Clat Mock 04

www.successmantra.
in
Booklets Series No.
Test Booklet Test Booklet Series
CLAT – 2024 C
(Don't open this Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
CLAT MOCK - 04 FLTCT04
120
120
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE
1. Separate carbonized Optical Mark Reader (OMR) 10. Use Black/Blue ball Point Pen only for writing the Roll
Response sheet is supplied along with this Question No. and other details on OMR Sheet.
Booklet and the carbon copy has to be detached and
taken by the candidates. 11. Use Black/Blue Ball Point Pen only for shading the
circles. Indicate only one most appropriate answer by
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet shading from the options provided. The answer circle
(QB), please request the Invigilator for replacement of should by shaded completely without leaving any
a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do not use the space.
pervious OMR for a fresh booklet so obtained.
12. As the response cannot be modified/corrected on the
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR OMR Response Sheet, candidate have to take
Response sheet under any circumstance. Hence necessary precautions before marking the appropriate
OMR Response Sheet shall be handled carefully. circle.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be sought 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly signed
on the Question paper. by the Invigilator, as the same has to be produced at
the time of Admission.
5. Possession of Electronic Devices in any form is strictly
prohibited in the Examination Hall. 14. Handle the OMR Sheet with care. Do not fold.
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall 15. Ensure that Invigilator puts his/her signature in the
result in the cancellation of his/her examination. space provided on the OMR Response Sheet.
Candidate should sign in the space provided on the
7. Impersonation in an offense and the candidate apart OMR Response Sheet.
from disqualification, will be liable to the prosecuted.
16. The Candidate should write Question Paper Booklet
8. The Test Paper for Five Year Integrated Law No., and OMR Response Sheet No.., and sign in the
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 Multiple space/column provided in the attendance sheet.
Choice Questions.
17. Return the ORIGINAL Page of OMR Response Sheet
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice to the Invigilator after Examination.
objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be deducted
for every wrong answer or where candidates have 18. The Candidate shall not write anything on the OMR
marked more than one response. Response Sheet other than the details required and in
the spaces provide for.
Centre - 1: 113, Ground Floor, Next to Punjab National Bank, Kingsway Camp, GTB Nagar Metro Station, Delhi- 110009
Centre - 2: A-1/89 2nd Floor, Raja Tower, Gurunanakpura, Nirman Vihar, Laxmi Nagar Metro Station, Delhi – 110092
Centre – 3: 10, Third Floor, Kapil Vihar, Pitampura, opposite to Kohat Enclave Metro Piller Number 348, Pitampura, Delhi- 110034
www.successmantra.in | 85888 76885, 99990 88430
www.successmantra.in
Breakup Table
SUBJECT Q. Nos. Page No.
English Language 1 – 24 3-9
Current Affairs And General Knowledge 25 – 52 9 – 11
Legal Reasoning 53 – 84 12 - 23
Logical Reasoning 85 – 108 24 - 29
Quantitative Techniques 109 – 120 29 - 29
2 H.O. 113, Ground Floor, Mall Road, Kingsway Camp, GTB Nagar Metro Gate No. 1, Delhi - 110009
ENGLISH
Passage 1
"One can not speak of Marx without also speaking of ghosts. This is not simply because of the famous opening sentence
of the Manifesto of the Communist Party, which declares that a spectre is haunting Europe. Nor is it because Marx himself,
in his writings on capital and history, often evokes the figure of the specter. Rather, it is because the very concept of
spectrality is essential to Marx's understanding of the world.
"For Marx, the world is not a closed system. It is a world of ghosts, of traces, of hauntings. The past is never truly past. It is
always with us, haunting our present. This is not simply a matter of nostalgia or regret. It is a matter of responsibility. We
are responsible for the ghosts of the past, for the debts that we owe them.
"This is why Marx's work is so important today. In a world that is increasingly haunted by the ghosts of debt, of war, of
genocide, Marx's work offers us a way of thinking about these ghosts, of coming to terms with them, and of working towards
a better future.
"Marx's work is not a blueprint for a new society. It is a provocation, a challenge, a call to action. It asks us to think differently
about the world, to imagine a different future. It asks us to be ghosts ourselves, to haunt the present with the ghosts of the
past, in order to create a better future for all.
"This is the task of the new International, the International of the ghosts of Marx. It is a task that is both daunting and
exhilarating. It is a task that will require us to be courageous, to be creative, and to be committed. But it is a task that is
essential, if we are to create a world that is free from exploitation, oppression, and violence.
"The new International will not be a monolithic organization. It will be a network of networks, a constellation of movements,
and a community of ghosts. It will be a force for justice, for freedom, and for peace. It will be the spectre that haunts the
world, the spectre that will not be exorcised.
"The new International is already here. It is us. It is you and me. It is the ghost of Marx that haunts us, that calls us to action
that demands that we make the world a better place.
"Let us answer that call. Let us join the new International. Let us haunt the world with the ghosts of Marx. Let us create a
better future for all."
Extracted from the book Specters of Marx, by Jacques Derrida
1. According to the passage, what is the central importance of spectrality in Marx's conceptualization of the world?
a) Spectrality suggests that Marx's philosophies are primarily focused on the supernatural and the afterlife.
b) Spectrality is significant to Marx's understanding as it indicates that the past, with all its debts and obligations,
constantly haunts the present.
c) Spectrality emphasizes Marx's belief in discarding the past to make way for a new future.
d) Spectrality is simply a metaphoric representation of Marx's personal fascination with spiritual themes.
2. How does the passage present the role of the new International in achieving Marx's vision of a better future?
a) The new International is an organization that directly implements Marx's philosophies in its operation.
b) The new International, as an entity, is described as the ghost of Marx and is expected to initiate a societal
transformation towards a better future.
c) The new International serves merely as an ideological symbol with no actual function in societal change.
d) The new International is an instrument for suppressing dissent and disagreement.
3. Based on the author's perspective, what is the existential role individuals must assume in Marx's spectral world?
a) Individuals are expected to disregard the spectral past and focus on creating a new, untainted future.
b) Individuals are tasked with acknowledging and engaging with the spectral past to influence a better future.
c) Individuals are perceived as passive observers of the spectral past, with no active role in shaping the future.
d) Individuals are encouraged to solely learn from the spectral past without any responsibility towards the future.
4. Based on Marx's conceptualization, why is the engagement with spectrality considered an integral aspect of achieving
a better future?
a) It invites individuals to continually revisit past mistakes and thus, perpetuate a cycle of regret.
b) It compels us to transform into spectral entities ourselves, utilizing lessons from the past to reimagine and influence
the present for a superior future.
c) It advocates for the creation of a parallel spectral society that operates independently of our current reality.
d) It endorses the notion of ignoring current worldly issues, focusing solely on past occurrences.
Passage 2
“It is not God that I am disputing,” Ivan went on. “That is not what matters, even if He does exist. The point is that all His
creation is a lie and a deception. Nature deceives us at every step, beginning with our birth. We are told that we are 'children
of God,' 'the crown of creation,' 'the image and likeness of God.' But what are we really? Mere animals, even more abject
and disgusting than the animals. Why should we be on top, when we are by far the most vicious? We are told that we are
'free,' but in reality we are mere puppets, controlled by our passions and instincts. We are told that we are 'immortal,' but in
reality we are nothing but fleeting shadows, doomed to disappear into nothingness.
“And what is the purpose of all this? What is the point of creating such a wretched world, full of pain and suffering? Why
should we be born to suffer, only to die and be forgotten? There is no answer to these questions. There is no meaning to
life. It is all a lie.
“And yet, I cannot help but believe that there is something more, something beyond this world. I cannot help but believe
that there is a God, a just and merciful God, who will one day judge us for our deeds. I cannot help but believe that there is
a heaven, a place where we will be free from pain and suffering, where we will be reunited with our loved ones, and where
we will finally find peace.
“I do not know why I believe this. I have no proof. But I believe it nonetheless. It is my faith. It is my hope. And it is the only
thing that keeps me going.”
Ivan finished speaking, and there was a long silence. Alyosha was the first to speak.
“Thank you, Ivan,” he said. “I needed to hear that.”
“You are welcome,” Ivan said. “I am glad I could help.”
The two brothers sat in silence for a few more minutes. Then, Alyosha stood up.
“I should be going,” he said. “It is getting late.”
“Of course,” Ivan said. “I will walk you out.”
The two brothers walked out of the room and down the stairs. They walked out of the house and into the street. The night
was dark and quiet. The stars were shining in the sky.
“Goodbye, Ivan,” Alyosha said.
“Goodbye, Alyosha,” Ivan said. “And good luck.”
Alyosha turned and walked away. Ivan watched him go, and then he turned and walked back into the house.
Extracted from the book The Brothers Karamazov by Fyodor Dostoevsky.
5. What forms the nucleus of Ivan's internal conflict regarding the conception of God and human existence as portrayed
in the passage?
a) His faith in a God who is merciful and just, while perceiving life as devoid of any intrinsic meaning.
b) His steadfast denial of the existence of God, considering all religious doctrines as fraudulent.
c) His acceptance of human beings as mere animals, fundamentally controlled by their passions and instincts.
d) His belief in an afterlife where pain and suffering are non-existent, despite viewing mortal life as fleeting and full of
suffering.
6. How does Alyosha respond to Ivan's existential deliberations in the narrative?
a) Alyosha disputes Ivan's ideas, affirming a more optimistic outlook on life and human existence.
b) Alyosha sympathetically acknowledges Ivan's thoughts, indicating they were needed.
c) Alyosha remains silent, indicating confusion or a lack of understanding of Ivan's perspective.
d) Alyosha dismisses Ivan's monologue as absurd and nihilistic.
7. Within the existential paradigm presented in Ivan's discourse, which of the following is the most compelling inference
that can be derived from his thoughts on the human condition and divine existence?
a) The pervasive rhetoric of divinity and its benevolent creation is essentially fallacious, masking the brutal truth of
human existence as fundamentally animalistic and ephemeral.
b) The inherent characteristics attributed to humanity, such as freedom and immortality, are delusional constructs,
concealing the reality of human beings being mere puppets of instincts and transient shadows.
c) Ivan's faith in the existence of a merciful and just God who will ultimately judge human deeds is unwavering, despite
his strong skepticism towards the meaningfulness of life.
d) Despite his fundamental disbelief in the authenticity of human life and divine creation, Ivan's faith in a transcendental
realm free of suffering provides him the motivation to persevere.
8. How does Ivan perceive the nature of human beings in the existential discourse presented in the passage?
a) Ivan views humans as the pinnacle of creation, deserving of their place at the top.
b) Ivan regards humans as superior beings gifted with freedom and immortality.
c) Ivan sees humans as more abject and vicious than animals, controlled by passions and instincts.
d) Ivan believes humans to be divine, mirroring the 'image and likeness of God.'
Passage 3
It was a moonlit night in May. The air was warm and still. The streets of Moscow were deserted.
Suddenly, a black cat appeared on the street corner. It was followed by a man in a black suit and a bowler hat. The man
walked slowly, as if he had all the time in the world. The cat followed him closely, its tail twitching.
The man stopped in front of a large building. He looked up at the sign above the door: "The Variety Theatre." He took a
deep breath and opened the door.
The man walked into the theater. The lobby was empty. The only light came from a few candles on a table in the center of
the room. The man walked over to the table and picked up a candle. He held it up to his face and looked at his reflection.
"Not bad," he said to himself. "Not bad at all."
The man put the candle down and walked into the theater. The auditorium was dark. The only light came from the stage.
The man walked down the aisle and sat down in the front row.
A moment later, the lights came up on the stage. A group of actors was performing a play. The man watched the play for a
few minutes, but he wasn't paying attention. He was thinking about something else.
"I have to do it," he said to himself. "I have to do it tonight."
The man stood up and walked out of the theater. He crossed the street and entered a small park. He walked to the center
of the park and stopped. He looked around. The park was deserted.
The man took a deep breath and raised his hands. He began to speak in a loud voice.
"I summon you, Satan!" he cried. "I summon you to appear before me!"
There was a flash of lightning and a loud peal of thunder. A figure appeared in the air above the man. The figure was tall
and thin. It had a long white beard and a pointed hat.
"Who dares to summon me?" the figure said.
"I do," the man said. "I am Woland, the Master of the Black Arts."
"What do you want?" Satan asked.
"I want you to help me," Woland said. "I want you to help me get revenge on the people who have wronged me."
"Very well," Satan said. "What do you want me to do?"
"I want you to send a plague of frogs to Moscow," Woland said. "I want you to make the people suffer."
"It shall be done," Satan said.
Satan disappeared in a flash of lightning. Woland smiled. He had finally gotten his revenge.
The next day, the people of Moscow woke up to find a plague of frogs. The frogs were everywhere. They were in the streets,
in the houses, and even in the beds. The people were terrified. They didn't know what to do.
The government tried to control the plague, but it was no use. The frogs were too many. The people were forced to flee
their homes. They abandoned their businesses and their belongings. They left Moscow in droves.
The plague lasted for weeks. Finally, it ended as suddenly as it had begun. The frogs disappeared as mysteriously as they
had appeared.
The people of Moscow were relieved. They returned to their homes and their businesses. They tried to forget about the
plague, but they never could.
The plague had changed them forever. They were no longer the same people they had been before. They were more afraid,
more suspicious, and more cynical.
The plague had also changed Woland. He was no longer the same man he had been before. He was more powerful, more
ruthless, and more determined.
Woland had gotten his revenge, but he wasn't finished yet. He had plans for the rest of the world.
Extracted from the book The Master and Margarita by Mikhail Bulgakov
9. Analyzing the repercussions of Woland's vengeful act, which of the following conclusions can be substantiated from
the provided narrative?
a) The invocation of supernatural entities inevitably leads to cataclysmic events.
b) Revenge, once achieved, leaves the avenger in a state of serene satisfaction.
c) Revenge often inflicts unforeseen collateral damage, affecting innocents alongside its intended targets.
d) The sudden advent of frogs was met with delight and amusement by the populace of Moscow.
10. Given the transformation in Woland's character following his successful vengeance, which inference is the most
compelling regarding his future intentions?
a) Woland, satisfied with his revenge, intends to retire from the black arts and live a life of peace.
b) Woland, after causing a plague of frogs, will turn his supernatural abilities towards humanitarian efforts.
c) Woland, empowered by his successful revenge, intends to use his supernatural abilities for further acts of retribution
or control.
d) Woland will divert his attention to fostering frogs as pets after witnessing their effective use in vengeance.
11. Extracting the essence of the black cat's presence in the narrative, which interpretation aligns best with the symbolic
representation of the feline in the context of the narrative?
a) The black cat signifies Woland's clandestine operations within the Moscow society.
b) The black cat represents the relentless march of technology that leaves no corner untouched.
c) The black cat embodies the personalisation of Woland's mystical rituals, emphasizing their inherent individuality.
d) The black cat embodies the selective exposure of information, revealing only what one is reluctant to perceive.
12. In context with the narrative, which assertion aligns most precisely with the revelation that Woland's act of vengeance
had irreversibly altered the populace of Moscow?
a) The act of revenge fundamentally transforms the fabric of the society at large.
b) A plague, though devastating, brings people together by igniting a collective fight for survival.
c) The inflicted supernatural calamity bolstered the citizens' faith in mystic forces and the black arts.
d) The aftermath of revenge demonstrates that society views the perpetrator more sympathetically.
Passage 4
In the early 1970s, a young biologist named Judah Folkman had an idea that would revolutionize the way we think about
cancer. Folkman had been studying the growth of tumors in mice, and he had noticed something strange. Even when he
removed the tumor, the cells would often regrow. This led him to suspect that cancer cells were not simply growing out of
control, but were also being supported by a network of blood vessels that supplied them with oxygen and nutrients.
Folkman called this network the "tumor microenvironment," and he hypothesized that if he could disrupt
this network, he could stop cancer from growing. In 1971, he published a paper in the journal Science in which he proposed
that cancer could be treated by blocking the growth of new blood vessels.
At the time, Folkman's idea was met with skepticism. Many scientists believed that cancer was simply a matter of
uncontrolled cell growth, and that blocking the growth of new blood vessels would have no effect. However, Folkman
persisted, and over the next few decades, he and his colleagues conducted a series of experiments that showed that he
was right.
In 1998, Folkman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his work on tumor angiogenesis. Today,
angiogenesis inhibitors are used to treat a variety of cancers, including breast cancer, lung cancer, and colorectal cancer.
Folkman's work is a reminder that cancer is a complex disease, and that there is no single cure. However, by understanding
the biology of cancer, we can develop new treatments that can help us to fight this disease.
In addition to angiogenesis inhibitors, there are a number of other promising new approaches to cancer treatment. For
example, immunotherapy uses the body's own immune system to fight cancer cells. This approach has shown great promise
in the treatment of melanoma, and it is being investigated for other types of cancer as well.
Another promising approach is personalized medicine, which uses genetic information to tailor treatments to individual
patients. This approach has the potential to revolutionize cancer treatment, as it could lead to more effective and less toxic
treatments.
The fight against cancer is far from over, but we have made great progress in recent years. By understanding the biology
of cancer and developing new treatments, we are getting closer to a cure.
Extracted from the book The Emperor of All Maladies by Siddhartha Mukherjee.
13. In light of the particulars delineated in the passage, which supposition can be made about the scientific community's
initial response to Folkman's theoretical proposition regarding the mechanism of tumor proliferation?
a) It was enthusiastically endorsed by the members of the scientific community.
b) It encountered substantial disapproval and incredulity from the scientific community.
c) It was deemed as inconsequential on account of its exclusive focus on the biological behavior of mice.
d) It was perceived as a secondary or supplementary approach to treatment, as opposed to a primary one.
14. Which cutting-edge approach to cancer treatment, as referenced in the passage, involves the harnessing of the body's
innate immunological defenses?
a) Individualized medical treatment b) Inhibitors of angiogenesis
c) Therapeutic intervention via immunological response d) Cytotoxic pharmaceutical treatment
15. Drawing from the exposition provided within the passage, which contemporary paradigm of cancer treatment
predicates its methodology on the assimilation of genetic information?
a) Inhibitors of angiogenesis b) Cytotoxic pharmaceutical treatment
c) Immunotherapeutic intervention d) Individualized medical treatment
16. Which assertion, extrapolated from the text, accurately epitomizes the outcome of Dr. Judah Folkman's sustained
perseverance in his hypothesis despite initial skepticism?
a) His theory was eventually consigned to oblivion by the medical fraternity.
b) His revolutionary research garnered him the prestigious Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.
c) His determination led to an adverse impact on his professional reputation.
d) His steadfast belief in his theory led to the discovery of the cure for cancer.
Passage 5
In the spring of 1999, a group of economists set out to answer a seemingly straightforward question: why do American kids
do so poorly in school, relative to their peers in other developed countries?
The economists, led by Eric Hanushek of Stanford University, looked at data from dozens of countries and found that there
was a strong correlation between student achievement and teacher quality. In other words, the better the teachers, the
better the students did.
This finding was not entirely surprising. But what was surprising was the magnitude of the effect. Hanushek and his
colleagues found that a one-standard-deviation increase in teacher quality was associated with a 0.25-standard-deviation
increase in student achievement. That's a big deal.
So why are American teachers so much worse than teachers in other countries? Hanushek and his colleagues don't have
a definitive answer. But they do offer some possible explanations.
One possibility is that American teachers are simply less qualified than teachers in other countries. For example, in the
United States, there is no national certification requirement for teachers. In contrast, most other developed countries require
teachers to have a college degree and to pass a rigorous certification exam.
Another possibility is that American teachers are paid less than teachers in other countries. In the United States, the average
salary for a public school teacher is about $50,000. In contrast, the average salary for a public school teacher in France is
about $80,000.
Finally, it's also possible that American teachers have less autonomy than teachers in other countries. In the United States,
teachers are often subject to a great deal of bureaucratic oversight. In contrast, teachers in other countries are typically
given more freedom to decide how to teach their students.
Whatever the reason, it's clear that American teachers are not as effective as they could be. And this is having a negative
impact on student achievement. If we want to improve our schools, we need to find a way to improve the quality of our
teachers.
These are just some of the challenges that we face in trying to improve American education. But they are challenges that
we must address if we want to ensure that our children have the opportunity to succeed.
Extracted from the book Freakonomics by Steven Levitt.
17. As per the revelations contained within the passage, which assertion accurately characterizes the identified correlation
between teacher quality and student achievement in the analysis performed by the group of economists?
a) There is no evident correlation between the quality of teachers and student performance.
b) There is a weak correlation between teacher quality and the educational outcomes of students.
c) Teacher quality is inversely proportional to student achievement.
d) A substantial positive correlation exists between teacher quality and student achievement.
18. In terms of the barriers potentially impeding the effectiveness of American teachers, as enumerated in the passage,
which of the following is identified as a possible contributing factor?
a) The lack of a mandatory national certification requirement for teachers.
b) A robust pedagogical framework offering considerable autonomy to teachers.
c) A widespread preference for pedagogical strategies imported from other nations.
d) The influx of underqualified teachers due to lenient immigration policies.
19. In regards to the consequential influence of teacher quality on student achievement as described in the passage, which
statement accurately reflects the asserted magnitude of this impact?
a) A two-standard-deviation increase in teacher quality results in a 0.5-standard-deviation increase in student
achievement.
b) A one-standard-deviation increase in teacher quality results in a 0.25-standard-deviation increase in student
achievement.
c) A half-standard-deviation increase in teacher quality results in a 0.1-standard-deviation increase in student
achievement.
d) A quarter-standard-deviation increase in teacher quality results in a 0.05-standard-deviation increase in student
achievement.
20. According to the passage, which of the following is the closest synonym for "magnitude"?
a) Proportionality b) Magnanimity c) Amplitude d) Diminutiveness
Passage 6
In the early 1960s, a psychologist named Walter Mischel conducted a series of experiments that would change the way we
think about willpower. Mischel's experiments involved giving young children a marshmallow and telling them that if they
could wait 15 minutes without eating it, they would get a second marshmallow.
The results of Mischel's experiments were surprising. Some children were able to wait patiently for the second marshmallow,
while others gave in and ate the first marshmallow as soon as Mischel left the room. Mischel found that the children who
were able to wait were more likely to be successful later in life. They were more likely to have good grades, get into good
colleges, and have healthy relationships.
Mischel's experiments showed that willpower is not a fixed trait. It is something that can be learned and strengthened. In
the years since Mischel's experiments, scientists have learned a great deal about how willpower works. They have
discovered that willpower is like a muscle. It can be strengthened with practice, but it can also be depleted.
When we make a decision, our brain has to do a lot of work. It has to weigh the pros and cons of the decision, and it has to
generate a plan of action.
This takes effort, and it can be tiring. If we make a lot of decisions in a row, our willpower can start to run low. This is why
it is so hard to resist temptation after a long day.
There are a few things we can do to strengthen our willpower. One is to get enough sleep. When we are well-rested, our
brains are better able to make decisions and resist temptation. Another is to eat healthy foods. Eating nutritious foods gives
our brains the fuel they need to function properly. Finally, we can exercise regularly. Exercise helps to increase the levels
of a neurotransmitter called dopamine, which is involved in motivation and reward.
In addition to willpower, there are other factors that can influence our habits. One is the environment. If we are surrounded
by temptation, it will be harder to resist. For example, if we keep junk food in the house, we are more likely to eat it. Another
factor is our emotions. When we are feeling stressed or anxious, we are more likely to reach for unhealthy habits.
The good news is that we can change our habits. It takes time and effort, but it is possible. The first step is to identify the
habit you want to change. Once you know what you want to change, you can start to make a plan.
Your plan should include a few key elements. First, you need to identify the triggers that cause you to engage in the habit.
Once you know what your triggers are, you can start to avoid them. For example, if you want to stop smoking, you might
avoid going to places where people are smoking.
Second, you need to find a replacement behavior. This is something that you can do instead of the habit you want to
change. For example, if you want to stop eating junk food, you might start eating fruits and vegetables instead.
Finally, you need to be patient. It takes time to change a habit. Don't get discouraged if you slip up. Just pick yourself up
and start again.
21. According to the passage, what is the role of willpower in decision-making and resisting temptation?
a) Willpower is an inherent and unalterable trait unaffected by decision-making or temptation.
b) Decision-making requires minimal exertion and has no bearing on the depletion of willpower.
c) Willpower can be fortified through regular exercise, healthy eating, and effective decision-making.(
d) Continuous decision-making can deplete willpower, weakening self-control and making resistance to temptation
more challenging.
22. In the context of habit change, based on the passage, which statement accurately reflects the significance of
replacement behavior?
a) Replacement behavior is an inconsequential element that does not contribute to the effectiveness of habit change
efforts.
b) Identifying and implementing a suitable replacement behavior is a pivotal aspect of successful habit change.
c) Replacement behavior is an optional consideration that holds minimal relevance in the process of habit change.
d) The concept of replacement behavior is irrelevant and unrelated to the overall effectiveness of habit change.
23. According to the passage, what did Walter Mischel's experiments on willpower reveal about the children who were
able to wait for the second marshmallow?
a) They were less likely to have good grades and healthy relationships later in life.
b) They were more likely to give in to temptation and eat the first marshmallow immediately.
c) They were less likely to be successful later in life due to their impulsive behavior.
d) They had a fixed trait of willpower that could not be learned or strengthened.
24. Based on the passage, which statement accurately reflects the relationship between triggers and habit change?
a) Triggers play a peripheral role in the process of habit change and can be easily disregarded.
b) Identifying triggers is a fundamental step that facilitates the initiation of habit change.
c) Triggers have a negligible impact on the success of habit change efforts and can be overlooked.
d) Avoiding triggers is an optional strategy that does not significantly contribute to habit change.
CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Passage 7
Women and children are among those who died in the city of Ludhiana in Punjab state. Several people were found
unconscious in their homes. The area was sealed off and residents were evacuated after many reported breathing
difficulties. Four are being treated in hospital. The source of the leak has not been officially confirmed so far.
An official statement from the district administration said that high levels of hydrogen [1] were detected in the area, the
newspaper reported.
Earlier, an official had suggested that gas may have spread from manholes. PTI news agency quoted Ludhiana Deputy
Commissioner as saying: "We are going to collect samples from manholes. It is quite likely that some chemical reacted with
methane in manholes."
Rajinder Pal Kaur Chhina, a local legislator, told Reuter’s news agency that the incident had happened near a milk shop.
"People who came to buy milk in the morning, fell unconscious outside," she said.
25. Who formed the eight-member fact-finding committee to investigate the gas leak incident in Ludhiana district of Punjab?
a) National Green Tribunal (NGT) b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change d) Punjab Pollution Control Board (PPCB)
26. Who is the Chairman of National Green Tribunal?
a) Surabhi Malik b) Pradeep Kumar Agrawal c) Ravi Bhagat d) Adarsh Kumar Goel
27. Forensic experts have suspected which gas to be responsible for the tragedy. Redacted by [1] in the above passage?
a) Hydrogen Sulphide b) Carbon Monoxide c) Nitrogen Dioxide d) Sulfur Dioxide
28. In the establishment of specialized environmental tribunals, at which position does India rank among the countries
listed?
a) First b) Second c) Third d) Fourth
29. In which area of Ludhiana did the gas leak incident occur?
a) Giaspur b) Model Town c) Sarabha Nagar d) Dugri
30. How many people died in the gas leak incident in Ludhiana?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11
31. What is the compensation amount announced by the district administration for the family of the deceased in the gas
leak incident?
a) Rs 1 lakh each b) Rs 1.5 lakh each c) Rs 2 lakh each d) Rs 2.5 lakh each
Passage 8
Addressing the media on this occasion Shri Yadav said that bringing the Cheetah back to India will help in restoring the
nation’s natural heritage. He also thanked the Defence Ministry and the Indian Air Force for extending full support for the
translocation. Shri Yadav also mentioned about the various initiatives taken up by the ministry in the areas of wildlife
conservation including Project Cheetah, LIFE concept and its sustainability, Green growth namely Green Credit, Mishti –
for mangrove conservation and Gaj Utsav among others.
The goal of Cheetah introduction project in India is to establish viable cheeta in India that allows the cheetah to perform its
functional role as a top predator and provide space for the expansion of the cheetah within its historic range thereby
contributing to its global conservation efforts.
The major objectives of the introduction project are:
To use the cheetah as a charismatic flagship and umbrella species to garner resources for restoring open forest and
savanna systems that will benefit biodiversity and ecosystem services from these ecosystems,
To use the ensuing opportunity for eco-development and eco-tourism to enhance local community livelihoods.
To manage any conflict by cheetah or other wildlife with local communities within cheetah conservation areas expediently
through compensation, awareness, and management action.
In this context, the Government of India initiated G2G consultative meetings with Republic of Namibia which culminated in
the signing of MoU between the two countries on 20th July 2022 for cheetah conservation.
Extracted with edits and revision from: Shri Bhupender Yadav announces the translocation of twelve Cheetahs from South
Africa to India.
32. How many cheetahs have died in India's Cheetah Translocation Project?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
33. What is the conservation strategy called that was used to protect cheetahs in South Africa?
a) Metapopulation management b) Wildlife rehabilitation management
c) Species management d) Habitat management
34. Which wildlife sanctuary is being explored as the potential second home for cheetahs in India?
a) Ranthambore National Park b) Jim Corbett National Park
c) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary d) Kanha National Park
35. What is the current status of Mukundra Hills in Rajasthan?
a) Wildlife Sanctuary b) National Park
c) Tiger Reserve d) Bird Sanctuary
36. In which Indian state were 12 cheetahs from South Africa translocated to in February 2023?
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Rajasthan c) Gujarat d) Uttar Pradesh
37. In which year did the last cheetah die in the Koriya district of present-day Chhattisgarh?
a) 1947 b) 1955 c) 1963 d) 1972
38. How much does India have to pay for the capture of each cheetah from the African nation?
a) USD 1,000 b) USD 2,000 c) USD 3,000 d) USD 4,000
Passage 9
According to the Internet Freedom Foundation (IFF), which advocates digital rights and liberties in India, multiple overlapping
factors account for the continued and frequent use of such shutdowns.
"These restrictions are often enacted by local administrations on the grounds of 'public emergency' and 'public safety,' in
the absence of clearly defined grounds for any such suspension or criteria to determine their effectiveness, leading to
arbitrary and excessive application," Prateek Waghre, IFF's policy director, told DW.
Restrictions are often imposed during protests, to prevent demonstrators from coordinating, for example, but there are also
temporary shutdowns to prevent cheating in exams.
Waghre said that factors combined "to make internet restrictions an early-stage intervention in the state's response toolkit
rather than a measure of last resort."
"Shutdowns or disruptions are at times necessary to stop the flow of misinformation during a state of crisis and strife which
could only exacerbate the situation," a senior official told DW on condition of anonymity.
39. How many internet shutdowns did India enforce in 2022?
a) 40 b) 62 c) 84 d) 98
40. Which article of the Indian Constitution recognizes the usage of the internet as a fundamental right?
a) Article 21 b) Article 19 c) Article 14 d) Article 32
41. Which country experienced a communications blackout lasting for over 2 years in Tigray by the end of 2022?
a) Ethiopia b) Sudan c) Eritrea d) Somalia
42. In which case did the Supreme Court of India rule that indefinite suspension of internet services would be illegal under
Indian law?
a) Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020) b) K.S. Puttaswamy vs Union of India (2017)
c) Navtej Singh Johar vs Union of India (2018) d) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India (2015)
43. Which country had the second highest number of internet shutdowns in 2022?
a) Ukraine b) Iran c) Myanmar d) Pakistan
44. Which act provides powers to block specific websites in India?
a) Indian Security Act, 1885
b) IT (Amendment) Act, 2008
c) The CrPC Act
d) Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency and Public Safety) Rules Act
45. According to the 'Cost of Internet Shutdowns Report' in 2022, intentional internet shutdowns caused an economic loss
of approximately how much across the globe?
a) $2 billion b) $12 billion c) $24 billion d) $48 billion
Passage 10
"Conflict and disasters combined last year to aggravate people’s pre-existing vulnerabilities and inequalities, triggering
displacement on a scale never seen before," he said. "The war in Ukraine also fuelled a global food security crisis that hit
the internally displaced hardest. This perfect storm has undermined years of progress made in reducing global hunger and
malnutrition."
Better data and analysis are still needed to improve understanding of the relationship between food security and
displacement, but IDMC’s report shows that the former is often a consequence of the latter and can have lasting impacts
on both IDPs and host communities. Three-quarters of the countries that face crisis levels of food insecurity are also home
to IDPs. Shining light on this connection is key to understanding how IDPs are affected by disruptions to food systems, but
also how future investments in food security will be essential to reaching solutions.
46. What is the full form of IDMC?
a) International Displacement Monitoring Centre b) Internal Displacement Management Committee
c) International Development and Migration Council d) Internal Displacement Monitoring Consortium
47. In what phenomenon did the "triple-dip" La Niña occur, causing widespread disasters across the world?
a) El Niño b) La Niña c) El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) d) Global warming
48. Which country had the highest number of internally displaced people in 2022?
a) Colombia b) Democratic Republic of the Congo
c) Iraq d) Syria
49. What was the record number of people living in internal displacement across 110 countries and territories?
a) 17.8 million b) 42.3 million c) 71.1 million d) 93.6 million
50. Who released the '2022 Global Trends Report'?
a) WHO b) UNHCR c) UNICEF d) IMF
51. Which country had the highest number of disaster displacements in 2022?
a) India b) Bangladesh c) Pakistan d) China
52. By what percentage did the number of people displaced by disasters in 2022 increase compared to 2021?
a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%
LEGAL REASONING
Passage 11
The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) is a statutory law that governs the criminal justice system in India. It was enacted
in 1973 and has been amended several times since then. The CrPC sets out the rules and procedures for the investigation
and prosecution of crimes, as well as the rights of the accused.
One of the most important provisions of the CrPC is Section 154, which deals with the registration of First Information
Reports (FIRs). An FIR is a written document that is filed with the police when a crime is committed. It is the first step in the
criminal justice process.
An FIR should be ideally filed with the police within 24 hours of the commission of the crime. The FIR must contain the
following information:
The name of the person who is reporting the crime
The date, time, and place of the crime
The details of the crime, including the names of the accused persons, if known
Any other information that may be relevant to the investigation
The police are required to register an FIR if they are satisfied that a crime has been committed. They cannot refuse to
register an FIR without a valid reason. The rules and procedure for the registration of FIRs are set out in the CrPC. The
police must follow these rules and procedures when registering an FIR.
The police must first record the statement of the person who is reporting the crime. This statement is called the first
information report. The police must then investigate the crime and gather evidence. If the police find that there is sufficient
evidence to support the allegations, they will file a charge sheet against the accused persons.
The accused persons will then be summoned to court and the trial will begin. The accused persons have the right to defend
themselves in court. There are a few exceptions to the rule that an FIR must be filed within 24 hours of the commission of
the crime. For example, if the crime is a cognizable offence, the police can register an FIR even if it is filed after 24 hours.
Another exception is if the crime is a non-cognisable offence. In this case, the police can only register an FIR if they have
the permission of the magistrate. The registration of FIRs ensures that crimes are investigated and that the accused persons
are brought to justice. The grant of bail ensures that the accused persons are not held in custody unnecessarily, and that
they have the opportunity to defend themselves in court.
53. Shreya, a young woman from a small town, witnessed a crime in her neighborhood late at night. She saw a group of
men vandalizing a local shop and recognized one of them as a local thug known for his notorious activities. The event
left her terrified, and she spent the next two days in fear and anxiety, worried about possible retaliation if she reported
the crime. After discussing the matter with her family and gathering courage, she decided to go to the police and file
an FIR two days after the incident. Given this situation, can the police refuse to register Shreya's FIR because it was
not filed within 24 hours of the commission of the crime?
a) Yes, because the FIR must be filed within 24 hours of the commission of the crime as per the CrPC.
b) No, because while the FIR should ideally be filed as soon as possible, the CrPC does not explicitly state a 24-hour
limit for reporting a crime.
c) Yes, because any delay in filing an FIR can be seen as an indication of false information.
d) No, because the 24-hour limit is only for cognizable offenses, and we do not know the nature of the crime Shreya
witnessed.
54. Mr. Sharma is an elderly individual who lives alone in his house. One day, he finds that his garden has been damaged
and several of his plants have been uprooted. Suspecting this to be the work of neighborhood kids who often play
around his property, Mr. Sharma decides to report the incident to the local police station. However, when he goes there
to file an FIR, the police refuse to register his complaint without the permission of a magistrate, stating that it is a non-
cognizable offense. In this case, is the police's refusal to register Mr. Sharma's FIR without a magistrate's permission
justified?
a) Yes, because the police must follow the rules of the CrPC, which require a magistrate's permission to register an
FIR for non-cognizable offenses.
b) No, because the police are obligated to register every FIR, irrespective of the nature of the offense.
c) Yes, because the destruction of plants is a non-serious crime that does not warrant the registration of an FIR.
d) No, because the right to file an FIR is a fundamental right of every citizen and the police cannot deny it on any
grounds.
55. Mr. Sinha, an entrepreneur in Kanpur, has had his factory vandalized, causing substantial damage to his property.
Given his busy schedule, he wants to delegate the task of filing a First Information Report (FIR) to his secretary.
According to the principles of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), is the secretary allowed to file an FIR on behalf
of Mr. Sinha?
a) Yes, because the CrPC allows anyone who has knowledge of the crime to report it.
b) Yes, because the secretary, as a representative of Mr. Sinha, has the right to file an FIR on his behalf.
c) No, because only the victim of the crime can file an FIR.
d) No, because the CrPC does not explicitly allow for third-party reporting of crimes.
56. A theft occurs in Ms. Gupta's house in the city of Noida. She approaches the local police station to file a First Information
Report (FIR). However, the police refuse to register her FIR, stating that they are busy with more pressing issues.
According to the principles of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), can the police refuse to register Ms. Gupta's
FIR?
a) Yes, because the police can prioritize the cases they handle based on their urgency and importance.
b) Yes, because the police have discretion in deciding whether to register an FIR.
c) No, because the police are obliged to register an FIR if they are satisfied that a cognizable offense has been
committed.
d) No, because it is the right of every citizen to have their FIR registered.
Passage 12
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws to all persons within
the territory of India. This article is one of the most important fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution, and it has been
used to strike down a wide range of laws and government actions that have been found to be discriminatory.
There are three main doctrines that have been developed by the courts in interpreting Article 14: the doctrine of reasonable
classification, the doctrine of non-arbitrariness, and the doctrine of nexus.
The Doctrine of Reasonable Classification
The doctrine of reasonable classification holds that the government may classify people for different purposes, but only if
the classification is reasonable. A classification is reasonable if it is based on a "rational" or "intelligible" basis, and if it is
used to achieve a "legitimate" government purpose.
For example, the government could classify people by age in order to determine who is eligible for a certain government
benefit. This would be a reasonable classification because age is a rational basis for determining eligibility, and the
government has a legitimate interest in providing benefits to certain age groups.
However, the government could not classify people by race in order to determine who is eligible for a certain government
benefit. This would be an unreasonable classification because race is not a rational basis for determining eligibility, and the
government does not have a legitimate interest in providing benefits to certain races.
The Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness
The doctrine of non-arbitrariness holds that the government may not discriminate against any person or group of persons
in the exercise of its powers.
This doctrine is based on the principle that the government must act fairly and justly in all of its dealings with the people.
For example, the government could not pass a law that says that only people with blue eyes are eligible to hold certain
government jobs. This would be an arbitrary law because it would discriminate against people with brown eyes, green eyes,
and other eye colors.
The Doctrine of Nexus
The doctrine of nexus holds that the government may not discriminate against any person or group of persons in the absence
of a rational relationship between the discrimination and a legitimate government purpose. This doctrine is based on the
principle that the government must have a good reason for discriminating against anyone.
For example, the government could not pass a law that says that only people with a certain level of income are eligible for
certain government benefits. This would be a law without nexus because there is no rational relationship between income
and the government's interest in providing benefits to certain people.
The doctrines of reasonable classification, non-arbitrariness, and nexus are all important tools that the courts can use to
strike down laws and government actions that violate the right to equality guaranteed by Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
These doctrines help to ensure that the government treats all people fairly and justly, regardless of their race, religion, sex,
or any other characteristic.
57. In a recently implemented law, the Indian Government has introduced a tax concession for citizens aged 60 years and
above. The law, aimed at providing financial relief to senior citizens, has been met with criticism from some sectors of
society who argue that it discriminates against younger taxpayers. In light of Article 14 of the Indian Constitution and
the Doctrine of Reasonable Classification, is this law justified?
a) YES, because the law reasonably classifies individuals based on their age, a rational factor, to achieve a legitimate
government purpose of providing financial relief to senior citizens.
b) NO, because age is not a rational basis for granting tax concessions.
c) YES, because the government has the absolute power to implement tax laws without any restrictions.
d) NO, because the Doctrine of Reasonable Classification does not apply to age.
58. The Indian Government passes a law stating that applicants for certain government jobs should hold a graduate degree.
The law is aimed at ensuring competence in the performance of these positions. However, critics argue that this law
discriminates against individuals who have not had the opportunity to pursue higher education. Considering the
Doctrine of Nexus in the context of Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, is the law valid?
a) YES, because there is a rational relationship between the educational qualification set by the law and the
government's legitimate purpose of ensuring competence in certain positions.
b) NO, because educational qualification is not a valid basis for determining eligibility for government jobs.
c) YES, because the government has the right to create any law regarding employment.
d) NO, because the law is arbitrary and does not serve any legitimate government purpose.
59. The government has decided to provide additional benefits and incentives for businesses that are run by women to
promote gender equality and economic empowerment. However, male entrepreneurs argue that this is discriminatory
and unjust. Using the Doctrine of Reasonable Classification, does the government's decision violate Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution?
a) YES, because it is discriminatory against male entrepreneurs.
b) NO, because gender is a rational basis for classification and the government has a legitimate interest in promoting
gender equality and women's empowerment.
c) YES, because the Doctrine of Reasonable Classification does not permit any form of discrimination.
d) NO, because male entrepreneurs have been historically privileged, and this does not constitute discrimination.
60. The local government in a state of India has introduced a new law that mandates specific quotas for members of certain
minority communities in local bodies to enhance their representation. Critics argue that this is discriminatory against
members of the majority community. Considering the Doctrine of Non-Arbitrariness, is this new law arbitrary and
violating the principles of Article 14?
a) YES, because the law discriminates against the majority community by favouring minority communities.
b) NO, because the law is intended to ensure fair representation of all communities, which is a legitimate government
objective.
c) YES, because the government cannot interfere with the election process by setting quotas.
d) NO, because the majority community has historically been overrepresented, and this law helps to restore balance.
Passage 13
The doctrine of colourable legislation is a legal principle that prevents a legislature from enacting a law that is beyond its
power by disguising it as a law that is within its power. The doctrine is based on the maxim "quando aliquid prohibetur ex
directo, prohibetur et per obliquum," which means "what is prohibited directly is also prohibited indirectly."
The doctrine of colourable legislation is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution, but it has been developed by the
courts over time. The Supreme Court of India has held that the doctrine is a necessary check on the power of the legislature
to prevent it from exceeding its constitutional authority.
The doctrine of colourable legislation is applied in a variety of contexts. For example, it has been used to invalidate laws
that attempt to regulate matters that are outside the scope of the legislature's power, such as the freedom of speech or the
right to property. The doctrine has also been used to invalidate laws that are motivated by an improper purpose, such as a
law that is designed to discriminate against a particular group of people.
The doctrine of colourable legislation is an important tool for protecting the rights of individuals and for ensuring that the
legislature does not exceed its constitutional authority. The doctrine is a complex one, and its application can be difficult to
predict. However, it is an important part of the Indian constitutional system and it plays a vital role in protecting the rights of
citizens.
In addition to the Indian Constitution, the doctrine of colourable legislation is also recognized by other jurisdictions, such as
the United States and Canada. The doctrine has been applied in a variety of contexts in these jurisdictions, and it has been
used to invalidate laws that are motivated by improper purposes, that are outside the scope of the legislature's power, or
that are otherwise unconstitutional.
The doctrine of colourable legislation is an important legal principle that helps to protect the rights of individuals and to
ensure that the legislature does not exceed its constitutional authority. The doctrine is a complex one, but it is an essential
part of the legal system in many jurisdictions. The doctrine is based on the principle of separation of powers, which divides
the government into three branches: the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. The doctrine of colourable legislation
helps to ensure that each branch of government does not encroach on the powers of the other branches.
The doctrine of colourable legislation is not absolute. The courts will not strike down a law simply because it is motivated
by an improper purpose or because it is outside the scope of the legislature's power. The courts will only strike down a law
if it is clear that the legislature was attempting to circumvent the Constitution. The doctrine of colourable legislation is a
dynamic doctrine. The courts have interpreted the doctrine in a variety of ways over time, and they will continue to interpret
the doctrine in light of changing circumstances.
61. The Central Government of India passes a legislation that imposes significant restrictions on a state government's
power to use land within its own territory, effectively rendering the state unable to implement any land reform measures.
This legislation was passed under the pretext of protecting the environment and controlling climate change. The state
government, on the other hand, contends that the Central Government is overstepping its bounds and interfering with
a matter that falls squarely within the state's purview, land reform. In this scenario, does the legislation passed by the
Central Government qualify as an example of "colourable legislation"?
a) YES, because the legislation is a way for the Central Government to control the state's land use, which is beyond
its constitutional authority.
b) NO, because the legislation is passed for the noble cause of protecting the environment and controlling climate
change, which is within the Central Government's purview.
c) YES, because the state government believes it to be an overreach of the Central Government's powers.
d) NO, because the Central Government has the authority to pass legislation on any issue it deems necessary.
62. In an attempt to mitigate the escalating crisis in public health due to increased smoking rates, the central government
introduces a law which imposes heavy taxes on tobacco products, effectively making them unaffordable for most
citizens. However, the tobacco industry argues that this law infringes upon their right to conduct business and that the
central government is using this law to indirectly ban tobacco products, a matter that they argue falls within the scope
of state governments. Based on the doctrine of colourable legislation, does the tobacco industry's argument hold merit?
a) YES, because the central government seems to be indirectly banning tobacco products which should be a state
matter.
b) NO, because the central government has the power to impose taxes for public health reasons.
c) YES, because the tobacco industry perceives it as an overreach of the central government's powers.
d) NO, because the central government can legislate on any matter it deems necessary for public health.
63. The Indian government, amidst a nationwide cybersecurity crisis, passes a law that mandates every company operating
in India to store their digital data within the country. The law is intended to help the government monitor and control
data breaches better. However, several international companies argue that this law oversteps the government's power,
claiming it as a veiled attempt to control and censor the information available to Indian citizens. Considering the doctrine
of colourable legislation, is the argument of the international companies valid?
a) YES, because the law indirectly gives the government the power to control and censor information, which should
be a matter of individual freedom.
b) NO, because the government has the authority to pass laws for ensuring the cybersecurity of the nation.
c) YES, because the international companies perceive it as an overreach of the Indian government's power.
d) NO, because the law is only asking companies to store their data within the country, and not controlling or censoring
any information.
64. The federal legislature in a hypothetical country, Nooristan, has passed a law prohibiting the citizens from posting any
online content criticizing the government. The state governments in Nooristan are against this law, claiming it to be a
violation of the constitutionally guaranteed freedom of speech. The federal government, on the other hand, argues that
the law was necessary for national security and thus falls within its legislative competence. Is this a case of colorable
legislation?
a) YES, because the law is indirectly curtailing the freedom of speech of the citizens.
b) NO, because the federal government has the authority to enact laws concerning national security.
c) YES, because the federal government is encroaching upon a right that falls under the jurisdiction of state
governments.
d) NO, because the law is justified under the grounds of national security.
Passage 14
On 06.03.2023, in a batch of petitions led by TVF Media Lab v. State (Govt. of NCT of Delhi), a Single Judge Bench of the
Delhi High Court held that a prima facie was made out against the Petitioner under Sections 67 & 67A of the Information
Technology Act, 2000 (IT Act), and not only under Section 67, partly reversing the impugned judgment. The court applied
the ‘contemporary community standards test’, as laid down by the Supreme Court in Aveek Sarkar & Anr v. State Of West
Bengal (where that Court had discarded the 'Hicklin' Test) to decide whether the content of the web series in question was
‘obscene’.
In TVF, the court interpreted the ‘community standards test’ to mean: “The approach of this Court for applying the test of a
common man and how the content will affect him and what his reaction will be, has to be in the Indian context as the Indian
morality and values can only be judged in the Indian context, keeping in mind the contemporary standards of civility and
morality.”
It noted that: “The Court had to watch the episodes with the aid of earphones, in the chamber, as the profanity of language
used was of the extent that it could not have been heard without shocking or alarming the people around and keeping in
mind the decorum of language which is maintained by a common prudent man whether in professional or public domain or
even with family members at home.”
The community standards test was laid down in Roth v. US which was later adopted by the court in Aveek Sarkar, although
in a limited manner. The part adopted by the Indian Supreme Court read:
“The standard for judging obscenity, adequate to withstand the charge of constitutional infirmity, is whether, to the average
person, applying contemporary community standards, the dominant theme of the material, taken as a whole, appeals to
prurient interest.”
Therefore, the test has two prongs:
1. The material must be taken as whole taking into relevant circumstances
2. The dominant theme of the material must appeal to prurient interest of an average person of the community
The court in order to get around the conflict observes that the language is obscene even when judged from an average
person's perspective. Aveek Sarkar while adopting the Roth test ignored that it was three pronged. As Bhatia points out,
community standards constituted the first prong, under the second prong the material had to be “patently offensive”, and
under the third prong, “of no redeeming social value”. Therefore, the threshold for deciding obscenity under Roth was much
higher than what Aveek Sarkar understood the law.
This test has since been replaced by the Miller Test (Miller v. California) which requires the material to fulfil three conditions:
1. Whether ‘the average person, applying contemporary community standards’ would find that the work, ‘taken as a whole,’
appeals to ‘prurient interest’
2. Whether the work depicts or describes, in a patently offensive way, sexual conduct specifically defined by the applicable
state law, and
3. Whether the work, ‘taken as a whole,’ lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value.
As Bhatia writes, the last ground is crucial, because it is on the social value prong that works of art, literature, sculpture etc.,
that would otherwise be deemed obscene, are not.
Obscenity standards in India must be re-looked from the point of view of freedom of speech. The right under Article 19(1)
will have no meaning if the courts can curtail speech on the ground that it offends majority views. Obscenity standards must
therefore progress in a manner which allows marginalised and unpopular opinions to be transmitted without imposition of
majority standards as far as possible.
65. Rajat Singh, a renowned contemporary artist in India, recently hosted an art exhibit that included a series of explicit
sculptures illustrating different sexual acts. The sculptures were part of a larger exhibit focused on human intimacy and
relationships. However, one individual, a staunch conservative, took offense to the explicit nature of the sculptures and
filed a case against Singh, stating that the exhibit violated the community standards test as laid down in Roth v. US
and adopted by the Indian Supreme Court in Aveek Sarkar, and should therefore be considered obscene. The overall
theme of the exhibit was not intended to stimulate prurient interest but rather to express the nuances of human
relationships. In this situation, is it likely that the court would rule the sculptures as obscene if they offended a single
conservative individual?
a) Yes, the sculptures are obscene as per the community standards test because they portray explicit sexual positions,
which offend an individual.
b) No, the sculptures are not obscene as per the community standards test because they are part of a larger theme
that does not appeal to prurient interest when taken as a whole.
c) Yes, the sculptures are obscene as per the community standards test because the explicit portrayal of sexual
positions appeals to the prurient interest of a conservative individual.
d) No, the sculptures are not obscene as per the community standards test because the offense taken by a single
individual does not define community standards.
66. Rajat Singh's art exhibition also features a series of paintings depicting the evolution of human sexual behaviour
through the ages. Among them, one particular painting shows a modern-day couple in an intimate, nude embrace. The
painting is titled "Love Conquers All" and, according to Rajat, is meant to represent the victory of love over societal
constraints and prejudices. A local activist group has protested the painting, claiming it is obscene and violates the
community standards test as laid down in Roth v. US and adopted by the Indian Supreme Court in Aveek Sarkar. The
overall theme of the painting series is intended to illustrate human evolution and is not designed to appeal to prurient
interest. In this context, will the court likely deem the "Love Conquers All" painting as obscene due to the nudity
portrayed in it?
a) Yes, according to the Hicklin Test, the painting "Love Conquers All" will classify as obscene.
b) No, according to the Community Standards Test, the painting "Love Conquers All" will not classify as obscene.
c) Yes, according to the Community Standards Test, the painting "Love Conquers All" will classify as obscene.
d) No, the painting "Love Conquers All" will not classify as obscene, according to both the Hicklin Test and the
Community Standards Test.
67. Consider the following instances:
1. A renowned author writes an explicit sex scene in her bestselling novel to emphasize the passionate relationship
between her two main characters.
2. A popular music video shows the artist in revealing outfits dancing seductively. The video is not connected to any
bigger context or narrative.
Using the Miller Test, which of these cases can be classified as obscene?
a) Instance 1 is obscene but instance 2 is not.
b) Instance 2 is obscene but instance 1 is not.
c) Both instances 1 and 2 are obscene.
d) Neither instance 1 nor instance 2 is obscene.
68. Renowned filmmaker Aman creates a film which includes a scene showcasing two characters, of the same sex,
indulging in an intimate act. This is a crucial part of the narrative, portraying their love and the difficulties they face due
to societal norms. A prominent activist registers a case of obscenity against Aman. Is it a case of obscenity as per the
Miller Test?
a) Yes, this is a pure case of obscenity as it showcases a same-sex relationship.
b) Yes, this is a pure case of obscenity and also against the laws related to depiction of sexual acts on screen.
c) No, this is not a case of obscenity because as per the Miller Test, the film must be seen in its entirety, and the scene
is crucial to the narrative and portrays the difficulties faced by same-sex couples.
d) No, this is not a case of obscenity as per the Miller Test, because it has a serious artistic and political value, as it
addresses the issues faced by same-sex couples.
69. An internationally acclaimed film director, Veer, releases a film that showcases the harsh realities and brutalities of
human trafficking. The film includes explicit and disturbing scenes that depict sexual exploitation. The intent of the film
is to shed light on the dark underbelly of society and to incite action against such atrocities. However, a group of
audience members, horrified by the explicit content, file a case of obscenity against Veer. Can this film be deemed
obscene as per the three-pronged Roth test?
a) Yes, the film is obscene under the Roth test because it contains explicit sexual scenes.
b) Yes, the film is obscene under the Roth test because the average person, applying contemporary community
standards, would find the film to be patently offensive.
c) No, the film is not obscene under the Roth test because, when taken as a whole, it holds significant social value.
d) No, the film is not obscene under the Roth test because it doesn't appeal to the prurient interest of the average
person applying contemporary community standards.
Passage 15
"Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is a provision that has been subject to much debate and controversy. It
penalizes 'deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or
religious beliefs'. The provision was introduced by the British in 1927 in response to a perceived need to placate religious
sentiments that frequently resulted in public violence.
The Supreme Court has held that this section does not penalize every act of insult to religion or religious beliefs, but it
penalizes only those acts of insults to religion or religious belief which are perpetrated with the deliberate and malicious
intention of outraging the religious feelings of that class.
The Section reads as “Whoever, with deliberate and malicious intention of outraging the religious feelings of any class of
citizens of India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or by visible representations or otherwise, insults or attempts
to insult the religion or the religious beliefs of that class, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term
which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.” The offence under Section 295A is cognizable and non-bailable,
and triable by Magistrate of the first class. The punishment for the offence can extend to imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.
However, the application of this provision has been a subject of controversy. Critics argue that it is often misused to suppress
free speech and to settle personal scores under the guise of protecting religious sentiments. They contend that the provision
is vaguely worded and overbroad, and thus, it is susceptible to misuse and overreach.
On the other hand, proponents argue that it is necessary to maintain public order and to prevent communal violence. They
contend that in a diverse and pluralistic society like India, it is important to respect and protect the religious sentiments of
all communities.
In recent years, there have been several high-profile cases involving allegations of violation of Section 295A. These cases
have reignited the debate about the need for reform or repeal of this provision.
The Supreme Court, in its judgments, has tried to strike a balance between the need to protect religious sentiments and the
need to protect freedom of speech and expression. It has held that only those acts which are calculated to promote feelings
of enmity or hatred between different religious, racial, language or regional groups or castes or communities would fall within
the purview of Section 295A.
However, the debate about the scope and application of Section 295A continues, and it remains a contentious issue in
Indian law and society."
70. Rishi, a well-known comedian, performs a stand-up routine in a city theatre, satirizing various religions. He intends to
amuse his audience and stimulate intellectual discussion, but his performance includes jokes that some individuals
might find offensive to their religious beliefs. This incident sparks outrage among certain religious communities who
feel that their faith has been insulted, leading to public demonstrations. Rishi argues that his act was in good faith,
without any intention to harm anyone's religious feelings. He stands accused of violating Section 295A of the IPC. Can
he be convicted under Section 295A of the IPC based on his intentions and the reaction to his performance?
a) Yes, because Section 295A applies to any act that might be construed as offensive to religious feelings, irrespective
of the intentions of the performer.
b) No, because Rishi performed with the intention of amusement and intellectual stimulation, not with a deliberate and
malicious intention to outrage religious feelings.
c) Yes, because the intention of the performer does not matter if the act leads to public outrage and potentially disrupts
public peace.
d) No, because Section 295A only applies if the performer acts with a deliberate and malicious intent specifically to
outrage religious feelings, which Rishi claims was not his intent.
71. An infamous stand-up comedian, Vikram, includes a segment in his latest act, in which he humorously critiques the
attire of a renowned religious leader, Guru Prasad. He did not intend to insult the religion but was simply poking fun at
Guru Prasad's colorful and extravagant clothing. However, many followers of the Guru felt that their religious sentiments
were hurt and filed a case against Vikram under Section 295A of IPC. Vikram defended himself by arguing that he was
targeting Guru Prasad, not the religion. Can he be convicted under Section 295A of IPC, given that his jokes were
directed towards an individual rather than the religion as a whole?
a) Yes, because any act that offends the sentiments of followers of a religion can be penalized under Section 295A of
IPC, regardless of Vikram's intent.
b) No, because Vikram's comments were directed at an individual and were not intended to outrage religious feelings.
c) Yes, because the religious leader, Guru Prasad, is a representative of the religion, and any mockery directed
towards him can be seen as an insult to the religion.
d) No, because Section 295A of IPC penalizes acts intended to outrage religious feelings by insulting a religion or
religious beliefs, not individuals associated with the religion.
72. "Indian author, Reya Sharma, released her novel 'The Twisted Faith' that presents a critical and satirical commentary
on religious practices prevalent in India. The book sparked a controversy among the people of Indian origin residing in
a neighbouring country, who follow the same religion and have acquired the citizenship of those countries. They felt
that the novel insults their religion and hurts their religious sentiments. They seek to file a case against Reya Sharma
under Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) alleging that the author intentionally insulted their religion. What
will be the likely outcome of the case if filed in an Indian Court?
a) Yes, Reya Sharma's act of writing and publishing the novel is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because her words
have hurt the religious feelings of people belonging to the same religion residing in a neighboring country.
b) No, Reya Sharma's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because this provision only protects the religious
feelings of Indian citizens.
c) Yes, Reya Sharma's act is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision does not differentiate between
nationalities when it comes to protecting religious sentiments.
d) No, Reya Sharma's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision only penalizes deliberate and
malicious acts intended to outrage religious feelings, which is not evident in Reya's act.
73. Amit, an Indian artist, created a modern art piece titled 'Divine Mockery' which was displayed at an international art
exhibition in Paris. The art piece used iconography and symbols from a dominant religion in India in a manner that was
considered irreverent by some. The artwork sparked outrage among Indian citizens who were attending the exhibition,
who felt that the art piece was a visible representation insulting their religion. They seek to file a case against Amit
under Section 295A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), alleging that the artist intentionally insulted their religion. What will
be the likely outcome of the case if filed in an Indian Court?
a) Yes, Amit's act of creating and displaying the art piece is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because his visible
representation has insulted the religious feelings of Indian citizens.
b) No, Amit's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because this provision only penalizes acts of spoken or
written insult, and a painting doesn't fall under these categories.
c) Yes, Amit's act is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision includes insult by 'visible representation',
which can cover Amit's painting.
d) No, Amit's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision only penalizes deliberate and malicious
acts intended to outrage religious feelings, which is not evident in Amit's act.
74. Following the previous situation, suppose a single Indian citizen, Ravi, who attended the exhibition in Paris felt
personally insulted by Amit's artwork 'Divine Mockery'. He felt that Amit's use of symbols from his religion was an insult
to his personal religious beliefs. Ravi now wants to file a case against Amit under Section 295A of the Indian Penal
Code (IPC), claiming that Amit intentionally insulted his religion through the painting. Will Ravi's claim likely stand in an
Indian Court?
a) Yes, Amit's act is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because it insulted the religious feelings of an Indian citizen,
regardless of the number of individuals insulted.
b) No, Amit's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision penalizes acts intended to outrage
religious feelings of any 'class' of citizens of India, not a single individual.
c) Yes, Amit's act is illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision includes insult or attempts to insult the
religion or the religious beliefs of any citizen, even if it is a single individual.
d) No, Amit's act is not illegal under Section 295A of IPC because the provision requires that the act must be 'deliberate
and malicious', which cannot be established in this case.
Passage 16
I recently saw an advertisement, claiming its product to be No.1. Obviously, the product wasn’t a leader in its segment, yet
the confidence in the eyes of its models was worth appreciation. Not to blame them, they were playing their part, and in a
commendable fashion.
As this stuck in my head, I skimmed through the Trademarks Act, 1999 to see if there was any recourse to such a
representation. The Trade Marks Act, under S. 2 (1)(i) describes false trade description as:
“(I) a trade description which is untrue or misleading in a material respect as regards the goods or services to which it is
applied, or…”
From a further reading of the Act, S. 2(1) (za) defines “trade description means any description, statement or other indication,
direct or indirect,-…
… (ii) as to the standard of quality of any goods or services according to a classification commonly used or recognised in
the trade; or…”
What I am unable to comprehend is, whether the representation of a brand or product as something as staunch as No. 1,
without being backed by proper statistical verification by a government body, is in fact “material” or not?
Further on, the Consumer Protection Act of 1986 defines unfair trade practice as (q)“unfair trade practice" means a trade
practice which, for the purpose of promoting the sale, use or supply of any goods or for the provision of any service, adopts
any unfair method or unfair or deceptive practice including any of the following practices, namely;—
(1) The practice of making any statement, whether orally or in writing or by visible representation which,—
(i) Falsely represents that the goods are of a particular standard, quality, quantity, grade, composition, style or model;…
Indian courts have traditionally allowed advertisers ample leeway when making "puff" statements (i.e., exaggerated claims)
about their products. Even untrue claims about a product are often allowed, with the line being drawn only at disparagement
or slander of another producer or its goods. Until it was repealed by the Competition Act 2002, Section 36A(x) of the
Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1984 provided a basis upon which a claim could be made against
disparagement of goods. Section 36A(x) limited comparative advertising by recognising that the publishing of any misleading
or disparaging facts about a competitor’s goods or services amounted to "unfair trade practice".
One case, however, has marked a significant departure from the traditional approach to commercial puffery (where there is
no disparagement). In Colgate-Palmolive (India) Limited v Anchor Health & Beauty Care Private Limited (Case (2008) 7
MLJ 1119) a judge at the High Court of Madras held that false claims by traders about the superiority of their products,
either directly or by comparing them against the products of their rivals, were not permissible.
75. In November 2022, MegaSoft, a major software company, released a new operating system, claiming that it "uses
advanced AI algorithms to enhance system performance by 200% compared to previous versions." The product gained
massive popularity, and sales soared. However, independent tech experts revealed that the system performance
enhancement was only 50% better than previous versions, not 200% as MegaSoft had advertised.
Many customers felt deceived and reported MegaSoft to the authorities. The government issued a notice to MegaSoft
under the Trade Marks Act, S. 2 (1)(i) and (za), stating that the company's claim was a "false trade description" as it
was misleading in a material respect regarding the quality and standard of their product.
MegaSoft appealed against this notice, arguing that the 200% performance increase was not solely based on system
speed but also considered other performance indicators such as stability, usability, and security, which were generally
understood and recognized in the trade. The matter is now before the court.
What will the Court decide?
a) Yes, MegaSoft's claim is legal under the Trade Marks Act because the performance increase can be subjective and
based on a multitude of factors.
b) No, MegaSoft's claim is not legal under the Trade Marks Act because it misled customers with an incorrect
percentage increase in system performance.
c) Yes, MegaSoft's claim is legal because the standards of quality according to a classification commonly used or
recognized in the trade are not solely based on speed enhancement.
d) No, MegaSoft's claim is not legal because it constitutes a false trade description as per the Trade Marks Act.
76. In January 2023, SnackCrunch, a renowned snacks company, launched a new variety of chips, "SnackCrunch Ultra
Crispy". In their advertising campaign, SnackCrunch claimed that their Ultra Crispy chips were "100% crispier than the
leading competitor's chips." The marketing campaign proved successful, and the product's sales escalated quickly.
Subsequently, ChipDelight, the leading competitor, challenged SnackCrunch's claim. Independent food experts
conducted tests and confirmed that SnackCrunch's Ultra Crispy chips were indeed 100% crispier than ChipDelight's
chips.
Despite this, ChipDelight filed a case against SnackCrunch citing the ruling in Colgate-Palmolive (India) Limited v
Anchor Health & Beauty Care Private Limited (Case (2008) 7 MLJ 1119), arguing that SnackCrunch's claim about the
superiority of their product by comparing it with their rival's product was not permissible.
What will the Court decide?
a) Yes, SnackCrunch's claim is legal because it is true, and they are not making a false claim of superiority over
ChipDelight's product.
b) No, SnackCrunch's claim is not legal because it is a claim of superiority over ChipDelight's product, contrary to the
ruling in Colgate-Palmolive (India) Limited v Anchor Health & Beauty Care Private Limited.
c) Yes, SnackCrunch's claim is legal because they have substantiated their claim with independent food experts' tests.
d) No, SnackCrunch's claim is not legal because even if their product was crispier than ChipDelight's chips, the claim
could be construed as disparaging to ChipDelight's product.
77. QuickFix, a popular automobile servicing company, launched an advertising campaign promoting their new "Platinum
Service Package". The campaign stated that the Platinum Service Package included "a complete car servicing using
only premium parts, ensuring a 20% increase in your car's overall performance."
After seeing the advertisement, Rahul opted for the Platinum Service Package. However, after the service, he didn't
notice any significant change in his car's performance. He decided to investigate and found out that QuickFix had used
standard parts, not premium ones as claimed in the advertisement. Feeling deceived, Rahul reported QuickFix to the
consumer court, citing that QuickFix had falsely represented the quality of the service in their advertising, which
according to the Consumer Protection Act of 1986, constitutes an unfair trade practice.
QuickFix argued that the "20% increase in overall performance" was subjective and dependent on the car's pre-service
condition, making their advertisement claim permissible.
What will the court decide?
a) Yes, QuickFix's advertisement is legal because the claim of a "20% increase in overall performance" can be
subjective and dependent on the car's pre-service condition.
b) No, QuickFix's advertisement is not legal because it falsely represented that only premium parts would be used in
the service, which was not done.
c) Yes, QuickFix's advertisement is legal because they did provide a complete car service as claimed in their
advertisement.
d) No, QuickFix's advertisement is not legal because their claim of using only premium parts and a resultant "20%
increase in overall performance" was deceptive and constitutes an unfair trade practice.
78. Assuming in the previous question that QuickFix did use premium parts as stated in their advertisement, but after the
service, Rahul still didn't notice any significant change in his car's performance. Feeling that he didn't receive the
promised "20% increase in overall performance," Rahul again reported QuickFix to the consumer court, citing that
QuickFix had falsely represented the quality of the service in their advertising, which according to the Consumer
Protection Act of 1986, constitutes an unfair trade practice.
QuickFix again argued that the "20% increase in overall performance" was subjective and dependent on the car's pre-
service condition, making their advertisement claim permissible.
a) Yes, QuickFix's advertisement is legal because the claim of a "20% increase in overall performance" can be
subjective and dependent on the car's pre-service condition.
b) No, QuickFix's advertisement is not legal because it promised a "20% increase in overall performance" which was
not delivered.
c) Yes, QuickFix's advertisement is legal because they did provide a complete car service with premium parts as
claimed in their advertisement.
d) No, QuickFix's advertisement is not legal because their claim of a "20% increase in overall performance" was
deceptive and constitutes an unfair trade practice.
79. DrinkRight, a health drink manufacturing company, launched an advertising campaign stating "DrinkRight - the No. 1
health drink in India". This claim was not backed by any statistical verification from a government body or independent
market research organization. A competing company, HealthBoost, felt that the claim was misleading and lodged a
complaint against DrinkRight under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986, stating that DrinkRight's claim of being the
"No. 1 health drink" falsely represented their product's status in the market, thereby constituting an unfair trade practice.
DrinkRight, however, argued that their claim was a mere "puff" statement, a subjective expression of their belief in their
product, and did not amount to disparagement or slander of any other brand or product.
a) Yes, DrinkRight's advertisement is legal because their claim of being the "No. 1 health drink" is a puff statement
and does not disparage or slander any other brand or product.
b) No, DrinkRight's advertisement is not legal because it falsely represents their product as the "No. 1 health drink" in
India, which is not backed by any statistical verification and hence amounts to an unfair trade practice.
c) Yes, DrinkRight's advertisement is legal because the claim of being the "No. 1 health drink" is a subjective belief
and does not necessarily need to be backed by statistical verification.
d) No, DrinkRight's advertisement is not legal because it falsely claims their product to be the "No. 1 health drink" in
India, thereby potentially misleading the consumers.
Passage 17
A counterfeit coin has not been defined anywhere in the Indian Penal Code. However, according to Section 28 of the British
Forgery and Counterfeiting Act, 1981; a counterfeit coin means a coin without genuineness, but resembling or is apparently
intended to resemble so as to get passed for a genuine or current coin, which has been –
● Gilt, or
● Severed, or
● Washed, or
● Colored or cast over, or
● Altered in any manner for resembling any current coin of higher denomination.
According to Section 231, anyone counterfeiting or knowingly participating in the counterfeiting process, shall be punishable
with either rigorous or simple imprisonment extending up to 7 years accompanied by fine.
A person intending to practice deception or knowing that it will cause deception, if he causes a genuine coin to resemble a
different coin, then he shall be deemed to commit the offence of counterfeiting of coins.
The offence under this section is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable, and triable by a 1st Class Magistrate.
Counterfeiting Indian coin
According to Section 232 of the Indian Penal Code, anybody in relation to the Indian coin-
● Counterfeits; or
● Knowingly participates in any part of the counterfeiting process;
Shall be punishable life imprisonment or for a term extending up to 10 years accompanied by fine.
Thus following are the ingredients under this section:
1. Counterfeiting of Indian Coin;
2. The accused deliberately counterfeited the coin or participated in the counterfeiting process.
Making or selling instrument for counterfeiting coin
According to Section 233 of the IPC; punishes anyone who is involved in-
● Making or mending or performing any process related to making or mending; or
● Buying or selling or disposing of any die or instrument;
for the purpose of counterfeiting coin, shall be punishable with either rigorous or simple imprisonment extending up to 3
years accompanied by fine.
According to Section 234; whoever-
● Makes or mends or participates in making or mending; or
● Buys, or sell, or disposes of any die or instrument;
● Knowing or having reasons to believe that it is intended it is intended to be used for counterfeiting coin.
For the purpose of counterfeiting Indian coin, shall be punishable with either rigorous or simple imprisonment extending up
to 7 years accompanied by fine.
This offence is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable, and triable by the Sessions court.
According to Section 235; if anyone is in possession of any instrument or material, either purporting to counterfeit coin or
being aware that such instrument or material shall be used for counterfeiting coin, shall be liable for being punished with
either rigorous or simple imprisonment extending up to 3 years accompanied by fine.
Abetting in India the counterfeiting out of India of a coin

According to Section 236; any person who while residing within the Indian territory abets the counterfeiting of coins outside
the Indian territory shall be punishable in the same manner if such counterfeit was committed in India.
Thus, this section has the following ingredients –
1. The accused abetted the counterfeiting of the coin ;
2. Such counterfeiting occurred outside India;
3. The accused was within the Indian Territory during such counterfeit.
80. Ravi, an Indian resident, knowingly sells a machine to Shyam, who resides in Nepal. Ravi is aware that Shyam intends
to use the machine to counterfeit Indian coins in Nepal. Upon learning about this transaction, the Indian authorities
apprehend Ravi. Can Ravi be held liable for his actions under the Indian Penal Code?
a) Yes, since Ravi knowingly sold the machine to be used for counterfeiting Indian coins.
b) No, since the act of counterfeiting is taking place outside India.
c) Yes, since Ravi abetted the counterfeiting of coins, even though it's happening outside India.
d) No, since Ravi only sold the machine, he did not directly participate in the counterfeiting process.
81. Aditi found an old coin while cleaning her grandfather's storage. This coin looked exactly like the current Indian coin of
higher denomination but it was slightly lighter. Excited by her discovery, Aditi decided to use the coin in a grocery store.
When she did, the grocery store owner identified it as a counterfeit coin and reported her to the police. Aditi was
arrested for using counterfeit coin. Can Aditi be held liable for counterfeiting under Section 231 of the IPC?
a) Yes, because Aditi used the counterfeit coin knowingly.
b) No, because Aditi was not aware that the coin was counterfeit.
c) Yes, because the act of using counterfeit coin is punishable under Section 231 of the IPC.
d) No, because Aditi did not participate in the counterfeiting process.
82. Mohit is a mechanic who works in a small roadside garage. One day, a stranger, named Vicky, came to him with a
piece of metal and asked him to mold it into a shape similar to an Indian coin. Being innocent, Mohit didn't realize that
it was a part of a counterfeiting process, and he just did what he was asked. Later, the police caught Vicky using those
coins, and during the investigation, they found out about Mohit's involvement in the process. Now, Mohit is worried if
he will be held liable under Section 232 of the IPC.
Can Mohit be held liable under Section 232 of the Indian Penal Code for his act of molding the metal into a shape
similar to an Indian coin?
a) Yes, because Mohit's act of molding the metal into a coin shape contributed to the counterfeiting process.
b) No, because Mohit was unaware of the intention behind the request to mold the metal into a coin shape.
c) Yes, because ignorance of the law is not an excuse, and Mohit should have realized the potential illegal use of his
action.
d) No, because Mohit neither counterfeited the coin nor did he knowingly participate in the counterfeiting process.
83. Ram is a small-time mechanic who fixes and sells old machinery. One day, a stranger approached him with an unusual
device, claiming it's an old coin press. The stranger asked Ram to fix it, without telling him what the device was used
for. Ram agreed, fixed the device, and returned it. Later, it was discovered that the stranger was using the device to
counterfeit coins. Ram had no knowledge about the stranger's illegal activities or the purpose of the device. Can Ram
be held liable under Section 233 of the IPC for repairing the coin press machine used for counterfeiting coins?
a) Yes, because Ram repaired a machine that was used for counterfeiting coins.
b) No, because Ram had no knowledge that the machine he repaired was used for counterfeiting coins.
c) Yes, because ignorance of the purpose of the machine is not an excuse under Section 233 of the IPC.
d) No, because Ram was only involved in repairing the machine, not in the process of counterfeiting coins.
84. An Indian resident, Mohan, convinces his friend, Kevin, who lives in Singapore, to start a counterfeiting operation there.
Mohan provides Kevin with the necessary knowledge and resources, but he does not directly participate in the
counterfeiting process. The Singaporean authorities catch Kevin and he reveals Mohan's involvement. Based on the
facts given above, can Mohan be held liable under Section 236 of the Indian Penal Code for abetting the counterfeiting
of coins outside India?
a) Yes, because Mohan provided Kevin with the necessary knowledge and resources to counterfeit coins.
b) No, because Mohan did not directly participate in the counterfeiting operation.
c) Yes, because Mohan was in Indian Territory while he abetted the counterfeiting.
d) No, because the counterfeiting operation took place outside India.
LOGICAL REASONING
Passage 18
The article titled "Judicial Review of Congressional Fact-finding" discusses the role of the judiciary in reviewing the fact-
finding process of the Congress. It begins by acknowledging that the Congress, as part of its legislative function, often
engages in fact-finding to inform its policy decisions. This fact-finding process is crucial in shaping the laws that the Congress
enacts.
However, the article raises questions about the extent to which the judiciary should review the fact-finding process of the
Congress. It notes that while the judiciary has a role in ensuring that the legislative process is conducted in accordance with
the Constitution, it must also respect the separation of powers and avoid encroaching on the legislative function of the
Congress.
The article suggests that the judiciary should adopt a deferential approach when reviewing the fact-finding process of the
Congress. This means that the courts should not second-guess the factual determinations made by the Congress, unless
there is clear evidence of arbitrariness or irrationality.
The article further argues that this deferential approach is consistent with the constitutional role of the judiciary. It notes that
the Constitution entrusts the Congress with the power to make laws, which necessarily involves the power to determine the
facts upon which these laws are based. Therefore, the judiciary should respect this constitutional allocation of powers and
refrain from interfering with the fact-finding process of the Congress.
Finally, the article acknowledges that this deferential approach may not always lead to perfect outcomes. However, it argues
that this is a necessary trade-off to maintain the balance of powers between the different branches of government. It
concludes by calling for further research and discussion on this important issue.
85. Based on the author's argument in the passage, which of the following postulates is the author most likely to endorse?
a) The judiciary should actively scrutinize the legislative fact-finding process for any potential flaws or biases.
b) The role of the judiciary should be restricted to interpreting laws and should not interfere with the legislative process.
c) The judiciary should adopt a deferential approach towards the legislative fact-finding process, intervening only in
cases of clear arbitrariness or irrationality.
d) The fact-finding process of the Congress is infallible and need not be subjected to judicial review.
86. In the context of the passage, which of the following scenarios would the author deem as appropriate judicial
intervention in the legislative fact-finding process?
a) The Congress cites outdated data in forming a policy on internet regulation.
b) The Congress relies on a single study to legislate on a complex issue such as climate change.
c) The Congress conducts an extensive review of multiple studies but arrives at a controversial decision regarding
gun control.
d) The Congress disregards a wide consensus in scientific research while drafting a policy on public health.
87. Which of the following scenarios, if true, would most significantly undermine the author's arguments?
a) The fact-finding process of the Congress consistently leads to flawed policies due to systemic bias.
b) The deferential approach of the judiciary has resulted in numerous court cases challenging the constitutionality of
legislative decisions.
c) The judiciary has demonstrated an ability to engage in fact-finding that is more thorough and unbiased than that of
the Congress.
d) There is widespread public dissatisfaction with the deferential approach of the judiciary towards the legislative fact-
finding process.
88. Based on the passage, which of the following, if true, would most fortify the author’s argument for a deferential approach
by the judiciary?
a) The judiciary has consistently struggled to fully understand the complexity of certain policy areas due to its lack of
specialized knowledge.
b) Public opinion polls show high levels of trust in the Congress's ability to enact appropriate legislation.
c) The fact-finding process of the Congress is regularly updated to incorporate the latest research and data.
d) The judiciary's intervention in the fact-finding process has historically led to a decrease in the efficiency of the
legislative process.
89. In light of the author's arguments, which of the following assumptions is fundamentally necessary for the
implementation of a deferential approach by the judiciary towards Congressional fact-finding?
a) The judiciary is inherently less capable than Congress in effectively conducting the fact-finding process related to
legislative decisions.
b) The fact-finding process conducted by the Congress always yields accurate and unbiased results.
c) Judicial intervention in Congressional fact-finding has a notable history of causing legislative inefficiencies and
procedural delays.
d) The public generally exhibits a high level of trust in the ability of the Congress to carry out appropriate and effective
fact-finding.
90. Given the arguments presented by the author, which of the following assertions, if substantiated, would reinforce the
rationale for a deferential approach by the judiciary towards Congressional fact-finding?
a) A considerable number of legislative decisions are successfully challenged in court on the grounds of factual
inaccuracies.
b) The Congressional fact-finding process is consistently more comprehensive and robust than similar processes in
the judiciary.
c) There is significant public outcry against the perceived encroachment of the judiciary on the legislative function of
the Congress.
d) Empirical studies show that legislative processes that are subject to intense judicial scrutiny often lead to gridlocked
legislations.
Passage 19
Natural law “still spooks many constitutional lawyers.” Justice Scalia, for example, was once asked: “Does natural law have
a place in interpreting the Constitution?” He perfunctorily responded: “No.” Justice Thomas has similarly explained that,
while natural law served as a “background in our Declaration” and helped “form our Constitution,” it does not have “an
appropriate role directly in constitutional adjudication.” And recent confirmation hearings have abounded with pledges never
to impose “personal convictions” upon the law, lest the judicial hopeful be maligned for her brazen willingness to exercise
moral judgment. Yet this rejection of natural law is a fairly modern development. Throughout American history, lawyers and
judges operated within the classical legal tradition, routinely relying on natural law until it began to fall out of fashion in the
late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries.
For twenty-eight years, the smoke of the natural law entered the U.S. Supreme Court via an unlikely champion: Justice
Breyer. Justice Breyer’s retirement thus represented a loss for the natural law tradition. For many, though, the claim that
Justice Breyer was a natural lawyer may seem counterintuitive. He was regarded, after all, as the quintessential “pragmatic
liberal,” often supporting outcomes favored by the political left on fiercely contested issues like abortion, capital punishment,
and race relations. The term “natural law,” by contrast, almost immediately evokes political conservatism, with many people
today “think of natural law as a set of Christian doctrines” that “tends to yield conservative outcomes.” This view, however,
is simply a misconception. Under a more accurate understanding of natural law and the classical legal tradition, several
features of Justice Breyer’s jurisprudence render him a natural lawyer.
91. Which of the following assertions would the author most likely concur with?
a) The modern rejection of natural law in constitutional law is a positive development, aiding in the elimination of
personal bias in legal adjudication.
b) The influence of natural law in the interpretation of the Constitution is an antiquated practice that holds no relevance
in contemporary jurisprudence.
c) The relevance of natural law in constitutional law, while it has diminished over time, remains an essential component
of legal interpretation as seen in Justice Breyer's jurisprudence.
d) The application of natural law in constitutional interpretation always yields conservative outcomes, reinforcing
Christian doctrines.
92. Which of the following, if true, would most undermine the author's arguments?
a) Justice Breyer, despite his jurisprudential tendencies, categorically rejected the application of natural law in his legal
interpretations.
b) The classical legal tradition holds no historical ties with the concept of natural law.
c) Justice Breyer's jurisprudence reflects a clear adherence to positive law rather than natural law.
d) The contemporary understanding of natural law is exclusively tied to conservative Christian doctrines.
93. Based on the author's contentions, which of the following would contribute to the effective revitalization of natural law
in constitutional adjudication?
a) Encouraging justices to bring their personal convictions more prominently into the courtroom.
b) Exemplifying a jurisprudential approach in line with Justice Breyer, integrating aspects of natural law within a
pragmatic liberal stance.
c) Stressing on the alignment of natural law with political conservatism and Christian doctrines.
d) Omitting the use of natural law in constitutional interpretation and strictly adhering to statutory law.
94. Considering the author's viewpoints, which of the following, if valid, would undermine rather than bolster the significance
of natural law in the Supreme Court's constitutional interpretation?
a) Justices following the classical legal tradition have historically proven to be biased and unreliable in their
adjudication.
b) The inclusion of natural law in the interpretation process has led to inconsistencies and confusion in the court's
rulings.
c) The practice of natural law is best exemplified in the jurisprudence of politically conservative justices, reflecting
Christian doctrines.
d) Justices focusing on statutory laws over natural law have managed to deliver more balanced and universally
accepted verdicts.
95. Contemplating the author's assertions, what could be the potential implications if natural law were not traditionally tied
to political conservatism as a societal construct?
a) The shift would have negligible effect on the perception of natural law in constitutional adjudication.
b) Justices like Breyer might be more widely recognized for their contributions to the natural law tradition.
c) The application of natural law in constitutional interpretation would be more universally accepted.
d) The Supreme Court's reliance on natural law would diminish significantly as it would lack political leverage.
96. According to the author's insights, how could constitutional adjudication be adapted to accommodate natural law
without leading to the imposition of "personal convictions" by justices?
a) Encouraging justices to strictly follow the historical understanding of natural law.
b) Emulating the jurisprudential approach of Justice Breyer, who maintained a pragmatic liberal stance while
incorporating natural law.
c) Ensuring the rejection of natural law in favor of modern constitutional interpretations.
d) Making constitutional interpretations solely reliant on statutory laws and legal precedents.
Passage 20
Imagine that a single act by a federal agency — without notice-and-comment rulemaking — caused billions in losses,
millions of layoffs, and a financial crisis by interpreting ambiguous language in a statute to act in a novel way. Last Term, in
West Virginia v. EPA, the Court condemned this type of agency action. Expounding on the major questions doctrine, it held
that agency actions of “economic and political significance” require clear congressional authorization. In March 2023, the
Federal Reserve (Fed) raised the target federal funds rate to 4.75–5.00% with two tools: the interest on reserve balances
(IORB) and the overnight reverse repo facility (RRP). Congress explicitly authorized the IORB, but not the RRP. By citing
the Federal Reserve Act for the RRP, the Fed has plausibly raised a major questions issue. That issue introduces a major
problem: the doctrine asks courts to either faithfully apply the doctrine with catastrophic outcomes or dilute it into an
amorphous standard that casts too much agency action into doubt.
In 1913, the Federal Reserve Act created the Fed as the central bank of the United States; its goal was to avoid financial
panics after decades of instability. The Federal Reserve Reform Act of 1977 formalized the Fed’s mandate as targeting
“maximum employment, stable prices, and moderate long-term interest rates.” Today, the Fed targets these goals by
adjusting the IORB and the RRP to hit a 2% inflation rate. When the Fed sets these two rates above 0%, it pays firms to
keep cash risk-free at the Fed. This raises the opportunity cost of lending to riskier private parties. Why offer a mortgage at
4.75% interest with repayment risk when the Fed pays 4.75% risk-free? Firms with access to the Fed will lend only if they
can earn more than these Fed-set rates. As a result, the Fed affects rates for mortgages, credit cards, and other debts.
97. Taking into account the author's perspective, which of the following statements would they be more inclined to agree
with?
a) Raising the federal funds rate to 4.75–5.00% has caused a balanced economic impact on all industries.
b) The Fed's decision to raise the federal funds rate without clear congressional authorization has not introduced a
significant legal problem.
c) The Fed's decision to raise the federal funds rate using the RRP tool may introduce significant legal implications.
d) The IORB and RRP tools used by the Fed do not significantly influence the risk associated with private lending.
98. Which of the following can be inferred from the author's discussion of the Federal Reserve's dual mandate?
a) The IORB and RRP are ineffective tools for maintaining stable prices and maximum employment.
b) The Federal Reserve's role in avoiding financial panics has been diminished due to modern economic complexities.
c) The Federal Reserve's application of the IORB and RRP directly influences interest rates and market lending
behaviors.
d) The Federal Reserve's actions often undermine the goal of moderate long-term interest rates.
99. Given the information in the passage, which of the following assertions must necessarily hold true?
a) Any action by the Federal Reserve is immune from legal scrutiny, provided it aligns with the mandate outlined in the
Federal Reserve Reform Act of 1977.
b) A raise in the target federal funds rate to 4.75–5.00% would invariably stimulate economic growth and employment.
c) Any tool utilized by the Federal Reserve to manage the federal funds rate must be explicitly authorized by Congress
to avoid legal repercussions.
d) The adjustment of the IORB and RRP by the Fed always ensures maximum employment and stable prices.
100. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the passage's suggestion that the Fed's rate
adjustments influence market lending behaviors?
a) There is a federal regulation that guarantees a minimum return on private lending, irrespective of the federal funds
rate.
b) Most firms prefer to lend at higher risks rather than keeping their cash risk-free at the Fed.
c) Firms with access to the Fed often lend at lower rates than the Fed-set rates due to market competition.
d) The Fed's rate adjustments have minimal impact on the behavior of foreign investors in the U.S. market.
101. Which of the following, if validated, would resolve the 'paradox' the author suggests federal agencies confront due to
the major questions doctrine?
a) The introduction of a clearly defined set of criteria to classify an action as having "economic and political
significance."
b) The Federal Reserve acquiring explicit congressional authorization for all its monetary policy tools, thereby avoiding
future legal disputes.
c) The courts adopting a consistent interpretive method to handle ambiguous language in statutes.
d) Agencies becoming more proactive in utilizing the notice-and-comment rulemaking process before taking significant
action.
102. Assuming the goal of the Federal Reserve's rate adjustments is to control inflation and achieve economic stability,
which of the following would be the strongest argument that such adjustments might not attain the desired outcomes?
a) The adjustments to IORB and RRP primarily impact financial institutions and have a limited direct effect on the
consumer lending market.
b) The communication of these adjustments to the wider financial market is often cloaked in technical language,
causing misunderstanding and miscalculation.
c) The effectiveness of these adjustments is dependent on external economic factors such as unemployment rates
and GDP growth, which are often unpredictable.
d) The adjustments fail to consider the growing influence of cryptocurrencies and other alternative financial systems
that are less susceptible to traditional monetary policy.
Passage 21
The federal drug-conspiracy statute, 21 U.S.C. § 846, punishes an individual who merely agrees to commit a drug crime as
if she committed the underlying crime. In the case of a drug transaction, a strictly textual reading of § 846 could punish a
buyer as if she were a seller, since she agreed to distribute the seller’s drugs — to herself. To shield people who use drugs
from § 846 conspiracy liability, courts created the buyer-seller exception, known more generally as the Gebardi rule. The
exception holds people who buy drugs for personal use liable only for possessing the drugs they bought, not for agreeing
to distribute their dealers’ drugs. However, the circuits are divided on whether that exception also protects drug dealers who
buy from large-scale suppliers. Recently, in United States v. Goliday, the Seventh Circuit held that a trial court committed
plain error when it allowed a drug dealer to plead guilty to conspiracy to distribute controlled substances based on
transactions with his supplier without meeting two requirements. First, the record must show some additional factor
indicating agreement beyond repeated, large-scale transactions. Second, the defendant must understand the conspiracy
charge. By requiring an additional factor to accept a dealer-supplier conspiracy plea, Goliday reduces prosecutors’ leverage
against those accused of participating in the drug trade. But the extent of Goliday’s effect depends on its implementation by
prosecutors, judges, and defense attorneys.
On September 27, 2018, Indianapolis police officers and federal Drug Enforcement Agency agents searched Thomas Lee
Goliday’s residence, where they found a handgun and drugs. Goliday arrived during the search. After “waiv[ing] his Miranda
rights,” he confessed that the drugs in his house were his. “Apparently . . . in hopes of obtaining more lenient treatment,” he
further volunteered that he received two ounces of heroin each week from a supplier. Based on this statement, Goliday was
ultimately charged — among other drug-related charges — with conspiracy to possess with intent to distribute at least 1000
grams of heroin under § 846.
103. In the context of United States v. Goliday, which legal implication could be inferred from the Seventh Circuit's decision?
a) The decision mitigates the prosecutorial power against individuals involved in drug transactions.
b) The decision significantly strengthens the Gebardi rule.
c) The decision undermines the buyer-seller exception by reinterpreting the Gebardi rule.
d) The decision introduces a new category of drug-related crime.
104. What are the primary prerequisites established by the Seventh Circuit's ruling for a defendant to plead guilty to a drug-
dealing conspiracy charge?
a) Understanding of the drug-trade dynamics and history of past convictions.
b) Proof of intent to distribute and confession to law enforcement agencies.
c) Evidence of additional factors indicating an agreement and comprehension of the conspiracy charge.
d) Compliance with Miranda rights and evidence of substantial drug transactions.
105. How might the impact of the Seventh Circuit's ruling in United States v. Goliday vary based on its interpretation by
different legal entities?
a) Depending on the extent to which the ruling is applied, it could render drug trafficking laws redundant.
b) Depending on the varying interpretations by prosecutors, judges, and defense attorneys, the full effect of Goliday’s
ruling might be obscured or amplified.
c) The ruling might inadvertently boost illicit drug transactions due to a decrease in prosecutorial leverage.
d) The application of the ruling will remain static regardless of interpretation by different entities due to its clear
guidelines.
106. What can be inferred from the Seventh Circuit's approach to the interpretation of § 846 in the context of dealer-supplier
transactions in United States v. Goliday?
a) It confirms that the textual interpretation of § 846 should be upheld even in the context of dealer-supplier
transactions.
b) It insinuates that the buyer-seller exception, or Gebardi rule, is irrelevant when it comes to dealer-supplier
transactions.
c) It suggests that the strict application of § 846 can lead to potential legal anomalies, hence the need for an exception.
d) It concludes that drug dealers who buy from large-scale suppliers are completely immune from conspiracy charges
under § 846.
107. What significant disclosure made by Thomas Lee Goliday during his confession led to him being charged with
conspiracy to possess with intent to distribute a significant quantity of heroin under § 846?
a) Goliday's confession to possessing a handgun found in his residence.
b) Goliday's voluntary information about receiving two ounces of heroin each week from a supplier.
c) Goliday's waiver of his Miranda rights during the search.
d) The discovery of drugs at Goliday's residence during the police search.
108. What is the direct legal consequence of the Gebardi rule or buyer-seller exception as applied in drug cases, according
to the text?
a) It creates a new category of drug-related crimes that distinguishes between buyers and sellers.
b) It protects drug users from conspiracy liability under § 846, holding them liable only for possession.
c) It exempts drug dealers who buy from large-scale suppliers from any legal liability.
d) It expands the scope of § 846 to include conspiracy to possess with intent to distribute drugs.
QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q. No. 109 – 112): Paragraph given below gives information of income, expenditure and saving of three
friends, read the paragraph carefully and answer the following questions.
The friends Deepak, Ankit and Shivam spent money in ratio 2:5:3 and ratio of saving of Deepak to Shivam and income of
Ankit to Shivam is 10:7 and 3:2 respectively. Ankit’s saving is 100% more than his expenditure and average saving of
Shivam and Ankit is Rs. 8500. (Income = Expenditure + Saving)
109. If income and expenditure of Deepak is increased by 10% and 20%, find percentage increase in his saving?
a) 10% increase b) 8% increase c) 4% increase d) 1% increase
110. Expenditure of Shivam is what percent of his income?
a) 20% b) 60% c) 30% d) 15%
111. What is the ratio of average saving of Deepak and Ankit to income of Shivam?
a) 1:2 b) 2:3 c) 3:1 d) 1:1
112. If Ankit spent 15% of his income on rent and 35% of his expenditure on food and rest he spent on other expenses,
find how much he spent on other expense?
a) Rs. 1000 b) Rs. 1750 c) Rs. 2250 d) Rs. 1500
Directions (Q. No. 113 – 116): Study the given passage carefully and answer the questions.
Six students A, B, C, D, E and F participated in a test of 200 marks. C scored 50% marks which are 25% higher than that
of E. Ratio of marks obtained by A, B and F is 12 : 8 : 9 respectively. D scored 62.5% more marks than E who scored
same marks as B.
113. Who scored highest marks among 6 students?
a) C b) A c) D d) F
114. If passing marks is 40% of maximum marks then marks scored by D are what percent more than the passing marks?
a) 62.5% b) 66.67% c) 75% d) 57.5%
115. What is ratio of marks obtained by B, D and F?
a) 9 : 13 : 8 b) 9 : 8 : 13 c) 8 : 9 : 13 d) 8 :13 : 9
116. What is average marks obtained by all 6 students?
a) 120 b) 100 c) 150 d) 60
Directions (Q. No. 117 – 120): Study the passage given below and answer the following questions.
There are 4 schools – P, Q, R & S. Boys in R are 5% more than boys in P and ratio of boys in Q to that of in S is 3 : 2. In
P, boys and girls are equal and in R, boys are 100% more than girls. Girls in Q are 76 less than girls in P. Ratio of girls in
Q to that of in S is 3 : 2. Average number of girls in Q, R & S is 250. Total students in Q are 180 more than total students
in S.
117. Girls in Q & S together are what percent more or less than boys in P?
a) 55% b) 35% c) 45% d) 40%
118. Total students in P & S together are how much more or less than total students in Q & R together?
a) 70 b) 90 c) 10 d) 120
119. Boys in Q & S together are what percent of total students in P?
a) 30% b) 45% c) 50% d) 65%
120. Find ratio of average number of boys in Q, R & S to total students in Q.
a) 4 : 7 b) 1 : 6 c) 11 : 16 d) 13 : 27
Space For Rough Work
Space For Rough Work
DAILY HINDU OVERVIEW

In this competitive world, the demand for "authentic Current Affairs updates" from a reliable source has
been increasing for the past few years, with the growth of awareness and aspirants' educational goals.
Keeping this in mind, Success Mantra Smart Coaching, via its YouTube Channel ‘Success Mantra Digital’,
aims to make ‘The Hindu Newspaper Overview Session’ accessible to everyone and everywhere across the
platform. It offers the latest important news with a minute update, especially for aspirants who are
preparing for their dream entrance exams like CLAT, AILET, CUET, DU-LLB, MH-CET, IPU-CET, NCHM and
many more.
Watch the Hindu Daily News Analysis today for educational purposes only like CLAT, AILET, CUET, DU-LLB,
NLSAT, MH-CET, IPU-CET, NCHM and all major government Examination. You can easily download the
Hindu Pdf News Analysis, daily by 5 PM, on our Telegram Channel (Link Is given below).
SOCIAL MEDIA
👉Feel free to follow us at the links below:
👉Facebook: https://www.facebook.com/successmantradigital
👉Instagram: https://www.instagram.com/success_mantra_digital
👉Telegram Channel: https://t.me/successmantradigital
👉Success Mantra Website: www.successmantra.in | www.easevidya.com
Wishes you all the best!!

Clat Mock 04

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Clat Mock 04

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

www.successmantra.

Test Booklet Test Booklet Series

CLAT MOCK - 04 FLTCT04

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

SUBJECT Q. Nos. Page No.

English Language 1 – 24 3-9

Current Affairs And General Knowledge 25 – 52 9 – 11

Logical Reasoning 85 – 108 24 - 29

Quantitative Techniques 109 – 120 29 - 29

CURRENT AFFAIRS AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Abetting in India the counterfeiting out of India of a coin

Space For Rough Work

Space For Rough Work

DAILY HINDU OVERVIEW

You might also like