• What is the maximum certificated passenger seating capacity of an Aircraft operated under part 121 ?

20 or more
• Type ratings are:
(i) aeroplane with a MCM exceeding 5 700 kg;
(ii) multi-engine turbo-prop aeroplane;
(iii) aeroplane certificated for operation with a flight crew of at least two pilots;
(iv) aeroplane with unconventional handling characteristics that requires additional flying or FSTD training
(v) warbird;
• The following logbooks shall be kept in respect of a South African registered aircraft;
(a) an approved aircraft logbook for each aircraft; and (b) an approved engine logbook for each aircraft engine;
and (c) an approved propeller logbook for each propeller.
• Except with the written permission of the Director, no person may operate any South African registered
aircraft unless its current empty mass has been established by means of a mass meter and its centre of
gravity computed within the preceding ?
5 Years
• Operating in an all-cargo configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass of greater than 8 618 kg
applies to ?
Part 121
• Having a maximum certificated passenger seating capacity of 20 or more as authorised on the initial type
certificate issued to such aeroplane applies to ?
Part 121
• Category ratings are:
(i) aeroplane; (ii) helicopter;
• No air service operator may operate an aeroplane without a second-in-command during IFR or night VFR
flight unless the aeroplane is ?
(i) of a certificated maximum mass of less than or equal to 5 700 kg; (ii) is not certificated to carry more than
nine passengers; and (iii) not certificated or otherwise required by these regulations to be flown by two
pilots;
• What may not be done to any record?
(a) any fraudulent or false entry in any record, which is required to be made, kept, or used to show compliance
with any requirement prescribed in this Part; or (b) any reproduction or alteration for fraudulent purposes, of
any record or report made in terms of the provisions of this Part.
• What is the maximum certificated take-off mass of an aircraft operated under part 121 ?
greater than 8 618 kg
• Who do you notify of the accident?
(a) the Executive Manager: Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation; (b) an ATSU; or (c) the nearest police
station, of such accident.
• When should you notify the authorities of an accident?
As soon as possible but at least within 24 hours since the time of the accident
• What is the applicability of part 12?
This Part applies to the procedures relating to the reporting and investigation of accidents and incidents other
than accidents and incidents involving aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in
tow by vehicles or vessels moving on the surface of the earth
• What does part 43 applies to?
This part applies to maintenance and release to service after maintenance of aircraft aircraft components to be
fitted to such aircraft.
• Details in respect of maintenance carried out while away from base shall be transferred to the appropriate
logbooks within a period off ?
48 hours
• Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight
For all flights in a restricted zone
• What classification of ATS airspace has these rules
1. IFR traffic is permitted
2. VFR Traffic is not permitted
3. ATC Clearance is required
4. ATC service is provided
Class A
• During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip, flying along for a
while, then rocking the wings and commencing a shallow turn to the right. What does this mean?
Return to aerodrome of origin
• To remain in VMC, the minimum horizontal distance from cloud for an aircraft in Class E airspace at 4,500ft
altitude is
1500m
• What does a flashing green light signal at a controlled aerodrome directed to an aircraft on ground mean?
Cleared to taxi
• A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major
aerodromes is known as:
Terminal Control Area (TMA)
• The marking with an airfields 'signal square' to indicate landing is prohibited:
yellow cross on top of a red square
• The Altimeter setting procedures used in the Republic of South Africa are in accordance with the Standard
and Recommended Practices of the ICAO
The procedures used at some of the main airports there Transition Altitudes have been established are in
compliance
• The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an
aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
Visual manoeuvring (or circling)
• Flight level zero shall be located:
at the atmospheric pressure level of 1013.2 hPa.
• In order to reduce the risk of Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS)/TCAS Resolution Advisories (RAs)
which are subsequently shown to have been operationally unnecessary - so called “nuisance” RAs:
Reduce rate of climb/descent to less than 1500 ft/min when in Reduced Vertical Separation Minima (RVSM)
airspace or within the last 1000 ft before cleared level
• Who compiles the MEL and where does it go?
The operator and in the Operations Manual
• An aircraft which is being subject to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000ft when above FL 290 and 500ft when
lower than FL 290
• Where a State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the
highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
at least 2000ft within 8km of the estimated position
• When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case:
the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan
• VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL, are
8km visibility, 1500m horizontal and 1000ft vertical distance from clouds
• An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than:
70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
• A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
Not withstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being
• An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
on the ground when the engines are running
• Given: AGL= above ground level; AMSL= above mean sea level; FL= flight level
• Within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 feet margin above the following
two levels:
3000 feet AMSL or 1000 feet AGL
• The privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot License-airplane shall be:
to act as pilot in command in any airplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation
• The prescribed re-examination of a license holder operating in an area distant from designated medical
examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the license authority, provided that such
deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
a single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations
• The holder of a pilot license, when acting as copilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a copilot, shall
be entitled to be credit with not more than:
50% of the copilot flight-time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot license
• For Commercial Pilot License airplane the applicant shall have completed in airplanes not less than if the
privileges of the license are to be expected at
5 hours of night flight time including 10 take-offs and 10 landings as pilot in command
• The holder of a pilot license when acting as copilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command
the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:
in full with his flight-time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot license
• Type ratings shall be established
for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
• When a contracting state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state the validity of the
authorization
shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license other than for use in private flights
• An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot License shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as copilot
• An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot license airplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall
have completed....hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable
to the licensing Authority, of which not less than..... hours shall be in aircraft. The said hours, are respectively
50 hours and 10 hours
• The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight
trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1500 hours. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of:
100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic
instrument flight trainer
• The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the radio callsigns allocated:
to the International Civil Aviation Organization by the International Telecommunication Union
• The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that
assigned by:
the state of registry or common mark registering authority
• When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with
urgent signals for example
PAN
• When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with
urgent or distress signals for example
XXX
• The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and
control, in respect of aeroplanes
over 5700Kg maximum certificated take-off mass
• According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to
the:
Laws of the state of registry
• Load factors has the following meaning:
the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aircraft the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic
forces, inertia forces and ground reactions
• The loading limitations shall include:
all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loadings
• The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
• If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in another state,
which convention covers this?
ROME
• What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating state
• What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?
All flights
• When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious
means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly
transmit all other relevant information to the:
two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens
were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO
• A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the accident that
caused the damage:
Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and disembarking

• An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the State of
Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to an airworthy
condition if:
It receives permission of the State of Registry
• What is the status of IATA?
It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation
• Which freedom gives the privilege to land for non-traffic purposes in another ICAO contracting state:
The 2nd Freedom
• Does the liability of a carrier extend to the carriage of mail and cargo as well as passengers?
Yes, but only mail and international cargo
• The first freedom of the air is:
The right to overfly without landing
• The second freedom of the air is the:
Right to land for a technical stop
• The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
limitation of the operator's responsibility vis-a-vis passengers and goods transported
• Which of the following is obligating for the members of the ICAO?
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any to the Annexes to the convention
• Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written notification to the depositary
governments. The denunciation shall take effect:
6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary Governments
• The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about
to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law

may deliver such person to the competent authorities

• The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:

the convention of Tokyo

• Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification addressed to
ICAO
• Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
• The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
• Which body of ICAO finalizes the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption
?
the Air Navigation Commission
• An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:
Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is over flying
• Where is the headquarters of ICAO?
Montreal
• A state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:
It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the International Standard
• What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an International Standard?
The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP
• Concerning the Chicago Convention of 1944:
Each state has total sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
• The Air Navigation Commission consists of:
15 members appointed by the ICAO Council
• For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation
• What is each contracting state of ICAO required to provide?
Facilities for SAR operations to be undertaken in its airspace
• One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
develop principles and techniques for international aviation
• The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes
Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.
• An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed not less than:
200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
• For the issue of a CPL, the applicant must have completed, inter alia:
20 hours of cross country time as PIC.
• An applicant for CPL must have completed not less than:
5 Hours of instruction on an aeroplane with adjustable propeller.
• The transition level:
shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been established
• A natural or artificial entity holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof authorising
such persons to conduct scheduled or non-scheduled commercial air services is
An operator
• The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by
The operator
• The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:
The Manufacturer
• Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
Achieving separation between controlled flights

• Which of the following may be dropped from an aircraft without prior permission from the Director?
1. Fine sand or clean water used as balast.
2. Chemical substances for the purpose of spraying, dusting or cloud seeding
both 1 and 2 may be dropped
• How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60m in length but not suitable for use by aircraft,
marked?
White Xs
• When the PIC directs that safety belts be fastened, an infant passenger for which no child restraint system is
provided shall be
held securely in the arms of an adult person whose safety belt shall be fastened.
• The controller suggests a take-off from a runway intersection. The pilot must be aware that
it is the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the remaining runway length is sufficient for take-off.
• On a flight in a pressurized aircraft, where the MORA is 14 000 ft. and magnetic track is 045º, the service
ceiling is 35 000 ft, a suitable flight level is:
290
• A flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
• How shall a change from IFR and VFR during flight be executed?
The cancellation of IFR initiated by the pilot has been acknowledged by the competent ATC-unit.
• For a private flight from Mthatha (controlled) to Escourt (controlled) a flight plan:
Must be filed
• The manoeuvring area of an aerodrome includes:
Taxiways and Runways
• An aircraft with a nominal threshold speed of 110 knots is a:
Category B Aircfrat
• The pilot in command is the pilot:
Responsible for the flight
• At an airfield with an AFIS, the AFIS:
Gives information to expedite traffic, but leaves the decisions to the pilot in command.
• How is a paved pre-threshold area which is greater than 60m in length but not suitable for ANY use by
aircraft, marked?
By a White X
• A sequence of white arrows painted on the runway surface along the centre line indicate:
a temporarily or permanently displaced threshold

• When transmitting waypoint position reports via voice, crews must communicate to ATC any ETAs (estimated
times of arrival) that change by how many minutes or more.
2 Minutes
• The PAPI system (Precision Approach Path Indicator) shall be located on the _________ side of the runway
unless it is physically impracticable to do so:
Left
• A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot
should give way?
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
• During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are
converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft
#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
• On a flight from Cape Town to Bloemfontein in a twinengine aircraft that is capable of climbing to 1 500 ft on
a single engine. The surface conditions at Cape Town are: - Visibility 1 500 m with runway 01 in use. For the
take-off, these conditions are:
Suitable, provided the conditions at an alternate aerodrome within 1 hour flight time on one engine are at or
above landing minima
• For which flight are you required to carry a noise certificate?
Both
• Special VFR can be given
By day only
• If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:
select two destination alternates.
• In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:
Establish and implement a fatigue management program
• To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:
1500m
• Planning minima for en-route alternates CAT I:
Non precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDA
• Destination alternates planning minima: Aerodromes supporting straight in instrument approach and landing
operation to different suitable runways. The ceiling:
Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 200 ft
• No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an aerodrome traffic
zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome concerned is less than:
5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft
• When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination alternate fuel
to be carried shall be:
For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal cruise consumption above
the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
• While on a flight which is being operated for reward, a pilot deviates from the CAR. The PIC is required as
soon as practical to:
Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation occurred, of such
deviation without delay.
• In the event of a package containing dangerous goods and bearing a "cargo aircraft only" sticker:
It shall be loaded in a manner that any flight crew member or other person authorised by the operator can still
handle the package and where size and weight permit, separate such package from the other cargo on the
flight

• The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so declaring an
area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1) The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2) The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.
1 is correct, 2 is correct
• On an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the
destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:
the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.
• No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space of a prohibited area:
1) Below the height specified above the ground surface of such area
• Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet?
The pilot in command
• Dangerous goods to be transported includes medical equipment. This will be permitted in the cabin:
If required by a passenger in the cabin

• The operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR flight
unless:
1) Isolated aerodrome
2) 2 separate runways
3) Duration of the flight from departure taking into account all the operational information
for a period of at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA and can be made in VMC
4) Sufficient fuel to hold for at least 2 hours
• Take-off alternate: A take-of alternate is required to be nominated if return to the departure airfield is
precluded due to weather. This will be:
For a 2 engine aeroplane, within the distance equivalent to a flight time of one hour, at single engine cruise
speed in still air, standard conditions, based on the actual take-off mass.
• The minimum required recency experience for a PIC or SIC for an instrument approach under IMC shall be:
2 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
• As far as the planning minima for IFR flights is concerned, in which of the following cases shall the cloud
ceiling be taken into account?
When the only approaches available are non-precision or circling approaches
• The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:
May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is approved for the purpose by the
Director.
• According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome, the
appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination of thereof must be at or above the applicable
planning minima for a period of:
1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome

• If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft

He may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
• A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:
occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out
• You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:
Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an instrument rating
• The one engine cruising speed for a multi-engine aircraft which is used to calculate the flight time for
purposes of a take-off alternate aerodrome is based on:
the actual take-off mass
• May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?
Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot remains at the controls of the
aircraft at all times
• The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:
Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned speed and level before
climbing to the level in the current flight plan
• No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a Passenger by night unless he has carried out,
in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:
three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight

• To act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in Part 135 operations, you:

May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings and must meet the experience limitations
detailed in SA CATS 135
• Except by individual permission from the CAA aircraft shall not be flown aerobatically inter alia:
within 5 nm from an aerodrome unless at a height of not less than 4 000 ft agl
• Approach ban is applicable to:
All IMC approaches
• During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will:
Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

• The pilot in command of an aircraft:

3) may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
5) may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory
Clearance.
• May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?
Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed in document SA CATS 92
• With reference to “Approach Ban” – The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if
at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or, where there is no FAF, the
point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000
feet above the aerodrome;

• During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to:

The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
• The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that when a flight is conducted above FL 410:
At least one pilot at a pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason.
• “Terrain awareness and warning systems” are required for:
Turbine engine aircraft of a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 5 700 kg or authorised to carry more
than 9 passengers operating according to IFR
• According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I runway to be classified as having full
facilities, the minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting required is:
720 m
• When it appears that a passenger on board your flight displays symptoms of a communicable disease, you as
PIC shall immediately notify:
ATC
• An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class rating shall inter alia:
Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours may have been
acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
• No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations if prior to each
flight the expected flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for all flying of:
10 hrs within a 24 hr period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and duty period scheme
• You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure. However, an
ATC clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified in the current flight plan.
Your actions should be:
Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of climb to the flight plan
level.
• When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary
that:
Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board.
• SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:
Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in the provision of ATC and
flights in airspace where it is not
• The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing shall:
Fly across an aerodrome or its environs at a height of no less than 2000 ft AGL
• Instrument time means:
Instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined
• According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass of the
aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
• If the marshaller: “arms repeatedly crossed above his head” this means:
STOP
• Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument rating is:
At least 50 hours cross country flight as PIC of which at least 10 hours must be in the category of aircraft in
which the rating is sought
• When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal:
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench fist
• A commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required
to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:
final reserve fuel remaining.
• Final reserve fuel is:
for a turbine engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1 500 ft
above aerodrome elevation
• When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision, each
aircraft shall:
Alter heading to right
• A marshaller signal: “Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward. The hand
is moved side wards with the arm remaining bent” – indicates:
Cut engine
• No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior to each
flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for all flying of:
700 hours during the preceding 6 months
• Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of
these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:
Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
• A signalman uses the following signal: Arms down with palms towards the ground, then moved up and down
several times: this means:
Slow down
• In order to conduct single-engine IMC or night flight operation under Part 135:
This operation must specifically be listed as an approval on an operator’s Ops Spec prior to conducting such a
flight
• Admission to the flight deck is permitted if:
The person is made familiar with all safety equipment and pertinent operational procedures;
• A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching fist.
• No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:
Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.
• An applicant for a single pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating shall have at least:
70 hours as PIC of aeroplanes
• A white double cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
• The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
take-offs and landings are to be on a runway, but movement on the ground is not confined to pavements
• Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:
Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical examiners performing such
examinations
• Psychoactive substances:
Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding tobacco and caffeine
• Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be conducted in
controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:
For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure
• While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This
signal means that the aircraft:
must vacate the landing area in use.
• No owner or operator shall permit the taxing of and no person shall taxi an aircraft on the movement areas of
an aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aircraft:
1) Is the holder of a valid pilot license
2) Has received instruction in the taxiing of an aircraft from, and has been declared competent to taxi an aircraft
by holder of a flight instructor’s rating or in the case of a foreign aircraft, a person authorised by an
appropriate authority
3) If a person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus
4) Is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic service signals and
instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to perform to the standards required for
safe movements at such aerodrome. Provided the aircraft does not enter the manoeuvring area in a case
where radio communication is mandatory.
• No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on board the
aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the performance of the
systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:
Electric shaver
• An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-engine
aircraft, a minimum:
6 Hours dual flight training.
• If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall suspend that
license:
Until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical requirements
• No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there are spare
fuse available for use in flight equal to at least:
10% or 3, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete circuit protection
• The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an instruction to
the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:
A continues RED beam
• A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
The airport is unsafe, do not land
• According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with passengers
on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:
Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications

• Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower.
The aircraft:
must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
• A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means
Cleared to taxi.
• If the medical examination for the CPL is suspended by a DAME, the pilot may appeal this suspension within:
14 Days
• The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall be
responsible for:
Making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force.
• An applicant for a licence, rating, revalidation, class or type rating or any familiarisation or differences
training must have the applicable endorsements in his or her pilot logbook as described in Document SA-
CATS 61.(2) The endorsement must include, but is not limited to, the following details –
1) Date of the skills test;
2) Aircraft registration and type;
4) Name and licence number of examiner;
5) Name of the ATO.
• The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:
600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically
• Part 139 refers to:
Aerodromes and Heliports
• To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the following
experience:
100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
• An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
on the ground when the engines are running
• In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must
Notify the designated body or institution
• Training in a FSTD:
May be logged provided it is certified by the director
• Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome
traffic zone at an indicated airspeed or more than:
160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft
• Part 61 applies to:
The issuing, revalidation and re-issuing of South African pilot licences and ratings
• The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000 feet is:
250 kts
• No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off, except:
in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft
• An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed by ATC:
If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
• Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more
A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as pilot of an aircraft engaged in
international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of a multi-pilot crew and provided
that such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years
• The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another aircraft on a
relative bearing of 030°, the bearing remaining constant.
there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right
• When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other on its right
shall give way, except:
gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to gliders and balloons,
• The weather conditions at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome are required to:
To be at or above the applicable landing minima
• The PIC of an aircraft may pick up an object:
Only when he/she has obtained prior written approval from the Director
• The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which he/she
holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by certification to be
operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
• The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes or light
sport aeroplanes, he/she:
Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and undergoing differences or
familiarisation training.
• Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight to be
recorded
7 days in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training, and domestic
commercial air transport operations;
• In the case of a holder of an instrument rating which has lapsed by less than 36 months, the license holder
shall be required to:
3) Pass a re-validation check in the same category of aircraft or a FSTD
• Except with the approval of the Director, the crew of any aircraft:
must maintain communication with boom or throat microphones when below transition altitude or transition
level when on the flight deck of a large aeroplane.
• A private operator shall not operate a twin-engine aircraft, under Part 93, over a route which contains a point
further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be flown, under standard
conditions in still air, in 60 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed unless:
The extended range twin-engine operations are conducted in accordance with the procedures approved for the
operator in the operations manual.
• The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credited:
the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the
requirements of the licensing authority
• An instrument rating is valid for:
12 Months
• RVSM operations requires:
1) a valid RVSM approval certificate has been issued for such aircraft;
2) the prescribed minimum RVSM equipment is serviceable; and
3) the flight crew has successfully completed the RVSM training
• Further difference training or a proficiency check will be required if a variant is not flown within a period of:
24 months following the differences training or the date of last having flown the variant
• In which of the following circumstances may a conversion between met vis and RVR not be used?
Take-off minima
• No person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15
000 kg or authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual certificate of airworthiness
was issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aircraft is equipped with:
ACAS
• The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that licence –
1) Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part 67 and complies with
all medical endorsements on that medical
2) While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to meet the medical
standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been assessed and declared medically fit again by
an aviation medical examiner designated in terms of Part 67
3) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of any psychoactive
substance
4) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use of alcohol
• All flight crew members involved in large aeroplanes operations and who are required to be on the flight deck
duty shall:
communicate through boom or throat microphones below the transitions level / altitude
• The revalidation check for a licence other than a PPL must be done by a
DFE
• A “Flight Simulation Training Device” (FSTD) is:
1) full flight simulator realistically simulated
2) flight procedure trainer – simulates flight characteristics of a particular class .
3) basic instrument flight trainer simulates an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.
• No person shall operate an aeroplane, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flotation device or life jacket
containing a survivor locator light for each person on board:
when flying over water & beyond gliding distance from land;
• An applicant for a CPL must undergo the skills test within:
36 months of completing the required examinations
• With respect to multi crew certificated aircraft the PIC is bound by Part 91’s recency requirements. The three
take-off and landings must be done as:
Pilot flying
• Electronic flight bag
means an electronic information management and display system intended primarily for flight or cabin crew
functions that were traditionally accomplished using paper references
• No person shall operate an aircraft over water equivalent to ….. minutes at normal cruising speed or ….. NM,
whichever is the lessor unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts and survival equipment:
30 mins and 50 nm
• Licences issued under Part 61 are:
SPL, PPL, CPL, ATPL
• A person who gives false information pertaining to the investigation of any aviation accident or incident is:
committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
• An Emergency Locator Transmitter is required to be carried by all flights, except:
All training flights
• According to Part 91, a noise certificate (if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft) is required
to be carried on board for:
Both Domestic and International flights
• The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:
The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total hydraulic fluid, any fixed
ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
• Distress signals are signals made by radio telephony or by any signalling method consisting of:
1) signal sent by radio telephony consisting of spoken word mayday x 3
2) rocket shells throwing red lights fired one at a time and at short intervals
3) parachute flare showing red lights
• DH is reference to:
Runway threshold elevation
• On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout the
period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is between:
10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
• Who may have access to the scene of an accident:
1) An investigator
3) An advisor
5) A member of the rescue team
• A precautionary kit shall be carried on board an aircraft for which the maximum certificated passenger
seating is:
20 or more
• If an aircraft is not capable of flight to an aerodrome if the critical power unit becomes inoperative, the
aircraft should carry sufficient life jackets for an over-water flight for every person on board and is restricted
to:
Within 30 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed.
• On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen
reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of
a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than:
12 000ft
• The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into account
1) equipment available for navigation
2) dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3) composition of the flight crew
4) obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5) facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
• Cloudbreak procedure
means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from
obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface may be made and
from which a landing or circling approach can be completed
• Seats for cabin crew close to the emergency exit must be:
15° in the longitudinal axis
• Which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach:
1) the required RVR,
2) the ceiling
3) the minimum descent height (MDH)
• In the case of a multi-pilot crew, the owner or operator shall designate one pilot among the flight crew as PIC
of the aircraft and
the PIC may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
• Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other than an
ATS incident shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1) Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2) The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3) Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical point and if known,
with reference to latitude and longitude
4) Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and other persons
killed or seriously injured
5) Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
• Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that …..
The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes and seconds
• An ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of:
An international flight
• The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
800m
• The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying VFR:
Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator.
• No aircraft shall be operated at night without:
Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two separately energised
filaments.
• Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic must be reported to:
1.The appropriate authority
2.The Executive responsible for accident and incident investigation
• An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to:
Required flight instruments
• Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:
The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station
Landing distance available must be at least:
For turbo-jet or turbo-fan aircraft the landing distance required must not be more than 60% of the LDA;
• Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:
The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has ensured that night flying
facilities are available for take-off or landing.
• An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:
except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome
• On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:
On all flights
• Part 138 applies to:
Air ambulance operations
• Certificate of Release to service is issued by the AMO after a Mandatory periodic inspection of an aircraft as
required by the maintenance schedule. This will certificate will be retained for a period of:
12 Months
• When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:
Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be produced for inspection or
investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or other document relating to the aircraft or crew
• Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane) - in the case of a holder of a CPL where the maintenance
of competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the licence holder shall be required to:
undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard required for the
revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass a
revalidation check in the same category of aircraft;
• Except by individual permission from the Director, aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically –
1) unless the manoeuvre can be concluded and the aircraft brought on an even keel at a height of not less
than 2 000 feet above the ground or water;
2) within a five nautical mile distance of an aerodrome reference point of an aerodrome licensed and
approved in terms of Part 139 unless at a height not less than 4 000 feet above ground level;
3) in the vicinity of air traffic services routes; or
4) over any populous area or public gathering.
• An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with flight levels according to
magnetic track when flown at a height (above the surface) of less than:
1500ft
• The minimum cruise level for IFR flight is:
1 000 ft above the highest obstacle 5 000 ft or below.
• Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected in
accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:
The magnetic track only
• A flight folio must be completed after each flight:
The information must be completed in a legible writing and in permanent ink;
• Approved training means:
Training conducted in terms of Part 141 under special curricula and supervision, approved by the Director
• According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass of the
aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:
In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
• Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the Departure.
This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
When carrying passengers in a small aircraft, you as the PIC shall ensure that:
the passengers are briefed on the smoking prohibition and portable electronic devices
• Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:
60% of the landing distance available.
• A flight plan shall be submitted in respect of:
A - All flights for which search and rescue is required
B - All commercial flights – air transport and aerial
C - An international flight.
• Terminal Arrival Altitude :
minimum altitude of 1000 ft / 25 nm
• The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve is:
2500ft
• In a part 135 operation, the PIC of an aircraft flying IFR must have a second in command if:
The aeroplane is > 5 700kg and certified to carry more than 9 passengers;
• An aerodrome with runway edge and centreline lighting – what is the lowest take-off minima for a Cat D
aircraft?
RVR 250m
• Except with the written permission of the CAA no aircraft shall circle over or within 1 km of or make repeated
flights over an open-air assembly of persons below a height of:
3 000 ft above the surface
• On a VFR flight from X to Z an airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated outside
Controlled airspace.
A flight plan must be filed if search and rescue is required.
• A body or institution designated by the SACAA may be required to perform which functions?
1) promote aviation safety
2) reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents
3) advise the Director on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation safety
• If aircraft “A” files a flight plan and aircraft “B” does not:
“A” may be given priority.
• Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require for
operations at night without a SIC?
At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as PIC and 15 hours of
flight time at night
An “Aircraft Flight Manual”:
means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations within which the aircraft
is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crew members for the
safe operation of the aircraft;
• Having been intercepted, the signal from the intercepting aircraft to the intercepted aircraft to indicate that
it is clear to proceed is:
Breaking climbing turn left
• Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway ends,
according to SA CATS 135 is:
The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400ft plus a visibility increment of
1500m
• How many hours must a PIC have before being able to carry passengers in an aeroplane with a maximum
certificated seating configuration of 10 or more passenger in VFR at night?
350 hours and a suitable type rating
• Part 121: Air Transport Operations applies to:
any South African Operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an airplane registered in the
Republic of South Africa operating in an all-cargo configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass
of greater than 8618 kg
• Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and:
On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
• An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (- NM),
in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance
referred are:
20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
• At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the height of
the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:
1000ft
• An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:
20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a FSTD.
• If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:
1 hour
• Part 135 cargo operations applies to:
Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 or less kg
• For which flight are you required to carry a passenger manifest?
International
• A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:
Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
• May a passenger sit in the co-pilot seat in an aircraft operated under Part 135?
An operator of aeroplanes certificated or authorised for flight with one pilot may use the second seat on the
flight deck as a passenger seat
• As far as the planning minima for IFR are concerned, in which of the following must the cloud ceiling be taken
into account?
When the only approaches available are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
• According to Part 93, 121, 127 and 135 an aircraft may not be refuelled or defueled with passengers
embarking, on board or disembarking if:
Aviation Gasoline or wide cut fuel is being used
• According to Part 135, a single turbine engine aircraft with passengers on board may only be operated at
night if:
Is authorized to do so in its operations specifications
• What is the distance from the threshold to the beginning of the aiming point marking, if the landing distance
available (LDA) is 2600m.
400m
• Runway centre line markings shall be provided on:
Paved runways
• For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of a runway is a runway vacated sign positioned?
At the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area
• Touchdown zone markings are placed:
150m from the runway threshold
• Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine
failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?
The operator of the aircraft
• The procedure design gradient (PDG) consists of:
2.5% OIS and 0.8% increasing obstacle clearance margin
• When can the required noise abatement procedure be disregarded?
At PIC's discretion where safety is an issue
• Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?
The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome
• You may act as flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL
with a theoretical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
• With respect to radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case
there is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance
• Whilst flying at night, you observe the green side light of another aircraft on a relative bearing of 320 degrees
at the same flight level and the bearing remains constant. You should:
Maintain heading and speed but be prepared to take action if the other aircraft fails to give way.
• Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provide d until radar
identification is terminated.
• When can an overtaking aircraft alter its heading to the left:
When a right-hand circuit is in force;
• What is required to make a flight folio legal?
Nature of the flight
• The transition altitude of an aerodrome in IMC, if not listed, shall be:
Lowest safe cruising altitude
• The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
by agreement with the receiving unit
• The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from QNH t o standard
setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
The transition altitude
• The pilot in command shall, prior to undertaking an IFR flight, obtain a weather forecast for the destination
and alternate aerodromes for a duration of at least:
one hour before and one hour after the ETA at both aerodromes,
• The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departing from the same aerodrome and following the
same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20kt or more faster than the
succeeding aircraft, is:
5 minutes
• The Localiser Sensitive Area (LSA) at an aerodrome covers the area 150 m on either side of the runway
centreline. During low visibility procedures this area is
Kept clear of vehicles, persons or any traffic while an aircraft is taking off and until it passes the localiser
transmitter or an aircraft is on final approach within 10nm of touchdown
• The length of runway 02/20 is 2 000 meters. Threshold elevation of 02 is 4 536 ft. Threshold elevation of 20 is
4 601 ft. The slope of runway 02 will be given in the AIP as:
1:100 or +1%.
• The ICAO is a body which:
Offers guidelines to local aviation authorities.
• The documents for entry and departure of aircraft:
are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
• The DH for a category 1 ILS shall in any event not be less than:
200ft
• The continuing airworthiness of an aircraft, according to ICAO Annex 8, shall be determined by:
The state of registry
• The ARP is the Aerodrome reference point. It is a point chosen:
Near the geometric centre of the aerodrome.
• The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrument Flight Rating in …………. aeroplanes shall prove,
according to SA CAR, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instruments and an engine …………..
Multi-engine/ inoperative or simulated inoperative
• Safety belts must be worn after take-off up to a height of at least:
At the discretion of the pilot, in the interests of safety.
• RVSM operations apply to operations between flight levels
290 and 410
• Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS)
It can supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services
• On the various instrument approaches the pilot can descend below the applicable minimum when the
“Required Visual Reference” is met. This will include at least:
the threshold or elements of the approach light system or the threshold lights or the runway edge lights
• Part 61 deals with
Issuing, revalidation, and reissuing of South African Pilot Licenses
• Part 172 applies to:
Classification of Airspace
• Part 129 applies to:
Foreign Air Carriers
• Outside controlled airspace normal radio contact is with:
Information, aircraft to aircraft or Advisory service.
• Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC
• No pilot shall fly more than:
1 000 hours in 12 months.
• Loadsheets for commercial flights must be retained for:
90 days
• Loadsheets are required for every aircraft in:
The Air transport category
• In the case of training for a single pilot multi class rating, or the applicant's first single pilot multi enginetype
rating, the training must consist of at least:
7 Hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in multi engined aeroplane operation
• In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall
be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft?
medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft- 2 minutes

• If an aircraft has an ACN higher than the published PCN for the airfield then:
Prior permission must be obtained from the licensee before landing.
• If a turn or more than 15° is required to avoid an obstacle on an IFR departure then:
A turning departure is constructed.
• If a flight plan is to be filed in flight, at least how long must it be filed before entering controlled or advisory
air space:
10 minutes
• For twin-engine aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance that:
Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.
• For the take-off alternate, if the AFM does not give engine out cruising speeds, then the operator shall use
The remaining engine set at maximum continuous power
• For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation may be reduced
When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own
separation
• For any non-precision approach the MDH shall not be less than:
250ft
• For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at
which the aircraft:
will arrive overhead the initial approach fix
• A Flight plan should be filed:
A - When flights are undertaken in terms of Class I or Class II as issued per the Air Service Licensing.
B - For an IFR flight.
C - International flight.
• Contracting States shall establish a rescue co-ordination centre:
In each search and rescue region.
• Circuit height for aircraft with reciprocating engines at any airfield is:
1 000 ft above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something different.
• Category IIIB (Cat IIIB) operation means:
A precision approach and landing with a decision height lower than 50 ft (15 m) or no decision height and a RVR
of less than 200 m but not less than 75 m
• An ATIS is:
A recorded message broadcast on a VOR or VHF RT frequency.
• An applicant for an ATPL shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than
75 hours of instrument time, not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time
• All aircraft shall carry for SAR purpose a:
One set ground/air signalling code and a means of displaying them.
• Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC
clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which is the right of
way?
Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left
• After an accident, the control of the wreckage shall be under the:
CAA via the investigator-in-charge.
• Aerodrome operating minima
Landing minima for a a non-precision approach are given in terms of RVR/visibility and ceiling;
• A so called visual approach can be performed
During IFR flights, if there is permanent sight of the movement area and the underlying ground
• A Private Pilot with an instrument rating shall be permitted inter alia to:
Act as pilot in command of an aircraft by day and night and to carry passengers therein, but not for
remuneration.
• A pilot may be scheduled to fly:
10 hours or less during any 24 consecutive hours without a rest period during such 10 hours.