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an
278) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have angle not greater than:
completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 20 degrees.
A 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time B 30 degrees.
B 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. C 25 degrees.
C 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more D 15 degrees.

than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
D 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours

as pilot in command
361) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal 365) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by
requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
ground signals, the pilot must :
A 500 feet (150 m).
A make at least one complete turn over the group of people in
difficulty. B 4000 feet (1200 m).
B transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R"

using his C 2000 feet (600 m).
navigational lights.
D 1000 feet (300 m).
C fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
D switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so 364) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the
equipped, his navigation lights twice. Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all air line companies with international traffic

320) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation B binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO
from: about a national difference
A 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). C advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the
member states
B 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D binding for all member states
C 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). 369) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
A If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the

367) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence next 60 minutes
aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up B Only when leaving controlled airspace
by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the
additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the C If the commander so requests
supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and
functions of a pilot in command provided that the D If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during
method of supervision employed is acceptable to the the next 30 minutes
licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
A 200 hours and 100 hours 362) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio
communication failure?
B 150 hours and 75 hours
A Mode A code 7500.
C 250 hours and 100 hours

B Mode B code 7600.
D 200 hours and 75 hours
C Mode A code 7700.
D Mode A code 7600.

366) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft
shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
A the state of registry, the state of design and the state of 370) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are
manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight
B the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that information service if requested, is classified
the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is
still airworthy A Airspace G
C the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the B Airspace E
state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
D C Airspace D
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is
of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
D Airspace F
360) Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received 356) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is
from the non-radar controller should normally be suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR
passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of : Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the
radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
A 4 NM from touchdown
A Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and
B 5 NM from touchdown thereafter to code 7500
B Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby

C 2 NM from touchdown
and thereafter to code 7700
D 3 NM from touchdown C Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby
and thereafter to code 7500
359) The loading limitations shall include :

D Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and
thereafter to code 7700
A all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass

distributions and floor loadings 355) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the
design of an instrument departure procedure?
B all limiting mass and centres of gravity
A Navigation aids.
C all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
B Airspace restrictions.
D all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor
loadings
C The terrain surrounding the airport.
D ATC requirements.
358) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed
that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible 363) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an
for one aircraft to climb or descend instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will
make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A 20 NM
A Landing runway.
B 10 NM
B MAP.
C 12 NM
C FAF.
D 15 NM
D Final missed approach track.
357) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued

to the threshold of the runway transmission should not 377) Flight information service provided to flights shall
be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds include the provision of information concerning
while the aircraft is within a distance of : collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace
classes:
A 1.5 NM from the touchdown
A F and G
B 4 NM from the touchdown
B C to G (inclusive)
C 2 NM from the touchdown
C A to G (inclusive)
D 3 NM from the touchdown
D A to E (inclusive)

convention contains minimum specifications for a crew
licence to have international validity?
A Annex 3
B Annex 4
C Annex 1
D Annex 2
383) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and 378) Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB
Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
adoption ?
A At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
A the Council from the facility.
B the Regional Air Navigation meeting B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
C the Air Navigation Commission
C At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
D the Assembly
the facility.
382) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
352) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a

A Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when
ceiling is less than :
B Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
A 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
C Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
B 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
D Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
C 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
381) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall D 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard
setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
376) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent
A Transition level. structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier
than air aircraft shall be
B The level specified by ATC.
A at least 20 centimetres
C Transition altitude.
B at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
D Transition layer.
C at least 30 centimetres
380) An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL D at least 40 centimetres
and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under
VFR, must remain on principle at least:
375) An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which
A 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an
visibility. aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the
form of an "X".
B 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km This indicates :
visibility.
A "Need mechanical assistance".
C 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km
visibility.
B "Need medical assistance".
D Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
C "Landing impossible".
368) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may

D "All occupants alive".
be considered controlled?
A The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. 374) Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago
convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
B The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
A Operators of the same aircraft type
C The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR)
and provided with a Control Tower. B The aircraft manufacturer
D The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower. C The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the
aircraft is registered
D The government of the state in which the accident took place
373) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is 335) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever
done: practicable, not exceed
A at transition level during climb and transition altitude during A 3 minutes

descent.
B 30 seconds
B only at transition altitude.
C 1 minute
C only at transition level.
D 2 minutes
D at transition altitude during climb and transition level during
descent.
334) What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot

should be requested to make when under radar control
and established on intermediate and final approach ?
convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A ± 15 KT
A Annex 14
B ± 10KT
B Annex 6
C ± 25 KT
C Annex 17
D ± 20KT
D Annex 11
333) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and

multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
371) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi
holding positions have not been established, aircraft
shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: A Of the last medical certificate
A 50 metres. B Of issue
B 30 metres. C Of the skill test
C 45 metres. D The application is received by the Authority.
D 60 metres.
332) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
379) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or A To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
believed in emergency are:
B To assist aircraft on the location storms.
A uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
B uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

C To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
D To provide radar separation.

C uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency
phase.
D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. 331) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the radar controller should notify the non-
radar controller when an aircraft making a radar
approach is approximately:
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to
the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
A 5 NM.
A 4 B 6 NM.
B 1 C 8 NM.
C 2 D 10 NM.
D 3
354) The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU 325) Runway end lights shall be:
(flow control centre):
A depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international A Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the
flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights). runway.
B is 10 minutes. B Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of

the runway.
C is 5 minutes.
C Fixed lights showing variable red.
D is 15 minutes. D Fixed lights showing variable white.
329) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to 324) The second freedom of the air is the :
the operator for transport away from the territory of the
state, the operator :
A right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
A and the state of the operator are both responsible for the
person inadmissible B right to operate a commercial passenger flight with
passengers on board between two states.
B shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any
transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility C right to land for a technical stop
C shall not recover from such person any transportation costs

D right to overfly without landing
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
D is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the

receiving state 323) Member states should introduce specific security
measures for the air transport of the following groups of
potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
338) During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the
pilot should contact departure control: A Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
A Before penetrating the clouds. B Deportees and inadmissible persons only
B When clear of the airport and established on the first C None of the answers is correct
heading given in the clearance.
D Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful
C After take-off. custody
D When advised by Tower.

385) Which one of the statements is correct :
327) ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted,
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
A contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
baggage only from passengers
separated from each other is classified as:
A Class D.
B contracting states may not accept oral declaration of
baggages
B Class E. C contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of

baggage from passengers and crew
C Class B.
D contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
D Class A. baggage only from crew
330) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach

326) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
minimum climb gradient of:
A Aeredrome reference point.
A 5%
B Relevant runway threshold.
B 3.3%
C Aerodrome elevation.
C 2.5%
D Mean sea level.
D 2%
344) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) 349) Aerodrome traffic is:
:
A its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in A All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
flight or on the ground.
B All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of
B it can only supply limited services to the users and under no an aerodrome.
circumstances may it supply ATC services.
C All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
C its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state
organisation. D All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
of an aerodrome.
D it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC
organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
348) The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of
April. The validity of the previous profeciency check
321) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency
CORRECT? check can be and can't exceed:
A Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; A 31th of December the same year
ATC Clearance : required ;
B 15th of October the same year
B Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC
Clearance : not required
C 30th of October the same year
C Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical;
ATC Clearance : not required ; D 30th of April the following year
D Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC

Clearance : required ;
347) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C
derived level information displayed to the controller is
accurate shall be:
351) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above
10 000 feet MSL are : A +/- 500 ft.
A 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 B +/- 300 ft.
km visibility
B 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from C +/- 200 ft.
clouds; 5 km visibility
D +/- 250 ft.
C 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from
clouds; 8 km visibility
D 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 336) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be
deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority,
km visibility.
provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
exception and shall not exceed :
350) Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : A A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial
A on the initiative of the aircraft commander operations.
B Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case

B at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non
commercial operations
C as instructed by an air traffic control unit
C A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
D when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
D in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
345) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A 341) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg
descend below the MDA should not be made until : of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight A Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use,
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintaining circling alitude
maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained B Initiate a missed approach
and a landing can be made
C Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is : conctact
A 1, 3. D If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
B 1, 2, 3.
340) During flight through the transition layer the vertical
C 1, 2. position of the aircraft should be expressed as
D 2, 3. A altitude above mean sea level during climb
B flight level during descent

337) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light
or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a C either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier climb
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway D altitude above mean sea level during descent
for take off, this minimum is :
A 2 minutes
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
B 5 minutes service and are separated from each other is classified
as
C 3 minutes
A Airspace B
D 1 minute
B Airspace C
343) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller C Airspace D

advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume
own navigation". This phrase means that: D Airspace E
A You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

353) Which statement is correct ?
B You are to assume responsability for your own navigation. During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace
(Classe C):
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
A ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
D Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable
for position reports. B ATC will apply separation with other traffic
C the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

342) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory
airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory D ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
service:
A need to file a flight plan

346) An air traffic control unit :
B may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
A may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when
C Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call
made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
D Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made B must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
thereto are not necessary to be notified.
C may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after
accepting the flight plan.
D may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for

safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between
two or more similar call signs.
Professione Volare Risposte esatte Air Law and ATC
168 1 244
X X X
161 138 243
X X X
174 152 242
X X X
173 159 250
X X X
172 158 200
X X X
171 157 226
X X X
176 156 206
X X X
169 155 205
X X X
177 143 204
X X X
167 153 203
X X X
166 193 208
X X X
165 151 201
X X X
164 150 209
X X X
163 149 199
X X X
192 148 198
X X X
170 147 197
X X X
184 146 196
X X X
129 154 195
X X X
190 232 194
X X X
189 225 202
X X X
188 238 216
X X X
187 237 223
X X X
175 236 222
X X X
185 235 221
X X X
160 240 220
X X X
183 233 219
X X X
182 241 207
X X X
181 231 217
X X X
180 230 128
X X X
179 229 215
X X X
178 228 214
X X X
186 227 213
X X X
136 191 212
X X X
162 234 211
X X X
142 248 210
X X X
141 255 218
X X X
140 254 40
X X X
139 253 33
X X X
144 252 46
X X X
137 251 45
X X X
145 239 44
X X X
135 249 43
X X X
134 224 48
X X X
133 247 41
X X X
132 246 49
X X X
131 245 39
X X X
Data:
38 20 66
X X X
37 19 74
X X X
36 18 88
X X X
35 26 95
X X X
64 104 94
X X X
42 97 93
X X X
56 110 92
X X X
130 109 91
X X X
62 108 79
X X X
61 107 89
X X X
60 112 258
X X X
59 105 87
X X X
47 113 86
X X X
57 103 85
X X X
32 102 84
X X X
55 101 83
X X X
54 100 82
X X X
53 99 90
X X X
52 63 425
X X X
51 106 418
X X X
50 120 431
X X X
58 127 430
X X X
8 126 429
X X X
34 125 428
X X X
14 124 433
X X X
13 123 426
X X X
12 111 434
X X X
11 121 424
X X X
16 96 423
X X X
9 119 422
X X X
17 118 421
X X X
7 117 420
X X X
6 116 449
X X X
5 115 427
X X X
4 114 441
X X X
3 122 256
X X X
2 72 447
X X X
10 98 446
X X X
24 78 445
X X X
31 77 444
X X X
30 76 432
X X X
29 75 442
X X X
28 80 417
X X X
27 73 440
X X X
15 81 439
X X X
25 71 438
X X X
65 70 437
X X X
23 69 436
X X X
22 68 435
X X X
21 67 443
X X X
Data:
393 511 300
X X X
419 510 299
X X X
399 509 304
X X X
398 508 297
X X X
397 496 305
X X X
396 506 295
X X X
401 481 294
X X X
394 504 293
X X X
402 503 292
X X X
392 502 291
X X X
391 501 386
X X X
390 500 298
X X X
389 499 312
X X X
388 507 319
X X X
387 457 318
X X X
395 483 317
X X X
409 463 316
X X X
416 462 315
X X X
415 461 303
X X X
414 460 313
X X X
413 465 288
X X X
412 458 311
X X X
400 466 310
X X X
410 456 309
X X X
450 455 308
X X X
408 454 307
X X X
407 453 306
X X X
406 452 314
X X X
405 451 264
X X X
404 459 290
X X X
403 473 270
X X X
411 480 269
X X X
489 479 268
X X X
482 478 267
X X X
495 477 272
X X X
494 476 265
X X X
493 464 273
X X X
492 474 263
X X X
497 384 262
X X X
490 472 261
X X X
498 471 260
X X X
488 470 259
X X X
487 469 513
X X X
486 468 266
X X X
485 467 280
X X X
484 475 287
X X X
448 296 286
X X X
491 289 285
X X X
505 302 284
X X X
512 301 283
X X X
Data:
271 338
X X
281 327
X X
322 326
X X
279 325
X X
278 324
X X
277 323
X X
276 385
X X
275 330
X X
274 344
X X
282 321
X X
361 351
X X
320 350
X X
367 349
X X
366 348
X X
365 347
X X
364 336
X X
369 345
X X
362 337
X X
370 343
X X
360 342
X X
359 341
X X
358 340
X X
357 339
X X
356 353
X X
355 346
X X
363
X
377
X
257
X
383
X
382
X
381
X
380
X
368
X
378
X
352
X
376
X
375
X
374
X
373
X
372
X
371
X
379
X
328
X
335
X
334
X
333
X
332
X
331
X
354
X
329
X
Data:
Chapter 4 - Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks
What cannot be included in a C

registration mark?
a. LLL
b. RCC
c. TTT
d. FFF
What letters are prohibited for B

registration marks?
a. 4 letter international codes.
b. 5 letter international codes.
c. 4 letter codes preceded by Q.
d. Any number referring to an ICAO
document
Which of the following is not allowed B

in a registration mark?
a. NNN
b. XXX
c. RCC
d. DDD
What registration is disallowed C

because of possible confusion with
distress/ urgency signals?
a. RCC
b. NNN
c. XXX
d. ZZZ

Which of the following is not B
permitted in the registration mark of
an aircraft?
a. Four letter Q codes.
b. Five letter international code
signals.
c. Three letter international code
signals.
d. Any number identifying an ICAO
document.
Concerning aircraft registration, no D

combination of letters can be used
which can be confused with distress
codes, for example:
a. RCC
b. DDD
c. LLL
d. PAN
Which of the following registration B

marks would not be permitted?
a. G-PRAT
b. SY-PAN
c. 3T-SSS
d. YT-LLL
Concerning aircraft registration D

markings, no combinations can be
used if they can be mistaken for:
a. codes which are used for
identification of ICAO documents.
b. letter combinations including the
letter Q.
c. 3 letter combinations which are
used by international code of signals.
d. 5 letter combinations which are
used by international code of signals

According to Annex 7, the registration A
mark shall be letters, numbers or a
combination of letters and numbers
and shall be that assigned by:
a. the State of Registry or Common
Mark Registering Authority.
b. the State of Registry only.
c. the International Civil Aviation
Organisation.
d. the International
Telecommunication Union.
The common mark shall be selected A

from the series of symbols included in
the radio call signs allocated:
a. to ICAO by the ITU.
b. to the State of Registry by ICAO.
c. to the State of Registry by the ITU.
d. to the State of the Operator.
The height of the markings under the C

wings of a heavier than air aircraft shall
be:
a. at least 30 cm.
b. at least 40 cm.
c. at least 50 cm.
d. more than 40 cm but not more than
50 cm.
The height of the markings on the C

fuselage (or equivalent surface) and
on the vertical tail surface of a heavier
than air aircraft shall be:
a. at least 20 cm.
b. more than 20 cm but not more than
30 cm.
c. at least 30 cm.
d. at least 40 cm.
Review questions:
1. Which regulation in the Philippines abolished the Air Transporation Office

and established the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines?
2. What is the title of the law RA 9497?
3. What is the position title of the head of CAAP?
4. What is the definition of Aircraft according to RA 9497?
5. What is the meaning of Airworthiness?
6. When did RA 9497 became a law?
7. Are Aeronautical Engineers recognized in RA 9497?
8. Is RA 776 still in effect?
9. How many CAR Parts are currently in force?
10. Which CAR part provides a general procedure or defines the technical terms
used in the regulations?
11. Which CAR part must an organization follow to get an approval for
maintaining an aircraft?
12. Which CAR part must an individual follow to get a maintenance license?
13. What are the maintenance licenses that can be acquired from the CAR?
14. Which CAR part must be followed by a maintenance personnel whenever they
perfor maintenance tasks?
16. What does the Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) signify?
17. Is the pilot allowed to perform maintenance?
18. Does the CAR allows exemption to the rules?
19. Which CAR part would tell you what to do when you lose or destroy your
license?
20. At what age would a person be eligible for a maintenance license?
21. In an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO), who would issue or
approve the maintenance release or return to service?
22. How many months of training is needed to be eligible for an AMT license
with Airframe rating?
23. To be able to apply for an AMT license, a person must have both experience
and training. Is this statement true or false?
24. How long is the AMT license valid?
25. Do avionics rated personnel allowed to sign for the release of an engine?
26. Does a person with an airman license always have to carry his license?
27. Which document provide detailed requirements that support the intent of a
regulation presented in a Part, but gain the force and effect of the governing
regulations only if specifically referred to in the governing regulation?
28. When a person commits a violation of the regulations, what would be the first
action that CAAP would do?
29. How many months of experience is needed in order to renew a maintenance
license?
30. How long would an AMS remain valid?
31. What does FAR mean?
32. Which title does Aeronautics and Space belong?
33. Which FAR Part would you find the regulations you need to follow when you
are performing an inspection?
34. Which FAR Part would you find the requirements for Repair Stations?
35. Who is the accountable manager of repair stations?
36. Where would you find the information to know what information should be
put in the maintenance records?
37. How long is the duration of certificates of repair stations located outside the
United States?
38. Are you required to have a repair station certificate even if you would only be
maintaining components?
39. Do all repair stations required to have a hangar?
40. Does the FAR requires repair station personnel to be able to speak in English?
41. What does EASA mean?
43. Which implementing rule contains the law for certification of aircraft
components?
44. What is Part M all about?
45. What are the annexes found in the implementing rule for continuing
airworthiness?
46. Which EASA regulation would give you information about maintenance
licenses?
47. Which EASA Part 66 license category would allow a person to be a certifying
staff for base maintenance?
48. How long is the duration of maintenance organization approvals?
49. Which class rating would allow a maintenance organization to perform
maintenance on Engines and APU?
50. Which document will tell you ways to comply with the requirements but
which is not mandatory?
1. RA 9497 33. FAR PART 43 (MAINTENANCE,
2. CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY ACT OF PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE,
2008 REBUILDING AND ALTERATION
3. DIRECTOR GENERAL 34. FAR PART 145 (REPAIR STATIONS)
4. ANY MACHINE THAT CAN DERIVE 35. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
SUPPORT IN THE ATMOSPHERE FROM 36. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
THE REACTIONS OF THE AIR 37. 12 MONTHS
5. PROPER AND SAFE WITH ACCEPTED 38. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
ENGINEERING PRACTICE AND IN 39. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
ACCORDANCE WITH AERODYNAMIC 40. YES (SUPERVISION AND FINAL
FORCES INSPECTION)
6. MARCH 4 2008 41. EUROPEAN AVIATION SAFETY AGENCY
7. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX 42. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
8. NO (CAB) 43. JAR 21
9. 13 44. CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS
10. PART 1 (GENERAL POLICIES, 45. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
PROCEDURES AND DEFINITION) 46. JAR 145
11. PART 6 (APPROVED MAINTENANCE 47. CATEGORY C
ORGANIZATIONS) 48. 2 YEARS (BAKA DAW PAREHO SA FAR)
12. PART 2 (PERSONNEL LICENSING) 49. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
13. AMT AND AMS (AVIATION 50. SB
MAINTENANCE SPECIALIST) LICENSE
14. PART 5 (AIRWORTHINESS)
15. OPERATOR/OWNER
16. AIRCRAFT IS AIRWORTHY/CAPABLE OF
SAFE FLIGHT
17. PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE ONLY
18. YES
19. PART 2 (PERSONNEL LICENSING)
20. 18 YEARS OF AGE
21. AUTHORIZED REPRESENTATIVE OF THE
AMO
22. 24 MONTHS
23. FALSE
24. 2 YEARS
25. NO
26. YES
27. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX
28. FINE RANGING FROM 20,000 PESOS TO
100,000 PESOS
29. 24 CALENDAR MONTHS
30. 3 YEARS
31. FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATIONS
32. XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX

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Review questions for Related Air Laws and Regulations:

A. Section 2: Relation with the State

A. Holder of a repair station certificate

A. Maintenance Organization Approval

6. Which law established EASA?

A. Rome Convention Regulations

A. Auxiliary Power Unit

9. The act of rendering or offering to render professional services in aeronautical engineering in

A. Aeronautical Engineering Practice

A. Professional Regulation Commission, Aeronautical Engineering

11. PCAR Part 2 Medical Certificate Validity for Private Pilot

12. Sometimes called second hand value

13. The recorded current value of an asset is known as

17. Leads a function that creates indirect inputs

19. Which statement is true?

A. Director General have the power to promote safety of light

21. Section 25 of PD 1570

23. All of the following are members of the board except

24. FAR Part 33

A. Airworthiness Standards for Helicopters

25. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) code for hijacking

A. Airport Traffic Zone (ATZ)

A. Its maintenance log book

33. Convention on Commercial Aviation

34. A bond in which the security consists of intangible property

37. The total income equals the total operating cost.

39. What is the highest position in the corporation?

A. Chairman of the Board

40. Work-in process is classified as

42. EASA Part 21 Subpart J

43. PD 1570 IRR was adopted

A. Sept. 20, 1982

44. The keystone of professional conduct is _______

A. 1-7/9 inches C. 47 millimeters

48. Creation of MIAA

49. Meaning of JAA

A. Joint Aviation Administration

A. Distress C. Assistance is required

The State of Design is to ensure that a B

The continuing validity of a Certificate A

When a Contracting State first enters C

Chapter 3 - Airworthiness of Aircraft

This permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not

 All of the above

The overhauling on electrical equipment, all necessary

 Maintenance instructions published by the aircraft or

 During any 7 consecutive day period

The contracting state which approved original type

All Philippine registered aircraft, use for commercial or

The alteration of an aircraft or aeronautical product

Calibration of avionics computer equipment PCAR Part

 Appliance Major Repair

Calibration and repair of instruments is an example of PCAR

 Appliance major repair

 Powerplant major modification

A document signed by an authorized representative of an

Changes to the basic design of the fuel or oil cooling, cabin

 Airframe major modification

A certificate confirming that the maintenance work to which

Replacing or cleaning spark plug and setting of sparkplug

Replacing defective safety wiring or cotter pins:

Simple or minor preservation operation and replacement of

An example of power plant major repair is?