All India Open Mock Clat 06 (Clat 38) 5753815

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK CLAT 06 (CLAT 38)
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120
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1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
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(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
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has to be detached and taken by the 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
candidates. shading the circles. Indicate only the most
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question
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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for
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replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. k appropriate answer by shading from the
options provided. The answer circle should be
shaded completely without leaving any space.
for a fresh booklet so obtained.
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Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
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3. Candidates will not be given a second blank to take necessary precautions before marking
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. the appropriate circle.
carefully.
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Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be

sought on the Questions Paper
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is
13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
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examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
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8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
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Programme is for 120 marks containing 120tr-5K7H5H 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
tr-multiple 8U1S5N Questions.
5Q7R5U3SChoice Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for.
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where candidates have marked more than one tr-5Q7R5U3S8U1S
response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-51 10
Legal Reasoning 52-83 16
Logical Reasoning 84-108 28
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 36
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.4): Once the Portuguese had established themselves in power in Goa, they set about ensuring
that the indigenous people adhered to Portuguese religious beliefs. After an initial period of indifference, the
arrival of Christian missionaries led to a mandate that all Hindu temples be closed in 1541. Subsequently, by
1559 over 350 temples had been destroyed and private idol worship was banned. When Francis Xavier, th e
infamous missionary, demanded the setting up of the Goa Inquisition, a religious tribunal for suppression of
heresy and punishment of heretics, things rapidly deteriorated for Jews, Hindus, and others accused of being
non-believers. The dreaded Inquisition had already left its bloody footprint in Spain, where it was established
in 1478 and was abolished in 1834. Set up in Goa in 1560; it was the age when the power of life and death
of ordinary people lay in the hands of Christian priests. Through brutal torture, people were required to pass
the ‘auto-da-fe’ by being stretched out on the rack or being burnt at the stake.
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This has been documented in the historical bestseller, Guardian of the Dawn, by Richard Zimler, who called
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it the “machinery of death.” A particularly effective method of coercing people was dismembering children
limb by limb in front of their parents, whose eyes were taped open till they agreed to convert.
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The most tragic fate fell on the Jews who had settled in India. Many had been compe lled to flee Spain’s
bloody persecution of the Jews to Portugal, where they had assumed new identities as Christians though they
secretly practiced their faith. When the Inquisition came to Portugal, Jews found themselves in danger again,
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and many fled to India to rebuild their lives though they still took care to hide their identities under the guise
of practising Christians. But the Goan Inquisition again placed them in harm’s way.
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In Old Goa, the palace of Adil Shah was converted into an Inquisition House, where a wooden table, overseen
by a crucifix, was where the dreaded interrogators sat to interrogate the accused. Many Hindus fled with their
deities across the Goan border to Ponda, where they built new temples. Ponda is today known as the Temple
Inquisition prisons.
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Town. The faintest suspicion of heresy, such as being in possession of a small idol or whispering a Hebrew
prayer over the grave of a loved one, was enough for the clergy to arrest people and torture them in special
After being arrested and tortured in dungeons, so-called heretics were kept in shackles by priests to make
them divulge names of friends and family who had been party to their ‘heretical’ practices. Prisoners who
refused to confess or give up their beliefs in Hindu or Jewish ‘sorcery’ were strangled by executioners or
burnt alive in public Acts of Faith, which lasted up to 1812, when the Inquisition was finally abolished.
[Topic: History| Inquisition of Goa Words: 478
Reference: Goa Inquisition by Anjali Sharma, 3 September 2015, Indian Express
https://www.newindianexpress.com/cities/bengaluru/2015/sep/03/goa-inquisition-809153.html ]
1. Which of the following statements comment is on the plight of the Jews, but is beyond the passage?
(a) Due to the Goa Inquisition, the Jews were forced to3Gabandon
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their secret practices of faith and fully embrace
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Christianity.
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tr-(b) The
5Q7R Jews
5U3S8U who fled to India from Portugal were well-received and embraced by the local Christian
community.
(c) Many Jews who escaped Spain's persecution did not survive the journey to Portugal, succumbing to disease
and hardship.
(d) The Inquisition in Goa, though initially aimed
tr-5Q7Rat 3S8U1S5Nand Jews, eventually evolved to target only the
5UHindus
Hindus.
2. Identify a title that correctly sums up the crux of the given extract.
(a) Religious Transmutation Amidst Portuguese Domination: A Comprehensive Review.
(b) Inquisitorial Hegemony and Cultural Coercion: Unraveling Goa's Legacy.
(c) Peregrinations of Faith and Orthodoxy: A Panoptic Exploration of Colonial Goa.
(d) Sacerdotal Domination and Covert Dispositions: The Genesis of Goa's Turmoil.
3. "auto-da-fe" means.......
(a) An ontological inquiry into esoteric doctrines, wherein the accused undergoes theological scrutability to
ascertain doctrinal purity.
(b) A liturgical sacrament employed to discern apostasy through the veneration of sacred relics and consecrated
elements.
(c) A ritualistic display of religious conformity, emblematic of ritual cleansing, orchestrated to ensure doctrinal
adherence.
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(d) A punitive and performative ritual, characterized by coerced acts of faith, often culminating in the execution
of heretics.
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Which of the following inferences about the authority and power of Christian priests can be made based on the
given passage?
climate of unyielding conformity to Portuguese religious tenets.
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(a) The dominion of Christian priests, underscored by the vehemence of their proselytizing, engendered a
(b) The ecclesiastical expanse of Christian priests was characterized by an orchestrated amalgamation of diverse
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religious dogmas, fostering a syncretic spiritual milieu.
a
(c) The authoritativeness of Christian priests, mediated through the theocratic apparatus, encouraged cultural
syncretism and doctrinal pluralism.
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(d) Christian priests, propelled by their theocratic omnipotence, adroitly navigated a multitudinous religio-
cultural tapestry, orchestrating an atmosphere of divine pluralism.
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Passage (Q.5-Q.9): There are two wider lessons from the Wagner revolt in Russia last weekend. The first relates
to the long history of coups, quasi-coups and elite rebellions across the world. A very large proportion of these
were not intended to overthrow the ruler and seize supreme power, and nor did they lead to battles. Rather, they
were armed demonstrations by the local equivalent of medieval barons, intended to pressure the monarch into
“redressing grievances”, dismissing rival barons from court and granting some lucrative positions to the rebel
chiefs. If the monarch stood firm, in many cases the barons involved would apologise, vow loyalty to the king,
stand down their men and go into exile for a while. If the monarch yielded, they would stand down their men,
pocket their gains and vow loyalty to the king – though in the process, as Edward II, Richard II and others found,
the monarch might have lost so much authority that he fell to a subsequent revolt and came to a sticky end. Last
weekend in Russia, the monarch stood firm. The other lesson relates to the deep inhibition in Russian society
against Russian soldiers shedding the blood of other Russians, connected in turn to deep fears of civil war and
chaos. These have old roots in elite nightmares about “Russian revolts, senseless and merciless”, as Pushkin
called them; but even more in inherited memories of the ghastly aftermath of the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917,
and in the mayhem and economic misery of the 1990s that followed the breakup of the Soviet Union. Putin’s
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words about 1917 in his speech on Saturday therefore have immense reverberation for many Russians: “A blow
tr-like
5Q7Rthis 8U1S5N
5U3Swas dealt to Russia in 1917, when the country was fighting in the First World War. But the victory was
stolen from it: intrigues, squabbles and politicking behind the backs of the army and the nation turned into the
greatest turmoil, the destruction of the army and the collapse of the state, and the loss of human lives, vast
territories, ultimately leading to the tragedy of the civil war … We will not allow this to happen again.”
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Perhaps the greatest single mystery about the fall of the Soviet Union is why the Soviet army did not fight much
harder and kill many more people in an effort to hold it together, and why the attempted coup against Mikhail
Gorbachev in August 1991 was vetoed by most of the armed forces and therefore collapsed so quickly. These
aspects of Russian history provide part of the answer to this clandestine fact. The events this weekend confirmed
that the fate of the Putin regime will be decided in the first instance not by conspiracies within the Russian elite,
but by what happens on the battlefield in Ukraine. If the Russian army can hold its existing line, Putin will claim
victory against what he has successfully portrayed to the Russian people as a united western attempt to destroy
Russia. If the Ukrainians break through, then Putin may be forced to resign, but he may also escalate towards
nuclear war. Perhaps the most treacherous effect of the blow to Putin’s prestige from the Wagner revolt may be
that even without a Ukrainian victory, he will feel compelled to restore his image of strength by retaliating
directly against the west for its support of Ukraine. In that case, the dangers to Putin’s regime will be eclipsed
by those to humanity in general.
[Source: https://www.theguardian.com/commentisfree/2023/jun/29/failed-wagner-coup-vladimir-putin-regime-
strong-yevgeny-prighozin]
5. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?
6.
(a) Caustic. (b) Apathetic (c) Humanistic.
Which of the following is not supported by the passage? m

(d) Belligerent.
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(a) Russian people have negative memories of two failed events in the past century of a revolt and an overthrow.
(b) The two monarchs mentioned to illustrate the point about pressure tactics lost their reign.
(c) The possible consequence of Russian losing the war would be a nuclear weapon use by its leader.
party.
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(d) The West is a neutral party in the war between Russia and Ukraine with no involvement perceived by any
7.
(a) Open. (b) Underground.
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What does the word “clandestine” mean in the context of the passage?
(c) stealing.
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(d) Surreptitious.
8.
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Which of these are the main teachings that can be learnt from the Wagner revolt as stated by the author?
(a) There should be much thought into a revolt and it must not be carried on against a monarch.
(b) The revolt was a pressure tactic which the dictator endured and it was reflective of apprehension of people
9.
against bedlam.
own countrymen.
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(c) The monarchs will generally lose their reign from the elite revolt and there should not be involvement of
(d) The Monarchs are extorted by the elite revolutionaries and there should not be any killing in internal war.
Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?

(a) Academic paper. (b) Fiction.
(c) Non-fiction article. (d) Official report.
Passage (Q.10-Q.14): Every now and then she looked around for tangible evidence of his having ever been
there. Where were the butterflies? the blueberries? the whistling reed? She could find nothing, for he had left
nothing but his stunning absence. An absence so decorative, so ornate, it was difficult for her to understand how
she had ever endured, without falling dead or being consumed, his magnificent presence.
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The mirror by the door was not a mirror by thetr-door, it was an altar where he stood for only a moment to put on
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cap
5Q7R 8U1S5Ngoing out. The red rocking chair was a rocking of his own hips as he sat in the kitchen. Still, there
before
was nothing of his — his own — that she could find. It was as if she were afraid she had hallucinated him and
needed proof to the contrary. His absence was everywhere, stinging everything, giving the furnishings primary
colors, sharp outlines to the corners of rooms and gold light to the dust collecting on table tops. When he was
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there he pulled everything toward himself. Not only her
tr-5Q7R eyes all her senses but also inanimate things seemed
to exist because of him, backdrops to his presence. Now that he had gone, these things, so long subdued by
his presence, were romanticized in his wake.
Then one day, burrowing in a dresser drawer, she found what she had been looking for: proof that he had been
there, his driver’s license. It contained just what she needed for verification — his vital statistics: Born 1901,
height 5’11”, weight 152 lbs., eyes brown, hair black, color black. Oh yes, skin black. Very black. So black that
only a steady careful rubbing with steel wool would remove it, and as it was removed there was the glint of gold
leaf and under the gold leaf the cold alabaster and deep, deep down under the cold alabaster more black only this
time the black of warm loam.
But what was this? Albert Jacks? His name was Albert Jacks? A. Jacks. She had thought it was Ajax. All those
years. Even from the time she walked by the pool hall and looked away from him sitting astride a wooden chair,
looked away to keep from seeing the wide space of intolerable orderliness between his legs; the openness that
held no sign, no sign at all, of the animal that lurked in his trousers; looked away from the insolent nostrils and
the smile that kept slipping and falling, falling, falling so she wanted to reach out with her hand to catch it before
it fell to the pavement and was sullied by the cigarette butts and bottle caps and spittle at his feet and the feet of
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other men who sat or stood around outside the pool hall, calling, singing out to her and Nel and grown women
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too with lyrics like pig meat and brown sugar and jailbait and O Lord, what have I done to deserve the wrath,
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and Take me, Jesus, I have seen the promised land, and Do, Lord, remember me in voices mellowed by hopeless
cobalt blue.
[Source: Published by permission of International Creative Management, Inc.
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passion into gentleness. Holding the driver’s license she crawled into bed and fell into a sleep full of reveries of
10.
Copyright © 1973 by Toni Morrison.]
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In the context of the above passage, which of the following would be the most appropriate meaning of the word
“ornate”?
(a) Dull. (b) Plain.
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(c) Grandiose.
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(d) Understated.
11.
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Which of the following is not supported by the passage?
(a) The man who is being thought by the author is described to be dark in colour because of his description in
the driver’s license.
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(b) The author is hallucinating about the presence of the man because she has some psychological condition.
(c) There is a red rocking chair which is being described in connection to the man kept near the kitchen.
(d) The mirror has been described to be an altar where the much magnificent person had stood.
What can be appropriately inferred from the bold text in the passage?
(a) That the things like mirror, chair etc. were very prominent in his presence and when he woke up from sleep.
(b) Everyday objects held a sentimental value when the man was present but looked empty in his absence.
(c) That many things are observed in connection to the man to be of glamorous value in his wakefulness.
(d) That the things like mirror, chair etc. were downcast when he was present but are sentimentalized in his
absence.
13. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The author is dreaming about a man who is existing in her imagination only.
(b) The absence of the man is described to be much simple and unpretentious without any lavishness
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(c) The license of the man gives her support that this man was present in a place with no cabinets or places to
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store.
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(d) The license discovered by the author gives evidence of the presence of the man in the place of the author’s
residence.
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14. Which of the following words will replace the bold word
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(a) Thoughts. (b) Feelings. (c) Dreams. (d) Emotions.
Passage (Q.15-Q.19): One of the attractions of science is that it is unpredictable – you can never know in
advance where an idea or a question may lead. Sometimes a curious mind will meet a dead end, sometimes it
will encounter a thorny labyrinth that takes years to navigate. But, now and again, she realises she is the first
person ever to gaze upon a horizon of untold possibility. The gene editor called CRISPR-Cas9 is one such
startling discovery with breathtaking potential. When Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna started
investigating the immune system of a Streptococcus bacterium, one idea was that they could perhaps develop a
new form of antibiotic. Instead, they discovered a molecular tool that can be used to make precise incisions in
genetic material, making it possible to easily change the code of life.
Just eight years after their discovery, these genetic scissors have reshaped the life sciences. Biochemists and cell
biologists can now easily investigate the functions of different genes and their possible role in the progression
of disease. In plant breeding, researchers can give plants specific characteristics, such as the ability to withstand
drought in a warmer climate. In medicine, this gene editor is contributing to new cancer therapies and the first
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studies attempting to cure inherited diseases. There are almost endless examples of how CRISPR-Cas9 could be
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used, which also include unethical applications. As with all powerful technology, these genetic scissors need to
be regulated.
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When researchers compare the genetic material of vastly different bacteria, as well as archaea (a type of
microorganism), they find repetitive DNA sequences that are surprisingly well preserved. The same code appears
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over and over again, but between the repetitions there are unique sequences that differ. It is like the same word
is being repeated between each unique sentence in a book. These arrays of repeated sequences are called clustered
regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats, abbreviated as CRISPR. The interesting thing is that the unique,
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non-repetitive sequences in CRISPR appear to match the genetic code of various viruses, so the current thinking
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is that this is one part of an ancient immune system that protects bacteria and archaea from viruses. The
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hypothesis is that if a bacterium has succeeded in surviving a virus infection, it adds a piece of the virus’ genetic
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code into its genome as a memory of the infection. In medicine, the genetic scissors are contributing to new
immunotherapies for cancer and trials are underway to make a dream come true – curing inherited diseases.
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Researchers are already performing clinical trials to investigate whether they can use CRISPR/Cas9 to treat
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blood diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and beta thalassemia, as well as inherited eye diseases.
[Source: Emmanuelle Charpentier and Jennifer Doudna, Genetic scissors: a tool for rewriting the code of life]
What is the author’s main point in the passage above?

(a) The technology of CRISPR/Cas9 is a technology which is invented by two scientists has implication is using
bacteria to cure diseases.
(b) The technology of CRISPR/Cas9 devised after discovery by two scientists in bacteria has widespread
possible applications in curing diseases.
(c) CRISPR/Cas9 is a technology which is successfully used by the two scientists to cure cancer and other
genetic diseases.
(d) There is much information which can be derived from bacteria about surviving viruses and use of
CRISPR/Cas9 to eliminate viruses.
16. From the first paragraph of the passage, one can collectively 8J1J5D
conclude that
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(a) Science is unpredictable because the two scientists were ordered to make a new antibiotic but they lost their
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way
tr-5Q7R discover a molecular tool to cut genetic material leading to unethical changes.
(b) There is unpredictability in science since the two scientists were studying bacteria for antibiotic improvement
but deliberately discovered a molecular tool to edit bacterial genetics to make it immune from virus.
(c) The two scientists were studying the immune system of bacteria for a possible new antibiotic but discovered
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a molecular tool to cut genetic material depicting the
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(d) The two scientists were studying bacteria for their immune response for a project on antibiotics but
discovered a molecular tool to heal genetic material depicting the unpredictability of science.
17. What does the word “labyrinth” as used in the passage mean?
(a) Path. (b) Perplexity. (c) Simplicity. (d) Muddle.
18. Which of the following are the examples of inherited diseases which can be possibly cured by CRISPR/Cas?
(a) Cancer, sickle cell anaemia and beta thalassemia.
(b) Sickle cell anaemia and beta thalassemia.
(c) Sickle cell anaemia, beta thalassemia and inherited eye diseases.
(d) Cancer, inherited eye diseases and sickle cell anaemia.
19. Which of the following best describes author’s reasons in science for considering bacteria to be immune from
viruses?
(a) There is cutting of the genome of the bacteria by the virus through CRISPR/Cas9 which makes it immune.
(b) There is modification of the bacterial DNA from the mitochondrial cavity of the virus.
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(c) There is an addition of the genetic code of the virus in the genome of the bacteria from a memory of previous
infection.
c
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(d) There is addition of the genetic code of the bacteria in the genome of the virus from memory of an infection.
Passage (Q.20-Q.24): In any case, the collapse of Utopian schemes has left a great void, not in the countries
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where this ideology has proved to have failed but in those where many embraced it with enthusiasm and hope.
For the first time in history mankind lives in a sort of spiritual wilderness and not, as before, in the shadow of
those religious and political systems that consoled us at the same time as they oppressed us. Although all societies
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are historical, each one has lived under the guidance and inspiration of a set of metahistorical beliefs and ideas.
a
Ours is the first age that is ready to live without a metahistorical doctrine; whether they be religious or
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philosophical, moral or aesthetic, our absolutes are not collective but private. It is a dangerous experience. It is
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also impossible to know whether the tensions and conflicts unleashed in this privatization of ideas, practices and
beliefs that belonged traditionally to the public domain will not end up by destroying the social fabric. Men could
then become possessed once more by ancient religious fury or by fanatical nationalism. It would be terrible if
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the fall of the abstract idol of ideology were to foreshadow the resurrection of the buried passions of tribes, sects
and churches. The signs, unfortunately, are disturbing.
The decline of the ideologies I have called metahistorical, by which I mean those that assign to history a goal
and a direction, implies first the tacit abandonment of global solutions. With good sense, we tend more and more
towards limited remedies to solve concrete problems. It is prudent to abstain from legislating about the future.
Yet the present requires much more than attention to its immediate needs: it demands a more rigorous global
reflection. For a long time I have firmly believed that the twilight of the future heralds the advent of the now. To
think about the now implies first of all to recover the critical vision. For example, the triumph of the market
economy (a triumph due to the adversary’s default) cannot be simply a cause for joy. As a mechanism the market
is efficient, but like all mechanisms it lacks both conscience and compassion. We must find a way of integrating
it into society so that it expresses the social contract and becomes an instrument of justice and fairness. The
advanced democratic societies have reached an enviable level of prosperity; at the same time they are islands of
abundance in the ocean of universal misery. The topic3Gof8J1J the
5D market is intricately related to the deterioration of
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the environment. Pollution affects not only the air, the rivers and the forests but also our souls. A society
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5Q7R5U3S8Uby the frantic need to produce more in order to consume more tends to reduce ideas, feelings, art,
tr-possessed
love, friendship and people themselves to consumer products. Everything becomes a thing to be bought, used
and then thrown in the rubbish dump. No other society has produced so much waste as ours has. Material and
moral waste.
[Octavia Paz, Literature 1981-1990, Editor-in-Charge 8U1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3STore Frängsmyr, Editor Sture Allén, World Scientific
Publishing Co., Singapore, 1993]
20. Which of the following is not supported by the passage?
(a) In the metahistorical doctrine deficient age that is being lived by us, there are no collective absolutes but
those which are private.
(b) The present existence requires a thorough critical analysis of experiences from a global point of view.
(c) There is rampant pollution is out natural resources as well in out metaphysical aspects concerning the spirit.
(d) There is efficient handling of byproducts by us in the material and the moral sense leading to minimal
wastage.
21. What does the word “frantic” as used in the passage mean?
(a) Calm. (b) Tranquil. (c) Hysterical. (d) Civilized.
22. Which of the following is not a correct inference from the above passage?
(a) There is an emptiness in countries which had embraced Utopian schemes with much gusto.
(b) There is existence of some past recorded events in the chronology of most societies.
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(c) There is need for the market to exude qualities which would lead to betterment of societies. m
consume more.
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(d) There is no relation of reduction of person to consumer products with the society’s need to produce and
23. The market economy is criticized by the author as it

(a) keeps prices of products high excluding the destitute in society.
(b) is bereft of integrity and kindness which is essential for a better society.
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(d) has many impediments to societal customs.
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(c) is full of ideas of fairness and justice negating profit margin.
24.
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(a) The Need of Utopian values in Society.
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Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?
(b) Metahistorical doctrines in society: Need of the Present Age.
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(c) Privatisation of Market: Need of present and hope for future.
(d) Society and Ideology: Consumer Culture and its fallouts.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.51): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Chandrayaan 3

The technical success of India’s Chandrayaan-3 lunar lander mission could help not just India’s space program
but also the country’s standing on the global stage, experts argue. The Indian space agency ISRO put the Vikram
lander into sleep mode late Sept. 3, shortly before nightfall at its landing site in the south polar regions of the
moon. That came after ISRO powered down the Pragyan rover a day earlier. ISRO said it hopes that the lander
can be powered back on in late September, after the two-week lunar night, although neither the lander nor the
rover are equipped with systems to keep them warm in temperatures that could fall to as low as –190 degrees
Celsius. While Chandrayaan-3 has produced only a modest amount of science, including a handful of images,
spectra and other data released by ISRO since its Aug. 23 landing, the successful landing and operation of both
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Vikram and Pragyan could support future, more ambitious Indian lunar missions. ISRO hinted at that in one
o
social media post about a final “hop” performed by the lander on Sept. 3, when the lander fired its engines to lift
c
off the lunar surface by about 40 centimeters, landing about 30 to 40 centimeters from its original touchdown
rs
https://spacenews.com/chandrayaan-3-success-to-boost-indias-space-ambitions-global-standing/
.
site. “Importance? This ‘kick-start’ enthuses future sample return and human missions!” ISRO stated.
25.
on 14 July 2023?
(a) LVM3 M4 (b) GSLV Mk III (c) PSLV C51 (d) SSLV D2
e
What is the name of the launch vehicle that carried Chandrayaan 3 into space from Satish Dhawan Space Centre
k
26.
(a) GSLV Mk III (b) PSLV-C37
r an
Which rocket was used to launch Chandrayaan-2 into space?
(c) Ariane 5 (d) Falcon Heavy
27.
(a) A failed orbital manoeuvre
p
What was the cause of Luna 25’s crash on the Moon’s surface on 19 August 2023?
o (b) A malfunctioning landing system
28.
T
(c) A collision with a meteoroid (d) A communication error
Which statement is true about the Spectro-polarimetry of HAbitable Planet Earth (SHAPE) instrument on board
the propulsion module of Chandrayaan 3?
(a) It is used to measure the polarization and intensity of sunlight reflected by Earth.
(b) It is used to measure the density and temperature variations of the lunar ionosphere and atmosphere.
(c) It is used to measure the elemental composition of rocks and soils on the lunar surface using alpha particles
and x-rays.
(d) It is used to measure the spectrum of light emitted by a small amount of material vaporized by a laser on the
lunar surface.
29. What is the name of the landing site where Vikram lander touched down near the lunar south polar region on 23
August 2023?
(a) Shiv Shakti point (b) Vikram point (c) Pragyan point
3G8J1J5D
(d) Chandrayaan point
tr-5K7H5H
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Passage (Q.30-Q.32): National Curriculum Framework
The NCF has been drafted by the union government-appointed national steering committee headed by former
chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) K Kasturirangan Students of classes 11 and 12 will
have to study two languages including one of Indian origin, according to the final National Curriculum
Framework (NCF) released by the NCERT on Wednesday. The NCF also recommended board exams should be
held twice a year, and there should be no restriction on students choosing subjects within streams such as science
or commerce. The NCF, which has been drafted by the union government-appointed national steering committee
headed by former chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (Isro) K Kasturirangan, is in line with
the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. The NEP emphasised on teaching Indian languages and offering
them as medium of instruction in school and higher education. The NCF defines benchmarks for NCERT
textbooks taught in the schools affiliated to the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) in classes 3 to
12, teaching and learning practices, and assessment methods adopted by the schools. However, these will remain
in 2005.
c m
recommendatory in nature for state education boards given that education is a state subject. NCF was last revised
o
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/new-delhi-students-of-classes-11-and-12-to-study-two-languages-
30. What key principle underlines the NCF's approach to curriculum development in India?
rs .
board-exams-twice-a-year-national-curriculum-framework-101692784056750.html#google_vignette
(a) Centralization of education

(b) Uniformity in teaching methods
(c) Child-centered and activity-based learning
k e
31.
(d) Standardization of examination patterns
r an
Which statement is true about the Foundational Stage of school education in the NCF 2023?
o p
(a) It covers the age group of 3 to 8 years and consists of three sub-stages: Pre-school, Grade 1 and Grade 2.
(b) It covers the age group of 3 to 8 years and consists of two sub-stages: Pre-school and Grade 1-2.
(c) It covers the age group of 3 to 11 years and consists of three sub-stages: Pre-school, Grade 1-2 and Grade 3-
32.
5.
T
(d) It covers the age group of 3 to 11 years and consists of two sub-stages: Pre-school and Grade 1-5.
According to the National Curriculum Framework, what is the recommended approach to assessment?
(a) Rote memorization
(b) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
(c) High-stakes standardized tests
(d) Annual examinations
Passage (Q.33-Q.35): Katchatheevu Island

During his reply to the no confidence motion, Prime Minister Narendra Modi targeted the Congress for giving
away the Katchatheevu island to Sri Lanka. He also mentioned that the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
has been asking him to get the island back and Chief Minister MK Stalin had written letters to him on the issue.
He said, "Ask those who have gone out, what is Kachchatheevu?
8J1J5D
Somebody ask them what is Katchatheevu.
tr-5K7H5H3G
These people talk big. Today I will say what is Kachchatheevu. These people write big stuff and try to mislead
5U3S8U1S 5N
tr-the nation.
5Q7R "These DMK people, their government, their Chief Minister, write letters to me even now and say
Modiji, please bring back Kachchatheevu. "Where is Katchatheevu? Who did it? This island between Tamil
Nadu and Sri Lanka, who gave it to another country? When did they give it? Was there no Bharat Mata there?
Was that not a part of Ma Bharati? And you broke this also. Who was there at that time? "This happened under
1S5N
5U3Sa8Uhistory
the leadership of Smt Indira Gandhi. Congresstr-has had
5Q7R of breaking Ma Bharati into numerous parts.
"And it is this Congress which is talking about love for India and Indians."
https://swarajyamag.com/news-brief/explained-the-katchatheevu-island-which-pm-modi-spoke-about-during-
his-reply-to-the-no-confidence-motion
33. Katchatheevu island is located in which body of water?
(a) Indian Ocean (b) Arabian Sea (c) Bay of Bengal (d) Andaman Sea
34. Which of the following is not a reason for Tamil Nadu’s opposition to the cession of Katchatheevu Island to Sri
Lanka?
(a) It violated the constitutional provisions that required the consent of the State Legislature for transferring
any territory.
(b) It deprived the Tamil Nadu fishermen of their traditional fishing rights and access to the island’s church and
cemetery.
(c) It endangered the national security and sovereignty of India by allowing a foreign country to occupy a
strategic location.
(d) It disregarded the historical and cultural ties that Tamil Nadu had with the island and its inhabitants.
35. Which agreement transferred the control of Katchatheevu Island from India to Sri Lanka?
(a) Treaty of Colombo
c o m
(b) Indira-Sirimavo Agreement
(c) Kandy Agreement
(d) Treaty of Galle
rs .
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): Blood donation by LGBT community
k e
The Central government has recently defended its decision to bar gay and transgender people from donating
n
blood in the country, citing scientific evidence after a member of the transgender community moved the Supreme
a
Court seeking to strike it down. The ban on blood donation by gay and transgender individuals was defended by
r
the Central government on the grounds that they are considered a [X]. In its response to the Supreme Court, the
o p
Centre said that “the determination of the population group that is to be precluded from being blood donors is
prescribed by the National Blood Transfusion Council (NBT(c) " and is based on [Y]. " The United States has
long prevented gays and transgenders from donating blood but the ban was shortened with a condition that they
T
don’t have sex for at least a year before the donation. In January this year, the Food and Drug Administration
(FD(a) announced its plans to revise the blood donation policy. According to the guidelines, gay and bisexual
men in monogamous relationships are permitted to donate blood. In the United Kingdom, members of the
LGBTQ+ community are allowed to donate blood if they have had the same sexual partner for the past three
months.
https://www.livemint.com/news/india-cites-science-to-ban-transgenders-gays-from-donating-blood-
11679072862504.html
36. When was the ban on blood donations by gay people first introduced?
(a) 1970s (b) 1980s (c) 1990s (d) 2000s
37. According to the government's affidavit, what is the basis for excluding transgender and gays from blood
donation?
(a) Societal prejudice and discrimination 8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
(b) Lack of blood donation facilities
tr-(c) 5U3S8U1S5Nevidence
Scientific
5Q7R
(d) Religious beliefs
38. Which of the following countries has completely lifted the ban on blood donation by gay and bisexual men in
1S5N
2023? tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
(a) Canada (b) Australia (c) United Kingdom (d) France
39. Which of the following organizations implemented the FDA’s updated final guidance regarding an individual
donor assessment for all blood donors regardless of gender or sexual orientation in 2023?
(a) American Red Cross
(b) Human Rights Campaign Foundation
(c) World Health Organization
(d) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
40. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the public opinion on the current blood donation policy
for LGBT community in the United States?
(A) Nearly three-quarters of the LGBT community find the current policy acceptable and do not want any
changes
(B) Nearly three-quarters of the LGBT community find the current policy unacceptable and believe that ending
it should be a priority for the Biden-Harris administration
o m
(C) Nearly half of the LGBT community find the current policy acceptable and believe that ending it should be
a priority for the Biden-Harris administration
c
(a) Only A,C and D (b) Only B,C and D (c) Only C and D (d) Only A and C
rs .
(D) Nearly half of the LGBT community find the current policy unacceptable and do not want any changes
Passage (Q.41-Q.43): Jallikattu, Kambala can go on Tamil Nadu and Karnataka - SC
k e
The Supreme Court on Thursday upheld amendments made by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Maharashtra to the
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, to allow the traditional bull-taming sports of Jallikattu and Kambala,
n
and bullock-cart racing. A five-judge Constitution bench presided by Justice K M Joseph held that the state
a
amendments did not violate the Constitution and the Supreme Court’s 2014 ruling banning Jallikattu. The bench
r
also comprising Justices Ajay Rastogi, Aniruddha Bose, Hrishikesh Roy and C T Ravikumar said that in its 2014
o p
judgment, Jallikattu was held to attract restrictions of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act due to the manner
in which it was practised then. The amendment, however, seeks to minimise the pain and suffering caused to
animals. It also noted that the amendments, having received the assent of the President, cannot be faulted. Saying
T
that the sport is at least one century old, the court, however, did not go into the question of whether Jallikattu is
an integral part of Tamil culture, saying that would require a detailed analysis and that the legislature would be
more appropriate to do so. “We are satisfied on materials that Jallikattu is going in TN for last one century…
Whether this is part of integral part of Tamil culture requires detailed analysis which exercise judiciary cannot
undertake..,” it said.
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/supreme-court-upholds-validity-of-jallikattu-8615668/
41. Under which article of the Constitution was the Constitution Bench tasked with deciding whether Jallikattu could
be preserved as the cultural right of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 19(1)(a) (c) Article 29(1) (d) Article 32
42. In which district did the first legal jallikattu under the exemption from the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
(1960) take place?
(a) Chennai (b) Coimbatore (c) Madurai
3G8J1J5D
(d) Tiruchirappalli
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43. 5Q7R5U3S
tr-Which 8U1S5N
article of the Indian Constitution imposes duties on Indian citizens to protect the environment and develop
a scientific temper, humanism, spirit of inquiry, and reform?
(a) Article 35-B (b) Article 64 (c) Article 48 (d) Article 51-A
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Passage (Q.44-Q.47): UN Report - Improving maternal and newborn health and survive; and reducing
stillbirth
A report by leading United Nations agencies says global progress in reducing maternal and newborn deaths has
stalled for nearly a decade largely due to underinvestment in providing the health care. The report shows more
than 4.5 million women and babies die every year in pregnancy, childbirth or the first weeks after birth —
equivalent to one death every seven seconds — "mostly from preventable or treatable causes if proper care was
available.” Allisyn Moran, unit head for maternal health at the World Health Organization, said all the deaths
have similar risk factors and causes. While the trends pre-date the coronavirus pandemic, she said “COVID-19-
related service disruptions and funding diversions, rising poverty and worsening humanitarian crises are
intensifying pressures on already overstretched maternity and newborn health services.” Since 2018, the report
finds, more than three-quarters of all conflict-affected and sub-Saharan African countries report funding for
maternal and newborn health has declined and that only one in 10 of more than 100 countries surveyed reported
m
they had the money needed to implement their current plans. Speaking in Cape Town, South Africa, the site of
o
a major global conference on maternal health, Moran said that a lack of investment in primary health care risked
lowering survival prospects.
c
year/7085654.html
rs .
https://www.voanews.com/a/un-over-4-5-million-women-newborns-die-from-preventable-causes-every-
44.
(a) Infant Mortality Rate
(b) Maternal Mortality Ratio
k e
What is the term used for the number of newborns dying at less than 28 days of age per 1,000 live births?
(c) Neonatal Mortality Rate

(d) Stillbirth Rate
r an
45.
(a) 1998 (b) 2000
p
When was the UN Inter-agency Group for Child Mortality Estimation (UN IGME) formed?
o
(c) 2002 (d) 2004
46.
47.
T
According to the report, which country has achieved the highest percentage of coverage for antenatal care with
a skilled provider among pregnant women in low- and middle-income countries in 2019?
(a) China (b) Thailand (c) Sri Lanka (d) Vietnam
Which of the following statements are incorrect about the country progress in improving maternal and newborn
health and survival and reducing stillbirth, According to the UN Report?
(a) India has achieved a reduction of more than 50% in MMR between 2000 and 2020.
(b) Bangladesh has achieved a reduction of more than 50% in NMR between 2000 and 2020.
(c) Ethiopia has achieved a reduction of more than 50% in SBR between 2000 and 2020.
(d) Nepal has achieved a coverage of more than 80% for antenatal care with a skilled provider in 2019.
(a) Only A,B and C (b) Only C
(c) Only A and C (d) Only D
Passage (Q.48-Q.51): ASEAN Summit

7H5H3G8J1J5D
Speaking at the 20th ASEAN-India summit intr-5K Jakarta, Indonesia’s capital, Prime Minister Narendra Modi on
1S5N
tr-Thursday (September
5Q7R5U3S8U 7) said ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) is the “central pillar” of India’s
Act East Policy and the country fully supports the group’s centrality and outlook on the Indo-Pacific.
Highlighting the need to build a rule-based post-Covid world order, Modi added that the progress of a free and
open Indo-Pacific and elevating the voice of the Global South is in the common interest of all.
Moreover, the prime minister congratulated Indonesian 8U1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3SPresident Joko Widodo for organising the summit and
said, “Our partnership has reached the fourth decade. It is an honour for me to co-chair this summit.” India and
ASEAN started to hold summits together in 2002 — a decade after the country established formal engagement
with the group.
Its major pillars that help lay out a blueprint for cooperation are Political-Security Community (APS(c) ,
Economic Community (AE(c) and Socio-Cultural Community (ASC(c) .
ASEAN itself has recently faced issues that complicate coordination, such as the rise of China and its claims
over the South China Sea (many of which compete with claims of ASEAN members like the Philippines) and
the issue of military conflict in Myanmar.
Source – Indian Express
48. Which country hosted the ASEAN – India summit in 2002?

(a) Cambodia (b) Singapore (c) Nigeria (d) Australia
49. Which of the following summit was also attended by Indian Prime – minister along with ASEAN on same day?
(a) BRICS summit
(b) SCO Heads of state summit
(c) G-7 summit
(d) East Asia Summit
c o m
50.
rs
underscored that ASEAN is the focal point of Quad’s vision. What is the full form of QUAD?
(a) Quadrilateral Security Dialogue
.
At summit, Prime Minister highlighted synergies of visions for Indo-Pacific between India and ASEAN, and
(b) Quadrant United Alliance Division

(c) Quadruple Association of Developed nations
(d) Quadrate Union for Asian Dynamics
k e
51.
(a) G-7 summit (b) G-20 summit
r an
Which of the following summit is chaired by India in 2023?
(c) SCO summit (d) COP
o p
T
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.52-Q.83): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.52-Q.55): Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so
deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or
intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or omit if he
were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in
body, mind, reputation or property, is said to cheat. Following are the essential ingredients of cheating: (a)
Deception: the word ‘deceive’ means to cause someone to believe what is false or mislead or trick him to some
error by words or conduct. However a simple misrepresentation of quality of goods is not a false pretence i.e.
untrue praise of goods meant for sale does not amount to cheating. (b) Dishonest or fraudulent intention: the
m
person so deceiving must dishonestly i.e. intention to do wrongful loss or have wrongful gain or fraudulently i.e.
o
intention to injure any unascertained property or person or induce any person to deliver any property or to do
c
some act or omit to do anything which the person so deceived otherwise would not have done. It is important
rs .
that dishonest intention must accompany the dishonest act i.e. a dishonest intention cannot be drawn merely from
the fact that a person was subsequently unable to fulfil his promise due to change of events. In order to constitute
cheating it is required that the person under deception actually delivers the property or does or omits to do the
k e
act which is detrimental to his interest. (c) Causes damage or harm: there should be causation of damage or harm
to the mind, body, property or reputation of the person so deceived and not to any other person. However the
damage caused should be under the influence of deceit and it should not be too remote.
52.
r n
(Source: https://lawctopus.com/clatalogue/du-llm/understand-meaning-of-cheating-and-forgery-under-ipc/ )
a
T's grandmother requested T to drop in a few documents to the bank. According to the documents, her father
o p
would receive 30% of her grandmother's estate, her uncle would receive 50%, and her aunt would receive the
remaining 20%. She resented the prejudice her grandmother had established. She persuaded her grandma to sign
a form that stated the property was divided 4:3:3 because she wanted her father to get a greater share. Her
T
grandmother did not demand on reading the document because she had much faith in her. T had an accident
while en route to turn in the documents. When she was recovering, her grandmother learned about what she had
done and lodged a complaint. Decide.
(a) T shall not be held liable since the property transfer did not take effect.
(b) T should be held accountable for cheating since her grandmother transferred T's father a larger portion of
her property as a result of T's dishonest behaviour.
(c) Considering she didn't intend to be dishonest, T is not liable for cheating.
(d) The fact that T fraudulently used her grandmother's signature on other documents makes her liable for
cheating.
53. Ambuja Enterprises was managed by Y. In his own name, he intended to transfer the founder's shares. The owner
had great faith in Y because he had worked for the business for the last 23 years. The intentions of Y were
revealed to G one day. In order to carry out the plan, Y sought G's assistance and offered him a 25% share. The
document of the transfer called for certain signatures from Y. Y didn't read the documents because he assumed
8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
that G would undoubtedly assist him given the commission that he was paying him, but G had actually prepared
1S5N
tr-a5Q
draft in8Uwhich
7R5U3S no mention of a transfer of shares was made. Y afterwards verified it with the bank and found
out that no application had been made. This led Y to accuse G of cheating and file a complaint against him. In
light of the passage, share your thoughts.
(a) Since G used Y's signature on the incorrect piece of paper to transfer the shares into his own name, he will
1S5N
be held accountable for cheating. tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
(b) G shouldn't be penalized for cheating because he was trying to save his employer from losing money.
(c) G will be held accountable for cheating given that he fraudulently obtained Y's signature.
(d) G will not be held accountable because his actions demonstrate that he had no dishonest intention in mind.
54. F was the sales staff for the recently launched apparel line FRENDS. FRENDS had numerous outlets in various
cities. In Kolkata, there was one such store. F was given the assignment to sell goods worth Rs.50,000 in a single
week. When a customer called V arrived at the shop, F showed him a variety of designs and assured him that
they were the latest and of the highest quality. Additionally, he stated that he would sell her this final piece of
the pattern at a 20% discount because it was the last one left. Upon discovering such a generous bargain, F
purchased the apparel right away. She discovered that the clothes began to have holes after using it a few times.
She then filed a lawsuit against F for cheating her. Establish the liability of F.
(a) Given that F lied to V in order to sell his goods, he is accountable for deceiving V.
(b) Since F's actions do not fall under the description of cheating, he is not held accountable.
(c) Considering that he misled V in order to deceitfully sell the defective goods, F is accountable for cheating.
(d) F is not liable for cheating because it is clear that he was not aware of the product's defects.
55.
c o m
Z was meant to return home for the winter holidays. His friend M decided to take the train to save money, whilst
Z insisted on flying. As a result, M purchased two plane tickets for himself and Z. Z decided a few hours before
the trip that he would return home the next week due to an unforeseen circumstance. As a result, M was forced
brought a cheating lawsuit against Z.
rs .
to travel alone. He thought that Z had lied to him in order to get him to book the flight tickets. As a result, he
(a) Z would be held guilty for cheating because he deceived M into booking the flight tickets.
k e
(b) Z will not be held responsible because the facts in question do not constitute cheating.
(c) Considering Z knew he wouldn't be boarding the airplane, he will be held liable for cheating.
(d) Since M willingly chose to travel by plane, Z will not be held accountable.
an
Passage (Q.56-Q.59): Misrepresentation under the Indian Contract Act is defined as;(1) the positive assertion,
r
in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes
o p
it to be true; (2) any breach of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage to the person
committing it, or any one claiming under him; by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any
one claiming under him; (3) causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the
T
substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
The Indian Contract Act recognizes three types of misrepresentation – innocent, negligent and fraudulent. An
innocent misrepresentation is one made without any intention to deceive or mislead the other party. In such
cases, the person making the misrepresentation honestly believes the statement to be true. A negligent
misrepresentation, on the other hand, is made without reasonable care, and the person making the statement does
not have reasonable grounds to believe it to be true. Finally, a fraudulent misrepresentation is made with the
intention to deceive or mislead the other party, and the person making the statement knows it to be false.
In the case of innocent misrepresentation, the aggrieved party has the option to rescind the contract. In the case
of negligent misrepresentation, the aggrieved party has the same remedies available as in the case of innocent
misrepresentation, but they can also claim damages for any losses suffered due to the misrepresentation. In the
case of fraudulent misrepresentation, the aggrieved party has the right to rescind the contract and claim damages
for any loss suffered due to the misrepresentation. 3G8J1J5D tr-5K7H5H
It is important
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
1S5Ntonote that in order to establish misrepresentation, the aggrieved party must show that they relied
on the statement made by the other party. If the aggrieved party was aware of the falsity of the statement at the
time of entering into the contract, they cannot claim misrepresentation. Similarly, if the statement was made by
a third party, such as an agent or broker, the aggrieved party can only claim misrepresentation if the statement
was made with the knowledge or consent of thetr-other party.1S5N
5Q7R5U3S8U
[Source: Sahin, “Misrepresentation under the Indian Contract Act ”, Legal Service
Indiahttps://www.legalserviceindia.com/legal/article-7817-misrepresentation-under-the-indian-contract-act-
.html#:~:text=A%20misrepresentation%20is%20a%20false,impacted%20party%20may%20seek%20damages.
]
56. A owned a company which made handcrafted and hand painted pottery items. The business was of such a nature
that the products were required to be handled with utmost care and caution. Due to this limitation A had to
change his delivery partners frequently. One day A got a big order to ship abroad, therefore he got in touch with
XY Ltd. which was a shipping company. While the two were discussing the details of the shipment, A
specifically asked that the package shall not be lifted by a crane as the items are very delicate and could cause
damage, thus should only be transported by a trolley. The same was agreed upon, though was not written in the
contract. The items were shipped but when they were received they were broken. It was later revealed that a
crane was used to transport the box, as XY Ltd. did not have a trolley. A sued XY Ltd. for misrepresentation.
Decide:
(a) A will succeed in his claim, as XY Ltd. misrepresented that they had a trolley and on the basis of the same
the contract was formed.
(b) A will not succeed in his claim, as the condition was not written in the contract, and an oral condition does
not have binding value.
o
(c) A will succeed in his claim, as XY Ltd. had agreed to do an act which they later did not do.
c m
(d) A will not succeed in his claim, as there is an inherent risk in transporting delicate items which shall be borne
57.
by A and XY Ltd. shall not be liable.
rs .
X wanted to construct his dream house on a piece of land that he acquired from Y. X had purchased the piece of
k e
land by expressly communicating that he intended to build a duplex on the same. To which Y had said that he
does not see any difficulty in such a use of the land. However the permission to build such a house was refused
by the municipality unless a sewage costing Rs. 5 lakhs was installed. Decide:
n
(a) Y committed negligent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
a
(b) Y committed innocent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
r
(c) Y committed fraudulent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
58.
o p
(d) Y had not committed any misrepresentation, and thus the contract cannot be avoided.
A always dreamed of starting his own gaming company and when A turned 40 he finally realised that dream and
T
formed Radiation Gaming. The company started off strong and gathered a lot of clientele, but slowly the business
started to slow down and it started taking losses. In order to acquire more capital, the company looked towards
the market. In order to raise money from the market the company created a prospectus wherein it stated that it
regularly gave dividends to its shareholders, imply that the company was making profits. Believing the same B
decides to invest in the company, and enters into a share purchase agreement. Decide:
(a) The company has not committed any misrepresentation, and thus the contract cannot be avoided.
(b) The company has committed negligent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at B’s will.
(c) The company has committed innocent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at B’s will.
(d) The company has committed fraudulent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at B’s will.
59. Y was a car salesman, who had just started working at a dealership. The dealership used to only trade in used
cars. One day X came to buy a car at the dealership, and while going through the catalogue of cars, Y pointed
out to a random car and stated that the car is in perfect condition and has not even been driven much. X buys that
car, though it is later discovered that the odometer had3Gbeen
8J1J5D
tampered with and the car was in fact driven for 5
tr-5K7H5H
years regularly. Decide:
tr-(a)
5Q7R 3S8U1S5N
Y5Ucommitted negligent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
(b) Y committed innocent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
(c) Y committed fraudulent misrepresentation, and the contract can be avoided at X’s will.
(d) Y had not committed any misrepresentation, and thus the contract cannot be avoided.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
Passage (Q.60-Q.63): The Supreme Court on Monday observed that remedies under Article 226 of the
Constitution are available and intervention is warranted when disciplinary authority's findings are malafide or
perverse, not based on evidence or are based on consideration of irrelevant material or by ignoring relevant
material, or are such that they could not have been rendered by any reasonable person placed in like
circumstances.
While dismissing the appeal in United Bank Of India V. Biswanath Bhattacharjee the bench said,
"The bank is correct, when it contends that an appellate review of the materials and findings cannot ordinarily
be undertaken, in proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution. Yet, from H.C. Goel onwards, this court
has consistently ruled that where the findings of the disciplinary authority are not based on evidence, or based
on a consideration of irrelevant material, or ignoring relevant material, are mala fide, or where the findings are
perverse or such that they could not have been rendered by any reasonable person placed in like circumstances,
m
the remedies under Article 226 of the Constitution are available, and intervention, warranted. For any court to
o
ascertain if any findings were beyond the record (i.e., no evidence) or based on any irrelevant or extraneous
c
factors, or by ignoring material evidence, necessarily some amount of scrutiny is necessary. A finding of "no
rs .
evidence" or perversity, cannot be rendered sans such basic scrutiny of the materials, and the findings of the
disciplinary authority. However, the margin of appreciation of the court under Article 226 of the Constitution
would be different; it is not appellate in character."
k e
The court held that, the enquiry officer clearly erred by relying on such extraneous matters, as the respondent
could not be made a scapegoat for the confession of others, especially with regard to his role. The bank's charge
n
about his complicity had to be proved by evidence. This document, containing others' confession, could not have
a
been used against him." While dismissing the appeal, the bench said, "The appeal is unmerited. The appellant
r
bank is directed to ensure that the respondent's services are deemed to be reinstated, and calculate all his benefits,
o p
including arrears of salary, pay increase (as applicable), increments, and all consequential benefits, and calculate
his terminal benefits, and fix his pension, if admissible to him under the bank's regulations
(Source :Article 226 Remedies Available When Disciplinary Authority's Findings Are Malafide Or Perverse,
60.
T
Based On Irrelevant Material Or Ignoring Relevant Material: Supreme Court, livelaw)
Mr. Sharma joined the bank as a cashier cum clerk on January 18, 2011 and was later promoted to Junior
Management Officer Scale-1. Later, he worked as a branch manager from December 14, 2015 to May 30, 2018,
and disciplinary procedures were started against him on October 23, 2020, citing his involvement in five serious
bank offences. He was accused of disbursing loans to 12 fictitious persons in conjunction with the Central
Government's Integrated Rural Development Project while failing to reflect the necessary subsidy amount in the
bank's subsidy register. On behalf of the employee, advocate Kunal Chaterjee contended that the employee was
found guilty in the investigation proceedings, and that the conclusions were wholly conjectural and manifestly
perverse. Several other employees acknowledged that the system had taken vengeance on Mr. Sharma because
they were jealous of his success and wanted to kick him out of the system. Decide
(a) The employee can claim remedies under article 226 of the constitution.
(b) Employee can claim remedies under article 226 and intervention by court in disciplinary authorities finding
will be warranted. 8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
(c) Employee cannot question the finding of disciplinary authority as it was based on evidence.
tr-(d) 5U3S8U1S5Ncannot seek help of the SC as appellate review of the materials and findings cannot ordinarily be
Employee
5Q7R
undertaken, in proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution.
1S5N
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61. Continuing with the facts above, suppose the employee was unable to demonstrate a discrepancy in the findings
of the disciplinary authority. He intended to appeal the authority's suspension decision based on statements made
by other employees that the system is jealous of his success. Will the employee still able to seek redressal under
Article 226?
(a) Yes, as it is his fundamental right to seek remedy from the Apex court.
(b) No, because the court cannot rely on generic statements made by other employees to rule in Mr. Sharma's
favor.
(c) Yes, the court will take into consideration this matter until Mr sharma have proved discrepancy in the finding
of the disciplinary authority.
(d) No, the court will not entertain this plea as authority's findings are neither malafide nor perverse.
62. In a case where Sanjana filed a complaint against her manager for sexual assault as a means to gain a promotion,
m
a disciplinary committee was convened. The committee primarily relied on confessional comments provided by
o
coworkers to support the manager's innocence. The authority ruled in favor of the manager, asserting that
c
Sanjana's actions were inappropriate, and the complaint significantly impacted the manager's reputation.
(a) The court can scrutinize the evidence considered by the disciplinary committee.
(b) The court's scrutiny in this situation will be purely appellate in nature.
rs .
Consequently, Sanjana was disqualified. What level of scrutiny can the court undertake in this situation?
confessions of coworkers rather than concrete evidence.
k e
(c) The Court may hear this case under Article 226 since the committee's findings were based solely on the
(d) The Supreme Court may not consider the case for appellate review, as such reviews are typically not
63.
r n
conducted in proceedings under Article 226 of the Constitution."
a
Identify a scenario in which the court might be accused of improper interference with the findings of the
disciplinary authority:
o p
I. When it was found that the findings are based on circumstantial and substantial evidence.
II. When the court finds that there have been injustice done to the party who is aggrieved by the disciplinary
authority's findings.
T
III. The court suo moto under Article 226 of the Constitution avail the intervention when disciplinary authority's
findings are not perverse, based on evidence or are based on consideration of relevant material.
IV. Court ascertaining findings were beyond the record (i.e., no evidence) or based on any irrelevant or
extraneous factors, or by ignoring material evidence on scrutinizing the disciplinary authority's findings.
(a) II &III (b) II & IV (c) I , III & IV (d) I & III
Passage (Q.64-Q.67): A Standard form Contract is a contract between two parties that does not allow
negotiation. On one hand they undeniably fulfil an important role of promoting economic efficiency while on
the other hand it has turned out to be a tool that leads to exploitation of the common mass. Thus, there is a furious
debate whether the court should enforce standard form contracts or not, the important issue being how to avoid
the exploitation of the weaker section. Standard form contracts are ‘take it or leave it’ contracts i.e. a contract
signed between two parties that has no room for negotiation. The customer is in no position to renegotiate the
standard terms of the contract and the company’s representative usually does not have the authority to do so.
1J5D
5K7H5H3G8Jwhich means that the individual has no choice but to
Such contracts are also known as contracts oftr-adhesion,
tr-accept; he does
8U1S 5N not negotiate, but merely adheres. It is often a contract that is entered into between unequal
5Q7R5U3S
bargaining partners. It’s a type of contract, a legally binding agreement between two parties to do a certain thing,
in which one side has all the bargaining power and uses it to write the contract primarily to his or her advantage.
It is the prime duty of the person delivering the document to give proper notice to the offeree of the printed terms
and conditions, especially ones which can create a 7R
tr-5Q situation
5U3S8U1Sof
5N ambiguity. Where this is not done, the acceptor
will not be bound by the terms of the contract. The reasonable notice of the terms should be given before or at
the time of the contract. A subsequent notification would amount to modification of the original contract and
will not be binding on the other party unless he has given his assent for the same.
(Source: https://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/286/Standard-form-of-Contract.html )
64. Which of the following statement is incorrect and cannot be concluded from the given passage?
(a) Standard form contracts are "take it or leave it" agreements, meaning that there is no room for debate when
two parties sign them.
(b) Contracts of adhesion is an exception of a standard contract, which are frequently agreements made between
parties with unequal bargaining power, are agreements that the individual has no choice but to accept; he
does not negotiate but rather adheres.
(c) A sort of contract known as adhesion is an agreement between two parties to carry out a specific action that
is legally enforceable. In which, one party has all the bargaining power and utilises it to craft the agreement
predominantly in their favour.
(d) Giving the offeree proper notice of the printed terms and conditions, which may be ambiguous, is the primary
responsibility of the person giving the paper before entering into the contract.
65.
c o m
X worked as a cook in Z's apartment. Z agreed to compensate him for his services with Rs.15000 per month.
Because X lived 30 kilometres away from Z's house, he had to incur significant additional travel expenses. As a
result, he requested that Z pay him Rs.20000 per month. Z enjoyed the taste of X's cooking, so she agreed to the
additional payment. Do you think this is a standard contract?
rs .
(a) It is a standard contract because Z was supposed to pay Rs.20000 to X each month for his services.
(b) Given that Z chose the salary amount, the contract is a standard one.
form of contract.
k e
(c) Considering that the additional payment was made for travel expenses rather than for the job, it is a standard
(d) Since both parties had equal bargaining power, it is not a standard type of contract.
66.
an
In H's home, R was hired as a security guard. On Sundays, the security officers would typically have the day off.
r
He assigned R to take care of his family's safety because H was going to be travelling for work. When H arrived
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later, it was explained to R that he had to work on Sundays as well as mentioned in contract. He requested the
rescission of the contract because he disagreed with this policy. Do you think this qualifies as a standard contract?
(a) Because H established all of the terms and conditions, and R is now required to abide by them, this is a
standard contract.
T
(b) This is a standard form of contract because all conditions are satisfied in the particular circumstance.
(c) Because the terms of the contract were not disclosed to R before it was finalized, it is not a standard form of
contract.
(d) Since R had the authority to decide whether or not he wanted to continue working, the contract is not in the
standard form.
67. J made an offer to Y, promising to supply him with fresh flowers for the temple every morning. J claimed that
since he was the only florist who would deliver flowers at 4 a.m., he would charge twice the market rate. Y tried
everything to persuade him to lower the price, but he refused. Do you consider it a standard contract?
(a) It is not a standard form of contract because the time of flower delivery was determined by Y.
(b) It is a standard form of contract because Y had only two options: accept the charges or refuse to enter into a
contract.
(c) It is a standard type of contract because Y did not 3G
even attempt to persuade J to lower the prices once.
8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H
(d) The information provided in the question is insufficient to determine whether it is a standard contract or not.
1S5N
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1S5N
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Passage (Q.68-Q.71): Authorities in Rajasthan's Kota have imposed Section 144 in the city from March 22 to
April 21 in order to maintain law and order during the screening of the recently released film 'The Kashmir Files.'
According to the order, there should be no crowd gathering to watch the movie. The upcoming festival in the
district should be conducted in a ceremonial manner and people should not take baths in rivers, including canals.
On the order of imposing Section 144, Kota North ex-BJP MLA Prahlad Gunjal hit out at the government,
saying, "A huge 'Chandi march' will be held in the Kota North assembly constituency on Tuesday, therefore
Section 144 was imposed and 'The Kashmir Files' is just an excuse."
The Code of Criminal Procedure governs India’s main procedures for the administration of substantive criminal
law. It sets up the machinery for investigating crimes, apprehending suspected criminals, gathering evidence,
with public nuisance and crime prevention.
c o m
determining the guilt or innocence of the accused, and determining the penalty of the guilty, as well as dealing
section is “Power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger”.
rs .
Section 144 of it deals with action in case of Cases of immediate aggravation or suspected risk(s). Title of the
k e
Section 144 of CrPC Empowers a District Magistrate, a Sub-divisional Magistrate or any other Executive
Magistrate specially empowered by the State Government to restrict a person or a certain number of people or
people in general from certain acts in the interest of law and order or general well being of people.
an
The restriction under this section is usually imposed in the form of restriction of gathering of more than four
r
people. Most of the time this section is applied in the aforementioned way. That’s why most people understand
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section 144 as a restriction on the assembly of more than four people. But this is not the exact case. Rather as
per the law, any kind of curtailment can be imposed on said person or people in any event where it is deemed
necessary. The restriction can even be imposed on the internet as has been the case in the past. In this case,
68.
from Indiatoday.in)
T
people are restricted from accessing the internet.
(Source: The Kashmir Files: Section 144 enforced in Rajasthan’s Kota in view of film’s screening, Excerpt taken
In 1990, the government declared a state of emergency in Jammu and Kashmir in order to suppress the riots that
had erupted in the state over a dispute among two religious groups. The state issued an internet restriction in
addition by apprehending formation of unlawful assembly through WhatsApp groups or social media handles.
On what grounds can a restriction on the internet be considered illegal?
(a) The restriction is legal as it has been imposed on grounds of emergency.
(b) The restriction is not legal as banning internet will amount to violation of fundamental right as guaranteed
under constitution.
(c) The restriction is valid as the restriction can even be imposed on the internet under the provision of section
144.
(d) Cannot be determined because the facts are incomplete.
8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
69. In his UPSC interview,
1S5N Jitu was given a hypothetical situation in which he was asked, "Suppose you are the
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
district magistrate of your area, and an application came to your office for permitting a religious rally, and on
the same day you also get an application from another religious group to grant permission for a rally on the same
route." What will your response be to the following question? Decide in accordance with the information given
in the passage. 1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
(a) Jitu may invoke Section 144 of the CrPC if he suspects danger.
(b) Jitu has the option of pursuing a more peaceful settlement.
(c) Jitu has the authority to allow one and advise other party to change the route.
(d) Jitu cannot invoke Section 144 of the CrPC because there is no risk.
70. Shrushti is a District Magistrate in the Madhya Pradesh district of Gadarwara. She was aware that on the day of
the final cricket match between India and Pakistan, the two communities in the district might not take one
another's defeat well. Shrushti cut the cable connection in the entire Gadarwara district on the day of the match.
Is Shrushti's action justified?
(a) Her action is valid and can be backed by section 144 of CPC.
(b) Her action is not valid as it is not issued under Section 144 of Crpc.
(c) Her action is valid as she holds such power in lieu of his post.
(d) Her action is not valid as any kind of curtailment cannot be imposed on said person or people in any event
where it is not deemed necessary.
71. The passage in its last Para states that, “Rather as per the law, any kind of curtailment can be imposed on said
person or people in any event where it is deemed necessary”. Choose a statement(s) that, based on your
interpretation of the passage, accurately depicts an anomaly in the context of the passage.
o m
I. Any officer of the state has the authority to issue an order in an emergency situation of nuisance or suspected
danger.
c
evidenced in the case of the previous internet ban.
rs .
II. Restriction can be imposed even on fundamental rights such as freedom of speech and expression, as
III. Authorities in Rajasthan's Kota have exploited Section 144 power in a negative way by enforcing Section
released film 'The Kashmir Files.' According to an Ex BJP MLA.

IV. The Code of Criminal Procedure applies to Power to issue order in urgent cases.
k e
144 in the city from March 22 to April 21 in order to ensure law and order during the screening of the recently
(a) I & II (b) III & IV
r an
(c) I, II & III (d) II, II & IV
Passage (Q.72-Q.75): A person in possession of a property is entitled to its undisturbed enjoyment as per law.
o p
However, if someone else’s improper use or enjoyment in his property ends up resulting in an unlawful
interference with his enjoyment or use of that property or of some of the rights over it, or in connection with it,
we can say that the tort of nuisance has occurred. Nuisance is an injury to the right of a person’s possession of
T
his property to undisturbed enjoyment of it and any act which is done with the intention to cause the infringement
of the legal rights of another is considered to be a wrongful act, damage or loss or annoyance caused to another
individual: damage or loss or annoyance must be such which the law should consider as a substantial material
for the claim. There are three kinds of remedies available in the case of a nuisance, these are: Injunction: An
injunction is a judicial order restraining a person from doing or continuing an act which might be threatening or
invading the legal rights of another. It may be in the form of a temporary injunction which is granted for a limited
period of time which may get reversed or confirmed. If it is confirmed, then it takes the form of a permanent
injunction, damages: The damages may be offered in terms of compensation to the aggrieved party, these could
be nominal damages. The damages to be paid to the aggrieved party is decided by the statue and the purpose of
the damages is not just compensating the individual who has suffered but also making the defendant realize his
mistakes and deter him from repeating the same wrong done by him, abatement: Abatement of nuisance means
the removal of a nuisance by the party who has suffered, without any legal proceedings. This kind of remedy is
not favored by the law. But is available under certain circumstances. This privilege must be exercised within a
reasonable time and usually requires notice to the defendant 8J1J5D
and his failure to act. Reasonable for may be used
tr-5K7H5H3G
to employ the abatement, and the plaintiff will be liable if his actions go beyond reasonable measures.
1S5N
5Q7R5U3S8U
tr-(Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/the-tort-of-nuisance/)
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72. N and S were neighbors. N made the decision to move out of his house and lease a new one. When N moved to
a new location, he leased O his former house. O used that space as a laboratory and conducted experiments there.
S learned about this. Because he was afraid of chemicals, he complained to N and asked him to persuade O to
leave the house and lease it to someone else. N turned down S's request. N was sued by S for nuisance. Choose
the best reason in light of the given passage.
(a) S’s suit will succeed because O’s experiment might lead to interference with N’s right of enjoying his
property.
(b) S’s suit against N will not succeed because he no longer resides there hence S should sue O.
(c) S’s suit against N will not succeed because O’s act is not interfering in his enjoyment at his own property.
(d) S’s suit will succeed because a laboratory at home is not acceptable because it may cause damage to people
or property.
73.
c o m
J and H are neighbors. J used to play musical instruments in the early hours of the day at her house. J ensured
that the sound from the instruments didn’t bother nearby residents but still H found the sound of a musical
instrument in the early morning hours irritating. J was asked to play the instruments gently but J was already
rs .
playing at the minimum sound, so he had no other resource so he kept on playing at the same pitch. No other
neighbours were bothered by. J was sued by H for nuisance. Determine his liability as per the passage.
(a) H’s suit will not succeed because he is annoyed due to its sensibility because no one else in the neighborhood
is annoyed.
e
(b) H’s suit will succeed because J’s act is causing interference of H in enjoyment of his property rights.
k
(c) H’s suit will succeed as essentials of nuisance are satisfied as J’s act is causing damage in a way of annoyance
to a person in enjoying his property rights.
an
(d) H’s suit will not succeed because getting annoyed by the sound of musical instruments as per the facts cannot
r
be considered as substantial material by law.
74.
o p
X and V were brothers and owned a house together. V resided on the first floor and X moved to a new place
leaving the ground floor empty. In order to support hospitals during Covid, X donated his part of the house. The
T
same main gate was used by V and his family as well as by infected people. V requested that X take back his
residence from the hospital because he is unable to enter and exit through the main gate, due to the threat of
infection. When X denied, V filed a nuisance lawsuit. Decide his liability.
(a) V’s act of donating his place to hospital during Covid was not an unlawful action of interfering with X’s
right over property.
(b) X can be asked to pay compensation in order to recover damages and also imprisoned in order to make him
realize his mistake.
(c) Injunction may be ordered by court temporary and then after confirmation it will become permanent in order
to stop it from further causing damage.
(d) Neither Injunction or damages can be given as remedy because X,s act has not infringed his property rights.
75. X, Y and Z lived in a hostel and Y's room was in the middle of either of the two; X practiced his electric guitar
every day and in the noise of the same Z was not able to study and due to which he failed in his exams but Y
who lived in between them did not have any problem.3GZ8Jsued 1J5D X under nuisance because due to his practice he
tr-5K7H5H
failed in exams. Choose the best response in light of passage.
5N
tr-(a) Z’s
5Q7R suit
5U3S 8U1Sagainst X will succeed because X's actions are interfering in Z’s enjoyment of his property.
(b) Z’s suit against X will not succeed because under nuisance the property must be owned by the plaintiff.
(c) Z’s suit against X will succeed because essentials of Nuisance are satisfied as Z is annoyed and has also
suffered loss due to X’s act
(d) Z’s suit against X will not succeed because tr- Z5Q
was 3S8U1S5N
facing
7R5U a problem only because of his sensitivity.
Passage (Q.76-Q.79): Essential ingredients of Section 8 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
By the plain reading of the Section, it can be inferred that the following are the essential ingredients of it-
• There should be a valid arbitration agreement between the parties.
• Action should be brought before the judicial authority and that action should be a subject matter of the
arbitration.
• Either of the parties or any person related to the dispute should invoke the arbitration clause or agreement
before the date of submitting their first statement on the substance of the dispute before the judicial authority.
• The application of the party to refer the case to arbitration.
The Supreme Court of India in 2011 enlisted 6 categories of dispute which are not arbitrable in the case of Booze
Allen & Hamilton Inc. vs. SBI Home Finance Ltd. and Ors.(2011) The list is as follows:
1. Disputes related to criminal offence or fraud,
2. Matrimonial disputes,
3. Guardianship matters,
4. Insolvency and winding-up matters,
c o m
5. Testamentary matters, and
6. Eviction or tenancy matters.
rs .
Post the 2015 amendment, the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India further added another category of matter which
k e
was non-arbitrable in the case of Shri Vimal Kishor Shah & Ors vs. Mr. Jayesh Dinesh Shah & Ors, (2016), the
category is- disputes arising out of a Trust Deed. The reasoning given by the court is that, since the execution of
the trust deed is done by the testator and not the beneficiaries, which makes the beneficiaries non-parties to the
clause.
r an
trust deed, there exists no arbitration agreement between them even though the trust deed had an arbitration
76.
o p
A and B are partners in a business venture. They have a partnership deed which contains an arbitration clause.
C is a creditor who has lent money to A and B for their business. C files a suit against A and B for recovery of
his money. A and B apply to the court under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to refer this
T
dispute to arbitration. Is their application maintainable?
(a) Yes, because there is a valid arbitration agreement between A and B.
(b) No, because the dispute involves C who is not a party to the arbitration agreement.
(c) Yes, because the dispute is related to a commercial transaction which is arbitrable.
(d) No, because the dispute affects the rights of C who is a third party.
77. D and E are married and have a dispute over their property. They have a prenuptial agreement which contains
an arbitration clause for any property related dispute amongst them. F is their daughter who claims a share in the
property as per the Hindu Succession Act, 1956. F files a suit against D and E for partition of the property. D
and E apply to the court under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to refer the dispute to
arbitration as it involves issue related with partition of their property. Is their application maintainable?
(a) Yes, because there is a valid agreement between D and E.
(b) No, because the dispute involves F who is not a party to the arbitration agreement.
(c) Yes, because the dispute is related to a civil matter3Gwhich
8J1J5D
is arbitrable.
tr-5K7H5H
(d) No, because the dispute is related to a matrimonial matter which is not arbitrable and hence non maintainable
1S5N
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78. M and N are trustees of a charitable trust. They have a trust deed which contains an arbitration clause. O is a
beneficiary of the trust deed who alleges that M and N have breached their fiduciary duties by misappropriating
the trust funds. O files a suit against M and N for removal of trustees and restitution of the trust funds. M and N
apply to the court under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to refer the dispute to arbitration.
Is their application maintainable?
(a) Yes, because there is a valid arbitration agreement between M and N.
(b) No, because the dispute involves O who is not a party to the arbitration agreement.
(c) Yes, because the dispute is related to a contractual matter which is arbitrable.
(d) No, because the dispute is related to a trust matter which is not arbitrable.
79. Y and Z are members of a housing society. They have a bye-law which contains an arbitration clause. A is an
architect who was hired by the society to design and construct a new building. A claims that he has completed
m
his work as per the contract and demands payment from the society. The society alleges that A has done
o
substandard work and refuses to pay him. A files a suit against Y, Z and the society for recovery of his dues. Y
c
and Z apply to the court under Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to refer the dispute to
arbitration. Is their application maintainable?
(a) Yes, because there is a valid arbitration agreement between Y, Z and the society.
(b) No, because the dispute involves A who is a party to the arbitration agreement.
rs .
k e
(c) Yes, because A is bound by the bye-law of the society which contains an arbitration clause.
(d) No, because A has an independent contract with the society which does not contain an arbitration clause.
n
Passage (Q.80-Q.83): Section 1 of the draft Aircraft Bill provides for the extent of applicability of the Aircraft
a
Bill, 2023. (ii) Section 2 defines certain terms which are necessary in terms of the subject of the draft Bill for
r
administration of the provisions of the draft Bill. (iii) Section 3; Section 4 and Section 5 of the draft Bill
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provisions for creation of Statutory body namely, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation; Bureau of Civil
Aviation Security and the Aircraft Accident Investigation Bureau to discharge the regulatory and oversight
function entrusted for implementation of the Standards and Recommended Practice (SARPs) as prescribed by
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respective Annex(es) to the Chicago Convention under the provisions of the draft Aircraft Bill, 2023. (iv) Section
6 of the draft Bill provides the Central Government with power of superintendence over the statutory bodies
created under Section 3; Section 4 and Section 5 respectively. (v) Section 7 provides for the power of Central
Government to make rules under the act for designating authorities to exercise powers under the draft Bill for
regulation of air transport service including inter- alia licencing, certification, inspection, regulation, prohibition,
manner form and conditions etc., (vi) Section 8 provides for the power to statutory authority to issue directions
in respect of the respective functions of the statutory authority under Section 3; Section 4 and Section 5. (vii)
Section 9 provides for the powers to Central Government to make rules for carrying out the convention relating
to International Civil Aviation signed at Chicago on 7th December 1944 and includes any Annex thereto. (viii)
Section 10 provides for the power of Central Government to make rules for investigation of accidents including,
among other things, prohibition for access to or interference with aircraft to which accident or incident has
occurred.
[Source:chromeextension://efaidnbmnnnibpcajpcglclefindmkaj/https://www.civilaviation.gov.in/sites/default/fi
les/Draft%20Aircraft%20Bill%2C%202023%20for%20public%20consultation..pdf]
3G8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
80. In recent years, there have been a few high-profile aviation accidents that have raised questions about the safety
of air travel. These incidents have prompted regulators to re-evaluate safety standards and the maintenance
practices of airlines worldwide. As air travel becomes more common, concerns over consumer rights have gained
prominence. Passengers have raised issues related to overbooking, flight cancellations, lost baggage, and pricing
transparency. Regulators are under pressure to enact policies that protect passengers' rights and ensure fair
competition among airlines. A policy is enacted to regulate air transport service designating proper authorities.
Is it valid in accordance with the passage?
(a) Yes, because there can be regulation of air transport under Section 7 of the Bill.
(b) No, because there can be no regulation of the air transport as it does not fall within a central authority.
(c) Yes, because there can be regulation of aircrafts under Section 12 of the Goods Carrier bill.
(d) No, because there can be no regulation of transport and air travel according to Defence Act.
81.
c o m
In recent years, India has seen a rise in aviation accidents, ranging from minor incidents to major crashes,
involving both domestic and international flights. These incidents have raised concerns about the effectiveness
and transparency of aircraft accident investigations in the country. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation
rs .
(DGCA), India's regulatory authority for civil aviation, faces resource constraints when it comes to conducting
thorough investigations. This includes limitations in terms of personnel, technology, and funding. Aircraft
accidents often involve multiple stakeholders, including airlines, manufacturers, air traffic control, and
k e
government agencies. Coordinating efforts among these entities for a comprehensive investigation can be
challenging but it was ordered by the State government. Is the investigation valid according to the passage?
(a) Yes, because the power of government under the Bill allows for such investigations.
n
(b) No, because there can be no investigation by the state government doing so under this case.
a
(c) Yes, because there can be investigation under the Aircrafts Act 1982 read with Article 21 of the Constitution.
r
(d) No, because there can be no investigation in a clear accident case of the aircraft.
82.
o p
India is experiencing a period of rapid expansion in its aviation sector, with a growing number of domestic and
international flights. In this context, the effective implementation of SARPs has become a central concern for
T
regulators, airlines, and aviation authorities. India, as a member state of International Civil Aviation Organisation
(ICAO), is committed to implementing ICAO SARPs to ensure the safety and security of civil aviation. Is it
valid in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because there will have to be implementation of SARPs according to the Bill.
(b) No, because there will be no implementation of SARP according to the Bill.
(c) Yes, because such SARP has been mandated by the Aircraft Act 2021 enacted to ensure forensic hygiene.
(d) No, because there is no requirement about SARP from the Bill relating to aircrafts.
83. "Country X" has a federal structure in which states or regions have considerable autonomy in managing their
affairs, including education, healthcare, and air transportation. Shifting supervisory and superintendence
authority to the central government requires a delicate balance between federal and state powers. Proponents
argue that centralizing supervision would lead to greater efficiency, uniformity, and standardization across the
country. However, opponents worry that this may stifle local innovation and flexibility. Is such supervision of
air travel valid according to the passage? 8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
(a) Yes, because there can be supervision of statutory authorities for aircrafts by the central government.
tr-(b) No,
5Q7R 8U1S5N there can be no supervision of aircraft authorities by the central government.
5U3Sbecause
(c) Yes, because there has to be superintendence of aircrafts as per the Aircraft Act 2023.
(d) No, because there can be no supervision of air travel according to High Court judgment.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.84-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.84-Q.88): Economic policies such as industrial subsidies and local content requirements have made
a roaring comeback; forgotten WTO rules like security exceptions now occupy centre stage; and there is a
deliberate effort to weaken trade multilateralism (binding on all) in favour of external plurilateral (binding on
those who choose to) alignments keeping the big power confrontation in mind. In this milieu, it is naïve to believe
that the developed G20 countries are interested in reforming the WTO for the better. A weak WTO perfectly
suits the US as part of its foreign policy aimed at strategic rivalry with China.
Against this background, India, under its Presidency of the G20, should work with others to drive the WTO
reforms agenda to make trade multilateralism inclusive. The agenda must concern four critical areas. First, one
m
of the cardinal pillars of the international trading regime is the presence of special and differential treatment
o
(SDT) principle in WTO agreements. SDT provisions give special rights to developing countries and obligate
c
developed countries to treat the former more favourably. Second, the appellate body — the second tier of the
rs .
WTO’s two-tiered dispute settlement body — remains paralysed since 2019 because of the US’s continued
nonchalance. This is part of Washington’s overall game plan to dilute the policing part of the WTO, which, in
turn, allows it to pursue trade unilateralism without many checks. However, the remaining G20 countries need
k e
to either persuade the US to change its position or resurrect the appellate body without the US. Third, given the
slowness of the consensus-based decision-making in the WTO, from 2017 onward, there has been a shift away
from this principle toward plurilateral discussions on select issues such as investment facilitation. While the
n
plurilateral approach is a welcome development for rule-making, there is a need to develop a multilateral
a
governance framework for plurilateral agreements. This governance framework should include key principles of
r
non-discrimination, transparency, and inclusivity in incorporating the results of plurilateral negotiations in the
o p
WTO rulebook. Forcing plurilateral agreements on non-willing members will accentuate the trust deficit between
developed and developing countries. Fourth, it is imperative to address the transparency gap in the WTO,
especially in terms of notification requirements. Although WTO member countries are obliged to notify all their
84.
T
laws and regulations that affect trade, compliance with this obligation is poor. This increases the cost of trade,
especially for developing countries.
Trade multilateralism might be out of fashion, but remains of vital salience for countries like India.
Which among the following options captures the central idea of the passage?
(a) The WTO is facing a crisis due to the US’s unilateralism, China’s rise, and the lack of consensus among its
members on key issues.
(b) To strengthen the WTO for better, India must drive reforms agenda to make trade multilateralism inclusive.
(c) The WTO has become irrelevant in the face of new economic policies, security exceptions, and plurilateral
alignments that favour the developed countries over the developing ones.
(d) The WTO has to balance the interests of different groups of countries, such as the G20, the BRICS, and the
LDCs, in order to maintain its legitimacy and effectiveness.
85. The argument in the passage cannot be true unless which of the following is true?
8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
(a) An active appellate body in the WTO’s two-tiered mechanism would favour the US less than other member
5U3S8U1S5N
countries.
tr-5Q7R
(b) The presence of (SDT) principle in WTO agreements will give more opportunities to developing countries
than the developed countries.
(c) An active appellate body in the WTO’s two-tiered mechanism would not favour the US any more than other
1S5N
member countries. tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
(d) The WTO’s agenda is to bring every member country on the same level of development regardless of the
size of the member country.
86. Which among the following options, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument that trade
multilateralism remains of vital salience for countries like India?
(a) India believes in the principle of international cooperation for security, stability, and peace.
(b) India’s GDP is fuelled by global partnerships that also fulfil India’s needs in the areas of trade, education,
and health.
(c) Trade multilateralism reflects India’s values, principles, and aspirations, which are important for its identity
and leadership in the world.
(d) Trade multilateralism enables India to leverage its strengths, interests, and partnerships, somewhat
amplifying its influence and bargaining power.
87. Which among the following is the author most likely to agree with?
I. The WTO should be reformed in such way that developed nations are not able to carry out their plans.
II. The WTO should be reformed by addressing the issues of SDT, dispute settlement, plurilateral agreements,
and transparency in a balanced and inclusive manner.
III. Reforms making the WTO more empowered may harm the cunning plans of developed nations.
c o m
IV. The WTO should be replaced by a new global trade organization that is more democratic and responsive to
the needs of developing countries.
(a) Only I, II, and III
(c) Only II
(b) Only II and III
(d) Only I and II
rs .
88.
others to drive the WTO reforms agenda?
k e
Which among the following options, if true, would weaken the author’s suggestion that India should work with
n
(a) India has a poor record of implementing and complying with the WTO rules and obligations, raising
a
questions on its credibility and leadership in the WTO.
r
(b) India has a strong interest in preserving and enhancing the SDT principle, which is opposed by many
o p
developed and emerging countries in the WTO.
(c) Large and diversified economy, makes India less dependent on trade multilateralism and more resilient to
trade shocks and disputes.
T
(d) India has a unique and complex political system, making negotiations a time-consuming process to
coordinate with other countries on trade issues.
Passage (Q.89-Q.93): People have been likening light to consciousness since the days of Plato and his cave
because, like light, consciousness illuminates. It makes the world manifest. It is, in the formulation of the great
Carl Sagan, the Universe knowing itself. But the metaphor is not perfect. Unlike light, whose photons permeate
the entire cosmos, human-grade consciousness appears to be rare in our Universe. It appears to be something
akin to a single candle flame, flickering weakly in a vast and drafty void.
I often think about the mysterious absence of intelligent life in the observable Universe. Humans have yet to
undertake an exhaustive, or even vigorous, search for extra-terrestrial intelligence, of course. But we have gone
a great deal further than a casual glance skyward. For more than 50 years, we have trained radio telescopes on
nearby stars, hoping to detect an electromagnetic signal, a beacon beamed across the abyss. We have searched
for sentry probes in our solar system, and we have examined local stars for evidence of alien engineering. Soon,
we will begin looking for synthetic pollutants in the3Gatmospheres
8J1J5D
of distant planets, and asteroid belts with
tr-5K7H5H
missing metals, which might suggest mining activity.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
At our current rate of technological growth, humanity is on a path to be godlike in its capabilities. You could
bicycle to Alpha Centauri in a few hundred thousand years, and that’s nothing on an evolutionary scale. If an
advanced civilisation existed at any place in this galaxy, at any point in the past 13.8 billion years, why isn’t it
1S5N
everywhere? Even if it moved slowly, it would tr-only
5Q7Rneed something
5U3S8U like .01 per cent of the Universe’s lifespan
to be everywhere. So why isn’t it?’
The failure of these searches is mysterious, because human intelligence should not be special. Ever since
the age of Copernicus, we have been told that we occupy a uniform Universe, a weblike structure stretching for
tens of billions of light years, its every strand studded with starry discs, rich with planets and moons made from
the same material as us. As nature obeys identical laws everywhere, surely these vast reaches contain many
cauldrons where energy is magically stirred into water and rock to give birth to life. And surely some of these
places nurture those first fragile cells, until they evolve into intelligent creatures that band together to form
civilisations, with the foresight and staying power to build starships.
89. Which of the following, if true, most supports the author’s argument that life surely exists beyond the Earth?
(a) The technology humans employ to catch signals indicating intelligent life in the observable universe is
adequate.
(b) The human technology is not adequate enough to capture signals beyond a particular point in the universe.
(c) Radio telescopes used in searches are not far enough from their target stars to not identify electromagnetic
radiation.
o m
(d) It is not possible for a probe continuing for 50 years to not yield any positive results for which it was
launched.
c
90. The author islikely to agree with which of the following?
rs .
I. The present efforts to search for extraterrestrial life don’t warrant discovery of such life if it exists.
(a) Only I and II (b) Only II (c) Only III
k e
II. Our present efforts to search for extra-terrestrial intelligence are not inadequate to find such life.
III. The intelligent life beyond the Earth may take more time to evolve than the life on the Earth has.
(d) Only II and III
91.
an
Which of the following best represents the main topic discussed in the passage?
r
(a) Identification of reasons for existence of intelligent life beyond the Earth
o p
(b) The Search for Advanced Extraterrestrial Civilizations beyond the Earth.
(c) The Role of Radio Telescopes in Identifying Extraterrestrial Signals
(d) Interstellar Communication and Advanced Technologies"
92.
intelligence?
T
Based on the above passage, which is a logical assumption in the argument about the search for extraterrestrial
(a) The usage of some substances by extraterrestrial intelligence may cause pollutants that we know.
(b) The lack of success in finding extraterrestrial intelligence so far implies that advanced civilizations do not
exist in the observable Universe.
(c) Humans have the capability to build starships and travel to distant planets to search for extraterrestrial
intelligence.
(d) All the devices that extraterrestrial intelligence uses will release electromagnetic radiation to be captured by
humans.
93. Which of the following describes the role of the boldface statement in the passage?
(a) It is a piece of information supporting the position taken by the author in the argument.
(b) It highlights the author's concern about the lack of3Gsuccess
8J1J5D
being interpreted as non-existence of intelligent
tr-5K7H5H
life.
tr-(c) 3S8U1S5N evidence supporting the claim that human-grade consciousness is akin to a single candle flame
It5Uprovides
5Q7R
in the vast Universe.
(d) It introduces the search for synthetic pollutants in the atmospheres of distant planets as a new approach to
finding extraterrestrial intelligence.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
Passage (Q.94-Q.98): It is the middle of night. I wake up from a bad dream. I feel uneasy. I know it was a dream
but in the pit of my stomach I am carrying feelings for which I don’t have full, linear explanations. My thinking
might not be clear or comprehensive. The ability to tolerate this – or even be curious about the experience, and
not collapse under its confusing, shapeless, nameless ambiguity – is not dissimilar from the experience I had
with Guston’s Alchemist. Waking from a bad dream or confronting a work of abstract art are both examples of
moments when we are presented with the uncertainty of our feelings or experiences. By learning to dwell on the
uncomfortable images in these moments, by reflecting and imagining, we might begin to intuit, or tolerate, what
is wrong.
This practice of looking does not prioritise academic or historical perspectives on art. It is divorced from the
artist, the industry and the formal study of the arts. By paying attention to the form, title and other perceptible
‘clues’ in the work, this practice is primarily interested in using the intuitive, sensory, suggestive and aleatory to
m
engage in conversation with a creative work. The point is not to develop an answer, an interpretation that ‘settles’
o
the ‘question’ of the painting, or to intellectualise the work in terms of form, style, history or the concerns of the
c
artist. Rather, in this practice, a piece of art or writing becomes a test or opportunity for working one’s
rs .
imagination – an exercise in making associations. The focus stays within the frame of the image or text. The art
object, which cannot speak, can contain only a collection of polysemous signs that become visible when pulled
out of the canvas by the viewer’s imagination. The ideal engagement is not one that dispels that which is
e
challenging in a creative work, but rather one that builds tolerance for exploring the ambiguous through Keats’s
negative capability. It’s like the interpretation of a dream, which can be full of ideas but not answers.
k
n
An important idea for open-ended engagement is 'suspension,' borrowed from literary critic Gayatri Chakravorty
a
Spivak's reflections on reading. According to Spivak, good reading practice involves 'suspending oneself into
r
the text of the other,' which means not imposing one's own meaning onto a work of art. Instead, Spivak
o p
encourages 'patient reading' and seeking a response from the work itself, allowing understanding to emerge. This
maintains the focus on the object being observed rather than the self.
94.
T
According to the passage, which underlying assumption supports the idea that engaging with abstract art and
waking up from a bad dream share similarities?
(a) Abstract art can be fully understood through linear explanations and definitive interpretations.
(b) Exploring emotions in abstract art requires a focus on the artist's intentions and historical context.
(c) Both abstract art and dreams evoke feelings and experiences that lack clear, straightforward explanations.
(d) Understanding abstract art necessitates intellectualizing and prioritizing academic perspectives.
95. What does the passage suggest about the ideal approach to engaging with abstract art?
(a) Abstract art should be approached from an intellectual viewpoint to fully appreciate its historical
significance.
(b) The primary focus in engaging with abstract art should be on the artist's intentions and motivations.
(c) Engaging with abstract art should involve using intuition and imagination to explore its emotional impact.
(d) The emotional impact of abstract art can be fully understood through linear and definitive interpretations.
tr-5K 7H5H3G8J1J5D
96. Which of the following obstacles is observed in the passage regarding the interpretation of abstract art?
tr-(a) The
5Q7R 8U1S5Ncomplex the emotional experience with abstract art, the clearer the artist's intentions become.
5U3Smore
(b) Embracing ambiguity in abstract art leads to both discomfort and a heightened sense of uncertain
interpretation.
(c) Engaging with abstract art involves divorcing academic perspectives, yet it requires a thorough
understanding of the artist's background. tr-5Q7R5U3S8U1S5N
(d) Understanding abstract art through historical context enhances emotional exploration, yet it restricts one's
imagination.
97. Which of the following options strengthens the argument for engaging with abstract art using intuition and
emotion?
(a) Presenting a study indicating that the emotional impact of abstract art is insignificant compared to other art
forms.
(b) Providing testimonials from renowned artists who advocate for a purely intellectual approach to
understanding abstract art.
(c) Quoting art historians who criticize the use of intuition and emotion in art appreciation as subjective and
unreliable.
(d) Presenting a survey showing that viewers who engage emotionally with abstract art report a more profound
connection to the artwork
98. The passage implies that abstract art lacks emotional depth and is best appreciated through intellectual analysis."
(a) Definitely True (b) Probably True (c) Definitely False
o m
(d) Cannot be determined
c
rs .
Passage (Q.99-Q.103): So how are we to understand Darwin’s legacy today? Darwin was more nuanced in his
ideas than his neo-Darwinist followers and was willing to acknowledge hereditary variation ‘independently of
natural selection’. In The Variation of Animals and Plants under Domestication (1868), he described a pangenetic
k e
theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics by means of what he called ‘gemmules’ – particles that pass
from parents to offspring. Today, the inheritance of acquired epigenetics (how genes are affected by behaviour
and environment, and not by alteration in DNA) and their transmission across generations by means of extra-
n
cellular vesicles (the equivalent of Darwin’s gemmules) is subject to widespread and vigorous experimentation.
a
In The Descent of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex (1871), Darwin formulated his theory of sexual
r
selection, which postulates an active evolutionary role for evolving organisms. Clearly, Darwin remained open
o p
to new ideas, even when they contradicted his earlier pronouncements.
Not so with Darwin’s 20th-century followers. Advocates of the neo-Darwinian Modern Synthesis misrepresented
T
the range of Darwin’s theories of evolution by narrowing them down to just two of his contributions – gradual
variation and natural selection – and claimed that this simplification could explain all of evolution. This was an
example of what McClintock called the ‘now explanation’, meaning a set of ideas based on contemporary science
that is taken as the final and complete understanding of a complex subject, such as evolution. That idea of
completeness was implicit in the name ‘Modern Synthesis’ and was often articulated by its advocates. But
science is not static. Discoveries such as transposable elements, horizontal DNA transfers, Lego-like protein
evolution and the multifarious roles of ncRNAs cannot be anticipated. Evolutionary biologists share a
responsibility to prepare their students for inevitable surprises.
By turning evolutionary variation from random accidents to biological responses, 21st-century molecular
genetics and genomics have revealed that living organisms possess tremendous potential for adaptive genome
reconfiguration. For evolution scientists, this revelation poses an important set of obligations. Those obligations
include reorienting our studies of adaptive variation towards learning how deeply genome change is integrated
with biocognitive sensory responses. This new evolutionary 8J1J5D
paradigm will require a more organic mode of
tr-5K7H5H3G
research that combines genomics, physiology and cognitive science. For some philosophers of science, 21st-
tr-century 8U1S5N
5Q7R5U3Sevolutionary biology will require rethinking all the purely mechanical physics-based assumptions they
have held about life. Biologists will have to incorporate as foundational a recognition that rapid genome
reorganisation is not only a feature of all organisms but, evidently, has proved essential for the survival of life
on an ecologically diverse and dynamic planet.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
99. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential obligation for evolutionary biologists, according to the
passage?
(a) Incorporating genomics, physiology, and cognitive science into research.
(b) Embracing the Modern Synthesis as the final and complete understanding of evolution.
(c) Rethinking purely mechanical physics-based assumptions about life.
(d) Preparing students for unexpected discoveries in the field of evolutionary biology.
100. What assumption is likely about the role of 21st-century molecular genetics and genomics in evolutionary
biology?
(a) The discoveries in 21st-century genetics and genomics have completely replaced and invalidated Darwin's
original ideas on gradual variation and natural selection.
(b) The findings in 21st-century genetics and genomics have expanded our understanding of evolution,
complementing and building upon Darwin's theories.
o m
(c) The focus of 21st-century genetics and genomics is solely on gemmules and their inheritance of acquired
characteristics, disregarding other evolutionary mechanisms.
c
Synthesis and a return to Darwin's original concepts.
rs .
(d) The discoveries in 21st-century genetics and genomics have led to the complete rejection of the Modern
k e
101. Which of the following best represents the reason for criticizing the advocates of “Modern Synthesis”?
(a) Failure to reject the relevance of Darwin's original concepts in modern evolutionary biology
(b) The passage relies heavily on anecdotal evidence and personal opinions rather than presenting objective
scientific data to support its claims.
an
(c) The assumption that simplification of Darwin’s theories were adequate to account for evolutionary changes
that cannot be anticipated.
r
o p
(d) The passage draws erroneous conclusions by equating gemmules from Darwin's time with the 21st-century
concept of extra-cellular vesicles in inheritance.
T
102. What is the main idea conveyed in the passage?
(a) The shortcomings of 20th-century neo-Darwinists in accurately representing Darwin's ideas and the need to
return to his original concepts for a comprehensive understanding of evolution.
(b) The importance of embracing 21st-century genetics and genomics to expand our understanding of evolution
beyond the limitations of the Modern Synthesis.
(c) The significance of gemmules and extra-cellular vesicles in the inheritance of acquired characteristics and
their role in shaping evolutionary processes.
(d) The appreciation of the Modern Synthesis and the call for a complete overhaul of the existing theories in
evolutionary biology.
103. Which of the following, addresses the likely consequence of encouraged researches keeping the expanded scope
of evolutionary biology with the inclusion of 21st-century genetics and genomics?
(a) It would dismiss the relevance of Darwin's early theories as they have been surpassed by modern
advancements. 1J5D
5K7H5H3G8J
(b) It would focus exclusively on gemmules tr-and their inheritance of acquired characteristics to gain a deeper
tr-5Q7R 5U3S8U1S5N
understanding of evolution.
(c) It would integrate genomics, physiology, and cognitive science into their research to explore the intricate
relationship between genome change and biocognitive sensory responses.
(d) It would avoid any further investigation into the multifarious roles of non-coding RNAs in evolutionary
1S5N
processes. tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
Passage (Q.104-Q.108): Ron DeSantis, Governor of Florida and a prospective Republican candidate for the US
presidency, did not have the most auspicious start to his campaign. A programme hosted by Elon Musk on
Twitter Spaces, featuring DeSantis, was riddled with technical glitches — sound issues, people being unable to
log in, etc. Trump, of course, took to Truth Social to ridicule DeSantis and the event. But notwithstanding the
glitch, DeSantis is currently the most credible challenger to Trump for the nomination. The question, though, is
how different he is from Trump and Trumpism.
DeSantis, once an avid supporter of the former president, has gradually distanced himself from some of the more
contentious aspects of Trump’s politics. For example, he has not denied the legitimacy of the 2020 presidential
election nor has he openly celebrated the January 2021 Capitol riots. And while he did not attack Trump directly
at the Twitter event, DeSantis took a barely disguised swipe at the former: “Government is not about
entertainment, not about building a brand,” he said. Initially, DeSantis rose to national prominence in the US as
m
a result of his Covid policies — he refused to abide by many of the restrictions and advisories recommended by
o
Washington. The image he is seeking to cultivate is one of “common sense” and efficient governance. In
c
addition, he might be banking on the fact that the more traditional and socially conservative Republicans might
be irked by scandals like the Stormy Daniels pay-off episode.
rs .
Despite the differences, it would be a mistake to think of DeSantis as diametrically opposed to Trump. In Florida,
e
his focus has been on divisive, “hot button” issues that have become the hallmark of the most illiberal tendencies
in his party — transgender rights and critical race theory, for example. He has also pushed legislation that
k
severely restricts women’s bodily autonomy and right to abortion. DeSantis may appear — or perhaps is — less
r an
boorish than his rival. But on fundamental issues, he is not all that different.
104. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
Twitter Spaces sessions.
o p
(a) Ron DeSantis, despite some criticism, managed to completely fix all the technical issues in subsequent
(b) Ron DeSantis has shown strong opposition to Trump's politics and has proposed significantly different
policies.
his party.
T
(c) Ron DeSantis has been recognized by his party for bringing those issues that are the most important to the
(d) Ron DeSantis has openly supported some of the issues and the policies that are not very different from those
supported by Trump.
105. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
(a) Ron DeSantis has publicly stated that his policies are completely distinct from those of Trump and has proven
it with evidence.
(b) DeSantis handled the technical glitches professionally, winning widespread admiration for his resilience.
(c) Despite being a Republican, DeSantis has been praised by many Democrats for his handling of contentious
issues.
(d) DeSantis has a robust plan for the economy that builds on but significantly diverges from Trump's economic
policy. 3G8J1J5D tr-5K7H5H
106. tr-If5Qthe 3S8U1S5N assertion is that DeSantis and Trump share many fundamental views, which of the following is
passage's
7R5U
the clearest deviation of DeSantis from Trump's contentious politics?
(a) DeSantis' refusal to follow many of Washington's COVID policies.
(b) DeSantis' emphasis on government not being about entertainment or brand-building.
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U rights and critical race theory.
(c) DeSantis' focus on "hot button" issues like transgender
(d) DeSantis not openly celebrating the January 2021 Capitol riots.
107. Based on the information in the passage, which of the following inferences can be made about DeSantis's political
strategy?
(a) DeSantis is trying to distance himself from Trump by aligning more with moderate political views.
(b) DeSantis is seeking to appeal to traditional, socially conservative Republicans while still maintaining focus
on hot-button issues.
(c) DeSantis is planning to transform the Republican party with a new, more liberal ideology.
(d) DeSantis believes his key to winning the nomination is through public support from Elon Musk.
108. Based on the passage, if one were to argue that DeSantis' rise to national prominence was solely due to his
divergence from Washington's COVID policies, which other factor presented would challenge that assertion?
(a) DeSantis' careful distancing from some contentious aspects of Trump's politics.
(b) DeSantis' lack of attention to divisive, "hot button" issues in Florida.
(c) DeSantis' participation in a glitch-ridden programme on Twitter Spaces.
(d) DeSantis' attempt to appeal to traditional and socially conservative Republicans.
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
8J1J5D
tr-5K7H5H3G
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
1S5N
tr-5Q7R5U3S8U
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Based on the information given below, answer the following questions.
A pen manufacturing company plans to start a new unit near Gurgaon. The initial cost of setting up the plant and
other costs are approximately Rs. 700000. On the basis of the prior experience, the number of units sold can be
calculated using the following equation:
Units sold =70,000 - 200P, where P is the selling price of each pen. The cost price of each pen is Rs. 110
109. Find the price (in Rs.) at which the profit is zero
(a) 126 (b) 334 (c) 126 or 334 (d) None of these
110. Find the profit equation when the price is 50 more than the price when the profit is zero.
(a) 𝑃2 − 560𝑃 + 67500 = 0
2
(c) 𝑃 − 560𝑃 + 67600 = 0
(b) 𝑃2 − 660𝑃 + 67500 = 0
(d) None of these
c o m
111. What is the profit equation when the price is 50 less than the price when the profit is zero?
(a) 𝑃2 − 260𝑃 + 21500 = 0
2
(c) 𝑃 − 360𝑃 + 22500 = 0
(b) 𝑃2 − 360𝑃 + 21500 = 0
(d) None of these
rs .
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112. What is the profit equation when the price is 1/5 times the price when the profit is zero?
(a) 𝑃2 − 100𝑃 + 1680 = 0 (b) 𝑃2 − 92𝑃 + 1880 = 0
(c) 𝑃2 − 92𝑃 + 1680 = 0
r an
(d) None of these
Directions (Q.113-Q.116): Following information gives the data regarding sale of fans from three different
companies during different years.
o p
2014: Respective ratio of number of fans sold from company A and C is 16: 15 and number of fans sold from
B.
T
company C are 82.5% of the number of fans sold from company B. Total 3760 fans sold from company A and
2015: Number of fans sold from company B are 25 and 145 respectively more than the number of fans sold from
company A and C. Sum of number of fans sold from company A and C is 3720.
2016: Number of fans sold from company A are 18/35 time the number of fans sold from company B and 1156
fans sold from company C which are 76 more than the number of fans sold from store A.
113. Sale of fans in company B in 2015 is increased/decreased by what percent than previous year?
(a) 1.5% (b) 3% (c) 2.75% (d) 4.25%
114. In 2015, if production and sale of fans in company A are in the ratio 11: 6 respectively, then how many fans
remain unsold in company A in 2015? 8J1J5D
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(a) 1400 (b) 1270 (c) 1350 (d) 1600
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115. What is the respective ratio of sale of fans in company A in 2016 to the sale of fans in company C in 2015?
(a) 3: 5 (b) 1: 1 (c) 4: 7 (d) 2: 5
8U 1S5N
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116. What is the difference between sale of fans in company and C in 2016 and sale of fans in company A and C
in 2014?
(a) 128 (b) 154 (c) 136 (d) 140
Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.
Sheetal invited five of her friends to her birthday party. When her friends arrived at the party, they noticed that
eight chairs were kept in the hall and were numbered from 1 to 8. Out of those five friends, 2 were women and
3 were men. They wished to occupy one chair each.
117. At first, the two women chose two chairs from the chairs numbered 1 to 4. Now, the men selected three chairs
from the remaining six chairs. Find the total number of possible ways to do it.
(a) 1440 (b) 1510 (c) 1620 (d) 1640
118. If 3 men chose the chairs first among the chairs marked 1 to 5 and then the women selected the chairs among the
remaining chairs, find the total number of ways to do it.
(a) 1150 (b) 1200 (c) 1250 (d) 1300
o m
119. If one woman occupied any one chair first and then the remaining friends did the same, find the total number of
possible arrangements.
c
(a) 12810 (b) 12290 (c) 13440 (d) 14650
rs .
120. If one man occupied any one chair first and then one woman, following the same sequence, find the total number
of possible arrangements.
(a) 55540 (b) 80640 (c) 75880 (d) 60640
k e
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T
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Notes:-
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8J1J5D
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Notes:-
c o m
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8J1J5D
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Notes:-
c o m
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8J1J5D
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All India Open Mock Clat 06 (Clat 38) 5753815

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

for a fresh booklet so obtained.

4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be

Subject Q. No. Page No.

climate of unyielding conformity to Portuguese religious tenets.

5. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?

Which of the following is not supported by the passage? m

Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?

What is the author’s main point in the passage above?

23. The market economy is criticized by the author as it

(b) Metahistorical doctrines in society: Need of the Present Age.

Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Chandrayaan 3

o (b) A malfunctioning landing system

(a) Centralization of education

Passage (Q.33-Q.35): Katchatheevu Island

Passage (Q.41-Q.43): Jallikattu, Kambala can go on Tamil Nadu and Karnataka - SC

(c) Neonatal Mortality Rate

Passage (Q.48-Q.51): ASEAN Summit

48. Which country hosted the ASEAN – India summit in 2002?

(b) Quadrant United Alliance Division

brought a cheating lawsuit against Z.

confessions of coworkers rather than concrete evidence.

with public nuisance and crime prevention.

section is “Power to issue order in urgent cases of nuisance or apprehended danger”.

released film 'The Kashmir Files.' According to an Ex BJP MLA.

(a) I & II (b) III & IV

(a) Only I and II (b) Only II (c) Only III

(a) Definitely True (b) Probably True (c) Definitely False

Twitter Spaces sessions.

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