Q2:

Malignant tertain malaria is caused by Plasmodium :

1. Vivax
2. ovale
3. malariae
4. falciparum

Q3:
The pathogens responsible for causing elephantiasis are transmitted to a healthy person through:
1. Droplet
2. Female mosquito vector
3. Contaminated food and water
4. Sexual contact

Q4:
Interferons are secreted by:
1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Virus infected cells
4. Lymphocytes

Q5:
The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection by a recipient body is
1. Innate immunity
2. Humoral immunity
3. Cell mediated immunity
4. Either 2 or 3

Q6:
Which of the following is used in the production of the recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine?
1. Yeast
2. Microsporum
3. E coli
4. Streptococcus

Q7:
The class of antibodies involved in the allergic reaction is:
1. Ig A
2. Ig D
3. Ig E
4. Ig G

Q8:
The immune-deficiency becomes marked once the HIV starts destroying
1. Macrophages
2. T helper cells
3. B lymphocytes
4. Natural killer cells

Q9:
The cells of the malignant tumors exhibit
1. Metastasis
2. Contact inhibition
3. High differentiation
4. Slow proliferation

Q10:
The receptors for opioids are found in :
1. GIT and CNS
2. CNS and CVS
3. CVS and GIT
4. GIT and Urinary system

Q11:
Which of the following drugs acts by interfering with the transport of the neurotransmitter Dopamine?
1. Morphine
2. Hashish
3. Cocaine
4. Atropine

Q12:
Infection with Hemophilus influenza, especially in children, can cause:

1. Diptheria
2. SARS
3. Pneumonia
4. Dysentery

Q13:
The secretion of antibodies by B lymphocytes provides:
1. Passive immunity
2. Humoral immunity
3. cell mediated immunity
4. Innate immunity

Q14:
The most standard HIV screening blood test:

1. Predicts how fast can one develop AIDS

2. Measures the amount of virus in the blood

3. Detects antibodies against the virus

4. Can be done only after appearance of opportunistic infections

Q15:
Cancer is more common in older because:
1. Their immune systems have degenerated
2. Secretion of certain hormones is decreased
3. Cell replacement is not adequate
4. They accumulate more mutations

Q16:
Which parasitic worm can cause lung damage and severe malnutrition?
1. Ascaris
2. Ancylostoma
3. Wuchereria
4. Clonorchis

Q17:
A normal gene that codes for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation and can, due to
mutations or increased expression, lead to neoplastic transformation of cells, is called as:
1. Oncogene
2. Proto-oncogene
3. V-onc
4. Psuedogene

Q18:
The early screening test for HIV infection is :
1. ELISA
2. Western Blot
3. Culture of HIV
4, Detection of opportunistic infections

Q19:
The major histocompatibility complex is a :
1. Series of complement-enhanced reactions to antigens
2. group of antigens, coded by a family of genes, on the surface of body cells
3. form of autoimmunity
4. the major cause of cancer

Q20:
Which of the following Fungi is not capable of causing ringworm infection in a man?

1. Microsporum
2. Trichophyton
3. Epidermophyton
4. Trichoderma

Q21:
Opportunistic infections appear in AIDS patients when the HIV has destroyed :
1. Macrophages
2. T cytotoxic cells
3. T helper cells
4. B cells

Q22:
Proto-oncogenes are seen in :
1. Normal cells
2. Malignant cells
3. Virus infected cells
4. Cells exposed to X-rays
Q23:
What is incorrect regarding opioids?
1. Their receptors are in CNS and CVS
2. They are generally taken by snorting and injection
3. They are CNS depressants
4. They can be powerful sedatives and painkillers

Q24:
The principal psychoactive principle present in the hemp plant, Cannabis sativa, is:
1. acetyl salicylic acid
2. diacetylmorphine
3. tetrahydrocannabinol
4. lysergic acid dimethylamide

Q25:
DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation can be brought about by ionizing radiations like :
1. UV rays
2. Gamma rays
3. Infrared waves
4. Radio waves

Q26:
The skeletal structure shown in the given diagram shows the structure of :

1. Morphine 2. Diacetyl morphine

3. Cannabinoid 4. Cocaine
Q27:
Ringworm in humans can be caused by infection with all the following except:
1. Microsporum
2. Taenia
3. Trichophyton
4. Epidermophyton

Q28:
Primary lymphatic organs serve as the site for:

1. antibody formation

2. lymph formation

3. lymphocytes to encounter and bind to antigens

4. lymphocyte formation and maturation

Q29:
AIDS is characterized by the presence of:

1. Nosocomial infections

2. Iatrogenic infections

3. Opportunistic infections

4. Subclinical infections

Q30:
The receptors for the drug shown below are located in :

1. CNS and CVS

2. CVS and GIT

3. CNS and GIT

4. CNS and PNS

Q31:
Study the diagram given and choose the incorrect statement :

1. A : retrovirus replicates outside the cell

2. B : viral DNA is produced by the host Reverse transcriptase

3. C : viral DNA incorporates into the host genome

4. D : New viral DNA is produced by the infected cell

Q32:
In the given diagram, A and B represent respectively:
1. The N and the C terminus of the polypeptide

2. The C and the N terminus of the polypeptide

3. The constant and variable regions of the antibody molecule

4. The variable and constant regions of the antibody molecule

Q33:
Consider the given stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium and choose the correctly matched pair :

1. A : Merozites infect human when mosquito bites

2. B : Parasite reproduced sexually in liver cells
3. C : Symptoms of malaria
4. D : Fertilization in hemocoel of the mosquito

Q34:
Consider the following statements:

I. Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria

II. Release of hemosiderin from burst RBCs is responsible for paroxysms of malarial attacks

III. Sporozoites are the infectious forms of Plasmodium

Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II, and III

Q35:
Consider the following statements:

I. Morphine is clinically used as an analgesic and its receptors are located in CNS and GIT.

II. Cocaine and amphetamines are CNS stimulants and the later is used clinically to treat narcolepsy and
morbid obesity.

III. Atropine is a parasympathomimetic drug used to dilate pupil and increase heart rate.

Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

Q36:
Consider the following statements:

I. Cancer is essentially a genetic disease caused by multiple mutational events.

II. Cancerous cells are rapidiy dividing cells that exhibit contact inhibition.

III. Metastasis is the most feared complication of any cancer

Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

Q37:
Consider the following statements:

I. HIV is a reterovirus.
II. It infects and destroys the CD4 T-ymphocytes
III. The newer antiretroviral drugs are a cure for HIV infection
Which of the above statements are true?

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

Q38:
Consider the following statements:

I. Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth.

II. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and is characterized by memory

III. Memory-based acquired immunity developed in higher vertebrates based on ability to distinguish self from
non-self

Which of the following statements are true?

1. I and II only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I, II and III

Q39:
Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine.

Column I Column II

A. Tuberculosis 1. Harmless virus

B. Whooping cough 2. Inactivated toxin

C. Diphtheria 3. Killed bacteria

D. Polio 4. Harmless bacteria

Codes:

A B C D
 (1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 3 2 4 1

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 4 3

Q40:
Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) Autoimmune response

(2) Cell-mediated immune response

(3) Hormonal immune response

(4) Physiological immune response

Q41:
Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?

(1) Cholera and tetanus

(2) Typhoid and smallpox

(3) Tetanus and mumps

(4) Herpes and influenza

Q42:
Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
(1) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse
transcriptase
(2) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of
reverse transcriptase

(3) HIV is not enveloped retrovirus

(4) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response

Q43:
Asthma may be attributed to
1. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
2. inflammation of the trachea
3. accumulation of fluid in the lungs
4. bacterial infection of the lungs

Q44:
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to
genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
1. graft rejection
2. auto-immune disease
3. activate immunity
4. allergic response

Q45:
Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are

administered into the body contain

1. harvested antibodies

2. gamma globulin

3. attenuated pathogens

4. activated pathogens

Q46:
Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor

2. Mutations inactivate the cell control

3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase

4. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle

Q47:
If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would

you look for confirmatory evidence?

1. Fibrinogen in plasma

2. Serum albumins

3. Haemocytes

4. Serum globulins

Q48:
Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to

1. Humoral immune response

2. Cell-mediated immune response

3. Passive immune response

4. Innate immune response

Q49:
Whic of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?

1. Syphilis

2. Influenza

3. Babesiosis

4. Blastomycosis

Q50:
Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?

(1) Hepatitis-B virus

(2) Human immunodeficiency virus

(3) Chikungunya virus

(4) Ebola virus