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NESA Number:

SHITNEY
BOYS
LOW Name:
SCHOOL
Class:

2021
YEAR 12
MODULE 5 ADVANCED
MECHANICS TOPIC TEST

Physics No need to do the entire paper in one session; sitting on


your ass for 6 hours and 10 minutes straight is not good

General • Reading time – 10 minutes


Instructions 3 – 6 hours
• Working time
• Write using black pen
• NESA approved calculators may be used
• Marks may NOT be awarded for messy or badly
arranged work

Section I – 55 marks (pages 3-29)


Total Marks:
• Attempt Questions 1-55
300
• Allow about 1 hour for this section

Section II – 75 marks (pages 30-49)

• Attempt Questions 56-69


• Allow about 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section

Section III – 50 marks (pages 50-59)

• Attempt Questions 70-79


Examiner:
RL • Allow about 1 hour for this section

Section IV – 120 marks (pages 60-86)

• Attempt Questions 80-100


• Allow about 2 hours and 30 minutes for this section
~1~
Multiple Choice Answer Sheet

(1) A B C D (26) A B C D (51) A B C D


(2) A B C D (27) A B C D (52) A B C D
(3) A B C D (28) A B C D (53) A B C D
(4) A B C D (29) A B C D (54) A B C D
(5) A B C D (30) A B C D (55) A B C D
(6) A B C D (31) A B C D
(7) A B C D (32) A B C D
(8) A B C D (33) A B C D
(9) A B C D (34) A B C D
(10) A B C D (35) A B C D
(11) A B C D (36) A B C D
(12) A B C D (37) A B C D
(13) A B C D (38) A B C D
(14) A B C D (39) A B C D
(15) A B C D (40) A B C D
(16) A B C D (41) A B C D
(17) A B C D (42) A B C D
(18) A B C D (43) A B C D
(19) A B C D (44) A B C D
(20) A B C D (45) A B C D
(21) A B C D (46) A B C D
(22) A B C D (47) A B C D
(23) A B C D (48) A B C D
(24) A B C D (49) A B C D
(25) A B C D (50) A B C D

~2~
Section I
55 marks
Attempt Questions 1-55
Allow about 1 hour for this section

Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1-55.

1 Which of the following best describes Galileo’s analysis of projectile motion?

(A) A projectile launched with a great enough velocity would escape Earth’s gravity.
(B) A projectile would travel in a straight line until it ran out of momentum, then it
aaaaaaaaaaaiwould fall.
(C) A projectile launched from the equator towards the east with a great enough
aaaaaaaaaaaivelocity would orbit Earth.
(D) A projectile would travel in a parabolic path because it has constant horizontal
aaaaaaaaaaaivelocity and constant vertical acceleration.

2 A ball was thrown upward at an angle of 45o. It landed at the same height as thrown.
Which graph best represents the kinetic energy of the ball during its time of flight?

~3~
3 A device launches two identical balls (x and y) simultaneously in a horizontal
direction from the same height. The results are shown.

Which statement correctly describes what happens?

(A) x hits the ground before y as it is closer to the launch site.


(B) y hits the ground before x as it has a higher launch velocity.
(C) x and y hit the ground simultaneously with the same velocity.
(D) x and y hit the ground simultaneously with different velocities.

4 Henry Guo hits three golf balls under projectile motion off a cliff top as drawn below.

Which of the following statements is correct about the balls being hit?

(A) Each ball has the same initial velocity.


(B) Each ball has the same initial horizontal velocity.
(C) Each ball has the same initial vertical velocity.
(D) None of the velocities are the same.

~4~
5 A projectile was launched horizontally inside a lift in a building. The diagram shows
the path of the projectile when the lift was stationary.

The projectile was launched again with the same velocity. At this time, the lift was
slowing down as it approached the top floor of the building.

Which diagram correctly shows the new path of the projectile (the dotted line) relative
to the path created in the stationary lift (the solid line)?

~5~
6 This diagram shows the path of a cannonball, fired from a cannon.

Which set of vectors represents the horizontal and vertical components of the
cannonball’s velocity along the path?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

7 A projectile was launched from the ground. It had a range of 70 metres and was in the
air for 3.5 seconds.

At what angle to the horizontal was it launched?

(A) 30o

(B) 40o

(C) 50o

(D) 60o

~6~
8 The diagram shows a smooth, semi-circular, vertical wall with radius, r.

A ball is launched from the position shown with a velocity u towards the north at an
angle to the horizontal.

The ball follows a trajectory around the wall before landing on the ground, opposite
its starting point. It does not reach the top of the wall.

Assume that there is no friction between the ball and the wall.

Which statement correctly describes the net force acting on the ball during its motion?

(A) The magnitude of the net force remains constant.


(B) The direction of the net force is vertically downwards.
(C) The direction of the net force is perpendicular to the wall.
(D) The magnitude of the net force reaches a minimum when the ball is at its highest
aaaaapoint.

9 A ball is launched horizontally from a cliff with an initial velocity of u ms-1. After two
seconds, the ball’s velocity is in the direction 45o from the horizontal.

What is the magnitude of the velocity in ms-1 at two seconds?

(A) u
(B) 1.5 u
(C) 19.6
(D) 27.7

~7~
10 The famous archer Alex Minh Hoang Nguyen is competing in two events at the
Olympics. Each event requires competitors to shoot an arrow to a bullseye (centre of
the target) which is the same height off the ground as the release height of the arrow.
The archer enters the 70 m and the 50 m events.

The archer shoots the first arrow horizontally over the 70.0 m under projectile motion
and misses the centre of the target.

The archer fires a second arrow horizontally at an identical speed this time for the
50.0 m event.

Which of the following would be the expected outcome of the two shots?

(A) Both the arrows will hit the same spot on the target just below the bullseye and
the time of flight will be shorter for the second arrow.
(B) The first arrow will hit the target lower than the second arrow and the time of
flight will be the same for both.
(C) The first arrow will hit the target lower than the second arrow and the time of
flight will be shorter for the second arrow.
(D) The second arrow will hit the target lower than the first arrow and the time of
flight will be the same for both.

~8~
11 Gerard K O’Neill was the champion of space colonisation. He designed a rotating ring
measuring 513 m in diameter that would have people living on the inside. The
rotation would simulate Earth gravity of 9.8 Nkg-1 within the ring.

At what velocity must the ring be spinning to produce centripetal acceleration the
same as Earth’s gravity?

(A) 50 ms-1
(B) 71 ms-1
(C) 5.0 × 103 ms-1
(D) 25 × 103 ms-1

12 Dylan Dinh Ahn Huynh is playing billiards on a train that is travelling forwards on a
level track. The ball takes the path shown when hit by the cue.

What can be inferred about the motion of the train?

(A) It is turning left.


(B) It is speeding up.
(C) It is turning right.
(D) It is slowing down.

~9~
13 Andrew Tam attaches a tennis ball to a piece of string 1.0 m long and swings the ball
vertically in a circle.

Which of the following best describes the energy of the ball as it moves from the
bottom to the top of its rotational path?

(A) Its energy changes and work is done on the ball.


(B) Its energy changes and total work is a constant.
(C) Its energy remains the same and work is done on the ball.
(D) Its energy remains the same and total work is a constant.

14 The diagram shows two positions, X and Y, at different heights on the surface of the
Earth.

Which of the following gives the correct comparisons at X and Y for gravitational
potential and angular velocity?

Gravitational potential energy Angular velocity at X


at X compared with Y compared with Y
(A) Greater Greater
(B) Greater Same
(C) Greater Smaller
(D) Same Same

~ 10 ~
Use the following information to answer Questions 15 and 16.

15 A car is stationary on top of a hill at X, h metres above the top of a cliff. The brakes
are released and the car starts to roll down the hill to point Y, where it is projected
horizontally off a cliff of height H, and lands at point Z, a distance d from the base of
the cliff. Ignore friction and air resistance.

Which of the following expressions below gives the square of the root, v2, of the car at
point Y?

(A) 2gh
(B) 2gH
(C) 2g(h + H)
(D) 2g(H – h)

16 Which of the statements below is correct?

(A) The magnitude of the horizontal component of the velocity of the car at Z is
less than the speed at Y.
(B) The magnitude of the horizontal component of the velocity of the car at Z is
equal to the speed at Y.
(C) The magnitude of the horizontal component of the velocity of the car at Z is
greater than the speed at Y.
(D) The magnitude of the horizontal component of the velocity of the car at Z
depends on the height of the cliff.

~ 11 ~
17 A toy car, moving with speed v, successfully completes a manoeuvre in a circular
track, as shown in the diagram below.

Which of the following descriptions best analyses the forces acting on the car while at
the position marked X?

(A) The normal force equals the centripetal force.


(B) The weight force equals the centripetal force.
(C) The sum of the normal and weight forces equals the centripetal force.
(D) The difference between the normal and weight forces equals the centripetal
force.

18 During the launch of a space vehicle from Earth, an astronaut feels an increased
downward g force.

In which of the following situations would a person also feel an increased downward
g force?

~ 12 ~
19 A car travelling at a constant speed follows the path shown.

An accelerometer that measures acceleration along the X-X’ direction is fixed in the
car.

Which graph shows the measurements recorded by the accelerometer over the 20-
second interval?

~ 13 ~
20 A class undertook a depth study in pairs to investigate centripetal force using the
apparatus below.

One day a student was sick and their partner had to interpret their results. The lab
partner found a graph with unlabelled variables as shown below.

Which pair of variables was most likely graphed?

(A) F and v
(B) F and r
(C) m and r
(D) a and v/r

21 A car experiences a force of 1.40 × 103 N from the rotation of its tyres on the road. If
the tyres have a diameter of 45 cm, which of the following would be the magnitude of
the clockwise torque on the tyre?

(A) 31.0 Nm
(B) 315 Nm
(C) 630 Nm
(D) 6220 Nm

~ 14 ~
22 Determine the torque acting on the wrench below.

(A) 17 sin 37o × 25


(B) 17 × 25
(C) 17 cos 37o × 0.25
(D) 17 sin 37o × 0.25

23 Victor Hanwen Zhang used the following experimental setup to investigate torque. At
one point in the experiment they set m2 to 100 g. The mass m3 was then moved so that
the ruler was horizontally balanced. At this point, r3 was measured to be 39.0 cm.

What is the value of m3?

(A) 188 g
(B) 241 g
(C) 265 g
(D) 506 g

~ 15 ~
24 Consider the two masses suspended in a lever system as shown below.

When released, the lighter mass (M) accelerates downwards. Assume that the strings
are essentially weightless and the system is free to turn around the fulcrum.

Given that AB = R1 and AC = R2, what can be said about the lengths R1 and R2?

(A) R2 > 2R1


(B) R2 < 2R1
(C) R2 = 2R1
(D) R2 < R1

25 If the angular velocity of a second hand of a clock is 0.105 rad s-1 and the length of
the hand is 1.8 c, then the speed of the tip of the second hand is:

(A) 0.189 cms-1

(B) 1 cms-1

(C) 0.189 ms-1

(D) 2 ms-1

26 A washing machine’s blades have period of T seconds. What must the period be to
triple the centripetal acceleration of a point on the blades?

(A) T/3
(B) 0.577 T
(C) 1.73 T
(D) 3T

~ 16 ~
27 Leon Liu swings a bucket full of water in a circular vertical path above their head as
shown:

Why does the bucket have to remain above a certain speed to ensure the water does
not fall out?

(A) To ensure that there is enough lift to counteract the force of gravity
(B) So that there is the same acceleration for the bucket and water
(C) To produce enough centrifugal force
(D) To allow the water to have no weight

28 A 200 g mass is swung around in a horizontal circle as shown. It completes 5


revolutions in 3 seconds. The circle has a 2 m diameter.

Which of the following forces is closest to that required to keep the mass moving in
this circle?

(A) 0.50 N
(B) 2.5 N
(C) 10 N
(D) 20 N

~ 17 ~
29 A motorcycle travels around a vertical circular path of radius 3.6 m at a constant
speed. The combined mass of the rider and motorcycle is 200 kg.

What is the minimum speed, in ms-1, at which the motorcycle must travel to maintain
the circular path?

(A) 0.42
(B) 1.9
(C) 5.9
(D) 35

30 During a lunar eclipse, Earth moves between the Sun and the Moon.

What happens to the force exerted by the Sun on the Moon?

(A) It increases.
(B) It decreases.
(C) It remains unchanged.
(D) It depends on the closeness of Earth to the Moon.

~ 18 ~
31 The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mercury is 3.6 ms-2.

How much does a 2.0 kg brick weigh on Earth and on Mercury?

Weight of brick Weight of brick on


on Earth Mercury
(A) 2.0 kg 2.0 kg
(B) 19.6 kg 7.2 kg
(C) 19.6 N 19.6 N
(D) 19.6 N 7.2 N

32 An astronaut working outside a spacecraft in orbit around Earth is not attached to it.

Why does the astronaut NOT drift away from the spacecraft?

(A) The force of gravity acting on the astronaut and spacecraft is negligible.
(B) The spacecraft and the astronaut are in orbit around the Sun with the Earth.
(C) The forces due to gravity acting on both the astronaut and the spacecraft are
the same.
(D) The accelerations of the astronaut and the spacecraft are inversely proportional
to their respective masses.

33 The terminal velocity (vt) of a spherical object in Earth’s atmosphere is proportional


to the square root of its radius (r).

Which graph correctly shows this relationship?

~ 19 ~
34 Which of the following is correct about the forces acting during a rocket launch?

(A) Equal and opposite forces act on the rocket. This enables it to continue to
accelerate even in the vacuum of space.
(B) The engines exert an upward thrust on the rocket. This thrust exceeds the
downward force of the engines on the air.
(C) The rocket engines exert a downward force on the gases being expelled. These
gases exert an upward force on the engines.
(D) The expelled gases exert a force against the launch pad. The launch pad then
exerts an equal and opposite force on the rocket causing it to accelerate.

35 Why are spacecraft that are placed into orbit around the Earth generally launched in
an easterly direction?

(A) To gain assistance from the wind.


(B) To help slow down the spacecraft so it can go into orbit.
(C) To reduce the interference from the Earth’s magnetic field.
(D) To use the Earth’s rotation to increase the spacecraft’s speed.

36 A fast-moving space probe passes close to a plant.


During its journey, how does the gravitational field of the planet affect the speed and
direction of the probe?

Speed Direction

(A) Remains constant Remains constant


(B) Remains constant Changes
(C) Changes Changes
(D) Changes Remains constant

~ 20 ~
37 A satellite is moved from a geostationary orbit to a higher orbit.

Which statement about the orbit change is correct?

(A) During the move the gravitational potential energy decreases.


(B) The change in gravitational potential energy is independent of the mass of the
satellite.
(C) The work done is the difference between the gravitational potential energy of
the higher orbit and that of the geostationary orbit.
(D) The worked done is the energy required to move the satellite, which is in the
gravitational field, from a very large distance away, to the higher orbit.

38 What is the main cause of orbital decay of a satellite in low Earth orbit?

(A) Tidal effects of the Moon


(B) The Sun’s gravitational field
(C) Friction between the atmosphere and the satellite
(D) The interaction of the solar wind with the satellite

39 Which of the following statements about the orbits of the planets is NOT one of
Kepler’s three laws?

(A) The Earth moves faster when it is closer to the Sun.


(B) Mars’ orbit has an elliptical shape with the Sun at one focus.
(C) The total orbital energy of Neptune has the same magnitude as its kinetic
energy.
(D) The ratio of the period squared to the radius cubed of Venus and Mercury is
the same.

~ 21 ~
40 The graph shows how the gravitational potential energy (Ep) of a satellite changes
with its altitude.

What is the change in gravitational potential energy of the satellite when its altitude is
reduced from 14 000 km to 4000 km?

(A) -8.8 × 109 J


(B) -2.8 × 109 J
(C) 2.8 × 109 J
(D) 8.8 × 109 J

~ 22 ~
41 Which of the following diagrams correctly represents the force(s) acting on a satellite
in a stable circular orbit around Earth?

42 A satellite is orbiting a planet a constant speed.

Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) The satellite is not accelerating.


(B) The orbit of the satellite has a fixed radius.
(C) Fuel must be used to supply a constant thrust to the satellite.
(D) The centripetal force on the satellite is balanced by the gravitational force.

~ 23 ~
43 A satellite orbits Earth with an elliptical orbit that passes through positions X and Y.

Which row of the table correctly identifies the position at which the satellite has
greater kinetic energy and the position at which it has greater potential energy?

Greater kinetic energy Greater potential energy

(A) X X
(B) X Y
(C) Y X
(D) Y Y

44 Compared with a geostationary orbit, which row of the table correctly describes the
relative properties of a low Earth orbit?

Orbital velocity Orbital period

(A) Higher Higher


(B) Higher Lower
(C) Lower Higher
(D) Lower Lower

~ 24 ~
45 The International Space Station orbits Earth at an altitude of approximately 330 km.
Another satellite, Meteosat, is in geostationary orbit at an altitude of 36 000 km.

Which of the following correctly compares the orbital velocity and orbital period of
these satellites?

International Space Meteosat


Station
(A) Greater orbital velocity Shorter orbital period
(B) Lesser orbital velocity Shorter orbital period
(C) Greater orbital velocity Longer orbital period
(D) Lesser orbital velocity Longer orbital period

46 A satellite orbits earth with a period T. An identical satellite orbits the planet Xerus
which has a mass four times that of Earth. Both satellites have the same orbital radius
r.

What is the period of the satellite orbiting Xerus?

(A) ¼T
(B) ½T
(C) 2T
(D) 4T

~ 25 ~
47 In which of the following would the satellite have the greatest escape velocity from
Earth?

48 Two masses have a gravitational force of 12 N between them.

If the distance between the masses is doubled, what would be the new gravitational
force between them?

(A) 3N
(B) 6N
(C) 12 N
(D) 24 N

~ 26 ~
Use the data below to answer Questions 49 and 50.

Orbital period of the Moon around Earth 2.36 × 106 s


Mean orbital radius of the Moon 3.83 × 108 m
Mass of Earth 6.0 × 1024 kg
Mass of the Moon 7.35 × 1022 kg

49 What is the centripetal force experienced by the Moon due to Earth’s influence?

(A) 2.0 × 1020 N


(B) 1.6 × 1022 N
(C) 4.7 × 1026 N
(D) 7.6 × 1028 N

50 What is the orbital period of an Earth satellite having an orbital radius half that of the
Moon?

(A) 5.9 × 105 s


(B) 8.3 × 105 s
(C) 1.2 × 106 s
(D) 7.5 × 106 s

51 A dwarf planet orbits the Sun with a period of 40 000 years.

The average distance from the Sun to Earth is one astronomical unit.

What is the average distance between this dwarf planet and the Sun in astronomical
units?

(A) 34
(B) 200
(C) 1170
(D) 8 × 106

~ 27 ~
52 The diagram below shows the orbit of Halley’s comet around the Sun.

Which of the following statements is true about the orbit of the comet?

(A) Both the kinetic energy and the total energy are constant throughout the orbit.
(B) The kinetic energy at A is greater than the kinetic energy at B, but the total
energy is constant throughout the orbit.
(C) The kinetic energy at A is less than the kinetic energy at B, but the total energy
is constant throughout the orbit.
(D) The kinetic energy is constant throughout the orbit, but the total energy is
lower at A than at B.

53 A satellite, initially in a low Earth orbit, is moved to a new orbit where its
gravitational potential energy is half its initial value.

What is the gravitational force experienced by the satellite in its new orbit?

(A) Half the initial force.


(B) Twice the initial force.
(C) Four times the initial force.
(D) One quarter the initial force.

~ 28 ~
54 A satellite is moving is a circular orbit of radius 7.0 × 106 m around Earth.

If the speed of the satellite is 8.1 × 103 ms-1, what is its centripetal acceleration.

(A) 9.4 ms-2


(B) 9.8 ms-2
(C) 5.6 × 1025 ms-2
(D) 3.9 × 1032 ms-2

55 Leo Meng sees Io complete one orbit of Jupiter as Earth moves from P1 to P2, and
records the observed orbital period as tP. Similarly, the time for one orbit of Io around
Jupiter was measured as Earth moved between the pairs of points at Q, R and S, with
the corresponding measured periods of Io being tQ, tR and tS.

Which measurement of the orbital period would be the longest?


(A) tP
(B) tQ
(C) tR
(D) tS

~ 29 ~
Section II
75 marks
Attempt Questions 56-69
Allow about 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section

Use the Section II writing booklet for Questions 56-69

Question 56 (5 marks)
An object is launched horizontally from the edge of a cliff, at 40 ms-1 and lands in the ocean,
70 m below, as shown in the diagram below.

(a) Calculate the distance from the base of the cliff to where the object lands in the ocean. 2

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(b) Calculate the velocity of the object as it hits the water. 3

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End of Question 56

~ 30 ~
Question 57 (8 marks)

A cannon fires a projectile from the top of a cliff as shown below.

(a) Determine the magnitude of the initial vertical velocity of the projectile. 1

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(b) Determine the maximum height of the projectile above its launch height. 2

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(c) Determine the time of flight of the projectile. 2

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Question 57 continues on page 32

~ 31 ~
Question 57 (continued)

(d) Determine the range of the projectile. 1

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(e) Determine the angle to the horizontal at which the projectile strikes the ground. 2

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End of Question 57

~ 32 ~
Question 58 (4 marks)

A helicopter is to drop a rescue pack to a group of hikers. The helicopter is flying at a


horizontal speed of 52.5 ms-1 at a constant height of 250 m above the ground.

(a) For the rescue package to land beside the hikers, at what distance d from the hikers 2
should the package be released from the plane?

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(b) What will be the speed of the package as it hits the ground? 2

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End of Question 58

~ 33 ~
Question 59 (4 marks)

A projectile is fired horizontally from a platform.

Measurements of the distance travelled by the projectile from the base of the platform are
made for a range of initial velocities.

Question 59 continues on page 35

~ 34 ~
Question 59 (continued)

(a) Graph the data on the grid provided and draw the line of best fit. 2

(b) Calculate the height of the platform. 2

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End of Question 59

~ 35 ~
Question 60 (5 marks)

A catapult releases its projectile 4.0 m above the ground with an initial velocity of 50ms-1 at
40 to the horizontal, as shown in the diagram below.

(a) Determine the maximum height reached above the ground by the projectile. 2

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(b) What is the range of the projectile? 3

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End of Question 60

~ 36 ~
Question 61 (5 marks)

An astronaut on the Moon throws a stone from the top of a cliff. The stone hits the ground
below 21.0 seconds later. The acceleration due to gravity of the Moon is 1.6 ms-2.

(a) Calculate the horizontal component of the stone’s initial velocity. 1

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(b) Calculate the vertical component of the stone’s initial velocity. 2

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(c) On the diagram, sketch the path that the stone would follow if the acceleration due to 2
gravity was higher. The initial velocity is the same.

End of Question 61

~ 37 ~
Question 62 (5 marks)

A bundle of fireworks is launched from a tower with a velocity of 50ms-1 as shown in the
diagram.

(a) Calculate the horizontal distance away from the tower that the fireworks will explode. 2

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(b) Describe quantitatively how increasing the launch angle to 45 degrees would change 3
the situation.

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End of Question 62

~ 38 ~
Question 63 (4 marks)

The graph shows the vertical displacement of a projectile throughout its trajectory. The range
of the projectile is 130 m.

Calculate the initial velocity of the projectile. 4

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End of Question 63

~ 39 ~
Question 64 (6 marks)

In an indoor soccer match, whenever the ball touches the ceiling of the court following a goal
kick from the goalkeeper it is considered a foul.

The ceiling of the court is 10 m high, and the goalkeeper always kicks the ball at a speed of
20 ms-1.

(a) What is the maximum angle the goalkeeper can kick the ball without drawing a foul? 3

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(b) Find the velocity of the ball 2.0 s after being kicked by the goalkeeper, assuming it is 3
-1
kicked at 20 ms at the angle found in part (a) above.

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End of Question 64

~ 40 ~
Question 65 (4 marks)

A toy bird is launched at 60o to the horizontal, from a point 45 m away from the base of a
cliff.

Calculate the magnitude of the required launch velocity such that the toy bird strikes the base 4
of the wooden building at the top of the cliff, 34 m above the launch height.

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End of Question 65

~ 41 ~
Question 66 (7 marks)

A spring is used to construct a device to launch a projectile. The force (F) required to
compress the spring is measured as a function of the displacement (x) by which the spring is
compressed.

1
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The potential energy stored in the compressed spring can be calculated from Ep = kx2,
2
where k is the gradient of the force-displacement graph shown.

Question 66 continues on page 43

~ 42 ~
Question 66 (continued)

(a) A projectile of mass 0.04 kg is launched using this device with the spring compressed 4
by 0.08 m. Calculate the launch velocity.

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(b) Calculate the range of a projectile launched by this device from ground level at an 3
angle of 60o to the horizontal with a velocity of 10 ms-1.

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End of Question 66

~ 43 ~
Question 67 (6 marks)

Eric Wu carried out an experiment to investigate the effect of the angle at which a projectile
is launched and its time of flight. The projectile launcher is designed to launch the projectile
with an initial velocity of 25 ms-1, and it can be tilted to change the launch angle, as shown.

Video analysis allowed the time of flight to be accurately determined.

The data from the experiment is graphed below.

Question 67 continues on page 45

~ 44 ~
Question 67 (continued)

Eric Wu concluded that the time of flight (t) was proportional to the launch angle (θ) and
proposed the mathematical model

τ = kθ

where k = 0.087 s degree-1

(a) Justify the validity of the Eric Wu’s model using information from the graph. 3

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(b) What happens to the accuracy of the model’s predictions as the angle increases 3
beyond 25o? Justify your answer with reference to a different mathematical model.

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End of Question 67

~ 45 ~
Question 68 (7 marks)

Cannonballs P and Q are fired so that they leave their barrels from the same height.
Cannonball P is fired vertically upwards while cannonball Q is fired at an angle as shown.

Both cannonballs take 3 seconds to reach the same maximum height.

(a) Explain how the resulting motion of the cannonballs supports Galileo’s analysis of 3
projectile motion.

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Question 68 continues on page 47

~ 46 ~
Question 68 (continued)

(b) The position of cannonball P is plotted at the 3rd, 4th and 5th seconds of its flight. The
position of cannonball Q is plotted at the 3rd and 4th seconds of its flight.

Plot the positions of the balls at each second for the remainder of their flight. Show 4
calculations.

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End of Question 68

~ 47 ~
Question 69 (5 marks)

Weizhen Shen sets up his new friction-free snooker table in his house. Weizhen Shen does
not realise that his floor is slightly tilted by 5.0o as shown here.

Weizhen Shen places a frictionless white ball on the table and hits the ball at a velocity of
1.10 ms-1, 50.0o from the long side of the table.

(a) Calculate the net acceleration on the ball. 2

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Question 69 continues on page 49

~ 48 ~
Question 69 (continued)

(b) Calculate the time it takes for the ball to reach the pocket (hole). 2

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(c) How far is the corner pocket (hole) from the position it was hit? 1

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End of Question 69

~ 49 ~
Section III
50 marks
Attempt Questions 70-79
Allow about 1 hour for this section

Use the Section III writing booklet for Questions 70-79

Question 70 (3 marks)

A torque is applied to a nut, using a wrench, as shown. 3

Suggest THREE ways that the applied torque could be increased.

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End of Question 70

~ 50 ~
Question 71 (4 marks)

Jeffery Lee is doing maintenance on a spaceship which is in orbit above the Earth. They are
using a spanner with a 45 cm shaft to tighten a nut holding a solar array, which requires a
torque of 5.0 Nm to be fully tightened.

(a) Calculate the force required to fully tighten the nut if the astronaut is able to apply a 2
force perpendicular to the spanner shaft.

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(b) If the same force as part (a) was applied at 75o to the spanner shaft, how much torque 2
would be applied to the nut?

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End of Question 71

~ 51 ~
Question 72 (5 marks)

A train is travelling on a straight horizontal track. Auguste McNally attaches a mass on a


string to the ceiling of the train. The student observes that the mass remains stationary in the
position as shown.

(a) Why does the mass hang with the string at an angle to the vertical?

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(b) The string then breaks and the mass falls. 3

Indicate the path of the mass on the diagram above. Explain why the mass has taken
this path.

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End of Question 72

~ 52 ~
Question 73 (7 marks)

A ball of mass 0.25 kg is attached to a string and is made to rotate with constant speed v
along a horizontal circle with radius r = 0.33 m. The string is attached to the ceiling and
makes an angle of 30o with the vertical.

(a) On the diagram above, draw and label arrows representing the forces acting on the 3
ball in the position above, and state whether the ball is in equilibrium.

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(b) Determine the tension in the string. 2

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(c) Calculate the speed of rotation of the ball. 2

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End of Question 73

~ 53 ~
Question 74 (4 marks)

An amusement park ride consists of a rotating platform of radius 6.0 m with bucket seats of 4
mass 1.5 kg attached to the edge of the platform by cables 3.0 m long. When the ride rotates
at its operating speed, the angle of the seats to the vertical is 25o.

Calculate the linear speed of the seats.

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End of Question 74

~ 54 ~
Question 75 (3 marks)

A car, with mass m, turns a corner on a flat road in the shape of a circle with radius r metres. 3
The friction of the road is just enough for the car to turn at v kmh-1.

Suppose that the car suddenly encounters an oil spill on the road that halves the surface
friction.

What is the maximum velocity the car can turn without skidding?

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End of Question 75

~ 55 ~
Question 76 (8 marks)

(a) Draw and use appropriate labels to show the forces acting on a car, with mass m, 4
moving around a banked track.

(i) with no friction (ii) with friction

(b) Using your diagram, derive an expression for the car’s motion around the banked 4
track such that no skidding between the road and tyres occur.

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End of Question 76

~ 56 ~
Question 77 (6 marks)

(a) A car is travelling at a constant speed on a frictionless track banked at 15o with a 2
turning radius of 26.0 m. The car maintains a constant height on the track. The
centripetal force acting on the car is 3040 N.

Determine the mass of the car.

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(b) Determine the minimum coefficient of friction required if the car was to travel around 4
an unbanked track of the same radius at half the speed from part (a).

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End of Question 77

~ 57 ~
Question 78 (6 marks)

A ball, initially at rest in position P, travels along a frictionless track to point Q and then falls
to strike the floor below.

At the instant the ball leaves the track at Q it has a velocity of 1.5 ms-1 at an angle of 50o to
the horizontal.

(a) Calculate the difference in height between P and Q. 3

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(b) The ball takes 0.5 s to reach the floor after leaving the track at Q. 3

Calculate the height of Q above the floor.

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End of Question 78

~ 58 ~
Question 79 (4 marks)

Thomas Quang Chuong Nguyen with mass m was driving his car at a constant speed of v 4
over a hump-backed bridge that is circular in shape with radius r, as shown. Thomas Quang
Chuong Nguyen’s fancy new car has a feature in the driver’s seat where it acts as a set of
scales and lets him observe his weight in the dash screen.

Thomas Quang Chuong Nguyen noticed that the reading on the scales decreased as he passed
over the top of the bridge. Thomas Quang Chuong Nguyen claimed later to a friend that if he
travelled fast enough, the scales would have registered zero.

Assess the validity of Thomas Quang Chuong Nguyen’s statement.

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End of Question 79

~ 59 ~
Section IV
120 marks
Attempt Questions 80-100
Allow about 2 hours and 30 minutes for this section

Use the Section IV writing booklet for Questions 80-100

Question 80 (3 marks)

NASA recently landed a space probe on an asteroid found between the orbits of Earth and
Mars. The 500 kg space probe had a weight of 2.5 N when it landed on the asteroid.

(a) What would be the weight of this space probe on the surface of Earth? 1

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(b) Before landing on the asteroid, the space probe was placed in an orbit with radius 2
50 km. The orbital period was 5.9 × 104 s.

What was the mass of the asteroid?

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End of Question 80

~ 60 ~
Question 81 (8 marks)

A rocket launches a satellite into an orbit 350 km above Earth’s surface. The weight of the
satellite is 14.0 kN at launch, and is 12.6 kN when in orbit.

(a) Why does the weight of the satellite change? 2

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(b) Calculate the orbital velocity of the satellite. 2

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(c) Explain TWO effects that a reduction in altitude would have on the motion of this 4
satellite.

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End of Question 81

~ 61 ~
Question 82 (3 marks)

This set of data was obtained from a motion investigation to determine the acceleration due to 3
gravity on a planet other than Earth.

Plot the data from the table, and then calculate the acceleration.

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End of Question 82

~ 62 ~
Question 83 (5 marks)

Consider the following two models used to calculate the work done when a 300 kg satellite is
taken from Earth’s surface to an altitude of 200 km.

You may assume that the calculations are correct.

(a) What assumptions are made about Earth’s gravitational field in models X and Y that 2
lead to the different results shown?

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(b) Why do models X and Y produce results that, although different, are close in value? 1

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Question 83 continues on page 64

~ 63 ~
Question 83 (continued)

(c) Calculate the orbital velocity of the satellite in a circular orbit at the altitude of 200 2
km.

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End of Question 83

~ 64 ~
Question 84 (4 marks)

The graph below shows the acceleration due to gravity, g, near planet Pluto vs r-2 where r is
the distance from the centre of Pluto.

(a) From the graph, determine the value of gravity, g, at a distance of 3.0 × 106 m from 2
the centre of Pluto.

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(b) Use the graph to calculate the mass Mp of Pluto. 2

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End of Question 84

~ 65 ~
Question 85 (4 marks)

The diagram shows a futuristic space station designed to simulate gravity in a weightless
environment.

(a) Explain how rotating the space station simulates gravity for the astronaut. 2

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(b) Calculate the rotational speed that a space station with diameter of 550 m would need 2
for astronauts to explain 1 g of acceleration.

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End of Question 85

~ 66 ~
Question 86 (5 marks)

The radius of the Moon is 1740 km. The Moon’s mass is 7.35 × 1022 kg. In this question,
ignore the Moon’s rotational and orbital motion.

A 20 kg mass is launched vertically from the Moon’s surface at a velocity of 1200 ms-1.

(a) Show that the change in potential energy of the mass in moving from the surface to an 2
altitude of 500 km is 1.26 × 107 J.

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(b) Calculate the velocity of the 20 kg mass at an altitude of 500 km. 3

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End of Question 86

~ 67 ~
Question 87 (5 marks)

(a) The Earth has a radius of 6357 km through the poles. Show how the acceleration due 3
to gravity at the North Pole can be determined.

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(b) Calculate the total energy of a 750 kg satellite when it is raised from the Earth’s 2
surface into a low-Earth orbit, 400 km above the Earth’s surface.

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End of Question 87

~ 68 ~
Question 88 (6 marks)

The Hubble space telescope was launched in 1990 into a circular orbit near to the Earth. It
travels around the Earth once every 97 minutes.

(a) Calculate the angular speed of the Hubble telescope. 2

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(b) Determine the radius of the orbit of the Hubble telescope. 2

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(c) Hence, calculate the magnitude of the centripetal force acting on the Hubble telescope 2
given that its mass is 1.1 × 104 kg.

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End of Question 88

~ 69 ~
Question 89 (3 marks)

The following makeshift device was made to provide lighting for Blair Zong stranded on 3
Mars.

The mass of Mars is 6.39 × 1023 kg.

The 2 kg mass falls, turning the DC generator, which supplies energy to the light bulb. The
mass falls from a point that is 3 376 204 m from the centre of Mars.

Calculate the maximum possible energy released by the light bulb as the mass falls through a
distance of one metre.

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End of Question 89

~ 70 ~
Question 90 (4 marks)

Eric Ho was conducting a depth study in a school laboratory with the intention to validate
Newton’s universal law of gravitation.

He set up two very dense 100 kg lead balls on a frictionless slide rod such that each ball can
move freely either out from the centre or into the middle. A distance meter was placed in the
middle which works by reflecting light off the balls. The whole apparatus was suspended on a
pivot which only allows rotation in the horizontal plane.

Eric Ho rotated the apparatus, creating a centripetal force. The aim was to find the speed at
which the centripetal force was equal to the gravitational force between the two dense lead
balls.

Question 90 continues on page 72

~ 71 ~
Question 90 (continued)

(a) How would Eric Ho know when the force of gravity was equal to the centripetal 1
force?

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(b) Eric Ho found the relationship between the rotational speed and the distance of one of 1
the balls from the fulcrum to be:

Show support for the relationship Eric found by deriving this formula.

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(c) Using the equation from (b), justify why Eric Ho would not observe any measurable 2
results in this experiment.

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End of Question 90

~ 72 ~
Question 91 (5 marks)

The escape velocity from a planet is given by

(a) The radius of Mars is 3.39 × 106 m and its mass is 6.39 × 1023 kg. 2

Calculate the escape velocity from the surface of Mars.

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(b) Using the law of conservation of energy, show that the escape velocity of an object is 3
independent of its mass.

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End of Question 91

~ 73 ~
Question 92 (5 marks)

A planet orbits the star, Pollux, at a distance of 1.64 astronomical units (AU). It takes 590
Earth days to complete one orbit.

(a) Why does the mass of the planet play NO role in determining its orbital speed around 2
Pollux?

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(b) A satellite orbits Pollux with a period of 365 Earth days. 3

How far is the satellite from Pollux in astronomical units (AU)?

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End of Question 92

~ 74 ~
Question 93 (3 marks)

Titan is a moon of Saturn with a radius of 2575 km and a mass of 1.35 × 1023 kg.

(a) Calculate the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Titan. 1

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(b) Titan has no atmosphere. What is the minimum speed required by a gas particle to 2
completely escape the gravitational field of Titan?

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End of Question 93

~ 75 ~
Question 94 (6 marks)

(a) The orbit of a comet is shown. 3

Account for the changes in velocity of the comet as it completes one orbit from
position P.

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(b) Two stars, A and B, of equal mass m, separated by a distance x, interact gravitationally 3
such that the speed of A is constant.

Derive an expression for the speed of B.

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End of Question 94

~ 76 ~
Question 95 (6 marks)

In 2014 the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) was placed in orbit around the Sun. Earth 3
and the JWST follows the orbits shown, with identical orbital periods. This appears to
contradict Kepler’s law of periods.

(a) Why is it possible for the JWST to orbit the Sun with the same orbital period as
Earth? In your answer, refer to Kepler’s law of periods.

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Question 95 continues on page 78

~ 77 ~
Question 95 (continued)

(b) Long-period comets, such as Comet Kohoutek, are believed to come from the Oort 3
cloud that lies far beyond the outermost planets. In our solar system, Kohoutek travels
in an elliptical orbit around the Sun and spends most of its time beyond the outermost
planets.

Explain how the motion of Comet Kohoutek in its orbit supports Kepler’s second law.
Include a diagram in your answer.

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End of Question 95

~ 78 ~
Question 96 (4 marks)

Consider the following thought experiment. 4

Two towers are built on Earth’s surface. The height of each of the towers is equal to the
altitude of a satellite in geostationary orbit about Earth. Tower A is built at Earth’s North
Pole and Tower B is built at the equator.

Identical masses are simultaneously released from the top of each tower. Explain the motion
of each of the masses after their release.

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End of Question 96

~ 79 ~
Question 97 (4 marks)

The optimum angle for safe re-entry of a space vehicle into Earth’s atmosphere is angle B.

Explain the possible consequences of the space vehicle entering the atmosphere at angle A
AND angle C.

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End of Question 97

~ 80 ~
Question 98 (2 marks)

In terms of mechanical energy, explain why the work done on a satellite moving in a constant 2
circular orbit around the Earth is equal to zero.

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End of Question 98

~ 81 ~
Question 99 (5 marks)
A bullet is fired vertically from the surface of Mars, at the escape velocity of Mars. Another 5
bullet is fired vertically from the surface of Earth, at the escape velocity of Earth.

Neglecting air resistance, compare the energy transformations of the two bullets.

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End of Question 99

~ 82 ~
Question 100 (30 marks)

Artificial satellites are used to monitor weather conditions on Earth, for surveillance and for
communications. Such satellites may be placed in a geostationary orbit, geosynchronous
orbit, polar orbit, medium-Earth orbit, and low-Earth orbit.

(a) Low Earth orbit satellites experience significant orbital decay, have a short life span 4
and are difficult to monitor and troubleshoot. Explain why low Earth orbit satellites
are still used extensively despite the above points.

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(b) Assess ONE advantage and disadvantage of a satellite in polar orbit over a satellite in 4
low-Earth orbit.

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Question 100 continues on page 84

~ 83 ~
Question 100 (continued)

(c) Identify ONE use of medium-Earth orbit satellites and explain why they are suited for 2
this purpose.

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(d) Explain the requirements necessary for a satellite to orbit the Earth in a geostationary 8
orbit. Include any relevant calculations in your answer.

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Question 100 continues on page 85

~ 84 ~
Question 100 (continued)

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(d) Discuss FOUR advantages of geostationary satellites when used for communications. 8

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Question 100 continues on page 86

~ 85 ~
Question 100 (continued)

(e) Accompanied by a suitable diagram, outline ONE similarity and difference between 4
satellites in geosynchronous orbit and geostationary orbit.

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