Mock CLAT 36 Question Paper5753815

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 36
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120

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response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-51 10
Legal Reasoning 52-83 16
Logical Reasoning 84-108 28
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 36
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Doctors have appeared in fiction throughout history. From Dr Faustus, written in the
sixteenth century, to more recent film adaptations in the twentieth and twenty-first centuries, the familiarity of
these characters will be profitably read and watched by both experienced and future doctors who want to reflect
on the human condition often so ably described by the established men and women of letters.
The famous Dr. Faustus by Christopher Marlowe was written at the end of the sixteenth century. Dr. Faustus
was a dramatization of the Faust legend about a man with prodigious learning in all spheres of knowledge
(including medicine and a belief in immortality) who, due to his hubris and pact with the devil Mephistopheles,
undergoes his own tragic demise and achieves little of what he set out to do. The themes of sin, redemption, and
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superstition have been the subject of much debate in the subsequent centuries and is perhaps a reminder to us all
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that we are not omnipotent. This was a time when superstition and religious beliefs played a large part in the
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healing process with medicine in a primitive state of development compared to today with little scientific
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credentials. Spiritual healers were the norm. Bloodletting was a common treatment for many ailments and
physicians had few effective medicines at their disposal, often using potions with lead or mercury which today
we know are harmful. Surgery was primitive with no anaesthesia or antisepsis measures and primarily confined
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to amputations. In Middlemarch, published in the UK in 1871 and set in the Midlands, George Elliott introduces
us to Dr. Tertius Lydgate, the new doctor in town with new ideas about medical health. Dr. Lydgate promoted
prescribing based on scientific evidence at a time when doctors were still poorly regulated and probably did
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more harm than good with their treatments. Finally, the famous work by French writer Albert Camus “The
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Plague”. The character Dr. Bernard Rieux treats the first plague victim in town and warns the leaders to take
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action to prevent spread of the disease. The progress of the plague hitting the town is described and it is not
Pandemic.
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surprising that the novel has proven of great interest to all of us today in current times of having witnessed a
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medicine.
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Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The doctors in the western literary world have been depicted to be incarnations of the Almighty themselves
with divine healing powers.
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(b) The doctors in the literary hemisphere have depicted with an increasing understanding of science and
(c) The doctors in the literary domain have been presented as devious irrational persons who cause more harm
than virtue.
(d) The doctors in literary creations have been depicted as flawed characters with their own issues to face.
2. What does the word “bloodletting” as used in the passage mean?

(a) Violent killing and wounding of persons in conflict.
(b) Removal of blood corpuscles using an advanced technique which separates plasma.
(c) Using primitive surgical methods to remove infected blood of a patient.
(d) Transfusion of blood in the patient for cure.
3. Why does the author suggest that the novel by the French writer is of much importance in contemporary times?
(a) Because in the novel, the doctor treats a disease which was quite unknown and gave new understanding
about its treatment.
(b) Because the disease of plague is uncannily similar to the current disease which had caused the Pandemic.
(c) Because the doctor predicts about the potential extent of the disease which is similar to the one in current
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(d) Because the doctor is in contact with leaders which resembles current times wherein the leaders appreciated
doctors in the Pandemic.
4. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
(a) People had more belief in science than superstition in the sixteenth century when Dr Faustus was written.
(b) Doctors in 1800s were known to be much beneficial for the general public leading to their popularity and
much appreciation in the novels of writers.
(c) There was basic scientific awareness about communicable diseases during the time of the French writer
which made him talk about their potential spread.
(d) There was advancement in surgery with painless methods being developed in science.
5. From the first paragraph of the passage, one can conclude that
(a) The doctors in fiction have been realistically depicted by the authors who have been doctors themselves.
(b) Fiction is much capable of profitably depicting doctors and presenting them as examples of superheroes.
(c) Historical depiction of doctors in literary fiction work has been quite capably performed by authors.
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(d) Fiction is not a mirror of real world situations and therefore readers need to be wary of such works.
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): The idea that the state should be neutral to moral concerns about institutions like marriage
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is what Sandel calls “bracketing” of moral issues. It assumes human ability to detach oneself from his/ her
“stories” or “social and historical roles and statuses.” In the context of same-sex marriages, the Court will be
following this approach if it were to decide in favour of the petitioners only on the basis of equality or privacy.
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Sandel says “if…social and economic rights are required as a matter of equal respect for persons (only), the
question remains why these persons…have a claim on my concern that others do not.” In other words, citizens
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who see and value marriage as a heterosexual institution would be asked to recognise same-sex marriages,
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through their state of course, not as a matter of shared understanding but as “a duty we owe to strangers.”
On the other hand if the matter were to be decided on the basis of “intrinsic value or social importance of the
important
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practice”, one avoids the alienation that gives rise to fundamentalist tendencies. This now takes us to the more
question as to whether the Court, or for that matter even a centralised State, is capable of deciding on
resolving moral issues in society. Sandel cites the example of Massachusetts Supreme Judicial Court’s
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decision in Goodridge v. Dept. of Public Health (2003) which legalised same-sex marriage not just on grounds
of equality and freedom of choice but by pronouncing on the virtues of marriage. In the American context, the
Court only had to choose between whether marriage is about
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“procreation” or “loving relationships”.
look at it in traditional terms is much more than both. The
significance was captured by the Calcutta High Court in 1901 as follows- “it is a ‘union of flesh with flesh, bone
with bone’… the union is a sacred tie and subsists even after the death…” Yale Professor Helen Landemore says
“compared to liberal court decisions imposed on a reluctant public, with the potential for backfiring… the most
radical and ultimately sustainable changes to have for gay rights… were forced on parties and electoral
assemblies by ad hoc citizens’ assemblies (Ireland) and the pressure of citizens’ initiatives (Finland)” [emphasis
added]. It has been noted by scholars that historically Indian society has not shared the same sense of disgust
or hatred with which homosexuals were treated in other parts of the world.
Understandably, there were no social rumblings when homosexuality was decriminalised. It reflected the
society’s shared values. Can the same be said about homosexual marriage? Have we, like some western societies,
accepted “romantic-love” or companionship and nothing else to be the basis of marriage? Can the honorific
value of marriage be sustained without a heterosexual couple? Ideally these questions should be left for citizens’
assemblies or citizens’ initiatives like in Ireland or Finland. In India too one could look for equivalents. Reviving
Gandhi’s “little republics” could be a good starting point.
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6. Which of the following is not a correct inference from the above passage?
(a) There were no social reverberations in India after the decriminalization of homosexuality because of shared
values of society.
(b) There is an example of an American Court which pronounced a positive verdict on same-sex marriage citing
the virtues of marriage.
(c) The Calcutta High Court had stated that marriage is a contractual union which can be cast away for liberation.
(d) The questions of virtues of same-sex or heterosexual marriage are best left to the discussion by citizens’
assemblies.
7. Which of the following is the most similar to the problem or question the author discusses in the passage above?
(a) There has to be recognition given to child marriages because it is generally considered moral in Indian society
but illegal by Courts.
as legal by Courts.
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(b) Adultery is an unpalatable reality in most societies with matrimonial relationships and must be recognized
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(c) There has to be recognition given to transgender persons on the basis of equality by the Courts and also
discussion on their intrinsic human value by citizens.
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(d) There must be recognition given to disabled persons to become eligible for opportunities in jobs requiring
specialized able-bodied skills.
8. What can be appropriately inferred from the bold text in the passage?
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(a) Indian Courts have given recognition to homosexuality and has made the acceptance in society much better.
to places around the world.
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(b) Indian society’s historical background did not support strong hatred as treatment for homosexuals in contrast
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(c) Indian society had hatred for homosexuals but it was not showcased in regions around the world.
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in persons around the world.
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(d) Indian society’s history provided specific examples of homosexuals with demonstrable skills which were not
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From the first paragraph of the passage, one can conclude that
(a) The moral issues must be bracketed by Courts while recognizing homosexual marriages on basis of equality
or privacy since it must be neutral.
excessive bias in citizens.

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sex marriages on the basis of morality because it would lead to
(c) Morality is not a ground on which there can be recognition of homosexual marriages because it is quite
subjective.
(d) There has to be non-neutrality by Courts in recognizing homosexual marriages because it is important for
the subjectivity of the judgments.
10. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

(a) Homosexual marriages and their recognition on the basis of equality, privacy and intrinsic worth along with
moral sense in society.
(b) Same-sex relationships and their acceptance in society in India and around the world.
(c) Homosexual marriages and their recognition by the Indian society based on its historical context in contrast
to other countries around the world.
(d) The recognition of same-sex marriages in India and around the world due to societal and historical reasons.
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Passage (Q.11-Q.15): We were fifteen by then, already into our last year at Hailsham. We’d been in the pavilion
getting ready for a game of rounders. The boys were going through a phase of “enjoying” rounders in order to
flirt with us, so there were over thirty of us that afternoon. The downpour had started while we were changing,
and we found ourselves gathering on the veranda – which was sheltered by the pavilion roof – while we waited
for it to stop. But the rain kept going, and when the last of us had emerged, the veranda was pretty crowded, with
everyone milling around restlessly. I remember Laura was demonstrating to mean especially disgusting way of
blowing your nose for when you really wanted to put off a boy. Miss Lucy was the only guardian present. She
was leaning over the rail at the front, peering into the rain like she was trying to see right across the playing field.
I was watching her as carefully as ever in those days, and even as I was laughing at Laura, I was stealing glances
at Miss Lucy’s back. I remember wondering if there wasn’t something a bit odd about her posture, the way her
head was bent down just a little too far so she looked like a crouching animal waiting to pounce. And the way
she was leaning forward over the rail meant drops from the overhanging gutter were only just missing her – but
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she seemed to show no sign of caring. I remember actually convincing myself there was nothing unusual in all
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this – that she was simply anxious for the rain to stop – and turning my attention back to what Laura was saying.
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Then a few minutes later, when I’d forgotten all about Miss Lucy and was laughing my head off at something, I
world for a purpose and your futures, all of them, have been decided.
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suddenly realized things had gone quiet around us, and that Miss Lucy was speaking. You were brought into this
11. Which of the following best sums up the author’s main point in the passage above?
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(a) The girls were waiting anxiously for a game while their guardian began giving them an unnecessary lecture.
(b) There was unnecessary tension between the girls and the boys regarding the game which was being played.
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(c) The girls were waiting gleefully about a game while their guardian had something more somber to tell them.
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(d) The girls including the narrator were getting ready for something much more imperative than they had
information about.
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Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
were living in an institution where girls and boys had been housed and played a game routinely.
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(b) The girls were very serious about the game which was interrupted by the Principal of the Institution.
(c) The girls had been told by the boys about difficulty in completing a game because of their corrupt ways.
(d) There were multiple guardian present in the pavilion5Pto keep an eye on the girls and their flirting.
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Why the author chose a girl instead of a boy to present the narrative of the scene in the passage above?
(a) Because girls are much more reliable than boys in the depiction of real life events and narrating incidents.
(b) Because it was time to play a game by the pupils led by a girl being looked after by a lone guardian.
(c) Because the girl had a hunch about the lady guardian and there being something uncommon about her
behavior which boys did not notice.
(d) Because boys had their interest in flirting and other related activities while the girls were more focused.
14. In the context of the passage, what is meant by the meaning of the term “crouching animal waiting to pounce”?
(a) An animal sitting near the group which was about to attack.
(b) The turning of the guardian into a cruel and unremorseful personality.
(c) Making preparations for killing its prey.
(d) Being a menacing personality towards unsuspecting persons.
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Passage (Q.15-Q.19): The Mahabharata is a historic epic for our times. The plot of the ancient Indian epic
centres around corrupt politics, ill-behaved men and warfare. In this war prone epic, things get worse and worse,
until an era of unprecedented depravity, the Kali Yuga, dawns. According to the Mahabharata, we’re still living
in the horrific Kali era, which will unleash new horrors on us until the world ends. The Mahabharata was first
written down in Sanskrit, ancient India’s premier literary language, and ascribed to a poet named Vyasa about
2,000 years ago, give or take a few hundred years. The epic sought to catalogue and thereby criticise a new type
of vicious politics enabled by the transition from a clan-based to a state-based society in northern India.
The work concerns two sets of cousins – the Pandavas and the Kauravas – who each claim the throne of
Hastinapura as their own. In the first third of the epic, the splintered family dynasty tries to resolve their
succession conflict in various ways, including gambling, trickery, murder and negotiation. But they fail. So, war
breaks out, and the middle part of the Mahabharata tells of a near-total world conflict in which all the rules of
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battle are broken as each new atrocity exceeds the last. Among a battlefield of corpses, the Pandavas are the last
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ones left standing. In the final third of the epic, the Pandavas rule in a post-apocalyptic world until, years later,
they too die.
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From the moment that the Mahabharata was first written two millennia ago, people began to rework the epic to
add new ideas that spoke to new circumstances. No two manuscripts are identical (there are thousands of
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handwritten Sanskrit copies), and the tale was recited as much or more often than it was read. Some of the most
beloved parts of the Mahabharata today – such as that the elephant-headed Hindu god Ganesha wrote the epic
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with his broken tusk as he heard Vyasa’s narration – were added centuries after the story was first compiled.
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The Mahabharata is long. It is roughly seven times the length of the Iliad and Odyssey combined, and 15 times
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the length of the Christian Bible. The plot covers multiple generations, and the text sometimes follows side
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stories for the length of a modern novel. But for all its narrative breadth and manifold asides, the Mahabharata
accurately characterised as a set of narratives about vice. Inequality and human suffering are facts of life
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the Mahabharata. The work offers valuable perspectives and vantage points for reflecting on how various
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injustices play out in today’s world too.
What is the central theme of the Mahabharata and its relevance

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relationships
to contemporary society?
and their consequences.
(b) A detailed account of the Kurukshetra War and its impact on ancient Indian society.
(c) The Mahabharata's portrayal of vice, corruption, and ethical dilemmas, which resonates with modern societal
challenges.
(d) The evolution of the Mahabharata as a dynamic and adaptable narrative, reflecting changing cultural
contexts.
16. The Mahabharata's portrayal of escalating conflicts and moral decay can be summarized by the idiom:
(a) Burning the midnight oil. (b) A taste of your own medicine.
(c) A storm in a teacup. (d) Adding fuel to the fire.
17. Based on the information provided in the passage, which element from the Mahabharata most directly reflects
the epic's engagement with real-world societal changes?
(a) The intricate family tree of the Pandavas and Kauravas, showcasing their complex relationships.
(b) The portrayal of the Kurukshetra War as a cosmic battle between divine beings.
(c) The inclusion of side stories that follow the length of a modern novel, adding depth to the narrative.
(d) The addition of new ideas to the Mahabharata over time, adapting to changing circumstances.
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18. Based on the information provided, what can be inferred about the Mahabharata's narrative complexity and its
impact on contemporary literature and thought?
(a) The Mahabharata's intricate narrative structure has led to its exclusion from academic discussions due to its
perceived inaccessibility.
(b) The Mahabharata's multifaceted characters and moral dilemmas have inspired diverse interpretations,
enriching contemporary literary analysis and philosophical discourse.
(c) The Mahabharata's inclusion of side stories has resulted in a disjointed narrative that modern readers find
difficult to engage with fully.
(d) The Mahabharata's complex genealogy of characters has made it a source of confusion, causing scholars to
question its historical accuracy.
19. Considering the information provided, which statement can be seen as a counterargument to the Mahabharata's
influence on contemporary literature and thought?
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(a) The Mahabharata's intricate narrative has made it difficult for scholars to analyze its underlying themes and
messages effectively.
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that resonates with modern readers.
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(b) The inclusion of side stories in the Mahabharata has resulted in a cohesive and streamlined narrative structure
(c) The Mahabharata's exploration of vice and corruption has made no changes to the philosophical discourse,
leading to no lack of interest in its moral complexities.
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(d) The complexity of the Mahabharata's genealogy has led to an oversaturation of historical analysis, limiting
its relevance in the present day.
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Passage (Q.20-Q.24): The likening of cancer to a hostile enemy goes back more than a century. ‘To have a
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better understanding of the dread thing we know as cancer just compare it with the war,’ wrote Cleveland’s
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commissioner of health, R H Bishop, Jr, during the First World War. He continued: ‘Prussianism might well be
the cancerous growth that is trying to kill the other nations of Europe, for cancer, of itself, is a lawless
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of body cells which destroys life if allowed to run its course.’
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In the early 20th century – when patients were called ‘victims’, long before remissions became tenable for many
– the idea of exercising a warlike campaign against cancer
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gained traction among philanthropists and expert
‘battled’ cancer. For thousands affected, fighting was not
an option. Most died within a year or two of a malignant diagnosis. Cancer patients and physicians had little
information, scant diagnostic tests, and few medications to consider. For the most part, people with cancer could
not be helped except, for the lucky ones, by painkillers.
In today’s more promising climate, a ‘fighting spirit’ appeals to many people with cancer. For some cancer
patients I’ve known, it’s been important to say – and for those around them to hear – that they’re trying to
summon their emotional and physical powers, to do whatever they can to live longer. Some deploy combative
phrases to give themselves pep talks (‘You can beat this’) as encouragement before and while receiving cancer
treatment, even though they know full well that the outcome is beyond their control.
Yet hawkish words – talk of ‘battling’, as opposed to, say, ‘coping with’ cancer – have fallen out of favour
among physicians, psychologists and patient advocates. As a practising oncologist I avoided that sort of
language. War metaphors seemed inapt for describing research or cancer care. And I recognised this risk: if a
treatment doesn’t work, if a tumour progresses, patients who have been led to believe that they’re supposed to
put __ a fight against cancer may blame themselves, mistakenly thinking that they lacked sufficient strength or
will, when it’s the treatment that failed.
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Whichever way patients and caretakers are inclined to talk about cancer, the history of pugilistic language about
the disease could help inform their attitudes. To better understand why fighting words about cancer are
commonplace today, and why many experts have moved away from them – concerned about their potential to
burden rather than help cancer patients – it’s worth taking a look at their rise to prominence in the United States
during the past century, and the debate that followed.
20. Which of the following best describes the central idea of the passage?
(a) The historical origins of warlike language in discussions of cancer and its current relevance
(b) The importance of a fighting spirit in the battle against cancer
(c) The limitations and potential harm of using war metaphors in cancer treatment
(d) The challenges faced by cancer patients in the early 20th century and the evolution of cancer treatment over
time
21. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?

(a) Cancer patients in the early 20th century had access to a wide range of diagnostic tests and medications to
combat the disease.
(b) Physicians, psychologists and patient advocates still favour hawkish words.
(c) In the early 20th century, most benign cancer patients died within a year or two.
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22.
(d) The author is a practising oncologist.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
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(a) Endocrinologist : Thyroid disorders
(c) Pulmonologist : Kidney
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(b) Oncologist : Cancer
(d) Neurologist : Multiple Sclerosis
23.
(a) Resistance (b) Inactivity
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What does the word ‘traction’ mean in the following sentence: “the idea of exercising a warlike campaign against
cancer gained traction among philanthropists and expert physicians.” ?
(c) Momentum (d) Hesitation
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Which of the following prepositions complete the sentence “if a tumour progresses, patients who have been led
that they’re supposed to put __ a fight against cancer may blame themselves.”
(a) On.
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(b) Off. (c) Up. (d) By.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.51): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage(Q.25-Q.28): Convention on Migratory Species

Range countries of the Central Asian Flyway (CAF) have collaborated to strengthen conservation efforts for
migratory birds and their habitats. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in collaboration
with the United Nations Environment Programme/Convention on Migratory Species (UNEP/CMS) organised
the meeting from May 2 to May 4, 2023, in New Delhi. The meeting was attended by representatives from 11
countries, including Armenia, Bangladesh, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Kuwait, Mongolia, Oman, Saudi Arabia,
Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan, along with Secretariats of CMS, AEWA, and Raptors MOU, and representatives of
Chief Wildlife Wardens of States, scientific institutions in India, international and national non-governmental
organizations, and subject experts. The delegates deliberated on an institutional framework for the Central Asian
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Flyway, discussed priority areas for implementation, and agreed on a draft roadmap for updating the CMS CAF
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Action Plan. According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the discussions also led to
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the modalities of an institutional framework mechanism to develop a coordinated approach to the conservation
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of migratory birds and their habitats. The formalisation of the Central Asian Flyway initiative was seen as a
significant step towards the conservation of migratory birds and their habitats. Union Minister of State for
Environment, Forest and Climate Change Ashwini Kumar Choubey who inaugurated the event emphasized the
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need to adopt a sustainable lifestyle for the co-existence of all life forms, including migratory birds.
25.
Migratory Species?
(a) The species is endangered
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Which of the following is not a criterion for listing a migratory species in Appendix I of the Convention on
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(d)
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(b) The species has an unfavourable conservation status
has a significant decline in population size
The species has a restricted distribution range
26.
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Which of the following is an example of an Agreement developed under the Convention on Migratory Species
that covers both terrestrial and aquatic migratory species?5P
(a) Agreement on the Conservation of African-Eurasian
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(b) Agreement on the Conservation of Cetaceans of the Black Sea, Mediterranean Sea and Contiguous Atlantic
Area (ACCOBAMS)
(c) Agreement on the Conservation of Small Cetaceans of the Baltic, North East Atlantic, Irish and North Seas
(ASCOBANS)
(d) Agreement on the Conservation of Albatrosses and Petrels (ACAP)
27. The Convention on Migratory Species (CMS) is also known as the _________ Convention, after the city where
it was signed in 1979.
(a) Bonn (b) Weimar (c) Munich (d) Cologne
28. Which of the following Indian migratory birds is known for its remarkable long-distance journey from the
Arctic region to the Indian subcontinent?
(a) Cattle Egret (b) Indian Roller (c) Amur Falcon (d) Bluethroat
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Passage(Q.29-Q.33): ISRO and Space 1 : INCOSPAR , ISRO , Types of Satellites , PSLV
India has a busy decade of space exploration ahead. S. Somanath, the director of Indian Space Research
Organization, has described the current moment as an inflection point, as the country opens its space programs
to private investors after half a century of state monopoly that made advances but at “a shoestring budget mode
of working.”
A large share of India’s space efforts in the coming years will focus on the moon.
In addition to the scientific results of Chandrayaan-3, India is preparing a joint lunar exploration with Japan, in
which India will provide the lander and Japan the launch vehicle and the rover. The robotic mission, known as
LUPEX, is also intended for exploring the South Pole of the moon. Although an Indian astronaut flew to orbit
in 1984, the country has never sent humans to space on its own. It is therefore preparing its first astronaut mission
to space, called Gaganyaan. But the project, which aims to send three Indian astronauts to space on the country’s
m
own spacecraft, has faced delays, and ISRO has not announced a date for it. ISRO will first have to conduct a
o
test flight of the Gaganyaan spacecraft with no astronauts aboard. Officials have said they are at the stage of
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perfecting the crew escape system, and they said this month that they had tested the drogue parachutes, which
help stabilize the capsule that the astronauts will ride as they return to Earth.
Nytimes
rs .
29.
Chandrayaan 3?
(a) The south pole has higher solar illumination than other regions
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Which of the following is not a benefit of exploring the moon’s south pole, which was the target location of
n
(b) The south pole has higher mineral diversity than other regions
a
(c) The south pole has higher water ice potential than other regions
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(d) The south pole has higher gravity anomaly than other regions
30.
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(a) It aims
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Why is Chandrayaan 3 significant for India's space exploration ambitions?
to search for extraterrestrial life on the Moon.
31.
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(b) It represents India's first attempt at interplanetary travel.
(c) It showcases India's commitment to international collaboration in space missions.
(d) It demonstrates India's determination to achieve a successful
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soft landing on the Moon.
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1S
What was the name of the first sounding rocket launched by INCOSPAR from Thumba Equatorial Rocket
Launching Station (TERLS) in 1963?
(a) Nike Apache (b) Centaure (c) Rohini (d) Aryabhata
32. The NISAR satellite is a joint mission between NASA and ISRO to measure changes in Earth’s surface using
advanced radar imaging. The acronym NISAR stands for _______.
(a) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
(b) NASA-ISRO Surface Analysis Radar
(c) NASA-ISRO Satellite Application Radar
(d) NASA-ISRO Spaceborne Active Radar
33. Which organization is responsible for the development and operation of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
(PSLV)?
(a) European Space Agency (ESA)
(b) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
(c) Russian Federal Space Agency (Roscosmos)
(d)5OIndian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
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Passage(Q.34 – Q.38): ICJ and Climate Change
At the request of the United Nations, the International Court of Justice will issue an advisory opinion on the
liability of countries for damage caused by climate change. The President of the ICJ has released a timeline to
submit a response. The International Court of Justice was established by the United Nations to handle legal
disputes between countries. Unlike litigation between individuals that can be handled through the normal legal
process, disputes between countries require a special court. In the wake of World War II, during the creation of
the U.N., the ICJ was formed to give member nations a court with the authority to settle disagreements. There
are other international courts and tribunals created by the U.N. and other governing bodies, like the International
Criminal Court, but the ICJ handles civil disputes between countries. The only penalty the ICJ can invoke is
financial. The United Nations General Assembly, the legislative body of the U.N., has the ability to request the
ICJ issue an advisory opinion on a legal question. Advisory opinions are a commonly used tool at all levels of
government. They allow the executive and legislative branches of government to ask the judicial branch for an
serve as a predictor as to how the court might rule in the future.

Forbes
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opinion on the law. Advisory opinions are a valuable resource as they provide information, avoid conflict, and
o
34.
rs .
Which of the following is true about the nomination procedure for the candidates for the International Court of
Justice (ICJ) election in 2023?
Council and the General Assembly.
k e
(a) Nominations are made by the UN Secretary-General after consulting with the members of the Security
(b) Nominations are made by the national groups of the Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) designated by
each State party to the Statute of the ICJ.
an
(c) Nominations are made by the regional groups of the UN member states according to their geographical
distribution and level of development.
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competence
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(d) Nominations are made by the International Law Commission (ILC) after reviewing the qualifications and
o
of the candidates in international law.
35.
change?
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How do advisory opinions from the International Court of Justice (ICJ) contribute to the discourse on climate
(a) They set legally binding precedents for climate change

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(b) They offer expert guidance on the interpretation
litigation.
climate agreements.
(c) They can enforce sanctions against countries not complying with emission targets.
(d) They focus on penalizing corporations responsible for environmental degradation.
36. What is the name of the UN’s climate science body that released a major report on the climate changes
happening worldwide due to human activity in 2023?
(a) IPCC (b) UNFCCC (c) UNEP (d) WMO
37. The B20 India Task Force on Energy, Climate Change, and Resource Efficiency has recommended a just and
equitable transition to ___________ that is inclusive and resilient.
(a) nuclear energy (b) fossil fuels (c) clean energy (d) biofuels
38. What was the overarching goal of the Kyoto Protocol in terms of greenhouse gas emissions?
(a) To eliminate all greenhouse gas emissions by a specific target year
(b) To achieve a 50% reduction in greenhouse gas emissions by 2050
(c) To stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous
anthropogenic interference with the climate system
(d)5OTo promote the unrestricted growth of industrial emissions to boost economic development
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Passage(Q.39-Q.41): SHELF CLOUD
The entire north India is experiencing heavy rain, with alerts issued by regional weather offices warning of
further rainfall. According to India Meteorological Department (IMD), the intense spell of rain in the region,
including Delhi, is due to an interaction of a western disturbance and monsoonal winds. Uttarakhand is the worst
affected as the IMD has issued a red alert, warning that the hill state will experience extreme rainfall. And now,
a video claiming to show shelf clouds in Uttarakhand's Haridwar has appeared on social media.
The video shows the intimidating appearance of the clouds is gaining traction on social media. At a time when
there is severe rainfall in a region, such videos regularly appear on social media claiming the extreme occurrence.
But there is no way to confirm the video videos.
The spectacular cloud formation has, however, attracted the interest of social media users who want to know
about the unique cloud formation.These clouds are sometimes seen beneath cumulonimbus clouds, the dense,
towering vertical cloud.
39.
Source - NDTV
c
What atmospheric elements contribute to the dark and foreboding appearance of shelf clouds?
o m
(a) Accumulated cosmic dust particles.
(b) Reflected moonlight during nighttime storms.
(c) Presence of lightning discharges.
rs .
40.
(d) Condensation of water vapor and the inclusion of rain or hail within the storm.
k e
Netherlands-based research institute, has put forward a new perspective to better manage floods - EPIC. This
(a) Bihar (b) Assam
an
framework is being piloted in which of the following Indian state?
(c) Uttrakhand
r
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
41.
strokes1Kacross
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(a)
the sky?
o
Cumulus Clouds (b) Stratus Clouds
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Which type of cloud is characterized by its wispy and feathery appearance, often resembling delicate brush
(c) Cirrus Clouds (d) Nimbostratus Clouds
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Passage(Q.42-Q.46): Eight Years of Jan Suraksha Schemes
As we celebrate the 8th anniversaries of the three social5P security (Jan Suraksha) schemes — Pradhan Mantri
Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY), Pradhan
3P8R1S
tr-5O7T5PMantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) and Atal Pension
Yojana (APY), let us recount how these schemes have enabled affordable insurance and security to people (Jan
Suraksha), their achievements and salient features. PMJJBY, PMSBY, and APY were launched by Prime
Minister Shri Narendra Modi on 9th May, 2015 from Kolkata, West Bengal. While recalling the vision behind
the three Jan Suraksha schemes, Union Finance and Corporate Affairs Minister Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman said,
“In the year 2014, the National Mission for Financial Inclusion was launched with the primary objective of
ensuring that every citizen in India has access to banking facilities, financial literacy, and social security
coverage. Building on this initiative, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi introduced three Jan Suraksha schemes
on 9th May 2015, with the aim of further promoting and advancing financial inclusion in the country.” On the
occasion, Union Minister of State for Finance, Dr Bhagwat Kisanrao Karad said, “The government has adopted
a targeted approach for covering people in the rural areas and campaigns are being organized throughout the
country at each Gram Panchayat for providing coverage to eligible beneficiaries under the scheme.”
Psuconnect
42. Which of the following is not a benefit of the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)?
(a) Insurance cover of Rs. 2 lakh in the event of death due to any reason
(b) Accidental insurance cover of Rs. 2 lakh for death or full permanent disability
(c)5OCoverage1Sfor
5P one year, renewable from year to year
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(d) Premium of Rs. 330 per annum per member
43. What happens to the pension contributions made by an individual under the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) in
case of their unfortunate demise before reaching the vesting age?
(a) The contributions are returned to the nominee or legal heir.
(b) The contributions are retained in the individual's APY account until a claim is made by the designated
beneficiary.
(c) The contributions are treated as part of the individual's estate and distributed according to legal succession
rules.
(d) The contributions are utilized to provide financial support or life insurance coverage to the nominee or
legal heir.
44. Under which authority is the Atal Pension Yojana (APY) administered?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) National Pension System (NPS)
(c) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA)
(d) Ministry of Finance
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45.
rs .
___________ is the coverage provided by Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) in case of partial
disability due to an accident.
46.
(a) Rs. 1 lakh (b) Rs. 2 lakh (c) Rs. 50,000 (d) Rs. 5 lakh
k e
Which of the following age groups is eligible for the Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme under
(a) 50 years and above

(c) 70 years and above
an
the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) scheme?
(b) 60 years and above
r
(d) 80 years and above
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Tuesday and
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Passage(Q.47-Q.51): President Droupadi Murmu met her counterparts from Suriname and Guyana here on
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discussed ways to strengthen ties and expand cooperation in various fields between India and the
T
two countries. The meetings between Murmu and the two Indian-origin leaders took place separately on the
sidelines of the 17th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) convention here.
During her meeting with Surinamese president 5P

Chandrikapersad
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Santokhi, she expressed India’s commitment to
extending technical cooperation and contributing towards capacity building and skill development in the [1],
said a release from President Murmu's office. The President of Suriname was the special guest of honour at the
mega conclave of the overseas Indians and addressed the event on Monday.
“She reiterated India’s commitment for extending technical cooperation and contributing to capacity building
and skill development in Suriname. The President said that we must work together to expand our trade for mutual
benefit,” said the release. Murmu was happy to note that the Indian community in Suriname has maintained its
cultural identity even after 150 years of leaving India, it said.
Suriname is celebrating 150th anniversary of arrival of Indians in June 2023. Murmu wished the celebrations
every success and was proud to note that despite the large geographical distance between the two countries,
Hindi is widely spoken in Suriname, it said. “The President said that cooperation between India and Suriname is
progressing well. Regular high level visits are providing impetus to our growing relations,” said the release.
47. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

(a) Pacific nations (b) East Asian nations
(c)5OAfrican nations
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(d) South American nations
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48. Which of the following seas is located within the Pacific Ocean?
(a) Black Sea (b) Red Sea (c) Bering Sea (d) Arabian Sea
49. Where was the 17th PBD Convention held in January 2023, and what was the theme of the convention?
(a) Mumbai, Maharashtra - "Strengthening Global Connections"
(b) New Delhi, Delhi - "Building Bridges for Tomorrow"
(c) Indore, Madhya Pradesh - "Diaspora: Reliable Partners for India's Progress in Amrit Kaal"
(d) Bengaluru, Karnataka - "Innovations Shaping the Future"
50. What recent change has President Droupadi Murmu announced regarding the eligibility criteria for obtaining
an Overseas Citizen Of India (OCI) card for Indian-origin immigrants in Suriname?
(a) The eligibility criteria have been relaxed for all immigrants in Suriname.
(c) The eligibility criteria have been made stricter for obtaining OCI cards.
c m
(b) The eligibility criteria have been extended from the fourth generation to the seventh generation.
o
(d) The eligibility criteria have been extended from the fourth generation to the sixth generation.
51.
rs .
What was the name of the first ship that arrived in Suriname's capital Paramaribo on June 5, 1873, carrying
452 Indian laborers?
(a) Lalla Rookh (b) Indira (c) Ganga Jatha
e
(d) Malabar Princess
k
r an
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.52-Q.83): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.52 – Q.55): A lease is one of the modes of transfer of property, as defined in Section 105 of the
Transfer of Property Act, 1882. According to this section, a lease is a transfer of a right to enjoy a specific
immovable property for a certain time, in consideration of a price paid or promised, or of money, a share of
crops, service, or any other thing of value, to be rendered periodically or on specified occasions to the transferor
by the transferee. The person who transfers the right is called the lessor, and the person who acquires the right
is called the lessee.
The essential elements of a lease are as follows:
 There must be a transferor and a transferee. The lessor and the lessee must be competent to contract and
interest in the property, and the lessee must have a valid acceptance of the lease.
c m
capable of transferring and acquiring the right to enjoy the property. The lessor must have a valid title or
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 The subject matter of the transfer must be immovable property. Immovable property includes land, buildings,
etc. The property must be specific and identifiable, and not vague or uncertain.
rs .
trees, rights and interests in land, etc. It does not include movable property such as furniture, goods, money,
 The transfer must be of a right to enjoy the property. The lessee acquires a right to possess and use the
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property for the duration of the lease, subject to the terms and conditions agreed upon by the parties. And in
the future, if the conditions are changed by the lessee, then in that case the Lessor can take back his rights.
The lessee does not acquire any ownership or title in the property, but only a limited interest or estate. The
termination of the lease.
r n
lessor retains ownership and title to the property and can resume possession after the expiration or
a
 The transfer must be for a certain time. The duration of the lease may be fixed or determinable by either
may
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party or by the occurrence of an event. It may be for a term of years, months, weeks, days, or even hours. It
also be perpetual or in perpetuity, if permitted by law. The lease may commence at a present or future
8I1K5I
date and may end on a specified date, or on the happening of a specified event, or on the fulfilment of a
specified condition.
T
 The transfer must be in consideration of a price paid or promised, or of money, a share of crops, a service,
or any other thing of value. The consideration is called
in a lump sum or in instalments, in cashtr-or
3P8R1S5P
the rent, which may be paid in advance or in arrears,
in5Pkind. The rent may also be nominal or peppercorn, if there is
5O7T
no intention to create a tenancy. The rent may be fixed by the parties or determined by an arbitrator or court.
The rent may also vary according to certain factors, such as inflation, market value, etc.
52. Chetan, a farmer, leased his agricultural land to Deepak, a tenant, for a period of five years in consideration of a
share of crops to be rendered to Chetan by Deepak every year. The lease deed specified that Deepak would
cultivate wheat on the land and give one-third of the produce to Chetan as rent. However, after two years, Deepak
decided to grow sugarcane on the land instead of wheat, as he expected a higher profit from it. He did not inform
Chetan about this change and continued to give him one-third of the sugarcane produce as rent. Chetan was
unhappy with this arrangement and filed a suit against Deepak for breach of contract, seeking his eviction from
the land.
(a) Decide.Chetan will succeed as Deepak violated the terms of the lease deed
(b) Chetan will fail as Deepak did not violate the terms of the lease deed
(c) Chetan will succeed only for breach of contract but not for eviction
(d) Chetan will fail only for breach of contract but not for eviction
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53. Esha, a landlord, leased her flat to Farhan, a tenant, for a period of one year in consideration of a monthly rent
of Rs. 20,000. The lease deed contained a clause that Farhan would not sublet the flat to anyone without Esha's
consent. However, after six months, Farhan secretly sublet the flat to Gauri, a sub-tenant, for a monthly rent of
Rs. 25,000 without informing Esha. Esha accidentally discovered this arrangement and filed a suit against Farhan
for breach of contract,seeking his eviction from the flat. Decide whether Esha will succeed or fail in her claims,
and provide an explanation for your decision.
(a) Esha will succeed as Farhan violated the terms of the lease deed.
(b) Esha will fail as Farhan did not violate the terms of the lease deed.
(c) Esha will succeed only for breach of contract but not for eviction.
(d) Esha will fail only for breach of contract but not for eviction.
54. Raj, a landlord, leased his shop to Sita, a tenant, for a period of three years, in consideration of a monthly rent
m
of Rs. 20,000. The lease deed was executed on a stamp paper of Rs. 300 and was registered. The lease deed
o
contained a clause that the rent would be revised every year according to the market value of the property, as
c
determined by an arbitrator appointed by both the parties. After one year, the arbitrator fixed the rent at Rs.
rs .
25,000 per month, based on the prevailing market value of the property. Raj demanded Rs. 25,000 as rent from
Sita, but Sita refused to pay the revised amount. She argued that the clause was invalid as it gave an undue
advantage to Raj and that the rent should remain fixed at Rs. 20,000 throughout the lease period. Raj filed a suit
against Sita for recovery of rent and eviction. Decide
(a) Raj will fail as the clause was invalid and unenforceable
(b) Raj will succeed only for recovery of rent but not for eviction
k e
an
(c) Raj will fail only for recovery of rent but not for eviction
(d) Raj will succeed as the clause was valid and enforceable
r
55.
of Rs. 1K
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Babu, a landlord, leased his shop to Chitra, a tenant, for a period of two years, in consideration of a monthly rent
o
30,000. The lease deed was executed on a stamp paper of Rs. 500 and was registered. The lease deed
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However, due to some unforeseen circumstances, Babu could not deliver possession of the shop to Chitra on 1st
January 2020 and delivered it on 1st February 2020. Chitra accepted the possession and paid the rent from
February 2020 onwards. After one year, Babu demanded
8R1S5P
5O7T5P3Pthat
refused to pay the rent for that month. Shetr-argued
the rent for January 2020 from Chitra, but Chitra
the lease did not commence from 1st January 2020 as
Babu did not deliver possession of the shop on that date and that the lease would end on 31st January 2022. Babu
filed a suit against Chitra for recovery of rent and eviction. Decide.
(a) Babu will succeed as the lease commenced from 1st January 2020
(b) Babu will fail as the lease commenced from 1st February 2020
(c) Babu will succeed only for recovery of rent but not for eviction
(d) Babu will fail only for recovery of rent but not for eviction
Passage (Q.56 – Q.60): The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for the protection of the interests of
consumers and establishes consumer courts for settlement of disputes. The Act empowers the central government
to take measures for preventing unfair trade practices and protecting the interests and rights of consumers in e-
commerce. The Act defines e-commerce as buying or selling goods or services over an electronic network. In
July 2020, the Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 were notified under the Act to specify duties
and liabilities of e-commerce entities and sellers on their platforms. In July 2021, the Department of Consumer
Affairs released draft amendments to the 2020 Rules for public feedback. It noted that amendments are
necessitated due to widespread cheating and unfair trade practices in the e-commerce ecosystem.
The Consumer
1S5P Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define an e-commerce entity to include any person who
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owns, operates, or manages a digital or electronic facility or platform for e-commerce. The Draft Rules added
that the e-commerce entity will also include: (i) any entity engaged by an e-commerce entity for the fulfilment
of orders, (ii) any related party (as defined under the Companies Act, 2013) of an e-commerce entity. In case of
non-delivery of goods or services by a seller on a marketplace platform, which causes loss to the consumer, the
marketplace will be subject to a supplementary fallback liability. Earlier, only the seller was liable for non-
delivery under the Act. All e-commerce entities are required to appoint: (i) a Grievance Officer to address
consumer grievances, (ii) a nodal person for coordination with law enforcement agencies, and (iii) a Chief
Compliance Officer for ensuring compliance with the Consumer Protection Act and Rules thereunder. These
persons should be residents in India. The 2020 Rules require e-commerce entities to disclose the country of
origin of goods. The Draft Rules add that e-commerce entities should: (i) provide a filter mechanism on their
website based on country of origin, (ii) display notification regarding origin of goods at pre-purchase stage, and
(iii) display suggestions of alternatives to ensure a fair opportunity for domestic goods. An e-commerce entity
should not allow misleading advertisements on its platform as per the Act. Under the Act, misleading
advertisement is defined to include: (i) falsely describing product or service, (ii) falsely guaranteeing or
misleading about nature, substance, quantity, or quality of product or service, (iii) representation which may be
consumer courts for violation of any provision of the Act and Rules alike.
c o m
considered unfair trade practice, and (iv) deliberately concealing important information. Action will lie in
56.
rs .
There is a website called Tech Gadgets Online, managed by Harish Moka that specializes in selling domestic
electronic devices and gadgets. They have a robust online platform where customers can browse and purchase
products conveniently. The business has been operating successfully for several years, gaining a large customer
k e
base and positive reviews for their products and services. However, a situation arises when a customer named
Lisa purchases a brand new smartphone from High Gadgets, which fulfils orders from Tech Gadgets Online.
She receives the product within the promised delivery timeframe, but upon opening the package, she discovers
n
that the smartphone is not functioning properly. The screen is flickering, and the device frequently freezes. There
a
is no mention of the country of origin of the phone. Lisa reaches out to the number of consumer complaints that
r
connect to Mr. Roshan Koba, the Grievance Officer of Tech Gadgets Online and an Indian citizen who has
of the 1K
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o
process in light of the Rules:
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gained residency in Europe. He resolves her dispute promptly, and the consumer is satisfied. Decide the validity
It is valid since the rights and interests of consumers were protected.
57.
T
(b) It is not valid since the purchase was from High Gadgets and not Tech Gadgets Online.
(c) It is valid since there was no mention of the country of origin.
(d) It is not valid since the officer does not meet the criteria
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of the rules.
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Jane is an avid online shopper who recently purchased a brand-new smartphone originating in China from a
popular e-commerce platform called "Gadget Zone." The listing for the smartphone boasted several features,
such as a high-resolution camera, waterproof design, and a powerful processor. However, upon receiving the
product, Jane noticed that the smartphone did not live up to the advertised specifications. The camera quality
was poor, the device was not waterproof as claimed, and the performance was sluggish. Feeling cheated by the
listing, Jane decides to exercise her rights as a consumer and seek a resolution with Gadget Zone. She contacts
their customer support officer in Delhi, explaining the discrepancies between the advertised features and the
actual product she received. The representative assures Jane that they will investigate the matter and get back to
her promptly. They give her choices for other smartphones whose country of origin is not mentioned. The
smartphone is replaced by that of another company. The consumer was satisfied, and her interests were upheld.
What can be possible reasons for this process violating the Rules?
(a) There was misleading advertising on the e-commerce platform.
(b) There was no mention of the country of origin in the pre-purchase stage.
(c) There was cheating and unfair trade practices on the side of the e-commerce website.
(d) There was no mention of the country of origin of the first smartphone.
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58. A popular European e-commerce marketplace platform called "E-ZShop" sells various products online. One day,
a customer named Sarah purchases a brandnew laptop from E-ZShop's website for Rs 51,500. The laptop
company promises a 30-day return policy and guarantees a full refund and free repair service if the product is
defective or doesn't meet the customer's expectations. However, when the laptop arrives, Sarah notices that the
screen has several dead pixels, rendering a portion of the display unusable. She immediately contacts E-ZShop's
customer support to inform them about the issue and requests a free service. Initially, the customer support
representative apologizes for the inconvenience and assures Sarah that she will receive her free service from the
laptop company. However, a week goes by, and Sarah has not received any information or updates from E-
ZShop regarding the service. Sarah proceeds against E-ZShop for her loss in consumer court. Will she succeed
in light of the Rules?
(a) No, she will not succeed because the laptop company is responsible for the service.
(b) Yes, she will succeed because it is the duty of the seller.
o
(d) Yes, she will succeed because there is a fallback liability on the marketplace platform.
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(c) No, she will not succeed because there is no additional liability for the e-commerce website.
59.
rs .
An e-commerce business called "Tech Tronics" specializes in selling electronic gadgets and devices online. They
have gained a significant customer base due to their wide range of products and competitive prices. One day,
Tech Tronics launches a new flagship smartphone called "Xenix Pro" with great marketing hype for its
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durability, which they demonstrate by throwing the phone from a height. They write about the product, saying
that the Xenix Pro is water-resistant. Many customers who swim are enticed after reading about this feature on
their website and newspapers and place pre-orders for the phone. After the initial shipments of Xenix Pro are
n
delivered to customers, complaints start pouring in. Several customers report that their Xenix Pro smartphones
a
were damaged when exposed to water, despite following the written water-resistant claim. Frustrated customers
r
start demanding refunds and replacements from Tech Tronics, citing that the product did not meet the advertised
the advertisement,
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specifications. Tech Tronics refuses the refunds, stating that it is a printing error and that there is no mention in
only written specs. The consumers approach the court under the Act. Decide about their case
light of the passage:
60.
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(a) It will not succeed because it was just an advertisement trick, nothing illegal.
(b) It will succeed because there is misleading advertising about the substance of the product.
(c) It will not succeed because there is no advertisement5Pon the website, but in newspapers.
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(d) It will succeed because there is misleading 5P3P8R1S
advertising through false description.
"E-Market" allows individuals and businesses to sell their products to consumers worldwide. E-Market has built
a reputation for offering a wide range of products at competitive prices, attracting millions of customers. One
day, E-Market introduces a new feature called "Flash Deals," which offers heavily discounted products for a
limited time. Consumers are excited about this new feature and rush to take advantage of the deals. Among the
products being offered is a high-end smartphone called "TechMaster X." from SomSeang in May 2020. John, a
tech enthusiast, visits E-Market and notices the Flash Deal for the TechMaster X, which claims to be sold at a
70% discount. The original price of the phone is Rs 1,00,000, but during the Flash Deal, it is listed for Rs 30,000.
Intrigued by the offer, John quickly purchased the phone. There has been no delivery of the phone for seven days
despite repeated complaints to consumer support at E-Market. Who will be liable for the resulting loss to John?
(a) SomSeang will be liable because it is the seller on the marketplace platform.
(b) E-Market will be liable because it is the e-commerce marketplace platform.
(c) Both SomSeang and E-Market will be liable because both have liability under the Rules.
(d) Both SomSeang and E-Market will be liable because both have a liability under the Act.
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Passage (Q.61–Q.64): The Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 recognizes certain defences in Chapter
IV under "General Exceptions." By tendering a legally recognized defence to a criminal conduct, a person can
escape criminal liability. Some common defences of criminal law, such as insanity, infancy and intoxication are
based on the defendant's lack of capacity to be held legally responsible. These defences depend upon the
circumstances prevailing at that point of time, mensrea of person and reasonability of action of that accused. (a)
To use insanity as a legal excuse, the defendant has to show that he/she lacked the capacity to understand that
the act was wrong, or the capacity to understand the nature of the act. The basic idea is that some people, under
the duress of a mental disorder, cannot control their actions despite understanding that the action is wrong. This
general defence is explained under Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code which states that nothing is an offence
which is done by a person who, at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing
the nature of the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law. (b) Infancy is a legal incapacity
to be held responsible for a crime due to the age of the perpetrator. Section 82 says that nothing is an offence
m
which is done by a child under seven years of age. Whereas Section 83 states that nothing is an offence which is
o
committed by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not attained sufficient maturity of
c
understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion. (c) Intoxication is a state
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of mind in which a person loses self-control and his ability to judge. Intoxication is a defence available to a
criminal defendant on the basis that, because of the intoxication, the defendant did not understand the nature of
his/her actions or know what he/she was doing. The defence of intoxication typically depends on whether the
61.
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intoxication was voluntary or involuntary and what level of intent is required by the criminal charge.
H experienced depression after losing her two-year-old son. She went several weeks without eating. Because of
n
her mental disorder, her husband took her to a doctor. She began to go to work and recovered from her shock in
a
about six months. A year after the incident, she discovered that her neighbour was set to give birth to a child. H
r
developed resentment towards her when the baby was born. After a few weeks, she went to the woman and
plight,1Ktemporarily
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requested that she leave her child with H for a few hours since she missed her son. The woman, moved by H's
gave her child to H. When the woman returned to pick up her baby from H a short while
she saw that both H and her child were covered in blood. H had chopped the child's finger. Determine H's
culpability.
H.
T
(a) H is not liable for any offence since she enjoys the defense of being mentally unsound.
(b) H cannot be held accountable for any offence because
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the baby's injuries were unintentional, according to
(c) H will be held responsible for injuring the baby by severing her finger, and the defence cannot be applied in
this case.
(d) H will be held liable for intentionally cutting the baby's finger and endangering her life.
62. Q was the child of X and Y, who got married in 2016. Q was born after X and Q had been married for a few
years. When Y began working for a firm, the daughter of his employer, who was unaware that Y was married,
caught his attention. They engaged sexually and shared a lot of time together. When X and Q were away, Y
invited his girlfriend over. As soon as X entered her house, she noticed Y and the girl together. She was so
disgusted with him that she threatened to complain to his boss the next morning. Y was afraid, so he woke up
his five-year-old son in the middle of the night, gave him a knife, and instructed him to stab his mother. Find out
Q's liability if his mother passes away.
(a) Since Q was unaware of the nature and consequences of his actions, he shall not be held accountable.
(b) Y will be held accountable for inciting his five-year-old son to kill his mother.
(c) Q will be held accountable for his mother's death as well as for engaging in criminal conspiracy.
(d) In order to assess the child's liability, the passage lacks sufficient information.
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63. P attended an office party to celebrate the firm's 25th anniversary. He was dancing with all of his coworkers and
having a good time at the party. His friend knew he wouldn't agree to a drink, so he spiked his juice while he
was away. He began to feel dizzy after drinking two glasses of juice. In his inebriation, he began to sing loudly
and dance in an amusing manner. While dancing, he pushed one of his senior managers, and the beverages spilled
on his shirt. When the manager shouted at him, P yelled back and began to insult him. After 10 minutes of this
dispute, the manager intimidated P by threatening to sue him for slander. Read the passage and evaluate P's
culpability.
(a) P shall not be held accountable for defamation because he just retaliated to his manager's comments.
(b) P shall not be held accountable since he was under the influence of alcohol when he uttered the defamatory
words.
(c) P will be held guilty for defamation since he insulted manager in front of all of his coworkers.
(d) Due to the fulfillment of all requirements, P will be held accountable for defamation.
64.
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T and L had a close friendship. Both were roughly ten years old. Every day in the late evening, they used to play
c
together. T used to have new toys every week because he came from an extremely wealthy household. L used to
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request his parents for the same toys, but they were unable to purchase them. One day, when the two children
were having fun at T's house, L grabbed a pen, poked T in the eye, and fled. Additionally, he took T's toys and
hid them all on the terrace. When T's parents learned that L had struck T, they made the decision to complain
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against him. However, L's parents took the defense available under Section 83. Comment.
(a) Due to his lack of understanding of the nature and effects of his conduct, L shall not be held accountable.
(b) Since L was under the age of 12, he cannot be held liable for any crimes, according to Section 83.
an
(c) L will be held accountable for taking away T's toys without his consent.
(d) Since L was aware of the nature and consequences of his acts, he will be held accountable.
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special1Kleave
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Passage (Q.65 – Q.69): The Supreme Court in a judgment observed that parties would not be allowed to invoke
jurisdiction to bypass remedies in the same legal aspect available at the High Court level, except
two specific situations [Jini Dhanrajgir & Anr v Shibu Mathew & Anr].
T
A bench of Justices AS Bopanna and Dipankar Datta explained that, as a matter of practice, the top court
entertains Special Leave Petitions (SLP) without the High Court being approached only when there is a
substantial question of general importance or a similar issue
"The power to grant leave under Article 136 tr-5O7T 5P3P8R1S5P
itself
is pending for consideration.
being discretionary, this Court would not allow a party
invoking the ‘special leave’ jurisdiction to bypass the remedy available at the level of the High Court without
the two situations, as aforesaid, being satisfied," the order stated.
The Court was hearing a contempt petition to punish the respondents for willful disobedience of an order of the
top court passed in an SLP, finally deciding a property dispute.
The issue before the top court was whether or not interference with the common order under appeal was called
for. On examination of the peculiar facts, it was stated that there was at least a need for an inquiry by the
executing court.
The top court thus dismissed the petitions, noting that there was no reason for it to interfere, particularly since
the order of the executing court was not challenged before the High Court.
"It is made clear that the Executing Court shall proceed to deal with the application of the Appellants under Rule
97 of Order XXI of the CPC together with the objections raised by the Respondents on their own merits and
without being influenced by any observation made in this order, which has been necessitated only for disposal
of the present appeals," the court further recorded.
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65. Choose an option that provides for a correct statement in light of the passage.
(a) There cannot be any allowance of invocation of special leave jurisdiction by the parties before approaching
the High Court.
(b) If the order of the executing court was not challenged before the High Court, then the Supreme Court will
not interfere.
(c) There must not be any inquiry by the executing court on the examination of the peculiar facts.
(d) The power of special leave jurisdiction is not discretionary but mandatory under Article 136.
66. Which of the following is an accurate application of special leave jurisdiction under Article 136 in the context
of the passage?
(a) It can only be invoked after the remedy under the High Court has been exhausted in all situations.
(b) It must be compulsorily invoked by the Supreme Court while the remedy under the High Court has been
exhausted.
o m
(c) It is invoked by the Supreme Court at its discretion after recourse has been taken to the High Court, except
in two situations.
c
including in two situations.
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(d) It is invoked by the Supreme Court at its discretion before recourse has been taken to the High Court,
67.
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Amish Mishra is a person convicted of two counts of murder and awarded death penalty. He is convicted by the
trial court, and he approaches the High Court of the challenging the death penalty, but the registry is taking time
to admit the case. His lawyer hears that twenty petitions have been laid before the Supreme Court about the
Court. Decide in light of the passage:
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awarding of death penalty in the rarest of the rare cases. He files a special leave petition before the Supreme
a
(a) The petition will succeed because he approached the High Court initially.
(c) The
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(b) The petition will not succeed because the requirements are not met.
petition will succeed because the requirements are met.
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The petition will not succeed because the remedy before the High Court was bypassed.
68.
the highest Court.

T
Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage:
(a) The Supreme Court has the power to make decisions5Pagainst the High Court and Executing Court since it is
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1S
(b) There are more than one judge who decide on the decision panel of the Supreme Court.
(c) A substantial question of general importance is a situation in which the High Court need not be approached
and a direct petition lies with the Supreme Court.
(d) Article 136 gives the power to grant civil appeals to the Supreme Court, and it must be compulsorily
exercised.
69. Trisha Poorna is a businesswoman, and she is embroiled in a case of fraud and cheating in a product order for
cosmetics. She is awarded punishment by the trial court. She applies for bail to the High Court, which is granted.
She then challenges her conviction under special leave to appeal, citing that it involves a substantial question of
general importance. Will she succeed?
(a) Yes, she will succeed because she has already availed herself of remedy under the High Court.
(b) No, she will not succeed because she has not availed herself of a remedy under the High Court.
(c) Yes, she will succeed because it is a substantial question of general importance.
(d) No, she will not succeed because she needed to approach the High Court for jurisdiction.
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Passage (Q.70 – Q.74): ‘Hearing rule’, which states that the person or party who is affected by the decision
made by the panel of expert members should be given a fair opportunity to express his point of view to defend
himself.
"Bias rule" generally expresses that a panel of experts should be biasedfree while taking the decision. The
decision should be given in a free and fair manner, which can fulfil the rule of natural justice.
"No one should be a judge in his own case" because it leads to the rule of biases. Bias means an act that leads to
unfair activity, whether in a conscious or unconscious stage, in relation to the party or a particular case.
Therefore, the necessity of this rule is to make the judge impartial andgive judgement based on the evidence
recorded in the case. Personal bias arises from a relationship between a party and adeciding authority. Such
equations arise due to various forms of personal and professional relationships. Further, if any of the judicial
bodies has any kind of financial benefit, how so ever small it may be, itwill lead to biases. The Supreme Court
where a judge of the Calcutta High Court upheld his own judgement in appeal.
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has discovered new criteria for bias through the unreasonable condition. This new category emerged from a case
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A direct violation of the rules of bias is committed because no judge can sit in appeal against his own case.
The Right to be heard doesn't mean the right to be heard physically. This is an important rule of natural justice,
and its pure form is not to penalise anyone without any valid and reasonable ground. Prior notice should be given
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to a person so he can prepare to know what all charges are framed against him. It is also known as the rule of
fair hearing. These principles also apply to administrative aspects and not only to judicial aspects.
n
In the case of Kanda vs. Government of Malaya, the court held that notice must directly and clearly specify the
a
matter of , facts,and circumstances against which action needs to be taken. It's one of the rights of the individual
r
to defend himself, so he should be familiar with the relevant matter so he may contradict the statement and
with the
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safeguard himself. Valid and proper notice should be given to the required parties of the matter to further proceed
procedure of the fair trial method. Even if the concerned statute does not include the provision of issue
5G3F8I1K5I
notice, then the notice will be given prior to making decisions.
70.
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One of the most reputable judges, Mr. Yogi, has never been charged with being biased in any case. Jangan
was charged and was being tried for the offence of murder.
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Yogi. The bench is aware that the currenttr-case
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Three judges make up the bench, including Mr.
involves the murder of Mr. Yogi's niece. The verdict of the
court found Jangan guilty of murder and sentenced him to death, which is only permitted in the rarest of
cases; in the case at present, it was of a child who was brutally murdered. The decision was challenged in a
higher court on the grounds that it violated of the principle of natural justice. Decide
(a) It was not a violation of the principle of natural justice; as it was known to the bench that Mr. Yogi could
have had a personal bias in the case at hand, and they did not raise any objections to it.
(b) It was a violation of the principle of natural justice as there was a relationship between the victim and
judge.
(c) It was not a violation of the principle of natural justice, as if it were Jangan should have brought it up
before the same bench that convicted him and not waited until the final decision was passed..
(d) This is not a case of the principle of natural justice,as the judge was related to the victim and not the
accused.
71. Assume that no one was aware of the judge's relationship to the deceased in the case mentioned above, and
then the accused was given the death penalty by the bench. Determine whether the jury's decision in this case
was valid.
(a) The judgement will be invalid based on personal bias.
(b)5OThe judgement
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(c) The judgement will be invalid based on the bias rule.
(d) None of the above.
72. Mahendra was an expert in aeronautics engineering and knowledgeable about the engineering mechanics of all
different kinds of engines. Mahendra was fired from his job in this instance for failing to check an airplane's
engines and brakes, which nearly resulted in the deaths of 120 passengers. He questioned the decision of the
concerned authority in the court, accusing them of violatinghearing rule and thus the principle of natural justice.
Can he be successful?
(a) Yes, he will be successful here; he was not even given a chance to present his case, thus it is aviolation of
the principle of natural justice.
(b) No, as the court hearing and the hearing of the disciplinary committee are different.
(c) Yes, as all the essentials of a violation of the principle of natural justice have been met.
(d) No, as all the essentials of a violation of the principle of natural justice have not been met.
73. Assume that in the prior instance, Mahendra was a worker for a government factory unit and received notice that
m
his services were no longer needed and that he was to submit a written request to the committee justifying that
o
the committee reconsider its decision to remove him from his position. In response, Mahendra said that he should
c
have the opportunity to argue his case verbally and that, in order to avoid any commotion, he would not be
rs .
providing any justification in writing. Mahendra received a second letter with the same information, but he didn't
respond, thus his employment was terminated. Mahendra contented this decision as being violative of the
principle of natural justice. Decide.
Mahendra who did not send a reasoned reply.
k e
(a) This was not a violation of the principle of natural justice, as Mahendra was given proper notice, and it was
(b) This is a case of violation of the principle of natural justice, as Mahendra was not given any opportunity to
n
be heard even after requesting the same in his first letter.
a
(c) This is not a case of violation of the principle of natural justice, as it is clear from the facts that Mahendra
was negligent in his behaviour.
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authorities
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concerned.
p
(d) This is a case of violation of theprinciple of natural justice as Mahendra’s request was notheard by the
o
74.
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The state brought charges against Chandu for both the theft from the neighbour's home and the subsequent killing
of the neighbour. However, Chandu claimed in his defence that he was not responsible for the murder because
all he discovered when he returned to the scene was the dead
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innocence, which he utterly failed to do because
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body. He was required by the court to establish his
Chandu is directly implicated in every piece of evidence.
Chandu was found guilty of both offences. Chandu contested the decision as violative of natural justice. Decide
(a) Chandu cannot contest the violation of the principle of natural justice as he has been given enough
opportunity to present his case.
(b) Chandu can contest violations of the principle of natural justice otherwise, but not when he himself fails to
prove his innocence.
(c) Chandu cannot contest a violation of the principle of natural justice on the ground that he was speaking the
truth.
(d) Chandu can contest the violation of the principle of natural justice he was not given enough opportunity and
notice to prepare his case in advance.
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Passage (Q.75 – Q.78): An agreement under Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is void when its terms
are ambiguous and uncertain. Section 29 explains the meaning of an agreement that should be transparent on the
appearance of it, as explained in the case Kovuru Kalappa Devara v Kumara Krishna Mitter, but the impact can
be provided to the contract if its application is found with reasonable clarity. If this is not possible, then the
contract would not be enforceable. A slight difficulty in understanding will not be recognised as vague. As given
in the case of Bahadur Singh vs Fuleshwar Singh, a contract is valid if its terms are capable of being made
certain. The essence of the contract should not be uncertain, and further, it needs to be noted that it is not
competent of being made certain. Mere uncertainty or ambiguity, which can be effortlessly removed by proper
interpretation, does not make a contract unenforceable. Even oral agreements will not be held uncertain or vague
if their terms are ascertainable with precision. If any contract of more than one meaning, when formed, can
produce in its purpose more than one effect, then such contracts will not be void for uncertainty. A contract
becomes void because of uncertainty only if its primary terms are uncertain or incomplete. When any contract
m
is formed in which some parts are uncertain and some are possible, the uncertain parts of that contract will be
o
void.. To determine what is necessary and what is not, one must look at the goals of the parties. An agreement
c
that fits for the future fixation of consideration by the parties or by a third party is competent to be certain and is
75.
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valid under Section 29. Such a contract will not be considered void for uncertain reasons.
X and Y reached an agreement in which X agreed to manufacture glass plates and cups for Y to sell. Y went
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over the product's specifications. He omitted to mention the colour of the cups. When X attempted to contact
him to clarify, Y's phone was unreachable, and the agreement was to fulfil the order by the end of the week in
any case, as they were meant to be shipped directly by a cargo vessel the following Monday. X did not produce
n
anything as a result of the order's uncertainty. As a result, Y later sued X for breach of contract. X invokes
a
Section 29 of the Indian Contract Act as a defence. Comment.
r
(a) The contract between X and Y is not a certain contract, according to the ingredients mentioned in Section
(b) This
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29, because the colour of the cups has not been determined.
is a certain contract in terms of the glass plates because there is no ambiguity, and thus this part of the
8I1K5I
contract might have been carried out.
76.
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(c) Because the price of the goods is uncertain, the agreement between X and Y is not a certain contract.
(d) Since the requirements of Section 29 are met in this case, the contract is declared null and void.
Q established a bookstore where he used totr-5O 7T5P

sell
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academic textbooks. He had textbooks ranging from grades 3
through 12 and beyond. L walked into his store one day and gave him an order for a range of books. He intended
to buy a couple of books from each standard. He told Q verbally the books he intended to buy, but since he was
rushing, Q did not have time to note them down. L gave Q a payment in advance and urged him to deliver the
books by evening because he needed to board the train that night. Q realised that he had forgotten the labels of
some of the books as he was packing the order. In addition, he forgot to get L's phone number. He consequently
failed to deliver some of thebooks. Does L have any legal remedies available to him?
(a) It was extremely challenging to make the contract certain because it included several distinct kinds of
textbooks.
(b) The contract is deemed invalid since it complies with Section 29's requirements in this case.
(c) Q has the right to repudiate the contract because he paid for it.
(d) Since Q could have at least supplied the books whose names he recalled, this contract shall not be held void.
77. N charges M in a lawsuit. M argues in defence of herself that the contract ought to be void because it was difficult
to determine what the child preferred. Comment on whether M's claims are valid.
(a) It was quite challenging to make the contract certain because it was uncertain what foods the child liked.
(b) The contract is declared invalid since it complies with Section 29's requirements in this case.
(c)5OSince the conditions and other crucial details are clear and unambiguous, the contract cannot be deemed
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invalid.
(d) Since caring for a child cannot be regarded as a contract, there isn't even a one to begin with.
78. T and O made a deal under which T ordered a large quantity of fresh fruits and vegetables because she was
organising a religious ceremony at her home. She called O the day before the event and gave her the order. Q,
the vendor didn't deliver a few items the following day, so T sued him for breach of contract as a result. O
responded that he didn't confirm it because it was an oral agreement, which was his line of defence. Comment.
(a) The agreement between T and O is not a certain contract, in accordance with the ingredients mentioned in
Section 29, because the order was verbally issued, which made it very complex to ascertain.
(b) Since O cannot use the justification of an oral contract to avoid obligation, this is a certain contract.
(c) O has the right to declare the contract null and void because he was never paid.
(d) Due to the ambiguity around the precise nature of the items, the contract between T and O is not a certain
contract.
Passage (Q.79– Q.83): The concept of marriage is to form a relationship between a husband and a wife.
m
According to Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, it was accepted that a Hindu marriage was a religious
o
ceremony and also a Sanskara (performed as a purification rite). There are three types of marriage: (a) Valid
c
Marriage: Section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, states the conditions for a valid marriage. A marriage can
rs .
be said valid, if it fulfils following conditions: (i) None of the parties had spouses living at the time of the
marriage. (ii) During the time of the marriage, neither party should be: (1) incapable of giving valid consent due
to the unsoundness of mind; (2) suffering from mental disorder to such an extent as to be unfit for marriage and
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theprocreation of children, (3) subjected to repeated attacks of insanity. (b) Void Marriage: A marriage is
considered void under the Hindu Marriage Act if any of the parties have another spouse living at the time of
marriage. (c) Voidable Marriage: A marriage that is voidable on either side of the party is known as a voidable
n
marriage. It will be valid unless the petition for invalidating the marriage is made. This marriage is to be declared
a
void by a competent court under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. The parties to such a marriage have to decide
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whether they want to go with such a marriage or make it invalid. In a void marriage, any children born out of it
declared
5G3F8I1K5I
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shall be treated as legitimate. In a voidable marriage, any child born of a marital relationship subsequently
null by the court shall also be termed as legitimate. Even if the marriage under Section 11(void
or Section 12 (voidable marriage) is declared null and void, notwithstanding such circumstances, the
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child born out of such a marriage is held to be legitimate. If, prior to the marriage, the bride was pregnant and
gave birth to the child after the marriage, such a child cannot be treated as legitimate because that child was not
born out of the marital relationship of the present marriage,
having been conceived prior to the marriagetr-is
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and therefore, the child born after the marriage
to5Pbe held illegitimate.
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Which of the following statement is not one of the contentions put forth by the author in the given passage?
(a) The only two requirements for getting married are that neither partner must be incapable of giving legitimate
consent due to mental incapacity or a mental disease.
(b) A marriage that is voidable on either side of the couple is referred to as a voidable marriage, and it will
remain valid unless an invalidation petition is filed.
(c) Any children born during a void marriage will be recognised as legitimate, but when any marriage is declared
null and void under these sections, the child of these marriages will also be considered legitimate.
(d) A child cannot be considered legitimate if the bride was pregnant before the marriage and gave birth to the
child after the marriage.
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80. After a twelve-year relationship, Y married P. They began frequently arguing after a few months because P
wanted to move to a separate home due to her mother-in- law's constant nagging. She expressed her desire to Y,
who declined. P tried to manage for a few more months after that, but when she became frustrated, she left the
house and returned after two years. Meanwhile, Y fell in love with and married G. Comment on the legitimacy
of his marriage to G.
(a) Y's marriage to G is valid because P was the one who turned away from him permanently
(b) Y's marriage to G is valid because, in the given case, Y must have believed that P had died.
(c) Y's marriage to G is null and void because, according to the Hindu Marriage Act ,1955, another spouse
should not be alive at the time of marriage.
(d) P has the prerogative to declare Y's marriage to G valid or invalid.
81. In the year 2009, R married N. He sought dowries from his wife. He threatened to divorce her if she did not
m
comply with his demands. N escaped from the house one night when she saw an opportunity and did not return.
o
R, went in search of her but was unsuccessful. He assumed she had died and married F in 2016, who was willing
to bring adowry. F and R welcomed a son in 2017. Comment on the child's legitimacy.
c
dead.
rs .
(a) The child born to F and R is legitimate because N had not returned after seven years and was assumed to be
(b) The child born to F and R is legitimate because their marriage is also valid due to N's absence for seven
years.
k e
(c) Since N was still alive at the time of his birth, the child conceived by F and R is not legitimate.
(d) The child born of F and R is legitimate because, despite the marriage being void, the offspring is considered
82.
legitimate.
r an
Q and V were deeply in love and eventually married. They also had a six-year-old child. V was unfortunately
damage
tr-5A7Hdemanded
o p
involved in an accident and was severely injured. The doctors claimed that the accident had caused severe brain
after the operation. She was depressed and didn't speak to anyone for months. Irritated by this, Q
5G3F8I1K5I
that the marriage be declared null and void due to V's insanity. Comment.
simply depressed.
T
(a) The marriage will now be declared null and void because V suffered from repeated attacks of insanity.
(b) Q cannot demand that the marriage be declared null and void after having a child.
(c) The marriage will not be declared null and void because
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1S5P
there was no indication of insanity, and V was
(d) If both parties agree to divorce, the marriage will be declared null and void.
83. T found out she was pregnant two days before her wedding, and after two days , she got married to Z. The child
was born in good health. After twenty-five years, during a discussion about the property's inheritance in her
home, her mother-in-law stated that due to the child's illegitimacy, she does not wish to give him any share of
the property. Comment on the validity of her claims.
(a) Her claim is valid because a child born out of wedlock is not considered legitimate.
(b) Her claim will not be considered because the child was born to her own son, Z.
(c) Her claim is valid because she has sole discretion over who she wishes to distribute her property to.
(d) The veracity of her claims cannot be determined due to a lack of information in the facts.
1S5P
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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.84-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.84-Q.88): Perhaps the most dramatic convergence in recent years has been on strategic issues. The
idea that India and the United States could work closely with third partners and in third regions had been talked
about for years. But it is now a reality. The major vehicle in the Indo-Pacific is the Quad, which is working on
discrete outcomes on critical and emerging technologies, maritime domain awareness, infrastructure, health,
cybersecurity, space, and clean energy. The Quad countries, including Japan and Australia, also continue to
exchange perspectives on strategic developments and work together in various formats for security cooperation.
Coordination on China and the Indo-Pacific between the governments is now broad and regular. The more
nascent I2U2, involving Israel, the UAE, India, and the US, encompasses specific projects on food security and
clean energy.
o m
When it comes to bilateral security, military-to-military engagements — including staff talks, exchanges, and
c
military exercises — have increased the ability of the two militaries to operate together, building habits of
rs .
cooperation. Enabling agreements to facilitate logistics and secure communications have been signed, along with
some other basic protocols. Maritime cooperation has been particularly promising, including a new Indo-Pacific
Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IP-MDA) initiative that involves the region-wide sharing of
satellite-based radio frequency data to better secure the seas.
k e
Additionally, the volume of bilateral goods and services trade between India and the United States has grown
n
considerably, creating jobs in both countries. Of particular significance, US energy exports to India – including
a
both oil and gas – have risen significantly from being negligible just two decades ago. The United States remains
r
a preferred foreign destination among Indians for higher education, with Indians comprising the second-largest
successful
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US5G3F8I1K5I
o p
number of foreign students in the United States. The Indian-American community continues to serve as a
bridge between the two countries, increasing interest in India about the United States and improving
research, cultural, and business contacts with India.
T
The singular change over the past decade or so is that the relationship now has both structure and multiple
touchpoints. Strategic dialogues involving the United States
Australia), I2U2 (along with Israel and thetr-5O 7T5P3P8R1S5P
United
and India include the Quad (along with Japan and
Arab Emirates), the 2+2 Dialogue involving defence and
foreign ministers, the Defence Policy Group (DPG), and a National Security Advisor (NSA)-led initiative on
critical and emerging technologies (iCET).
84. Which among the following options captures the main idea of the passage?
(a) India and the United States have, over the years, grown their partnership in terms of co-ordination over
China, increasing the maritime domain awareness.
(b) India and the United States have a strong and multifaceted partnership on strategic, security, economic, and
cultural issues.
(c) India and the United States have a competitive and adversarial partnership on strategic, security, economic,
and cultural issues.
(d) India and the United States have been able to rope in Australia and Japan to form the QUAD which has
increased the ability of both the countries.
85. Based on the passage provided, which of the following inferences can be derived?
I. The main reason to form the QUAD was to regularly co-ordinate over threat posed by China’s claims over
maritime domains.
II.5OUS collaboration
1S5P with India is not at least as important as if not more than that with other countries
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III. The focus of I2U2 initiative is completely different from the focus of the QUAD initiative.
(a) Only I (b) Only I and II (c) All of the above (d) None of the above
86. Which of the following statements would most likely weaken the author's idea that the most dramatic
convergence in recent years has been on strategic issues?
(a) Economic collaborations between countries have overshadowed strategic partnerships in the last few years.
(b) Cultural exchanges have been the primary focus of international relations recently.
(c) There has been a significant decline in strategic alliances globally in the past decade.
(d) Tourism between countries has seen an unprecedented surge, becoming the main point of convergence.
87. The reader of the passage says, “The growth in various engagements and dialogues is a positive development for
both countries.” This statement is a/an
(a) assumption supporting the author’s opinion
(b) conclusion of the author
(c) premise supporting the author’s opinion
88.
(d) counter-premise of the argument
Which among the following is the author most likely to agree with?
c o m
nebulousness and lack of definitive engagement points.
rs .
(a) The evolution of diplomatic ties over the past ten years has been characterized predominantly by its
(b) The recent decade has witnessed a metamorphosis in relationships, marked by a structured framework and
diversified interaction avenues.
k e
(c) The primary focus of strategic dialogues between the United States and India has been the Defence Policy
Group (DPG) with minimal emphasis on other initiatives.
between the United States and India.
r an
(d) The Quad, despite its inclusion of Japan and Australia, remains a peripheral entity in the strategic dialogues
Russia,1KPakistan,
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the
o p
Passage (Q.89-Q.93): Strategic differences persist between Washington and New Delhi when it comes to
and Bangladesh, although these are now openly discussed in bilateral forums. India still sees
need for engagement with Russia in areas such as conventional defence, energy, food security, critical
T
technologies like nuclear energy and space, as well as larger strategic priorities in Eurasia. The United States, on
the other hand, has longstanding relations with various stakeholders in Pakistan, despite the ongoing political
and economic turmoil there. This occasionally results in 5P
tr-5O
to Pakistan, although the levels of trust and 7T5P3P8R1S
importance
US attempts at resurrecting engagement and assistance
have diminished. Regarding Bangladesh, the United
States has underscored a different set of issues compared to India, which instead focuses on consolidating
economic, trade, and connectivity links with the incumbent government.
Other differences arise in the context of democracy, where divergent conceptions and priorities are apparent,
despite India’s participation in the US-led Global Summit for Democracy and the two countries’ collaboration
to strengthen democratic institutions in third countries and regions. These differences are most evident in the
regular religious freedom reporting by the executive branch of the US government, but are also raised in the US
Congress—mostly on the left but occasionally among the religious right—as well as in the American media. The
Indian government, meanwhile, dismisses such statements as unnecessary interference and has occasionally
pointed out the imperfections of American democracy. Finally, sharp differences continue to play out in
multilateral trade negotiations, which often adopt a more adversarial tone compared to bilateral commercial
discussions.
Overall, the cooperative aspects of the India-US relationship now easily outweigh the areas of fundamental
difference. US officials have a considerable appreciation for the diverse ways in which the partnership with India
benefits the United States, even if that sentiment has not always permeated through the strategic community,
media, or general
1S5P public. Similarly, sharper disagreements with China on security, regional politics, economy,
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and technology have prompted India to invest more in its relationship with the United States. Indeed, New Delhi
has often reached out to the United States during times when global sentiments towards US power or policy were
ambivalent, such as after the invasion of Iraq or Donald Trump’s election. That India will continue to approach
the world from its independent standpoint is well appreciated; in a world where power is increasingly diffused,
few US leaders are under any illusions about achieving wholescale policy convergence with New Delhi. The
real question is how much the two countries can maximise the benefits of their numerous overlapping interests,
particularly given the uncertainties of election cycles and domestic politics in the years ahead.
89. Which among the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The United States prioritizes its relationship with Russia over its relationship with Pakistan.
(b) India's engagement with Russia is limited to conventional defense and energy.
(c) The United States and India have transparent discussions about their strategic differences in bilateral forums.
(d) The United States has a consistent level of trust and importance with Pakistan.
90. Which among the following options would evaluate the argument that the cooperative aspects of the India-US
relationship now easily outweigh the areas of fundamental difference?
o m
(a) Whether the cooperative aspects of the India-US relationship are based on shared values or strategic interests.
c
(b) Whether the areas of fundamental difference between India and the US are based on factual or normative
issues.
rs .
(c) Whether the cooperative aspects of the India-US relationship are more numerous or more significant than
the areas of fundamental difference.
than the cooperative aspects.
k e
(d) Whether the areas of fundamental difference between India and the US are more persistent or more resolvable
91.
r an
Which among the following options would weaken the argument that the cooperative aspects of the India-US
relationship now easily outweigh the areas of fundamental difference?
(a) India and the United States have a common interest in countering China’s growing influence and
tr-5A7H
assertiveness in the Indo-Pacific region.
(b) Attacks
5G3F8I1K5I
(c)
o p
on democratic values of India has resulted in diminished trust in cooperation with the US.
India and the United States have a common culture of diversity, pluralism, and tolerance that transcends their
92.
political differences.
T
(d) India and the United States have a common vision of a free, open, and rules-based international order that
respects sovereignty and territorial integrity. 5P
tr-5O7T5P3P8R
1S
Which of the following statements would most likely weaken the author's ideas?
(a) The US has recently shifted its focus towards strengthening ties with other Asian countries and Middle-
Eastern countries.
(b) India's recent foreign policy decisions have been heavily influenced by the US, indicating a lack of
independence.
(c) The majority of the US strategic community, media, and general public view the relationship with India as
insignificant.
(d) India and the US have recently signed multiple trade agreements, further solidifying their partnership.
93. Which among the following option captures the conclusion of the passage?
(a) India and the US have a strong and stable partnership that can overcome any differences.
(b) India and the US have many areas of cooperation, but also some persistent differences that need to be
managed.
(c) India and the US have divergent views on democracy, trade, and regional issues that pose challenges to their
partnership.
(d) India and the US have complementary interests and values that make them natural allies in the global arena.
1S5P
tr-5O7T5P3P8R
Passage (Q.94-Q.98): The Manipur High Court's order telling the state government to check if the Meiteis can
be categorised under the Scheduled Tribes (ST) may have been one of the triggers, but not by any stretch of
imagination was it the cause of the violence that started on May 3. The Central Bureau of Investigation is looking
into it. But the larger question is, how do we proceed from here? The loss of lives and properties of both the
Kukis and Meiteis is extremely sad. Violence of all kinds should be condemned. The violence persisting for over
a month also proves it is no longer a matter of "communal clashes".
The level of violence now is a full-fledged exchange of fire with modern automatic weapons involving well-
trained insurgents and so-called "village defence volunteers" from both sides. They use mortars, drones, sniper
rifles, improvised explosive devices (IEDs), walkie-talkie sets and bulletproof jackets, and coordinate well with
social media campaigns. In short, it is a situation where many heavily armed people trained to wage a war against
the government are deeply involved. It is a textbook case of a thin line between a law and order issue, counter-
It can be found in many nations too.
c o m
terrorism operations, and operations against anti-national elements. We in the military often face such grey zones.
rs .
The presence of a few hundred weapons and even fewer terrorists in Kashmir valley kept the security forces on
full alert for years. Here in Manipur, we have a situation where thousands of weapons and ammunition looted
from police armouries, and a few thousands more already in the hands of "peace talk groups", are in circulation.
k e
Add to this mix weapons with insurgent groups that have signed the "Suspension of Operations" (SoO)
agreement and those who haven't signed it. In a highly fractured society near an unstable neighbourhood, the
presence of such a massive quantity of lethal weapons, mostly in the hands of anti-national elements, is extremely
dangerous and a serious national security threat.
r an
The long internet ban has already affected thousands of students who have been preparing to continue higher
time to1Kbe
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genuine
o p
education outside Manipur. What will the future of these students look like? The pillars of governance will take
repaired, let alone working for a holistic and better future for the people of Manipur. It will take
leadership to refashion an entity as the Manipur Police as an effective instrument of good governance.
94.
T
The animosity, the suspicion among the affected communities will take time to heal.
Which among the following option captures the central idea

3P8R1S5P
5O7T5Pfor
(a) The Manipur High Court’s order on STtr-status
of the passage?
Meiteis is the root cause of the violence in the state.
(b) The violence in Manipur is a complex situation involving various armed groups and a serious threat to
national security.
(c) The internet ban in Manipur has adversely affected the education and future prospects of thousands of
students.
(d) The Manipur Police needs to be reformed and strengthened to deal with the law-and-order situation in the
state.
95. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The author is a military officer who has served in Manipur..
(b) The author is a journalist who has covered the violence in Manipur and Kashmir.
(c) The author is a lawyer who has represented the victims of the violence in Manipur and Kashmir.
(d) The author is a politician who has campaigned for peace and development in Manipur and Kashmir.
96. All of the following option can be inferred from the passage, EXCEPT?
(a) The violence in Manipur has been going on for more than a month.
(b) The violence in Manipur is a result of the court order on ST status for Meiteis.
(c)5OThe violence
1S5P in Manipur goes beyond the deep distrust between the communities.
tr- 7T5P3P8R
(d) The violence in Manipur has affected the education and governance of the state.
97. Which one of the following is an assumption on which the conclusion depends?
(a) The court order on ST status for Meiteis was a fair and justified decision.
(b) The violence in Manipur can be resolved through dialogue and negotiation among the stakeholders.
(c) The security forces are capable and willing to deal with the situation in Manipur effectively.
(d) Through leadership, the image of police in Manipur can be transformed and affected communities can be
broght together.
98. Which of the following is a plausible possibility, based on the information given in the passage?
(a) The Central Bureau of Investigation will find out the truth behind the violence in Manipur.
(b) The Manipur High Court will stick to its order on ST status for Meiteis.
(c) The security forces will confiscate all the weapons and ammunition from the armed groups in Manipur.
(d) The people of Manipur may cooperate and collaborate with the government and the security forces.
o m
Passage (Q.99-Q.103): In a refreshing departure from the norm of the Modi government, the Chief Economic
c
Adviser (CEA) has predicted that the Indian economy is on course to grow at about 6.5 per cent a year during
rs .
the rest of the decade. Mr V. Anantha Nageswaran is a modest man. He was appointed as CEA on January 28,
2022 and has, mostly, maintained a low profile and spoke only occasionally. In recent weeks, he has been more
forthcoming and I welcome that.
k e
A modest rate of growth is due to both domestic factors and the external environment. We cannot control the
external factors, we can only cope with them. For example, the Russia-Ukraine war and the deliberate cuts in oil
an
production made by oil-producing countries are beyond our control. If the war continued or oil prices rose, we
will pay a price in terms of slower GDP growth. No one can or will blame the government for the adverse impact.
r
government
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growth
o p
On the other hand, domestic factors that affect the rate of growth are the government’s responsibility. A
must be fleet-footed and resilient to manage these factors. What we have seen in India is that the
momentum was lost due to demonetization in November 2016. The growth rate slowed down in 2017-
T
18, 2018-19 and 2019-20. Then, there was a black swan event — Covid-19.
The economy was practically shut down. Prolonged lockdowns,

programme, insufficient fiscal support to tr- 5O7T5P3P
micro,
8R1S5P
a delayed roll-out of the free vaccination
small and medium enterprises and government’s stubborn
refusal to make cash transfers to the very poor exacerbated the situation. Thousands of industrial units were
closed down and hundreds of thousands of jobs were lost forever. Millions started their long walk to their homes
in distant states, hundreds died on the way. Nevertheless, the government persisted with supply side measures
and refused to look at the factors that affected demand.
There was a time when policy makers in India had ‘settled’ for 5 per cent growth and 5 per cent inflation. That
resulted in millions of people remaining poor and India rapidly falling behind China and other South-East Asian
neighbours. I am afraid something of that kind is happening now. The present policymakers boast of Amritkaal,
but no longer speak of 8-9 per cent growth. They seem satisfied with 6 per cent growth, 5 per cent inflation and
8 per cent unemployment. These numbers spell disaster for India. They mean massive poverty, rising
unemployment and growing inequality. India will not become a middle-income country for many years.
99. Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument of the passage?
(a) The incumbent government has failed to implement any minor economic reforms since 2016.
(b) The CEA has based his growth projection on optimistic assumptions and unreliable data.
(c) When growth rate is not sufficiently higher than inflation rate, any improvement in economy will be nullified
by the effects
1S5P of inflation.
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(d) It is not always possible to achieve a growth rate of 8-9 per cent through the right policies.
100. Which of the following statements, if true, would most weakens the author's assertion that domestic factors
affecting the rate of growth are primarily the government's responsibility?
(a) The recent government policies have reduced its impact on private companies that have a significant role in
influencing the rate of economic growth.
(b) The Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) has previously stated that external factors have a more profound impact
on the economy than domestic factors.
(c) Many countries, including developed nations, faced a decline in growth rates during 2017-18, 2018-19, and
2019-20.
(d) The demonetization in November 2016 was widely supported by economists and financial experts globally.
101. Which one of the following, if true, would best indicate the inconsistency presented in the passage?
(a) The CEA has a different methodology and perspective than the Modi government on measuring and
projecting the economic growth of India.
o m
(b) The CEA has a higher degree of independence and autonomy than the previous CEAs appointed by the Modi
government.
c
and potential of India.
rs .
(c) The CEA has a more optimistic and realistic outlook than the Modi government on the economic recovery
(d) The CEA has made a more modest and humble prediction to the future economic conditions than the Modi
government.
102. Which one of the following best describes a flaw in the reasoning of the passage?
k e
loss of growth momentum in India.
r n
(a) The passage confuses correlation with causation and assumes that demonetization and Covid-19 caused the
a
(b) The passage relies on anecdotal evidence and emotional appeals and ignores the factual data and logical
(c) Based
tr-5A7H5G3F 8I1K5I
change for many years.
p
arguments that support the Modi government’s policies.
on current scenerio, there is a hasty generalization that India’s economic scenerio is not going to
o
a high growth rate.
T
(d) The passage presents a false dilemma and implies that India has to choose between a modest growth rate and
5P
tr-5O7Thelp
103. Which one of the following, if true, would most
3P8R1S5P
to evaluate the arguments of the passage?
(a) If CEA’s projection is based on a comprehensive and rigorous analysis of the current and future economic
trends and scenarios in India and the world.
(b) If the Modi government’s policies have been endorsed and praised by various national and international
experts and institutions as effective and appropriate for India’s economic situation and potential.
(c) If the Indian economy has faced several unprecedented and unforeseen shocks and challenges in the last few
years that have adversely affected its growth performance and prospects.
(d) If the Indian economy is perceived as a diverse and resilient in structure and potential that can overcome the
temporary setbacks.
Passage (Q.104-Q.108): Indian officials told Bloomberg that the dispute arose when China imposed limitations
on the hiring of local staff by Indian journalists — only three from a pool of ‘approved’ staff members.
The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) has spoken about it in an official statement. “Chinese journalists in
India have no difficulties in reporting. However, Indian journalists in China have been operating with difficulties
– such as not being permitted to hire locals as correspondents or journalists,” said MEA spokesperson Arindam
Bagchi.
Former ambassador
1S5P to China and former foreign secretary Nirupama Rao, too, has raised the alarm about the
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severity of the visa row. “This is the worst time I’ve seen in my living memory in India-China relations. And
I’m not exaggerating. It’s serious,” she said in a tweet.
The lopsided access for Chinese media organisations extends beyond India and is also observed in Europe and
Canada, where Chinese journalists — both Chinese nationals and local staff — continue to operate in large
numbers despite geopolitical tensions. In contrast, access to Western media outlets in China has been severely
curtailed.
The seriousness of the issue can be understood from the US-China journalist visa row of 2020. An op-ed referring
to China as the ‘Sick Man of Asia’ resulted in the eviction of a large cohort of US journalists from China. Despite
the heightened geopolitical tensions between the two countries, some American journalists managed to remain
in Beijing.
After formal diplomatic personnel, accredited foreign correspondents act as envoys of their respective countries.
The downgrading of journalistic contact marks a significant step towards further deterioration of India-China
relations.
o m
Even if we believe some of China’s allegations regarding visa restrictions, Chinese journalists still have the
c
option to hire local Indian staff and carry out their reporting activities – if that’s what China’s state media is
rs .
present in India to do. Chinese state media organisations such as Xinhua carry out various information-gathering
activities at the behest of Beijing, unlike Indian journalists stationed in Beijing. Employees of the Xinhua News
Agency directly report to China’s State Council and the Communist Party of China’s Propaganda and Public
Information Departments.
k e
The expulsion of Indian journalists from Beijing has left Indian media organisations in a blind state. With the
now, has been burnt.
r n
latest spat, the rift between India and China is as wide now as the vast expanse of the Himalayas. A bridge, for
a
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the article, “China evicting last Indian journalist a new low in
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104. 5G
Which
3F8I1K5I
o p
ties. A bridge has been burnt for now”, by Aadil Brar and published in The Print on June 14th, 2023.
among the following options captures the central idea of the passage?
relationship.
T
(a) The visa and hiring of journalists dispute between India and China is a reflection of their serious and tense
(b) The visa and hiring of journalists dispute between5PIndia and China is a result of their different media
standards and expectations. tr-5O7T5P3P8R
1S
(c) The visa and hiring of journalists dispute between India and China is a cause of their reduced journalistic
contact and communication.
(d) The visa and hiring of journalists dispute between India and China is a symptom of their lopsided access and
influence in the media.
105. All of the following options can be inferred from the passage, EXCEPT?
(a) India and China have a dispute over the visa and hiring of journalists in each other’s countries.
(b) India and China have a cordial and cooperative relationship despite the visa and hiring of journalists issue.
(c) India and China have different standards and expectations for their media organisations operating in each
other’s countries.
(d) India and China have reduced their journalistic contact as a result of the visa and hiring of journalists issue.
1S5P
tr-5O7T5P3P8R
106. Based on the passage, which of the following best serves as the foundational premise for the author's argument
that "The downgrading of journalistic contact marks a significant step towards further deterioration of India-
China relations"?
(a) Indian journalists in China have been operating with difficulties.
(b) The US-China journalist visa row of 2020 resulted in the eviction of a large cohort of US journalists from
China.
(c) Chinese state media organizations such as Xinhua carry out various information-gathering activities at the
behest of Beijing.
(d) After formal diplomatic personnel, accredited foreign correspondents act as envoys of their respective
countries.
107. Which among the following options would strengthen the argument that the visa and hiring of journalists dispute
m
between India and China marks a significant step towards further deterioration of their relations?
o
(a) India and China have also engaged in a military standoff along their disputed border since last year.
c
(b) India and China have also increased their trade and investment cooperation despite their political differences.
and friendship.
rs .
(c) India and China have also exchanged cultural and educational delegations to promote mutual understanding
(d) India and China have also participated in multilateral forums and dialogues to address regional and global
issues.
k e
108. Which among the following options would weaken the argument that the visa and hiring of journalists dispute
n
between India and China marks a significant step towards further deterioration of their relations?
a
(a) The visa and hiring restrictions imposed by China on Indian journalists are temporary measures due to a
recent security concern.
r
(c) The
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o p
(b) Both India and China have recently signed a major trade agreement, indicating strengthened economic ties.
expulsion of Indian journalists from Beijing was a result of individual misconduct and not a state-
8I1K5I
sanctioned decision.
T
(d) Chinese journalists in India have also faced similar restrictions in the past, making it a reciprocal action.
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1S5P
1S5P
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SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.120): Sanaya, a famous clothing designer, stitches a few dresses for her own boutique and
puts them on exhibition. She labels the price of each dress in such a way that the cost of each Lehenga is 27/2
times the cost of each pair of Jeans. The cost of each Co-ord set is 40% less than that of each Lehenga. The cost
of each Black suit is 400% more than that of each Co-ord set. The cost of a Shawl is 20% more than the cost of
a Co-ord set. The cost of a Gown is Rs. 1500 more than a Lehenga and a Shrug costs 4 times the cost of a pair
of Jeans. The cost of a pair of Jeans is Rs. 1000.
109. Find the total cost (in Rs.) of a Lehenga and 2 Co-ord sets.
(a) 29700 (b) 28500 (c) 32500 (d) 33600
110. Find the ratio of the cost of a Gown to the total cost of a Shrug and a pair of Jeans.
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:3 (c) 3:1 (d) 4:3
c o m
of increased cost of Shrug and a pair of Jeans.
(a) 2865 (b) 2975 (c) 3015 (d) 3245
rs .
111. If the cost of a Shrug and a pair of Jeans are increased by 20% and 15% respectively, find the average (in Rs.)
k e
112. A customer visits the boutique and buys a Black suit whereas another customer visits there and buys a Shawl
and a Gown. Find the difference (in Rs.) between the amount paid by these two customers.
(a) 15640 (b) 15750
r an
(c) 15660 (d) 15780
Directions (Q.113-Q.116): In a master Chef competition, each of the members of two different teams: Team
average
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and
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A and Team B appeared for an individual test round. The average score of members of Team A is 80 and the
score of Team B is 73. Average scores of females and males of Team A are 70 and 85, respectively
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that of Team B are 70 and 74, respectively. The number of males in team B is 3 times the number of
females in Team A.
(a) 1:2
T
113. Find the ratio of number of females and males of Team A
(b) 1:3 tr-5O7T 3P8R1S5P
(c)5P 2:3
114. Find the average score of all the members of Team A and Team B together
(d) 3:4
(a) 68 (b) 72 (c) 76 (d) 82
115. Find the difference between the number of males in Team B and team A if the number of females in team B is
8.
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12
116. Find the sum of the average scores of females of team A and B and that of males of team A and B.
(a) 148.4 (b) 152.5 (c) 162.6 (d) 172.4
1S5P
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Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Below table shows the number of tiffin services provided by a company in four
cities, and percentage of veg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in four cities.
The total number Percentage of
of tiffin service veg-meal tiffin service
City K 280 30
City L 360 45
City M 320 60
City N 240 55
Note: - Total number of tiffin services = veg-meal tiffin services + nonveg-meal tiffin services
117. What is the ratio of number of veg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city L to the number of
nonveg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city N?
(a) 4: 5 (b) 5: 3 (c) 2: 5 (d) 3: 2
c o m
118. If number of nonveg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city Z is 15/16 times of the number of
services provided by the company in city Z?

(a) 120 (b) 160 (c) 180 (d) 140
rs .
veg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city M, then what is the number of nonveg-meal tiffin
k e
119. What is the difference between the number of veg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city M, and
n
the number of nonveg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city L?
(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
r a
120. The number of veg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city N is approximately what percentage
p
more or less than the nonveg-meal tiffin services provided by the company in city M?
o
(a) 3%
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(b) 24% (c) 18% (d) 16%
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1S5P
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Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
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o p
T tr-5O7T5P3P8R
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Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
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o p
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Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

k e11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for

Subject Q. No. Page No.

2. What does the word “bloodletting” as used in the passage mean?

to places around the world.

excessive bias in citizens.

10. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

What is the central theme of the Mahabharata and its relevance

21. Which of the following is true in context of the passage?

Which of the following is the incorrect pair?

(a) Resistance (b) Inactivity

Passage(Q.25-Q.28): Convention on Migratory Species

serve as a predictor as to how the court might rule in the future.

Council and the General Assembly.

(a) They set legally binding precedents for climate change

(a) Bihar (b) Assam

(c) Cirrus Clouds (d) Nimbostratus Clouds

(a) 50 years and above

During her meeting with Surinamese president 5P

47. Which of the following can be redacted by [1]?

termination of the lease.

It is valid since the rights and interests of consumers were protected.

Court. Decide in light of the passage:

the highest Court.

Mahendra who did not send a reasoned reply.

Q established a bookstore where he used totr-5O 7T5P

between the United States and India.

than the cooperative aspects.

It can be found in many nations too.

Which among the following option captures the central idea

95. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

The economy was practically shut down. Prolonged lockdowns,

now, has been burnt.

(a) 68 (b) 72 (c) 76 (d) 82

services provided by the company in city Z?

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