All India Open Mock Clat 07 (Clat 46) 5753815

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK CLAT 07 (CLAT 46)
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120

1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy .
10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
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writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
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has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.
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11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
shading the circles. Indicate only the most
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2. In case of any discrepancy in the question appropriate answer by shading from the
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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for options provided. The answer circle should be
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replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. shaded completely without leaving any space.
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
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3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
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to take necessary precautions before marking
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OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. the appropriate circle.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
carefully. duly Signed
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sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
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8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
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Programme is for 120 markstr-containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
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required the spaces provided for.
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where candidates have markedtr-more than one
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response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-55 11
Legal Reasoning 56-84 16
Logical Reasoning 85-108 26
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 32
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions:
Passage (Q.1-Q.4): Global debt rose to an all-time high of $307 trillion by the end of June 2023, as reported by
the Institute of International Finance (IIF). Notably, global debt has surged by about $100 trillion over the last
decade. Global debt, which refers to the borrowings of governments, private businesses, and individuals, has
started to increase once again to hit 336% of gross domestic product (GDP) after dropping for seven consecutive
quarters.
Most of the rise in global debt in the first half of the year has come from advanced economies such as the U.S.,
the U.K., Japan, and France. However, emerging market economies, including China, India, and Brazil, have
also experienced significant growth in debt. During the first half of 2023, total global debt rose by $10 trillion,
even amid rising interest rates, which were expected to adversely affect demand for loans.
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The rise in global debt levels is not out of the ordinary and does not per se have to mean trouble for the global
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economy. A simple rise in the total amount of savings in an economy can cause a rise in debt levels as these
increased savings are channelled into investments. The IIF attributes the decline in global debt as a share of GDP
to the rise in price inflation, which has helped governments to inflate away the debts denominated in their local
currencies.
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Rising global debt levels usually lead to concerns about the sustainability of such debt. This is particularly so in
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the case of government debt, which is prone to rise rapidly due to reckless borrowing by politicians to fund
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populist programs. When central banks raise interest rates, servicing outstanding debt becomes a challenge for
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governments with a heavy debt burden. Despite rising debt levels over the last decade, the interest that
western economies.
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governments had to pay lenders largely remained manageable due to extremely low interest rates, particularly in
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However, this is set to change now as central banks have let interest rates rise in order to fight high price inflation
since the pandemic. Rising interest rates can increase pressure on governments and force them to either default
outright or inflate away their debt. The IIF has also warnedtr-5Tthat the
2S2U international
2S5N 6L6M financial infrastructure is not
equipped to handle unsustainable domestic debt levels. Rapidly rising private debt levels also lead to worries
about their sustainability, as such a rise is linked to unsustainable booms that end in economic crises when such
lending is not backed by genuine savings.
Extracted with edits and revisions form What are the reasons for rise in global debt? | Explained,
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/what-are-the-reasons-for-rise-in-global-debt-
explained/article67339036.ece
1. Which of the following can be inferred about the relationship between global debt and economic crises?
(a) A rise in global debt is the sole cause of economic crises.
(b) Economic crises are inevitable when global debt is backed by genuine savings.
(c) A surge in global debt, when not backed by genuine savings, can precipitate economic crises.
1E5J the levels of global debt.
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(d) Economic crises have no correlation with
2. Which of the following is an underlying assumption in the passage regarding rising interest rates?
(a) Rising interest rates are primarily aimed at controlling global debt levels.
(b) Rising interest rates are a mechanism employed to combat high price inflation.
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(c) Rising interest rates are universally beneficial
6D6H for all economies.
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(d)5SRising
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3. How would you describe the tone of the passage regarding the rise in global debt levels?
(a) Alarmist and exaggerated (b) Objective and analytical
(c) Dismissive and unconcerned (d) Optimistic and reassuring
4. Identify the term from the passage that serves as an antonym for "decrease" in the context of global economic
trends.
(a) Surged
(b) Manageable
(c) Dropping
(d) Rapidly
Passage (Q.5-Q.8): On October 1, 1949, Mao Zedong, the leader of the Chinese Communist Party (CCP),
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proclaimed the establishment of the modern Chinese state. The CCP continues to shape the Chinese government
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and military. The ideology of Communism came to China during a time when many countries were choosing
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their economic and political paths, post-colonial rule. The 20th century saw a rivalry for ideological and
the Cold War.
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economic supremacy between the capitalist USA and the communist USSR, influencing other countries during
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China’s search for a political setup began in the early 1900s, following internal problems and foreign presence,
leading to events like the Boxer Rebellion. The Xinhai Revolution in 1911 led to the abdication of the boy
emperor, Xuantong, and Sun YatSen was made the provisional president of China in 1912. Sun, often termed
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the ‘father of modern China’, had principles for a modern nation: “Nationality, Democracy, and Socialism”.
Sun turned to the Soviet Union for support, inspired by the toppling of their monarchical regime. The May 4,
1919 movement in China saw growing 5O
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nationalist sentiments and participation from future Chinese President
Mao Zedong and Premier Zhou Enlai, who played central roles in the CCP, formed in 1921. The CCP was aided
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by the Commenter or the Communist International, an organization founded by Russian communists to spread
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the political ideology globally.
The Kuomintang and communists briefly united but eventually went to6Lwar.
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6M Indian communist leader MN Roy
was sent to China in 1927 to observe the transition. He believed supporting an agrarian revolution would be
crucial for establishing a truly Communist state. The CCP began a Long March (1934–35) to relocate and spread
their ideology across China’s villages, leading to the rise of Mao. His guerrilla war strategies were adopted to
fight the more resource-rich Nationalists.
The battle paused when the Japanese army attacked China in the 1930s. After Japan lost in the Second World
War in 1945, the civil war resumed. The CCP’s victory led to the Kuomintang relocating to Taiwan where
Chiang Kai Shek ruled as President until his death in 1975. The party is currently in opposition and is seen as
being more amenable to the CCP, which has maintained that Taiwan is a part of mainland China.
Extracted with edits and revisions from How China’s communist state was established on October 1, 1949,
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-global/how-modern-china-state-was-established-history-
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5. Which statement best encapsulates the main idea of the passage?

(a) The passage primarily discusses the ideological battle between the USA and the USSR during the Cold War.
(b) The passage mainly focuses on the internal conflicts and revolutions within
6L6M China in the early 1900s.
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(c) The passage predominantly explores the evolution
6D6H and establishment of Communist ideology in China.
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(d)5SThe passage
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6. Which figure of speech is employed when referring to Sun YatSen as the ‘father of modern China’?
(a) Metaphor
(b) Simile
(c) Hyperbole
(d) Personification
7. Which of the following statements is factually accurate based on the passage?

(a) The Kuomintang and the communists never had any form of alliance or unity.
(b) The CCP was formed in response to the Japanese attack on China in the 1930s.
(c) Sun YatSen sought support from the Soviet Union after being inspired by their monarchical regime.
(d) The CCP considers Taiwan to be a part of mainland China.
8. What does the term ‘abdication’ most likely mean in the context of the passage?
(a) The act of forcefully removing a ruler from power.
(b) The act of a ruler voluntarily relinquishing power.
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(c) The act of a ruler consolidating power.
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(d) The act of a ruler being assassinated.
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Passage (Q.9-Q.12): Dopamine, a neurotransmitter known for tracking reactions to rewards, is gaining attention
for its role in mood and productivity. It is released by various types of neurons located in the brainstem. Recent
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research suggests that controlling dopamine involves understanding its diverse functions and neuron types.
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Dopamine neurons monitor reward prediction errors, the difference between expected and received rewards.
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They communicate these errors through phasic firing, rapid bursts causing short-term peaks in dopamine during
Dopamine's role isn't limited

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unexpected rewards, and tonic firing, slow, steady activity during expected events.
3O8O1Pprocessing; it also responds to aversive events, leading to the hypothesis
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of multiple dopamine systems in the brain. Studies have identified seven distinct types of dopamine neurons,
each with different functions. A study from August 2023 by the Dombeck Lab at North-western University found
that out of three types of dopamine neurons studied, two tracked rewards and aversive events, while the third
monitored movement. 2U2S5N6L6M tr-5T2S
Dopamine release can occur in two ways: through fast peaks during phasic bursts, signalling reward prediction
errors, and through a slow increase until a desired reward is obtained, known as a ramp pattern, which encodes
motivation. The latter is associated with goal pursuit and learning and is crucial for understanding motivation.
Dopamine is also known for its involvement in various conditions like drug addiction, neurodegenerative
diseases, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. The discovery of dopamine diversity is crucial for updating
scientific knowledge of these conditions. For instance, movement-focused dopamine neurons, which are severely
affected in Parkinson’s disease, might offer more targeted treatment options as research progresses in
understanding the diverse functions and types of dopamine neurons.
This evolving understanding oftr-dopamine’s

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diverse roles and release patterns is crucial for developing strategies
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to “hack” dopamine optimally and can significantly impact our knowledge and treatment of diseases and
conditions associated with it. The ongoing research is likely to continue reshaping our understanding of
dopamine, offering improved insights into neurodiversity and diseases.
Extracted with edits and revisions from Dopamine Is Famously Linked to Mood and Pleasure − but That’s Not
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All, https://science.thewire.in/the-sciences/dopamine-mood-and-pleasure-more/
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9. Which of the following statements regarding the role of dopamine would the author most likely DISAGREE?
(a) Dopamine's main role is to signal reward prediction errors and has no significant role in movement and
learning.
(b) A more nuanced understanding of the dopamine system might lead to advanced treatments for conditions
like Parkinson’s disease.
(c) Dopamine neurons have diversified functions, each responding to various types of events including reward
processing and aversive events.
(d) The presence of different types of dopamine neurons is crucial to the understanding of their varied functions
in reward processing, learning, and movement.
10. According to the passage, how does dopamine signal reward prediction errors?
(a) Through tonic firing, causing slow, steady activity during expected events.
(b) Through a slow increase until a desired reward is obtained.
(c) Through phasic firing, causing rapid bursts during unexpected rewards.
(d) Through the steady tracking of aversive events.
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11. What can be inferred as the central idea of the passage?
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(a) The main function of dopamine is to signal reward prediction errors through phasic firing.
knowledge and treatment of related conditions.
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(b) The comprehensive understanding of dopamine's diversity is pivotal for the evolution of scientific
(c) Dopamine's role in drug addiction and neurodegenerative diseases is the key focus of current research.
12.
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(d) The Dombeck Lab has successfully identified all the distinct types of dopamine neurons in the brain.
a
Which of the following best describes the foreign language word "phasic" used in the context of the passage
(a) Related to phases or stages in a process
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por development.
(b) Pertaining to rapid bursts causing short-term peaks in dopamine during unexpected rewards.
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(c) Involving slow and steady activity that maintains regular functions
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(d) Associated with the manner in which dopamine neurons monitor movement.
Passage (Q.13-Q.16): Hinduism and Plato’s Republic present intricate

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divisions of labour and inherent qualities, with the overarching goal of establishing harmonious, just, and
productive societies. Both propose systems—Hinduism’s Varna system and Plato’s Magnificent Myth—that
categorize individuals into distinct classes: intellectuals (Brahmins/Philosopher-Kings), warriors
(Kshatriyas/Auxiliaries), traders (Vaishyas/Farmers), and labourers (Shudras/Manual Workers). Each class has
unique duties and moral obligations, contributing to societal equilibrium and prosperity.
Originating from ancient scriptures like the Rig Veda and the Bhagavad Gita, the Varna system in Hinduism is
fluid, allowing for class mobility based on individual actions and merits. It underscores the importance of
fulfilling one’s duties for the betterment of society, with the concept of Gunas (inherent qualities) and Karma
(actions) playing pivotal roles in determining one’s class. Similarly, Plato’s Magnificent Myth, articulated in
The Republic, proposes a merit-based, flexible class system. It accentuates the crucial role of education in
recognizing and cultivating inherent 8B1E5J
qualities,
tr-5K7E5D3F allowing for optimal role allocation within society based on
individual merit and aptitude.
Both systems advocate for a societal structure where roles are assigned based on inherent qualities and
capabilities, ensuring societal harmony and productivity. They stress2Uthe importance
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their duties without meddling in others’ roles, contributing
6D6H to the collective advancement of society. The systems
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propose that individuals
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education, allowing for the optimal allocation of roles within society.
However, there are notable differences between the two systems. In Hinduism, Brahmins, representing the
intellectual class, are not involved in political structures but serve as advisors, while in Plato’s system,
Philosopher-Kings are the rulers of society. Additionally, the systems have divergent perspectives on the role of
biology and education in determining one’s class. Hinduism emphasizes the role of inherent qualities and actions
in determining one’s class, while Plato’s system places more emphasis on education in identifying and nurturing
inherent qualities.
Hinduism and Plato’s Republic propose societal structures aiming for harmony and productivity, based on
divisions of labour and inherent qualities, with flexibility and meritocracy at their core. They emphasize the
fulfilment of one’s duties and the role of education in identifying and nurturing inherent qualities, contributing
to the collective betterment of society. Despite their differences, both systems offer profound insights into the
pursuit of a just and harmonious society, providing timeless perspectives on societal organization and individual
responsibility. They serve as reflective mirrors, allowing modern societies to introspect on the principles of
prosperity.
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justice, duty, and societal harmony, and to explore the intricate dance between individual merit and collective
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[Extracted with edits and revisions from Deconstructing Social Classification and Mobility: The Hindu Varna
13.
System, Plato's Magnificent Myth, and the British Caste SystemByAadi C. Krishna]
Which of the following best summarizes the central idea presented in the passage?
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(a) The primary focus of both Hinduism’s Varna system and Plato’s Magnificent Myth is to underscore the
disparities between different societal classes and advocate for the superiority of one over the others.
(b) The essence of Hinduism and Plato’s Republic is to advocate for a rigid, inflexible societal structure,
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emphasizing the immutability of one’s class and inherent qualities.
a
(c) Both Hinduism and Plato’s Republic propose merit-based, fluid societal structures that emphasize the
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optimal allocation of roles, focusing on inherent qualities, education, and the fulfilment of one’s duties for
societal harmony and productivity. 5O
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(d) The primary focus of Hinduism’s
of the intellectual class, with other classes serving subordinate roles.
14.
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According to the passage, which statement correctly illustrates the role of the intellectual class in societal
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(a) In both systems, the intellectual class serves as the main ruling body, directly involved in the formulation
and enforcement of societal policies.
(b) In Hinduism, the intellectual class, Brahmins, serve as advisors and are not involved in political structures,
whereas, in Plato’s Republic, Philosopher-Kings are the rulers of society.
(c) In both systems, the intellectual class predominantly focuses on religious and spiritual guidance, with no
involvement in political or societal governance.
(d) In Plato’s Republic, Philosopher-Kings serve mainly as advisors, whereas, in Hinduism, Brahmins hold
direct political power.
15. Based on the passage, it can be inferred that:

(a) Both systems view the societal structure as static, with minimal emphasis on individual growth and societal
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(b) Both systems, despite their proposed fluidity, have been invariably distorted over time to endorse societal
rigidity and class immobility.
(c) The emphasis on inherent qualities and education in both systems implies a shared belief in the potential for
individual growth and societal advancement through optimal role2Uallocation 6L6M and duty fulfilment.
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(d) The differences in the roles of 2H the intellectual
6D6H class in both systems imply an inherent contradiction and
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incompatibility
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16. Which statement, if true, would most weaken the argument presented in the passage regarding the role of
education in both systems?
(a) Education in both systems is primarily oriented towards spiritual and moral development, with minimal focus
on societal roles and duties.
(b) The concept of education in both systems is aligned more with indoctrination, focusing on adherence to
societal norms and values, rather than the cultivation of individual qualities.
(c) Inherent qualities in both systems are considered immutable and are not influenced by education or personal
development.
(d) Both systems, despite their emphasis on education, lack structured educational frameworks, resulting in
inconsistent and unreliable identification and nurturing of inherent qualities.
Passage (Q.17-Q.20): ‘Community, Identity, Stability.’ The World State’s motto hung in a bold and glowing
line from the white façade of the building. Inside, the Director of Hatcheries and Conditioning was leading a
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group of students through the sterile halls, explaining the intricacies of the conditioning process.
‘The operation undergone voluntarily for the good of Society, not to mention the fact that it carries a bonus
lure.’
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amounting to six months' salary,’ continued the Director, gesturing towards a line of workers, ‘is an additional
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He moved on, the group of students trailing behind him, their notebooks open, pens poised. ‘This is the Fertilizing
Room,’ he announced, and a murmur of excitement rippled through the group. Rows upon rows of microscopes
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glinted under the harsh lighting, and behind them, workers in white coats were diligently tending to the
Bokanovsky and Podsnap processes, which allowed for the creation of identical human beings.
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‘Bokanovsky’s Process is one of the major instruments of social stability!’ the Director exclaimed. ‘Standard
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men and women; in uniform batches. The whole of a small factory staffed with the products of a single
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The students scribbled furiously, trying to capture every word. ‘Ninety-six identical twins working ninety-six
identical machines!’ The voice was almost triumphant. ‘You really know where you are. For the first time in
history.’ 2S2U2S5N6L6M tr-5T
He moved on to the next room, where the Conditioning process was in full swing. ‘Here,’ he said, ‘the elementary
class consciousness is created. We condition the masses to hate the country but simultaneously love all outdoors.
The lower castes are conditioned to accept their roles, to embrace their servitude.’
The Director’s voice was impassive, the words delivered with a practiced ease. ‘We also predestine and
condition. We decant our babies as socialized human beings, as Alphas or Epsilons, as future sewage workers
or future…’ He paused, smiling at the group, ‘Directors of Hatcheries.’
The students were hanging on his every word, Their faces were mixed with fascination and horror.. The Director
continued, explaining the use of hypnopaedia, or sleep-teaching, to inculcate the values of the World State into
the minds of the children, ensuring their conformity
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and acceptance of their predetermined roles.
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‘Words without reason, in this case, a mere noise,’ he said, demonstrating the technique on a sleeping child. ‘We
repeat them so frequently that they become a habit, part of the individual’s nature.’
The Director concluded the tour with a flourish, leaving the students with much
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to ponder about the society they
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were a part of, a society where individuality was
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conformity were
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gratification and superficial pleasures.
Extracted from Huxley, A. (1932). Brave New World. London: Chatto&Windus.
17. Which of the following statements best captures the central idea presented in the passage regarding the World
State's societal organization?
(a) The World State emphasizes the importance of individuality, freedom of choice, and organic growth.
(b) The World State's society is primarily concerned with progress, innovation, and technological advancement.
(c) The society of the World State relies heavily on a meticulously organized conditioning process to ensure
societal stability, with an emphasis on conformity and suppression of individuality.
(d) The World State's governance is a reactionary measure, developed in response to a past societal collapse.
18. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage regarding the practices of the World State?
(a) The use of hypnopaedia for instilling values.
(b) The creation of identical human beings through processes like Bokanovsky.
(c) The emphasis on outdoor activities and nature for all societal members.
(d) The categorization of babies into roles such as future sewage workers or Directors of Hatcheries.
19. From the students' reactions, it can be inferred that:
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(a) They fully endorse and are content with the societal methods showcased by the Director.
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processes.
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(c) They are entirely repulsed by the processes but are fearful of expressing dissent.
.
(b) They display a mix of admiration for the Director's knowledge and uncertainty about the ethicality of the
20. In the passage, the word 'impassive' most closely means:
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(d) They are indifferent and show no particular emotion or concern regarding the Director's explanations.
(a) Passionate and enthusiastic.

(b) Emotional and unpredictable.
(c) Unemotional and not showing feelings.
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(d) Confused and uncertain.
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Passage (Q.21-Q.24): The philosophy expounding on the subject of meditation is Yoga Darshan. The Rishi
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(sage) Patanjali first wrote down approximately 2000 years ago a treatise called Yoga Sutras, most likely
somewhere around the time of Jesus, plus or minus 200 years. As a system, the type of yoga as put forth by
Patanjali, is definitely non-theistic, having not even the slightest suggestion
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6L6M for worshipping idols, deities, or
sacred books; but at the same time, it does not contradict any theistic or atheistic doctrine either.
The Patanjali Yoga Sutras, consisting of four chapters (called Paads) written in Sanskrit dedicated toward
revealing the universal message of authentic yoga, most properly belong to the school of Raj (Royal) Yoga,
which precisely can be defined as meditation (dhyana) practices leading to Samadhi (state of bliss, absorbing in
true nature of self).
A careful reading of the Yoga Sutras elucidates that the hindrances to a man’s spiritual growth indeed are in the
forms of various kleshas (sufferings), samskara (inclinations), vasana (lust), vratti (orientations),
and karmas (deeds), which in turn are caused by avidya or ignorance. The various effective processes of
liberation (mukti) are available through the main remedy of meditation practices such as the practices found
in Ashtanga Yoga (eight-limbed), 5D3F8B
Kriya 1E5J etc.
yog,
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Yoga Sutras are meant for understanding and then to practice, by reading a little of sutras and then practicing it,
reading some more, practicing, reading, and so forth in this way the practice is revealed through practical
experience, as in a laboratory. One is unable to realize Yoga Sutras without
6L6M practice; it is an experiential
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workbook that is revealed by an open heart. In
6D6H a normal thought process, it is the meditation that begins to
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operate, and as
1P5Othe thought process proceeds to converge into focusing, the reality or the content of the thought
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focused upon is revealed to the contemplator.
“Yogash Citta-vratti nirodhah” (Samadhi Paada, Sutra – 1.2)
Yoga (the joining of mind with the object of contemplation) occurs when the vacillations, modification,
perturbations, machinations whirling, and agitations (vrattis) of the mind (chitta) cease (nirodha), and the mind
becomes still.
The practice of yoga (called sadhana) through meditation (dhyana) trains the practitioner (sadhak) to be far more
aligned and connected than what one is capable of via the ordinary mental contemplation of an untrained mind
motivated by one’s clinging orientations (vrattis). Rishi Patanjali says that when yoga is accomplished through
the cessation of the vrattis, that is, the entangling of mind with machination of the worldly things, then one abides
in self–knowledge (swarupa), a revelation of our unconditioned and sacred natural self.
[Topic: Indian Philosophy| Yoga Darshana Words: 438
Reference: Yoga Darshan – Yog Philosophy by Rameshwar Gupta, 2 September 2013, The Speaking Tree,
https://www.speakingtree.in/blog/yoga-darshan-yoga-philosophy ]
21. Identify the main idea of the given passage.
contradicting other theistic or atheistic doctrines.
c o m
(a) The Yoga Sutras by Patanjali primarily emphasize the worship of idols, deities, and sacred books,
through the cessation of mental disturbances and contemplation of the true self.
rs .
(b) The practice of Yoga, as described in the Yoga Sutras, is an experiential journey that leads to self-realization
(c) Meditation practices such as those found in Ashtanga Yoga and Kriya Yoga are focused on intellectual
understanding rather than practical experience.
k e
(d) The Yoga Sutras, written by Rishi Patanjali over 2000 years ago, offer a comprehensive guide to physical
and mental health through various yoga postures and exercises.
22.
an
Which of the following statements is false according to the passage?
r
(a) The Patanjali's system of yoga contradicts most of the theistic and atheistic doctrines.
yoga. tr-5S7T5U3O8O
o p
(b) The Patanjali Yoga Sutras consist of5Ofour chapters dedicated to revealing the universal message of authentic
1P
(c) The Yoga Sutras illuminate that the obstructions to a man’s spiritual growth are caused by avidya or
23.
ignorance.
T
(d) The practice of yoga through meditation aims to align the practitioner with their unconditioned and sacred
natural self. tr-5T2S2U2S5N
What can be an appropriate concluding statement to the given passage?

6L6M
(a) In closing, it is evident that Patanjali's Yoga Sutras offer a profound understanding of the obstacles to
spiritual progress and the transformative power of meditation, ultimately revealing one's conditional
knowledge of the world.
(b) To summarize, the philosophy of Yoga Darshan, as elucidated by Rishi Patanjali, emphasizes non-theistic
meditation practices leading to self-knowledge and liberation from worldly entanglements.
(c) In conclusion, Patanjali's Yoga Sutras provide a comprehensive guide to spiritual growth and self-realization
through the practice of meditation, shedding light on the impediments and the path to liberation.
(d) Lastly, it is clear that Patanjali's Yoga Sutras, with their focus on theistic meditation and liberation from
mental fluctuations, provide a path to self-realization and enlightenment.
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24. The tone of the passage is...?
(a) Eulogistic.
(b) Cynical.
(c) Ambivalent. 6L6M
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(d) Didactic. 6D 6H
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.55): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Chandrayaan 3

"We at ISRO had been working on lunar rovers since the year 2009, when the Chandrayaan-1 mission was
underway. We began with four-wheeled rovers and gradually learnt our lessons, and then moved to a six-wheeled
rover for Chandrayaan-2. During the initial phase of testing on a simulated lunar soil test bed, we realized that
the rover wheels were sinking when they were commanded to turn by using a technique known as skid driving.
During skid driving, the rover wheels on one side are rotated slowly and the wheels on the other side are rotated
fast. While doing this, the rover turns towards the direction of the slower wheels. Therefore, we ensured that the
treads on the wheels were modified to prevent sinking," Dr Mylswamy Annadurai told WION. Until 2018, he
m
had served as the Director of ISRO's satellite building facility, UR Rao Satellite Centre, Bengaluru. He
o
specifically recalls that the lunar soil test bed created by ISRO was modelled after the Apollo 11 landing site,
c
which was the equatorial region of the moon. The Apollo series of NASA missions showed that the equatorial
that offered similar characteristics.
rs .
region had a talcum powder-like soft soil. Therefore, ISRO had also chosen to test their rover on soil from Earth
https://www.wionews.com/india-news/lunar-soil-low-gravity-why-didnt-chandrayaan-3-leave-indias-imprint-
25.
on-moons-surface-639325
What is the name of the lander module of Chandrayaan-3?
k e
26.
(a) Pragyan (b) Vikram
r an
(c) Pratham (d) Prabha
What was the purpose of the Lander Leg mechanism performance test on a lunar simulant test bed in
p
Chandrayaan 3?
(a) To test the Lander Horizontal 8O1P5O Camera
Velocity
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27.
o
(b) To simulate different touch-down conditions
T
(c) To demonstrate the Throttleable Engine Control Electronics
(d) To assess the Laser Doppler Velocimeter
GLONASS-K2 is the next-generation satellite design intended 2U2S
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support
6M
the Russian GLONASS radio-based
satellite navigation system. What frequency bands do the GLONASS-K2 satellites transmit in?
(a) L1 and L2 (b) L2 and L3 (c) L1, L2 and L3 (d) L1 and L3
28. Which of these instruments on board Chandrayaan-1 detected the presence of water on the Moon?
(a) Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3)
(b) Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC)
(c) Lunar Laser Ranging Instrument (LLRI)
(d) High Energy X-ray Spectrometer (HEX)
29. What is the name of the launch vehicle that carried Chandrayaan-2 to the Moon?
(a) PSLV C-11 (b) GSLV Mk III (c) GSLV Mk II (d) PSLV XL
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Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Tomatoes Price Rise
“Tomatoes to affect inflation in India worries RBI” Tomatoes are an important part of the Indian household,
king of the Indian kitchen, and when their prices are skyrocketing, it disturbs the monthly budget of every Indian
family. Above are the few headlines that have really affected every single6Lhousehold in India and are defiantly
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threatening the Indian economy section. 5F In6Drecent
6H weeks the prices of tomatoes have surged up to Rs 150 to Rs
200 per 3Okilogram in the retail tr-5G2H2J2A
markets and experts don’t see a sign of ease in pricing. The exorbitant rate of
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tomatoes is attributed to a combination of environmental, logistical, and market factors. While the tomato surge,
consumers are waiting for the price to come down. However, multiple factors impact tomato prices. Well, the
tomatoes surge is doing the tango in the pockets of every household but to get the facts right, the rest of the
vegetables have also seen a slight price rise in some states, like cauliflower, potatoes, onions, cabbage, chilies
and ladyfingers. The reason for tomatoes to be the talk of the town could be because their production is limited
to certain parts of the country, thereby adding to the transportation charges, as well as their lower shelf life which
leads to the difficulty of storage.
https://www.outlookindia.com/business/tomato-trouble-why-tomato-prices-are-rising-and-can-we-expect-a-
price-ease-soon--news-302805
30. Which of these states accounts for approximately 50% of total tomato production in India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Odisha, and Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Bihar
(c) Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Himachal Pradesh
(d) Kerala, Goa, Sikkim, Manipur, and Mizoram
31. What are the key factors contributing to the reduced tomato supply in the first half of 2023?
(a) Draughts in many places
(b) Due to soil salinity
c o m
(c) Unseasonal rainfall in May and transportation issues
(d) Due to specialized monocropping
rs .
32.
e
Which country announced bans on non-basmati white rice exports on July 20, 2023, and further restrictions on
k
basmati rice exports on August 27, 2023, causing disruption and price spikes in rice markets?
(a) China (b) India (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam
33.
(a) Arka Rakshak (b) Co 1
r an
Which of these varieties of tomatoes has the highest yield potential in India?
(c) Roma (d) S-152
34. tr-5S7T5U
o
What type of tomato is typically
(a) Grape (b) Roma
3O
used
p 8O1P5O
for making rich tomato sauces and pastes due to its low moisture content?
(c) Green Zebra (d) San Marzano
T
Passage (Q.35-Q.39): 25 Years of India-France Strategic Partnership
India and France, two nations with a common vision andtr-shared5T2S2U2Svalues,
5N6L6M have forged a strong and enduring
partnership over the past 25 years. In 1998, they embarked on a strategic journey, marking the beginning of a
remarkable alliance that encompasses not only a robust bilateral relationship but also a convergence of views on
international affairs. The economic ties between India and France have flourished, paving the way for enhanced
cooperation and mutual prosperity. Trade relations have witnessed steady growth, with bilateral trade reaching
an impressive $13.4 Bn in 2022-23, marking a significant 7.72% increase from the previous year. France has
emerged as the 11th largest investor in India, with FDI inflow of $10.5 Bn from April 2000 to March 2023. What
is pertinent to note is that the India-France partnership extends beyond economics, encompassing cooperation in
historically critical areas such as aerospace, defence and space and emerging sectors such as smart cities and
allied infrastructure. As part of Hon’ble Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s historic state visit to France from 13-
14th July, strategic deliberations were held during the 11th India-France CEO Forum to encourage the utilization
of investment opportunities in these sectors and foster greater manufacturing and ease of doing business.
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https://www.investindia.gov.in/team-india-blogs/celebrating-25-years-india-france-strategic-partnership-
blossoming-alliance
35. Which event further strengthened the defense ties between India and France, potentially leading to a significant
defense deal involving fighter jets for the Indian Navy? 6L6M
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(a) The acquisition of 36 Rafales aircraft in 2019
6D6H
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(b)5SThe5U
approval
3O 8O1P 5O granted by the French Government for Dassault's collaboration on combat aircraft engines
tr- 7T
(c) The joint development of advanced military drones
(d) The visit of the Indian Prime Minister as Guest of Honour at Bastille Day celebrations
36. Which shipyard in Mumbai is involved in the construction of the Scorpene-class submarines in collaboration
with the Naval Group of France?
(a) Kochi Shipyard
(b) Goa Shipyard
(c) Vishakhapatnam Shipyard
(d) Mazagon Dock Limited (MDL) Shipyard
37. Which two organizations jointly developed the satellites Megha-Tropiques and SARAL?
(a) ISRO and ESA (b) ISRO and CNES
(c) Roscosmos and ISRO (d) ISRO and UKSA
38. What propulsion system, aimed at allowing longer underwater operations, is being incorporated into the
submarines under India's P75 (I) programme?
(a) Nuclear propulsion
(b) Diesel-electric propulsion
c o m
(c) Air-independent propulsion (AIP)
(d) Steam propulsion
rs .
39.
(a) INDRA (b) SHAKTI (c) GARUDA
e
What is the title of the bilateral military exercise between India and Russia that is held periodically?
k
(d) YUDH ABHYAS
Passage (Q.40-Q.44): BIMSTEC
an
On 6 June, the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
r
completed 26 years since its inception. Established in 1997, the regional grouping initially consisted of India,
Thailand, Bangladesh, and Sri Lanka. 5O
o
5S 7T 5U3O8O1P
p
The agenda of BIMSTEC was to promote economic cooperation and
integration between the littoral and island countries of the Bay of Bengal and integrate the South and Southeast
tr-
Asian economies. Membership was later expanded to include Myanmar, Nepal, and Bhutan and the agenda
T
broadened to include security and developmental considerations. Throughout the span of 26 years, the regional
grouping certainly has had its hits and misses, but the world is no longer unipolar as it was when the BIMSTEC
was created. Today, regional powers are playing a major role in shaping6Lthe
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6M global economy and addressing new
security challenges. This offers new opportunities and challenges for the grouping and also calls for its robust
institutionalization. Even after its inception, BIMSTEC remained in a stupor for a long time. But as SAARC’s
dysfunctionality became more evident in 2014 and the Bay of Bengal region grew in economic and strategic
prominence, the South Asian BIMSTEC members began to push for economic integration and connectivity via
the regional grouping.
https://www.orfonline.org/expert-speak/bimstec-a-call-for-robust-institutionaliation/
40. What challenges have exacerbated issues for BIMSTEC countries, including supply chain disruption, economic
fallout, and energy insecurity?
(a) Water scarcity, and institutionalization
(b) Russia-Ukraine conflict, food inflation, and humanitarian crises
1E5J
tr-5K7E5D3F8Bfallout, and underemployment and investment insecurity
(c) Cybersecurity threats, environmental
(d) Forex reserves, recession, and forex declines
41. Which country chaired the 19th BIMSTEC Ministerial Meeting held virtually in March 2023?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Bhutan (c) Myanmar (d) Thailand
2U2S5N6L6M tr-5T2S
6D6H
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42. Which city hosted
1P5O the BIMSTEC Business Conclave in June 2023 to commemorate 25 years of BIMSTEC?
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
(a) Dhaka (b) Bangkok (c) Kathmandu (d) Kolkata
43. What initiative has been proposed but not yet implemented to address funding issues in BIMSTEC?
(a) Fiscal Optimization (b) Development Fund
(c) Resource Allocation (d) Strategic Formulation
44. Which country hosted the Sixth Indian Ocean Conference in May 2023 under the theme, Peace, Prosperity and
Partnership for a Resilient Future?
(a) India (b) Sri Lanka (c) Bangladesh (d) Maldives
Passage (Q.45-Q.49): Data Governance in India

This is not an entirely new proposal. Over the years, the government has time and again talked about enabling
access to anonymised or non-personal data (NPD) to enable innovation. It has also come out with various reports
and draft legislation to this effect. Most recently, in May 2022, the IT Ministry released the draft of [1]. It’s not
clear what exactly will be proposed this time or how/if it will be different from the May 2022 draft, but as before,
m
there are multiple concerns with making anonymised or non-personal data available. It is not possible to
o
comment on all the possible issues without knowing the specifics of the proposed policy, but two important
c
concerns are: 1. Anonymised data can be deanonymised: There have been multiple studies that have found that
rs .
anonymised data sets can be deanonymised by various means including by layering multiple types of anonymised
datasets. We’ve covered this issue in-depth. 2. Who will be covered by this policy: Will the policy mandate
sharing of anonymised data by government entities only or private entities as well? If it includes the latter, that
(more on this in the last section).
k e
could potentially lead to myriad challenges including issues around intellectual property, compensation, etc.
https://www.medianama.com/2023/02/223-national-data-governance-policy-what-is-it-concerns-around-it/
45. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(a) National Data Governance Framework Policy
r an
(b) National Data Quality Policy
o
7T5U3O8O1P
tr-5SCompliance
(c) National Data Protection
5O
(d) National Data Management Framework Policy

p
46.
of body corporates?
T
What is one of the requirements imposed by the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and
Procedures and Sensitive Personal Data or Information) Rules, 2011, on
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those collecting personal data on behalf
6L6M
(a) They must report all data breaches to the Data Protection Board of India.
(b) They must use collected data for any purpose without prior permission.
(c) They must publish a privacy and disclosure policy on their website.
(d) They are not required to keep collected data secure.
47. What is the term used to describe the administration of data describing data within an organization emphasizing
associations and lineage?
(a) Data Expression (b) Data Quality
(c) Metadata Management (d) Data Usage
48. Which section of the IT Act pertains 8B1E5J

to3F"Identity
tr-5K7E5D Theft" and the misuse of electronic signatures?
(a) Section 65 (b) Section 62A (c) Section 66C (d) Section 72D
49. Which cybercriminal group is behind both the GoAnywhere and MOVEit campaigns that exploited file transfer
tools in 2023? 6M
5T2S2U2S5N6L
(a) Clop (b) REvil 2H2J2A5F6D6H(c) DarkSide tr- (d) Conti
tr-5G
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Passage (Q.50-Q.55): Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023
For the first time since its inception in [1], a Bill to amend the 54-year-old law was passed by Parliament and
has got the assent of the President of India. While the government claims that the Bill will allow greater access
to free ration and other subsidies for citizens and weed out duplication in the present database, privacy activists
have expressed concerns that the creation of the database may leave out sections of the population from the list.
Another violation of privacy that the research noted was with regards to linking of a person's Aadhaar across
databases. As mentioned above, the national database for births and deaths will be allowed to be shared with
authorities maintaining other databases (such as electoral rolls and ration cards). But such sharing is done without
the person's consent. The Bill also seeks to make birth certificate the sole conclusive proof of age, which would
then be used to access other benefits like voting, ration, admission into schools etc. So if a person does not have
a birth certificate, they will not be able to vote, or apply for admission to school, marriage, or a government job.
"There may be instances where a child’s birth was registered but they ran away from home, or lost their parents
in a natural disaster.
effect-from-october-1-amid-privacy-concerns-explained-news-317929
c o m
https://www.outlookindia.com/national/amendments-to-54-year-old-births-and-deaths-law-to-come-into-
50. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(a) 1956 (b) 1969 (c) 1972
rs .
(d) 1977
51.
k e
What is one potential consequence of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill mandating the
use of birth certificates as the sole conclusive proof for determining age and place of birth?
(a) Increased transparency in government processes.
(c) Improved accuracy in voter registration.

(d) Streamlined access to government services.
r n
(b) A potential increase in corruption and misuse of authority.
a
52.
o
tr-5SSakshya
Which act does the Bhartiya
(a) Indian Penal Code, 1860
p 8O1P5O
7T5U3O Bill, 2023 seek to repeal?
(b) Indian Evidence Act, 1872
53.
restrictions?
T
(c) Indian Contract Act, 1870
(a) Freedom of speech and expression

(d) Indian Constitution Act, 1949
The Bill links the Aadhaar details of the parents and the person reporting
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6L6Mthe birth to the birth certificate of the
child (informant). Which fundamental right was recognized by the Supreme Court in 2017, subject to reasonable
(b) Right to life and personal liberty

(c) Right to privacy (d) Right to equality
54. Article 368 of the Indian Constitution outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution, and it specifically
empowers ___________ to initiate and pass constitutional amendments.
(a) The President of India (b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The Judiciary (d) The Parliament
55. The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Bill, 2023, piloted by Union Minister of State for
Home______, was cleared in the
tr-5KRajya 8B1E5J by voice vote.
7E5D3FSabha
(a) Nityanand Rai (b) Dr. Harshavardhan
(c) Jitendra Singh (d) Anil Kumar Gupta
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.56-Q.84): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): The maxim “Rex Non-potest peccare” is a latin term which means “the king can do no
wrong”. It is also known as the doctrine of Sovereign immunity. This means that sovereign or the state can do
no wrong and should be protected from civil and criminal suits. During ancient times, we see that the word of
the King was law and, in those times, to prosecute the King would be defying the laws of the God, thus this
maxim came into use. This maxim also means that the King will not be responsible for any actions of his
subordinates. It has unclear applicability to non-human entities. In India, this maxim finds a very limited role
and it is left to the discretion of the Court to decide the use of this maxim keeping in mind the Constitution of
India. It is mainly limited to government officials in India. Article 300 of the Indian Constitution says that the
m
Government of India can be sued or can sue by the name of Union of India. However, Section 83 of the Civil
o
Procedure Code (CPC), 1908 finds its use. It says that an Indian is not allowed to sue any foreign state except
c
after taking permission from the Indian State. In the case of State of Maharashtra v. Czechoslovak Airlines, the
rs .
immunity given by Section 83 of CPC was not followed since the transaction which was done under this case
was not covered under Section 83, CPC. In the case of Peninsular & Oriental Steam Navigation Co. v. Secretary
of State, the Court defined the difference between the sovereign and non-sovereign acts of the East India
k e
Company and accordingly immunity was provided. If it was sovereign function, then immunity was accorded
but there was no immunity for non-sovereign function like managing trusts etc. In Kasturi Lal v. State of Uttar
Pradesh, the Court held that arrest, seizure and abuse of Police power come under sovereign functions and are
regardless of their social status.
r n
thus protected through the maxim of “Rex Non-potest peccare”. All Indian citizens are subject to the same laws,
a
Source: https://www.lawyersclubindia.com/forum/legal-maxim-222565.asp
56.
o
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One day, while a tourist group
p 8O1P5O
visiting the Royal Palace of Jaipur, a valuable and ancient artifact, a jeweled
crown from Spain that was on display, goes missing. The palace authorities immediately launch an investigation
T
into the theft. During the investigation, it is discovered that a member of the royal family, Prince Rajesh, had
access to the area where the crown was kept. There is substantial evidence pointing to Prince Rajesh as the likely
thief. Security camera footage shows him near the exhibittr-5T during
2S2U2Sthe
5N6Ltime
6M the crown disappeared, and some
witnesses claim to have seen him with the crown shortly before it vanished. The King of Spain wants to prosecute
the King of Jaipur as the jewel was kept in his custody and his employee is accused of disappearing it. His Royal
Highness King Pramesh claims sovereign immunity from prosecution under the maxim “rex non potest peccare”.
Can he claim so?
(a) Yes, because the King cannot be held responsible for the actions of his subordinates.
(b) No, because the King has to be answerable for his acts in the fiduciary capacity defying sovereign immunity.
(c) Yes, because the King is not within the ambit of the common law applicable to normal citizens in India.
(d) No, because the applicability of sovereign immunity is limited to government officials in India.
57. A highly advanced and autonomous artificial intelligence system, referred to as "The Sovereign," is created to
oversee and govern the country's affairs. The Sovereign is designed to make impartial and infallible decisions,
8B1E5J
ensuring the welfare and prosperity
tr-5K7E5Dof3Fthe nation. Over time, The Sovereign gains unprecedented authority and
control over various aspects of Indian society, from law enforcement to economic planning. Citizens are expected
to abide by its decisions and directives without question, as it is believed to be incapable of making mistakes and
acting against the interests of the people. One day, a controversial decision by The Sovereign leads to widespread
protests and civil unrest. Citizens claim that The Sovereign has made an error
6L6M in judgment, causing significant
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harm to a particular community. The government
6D6H defends The Sovereign, asserting that "The Sovereign can do
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
no5Swrong." And
1P5O for itself from its acts. The team responsible for maintaining The Sovereign is sued in a civil
tr- 7T5U3O8O
suit. The government is put as a party in many other suits. Can The Sovereign claim immunity in light of the
passage?
(a) Yes, because there can be no prosecution of the government for the acts of its employees i.e. the Sovereign.
(b) No, because there is a glaring error from the side of the Sovereign which must be accounted for by the
government.
(c) Yes, because there is absolute immunity accorded to government and its entities.
(d) No, because the applicability of the maxim is unclear for non-human entities.
58. In a remote village in India, there is a longstanding dispute over land ownership between two families, the
Choudharys and the Kumars. The land in question has been a subject of contention for generations, and both
families have historical documents and oral traditions that support their claims to the land. The Choudhary
family, who have been living on and cultivating the land for decades, were suddenly faced with an eviction notice
from the local government. The government claimed that the land rightfully belonged to the state and had been
mistakenly registered under the Choudharys' name. The Choudharys, in shock and disbelief, approached the
local authorities to dispute the eviction. Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the land records had
m
indeed been incorrectly registered in the Choudharys' name due to a clerical error several decades ago. However,
o
the mistake was not the fault of the Choudharys, who had relied on these records for generations and had paid
c
taxes on the land accordingly as demanded by the revenue officers. The Choudharys decided to take legal action
government officials many years ago. Will their claim be admitted?
rs .
against the government's eviction order, arguing that they should not be punished for an error made by
(a) No, because the error was made by government officials while carrying out a sovereign function.
k e
(b) No, because there is absolute immunity given to government for the acts of its employees.
(c) Yes, because the government is liable for the acts of its employees regardless of the claim.
(d) No, because there can be no claim against the government for a real estate claim.
59.
an
Swami Raghav is revered for his teachings on spirituality, meditation, and ethical living. He has a large ashram
r
in a remote part of the country, where thousands of devotees gather to seek his guidance and wisdom. Recently,
a controversy has arisen surrounding Swami
o
5S 7T 5U3O8O1P5O
pRaghav's actions. It has been alleged that he has been involved in

unethical financial dealings, including embezzlement of funds donated to the temple trust for charitable purposes.
tr-
The temple trust is managed by the government. Some former devotees and local activists have come forward
T
with evidence, suggesting that Swami Raghav has been using the donations for personal gain and luxury living,
contrary to the principles of his teachings. However, Swami Raghav's devoted followers firmly believe in his
spiritual authority and righteousness. His embezzlement oftr-5T
funds from
2S2U2S the temple trust is looked into and the
5N6L6M
government along with Swami Raghav is held liable for the same. Can the maxim of rex non potest peccare be
claimed by the government in his case?
(a) No, because there is limited applicability of the sovereign immunity in India and managing a temple is not a
sovereign function.
(b) Yes, because the government is given absolute immunity from all prosecutions under the maxim of rex non
potest peccare.
(c) No, because the maxim of sovereign immunity has no application in India.
(d) Yes, because the government is performing sovereign functions in the management of the temple trust.
60. Based on the description of the rule of rex non potest peccare set out in the passage above, which of the following
is likely to be a result of the application of the maxim?
(a) Courts will not prosecute the 7E5D3F8B 1E5J
tr-5Kruling member of any Indian Royal family for his financial crimes.
(b) Courts will not prosecute any ruling person from a foreign country in any condition as the King can do no
wrong.
(c) Courts will not prosecute a police official for making arrests for enforcing a rule regarding liquor ban.
(d) Courts will not prosecute any government police official for injuring a 6L
child
6M with his official revolver while
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
on a holiday. 2H2J2A5F6D6H
tr-5G
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): Section 16 of the Indian Contract Act, defines a contract is said to be ‘undue influence’
when the parties are so related that one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other and use
that position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other. With respect to understanding who is a ‘person in a
position to dominate’ the act highlights, any person who has a real or apparent authority over the other or where
he stands in a fiduciary capacity to the other or where that person makes a contract with a person whose mental
capacity is temporarily or permanently affected by reason of age, illness or mental or bodily distress.
In cases of establishing whether one party had undue influence on the other, it shall be seen that there is an active
trust between the parties or the parties are on an unequal footing. The phrase apparent authority implies that the
authority may be real like an Income Tax Officer in relation to an assess or a police officer in relation to an
accused.
m
Additionally, the phrase mental distress implies condition where the mental capacity of the person is temporarily
o
or permanently affected. Though it shall be known that merely having excess stress shall not amount to having
c
mental distress, the key in identifying what amounts as mental stress is whether such a situation is grave enough
rs .
to affect his will making him susceptible to be influenced by the will of another person. It shall be noted that a
contract made under statutory compulsion cannot be regarded as on made under undue influence.
k e
In cases where there seems to be a contract between a person who is in a position to dominate and the contract
itself or through evidence appears to be unconscionable, the burden of proof that the same is not lies on the party
that has the power to dominate the will of the other. In cases where such is to be proven two things need to be
n
established first, that the person did have a dominant position and second, that he must have used it.
a
[,https://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-8051-how-undue-influence-invalidates-the-free-consent-in-a-
r
contract.html last accessed on February 24, 2023]
61. A forged his father’s signature
o
tr-5S7T5U
p 8O1P5O
on3Oa cheque and paid it to the bank to release payments. B the bank manager
immediately caught the same and called A’s father to the bank to discuss the same. When A’s father reached the
T
bank, B says that he needed to do something to settle this event or else he will have to turn A to the police. A’s
father transferred the amount equal to the cheque to B’s account. Decide.
(a) A’s father acted under undue influence, as he was not willing to give
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6Mthe money.
(b) A’s father did not act under undue influence as any other father would have done the same to save their child.
(c) A’s father did not act under undue influence as B merely suggested they needed to settle this though and the
A’s father transferred the money on his own, with his free consent.
(d) A’s father acted under undue influence, as the fear of his child being reported to the police is enough to
curtail free consent.
62. X was a troubled young adult which always led her to problems. X was introduced to Y, a spiritual leader by a
friend. After listening to the talks and sermons given by Y, X decides to join the cult that was run by Y. In the
cult, X was completely mesmerized Y and slowly became a close aide to Y. One day Y confided in X and says
that the cult is running short on funds, and X need to transfer all the property she owned to Y. X thinking that if
she refused to do so she will not remain close to Y, transfers all the property to Y. Decide:
(a) X did not transfer the property 7E5D3F8B 1E5J influence, as it is a common practice to devote all your belongings
tr-5Kunder undue
to the spiritual leader as a sign of devotion.
(b) X transferred the property under undue influence, as Y and X shared a fiduciary relationship in which Y was
in a capacity to abuse the consent of X, which was eventually done.
(c) X did not transfer the property under undue influence, as after joining the6Lcult
6M X was not interested in material
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
things. 6D6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
(d)5SX
7T
transferred
5U3O 8O1P 5O the property under undue influence, as Y manipulated X in transferring all the property.
tr-
63. P recently lost her husband S in a fatal accident. P while mourning her loss, she got to know that her husband
had left her with a lot of debt. P was unemployed and did not have a plan to repay the debt, so she went to a
private money lender to get some money so that she can repay the loan. The money lender convinced P to agree
for an interest rate of 100% per month. Decide:
(a) P acted under undue influence, as she was going through mental distress due to her husband’s death which
led her to not be in a position to make a rational decision with respect to the interest rate.
(b) P has not acted under undue influence, as she was in dire need of money and agreed to the terms on her own.
(c) P acted under undue influence, as there was a fiduciary relationship between the money lender and her, which
was abused by the money lender to convince her for such a high interest rate.
(d) P has not acted under undue influence, as she was just trying to repay the debt as soon as she can.
64. A was a sugarcane farmer in a remote area. There were sugar processing factories in that area which used to
source their raw material from them. Seeing that there has been a down turn in Agri-products, the state
m
government enacted a law stating that farmers had the option of refusing to sell their product to a particular
o
factory but when if the farmer made an offer to a factory they would have to buy the same without any questions.
Decide:
c
rs .
(a) This arrangement will not be valid in law, as the same would fall under the ambit of undue influence.
(b) This arrangement is valid, as the factories purchase the same with their own consent.
(c) This arrangement is valid, as the same was made due to a statutory compulsion which is excluded from the
application of undue influence.
k e
(d) This is arrangement will not be valid, as there is no bargaining power available for the factories.
65.
r an
X was suffering from a number of ailments which affected his brain and confined him to a nursing home and
from there he made a deed gifting all of his properties to one of his nephews, Y, excluding his own children. It
was later revealed that most of the information given to the lawyer who prepared the gift deed was given by Y,
and the lawyer was not aware that the list
o
5S 7T 5U3O8O1P5O
pof properties comprised virtually of the whole estate. The sons of X

contested the gift deed in court on the grounds that the same was signed under undue influence. Decide:
tr-
(a) The deed was executed under undue influence, as the fact that the list of properties was given by Y and not
executed.
T
X, and that his ailment was such that impaired him to make a proper assessment of the deed that was being
(b) The deed was not executed under undue influence, as the
when he was suffering from multiple ailments.
same was6La6Mmethod to thank Y of taking care of X
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(c) The deed was not executed under undue influence, as X was still in his sense to execute the deed.
(d) The deed was executed under undue influence, as naturally the property would have gone to the children of
X, whereas the same went to Y, which is indicative of foul play.
Passage (Q.66-Q.70): The Chhattisgarh High Court has held that to make out a case of 'extortion' punishable
under Section 384 IPC, the prosecution must prove that on account of being put in fear of injury, the victim
voluntarily delivered any particular property to the accused.
Justice Narendra Kumar Vyas remarked that if there were no delivery of property, then the most essential
ingredient for constituting the offence of 'extortion' would not be available. He further remarked that if a person
voluntarily delivers any property 1E5J fear of injury, then also an offence of 'extortion' cannot be said to
7E5D3F8Bany
tr-5Kwithout
have been committed. On reading Section 383 of the IPC, which defines the offence, the Court found out that
the following ingredients are necessary to make out the offence of extortion: (i) the accused must put any person
in fear of injury to that person or any other person; (ii) the putting of a person in such fear must be intentional;
(iii) the accused must thereby induce the person so put in fear to deliver to any person any property, valuable
6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
security or anything signed or sealed2Hwhich may
6D6H be converted into valuable security; (iv) such inducement must
tr-5G 2J2A5F
be5Sdone dishonestly.
1P5O
tr- 7T5U3O8O
The Court referred to R.S Nayak v. A.N. Antulay & Anr (1986), where it has been held as under,
"Before a person can be said to put any person to fear of any injury to that person, it must appear that he has held
out some threat to do or omit to do what he is legally bound to do in the future. If all that a man does is to promise
to do a thing which he is not legally bound to do and says that if money is not paid to him; he would not do that
thing, such act would not amount to an offence of extortion."
https://enalsar.informaticsglobal.com:2278/news-updates/chhattisgarh-high-court-no-extortion-without-
delivery-of-property-181307
66. X & Y went to an amusement park. X induces Y to sit with him in the roller coaster stating that “nothing will
happen, it is very safe” despite knowing that Y is very afraid of the ride. Y does not want to go but X threatens
him that if he doesn’t sit with him, he will tell his secrets to other friends. Y sits with X reluctantly but as soon
as the ride operator starts the ride, Y feels bamboozled and asks X to make the ride stop. Taking advantage of
his fear, X asks 500 in return to make the ride stop. Y agrees to it. When they come out of the ride, Y fights and
demands his money back, failing at which he later sues X for extortion. Choose the correct statement.
(a) X is liable for extortion in both the cases.
(b) X is liable for extortion only in the first case.
(c) X is liable for extortion only in the second case.
c o m
67.
(d) X is not liable for extortion in both the cases.
rs .
Suppose in the previous question, X asks money and Y promises that he will give him as soon as he comes out
lunch treat of that much amount. Will X be held liable for the offence of extortion?
(a) Yes, X is liable for extortion. (b) No, X is liable for extortion.
e
of the ride, but when they come out of the ride instead of giving X 500 rupees, Y promises that he will give him
k
68.
(c) Yes, X is not liable for extortion.
r an
(d) No, X is not liable for extortion.
Rajesh and Ramesh were neighbours, who used to have family get-togethers and parties very often. On one
evening, they were returning from a party
o
5S 7T 5U3O8O1P5O
pand Rajesh started feeling dizzy. At that moment, he handed over his
Rolex watch and gold chain to Ramesh as he was feeling suffocated. Seeing these expensive items, Ramesh
tr-
thought of keeping them somehow. The next day when Rajesh asked Ramesh about his belongings, Ramesh
T
denied that and threatened that he will stab him if Rajesh will keep on asking for the watch and chain. Decide.
(a) Ramesh is liable for extortion, since Rajesh had a fear of injury.
(b) Ramesh will be liable as he took the possession of thesetr-5Tgoods without
2S2U2S5N6L6M consent.
(c) Ramesh is not liable for extortion, since he did not put Rajesh into any fear to deliver the property.
(d) Ramesh is not liable, because Rajesh handed his belongings to him as they had cordial relations.
69. In the previous question, suppose that Ramesh asks Rajesh to give all the cash with him as well, while threatening
to stab him. Due to this, Rajesh gives him all the cash and credit card. Now will Ramesh be held liable for
extortion?
(a) Yes, because there was now a fear of injury.
(b) No, because there was no fear of injury since beginning.
(c) No, because Rajesh handed everything in the capacity of a friend.
(d) Yes, because Ramesh has already taken the watch and chain.
70. Viraj and Arjun were roommates 3F8B 1E5J university. One on fine day, Arjun was cleaning his set of knives
tr-5Kat the
7E5D same
while Viraj was sitting beside him. Arjun randomly mentioned that he is in desperate need of money, and he can
do any kind of work to get the same. Listening this statement and seeing a knife with Arjun, Viraj thought that
Arjun is threatening him. Under this fear of injury, Viraj instantly handed some money to Arjun and left the
room. Later, Viraj filed a complaint against Arjun for extortion. Decide. 6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(a) Arjun is liable for extortion, since Viraj handed
6D6H money under a fear.
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
(b)5SArjun
5U3O is
8O not
1P 5O liable, since he had no intention to induce any kind of fear.
tr- 7T
(c) Arjun is liable, since he had a knife to threaten Viraj.
(d) Arjun is not liable, because he did not harm Viraj in any way.
Passage (Q.71-Q.75): The concept of chronological concurrence in criminal law means that the mental state
required for a crime (mens rea) must exist at the same time as the physical act that constitutes the crime (actus
reus). This is because the law does not want to punish people for acts that they committed without the requisite
mental state. Concurrence must be with the act rather than the outcome. A change of mind will not make the
crime go away.
For example, If D stabs his victim with the intent to kill him, but only wounds him, and then tosses the corpse
into a river believing the victim is dead, D is not guilty of murder. This is because the defendant's act of stabbing
the victim was the actus reus for murder, but the defendant did not have the mens rea for murder at the time he
threw the victim's body into the river, because he believed that the victim was already dead. Therefore, the
defendant cannot be convicted of murder.
m
There are a few exceptions to the rule of chronological concurrence. One exception is insanity. If D was insane
o
at the time he committed the actus reus, he is not guilty of any crime, as he did not have the mens rea for the
c
crime. Another exception is involuntary intoxication. If D was intoxicated by drugs or alcohol against his will
and was unable to form the requisite mens rea, he is not guilty of the crime
rs .
Finally, there is the case of mistake of fact. If D makes a mistake about a material fact that negates the mens rea
his victim, but he is not, he may not be guilty of assault.
k e
for the crime, he is not guilty of the crime. For example, if D believes that he is authorized to use force against
n
The general rule is that if D's act causes a different harm than he intended, he is not liable for the greater harm.
a
However, if the actual harm is related to the intended harm, D may be liable for the less serious crime. If D had
r
no reason to believe that his act would cause a particular harm, then it would be unfair to hold him liable for that
o
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
manslaughter, but not murder.
p
harm. For example, if D intends to rob a5Obank but accidentally shoots and kills a bank teller, D may be guilty of
1P
71.
T
In conclusion, the principle of chronological concurrence is important because it ensures that people are only
punished for crimes that they committed with the requisite mental state.
[https://blog.ipleaders.in/all-you-need-to-know-about-mens-rea/]
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M
John shoots Bob with an AK47 with the intent to kill him. However, since he had a bad aim, he missed the target
completely. Later, when John was driving his car back home, he accidently ran over Bob who was walking in
the middle of the road. This resulted in Bob’s death. John claims that he is not responsible for Bob’s murder. Is
this correct?
(a) Yes, because John intended to cause the death of Bob and he did so by hitting him with his car
(b) No, because there is concurrence between intention to kill Bob and the act that actually killed Bob
(c) Yes, because there is no concurrence between intention to kill Bob and the act that actually killed Bob
(d) No, because John neither intended to cause the death of Bob nor did he actually cause the death of Bob
72. Mita went to Sita’s house for doing homework. While coming back home, she mistakenly took Sita’s notebook.
She only realised this when shetr-5Kcame 8B1E5J
back
7E5D3F home. She decided to return it to her next day. However, next day
Sita accused Mita of theft as she took her notebook out of her possession without taking her permission. Can
Mita be held liable for theft?
(a) Yes, because Mita intended to steal Sita’s notebook and did so by actually taking the notebook when going
back home 6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(b) Yes, because Mita had both mens rea and
6D6Hactus reus required for committing theft
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
(c)5SNo, because
1P5O Mita had neither mens rea nor actus reus required for committing theft
tr- 7T5U3O8O
(d) No, because Mita had no mens rea but only actus reus required for committing theft
73. X suffered from temporary bouts of insanity on account of certain prescribed medications that she was taking.
One day, she was driving on the road. Suddenly, she suffered a bout of insanity and in that moment, she lost
control of the steering wheel. As a result, the car hit the pavement and a pedestrian was hit and suffered injuries.
Can X be held liable for causing hurt to the pedestrian?
(a) Yes, because X had both mens rea and actus reus for causing hurt to the pedestrian
(b) Yes, because there was concurrence between the mens rea and actus reus as the pedestrian was hit at the
same time that X lost control of the wheel
(c) No, because there was no concurrence between the mens rea and actus reus as the pedestrian was hit at the
same time that X lost control of the wheel
(d) No, because X did not intend to hit the pedestrian by her car and cause injuries to him as a result of the same
74. Farhan was broke and decided to kidnap the child of a rich family to solve his financial woes. He lured the child
m
into his car and drove away once the child sat into his car. However, while driving, Farhan looked at the innocent
o
child and felt bad about temporarily separating the child from his family. So, he turned the car around and
c
dropped the child back from where he was kidnapped. Can Farhan still be held liable for kidnapping?
the act of kidnapping
rs .
(a) Yes, because a change of mind will not make the crime go away as Farhan had the intention and committed
(b) Yes, because there is concurrence between mens rea and actus reus required to sustain a charge of kidnapping
kidnapping
k e
(c) No, because there is no concurrence between mens rea and actus reus required to sustain a charge of
(d) No, because as per IPC the offence of kidnapping necessitates a demand for ransom which is absent here
75.
an
Arjun hits X severely by punching his stomach and kicking him in the abdomen with the intention to kill him.
r
However, X still had some breaths left and did not die on the spot. Arjun left the spot and X lay on the ground.
o
(a) Yes, because actus reustr-5S
injuries
and7T5U 3O8O1P
mens
p
X subsequently died because he was not5Otaken to the hospital in time. Can Arjun be held liable for X's death?
rea are concurrent as Arjun hit X and he dies because he succumbed to his
T
(b) Yes, because the harm that really occurred to X is exactly what Arjun had intended i.e., the death of X
(c) No, because actus reus and mens rea are not concurrent as the harm that actually caused X’s death is different
from what Arjun had intended tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M
(d) No, because a change of mind on Arjun’s part will not make the crime go away
Passage (Q.76-Q.79): The Centre in the Supreme Court frowned upon same-sex marriage while invoking the
accepted view that a marriage between a biological man and woman is a holy union, a sacrament and a sanskar
in India. In our country, despite statutory recognition of the relationship of marriage between a biological man
and a biological woman, marriage necessarily depends upon age-old customs, rituals, practices, cultural ethos
and societal values. Any deviation from this statutorily, religiously and socially accepted norm in human
relationship can only happen through the legislature and not the Supreme Court, the government said. The
government argued that the Court had only decriminalized sexual intercourse between same-sex persons in its
2018 judgment in Navtej Singh Johar, and not legitimized this conduct. The court, while decriminalizing
homosexuality, had never accepted same-sex marriage as part of the fundamental right to life and dignity under
Article 21 of the Constitution. tr-
The 5D3F8B1E5J said that a same-sex marriage cannot be compared to a man and
5K7Egovernment
women living as a family with children born out of the union. Living together as partners and having sexual
relationship by same-sex individuals is not comparable with the Indian family unit concept of a husband, a wife
and children. Registration of marriage of same-sex persons would also result in violation of existing personal
as well as codified law provisions. The Parliament has designed and2Uframed 6L6Mthe marriage laws in the country,
tr-5T2S 2S5N
which are governed by the personal laws
6D6Hand codified laws relatable to customs of various religious
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
communities, to
1P5O recognize only the union of a man and a woman to be capable of legal sanction, and thereby
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
claim legal and statutory rights and consequences. Any interference with the same would cause a complete
havoc with the delicate balance of personal laws in the country and in accepted societal values. The government
said there was a compelling interest for the society and the state to limit recognition to heterosexual marriages
only. The affidavit came in response to the Court’s decision to examine petitions to allow solemnization of
same-sex marriage under the Special Marriage Act.
(https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/same-sex-marriages-can-rock-societal-values-
centre/article66610499.ece )
76. With which of the following statements given from the passage the reader is least likely to agree with?
(a) While citing the widely held belief that a marriage between a biological man and woman is a holy union, a
sacrament, and a sanskar in India, the Centre opposed same-sex marriage in the Supreme Court.
(b) Even though the court decriminalised homosexuality, same-sex marriage was never recognised by the court
as a component of freedom of speech and expression and right to life under article 21.
(c) The Indian concept of the family unit, which consists of a husband, a wife, and children, cannot be compared
to living together as partners and engaging in sexual activity with other same-sex people.
o m
(d) The marriage rules in the nation were created and framed by the Parliament, and any meddling with them
would upset the delicate balance of personal laws in the nation and in widely held societal norms.
c
77.
rs .
In India, the government was holding a competition in which only married couples were permitted to participate.
Both P and H, two married men who got married in 2019, agreed to compete. Due to the fact that only
heterosexual couples were permitted to participate, they were denied permission. Comment on the viability of
the Government's course of action.
k e
(a) Since it violates Article 14 of the Constitution, the Government's course of action is questionable.
(b) The government's course of action is appropriate because only heterosexual marriages are recognized by the
law.
an
(c) Since the government has the discretion to permit participants of their choice, the government's course of
action is not in question.
r
78.
(d) Since India does not permit homosexual
o
5O
prelationships, the government's course of action is appropriate.

tr-5S7T5U3O8O
1P
Since their days in high school, R and F have been very close. When they were of marriageable age, both of the
rights are denied?

T
girls made the decision to marry one another. They relocated to a different city as a result of their parents'
opposition to their homosexual relationship. When they tried to register their marriage because some places
required a marriage certificate as proof of their union, theytr-were turned
5T2S2U 2S5N6Ldown.
6M Can they file a complaint if their
(a) They are ineligible to complain about this situation because it is against the law to register homosexual
marriages.
(b) Since denying the registration of marriage violates their fundamental rights, they may file a complaint.
(c) They are not entitled to file any complaint because the law is dependent upon the state in which they wish to
register.
(d) The information in the passage is insufficient to determine whether they are eligible to file a complaint.
79. W and V had been in love since they were in elementary school, but they did not confess for fear of being judged
by society. When they finished their graduation, they decided to share it with their parents. Their parents
disapproved of their relationship because they were opposed to homosexual marriage. As a result, they decided
against marrying. However, after 7E5D3F8B 1E5J having sexual intercourse and being disgusted by it, W's mother
tr-5Kbeing caught
filed a complaint against them. They were arrested after a thorough investigation. Comment.
(a) They were rightfully arrested because same-sex relationships are illegal under the law.
(b) They were legitimately arrested for hurting their parents' sentiments by engaging in a homosexual
relationship. 6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(c) They should not have been arrested because
6D6H having a sexual relationship with the same sex person is not a
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
crime under
1P5O the law.
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
(d) They should not have been arrested because they are not yet married and there is no law for arresting a
homosexual couple.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): The Bombay High Court quashed the order of a civil court which had disallowed a
divorced woman to adopt a child on the ground that she was a working lady and thus won't be able to give proper
care and attention to the adoptive child. The comparison done by the competent court between the biological
mother being a housewife and the prospective adoptive mother (single parent) being a working lady
reflects a mindset of the medieval conservative concepts of a family. The High Court underscored that when
the statute recognizes a single parent to be eligible for being an adoptive parent; the approach of the civil court
defeats the very object of the statute. "Generally, a single parent is bound to be a working person, maybe
with some rare exceptions. Thus, by no stretch of the imagination, a single parent can be held to be
ineligible to be an adoptive parent on the ground that he/she is a working person," the judge held. In its
order, the judge noted that section 57 of the JJ Act provides the eligibility criteria of a prospective parent, which
holds a single or divorced person eligible for taking a child in adoption. The section mandates that the prospective
adoptive parent shall be physically fit, financially sound, mentally alert and highly motivated to adopt a child to
provide a good upbringing to the child.
(Source:
o m
https://www.barandbench.com/news/litigation/bombay-high-court-slams-civil-court-disallowing-
single-working-mother-adopt-child-slams-medieval-mindset )
c
80.
rs .
Which of the following statements best reflects the HC judge's opinion on the civil court's decision to disallow
a divorced woman from adopting a child based on her being a working lady?
k e
(a) The judge disagrees with the civil court's decision and finds it outdated and conservative.
(b) The judge agrees with the civil court's decision as a divorced woman may not be able to provide proper care
and attention to an adoptive child due to her work commitments.
woman from adopting a child.
r n
(c) The judge is neutral towards the civil court's decision as it is within their authority to disallow a working
a
(d) The judge is unsure about the civil court's decision and believes further investigation is needed to determine
81.
the woman's eligibility as an adoptive
o
5O
p
parent.
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
1P
In the year 2012, T married Y. Y died in 2014, before they could have a child of their own. T decided to adopt a
T
girl child in 2017 because she did not want to marry again. Despite being physically disabled, T had the ability
to carry out daily activities with ease and have enough energy to enjoy leisure activities. T had established her
own company by that point, with an annual turnover in tr-
right to adopt the child. Comment.

crores. Her
5T2S2U2S adoption
5N6L 6M request was denied, however,
because she was a disabled woman with only one arm. T found this offensive and went to court to exercise her
(a) T should be allowed to adopt the child because she is financially self-sufficient and also capable of looking
after the child.
(b) T should not be allowed to adopt the child because of her physical disability, which could cause
complications in the future.
(c) T should be allowed to adopt the child because she does not have any child of her own.
(d) T should not have been allowed to adopt the child because she would not have been able to care for him as
a single parent.
82. W was married to P, but they divorced after four years of marriage. W had no job, and P refused to pay W's
maintenance and took custody tr- of5Ktheir 8B1E5J
one-year-old
7E5D3F child. W became lonely and depressed after her divorce. She
had no parents and had to live alone. Finally, she was advised to adopt a child. Determine whether she should
accept the suggestion.
(a) She should decline the suggestion because she lacked the financial means to raise the child.
(b) Instead, she should file a petition to reclaim custody of her own child. 6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(c) She should take the advice and try to adopt
6D6H a child so that she does not have to live alone.
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
(d)5SShe should
7T5U3O8O1P
5Oonly apply for adoption if she believes she can provide a good upbringing for the child.
tr-
83. A son was born in 2013 to Rehan and Fatima, a married couple who got married in 2010. Unfortunately, their
son died at the age of seven after falling off the terrace. They made the decision to adopt a child two years after
his passing. Read the passage carefully and determine the applicability of Section 57 of the JJ Act.
(a) If they are financially stable and physically fit, they are eligible to adopt a child under Section 57 of the Act.
(b) Only if they had never had a child of their own could they have been able to adopt one.
(c) Rehan and Fatima should be permitted to adopt a child in accordance with Section 57 of the Act because
their child passed away at such a young age.
(d) In this situation, Section 57 of the JJ Act, which outlines the requirements for prospective parents, is not
applicable.
84. When Zeeshan was attending a late-night party after work, he once became inebriated. He and his wife recently
divorced, and she also received custody of their son. Because of this, Zeeshan made the decision to adopt a child.
further affect how his child would be raised. Share your opinions on the aforementioned claim.
(a) Zeeshan shouldn't be permitted to adopt a child because of his problematic drinking habits.
c m
Because of this incident,his request was denied due to the contention that he had inappropriate habits that would
o
(b) Given that Zeeshan was a male, he shouldn't be permitted to adopt a female child.
rs .
(c) Zeeshan should be permitted to adopt a child because one intoxication incident does not constitute a pattern
of inappropriate conduct.
(d) If Z decided not to get married again, he should be permitted to adopt a child.
k e
r an
o p
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
1P5O
T tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M
1E5J
tr-5K7E5D3F8B
6L6M
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6D 6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): In May 1984, when ‘What’s Love Got To Do With It’ hit the airwaves, it marked one of
the greatest comebacks in music history. Eight years earlier, Tina Turner had walked out of her violent marriage
to Ike Turner — one half of the musical duo that had made her a star — crossing a busy Dallas freeway on foot,
with sunglasses disguising her bruised face. When ‘What’s Love Got to Do with It’ soared to the top of the
charts, she was 44 — old by the industry’s standards. By then, though, Turner, who died at 83 on Wednesday,
had become a past master at defying the odds.
Consider her story: Born to sharecroppers in Tennessee, Anna Mae Bullock picked cotton as a child and worked
as a domestic worker in her teens. She sang in her church’s choir, but dreaming of a career in music, made her
m
way into Ike’s band. Thanks to her unique voice — elemental and expressive — she quickly became the star
o
attraction of what became known as the Ike and Tina Turner Revue. When she left Ike after years of abuse, she
c
also left behind a career. The woman whose full-throated voice had battered Phil Spector’s “wall of sound” on
rs .
1966’s ‘River Deep — Mountain High’ then worked as cleaner to pay the bills as she attempted a solo career.
It was the pain of these years and the triumph of overcoming them that resonated in the voice that stormed the
k e
charts and filled the stadiums in the ’80s and ’90s. She was now the “queen of rock and roll”, clad in denim and
leather with a big mane of hair, who never shied away from speaking of the violence she had endured and
escaped. As much as her music, the story of her indomitable will and grit are an indelible part of Turner’s legacy.
85.
an
Which of the following can be concluded from the information present in the passage?
r
(a) Tina Turner’s companionship with Ike Turner brought her stardom.
(b) Tina Turner's abusive marriage with
(c) Tina Turner's comeback
o
in7Tthe
tr-5S
p
Ike Turner significantly impacted her music career.
5U3O8O1P5O
music industry was unexpected and unprecedented.
(d) Tina Turner's upbringing in a sharecropper family influenced her passion for music.
86.
T
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument regarding Tina Turner's triumphant
comeback and enduring legacy? tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M
(a) Tina Turner's hit, "What's Love Got to Do with It," was largely written and produced by another artist who
was behind the scenes.
(b) Several high-profile musicians of the same era cite Turner as a major influence and inspiration in their own
music.
(c) After her successful comeback, Tina Turner retired from music and led a quiet life away from the public eye.
(d) Turner's fame and success were primarily the result of her association with Ike Turner and the Revue band.
87. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument regarding Tina Turner's triumphant
comeback and enduring legacy?
(a) After her comeback, Turner was hailed as a remarkable artist, with critics lauding her perseverance and
unique vocal style.
(b) Due to their curiosity withtr-Tina 3F8B1E5J
Turner,
5K7E5D majority of people listened to her songs to find out more about her
episode with Ike Turner .
(c) Tina Turner utilized her personal struggles and journey to motivate and inspire other artists facing similar
circumstances.
(d) Many of Tina Turner's fans continued to support her even after her2Sseparation
5N6L6M
from Ike Turner.
tr-5T2S2U
6D6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
88. Based on the passage, what can be deduced about Tina Turner's initial steps into her music career after her
separation from Ike?
(a) Tina primarily focused on performing live shows to rebuild her solo career.
(b) Tina reverted to her original profession, picking cotton, before starting her solo career.
(c) She ventured into solo music after enduring financial constraints and personal challenges.
(d) Tina immediately found success in her solo career due to her previously established fame.
89. If you were a music historian writing a biography on Tina Turner, which of the following resources would be
least likely to provide substantive material for your research?
(a) A collection of interviews with Tina Turner
(b) The original track recordings of "What's Love Got to Do with It."
(c) A visual archive of Turner's performances and outfits from the '80s and '90s.
90.
(d) Ike Turner's personal journal that doesn't mention Tina or their shared musical career.
c o m
From the information in the passage, which of the following best describes the likely impact of Turner's
experiences on her music during her solo career?
rs
(a) Turner's past primarily influenced her choice of song genres during her solo career.
(b) Her experiences led her to avoid topics of personal trauma in her music.
.
(c) Turner's background inspired her to explore more experimental musical styles.
(d) Her experiences amplified the expressiveness and emotional depth of her voice.
k e
n
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Not all marriages are happy, and not all divorces are unhappy. For those who want to opt
a
out of a bad marriage, Monday’s Supreme Court ruling on divorce will be seen as a good move. Leaning on the
r
“guiding spirit” of Article 142(1) of the Constitution to do “complete justice” in any “cause or matter”, a
o p
Constitution Bench said it could use this extraordinary discretionary power to grant divorce by mutual consent
1P5O
5S7T5U3O8O It also aims to spare couples the “agony and misery” of waiting six to 18
to couples trapped in bittertr-marriages.
months for a local court to annul it, as stipulated under Section 13B of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The Bench,
T
headed by Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul, observed that the law of divorce, built predominantly on assigning fault,
fails to serve broken marriages. It pointed out that if a marriage is wrecked beyond hope, public interest lies in
recognising this fact, not upholding a ‘married’ status regardless. The Court
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M said it could use Article 142 to quash
pending criminal or legal proceedings, be it over domestic violence or dowry, against the man or woman.
Continuing in this strain, the Bench said the Supreme Court could grant divorce on the grounds of an
“irretrievable breakdown of marriage” if the “separation is inevitable and the damage is irreparable”. Under the
Hindu Marriage Act, irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not yet a ground for divorce.
In its judgment, there was a word of caution that the grant of divorce would not be a “matter of right, but a
discretion which is to be exercised with great care… keeping in mind that ‘complete justice’ is done to both
parties.” Several factors would be considered by the Supreme Court before invoking Article 142 in matrimonial
cases, including duration of marriage, period of litigation, the time the couple has stayed apart, the nature of
pending cases, and attempts at reconciliation. The Court will have to be satisfied that the mutual agreement to
divorce was not under coercion. In India, while divorcees have doubled in number over the past two decades,
the incidence of divorce is still 5D3F8B1E
at7E1.1%, 5J those in urban areas making up the largest proportion. But the
with
tr-5K
divorce numbers do not tell the whole story; there are many women, particularly among the poor, who are
abandoned or deserted. Census 2011 revealed that the population which is “separated” is almost triple the
divorced number. In a country which is largely poor, where gender discrimination is rife and many women are
still not financially independent, the Court’s stress on “care and caution” and
6L 6M not to rush into a quick divorce
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
must be welcomed. After all, marriage2J2A equality
5F6D6H is not a reality for all.
tr-5G2H
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
91. Which additional piece of information would most strengthen the Supreme Court's rationale for leaning on
Article 142(1) of the Constitution to grant divorces in bitter marriages?
(a) Article 142(1) has historically been used in matters of grave public importance and welfare.
(b) The rate of domestic violence in pending cases tends to decrease when divorces are granted faster.
(c) Numerous global judiciaries utilize similar constitutional provisions for immediate relief in marital disputes.
(d) Recent studies show that long divorce processes lead to increased psychological distress among couples.
92. Based on the passage, which of the following statements best reflects the Supreme Court's perspective on the
law of divorce?
(a) The Court believes the law of divorce to be perfectly in line with the current social and marital dynamics.
(b) The Supreme Court believes that the law of divorce, being predominantly focused on assigning fault, has
been adequate for handling all divorce cases.
m
(c) The Supreme Court considers the law of divorce ineffective for dealing with irretrievably broken marriages.
o
(d) The Supreme Court has decided to revise the entire Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 due to its inadequacies in
handling modern divorce cases.
c
93.
rs .
Which of the following scenarios would most weaken the observation made by the Supreme Court that the law
of divorce fails to serve broken marriages because it predominantly focuses on assigning fault.
k e
(a) A recent study shows that couples prefer fault-based divorce systems for clarity.
(b) Countries with fault-based divorce laws report higher satisfaction among divorcing couples.
(c) Over 60% of resolved cases in the last year were effectively mediated in fault-based systems.
94.
r n
(d) Many counselors believe fault recognition helps couples find closure and heal.
a
Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with, according to the passage?
(a) Divorce should be easily obtained 5O
repaired.
o
tr-5S 7T 5U3O8O1P
p
by the people who apply for it as the strained relationship cannot be
(b) It is necessary for the Supreme Court to rely on Article 142(1) of the Constitution in some cases of divorce.
95.
marriages.
living separately.
T
(c) The current law of divorce, based primarily on assigning fault, has been effective in addressing broken
(d) The increasing number of divorces in India does not accurately talk
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
about the increased number of people
6L6M
The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following statements concerning the incidence
of divorce and its societal implications in India?
(a) Divorce numbers in India accurately portray the state of marital discord in its entirety.
(b) The prominence of divorce is confined mainly to urban regions, indicating lesser marital strife in rural areas.
(c) The actuality of marital separation in India is possibly much higher than divorce figures would suggest.
(d) Financial independence is a major contributing factor to the increasing divorce rate in India.
96. If the Supreme Court invokes Article 142 in matrimonial cases, it considers several factors. Which of the
following situations, if presented in a case, would most strongly contradict the Court's prerequisites for granting
a divorce under this Article? tr-5K7E5D3F8B1E5J
(a) The couple has been living apart for only two months and has made no reconciliation attempts.
(b) Pending litigation involves a minor property dispute, unrelated to their marital discord.
(c) The mutual agreement to divorce emerged under suspicious circumstances hinting at coercion.
(d) The couple has been separated for ten years, with ongoing personal therapy sessions.
2U2S5N6L6M tr-5T2S
6D6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): In the mild midnight drizzle, M S Dhoni waved his hand, as he strolled after Chennai
Super Kings had won the IPL crown. And the crowd that engulfed the massive arena responded, forgetting
loyalties and differences. In its 16 seasons, IPL has seen no better leader of men than Dhoni. Perhaps, no other
cricketer has won as much unconditional love as he has — the figurehead of not just his incredibly successful
team but the league itself. In the last few editions, his batting prowess has waned and his keeping skills have
tapered off, yet the aura has remained undiminished. So much so that this triumph, as with the previous four,
would be described as Dhoni’s captaincy coup.
Therein lies the beauty and paradox of CSK — the team is so much about Dhoni, yet it is more than Dhoni too.
Dhoni is the proverbial glue that holds the team together, but there are significant, but almost anonymous, parts
that make the team work. Like the immensely resourceful backroom staff, from the ever-composed Stephen
Fleming to the batting virtuoso Mike Hussey and the master of death-overs craft Dwayne Bravo. Just as much
out of New Zealand team with hardly any sprinkle of stardust; Hussey was a classical Test batsmen, yet
c m
as Dhoni, the team is shaped in the ideals of them too. Fleming was a captain who knew how to harness the best
o
seamlessly blended T20 dynamics into his game; Bravo, the bowler, was not quick, but he showed that the lack
of pace can be a gift in this format.
rs .
The squad might not be flawless, there are imperfections. On paper, Gujarat Titans were a vastly superior unit.
k e
But CSK have the winning habit of champions — a knack of producing tournament-defining moments, an
unflinching self-belief and an unreal calm under duress. The romantics of the game would lazily call it magic.
That would, however, be devaluing their courage and gumption, the fierce hunger and commitment to mask
97.
r n
insufficiencies and win trophies, and their gift of seeing a ray of light in shrouding darkness.
a
The author alludes to an undiminished aura around Dhoni despite his waning skills. What underlying assumption
does the author make about the connection
o
5S 7T 5U3O8O1P5O
pbetween a player's skills and their impact on the game?

(a) A player's diminishing skills always lead to a reduced impact on the game.
tr-
(b) The aura of a player is primarily determined by their present skill set.
98.
T
(c) A player can retain significant influence irrespective of fluctuating skills.
(d) A team's performance is solely contingent on the skills of its leader.
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's argument regarding the success of Chennai
Super Kings (CSK) in the Indian Premier League (IPL)?
(a) M.S. Dhoni is considered by many cricket analysts to be the most effective captain in the history of IPL.
(b) Gujarat Titans, despite having a superior team on paper, have repeatedly struggled to perform under high-
pressure situations in the IPL.
(c) The CSK backroom staff, under Dhoni's leadership, have consistently created strategies that capitalize on
the team's strengths and opponents' weaknesses.
(d) CSK's strategy of investing in star players, such as M.S. Dhoni, has significantly boosted the team's fan base,
thereby increasing match attendance and merchandise sales.
99. If it were discovered that the backroom staff of CSK were recently replaced with a completely new team, how
might this information affect the author's 1E5J
7E5D3F8Barguments regarding the team's recent successes?
tr-5K
(a) It wouldn’t render the author's arguments moot as the premise revolves around existing staff.
(b) It would amplify the importance of Dhoni's role in the team's successes.
(c) It would reinforce the significance of the team's inherent winning habit.
(d) The team's successes could be attributed more to emerging strategies than experienced influence.
2U2S5N6L6M tr-5T2S
6D6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
1P5O
tr-5S7T5U3O8O
100. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument regarding the success of Chennai
Super Kings (CSK) in the Indian Premier League (IPL)?
(a) M.S. Dhoni is widely acclaimed for his individual cricketing skills and match-winning performances,
independent of his leadership role.
(b) Stephen Fleming, Mike Hussey, and Dwayne Bravo have individually contributed more to the team's success
than their collective backroom efforts.
(c) In recent seasons, CSK's performance has declined significantly in matches where M.S. Dhoni was not
playing.
(d) Gujarat Titans have started investing in a robust backroom staff, similar to the strategy adopted by CSK.
101. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about M.S. Dhoni's influence and role in the Chennai Super Kings
(CSK) team?
(a) Dhoni's primary contribution to CSK lies in his batting prowess and exceptional wicket-keeping skills.
than his actual performance on the cricket field.
c m
(b) Dhoni is revered mainly because of his charismatic personality and his ability to connect with fans, rather
o
(c) Dhoni, despite his declining individual cricketing skills, has remained an integral part of CSK due to his
leadership and his ability to unify the team.
rs .
(d) Dhoni's influence within CSK is largely limited to his role as a player, with little involvement in strategy
formulation or team management.
k
(a) The success of CSK is largely due to the strategic efforts of their backroom staff.
e
102. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
n
(b) M.S. Dhoni's leadership plays an insignificant role in CSK's victories.
a
(c) Gujarat Titans were a superior team on paper compared to CSK.
r
(d) The individual skills of players like Stephen Fleming, Mike Hussey, and Dwayne Bravo contributed
p
significantly to CSK's success.
5U 3O8O1P5O
o
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): For tr-5S7T
the second year in a row, the top three ranks of the Civil Services Examination,
2022, conducted by the Union Public Service Commission have been secured by women. In a spectacular
T
achievement, results announced on Tuesday show that 12 women are in the top 20. The 26-year-old topper, Ishita
Kishore, who graduated from Delhi University’s Sri Ram College of Commerce and is a resident of Greater
Noida, reached the pinnacle in her third attempt. Thankingtr-5T her family
2S2U 6M their support, Ms. Kishore said she
2S5N6Lfor
read up on current affairs and practised writing at length because the examination process can be draining. The
second-rank holder, Garima Lohia, 24, from Buxar and is also a Delhi University graduate, cleared the
examination in her second attempt; and Uma Harathi N., 28, who stood third, is an engineering graduate from
Telangana and cleared it in her fifth attempt. The young women’s reflections on success and failure, the need to
persevere against all odds and the importance of an empathetic ecosystem are significant pointers for future
students, teachers and parents. For students, especially girls, the courage and commitment of these women is
inspiring. One can only hope that teachers and parents will create the right environment for girls to fulfil their
dreams; too many girls have had to give up half way in a largely patriarchal society.
This year, 933 candidates, of an approximate 11.5 lakh who took the examination, have been recommended by
the UPSC for appointment to the Indian Administrative Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian Police Service
and Central Services, Group A and7EB; 63% (588 candidates) are from the economically weaker sections, Other
1E5J
tr-5K 5D3F8B
Backward Classes, Scheduled Tribe and Scheduled Caste categories. This should help fill the gaps in policy in
key sectors such as education and health for the needy. For all the success in the classroom, the students will
now have to test their strength on the field. In a country as diverse as India, the challenges are different every
few kilometres; they may have to contend with hate, violence, prejudice, discrimination and other adverse
6M
2S5N6Lfirst
2S2Utheir
circumstances. The trail-blazers in the IAS, many of them women, tr-5Thad postings, as is the norm, in rural
2J2A5F 6D6H
or semi-urban areas, and by keeping tr-5G2Htheir ear to the ground, picked the issues they would campaign for, like the
3O8O1P5O
5Ueducation
tr-5S7Tto
right for children, to give just one example. As women civil servants forming the steel framework
of the administrative system, they may have to work under pressure, but their service will be vital for the well-
being of a young India, especially women who often find themselves on the margins.
103. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
(a) There has been an overall decline in the success rate of women in competitive examinations over the past
decade.
(b) The representation of women in the Indian Administrative Service has been stagnant for the past five years.
(c) Looking at the success of women at UPSC exams, more parents in India are now supporting their daughters'
ambitions to join the Civil Services.
(d) Previous years' results show a consistent dominance of men in the top ranks of the Civil Services
104. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) The top-ranking women in the Civil Services Examination all come from affluent backgrounds with highly
educated parents.
(b) A recent survey shows an increase in the number of women aiming to join the Indian Administrative Service.
m
(c) More women civil servants are choosing postings in urban areas due to their better living conditions.
o
(d) Several universities across India have initiated scholarship programs to support women in pursuing their
Civil Services aspirations.
c
rs .
105. The passage likens women civil servants to the "steel framework" of the administrative system. In making this
comparison, the author most likely aims to emphasize which of the following characteristics of these civil
servants?
(a) The tenacity with which women civil servants pursue their job responsibilities.
k
(b) The foundational role women play in holding the administrative structure together.
e
an
(c) The rigidity and unwavering nature of the female civil servants in the face of challenges.
(d) The modern transformation and progress brought about by the influx of women into civil services.
r
106. Given the author's view on the achievement
o
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p
of women in the Civil Services Examination and its impact, which
of the following initiatives would the author most likely support to further this progress?
tr-
(a) Shifting the examination center to metropolitan cities to facilitate a better examination environment.
always selected.
T
(b) Implementing quota systems in the Civil Services Examination to ensure a certain number of women are
(c) Starting mentorship programs in universities where successful

training to aspiring female students.
women
tr-5T2S2U2S5N
6L6M civil servants provide guidance and
(d) Developing an AI system to evaluate the Civil Services Examination to eliminate human bias.
107. Which of the following would be most important in evaluating the claim that having women as civil servants is
crucial for the well-being of marginalized women in India?
(a) The overall percentage of women occupying positions in civil services.
(b) The impact of initiatives driven by women civil servants on marginalized women.
(c) The educational background of the top-ranking female civil servants.
(d) The correlation between the rise in women civil servants and economic growth in India.
108. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's views on the importance of representation in the
1E5J
Civil Services? tr-5K7E5D3F8B
(a) The author feels that representation is unnecessary as it may lead to biased results.
(b) The author believes that representation is key to diversifying policy solutions for the varied challenges faced
in India.
(c) The author dismisses the importance of representation, stating 2U that merit
6L6M should be the only determining
tr-5T2S 2S5N
factor for selection. 6D6H
tr-5G2H2J2A5F
(d)5SThe
7T 5U
author
3O 8O1P 5Ois indifferent about the representation as the focus is on overall academic achievement.
tr-
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
In a financial institution, there are five different types of investment portfolios: X Portfolio, Y Portfolio, Z
Portfolio, P Portfolio, and Q Portfolio. The institution has a total of 2800 clients. Among them, 30% hold X
Portfolios, while 15% have Y Portfolios. 20% of the clients have Z Portfolios. The remaining clients either have
Q Portfolios or P Portfolios. The number of Q Portfolios is 240 more than the number of P Portfolios.
109. What is the ratio of the total number of Z Portfolios to the combined number of Q Portfolios and P Portfolios?
(a) 4:7 (b) 3:7 (c) 2:3 (d) 4:5
110. If 30% of the P Portfolios are non-performing, what is the number of P Portfolios that are performing well?
(a) 360 (b) 259 (c) 427 (d) 588
c o m
111. Approximately what percentage of the total number of X Portfolios and Y Portfolios together is the number of
Z Portfolios?
(a) 29.36% (b) 33.33% (c) 48.41% (d) 44.44%
rs .
112. What is the total number of Q Portfolios, Z Portfolios, and P Portfolios combined?
(a) 1540 (b) 1260 (c) 1820 (d) 1680
k e
n
a
In an examination (consisting of two papers Math and Science) total 250 students appeared. Out of that, the ratio
r
of boys to girls is 16 : 9. The number of boys who passed only in Math is 20% of the total number of boys and
this number is 16/5 of the number of girls
o
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p
5U3O8O1P5O
who passed only in Science. The number of girls who passed in both
the papers is 18% of the total number of students, and the number of boys who passed in both the papers is 200%
tr-
of the number of girls who passed in both the papers. None of the candidates failed in both the papers.
(a) 42 (b) 38
T
113. How many girls are there who passed only in Math paper?
(c) 54 tr-5T2S2U2S5N
(d)6M35
6L
114. The number of boys who passed only in Science is what percentage of the total number of students who appeared
in the examination?
(a) 14% (b) 18.6% (c) 15.2% (d) 16.4%
115. How many students passed in Math?

(a) 156 (b) 202 (c) 170 (d) 67
116. What is the ratio of the number of boys who passed in Science to the number of girls who passed only in Math?
(a) 128 : 35 (b) 18:7 (c) 38:35 (d) 64:35
1E5J
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Answer the following question based on the information given below.
A bar has five drinks in its menu: P, Q, R, S and T. Each of the drinks contains a different combination of alcohol,
soda and water.
• Drink P: 60 ml of the drink has 28 ml of alcohol. It contains equal volume of water and soda.
• Drink Q: 1/4th of the drink is alcohol and 1/3rd is soda.
• Drink R: The volume of soda and water is equal and each equals 3/4th the volume of alcohol.
• Drink S: It has equal volumes of alcohol, soda and water.
• Drink T: It contains alcohol, soda and water in the ratio 2:1:2.
117. Which drink has the lowest percentage of soda?

(a) Drink T (b) Drink Q (c) Drink R (d) Drink P
o m
118. In what ratio should the drinks R and T be mixed, so that the ratio of water and soda in the resultant mixture is
4:3?
c
(a) 3:5 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:4 (d) 4:3
rs .
119. Three friends K, L and M ordered three different drinks. K ordered the drink that contains 1/3rd alcohol, L
(a) 37.78% (b) 42% (c) 33.33% (d) 36.67%
k e
ordered the drink that contains 30% soda and M ordered the drink that contains 40% water. If each of them had
ordered the same volume of drinks, what was the average percentage of alcohol in their drinks?
an
120. Ratan ordered drink P but later realized that he needs to consume only 1/4th of alcohol. Therefore, he diluted his
r
drink by adding water to it. What is the percentage of water in the diluted drink?
(a) 73.65% (b) 62.44%
o
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(c) 60.71%
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(d) 41.33%
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Notes:-
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All India Open Mock Clat 07 (Clat 46) 5753815

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

Subject Q. No. Page No.

the Cold War.

5. Which statement best encapsulates the main idea of the passage?

7. Which of the following statements is factually accurate based on the passage?

Dopamine's role isn't limited

3O8O1Pprocessing; it also responds to aversive events, leading to the hypothesis

This evolving understanding oftr-dopamine’s

knowledge and treatment of related conditions.

Passage (Q.13-Q.16): Hinduism and Plato’s Republic present intricate

15. Based on the passage, it can be inferred that:

19. From the students' reactions, it can be inferred that:

20. In the passage, the word 'impassive' most closely means:

(a) Passionate and enthusiastic.

21. Identify the main idea of the given passage.

contradicting other theistic or atheistic doctrines.

What can be an appropriate concluding statement to the given passage?

Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Chandrayaan 3

that offered similar characteristics.

What is the name of the lander module of Chandrayaan-3?

Passage (Q.40-Q.44): BIMSTEC

Passage (Q.45-Q.49): Data Governance in India

(more on this in the last section).

45. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(d) National Data Management Framework Policy

48. Which section of the IT Act pertains 8B1E5J

50. What has been redacted by [1] in this passage?

(c) Improved accuracy in voter registration.

(b) Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(a) Freedom of speech and expression

(b) Right to life and personal liberty

regardless of their social status.

government officials many years ago. Will their claim be admitted?

pRaghav's actions. It has been alleged that he has been involved in

61. A forged his father’s signature

pof properties comprised virtually of the whole estate. The sons of X

his victim, but he is not, he may not be guilty of assault.

the act of kidnapping

prelationships, the government's course of action is appropriate.

rights are denied?

woman from adopting a child.

right to adopt the child. Comment.

pbetween a player's skills and their impact on the game?

than his actual performance on the cricket field.

(c) Starting mentorship programs in universities where successful

115. How many students passed in Math?

117. Which drink has the lowest percentage of soda?

(a) 37.78% (b) 42% (c) 33.33% (d) 36.67%

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