Mock CLAT 42 Questions @legal - Eagle - LE

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24
MOCK CLAT 42
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
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Maximum Marks : 120
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this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy
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10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
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writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
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carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 10
Legal Reasoning 53-84 15
Logical Reasoning 84-108 26
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 32
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 36
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passages (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1 – Q.5): The freedom of press has been recognized as a right within the broader right of free speech
by the Supreme Court in various decisions. The legislature and courts have also developed specific restrictions
on the right for certain circumstances. One such restriction is the reporting of certain pre-judicial and judicial
proceedings. For instance, the media is barred from reporting on sensitive issues such as those involving the
identities of rape victims. Similarly, certain provisions of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children)
Act, 2015 prohibit the press from disclosing personally identifiable information about juveniles in conflict with
the law. This is related to privacy concerns.
Another restriction on the freedom of speech is defamation, which is closely linked to the violation of a person’s
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privacy. In India, defamation is a civil as well as a criminal offense. In the case of Rajagopal v. State of Tamil
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Nadu, the Supreme Court applied the ‘actual malice test’ which requires the plaintiff to establish that the material
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was not only false but also published by the defendant with reckless disregard for the truth. Moreover, the
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Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality of criminal defamation in Subramaniam Swamy v. Union of
India though the same is internationally recognized as a disproportionate restriction on free speech.
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The modern conception of the right to privacy can be traced back to Samuel Warren and Louis Brandeis’
argument in 1890 in United States of America to make a novel right to protect an individual’s “right to be left
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alone.” The new right would be relevant to protect individuals’ private affairs in which the “community has no
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legitimate concern.” The authors recognized, however, that private affairs of an individual may acquire public
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importance “if found in a candidate for public office.” Slowly, claims around privacy started growing and several
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states in the United States adopted a tort-based approach to privacy. While this sort of protection for breaches
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by the press was becoming increasingly normalized via the common-law route, it was insufficient to offer
protection in surveillance issues, especially state surveillance. The inability of the common law approach to
address state surveillance led to courts adopting constitutional law principles around privacy. In the Indian
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context, while large benches of the Supreme Court had decided against recognizing privacy as a fundamental
right, smaller benches started opening up gaps through which the right could be recognized in a limited form.
For example, in 1995, in the Rajagopal case, the Supreme
be utilized against a private citizen is a common
Court
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explicitly
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right and it’s violation would invite an action for damages.
Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?

(a) Freedom of press in Europe and India.
(b) Privacy and Freedom of speech in Indian subcontinent.
(c) Freedom of Speech and Privacy: Tracing its interaction adoption in India and abroad.
(d) Defamation and Freedom of Speech: Looking at the implications in India
2. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Freedom of Press and its restrictions must be carefully interpreted by Courts.
(b) The freedom of speech is generally with restrictions in the Indian context to suit the interest of the state.
(c) The importance of privacy as a shield to protect the freedom of speech is being recognized and gaining
prominence in India, with courts qualified approval.
(d) , while tracing its origin in the US, Privacy as a right originated in USA wherein it was established as
academic research and its legal journey there.
3. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?

(a) Acerbic. tr-5H3E9J2C6G1K2A (b) Vituperative.
(c) Obsequious. (d) Technical.
4. What can be appropriately inferred from the bold text in the passage?
(a) The common law approach around privacy was inadequate in surveillance by state which led to legislature
devising constitutional principles.
(b) Constitutional principles are used by courts to uphold the restriction of privacy to curb freedom of speech of
persons.
(c) Surveillance by state could not be remedied by common law approach to privacy which led to courts resorting
to constitutional principles. Constitutional law principles have a better approach to address state surveillance
than the common law around privacy.
(d) Common law approach is adequate to address other matters of jurisprudence than the matter of state
surveillance.
5. Which of the following is not supported by the passage?
(a) Criminal defamation has been recognized in the international sphere as a disproportionate restriction on free
speech.
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(b) The Press is restricted from reporting some forms of judicial proceedings due to privacy concerns of underage
persons.
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with passing time.
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(c) The ancient conception of right to privacy was devised by Warren and Brandeis in USA which has changed
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(d) Privacy as a right has been recognized in a restricted manner in India by the courts.
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Passage (Q.6 – Q.10): They were not afraid; they were simply astounded at their own daring. The priest laughed
and shouted. He had already abandoned the safety of the handrail and was running back and forth across the
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deck of the machine in order to catch a glimpse of the land below, north, south, east, and west, the earth looked
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so vast, now that they were so far away from it, Baltasar and Blimunda finally scrambled to their feet, nervously
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holding on to the cords, then to the handrail, dazed by the light and the wind, suddenly no longer frightened, Ah,
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and Baltasar shouted, We’ve done it, he embraced Blimunda and burst into tears, he was like a lost child, this
soldier who had been to war, who had killed a man in Pegões with his spike, and was now weeping for joy as he
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clung to Blimunda, who kissed his dirty face. The priest came up to them and joined in their embrace, suddenly
perturbed by the analogy the Italian had drawn when he had suggested that the priest himself was God, Baltasar
his son, and Blimunda the holy ghost, and now all three of them were up there in the skies together, There is
only one God, he shouted, but the wind snatched the words from
open the sail, we shall go on climbing, and tr-
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might
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even
his mouth. Then Blimunda said, unless we
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collide with the sun.
We never ask ourselves whether there might not be some wisdom in madness, even while recognising that we
are all a little mad. These are ways of keeping firmly on this side of madness, and just imagine, what would
happen if madmen demanded to be treated as if they were equals with the sane, who are only a little mad, on the
pretext that they themselves still possess a little wisdom, so as to safeguard, for example, their own existence
like Padre Bartolomeu Lourenço, If we were to open the sail abruptly, we should fall to the ground like a stone,
and it is he who is manoeuvring the rope and adjusting the slack so that the sail opens gradually, casting its
shadow on the balls of amber and causing the machine to slow down, who would ever have thought that it would
be so easy to fly, now we can go in search of new Indies.
The machine has stopped climbing and hovers in the sky, its wings extended, its beak pointing northward, and
it has every appearance of being motionless. The priest opens the sail a little more, three-quarters of the amber
balls are already covered in shadow, and the machine starts to descend gently, it is like sailing across a tranquil
lake in a small boat, a tiny adjustment to the rudder, a stroke with one oar, those little touches that only mankind
is capable of inventing.
6. Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?
(a) The adventures 3Eof three1K
men
2A aboard a boat on the Sea.
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(b) Three brave men and a flying boat.
(c) A boat with three sacred beings.
(d) Three scared adventurers on the Boat.
7. Which of the following is not supported by the passage?

(a) The abrupt opening of the sails would have made the boat plummet from the sky.
(b) Blimunda said that there is a chance of their boat colliding with the sun if they did not open the sails.
(c) There was a trained aviator present among the group who was guiding their flight path through the skies.
(d) The men found the sailing of the machine frightful till they tried it.
8. What is the passage about?

(a) The three men and their adventure of finding a new land in their first flight on board.
(b) The boat and its course through the problematic and raging sea with winds and excessive danger.
(c) The adventures of three men flying a machine and finding in the pursuit a new found courage.
(d) The boat rendered motionless in sky by way of magic through divine intervention and the efforts by the
persons on it to ascend it to the heavens.
9.
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In the context of the above passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the word
“perturbed”?
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(a) Discomfited. (b) Insouciant. (c) Unruffled. (d) Incensed.
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Why does the author suggest that the inventions were only capable of being done by mankind?
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(a) Because of the inadequacies of the machine that can be invented by those who are fallible themselves.
(b) Because of the presence of three men on the boat which demanded extraordinary maneuvering.
(c) Because of the presence of some supernatural intervention in the flight of the boat which was navigated by
the three men.
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(d) Because of the little touches by men like adjustment of sails and rudder which made the descent of the boat
capable.
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Passage (Q.11 – Q.15): Amid recent hype around ChatGPT and generative artificial intelligence (AI), many are
eager to harness the technology's increasingly sophisticated potential. However, findings from Baker McKenzie's
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2022 North America AI survey indicate that business leaders may currently underappreciate AI-related risks to
their organization. These days, AI-related progress and adoption is happening at an exponential rate – some
argue too quickly. While this exponential growth has
academics, scientists, policy-makers, legaltr-5U
renewed
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professionals
focus
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on the use of AI, the reality is that
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and others have been campaigning vigorously for
some time now for the ethical and legal use and deployment of AI and its possible misuse with huge areas
of possible complications in defence and security fields, particularly in the workplace where existing
applications of AI in the human resources (HR) function are abundant (e.g., talent acquisition,
administrative duties, employee training). According to our survey, 75% of companies already use AI tools and
technology for hiring and HR purposes of recognition of talent. In this new phase of generative AI, core tenets
around AI adoption – such as governance, accountability and transparency – are more important than ever, as
are concerns over the consequences of poorly deployed AI. For example, unchecked algorithms can result in
biased and discriminatory outcomes, perpetuating inequities and dampening workforce diversity progress. Data
privacy and breaches are another concern, easily occurring through the non-anonymization and collection of
employee data.
Generative AI has also given way to new intellectual property (IP) considerations, raising questions around
ownership of both inputs and outputs from third-party programmes and subsequent copyright infringement
concerns. Broadly, we have seen governments and regulators making hasty efforts to implement AI-related
legislation and regulatory enforcement mechanisms. In the US, a key focus of emerging legislation will be on
the use of AI in hiring and HR-related operations. Litigation, including class actions, is also on the horizon. We
are already seeing the first wave of generative AI IP litigation in the US, and these early court decisions are
2A
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shaping the legal landscape
tr-5H of existing regulation. Organizations who implement generative AI also
should assume that data fed into AI tools and queries will be collected by third-party providers of the technology.
In some cases, these providers will have rights to use and/or disclose these inputs. As employers look to equip
their workforces with generative AI tools, are they putting sensitive data and trade secrets at risk? In short, yes.
All in all, each new development seems to open questions faster than organizations, regulators and courts can
answer them.
11. The main idea of the passage is that

(a) Generative artificial intelligence has a huge potential in hiring and HR decisions in India.
(b) Generative artificial intelligence is liable to be banned through legislations.
(c) Generative artificial intelligence requires effective regulatory procedures along with government
accountability and transparency.
(d) Generative artificial intelligence is being effectively regulated by legislation and Court decisions around
the world.
12. The tone of the bold text in the passage is
13.
(a) Ambiguous. (b) Critical. (c) Indignant. (d) Satirical.
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Choose the most appropriate replacement of the following underlined and bold words: It is evident that through
(a) Impede, hiring the HR persons.

(b) Exploit, making appointments in HR trainees.
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the survey that companies run artificial intelligence for hiring talented persons for employment
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(c) Deploy, making appointments in technical employees.
(d) Operate, procurement of capable employees.
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14.
(a) Unfettered. (b) Crooked.
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Which one of the following is the least likely to be used to describe artificial intelligence in its unregulated form?
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(c) Conscientious. (d) Invasive.
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From the passage it is evident that regulation of AI is important in copyright because
(a) There would be possession and design concerns about programmes.
(b) There would be academic concerns about programmes.
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(c) There would be proprietorship concerns about programmes.
(d) There would be deontological concerns about programmes.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): A dark horse concept

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getting its first major investment from the U.S. government. Today, the Advanced Research Projects Agency-
Energy (ARPA-E), the high-risk, high-reward arm of the Department of Energy (DOE), announced they would
fund $20 million in grants to advance technologies for extracting clean-burning hydrogen from deep rocks. At
the moment, all of the world’s hydrogen is manufactured industrially. But some researchers have concluded that,
contrary to orthodox wisdom, Earth harbors vast deposits of the gas that could be tapped like oil—and that
reserves could be stimulated by pumping water and catalysts into the crust. The ARPA-E funding “will be the
largest single investment in R&D of this nature worldwide,” says Yaoguo Li, a geophysicist at the Colorado
School of Mines who plans to apply to the program. “It’s so new, a lot of other agencies and other countries are
just waking up to this possibility.” Hydrogen has drawbacks as an energy source: It is less energy rich than
natural gas and occupies large amounts of space. But experts think it could replace fossil fuels in long-haul
transport and heavy industries such as steelmaking—if it could be sourced in an environmentally friendly way.
Most hydrogen today is manufactured by combining steam and methane in factories that emit carbon dioxide
(CO2) and add to global warming. Governments are supporting efforts to make hydrogen cleanly, either by
capturing the emitted CO2 and storing it underground (blue hydrogen) or by using renewable electricity to split
water and harvesting the resulting hydrogen (green hydrogen). Later this year, DOE plans to select up to 10 blue
and green hydrogen “hubs” as part of an $8 billion program. But “geological” or “natural” hydrogen could be
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cheaper—and just as3Eclean.
tr-5H The ARPA-E money is a good start in a field with many unknowns, says Geoff Ellis,
a geochemist at the U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) who leads a small, internally funded geological hydrogen
program. “Right now, we’re starting from, essentially, nearly zero. So this is really important as a way to
jumpstart research.”
For decades, few geologists believed Earth held significant hydrogen deposits, because the gas is so readily eaten
up by microbes or chemically altered into other forms. But prospectors are now fanning out across the globe,
spurred by the discovery of a massive hydrogen field underneath a village in Mali and records suggesting
puzzling surges of nearly pure hydrogen in old boreholes. Whereas oil and gas companies tend to tap relatively
youthful basins of sedimentary rock, hydrogen hunters are probing the crystalline, primeval hearts of continents
for the iron-rich rocks thought to fuel hydrogen production.
[Source: https://www.science.org/content/article/u-s-bets-it-can-drill-climate-friendly-hydrogen-just-oil]
16. What cannot be inferred about hydrogen as a fuel from the passage?
(a) The natural hydrogen could be the alternative to the fossil fuel in the future.
(b) Hydrogen for the present use has not been extracted from natural sources.
(c) The production of hydrogen requires steam along with gas by the name of Methane.
(d) Hydrogen is a gas which can easily be changed to other forms of gases.
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17. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?
(a) Caustic.
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(b) Apathetic.
(c) Objective
(d) Belligerent.
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18. From the last paragraph, it can be collectively concluded that
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(a) The early understanding of geologists regarding the deposits of hydrogen in Earth has turned out to be
flawed regarding their volume.
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(b) The early understanding of geologists regarding the deposits of oxygen has been faulty while there are
many deposits across India.
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(c) The early understanding of geologists regarding the deposits of hydrogen has been correct as there are
minuscule deposits across the world.
(d) The early understanding of geologists regarding the deposits
considerable deposits across Europe. tr-5U3R9L
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What does the phrase “dark horse” connote as used in the passage?
of2Rhydrogen
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(a) Something which is extremely famous but very rare in its appearance in public life.
(b) Something which is not very well-known or ignored but emerges in prominence later through its
versatility.
(c) Someone who is very renowned and has been tried and tested for long races by their masters through
analysis.
(d) Someone who is known to be dependable from the beginning in any competition.
20. Today, the Advanced Research Projects Agency-Energy (ARPA-E), the high-risk, high-reward arm of the
Department of Energy (DOE), announced they would fund $20 million in grants to advance technologies for
extracting clean-burning hydrogen from deep rocks. Which of the following presents a grammatical error in the
sentence?
(a) arm of the Department of Energy (DOE)
(b) announced it would fund $20 million in grants to advance technologies
(c) extracting clean-burning hydrogen from deep rocks
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(d) All of the following 6G1K2A an error.
contain
Passage (Q.21 – Q.24): CCTV cameras are ubiquitous. We are used to being watched: we walk past them on
the street, enter buildings where they keep an eye on us, and often have them inside our own homes. Their
popularity has surged in recent years, and while they may make us feel safer, it is important to consider the cost
of such surveillance. The debate over the usefulness and ethics of CCTV cameras is ongoing, but there are
several key points to consider. Firstly, there is the issue of privacy. The presence of CCTV cameras can be seen
as an infringement on our right to privacy. We all have a reasonable expectation of privacy in our daily lives,
but with CCTV cameras around every corner, it can feel like we are constantly under surveillance. In a world
where we are increasingly connected through technology, it is important to remember that privacy is a
fundamental human right. Secondly, there is the question of whether CCTV cameras actually make us safer.
While it is true that they can be useful in solving crimes, there is evidence to suggest that their overall
effectiveness is limited. For example, studies have shown that CCTV cameras do not deter crime in areas where
there is already a high level of crime. Additionally, some argue that the use of CCTV cameras can create a false
sense of security, leading people to take risks they might not otherwise take. Another concern is the potential for
CCTV footage could be used to track people's movements, monitor their behavior, and even identify them
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misuse of CCTV cameras. With the increasing prevalence of facial recognition technology, there is a risk that
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without their consent. This is particularly concerning given the potential for abuse by law enforcement and other
authorities.
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Despite these concerns, there are arguments in favor of CCTV cameras. They can be useful in deterring crime,
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and in some cases, can even prevent it. For example, CCTV cameras have been used to catch burglars in the act,
which can be a powerful deterrent. Additionally, the use of CCTV cameras can help to identify suspects and
provide evidence in court, leading to more successful prosecutions. Ultimately, the debate over CCTV cameras
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comes down to a balancing of privacy and security. While we all want to feel safe, it is important to consider the
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cost of that safety. CCTV cameras may be a useful tool in fighting crime, but they also have the potential to
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infringe on our privacy and be misused by those in power. As such, it is crucial that we continue to have an open
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and honest conversation about the use of CCTV cameras, and the balance between privacy and security.
Reference: Bateup, Sarah. "Do CCTV cameras protect us or invade our privacy?"
21.
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Which of the following is the central idea of the passage as conveyed by the author?
(a) CCTV cameras are an effective tool for deterring and solving crimes, but their potential for misuse and
infringement on privacy must be carefully considered.
(b) The widespread use of CCTV camerastr-is
security.
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violation of our right to privacy and creates a false sense of
(c) The use of CCTV cameras has no significant impact on crime rates and should be discontinued in favour of
other crime prevention strategies.
(d) The potential benefits of CCTV cameras in deterring and solving crimes far outweigh any concerns about
privacy and misuse.
22. The overall tone of the passage is

(a) Indifferent and detached. (b) Cautious and balanced.
(c) Hostile and critical. (d) Enthusiastic and optimistic.
23. Based on the passage, which of the following is a possible reason why the author believes that the potential
benefits of CCTV cameras should be carefully weighed against their potential for misuse and infringement on
privacy?
(a) The author has personally been the victim of privacy violations caused by CCTV cameras.
(b) The author believes that CCTV cameras are ineffective in deterring and solving crimes.
(c) The author is a strong advocate for individual privacy rights and believes that they should not be infringed
upon under any 9J2C6G1K2A
circumstances.
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(d) The author recognizes that while CCTV cameras can be useful in preventing and solving crimes, they also
have the potential for abuse and must be carefully regulated.
24. The best description of the author's profession is

(a) A privacy rights advocate who specializes in cybersecurity.
(b) A criminologist who studies the effectiveness of crime prevention strategies.
(c) A investigative journalist who investigates the use of surveillance technology.
(d) A philosopher who examines the ethical implications of technology.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): ON THE current pace of reforms, the world may take between 197 to 430 years to close
the global gender gap, which means misallocation of women’s talents and abilities would remain a major issue
to the detriment of societies for a long time. The estimate is based on stationarity of the very slow dynamics of
narrowing the gender Labour Force Participation (LFP) gaps within 1 per cent of the long-run steady state, and
excluding the years 2020 and 2021 to purge the effects of COVID-19 pandemic. A new IMF working paper
prepared by Prepared Alejandro Badel and Rishi Goyal shows that in absence of a significant step up in policy
efforts, gender gaps may in fact never close. The new estimates are based on deterministic (linear or log-linear)
trends. For 189 countries, annual data are available since 1991 on the gender LFP gap defined hereafter as the
labour force participation rate for men minus the labour force participation rate for women. In1991, the world’s
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average gap was 26.6 percent, while in 2021, the average gap was 19.5 percent, implying a reduction rate of 1.03
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percent per year. The paper says, if the gap were to continue to fall at the observed rate of 1.03 percent per year,
99 percent of the current gap would be closed in about 445 years.
c
https://www.thehitavada.com/Encyc/2023/9/21/Global-Gender-Gap.html
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25.
(a) Iceland (b) Yemen (c) Afghanistan (d) Pakistan
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Which country has the highest gender gap score in the world according to the Global Gender Gap Report 2023?
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26.
(a) Economic Participation and Opportunity
(b) Educational Attainment
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__________ dimension of the Global Gender Gap Index has the largest gender gap globally as of 2023.
(c) Health and Survival

(d) Political Empowerment
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27.
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Which of the following statements is true about India’s performance in the Global Gender Gap Report 2023?
(a) India has improved its rank from 135th (in 2022) to 127th out of 146 countries in the report’s 2023 edition.
(b) India has closed 67.8% of its gender gap, which is higher
(c) India has performed well in political empowerment,
than 2R
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the
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tr-5U3R9L2R6L ranking 18th in the world with a score of 41.7%.
(d) India has performed poorly in health and survival, ranking last in the world with a score of 93.7%.
28. Which international covenant did India sign and ratify in 1979, committing to the promotion and protection of
civil and political rights?
(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR)
(b) Organization of UNDP
(c) International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
(d) Convention Against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (CAT)
29. Which organization is responsible for preparing the Gender Gap Report?
(a) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF)
(b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(d) World Health Organization (WHO)
30. Which edition was released in 2023 of Gender Gap Report?

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(a) 15th (b)6G16th
tr-5H3E9J2C (c) 17th (d) 18th
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): Arthur Conan Doyle may well have described it as the curious incident of the prize that
was not awarded. Seventy-five years after the Mahatma’s martyrdom, questions and a degree of puzzlement
remain about why he never received the Nobel Prize for Peace in spite of the fact, as the later “opening” of the
award archives indicated, he was nominated for it five times: in 1937, 1938, 1939, 1947 and in January 1948
itself, when his assassination occurred two days before the deadline for nominations that year. As it turned out,
there was no prize awarded in 1948 because the Nobel committee concluded there was “no suitable living
candidate”. The phrasing appears to have been carefully chosen to suggest there would have been a unanimous
awardee were he alive. And there, matters may have rested, were it not for two particular conversations 12 years
later and a number in the 10 months that immediately followed. Central to these was Vallilath Madhathil
Madhavan Nair, ‘VMM’ to his seniors and subordinates in the Indian Civil, Indian Political and eventually Indian
Foreign Service. At the time this narrative begins, he was concluding his term as India’s ambassador to Cambodia
on transfer to the embassy in Norway.
https://www.theweek.in/theweek/specials/2023/09/16/an-ambassador-to-norway-almost-swung-the-nobel-
31.
peace-prize-for-mahatma-gandhi-in-1961.html
Which of these countries has not received the Gandhi Peace Prize as of 2023?
c o m
32.
(a) Oman (b) Bangladesh (c) Sri Lanka (d) Nepal
___________ institution was the first to receive the Gandhi Peace Prize.
r s .
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation
(b) Grameen Bank
(d) Gita Press
k e
33.
r a n
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Gita Press?
(a) It was established in 1923 by Jaya Dayal Goyandka and Hanuman Prasad Poddar.
(b) It is one of the world’s largest publishers of Hindu religious texts, having published 41.7 crore books in 14
languages.
o p
(c) It also runs a monthly magazine called Kalyan, which covers topics such as spirituality, culture, history,
ethics and morality.
34.
(a) Amnesty International

T
(d) All of the given options are correct.
Which of the following is the name of the human rights
(c) Center for Civil Liberties

tr-5U3R9L2R6L
Prize 2022 along with Ales Bialiatski and Memorial?
organisation
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
(b) Human Rights Watch

(d) Freedom House
from
2R6L1P 2M Ukraine that won the Nobel Peace
35. Which of these individuals has received the International Gandhi Peace Prize posthumously?
(a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman (b) Qaboos bin Said Al Said
(c) Kofi Annan (d) Desmond Tutu
Passage (Q.36-Q.41): The latest National Multidimensional Poverty Index released by Niti Aayog states that
nearly 13.5 crore people were lifted out of poverty in the five-year period till 2019-21. The government’s think-
tank published the first National MPI baseline report for India in November, 2021. OPHI and the UNDP are its
technical partners. “The Government’s focus on investments in critical areas of education, nutrition, water,
sanitation, cooking fuel, electricity, and housing has played a pivotal role in driving these positive outcomes.
Key Government schemes such as Swachch Bharat Mission (SBM), Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), Poshan Abhiyan,
Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (Saubhagya), Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY), Pradhan
Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) among others have contributed significantly in driving the tremendous
progress,” Niti Aayog stated. Experts believe that it is critical to monitor progress, assess gaps and address
9J2C6G1K 2A
emerging channels amidst
tr-5H3E global macroeconomic headwinds. Shoko Noda, Resident Representative, UNDP
India said that, “when complemented with monetary poverty measures, the national MPI will enable
policymakers to reflect on, and effectively respond to the comprehensiveness and complexity of poverty in the
country.” India aims to reduce poverty in all its forms by atleast half by 2030 in line with SDG target 1.2.
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/blexplainer/bl-explainer-all-you-want-to-know-about-
multidimensional-poverty-in-india/article67097006.ece
36. Which of the following states has shown the highest absolute reduction in multidimensional poverty headcount
ratio (H) between NFHS-4 and NFHS-5 according to the National MPI 2023?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha
37. Which of the following statements is false about the regional disparities in multidimensional poverty in India
according to the National MPI 2023?
(a) The North-Eastern region has the lowest average MPI value among all regions
(b) The Central region has the highest average MPI value among all regions
(c) The Southern region has the lowest average H value among all regions
(d) The Eastern region has the highest average A value among all regions
c o m
38.
(a) The Future is Now: Science for Achieving Sustainable Development
r s .
Which of the following is the title of the 2023 Global Sustainable Development Report (GSDR)?
(b) Times of Crisis, Times of Change: Science for Accelerating Transformations to Sustainable Development
(c) Leaving No One Behind: Science for Inclusive and Equitable Development
k
(d) Transforming Our World: Science for the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
e
39.
(a) 18.7% (b) 28% (c) 39.2%
r n
Around how much population of India is categorised under vulnerable?
a (d) 55.4%
40.
o p
In the context of MPI, what does a deprivation cutoff represent?
(a) The maximum level of poverty allowed in a country
(b) The minimum number of dimensions considered for poverty assessment
41. T
(c) The threshold below which a person is considered multidimensionally poor
(d) The average level of deprivation in a given region
What does "OPHI" stand for in the context tr-
(a) Oxford Progress in Human Indicators
1P2Mtr-
3R9L2R6Lmeasurement
of5Upoverty
(b) Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative

and research?
5U3R9L2R6L
1P2M
(c) Outreach Program for Humanitarian Initiatives

(d) Oxford Project for Humanitarian Impact
Passage (Q.42-Q.46): Fifty participants of the Mission Amrit Sarovar -- a campaign to rejuvenate water bodies
across the country -- have been invited to Red Fort as special guests for the 77th Independence Day celebrations,
the Union Rural Development Ministry said on Monday. Participants from 19 states and Union Territories, along
with their spouses, have been invited as special guests, the ministry said in a statement. "This is a unique initiative
to honour and recognise the contribution of the rural community to the nation's water conservation (efforts)," the
ministry said. The group, which is in Delhi at present, visited the National War Memorial, India Gate and the
Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya on Monday. The group is part of around 1,800 people invited from different sectors
from across the country to be a part of the Independence Day celebrations. The initiative has been taken in line
with the government's vision of 'Jan Bhagidari'. Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched Mission Amrit Sarovar
in April 2022 to develop and rejuvenate 75 water bodies in each district of the country, as part of 'Azadi ka Amrit
Mahotsav'. More than 50,000 water bodies have been developed under the mission over the past year, according
to the ministry. The group, 1K
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
which
2A is in Delhi at present, visited the National War Memorial, India Gate and the
Pradhanmantri Sangrahalaya on Monday.
https://www.republicworld.com/india-news/general-news/50-mission-amrit-sarovar-participants-invited-as-
special-guests-for-independence-day-event-articleshow.html
42. Which scheme is not among the various schemes that are refocused for the implementation of the Mission Amrit
Sarovar?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(b) XV Finance Commission Grants
(c) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
(d) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY)
43. Besides water conservation, how does the construction of Amrit Sarovar contribute to the rural economy?
(a) Promotes ecotourism (b) Enables cultural preservation
(c) Supports fish farming and agriculture (d) Facilitates industrial development
44. Which of the following is not a benefit of Mission Amrit Sarovar?

(a) Increasing agricultural productivity (b) Improving biodiversity and ecology
45.
(c) Reducing carbon emissions (d) Providing employment opportunities
Which of the following is not a component of Jal Jeevan Mission?
c o m
(a) Water source strengthening and augmentation
(b) Water supply infrastructure creation and retrofitting
(c) Water quality monitoring and surveillance
r s .
46.
(d) Water conservation and rainwater harvesting
k e
Which dam, part of the "Narmada Valley Project," is known for its controversial history regarding displacement
and environmental concerns?
(a) Hirakud Dam
(c) Bhakra Nangal Dam
a n
(b) Sardar Sarovar Dam
r
(d) Tehri Dam
o p
Passage (Q.47-Q.53): The Gujarat government sought compensation of Rs 700 crore from the Centre towards
the damage caused by cyclone Biparjoy in June but didn't receive any grants as of July 31, Chief Minister
T
Bhupendra Patel told the assembly on Wednesday. Cyclone Biparjoy made landfall on the Gujarat coast on June
16 accompanied by heavy rains. It ripped through Kutch and parts of the Saurashtra region, with wind speeds
going up to 140 kmph resulting in trees and electricity
Wednesday, Congress MLA from Vav in Banaskantha
poles 2R
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
getting
6L1P2Muprooted. During question hour on
tr-5U3R9L2R6L district, Geniben Thakor, asked if the state government
had sought any grant from the Centre in view of the damage caused by cyclone Biparjoy in June. In his written
response, the chief minister, who handles the Disaster Management portfolio, said the state government
submitted a memorandum to the Centre on June 18 seeking Rs 700.42 crore as compensation towards the damage
caused by the cyclone. Patel stated the state government has not received any grants from the Centre as of July
31. As a precautionary measure before the cyclone made landfall on June 16, the state government had shifted
nearly 1 lakh people to safer places. Because of heavy rains caused by the cyclone, seawater had entered villages
located in low-lying areas.
https://www.cnbctv18.com/environment/gujarat-cyclone-biparjoy-received-nothing-cm-bhupendra-patel-
saurashtra-kutch-17798971.htm
47. Which of the following statements is correct about the Coriolis effect and its role in cyclone formation?
(a) The Coriolis effect is the result of the earth’s rotation on its axis and it causes the winds to deflect to the right
in the northern hemisphere and to the left in the southern hemisphere.
(b) The Coriolis effect is the result of the earth’s rotation on its axis and it causes the winds to deflect to the left
in the northern hemisphere and to the right in the southern hemisphere.
(c) The Coriolis effect is the result of the earth’s revolution around the sun and it causes the winds to deflect to
the right in both 9J2C6G1K2A
hemispheres.
tr-5H3E
(d) The Coriolis effect is the result of the earth’s revolution around the sun and it causes the winds to deflect to
the left in both hemispheres.
48. What is the role of the World Meteorological Organization/United Nations Economic and Social Commission
for the Asia Pacific Panel on Tropical Cyclones (WMO/ESCAP PTC) in naming cyclones?
(a) They issue advisories to nations affected by cyclones.
(b) They suggest names for cyclonic storms.
(c) They finalize the list of names for cyclones in the region.
(d) They monitor the speed of cyclones to determine their classification.
49. How many nations initially collaborated to name cyclonic storms in the north Indian Ocean region?
(a) 6 nations (b) 8 nations (c) 13 nations (d) 18 nations
50. Cyclones are named to help people identify them easily as it would be difficult to remember ________ and
________.
(a) Colors, shapes (b) Numbers, technical terms
51.
(c) Geographical locations, wind speeds (d) Dates, times
Which of these weather events would most likely trigger a red color code warning from the IMD?
c o m
(a) Heavy rain
(c) Very severe cyclonic storm
(b) Strong wind
(d) Thunderstorm
r s .
52.
(a) Typhoon (b) Cyclone (c) Hurricane (d) Tornado
e
What is the term for a cyclone that forms over the Atlantic Ocean or the northeastern Pacific Ocean?
k
r a n
o p
T tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53 – Q.57): The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, the proposed replacement for
the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), contains a new provision on mercy petitions in death sentence cases, which
makes changes to the fundamental nature of the provision, including core aspects of its justiciability, the time-
limit within which such pleas must be decided, and the 14-day gap between the rejection of a mercy plea by the
President and its date of execution, as mandated by the Supreme Court in Shatrughan Chauhan vs. Union of
India (2014). Some of these changes to mercy petitions mark a shift from the guidelines laid down by the
Supreme Court in its previous rulings. Under Article 72 of the Constitution, “the President shall have the power
to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence
of any person convicted of any offence where the sentence is a sentence of death”. Similarly, Article 161 confers
m
pardoning powers on the governor, but these do not extend to death sentences. In its 1981 ruling in Maru Ram
o
vs. Union of India, the SC held that while deciding mercy petitions under Article 72, the President must act on
the advice of the council of ministers. Under the existing law, the President is bound by the Cabinet’s advice and
c
.
can only return the plea for reconsideration once under Article 74 (1). After this, if the Council of Ministers
s
decides against the changes suggested by the President, he has no option but to accept them. The provision in
r
the proposed BNSS, however, does not include any such requirement for the President to act in tandem with the
e
advice given by the council of ministers in death sentence cases. Section 473(1) of the BNSS allows a convict
“under the sentence of death” or his legal heir or any relative to file a mercy petition before the President of India
k
under Article 72 or before the Governor of the State under Article 161 of the Constitution within 30 days after
n
the date on which the Jail Superintendent (i) “informs him about the dismissal of the appeal or special leave to
a
appeal by the Supreme Court” or (ii) “informs him about the date of confirmation of the sentence of death by the
53.
p r
High Court and the time allowed to file an appeal or special leave in the Supreme Court has expired.”
How does the proposed Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 differ from the existing legal
ministers' advice?
T o
framework regarding mercy petitions in death sentence cases concerning the President's role and the council of
(a) The BNSS 2023 requires the President to act in accordance with the council of ministers' advice.
(b) The BNSS 2023 does not include any requirement for the President to follow the council of ministers' advice
in death sentence cases. tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
(c) The existing law allows the President to make changes to the mercy plea once under Article 74 (1).
(d) The existing law obligates the President to accept any changes suggested by the council of ministers.
54. In 2017, Z was charged with the murder of his state's Chief Minister. He was charged with the same offense. His
lawyer unsuccessfully pleaded for a reduced sentence. He eventually chose to ask the President for mercy under
Article 72. When he sought the counsel of the Council of Minister, they opposed any mitigation of his sentence.
He sent it back for reconsideration, but the ministers still voted against the President's decision. Determine the
ultimate conclusion using the mercy petition.
(a) The mercy petition will be denied since the cabinet ministers did not agree to it.
(b) Because the President has the final say, the mercy plea will not be denied.
(c) The mercy plea will not be denied since cabinet ministers are only authorized to advise and assist the
President.
(d) The mercy petition will be denied since a death sentence cannot be reduced when murder is charged.
55. F was charged with committing the crime of kidnapping. He kidnapped his employer's daughter. He was in
desperate need of money, so he worked additional hours to supplement his income. However, when it came time
to pay him, his employer did not give him the additional money. He grew enraged, and when he started pushing
his boss to pay tr-
the extra
5H3E 1K2A
compensation,
9J2C6G he was fired. He kidnapped his employer's daughter in order to seek
retribution. He was apprehended after three days, though, and sentenced to seven years in prison. He petitioned
the President for mercy. Examine the passage carefully and decide if the president will accept the plea.
(a) The president may accept the petition and make a decision with the assistance and advice of cabinet
members.
(b) If the president believes that the offense committed was not sufficiently grave, he may accept the petition.
(c) The president will not accept the mercy plea since he lacks the authority to make such decisions.
(d) Because F committed a heinous crime, the president will not accept his mercy appeal.
56. R was charged with committing the crime of rape. He was sentenced to death after being convicted of the same.
He attempted to persuade the court to decrease his sentence, but he was unsuccessful. He had no other choice
than to file a mercy plea with the Governor of his state. After considering all of the facts, the governor reduced
his sentence to life in prison rather than the death penalty. Check the legitimacy of the same under CrP(c)
(a) The commuting of the sentence is not valid since the governor lacks the power to issue such an order.
(b) The sentence commutation is not legal because R committed a severe rape offense.
(c) The sentence commutation is valid since the governor has the authority to give mercy under Article 161.
57.
c m
(d) The commutation of the sentence is valid since it is fully at the discretion of the governor.
o
H was accused of a horrific crime for which he was sentenced to death. He did, however, request that his sentence
.
be lowered to life in prison rather than execution. As a result, he petitioned the President of India for pardon.
s
After careful consideration, the President decided to reduce his death sentence to life imprisonment. The cabinet
r
ministers were not in agreement. The president sent it back for reconsideration, but the ministers still refused.
that has been passed to become a law.
k e
Nonetheless, President commuted his sentence. Comment on the legitimacy of the same in light of the new bill
(a) The decision is invalid since the President must act with the assistance and advice of cabinet members.
n
(b) The decision is invalid since the President did not consult with the Prime Minister.
a
(c) The decision will be upheld since the President is not required to follow the recommendations of the
ministers.
r
o p
(d) The passage does not provide enough information to assess the decision's legality.
Passage (Q.58 – Q.62): The Mediation Act, 2023 received the assent of the President of India and was notified
T
in the Gazette of India on September 15. The Mediation Bill was introduced on December 20, 2021 before being
referred to a Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice headed by
Sushil Kumar Modi. The committee submitted its report1Pto
passed by the Rajya Sabha and the Lok tr- Sabha
the Rajya
2R6L 2Mtr-5U
5U3R9Lon
Sabha
3R9L2R6L 1P2M chairperson on July 13, 2022. It was
August 1 and August 7 respectively. The Act requires
individuals to try and resolve civil or commercial disputes through mediation before resorting to any court or
tribunal. After two mediation sessions, a party will be allowed to withdraw from the process. The mediation
process itself should be completed within 180 days, with the possibility of extending it by another 180 days if
the parties agree. To oversee the mediation process, the Mediation Council of India will be established. Its
responsibilities include registering mediators and recognizing mediation service providers and mediation
institutes, which are involved in training and certifying mediators. Certain disputes are deemed inappropriate for
mediation such as those involving criminal prosecution or impacting the rights of third parties. The Central
government has the authority to amend this list if needed. In cases where the parties agree, they can appoint any
individual as a mediator. If an agreement cannot be reached on the mediator, they can seek the assistance of a
mediation service provider which will appoint a mediator from its panel of qualified mediators. The agreements
resulting from successful mediation will be legally binding and enforceable in the same manner as court
judgments. The Act has received criticism for making participation in pre-litigation mediation mandatory which
goes against the traditional voluntary nature of mediation. Another major concern is that the Mediation Council,
tasked with regulating mediators' profession, lacks adequate representation of experienced practitioners unlike
other professional regulators like the Bar Council of India (BCI). Moreover, the Act doesn't provide for
enforcement of settlement agreements from international mediations conducted outside India.
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
58. V and F got into a dispute about a piece of property. After relocating to a new city with his family, V rented out
his apartment to F. However, he was shocked to see that F had significantly renovated his home when he came
back after six years. The largest room was partitioned into two storage rooms by him. The house's entire
construction had been altered. This infuriated V, who made the decision to bring charges against him in court.
Check the validity of V's course of action and, if necessary, offer an alternative.
(a) V has taken appropriate legal action against F in light of the circumstances.
(b) In such an offense of civil nature, V must first seek mediation before proceeding to the court.
(c) Instead of going to court, V must first seek compensation from F, and if he refuses, he may sue him.
(d) V should not file a case against F in court, but should instead request that he leave the premises immediately.
59. G and H signed a contract wherein G agreed to provide specific sports apparel for the team that was trained by
H. Six months after the contract was signed, the tennis match was scheduled to take place. G and H were friends;
therefore H wasn't concerned about the delivery delay. H alleges that the lack of raw materials prevented the
m
sportswear from being manufactured five weeks prior to delivery. H managed to get another set of athletic gear
from a different manufacturer, but it cost him twice as much as the standard price. This completely enraged him,
so he made the decision to use mediation to find a common ground. Determine.
(a) Since there was no serious breach, mediation cannot be used to resolve disputes.
. c o
s
(b) Given that the conflict was between two friends, mediation cannot be used as a form of dispute resolution.
r
(c) H made the appropriate decision in using mediation as a method of dispute settlement because the
e
circumstances necessitate it.
(d) H made the appropriate decision to use mediation in order to further reduce the cost of legal fees.
60.
n k
There was a property dispute between X and Z. When their father passed away, he left the lower half of the
house to X and the upper half to Z. Z, however, planned to make some significant renovations of his own, which
a
could not be done without rearranging the lower area. X was against any kind of restructuring on his end. They
p r
turned to mediation to settle the conflict. However, despite four meetings and six months of mediation, no
agreement was reached. They did not want the procedure to drag on. Choose their next line of action.
o
(a) The brothers must continue with mediation because they have no other alternative to choose from.
(b) The brothers could choose different alternative conflict resolution methods since mediation did not work.
61. T
(c) The brothers can come to a definitive decision by seeking redress in court or tribunal.
(d) The passage omits any information on other means alternative dispute resolution.
V and W were advised to seek mediation totr-resolve 6L1P
5U3R9L2Rtheir
2Mtr-5U3R9L2R
6L1P2M
marital issues. V was not providing money to W, nor
was he providing his wife with basic requirements of life. This carried on for fifteen months before they decided
to settle the disagreement through mediation. V stated that he had a low-paying job and that he couldn't afford
his wife's extravagant expenses. After four months and three mediation sessions, the ultimate ruling was that V
would provide his wife at least 20% of his monthly salary for personal expenses. Determine the applicability of
such a decision.
(a) It is the final discretion of V and he may not provide W 20% of his monthly income every month.
(b) The decision is applicable and V is required to pay at least 20% of his monthly income to his wife.
(c) V will not give his wife more than the agreed-upon 20% of his monthly income.
(d) V and W may adjust the amount from time to time based on their requirements.
62. M and N choose mediation to resolve their contract breach dispute. They both had different people in mind.
None of them, however, agreed with the other party's reference. They have no recourse right now because they
couldn't go to court before going through mediation. Read the passage carefully and decide what they will do if
a decision on a mediator cannot be reached.
(a) They have no choice but to compromise and choose one of the two potential mediators.
(b) Instead of selecting a mediator on their own, they could ask the mediation service provider to recommend
one. 1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
(c) If a mediator is not chosen by mutual consent, M and N must pursue other forms of alternative dispute
resolution.
(d) There is no information in the passage on the appointment of mediators.
Passage (Q.63 – Q.67): The Supreme Court referred to a seven-judge bench the question of whether the legal
immunity of legislators under Articles 105(2) and 194(2) of the Constitution protects them from being prosecuted
in a criminal court for the offence of offering or accepting a bribe. Observing the need to examine the
“correctness” of its 1998 constitution bench ruling in PV Narasimha Rao vs. State, a five-judge Bench led by
Chief Justice of India DY Chandrachud referred the verdict to a larger bench for fresh consideration. In its 1998
ruling, the top court had held that legislators have immunity against criminal prosecution on bribery charges for
any speech or vote in Parliament. Broadly, Article 105(2) states, “No member of Parliament shall be liable to
any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee
thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect of the publication by or under the authority of either House
of Parliament of any report, paper, votes or proceedings.” In a nutshell, this provision exempts MPs from any
legal action for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties. For example, a defamation suit
cannot be filed for a statement made in the House. Additionally, this immunity extends to certain non-members,
like the Attorney General of India or a Minister who may not be a member but speaks in the House. In cases
m
where a member oversteps or exceeds the contours of admissible free speech, the Speaker of the House will deal
with it, as opposed to the court. Meanwhile, Article 194(2) extends this immunity to MLAs and states, “No
o
member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said
c
or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof, and no person shall be so liable in respect
.
of the publication by or under the authority of a House of such a Legislature of any report, paper, votes, or
s
proceedings.” However, the majority view was that while the court was “acutely conscious of the seriousness of
r
the offence”, the Bench’s “sense of indignation” should not lead to a narrow construction of the constitutional
e
provisions, as this may result in hampering the guarantee of “parliamentary participation and debate”.
63.
and 194(2) of the Constitution?
a n k
In light of the recent referral to a larger bench by the Supreme Court, what did its 1998 constitution bench ruling
in PV Narasimha Rao vs. State primarily establish regarding legislators' legal immunity under Articles 105(2)
offense.
p r
(a) The ruling affirmed that legislators have complete legal immunity and cannot be prosecuted for any criminal
(b) The ruling established that legislators are immune from prosecution for bribery charges related to their
o
actions in Parliament or legislative assemblies.
(c) The ruling determined that legislators are not protected from criminal prosecution for any speech or vote in
Parliament.
T
(d) The ruling clarified that legislators have immunity only for statements made in the House and not for any
other actions. 5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
tr-
2R6L1P2M
64. V was a member of the legislative assembly. When the Vidhaan Sabha was convening to debate agricultural
regulations and guidelines, V made a remark against the opposition party. He accused them of engaging in
corrupt acts and compromising the Legislative Assembly's integrity. The opposing party's leader took offense
and decided to file a case against V in court. Examine the passage carefully and decide whether the complaint,
if brought, is legitimate.
(a) V will face legal charges for making disparaging remarks about the opposition party.
(b) In the event that V can produce evidence of the opposition party's corruption, V will not be prosecuted in
court.
(c) For the offense of criminal defamation, V will be tried in a court of law.
(d) V shall receive immunity for the comments made by him during the session.
65. T was in the Lok Sabha, where MPs were debating the provisions that will be implemented in the banking sector.
While H was presenting his idea, T yelled at him, accusing him of being an illiterate with no knowledge of
banking rules or any laws in general. H was taken aback and felt offended. As a result, he made the decision to
file a complaint against T. Comment on the legitimacy of his complaint. Justify your response with proper
reasoning.
(a) T is immune from prosecution for any remarks he makes during a legislative session.
(b) T is grantedtr-immunity 1K2A prosecution under Article 194(2) for speaking on any subject and making any
5H3E9J2C6Gfrom
statement.
(c) Since T made disrespectful statements in a public forum, H's complaint will be upheld.
(d) H's complaint will be upheld because he has the same right to speak as T during the session.
66. X was a member of the Parliament. As a member of the Parliament, he was invited to write an article on the
same issue, comparing the level and quality of education offered by states across India, because he had extensive
understanding in the field of education regulations. He severely condemned two states and the level of education
they provided. When the piece was published in a national newspaper, the government of that specific state
became enraged and filed a complaint against X for publicly criticizing them. Do you believe the claims made
by the respective state governments will be upheld?
(a) The claims against X are not upheld because he made legitimate comments after reviewing the statistics.
(b) X will be found guilty of the charges since he had no right to publish such information in a national
newspaper.
(c) The allegations against X should not stand as he had the right to make assessments as the Member of
Parliament and so no legal action is applicable against him.
(d) In order to determine if the accusations made against X are true, the passage does not contain adequate
67.
information.
o m
G was an economics professor at Bangalore’s most prestigious university. He was called to speak on the recent
c
.
inflation at Gujarat's Legislative Assembly. He condemned and abused other members who were debating his
s
theory. When a complaint was brought against him, he applied Section 194(2). Examine the passage carefully to
r
see if such immunity can be provided to him. Justify your response with proper reasoning.
k e
(a) G cannot defend himself because he was only a professor who was invited to give a speech.
(b) G can use the defence since Article 194(2) affords immunity to any speaker of the parliamentary assembly.
(c) G cannot claim the defence because he has no right to abuse anyone and specially a minister.
r n
(d) G can use the defence since it implied that he can say whatever he wants while in the legislative premises.
a
Passage (Q.68 – Q.72): The Himachal Pradesh High Court held on June 12 that maternity leave is a fundamental
o p
human right and its denial is violative of Articles 21 and 39D of the Indian Constitution; the former is enforceable
in Court against State only (central and state governments and local bodies) and the latter, talking specifically
about maternity leave, being directive in nature with no enforceability [State of Himachal Pradesh v Sita Devi].
T
A bench of Justices Tarlok Singh Chauhan and Virender Singh observed that the object of maternity leave is to
protect the dignity of motherhood by providing full and healthy maintenance to the woman and her child.
"Maternity leave is intended to achieve the social justice
special attention," the Bench added. tr-5U3R9L2R6L
to women,
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6Lmotherhood
1P2M and childhood, both require
The State government had moved the High Court against an order of the Himachal Pradesh Administrative
Tribunal which granted the benefit of maternity leave to the respondent who was engaged on a daily wage basis.
In 1996, she was carrying a child and after availing three-month maternity leave, she assumed duties. However,
on account of her subsequent delivery, she was unable to meet the minimum yearly requirement of 240 days.
The tribunal held that her period of maternity leave would be deemed to be continuous service in view of the
provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act. The State opposed this order, arguing that there was no provision in the
department for granting maternity leave to the female daily wage workers in 1996. The High Court rejected this
argument. The Court took into account that India is a signatory to various international covenants and treaties
which lay down that human rights are supreme and ought to be preserved at all costs with minimal restrictions.
The Bench also noted that it was after years of deliberations at the national and international level that the right
of a woman employee for maternity leave was established as supreme by the enactment of the Maternity Benefit
Act for all workplaces across India having more than ten employees.
The Court added that the respondent was a daily wage woman employee at the time of advance pregnancy and
could not have been compelled to undertake hard labour as it would have been detrimental to her health and
9J2C6G1K 2A
safety as well astr-the child's
5H3E health, safety and growth.
"Maternity leave is a fundamental human right of the respondent, which could not have been denied. Therefore,
clearly the action of the petitioner is violative of Articles 21 and 39D of the Constitution of India," the Court
underscored. With this, the State's appeal was dismissed.
68. Geeta is a dedicated employee at a large multinational corporation called GlobalTech having three hundred
employees in Himachal. Geeta has been working at the company for several years and has been eagerly looking
forward to starting a family. After confirming her pregnancy, she informs her supervisor, Ms. Johnson, about
her intention to take maternity leave in accordance with the company's policy. However, to Geeta's shock and
disappointment, Ms. Johnson informs her that her request for maternity leave has been denied. She explains that
the company is currently facing a significant workload and cannot afford to have Geeta absent during this critical
period. Ms. Johnson advises Geeta to postpone her maternity leave until the workload reduces, stating that it is
in the best interest of the company. Despite Geeta's efforts to negotiate and find alternative solutions, Ms.
Johnson remains firm in her decision to deny the maternity leave request. Feeling helpless and unsure of her
options, Geeta decides to file a writ for violation of Article 21. Decide in light of the passage:
(a) She will succeed because her fundamental human right to maternity leave was violated.
(b) She will not succeed because international law regarding human rights is not applicable to India.
(c) She will succeed because Article 21 is enforceable in Court for availing her maternity leave.
69.
(d) She will not succeed because Article 21 is enforceable against state.
c o m
Meera is a dedicated and hardworking employee at a state government department of Education in Himachal.
.
Meera has been working here for several years and has always been valued for her contributions and commitment
s
to her work. Meera and her husband eagerly anticipate the arrival of their first child. As the due date approaches,
r
Meera approaches her supervisor, Mr.Sharma, to discuss her maternity leave plans and ensure a smooth transition
e
of her responsibilities during her absence. To her surprise, Mr. Sharma expresses concern over the impact her
leave might have on the department’s projects and suggests that she delay her leave or return to work sooner
k
than expected. Despite feeling taken aback, Meera calmly explains her rights to maternity leave, as mandated by
n
the department's human resources policies and applicable labor laws. She reminds Mr. Sharma that she has
a
diligently planned for her absence and has trained a colleague to handle her responsibilities during her maternity
r
leave. Her request is not honoured which prompts her to file a case under Article 39D for maternity leave in
o p
Court. Will she succeed in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because her fundamental human right to maternity leave is violated.
(b) No, because the workplace is not included in State.
70.
T
(c) Yes, because human right to maternity leave must be preserved at all costs.
(d) No, because there is no enforceability of the directive.
3R9L
tr-5Ucalled
Jennifer is a dedicated employee at a company
2R6L1P2Mtr-5U
3R9L2R6L1P2M
XYZ Corp having seventy employees in Goa. Jennifer has
been working diligently for several years and has built a strong reputation for her professionalism and
commitment to her job. She has recently discovered that she is pregnant and is excitedly looking forward to
starting a family. Jennifer follows the company's policy and notifies her immediate supervisor, Mr. Thompson,
about her pregnancy. However, instead of receiving the expected support and reassurance regarding her
maternity leave, Jennifer is shocked to hear Mr. Thompson's response. He informs her that the company cannot
grant her maternity leave because their policy does not provide for it. She files a case against them under the
Maternity Benefit Act. Decide in light of the passage:
(a) Her case will succeed because her fundamental human right to maternity leave was violated.
(b) Her case will not succeed because the judgment is applicable only to a particular area.
(c) Her case will succeed because her right as a woman employee was violated.
(d) Her case will not succeed because her workplace is not included in the Act.
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
71. Kiara is a dedicated employee working for a prestigious company called Stellar Solutions with eighty employees
in Rajasthan. Kiara has been with the company for several years and has always been highly regarded for her
hard work and commitment. She recently discovered that she was pregnant and eagerly informed her employer,
expecting their support during this important phase of her life. However, to her shock and disappointment, the
company's human resources department informed Kiara that her request for maternity leave had been denied.
They cited various reasons, including the company's current workload, staff shortages, and the importance of her
role in ongoing projects. Kiara was devastated by this unexpected denial, as she had assumed her employer
would value and respect her right to maternity leave. She files a case in the Court. Under which law (if at all)
her maternity leave will be granted by the Court?
(a) It will be granted under Article 21 since she has a fundamental human right to maternity leave.
(b) It will be granted under Article 39D because it specifically states about maternity leave.
(c) It will be granted under the Maternity Benefit Act because it is a workplace with more than ten employees.
maternity leave.
c o m
(d) It will be granted under Article 21 and Article 39D because their collective reading grants the right to
72.
r s .
Pooja is a dedicated employee working at a boutique firm having under ten employees named Heeka Enterprises
in Delhi. Pooja has been with the company for several years and has always been known for her hard work and
commitment. She recently discovered that she was expecting her first child and informed her supervisor, Ms.
k e
Harshita, about her pregnancy, expressing her intention to take maternity leave. However, to Pooja's surprise,
Ms. Harshita informs her that the company policy has changed, and maternity leave is no longer available to
employees. Pooja is shocked and disappointed by this sudden denial of her right to maternity leave, as she was
n
counting on this time to bond with her newborn and take care of her own health. Determined not to accept this
a
decision without a fight, Pooja decides to file a case against them under the Maternity Benefit Act. Will she
succeed in light of the passage?
r
o p
(a) No, she will not succeed because she is in a different area where judgment is not applicable.
(b) Yes, she will succeed because her fundamental human right to maternity leave was violated.
(c) No, she will not succeed because her workplace is not included in the Act.
T
(d) Yes, she will succeed because her right as a woman employee was violated.
Passage (Q.73 – Q.76): A quasi-contract is a type of1Pcontract

contract does, but it's not considered a contract 9L2R6L 2Mtr-
tr-5U3Rin
and
5U3R9L acts
2R6L 1P2Mto have the same results as a regular
the traditional sense. Instead, this is formed by the court so
unjust enrichment can be avoided. To establish a quasi-contract, the following elements must be present:
(i) The defendant must have been enriched;
(ii) The enrichment must have been at the plaintiff’s expense;
(iii) The enrichment must have been unjust;
(iv) There must be no other legal remedy available to the plaintiff; and
(v) The enrichment must not have been due to any fault of the plaintiff.
These are often used in situations where there's no implied or express contract that will cause an unjust result. It
is a form of equitable relief and lets the plaintiff recover the value that a defendant might not be obligated to pay
otherwise. This contract is formed by a court order instead of an agreement the parties make. The contract will
become a quasi-contract when there aren't any official agreements between the parties when it comes to payment
disputes over services or goods. The goal in creating these contracts is to prevent a party from benefiting from a
situation when they shouldn't. This type of contract can offer less recovery than a regular contract. This is due
to a traditional contract having their agreement terms laid out with both parties agreeing to them, even if it is just
a verbal agreement. In a quasi-contract, there will be just enough recovery to prevent a party from being unjustly
enriched. In a regular contract, a party can recover everything they're entitled to, in addition to labour costs or
even superfluous materials needed to complete the project that was originally agreed upon.
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
73. Messy is the owner of a small hardware store. One day, a customer named Jane comes into his store and
mistakenly believes that he sells lawn care equipment. She approaches him and asks to purchase a lawnmower,
but he explains that he does not carry those products. Jane is disappointed and tells him that she needs a
lawnmower for an upcoming landscaping job. Feeling bad for Jane, he offers to lend her his personal lawnmower
for the duration of her job. Jane gratefully accepts and takes the lawnmower with her. A few weeks later, Jane
returns the lawnmower to him, thanking him for his kindness. However, when he looks at the lawnmower, he
notices that it has been damaged and requires repairs. He approaches Jane about the damages and ask her to pay
for the repairs, but Jane refuses, stating that she never agreed to pay for any damages. Decide:
(a) Jane was unjustly enriched at Messy’s expense by the use of the lawnmower and therefore she will be liable.
(b) Jane had just taken the lawnmower as a gratuitous bailment and no claim for damages can be made out.
(c) Jane was given the lawnmower as a temporary gift and therefore no claim for damages is made out.
(d) Jane has been unjustly enriched at Messy’s expense by the lawnmower and there is no other remedy to Messy
74.
and therefore she will be liable.
c o m
There’s a small town named Greenfield that has a public library which is funded by the local government. One
.
day, a new librarian named Alice joins the library staff. Alice is very enthusiastic about her job and starts working
s
hard to make the library more organized and user-friendly. She even spends some of her own money to purchase
r
compulsory books and essential supplies for the library. She splurges to make a knowledge tree for ornamental
k e
purpose. However, after a few months, the local government announces that it is cutting the library's budget due
to a financial crisis. As a result, the library cannot afford to pay Alice for her efforts and expenses. Alice is
disappointed and feels that she has been unfairly treated. Does Alice has any remedy as per the passage and if
yes, to how much extent?
a n
(a) She can claim under quasi contract for necessary expenditure as the library was unjustly enriched on her
expense and she has no other remedy.
r
set of rules.
o p
(b) She cannot claim under quasi contract because it is a government library which is governed by a different
(c) She can claim under quasi contract for all expenditure because the library was unjustly enriched on her
75.
T
expense and she has no other remedy.
(d) She cannot claim under quasi contract because she is an employee of the library making it her duty to
maintain the library. 1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
tr-5U3R9L2R6L
John is a contractor who has been told by a property owner, Mary, to renovate her kitchen. They deferred the
price negotiation for the project and John started working on it. However, halfway through the project, Mary
suddenly cancels the agreement and tells John that she no longer needs the renovations. John has already spent
$5,000 on materials and labour for the project in addition to $500 for decoration and feels that he deserves to be
compensated for the work he has done so far. Mary refuses to pay him, stating that they didn't have a verbal or
written contract and that she never agreed to pay any specific amount for the work. Can she succeed?
(a) Yes, she can succeed because there was an absence of valid contract between them and it was John’s mistake
to begin work without a contract.
(b) No, she cannot succeed because she was unjustly enriched on John’s expense for $5500 and he is devoid of
any other remedy.
(c) Yes, she can succeed because she had not promised a consideration for the work leading to an invalid
contract.
(d) No, she cannot succeed because she was unjustly enriched on John’s expense for $5000 and he is devoid of
any remedy.
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
76. A wealthy business owner, Mr. Smith, was attending a charity auction event when he noticed a struggling artist
named Jane selling her paintings for a very low price. Impressed by her talent, Mr. Smith offered to buy one of
Jane's paintings for $50,000, which was well above the asking price. However, Jane was so nervous and
overwhelmed by Mr. Smith's offer that she mistakenly gave him the wrong painting. Unbeknownst to Mr. Smith,
the painting he received was actually worth $100,000 and was a prized possession of a famous collector gifted
to Jane. When Jane realized her mistake, she immediately contacted Mr. Smith and offered to exchange the
painting for the one he had intended to buy. However, Mr. Smith refused, insisting that he had already paid for
the painting and that it was his property. Jane then asked for the balance amount to be given but he refused. Is
Mr. Smith liable to pay Jane the balance amount?
(a) No, he is not liable to pay because the contract between Jane and him was for a separate painting leading the
contract invalid under mistake of fact.
(b) Yes, he is liable to pay because the contract is complete with the delivery of possession of the painting
m
regardless of the mistake.
(c) No, he is not liable to pay because it was Jane who mistakenly gave him the wrong painting.
have any other remedy.
.c o
(d) Yes, he is correct in his claim because he has not been unjustly enriched at Jane’s expense and she does not
s
Passage (Q.77 – Q.80): The Supreme Court on Friday wondered why the Tamil Nadu government had charged
r
a YouTuber, accused of spreading fake news about labourers from Bihar getting attacked in Tamil Nadu, under
e
the stringent National Security Act (NSA). Issuing notice on the plea by accused Manish Kashyap for clubbing
k
the FIRs against him in Bihar with those in Tamil Nadu, a bench of Chief Justice of India D Y Chandrachud and
P S Narasimha told senior advocate Kapil Sibal, who appeared for the state government, “We will club the FIRs,
n
but NSA?…. Why this vengeance against this man?” The bench allowed Kashyap to amend his plea to challenge
a
the imposition of NS(a) The court orally remarked that it would transfer the FIRs to Bihar, and fixed the hearing
r
for next week. Sibal opposed the FIRs being transferred to Bihar and said that they relate to separate incidents.
o p
He said Kashyap, who had 60 lakh followers, had gone to Tamil Nadu, interviewed people and made fake videos
alleging that migrant labourers from Bihar were being attacked. The National Security Act (NSA) allows the
central government or a state government to detain a person to prevent him from engaging in any kind of activity
T
that might jeopardise or threaten national security. The government may also detain the individual to prevent
him from disrupting public order. The period to be detained is twelve months. The extension will take place if
the government issues fresh evidence against the individual.
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
tr-5U3R9L2R6L
The counsel appearing for Bihar said Kashyap’s conduct is not only confined to the posting of videos but there
are eight criminal cases pending against him. The State called him a “habitual offender”. Habitual offenders are
explained as any person convicted of an offence whose previous conviction or convictions, taken in conjunction
with the facts of the present case, show that he is by habit a robber, housebreaker, dacoit, thief or receiver of
stolen property, or that he habitually commits extortion, cheating, counterfeiting coin, currency notes or stamps,
or forgery i.e. all or any of the crimes against property under IP(c) It will also include a person where against
him no previous conviction has been proved, but he is by habit a member of a gang of dacoits, or of thieves or a
dealer in slaves or in stolen property.
77. Choose a statement that aptly describes “habitual offenders” as explained in the context of the passage with focus
on the second paragraph:
(a) Habitual offenders are persons convicted of an offence whose previous conviction with the present one
shows them in habit of attempting crimes against property in IPC or as convicted member of certain groups.
(b) Habitual offenders are persons charged of an offence whose later convictions with the present one show
them in habit of abetting crimes against property in IPC or as un-convicted member of certain groups.
(c) Habitual offenders are persons convicted of an offence whose convictions with the present one show them
in habit of committing crimes against property in IPC or as convicted member of certain groups.
2C6G1K2A
tr-5H3E9Jare
(d) Habitual offenders persons convicted with an offence whose previous conviction along with the present
offence show them in habit of committing crimes against property in IPC or as un-convicted member of
certain groups.
78. Choose a statement that provides for a correct statement in light of the passage:
(a) Habitual offenders may be persons who are without previous conviction in offences against property at an
individual level without any membership.
(b) Bihar government cannot impose NSA on Kashyap because it is the prerogative of the Central government.
(c) If there is no fresh evidence against the individual detained under NSA, then he may not be further detained.
(d) Habitual offenders are persons against whom there are pending cases in Court of law under crimes of
property.
79. Pranesh Ramakrishna is a known journalist who writes articles criticizing the government. He is on a tour in
Bihar state and he is addressing seventy persons and being live telecasted on YouTube channel. He makes a
statement that south Indians are suffering in north India especially Bihar due to the policy of only-roti-at-
restaurants-and-kiraana. There is very less availability of rice in most north Indian states which make south
m
Indians suffer unnecessarily and thousands of them made an exodus to leave north India and go back to south
o
India. He says he has uploaded hundreds of such videos in his channel. South Indians hear his speech on YouTube
c
and hundreds of them come out and make plans to secede south India from north India “We will retain our right
.
to consume rice. The South will Rise and become Independent!” The central government slap NSA against
s
Pranesh and detain him for one year. There is an uprising in some people after his arrest but the protests fizzle
r
out after government action. Under abundant caution, the government authorizes his detention for three more
months. Is the detention valid?
k
(a) The detention is not valid because he has not threatened national security.
(b) The detention is valid because he has disrupted public order.
e
a n
(c) The detention is not valid because the requirements are not being met.
(d) The detention is valid because the requirements are being met.
r
80.
o p
A lone offender named Ethan Reynolds has been wreaking havoc with his consistent criminal activities.
Reynolds has a long history of getting charged with offenses, including theft, assault, and drug-related crimes
and distributing them among the poor. He is presently facing a case on robbery. His actions have instilled fear
T
and unease in the community, leading to a growing demand for decisive action. The local law enforcement
agencies and legal authorities devise a plan to curb his activities and ensure public safety. He is declared as a
habitual offender. Decide in light of the passage:
2R6L1P2Mtr-5U
tr-5U3R9Lcrimes
(a) It is valid because he is in habit of committing
3R9L2R6L1P2M
against property.
(b) It is not valid because some requirements of the offence are not being met.
(c) It is valid because all the requirements of the offence are being met.
(d) It is not valid because habitual offender needs to be intentionally in habit of offence.
Passage (Q.81 – Q.84): Section 230 of the Indian Contracts Act, 1872, says that an agent, a person who acts on
behalf of the principal, cannot personally enforce, nor be bound by, contracts on behalf of a principal.
Section 231 discusses the rights of parties to a contract made by an agent not disclosed. If an agent makes a
contract with a person who neither knows nor has reason to suspect, that he is an agent, his principal may require
the performance of the contract; but the other contracting party has, as against the principal, the same rights as
he would have had as against the agent if the agent had been principal.
Section 235 talks about the liability of a pretended agent. If his purported employer does not confirm his
activities, a person falsely portraying himself as an authorized agent of another and enticing a third party to deal
with him as such an agent is obliged to compensate the other for any loss or harm he has received as a result of
such dealing.
According to Section 238, when there is a fraud or misrepresentation by an agent while making an agreement
2A
on behalf of the tr-
principal, it1Knot
5H3E9J2C6G only affects the validity of the contract but also makes the principal liable, as if
that fraud or misrepresentation has been made by the principal. The liability of the principal is based on the rule
Qui facit per alium facit per se”, which means the act of the agent is the act of the principal. Hence, this principle
holds the principal and not the agent responsible for the acts of the agent authorised by the principal.
Section 188 of the Act mentions the extent of an agent’s authority. An agent having the authority to do an act
has the authority to do every lawful thing which is necessary in order to do such an act. Any authorised thing
necessary for the purpose of conducting such a business, or commonly done in the course of such a business, is
permissible for an agent with the power to carry on a business.
81. Sally and Frank met at an art show. Sally identified herself as an antique collector, and she also told Frank that
she owned many art galleries across the world and that she sold renowned artworks for fair market value. Frank
and Sally get into a contract for the delivery of artefacts from France to India. Frank believes Sally is operating
on her own behalf whereas, in fact, she is acting on Derek's clear orders as an agent. Who can Frank sue for
breach of contract if there is an issue with the contract??
(a) Frank can only sue Sally as section 231 confers the contracting party same right as he would have had as
against the agent if the agent had been principal.
o m
(b) Frank can sue Derek as the contracting party has, as against the principal, the same rights as he would have
had as against the agent if the agent had been principal.
c
agent if the agent had been principal.
r .
(c) Frank can sue Derek as Sally has against the principal, the same rights as he would have had as against the
s
(d) Frank cannot sue neither Derek nor Sally as the contract entered upon is illegal as it involves purchase of
82.
stolen art antiques.
k e
A is about to buy goods of C for P. He chooses however, to act in his own name and either to keep the fact
n
concealed that there is another person who is principal, or if he discloses the fact that there is a principal, then to
a
keep that principal’s identity concealed. He therefore makes a contract with C, whereby for certain goods which
r
C delivers him, he promises to pay C a certain amount of money. This is, say a written contract executed in A’s
o p
name as he were the real principal. Can C hold P on this contract in case of any breach?
(a) C can hold P only in case where he does not know that A is acting on behalf of P.
(b) C can hold P only in case where he does know that A is acting on behalf of P.
83.
T
(c) C can hold P in either of the two situations, whether he knows or not that A is acting as P's agent.
(d) Cannot be determined.
9L2R
tr-5U3Ran
The manager of a bank has the authority to keep
6L1P2Mtr-5U3R
9L2R6L1P2M
eye on the customers' lockers while acting as an agent on the
bank's instructions. The manager once unlocked a locker as authorised by the bank without the knowledge of P,
a customer, and took out some items that he suspected were stolen and turned them over to the police. The
customer files a theft report against the bank. Can the agent be held liable for his act here?
(a) Yes, because the manager was working on behalf of the principle i.e., the bank.
(b) No, because the bank had not authorised him to tamper with the clients' lockers.
(c) No, since an agent with the power to do an act has the authority to do every lawful thing required to execute
such an act.
(d) Yes, as the fraud done by the agent makes a principle liable on the principle that the act of the agent is the
act of the principal.
84. Continuing with the similar principal as stated above, who owns the liability if the manager worked under the
direction of the bank but retained the stolen things found from the locker for him and sold them? Decide.
(a) The manager will be held liable for fraud and the principal cannot be held liable in the present case.
(b) The manager will be held liable and not the principle as he acted independently and not as per the direction
of the principal.
(c) The bank will be held liable as the manager retained the stolen things found from the locker for him and sold
1K2A
them. tr-5H3E9J2C6G
(d) The bank will be held liable as the act of the agent is the act of the principal.
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Ever since Beijing Olympics medallist Vijender Singh won India’s first medal in boxing,
expectations are high every time an Indian boxer waltzes into the ring at any of the World Championships. The
bar has been raised, and India has consistently won medals in the prestigious event. Though the high of the
women—they finished with four gold at the women’s world Championships in New Delhi—could not be
matched, men, too, created history by winning three medals in a single edition of the marquee event for the first
time in Tashkent last week.
Though a final finish by any of the boxers—Mohammad Hussamuddin, Deepak Bhoria and Nishant Dev—would
have raised the bar much higher, three bronze medals can be considered credible, especially given the current
m
climes. In sports where India has medalled in the Olympics, the athletes have had a difficult run this year. P V
Sindhu and the other singles bunch continue to toil without success. Making an early exit from the ongoing
o
Sudirman Cup on Monday clearly shows their dwindling form. Even Olympic medallist weightlifter Mirabai
c
Chanu had a subdued show at the recently held Asian Championships in South Korea, where she finished sixth.
.
The wrestlers’ future remains uncertain, with the protest against the sidelined wrestling federation of India chief
r s
Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh still on. The Paris Olympics is just over a year away, and this definitely does not
augur well. Amid these testing times, Olympic champion Neeraj Chopra’s top finish at the season’s first
Diamond league was a welcome relief.
e
k
Coming back to boxing, this is a positive start to the season. But the boxers had their share of uncertainty early
n
on. They struggled to get a chief coach until CA Kuttappa was re-appointed. Boxing India took an eternity to
a
appoint Ireland’s Bernard Dunne as high-performance director after Santiago Nieva’s exit. There was furore
p r
over a selection policy that did not care much about performance in nationals but depended more on form—it
had to be withdrawn after the matter landed up in court. The Asian Games in September is set to be the Olympics’
qualifying event, and there is no time to waste. Boxing India must return to the drawing board and make plans
85.
T o
to ensure maximum qualification for the Paris Games.
Based on the passage, which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's arguments?
(a) The new high-performance director, Bernard Dunne, has a proven track record of fostering medal-winning
athletes in Ireland.
tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
(b) Effective preparation by atheletes for sports competitions can only be started after effective plans in place.
(c) Other Indian athletes are excelling in various sporting events globally, increasing India's overall sports
performance.
(d) The Boxing India federation has finalized a selection policy that gives equal importance to nationals and
current form.
86. If it were found that athletes from other countries also faced similar administrative challenges as Indian boxers,
how would this impact the author’s contention regarding Boxing India's need for urgent strategizing for the
upcoming Olympics’ qualifying event?
(a) It would validate Boxing India’s lax approach, as other countries face the same issues.
(b) It would underscore the universality of administrative challenges, but not absolve Boxing India's need for
planning.
(c) It would nullify the criticism directed at Boxing India as the situation is a global phenomenon.
(d) It would emphasize that Indian boxers have a competitive advantage over their global counterparts.
87. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
(a) The success of the Indian boxing team in Tashkent will guarantee their qualification for the Paris Olympics.
(b) The Indian athletes in other
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
1K2A sports have been facing challenges and struggling in their recent performances.
(c) The women's boxing team has historically outperformed the men's team in various international events.
(d) The appointment of Bernard Dunne as high performance director will significantly improve the performance
of the Indian boxing team.
88. The author draws a parallel between various sports disciplines in India. Which of the following conclusions can
be drawn about the overall sentiment conveyed about the readiness of Indian athletes for the upcoming
Olympics?
(a) Most Indian athletes show promising performance, signaling strong Olympic prospects.
(b) There's a prevailing sense of uncertainty surrounding Indian athletes' preparations.
(c) Indian athletes remain largely unaffected by administrative challenges in their sports.
(d) The upcoming Olympics will likely see a dominant performance by Indian weightlifters.
89. Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The Indian boxing team's recent success in Tashkent is a significant achievement for the country.
(b) The appointment of Bernard Dunne as high-performance director will positively impact the performance of
the boxing team.
(c) The struggles faced by Indian athletes in other sports indicate a decline in overall sporting performance.
90.
form.
c m
(d) The selection policy of Boxing India should prioritize performance in national tournaments over current
o
The author's argument suggests that the re-appointment of CA Kuttappa as chief coach would have which of the
following effects on the Indian boxing team's preparations?
(a) It would ensure an immediate surge in the team's performance metrics.
(b) It introduces a stabilizing element amidst the prevailing uncertainties.
r s .
(c) Kuttappa's re-appointment is solely for handling administrative hurdles.
k
(d) The team's past records would become the primary focus for future games.
e
n
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): When we talk about the ‘space race’ between the Cold War adversaries the U.S. and the
a
Soviet Union, we usually discuss the race to land the first human beings on the moon. Soon after this was
r
achieved, however, attention shifted to our neighbouring planet Mars. The first successful soft landing on Mars
o p
was achieved by the Soviet Union with their Mars 3 mission. At this initial period of planetary exploration, both
these space superpowers tended to launch pairs of spacecraft as a precautionary measure. The idea was to have
one as the backup of another, so that at least one of them succeeded in its efforts even if the other failed
T
completely in its objective.
It therefore comes as no surprise that the Mars 2 and Mars 3 missions
bus/orbiter module and an attached descent/lander
tr-5U3R9L2R
5U3R9L2R6L
6L1P2Mtr-the
module,
consisted of identical spacecraft. With a
1P2M
combined mass of the spacecraft, with fuel, was
approximately 4,650 kg. The Mars 3 spacecraft was 4.1 metres high, 5.9 metres across the two solar panel wings
and had a base diameter of 2 metres. The primary objective of the Mars 3 orbiter was to image the Martian
surface and clouds, determine the temperature on Mars, and measure properties of the Martian atmosphere,
among others. These were in addition to serving as a communications relay to send signals from the lander to
Earth.
Mars 3 was launched on May 28, 1971, just nine days after Mars 2 had been successfully launched. Ten days
later, on June 8, a mid-course correction was made after which Mars 3 was involved in a three-way race with
Mars 2 and U.S.’ Mariner 9 to become the first spacecraft to orbit Mars. Less than five hours before reaching
Mars, the descent module of Mars 3 had been released. Having entered the Martian atmosphere at roughly 5.7
km/s, a combination of aerodynamic braking, parachutes, and retro-rockets allowed the lander to achieve a soft
landing. With the Mars 2 lander having crashed, this made the Mars 3 mission the first ever to achieve a soft
landing on Mars.
91. Given that Mars 3 was the first successful soft landing on Mars, what does the passage imply about the
technological advancements of the Soviet Union in comparison to their Cold War adversary?
(a) The Soviet Union had surpassed the U.S. in terms of space exploration capabilities.
(b) Both nationstr-were 2C6G1K2A
5H3E9Jalmost on par, but the Soviet Union had a slight edge in landing technologies.
(c) The Soviet Union had more consistent success with their planetary missions.
(d) While both nations were competitive, Mars 3 showcased the Soviet Union's specific advancement in soft
landing technology.
92. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) Mars 3 was launched prior to Mars 2, contrary to the sequence stated in the passage.
(b) The Mars 3 orbiter primarily functioned as a communications relay and did not carry out any scientific
research.
(c) There was an unrecorded Soviet mission that successfully landed on Mars before Mars 3.
(d) Mars 2 was not intended to be a backup for Mars 3 but was a separate mission with distinct objectives.
93. The passage suggests that the primary objective of the Mars 3 orbiter was to image the Martian surface and
clouds, among other tasks. If it were discovered that Mars 3 orbiter was also equipped to study the geology of
the Martian soil, how would that information affect the overall understanding of the mission's objectives?
(a) The mission would be considered broader in scope than initially perceived.
(b) It would indicate that the mission prioritized soil analysis over atmospheric study.
(c) The mission's success would be evaluated based on the quality of soil data retrieved.
94.
(d) It would render the earlier objectives of imaging the Martian surface redundant.
c o m
Assuming the principles and techniques used in the Mars 3 mission were to be employed in a hypothetical future
the Mars 3 mission?
r .
mission, "Mars Prime", which of the following scenarios would be most consistent with the approach taken by
s
(a) Mars Prime is launched as a single spacecraft with no backup, aiming to land humans on Mars.
Mars.
k e
(b) Mars Prime is launched in tandem with a backup, "Mars Prime 2", both aiming to place a robotic rover on
(c) Mars Prime is launched as a lone mission, aiming to capture images of the Martian surface, determine Mars'
temperature, and measure atmospheric properties.
a n
(d) Mars Prime is launched in conjunction with "Mars Prime 2", with one aiming to land humans on Mars and
the other aiming to study Jupiter.
r
95.
o p
If Mars 3 had not achieved a soft landing on Mars, which of the following would have most likely been true
based on the information in the passage?
96.
T
(a) Mars 3 would have shared the same fate as Mars 2.
(b) Mars 3's orbiter would have failed in its primary objectives.
(c) U.S.'s Mariner 9 would have become the only contender
(d) Mars 3's mission would have been deemed a 9L
tr-5U3R
in3Rthe
2R6L1P2Mtr-5U
three-way
9L2R 6L1P2M race.
total failure irrespective of the orbiter's success.
Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with based on the information provided in the
passage?
(a) Mars 3 achieved the first successful soft landing on Mars.
(b) Mars 2 and Mars 3 missions were launched as a precautionary measure, functioning as backups for each
other.
(c) Mariner 9, the U.S. mission, was meant to soft-land on the surface of Mars.
(d) The primary objective of the Mars 3 mission was to establish a permanent human colony on Mars.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): All is well that ends well. This is how one can sum up the political drama staged in the
national capital during the last three days as part of the selection of the chief minister of Karnataka where the
Congress staged a spectacular victory by bagging 135 seats. The race for the chief minister’s post was nothing
new or unexpected. But the High Command of the party managed to resolve the issue without much heart-
burning among the contestants. On Saturday, Siddaramaiah would be sworn in as the chief minister and the
process of government formation is likely to commence without delay. The immediate task awaiting the chief
minister and his deputy D K Shivakumar is to regain the trust and confidence of the people in the State who were
2A
antagonized andtr-tortured by1Kcorruption
5H3E9J2C6G in big places during the last four years of BJP rule. And the voters are
waiting with bated breath and anticipation for the fulfilment of the promises made by the Congress leadership in
the run-up to the election. Both Siddaramaiah and Shivakumar are left with no break from the hectic
electioneering as they have to get the State ready for the 2024 Lok Sabha election. The victory of the Congress
in the Karnataka polls has no doubt, rejuvenated the Grand Old Party across the nation. A sense of indecisiveness
and uncertainty are discernible in the BJP camp as the leadership is groping in the dark to understand what went
against them. Though some political pundits attribute the Congress win to communalism, they are silent about
the asinine communalism which was the platform on which the top leadership of the Hindutwa party solicited a
mandate for the second term. There is a sense of relief among the Opposition camp as the Congress won hearts
and influenced the voters. If the Congress leadership, especially Sonia Gandhi, could take the regional satraps
into confidence, there is no reason to doubt about a 2004 model of unity and a UPA victory. It is not the Nobel
Prize for Peace or a chair in the security council of the United Nations that the man in the street need. To
understand the unhappiness and discontentment among the people, all one has to do is compare the prices of
petrol, diesel, cooking gas, rice and wheat that prevailed before 2014 and post-2014.
Ten years is a long time in politics and rhetoric has no place. One cannot keep on blaming Jawaharlal Nehru and
m
Indira Gandhi for what Ambani and Adani are doing now. It is good that the nation is getting a new parliament
o
building in the coming months. A person, no less than the spouse of the finance minister of the country, has said
c
that the nation’s economy is in ruins. The question is are we to continue clapping to the statistics of no value
.
read out from teleprompters? The sudden transfer of Kiran Rijiju from the ministry of law to the department of
s
earth sciences is laughable. Having served the Government with sincerity and dedication, Rijiju deserved a
r
reasonably good farewell. But that has been the modus operandi of Veeru and Dheeru during the last decade.
e
With India as the current chair of the G20 countries, Prime Minister Kishida and Prime Minister Narendra Modi
will have an exceptional opportunity to discuss the issues faced by the ‘Global South’ including global health
k
and digitalisation. There is an acute economic disparity between the two worlds— 'Global North’ and ‘Global
a n
South’ which has clearly been visible during Covid-19. Also, while the Western world managed to survive the
food crisis amidst the war in Ukraine, countries in the ‘Global South’ faced a shortage of food and fuel.
r
97.
o p
Which of the following can be concluded from the information present in the passage?
(a) The BJP's defeat in the Karnataka election was mainly due to the influence of Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira
Gandhi's policies.
T
(b) The economic disparity between the 'Global North' and 'Global South' has been accentuated by the Covid-
19 crisis and the war in Ukraine.
(c) The people of Karnataka express unanimous satisfaction
performance in his previous role.

tr-5U
(d) Kiran Rijiju's transfer from the ministry 9L2R6L1P2Mtr-
of3Rlaw
towards
5U the
3R9L2R6L BJP's rule over the last four years.
1P2M
to the department of earth sciences signifies his excellent
98. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
(a) The economic condition of the 'Global South' has significantly improved in the wake of the Covid-19
pandemic.
(b) The people of Karnataka have expressed satisfaction with Siddaramaiah's previous term as Chief Minister.
(c) Data reveals that the cost of petrol, diesel, cooking gas, rice, and wheat has increased substantially post-
2014.
(d) Kiran Rijiju's transfer to the Department of Earth Sciences has resulted in significant improvements in the
department's functioning.
99. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) Some 'Global South' nations have shown significant economic growth amidst the Covid-19 pandemic and
the war in Ukraine.
(b) Recent statistics indicate improvement in the general situation of people in the country despite rise in prices
of petrol, diesel, and cooking gas.
2A
3E9J2C6G1Khas
(c) The Congress leadership
tr-5H refused to engage with regional satraps, leading to party fragmentation.
(d) Kiran Rijiju's transfer to the Department of Earth Sciences was due to his outstanding performance in his
previous role.
100. If you were a policy advisor to the newly elected government in Karnataka, considering the contents of the
passage, which of the following steps would be most effective in gaining public trust?
(a) Focus on resolving the economic disparity between the 'Global North' and 'Global South.'
(b) Initiate an investigation into the role of Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi in current economic issues.
(c) Emphasize Kiran Rijiju's achievements during his tenure in the Ministry of Law.
(d) Immediately address the issues of corruption, implement promises made during the election, and work
towards controlling the prices of essential commodities.
101. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's perspective?
(a) The author believes that Siddaramaiah and Shivakumar are unsuitable for the leadership roles they have been
given.
(b) The author is skeptical about the potential of the new Congress government in Karnataka to fulfill its
promises.
in Karnataka.
c m
(c) The author believes that the BJP's handling of economic matters and corruption contributed to their defeat
o
(d) The author believes that the transfer of Kiran Rijiju is a significant factor contributing to the BJP's downfall.
s .
102. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
r
(a) Siddaramaiah and Shivakumar face a significant task in restoring the public's trust in Karnataka's
government.
k e
(b) The BJP's handling of economic issues and allegations of corruption contributed to their defeat in the
Karnataka election.
move that strengthens the BJP.
r n
(c) The transfer of Kiran Rijiju from the Ministry of Law to the Department of Earth Sciences was a strategic
a
(d) The victory of the Congress in Karnataka's election has had a rejuvenating effect on the party across the
nation.
o p
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): Going by the forecast on climate change made by the World Meteorological
T
Organisation (WMO), the world needs to brace itself for the hottest-ever five years. It has to gear up to tackle
the consequences of the resultant weather events such as severe heatwaves, flooding and droughts. The prediction
of an alarming rise of 1.5°C over the pre-industrial era
tr-5U3R9L2R6L
catastrophic twin effect of the naturally occurring
levels for2Rsome
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
6L1P2Mtime during 2023-27 is based on the
El Nino and the trapping of heat emitted by man-made
greenhouse gases that play havoc with the weather, leading to widespread destruction.
The saving grace is that this global temperature surge, as per the WMO, is temporary. But it is another dire
warning that global warming is real. And that unless sincere efforts are made to honour the pledges made at the
Conferences of the Parties held by the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change over the
decades to control the temperature trajectory, the world is headed for a calamity.
Crucial to setting the order right — be it the shift to green energy or preparation to protect and rehabilitate people
living in vulnerable areas — is funds. The rich nations owe the promised ‘climate finance’ of billions of dollars
to the developing countries as compensation for the losses that they have caused through carbon emissions during
their industrialisation processes over the past century. It is payback time for bringing the planet to this precarious
position. It’s the turn of the developing world to claim its right to secure its people — to whom extreme weather
can deal a devastating blow — and ecology and come on a par with the rich nations. It’s time to wrest climate
justice from the wealthy West.
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
103. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the assertion that the developed nations should provide
'climate finance' to developing countries as compensation for the losses caused by their carbon emissions during
industrialization?
(a) Historical data shows that the majority of the world's cumulative carbon emissions stem from industrialized
or developed nations.
(b) Developed nations have achieved rapid economic growth in the past.
(c) Developing nations, on average, have much lower per capita carbon emissions compared to developed
nations.
(d) Developed nations have more advanced technology to combat the effects of climate change than developing
nations.
104. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following can be most accurately inferred
regarding the global community's approach towards the imminent threat of global warming?
(b) Every nation adheres strictly to the agreements made at the Conferences of the Parties.
c m
(a) The global community unanimously recognizes and addresses the catastrophic impacts of El Nino.
o
(c) There's an acknowledged necessity for wealthy nations to financially assist developing countries.
r s .
(d) The global community believes the effects of global warming can be reversed within a decade.
105. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument that the rich nations owe 'climate finance' as
industrialization?
k e
compensation to the developing countries for the losses caused by their carbon emissions during
(a) Rich nations had developed breakthrough technologies to counteract emissions early on.
n
(b) Developing nations benefitted economically from the industrial advances of the rich nations.
a
(c) Most of the carbon emissions affecting today's climate originated from natural phenomena.
r
(d) Rich nations have consistently shared technological advances to reduce global carbon emissions.
o p
106. If you were an advisor to a developing country's government after reading this passage, which of the following
strategies would align best with the author's suggestions?
T
(a) Invest heavily in the development and usage of nuclear energy as a means to avoid greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) Prioritize negotiations at the upcoming United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change to secure
more climate finance from developed countries. 1P2Mtr-5U3R9L2R6L1P2M
(c) Focus on developing new technologies tr- 3R9L2R6L
to5Upredict and prepare for El Nino events.
(d) Initiate a massive afforestation campaign to offset the country's own carbon emissions.
107. Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the author's stance on climate change?
(a) The author believes that the focus should be on individual actions to combat climate change.
(b) The author views the efforts made at the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change as
unsuccessful.
(c) The author emphasizes the role of developed countries in contributing to global warming and their
responsibility towards the developing world.
(d) The author believes that natural phenomena such as El Nino are more impactful on global warming than
human actions.
108. Just as the catastrophic twin effect of the El Nino and man-made greenhouse gases lead to widespread destruction
through altering weather patterns, which of the following analogies accurately represents a similar dual-cause
relationship?
(a) As an exquisite painting is to an acclaimed artist, so is the ozone layer to global warming.
(b) Just as reading and comprehension skills contribute to academic success, so do diet and exercise to physical
well-being. tr-5H3E9J2C6G1K2A
(c) As a desert is to scarce rainfall, so is global warming to reduced carbon emissions.
(d) Like the relationship between a gardener and a well-maintained garden, so is the relationship between a
nation's economic growth and its low carbon emissions.
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Three companies, Samsung, Apple, and Google, sold smartphones in three different months: June, July, and
August. In June, Samsung sold 15% more smartphones than in July. The ratio of smartphones sold by Apple in
July to Google in August was 7:4. The total number of smartphones sold by Samsung in the three months together
was 2,520. Apple sold 280 more smartphones than Google in July. In July, Samsung sold 80% of the smartphones
sold by Apple in the same month. There was a decrease of 25% in the number of smartphones sold from July to
August by Apple. The total number of smartphones sold in August by the three companies together was 2,241.
The total number of smartphones sold by Google in three months together was 1,150, and Apple sold 420
smartphones in June.
m
109. What is the difference between total number of Smart phones sold by Samsung and Apple in three months
o
together?
(a) 875 (b) 925 (c) 825 (d) 855
s .c
110. Find the ratio of Smart phones sold by Samsung in July and August together to Smart phones sold by Goggle in
June and July together.
r
e
(a) 602 : 375 (b) 187 : 150 (c) 938 : 375 (d) 469 : 375
by all three in June?

(a) 84 (b) 90 (c) 86
a n k
111. Smart phones sold by Samsung and Apple in July together are what percentage (approx) of Smart phones sold
(d) 93
p r
112. Average rate per Smart phones sold by Samsung in June was Rs. 12000 and same for Google in August was Rs.
13200. What was the difference of revenue earned by Samsung in June and Google in August?
(a) Rs. 24,00,000
T o
(b) Rs. 24,78,000 (c) Rs. 21,84,000
5U 3R
(d) Rs. 24,48,000
The following information pertains to the investments of three
9L2R6L1P2Mtr-
Venture
5U3R9L2R6L
capitalists in a partnership during the
1P2M
period of 2016 to 2020. Each individual's investments are for the same time frame. In 2016, the investment made
tr-
by Raj is Rs. 60,000, which is equal to the investment made by Deepak in 2018. The total investment in 2019
amounts to Rs. 36,000, and the ratio of investments for Arvind, Raj, and Deepak is 6:7:5, respectively. Arvind's
investments in 2016, 2017, and 2018 are Rs. 50,000, Rs. 75,000, and Rs. 70,000, respectively. Deepak's
investments in 2016 and 2017 are the same i.e. Rs. 45,000. Finally, the investment made by Raj in 2018 is Rs.
6,000 more than his investment in 2017, which is Rs. 30,000.
113. Find the share of profit earned by Raj in the year 2018, if the total profit in 2018 is Rs. 21995?
(a) Rs.3975 (b) Rs.4720 (c) Rs.4580 (d) Rs.4770
114. If the share of profit of Deepak in 2016 and 2017 is Rs. 8100 and Rs. 9000 respectively, find the ratio of profit
of Arvind in 2016 to that in 2017?
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 9 : 10 (d) 7 : 9
115. If the amount of profit shared by Arvind and Raj in 2019 is Rs. 3000 and Rs. 3500 respectively and Deepak
4
makes 5th of the profit in 2020 as compared to his profit in 2019. Find the amount of Profit shared by Deepak in
1K2A
2020? tr-5H3E9J2C6G
(a) Rs. 2000 (b) Rs. 2500 (c) Rs. 3000 (d) Rs. 2400
116. The profit earned by Raj in 2016 is 12% of the investment made by Raj in 2017 and the profit of Deepak in 2016
is 10% of the investment made by Deepak in 2017. Find the total sum of profit of Deepak in 2016 and Raj in
2016.
(a) Rs. 7200 (b) Rs. 8100 (c) Rs. 6600 (d) Rs. 8400
The information regarding the number of patients who tested positive for a medical condition in five different
cities of a state in India is as follows:
City X has 50% less patients than City Y, which has 300 more patients than City Z. The number of patients in
City W is three times the number of patients in City Z. City V has 200 fewer patients than City Z. The total
number of patients in all five cities combined was 8050 as of March 30, 2022. It was found that out of every 180
patients, 160 recovered within 14 days, 11 took 30 days to recover, and 9 did not survive.
117. Find average number of patients in City Y, City Z and City W.

(a) 2100 (b) 1500 (c) 1700 (d) 1800
c o m
s .
118. For each 1200 tests the numbers of people who were found positive were 156. Find out how many tests were
conducted that produced 10140 total positive cases?
r
(a) 78000 (b) 80000 (c) 84500 (d) 81000
k e
n
119. How many patients recovered (approximate) till 30 April 2022, if all the patients in City X, City Y and City W
a
are considered?
(a) 5321 (b) 5540
r
(c) 5557
p
(d) 5496
120. How many people died (approximate) in City X, City Y and City W together?
(a) 296 (b) 292
T o (c) 282 (d) 286
tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
o p
T tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
o p
T tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G
Notes:-
c o m
r s .
k e
r a n
o p
T tr-5U3R9L2R6L
1P2Mtr-5U3R9L
2R6L1P2M
1K2A
tr-5H3E9J2C6G

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?

2. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

3. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?

7. Which of the following is not supported by the passage?

8. What is the passage about?

11. The main idea of the passage is that

12. The tone of the bold text in the passage is

(a) Impede, hiring the HR persons.

Passage (Q.16-Q.20): A dark horse concept

22. The overall tone of the passage is

24. The best description of the author's profession is

(c) Health and Survival

30. Which edition was released in 2023 of Gender Gap Report?

(a) Amnesty International

Which of the following is the name of the human rights

(c) Center for Civil Liberties

(b) Human Rights Watch

(b) Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative

(c) Outreach Program for Humanitarian Initiatives

44. Which of the following is not a benefit of Mission Amrit Sarovar?

Which of the following is not a component of Jal Jeevan Mission?

that has been passed to become a law.

and 194(2) of the Constitution?

Passage (Q.73 – Q.76): A quasi-contract is a type of1Pcontract

have any other remedy.

SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

the Mars 3 mission?

performance in his previous role.

move that strengthens the BJP.

by all three in June?

117. Find average number of patients in City Y, City Z and City W.

T o (c) 282 (d) 286

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