Mock CLAT 35 Question Paper5753815

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 35
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120

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k e11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for

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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-51 10
Legal Reasoning 52-83 15
Logical Reasoning 84-107 28
Quantitative Techniques 108-120 36
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In the time of Elizabeth I of England and Ireland the statesman Francis Bacon published a
short essay On Atheism. “It is true,” he says, “that a little philosophy inclineth man’s mind to atheism; but depth
in philosophy bringeth men’s minds about to religion.” But atheism is not just intellectually shallow, he thinks;
it’s morally pernicious. “They that deny a God destroy man’s nobility.” Atheism “destroys magnanimity” and
deprives human nature of the “means to exalt itself above human frailty.” That was in 1597 when atheists were
pretty much outliers. But now, we live in an increasingly secular, “post-metaphysical” age, and significant parts
of our populations don’t reject religion — it just isn’t part of their mental landscape. This alarms those believers
who think that the moral fabric of society is being destroyed by this loss of religion. Secular humanists, on the
other hand, assert that moral standards don’t depend on religious belief, and many secularists think that religion
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itself is pernicious — fundamentalist, obscurantist, patriarchal, repressive. This mutual antagonism isn’t the
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only possibility, of course, and fruitful conversation does take place, partners in conversation, listening rather
than assuming, seeking common ground.
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And there is an intriguing recent phenomenon that has become almost commonplace: “I’m secular rather than
religious… but I’m also ‘spiritual.'” But what could this talk of spirituality mean if it is no longer grounded in
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religion? Maybe, though, there’s something to explore here, possible common ground between (some) believers
and (some) non-believers. The German philosopher Jürgen Habermas once talked of “an awareness of what is
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missing” in our post-metaphysical age. Perhaps it is this uneasy awareness that leads to the appeal of spirituality.
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Well, one of the things that has been missing is fairly straightforward: the solidarity and regular gathering of a
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community. And human beings are “ceremonial animals,” as Ludwig Wittgenstein said. Humanist ministers are
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starting to preside at naming ceremonies, weddings, and funerals.
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Surely something else is missing, though. Recall the words of King Lear’s daughter, Regan, about her father:
“He hath ever but slenderly known himself.” Although secular humanism asserts that we can live well without
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religious belief, we still need to embrace a language of interiority, inwardness, self-awareness, and self-
knowledge. This language is diagnostic, but it is also expressive. There is a poetic of the inner life and its relation
to demeanor and conduct; it is agonized, despairing, hopeful, and struggling to overcome delusion, double-
mindedness, and self-deception. Spirituality's history persists and evolves, anchored in ancient traditions that
once gave theistic meaning to phenomena. However, these phenomena remain meaningful even without theistic
interpretations. While moral life doesn't necessitate religious belief, it can draw insights from religious traditions.
Philosopher Mary Midgley noted that Genesis offers more nourishment than Dawkins, without expressing a faith
stance. This echoes Søren Kierkegaard's call for subjective thinking, recognizing the significance of individual
existence beyond factual analysis. Secular humanism 1L5N linked to Bacon's atheism, as rejecting belief may
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have been seen as rejecting a way of life aligned with God's commandments. However, our deepest human
impulses might actually shape our concept of God, though we may need to search for them and break through
our collective self-enclosure to access them.
1. What is the main idea of the passage? 1L5N

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(a) The historical context of Francis Bacon's essay on atheism and its impact on society.
tr-(b)
5D7IThe 1F5A
5F3I8Icomplexities of spirituality in a post-metaphysical age and its relationship with religion.
(c) The evolving perspectives on secular humanism and its role in contemporary moral life.
(d) The exploration of subjective thinking and self-awareness as essential aspects of spirituality.
2. What is the significance of "an awareness of what is missing" in a post-metaphysical age, as mentioned in the
passage?
(a) It leads to the resurgence of religious landscapes and ceremonies.
(b) It highlights the decline of moral standards in secular societies.
(c) It fosters the appeal of spirituality beyond religious belief systems.
(d) It promotes the rejection of subjective thinking and self-awareness.
3. What is the key takeaway regarding the role of religious traditions in the exploration of spirituality beyond belief
systems?
(a) Religious traditions are essential for understanding spirituality in a post-metaphysical age.
(b) They offer valuable nourishment despite the decline of religious belief.
(c) The rejection of religious traditions is necessary for embracing subjective thinking.
4.
(d) The resurgence of atheism has rendered religious traditions irrelevant.
The author's writing style in the passage reflects:
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(a) A strong bias towards promoting religious belief and traditional values.
(b) A meticulous attention to historical details and chronological order.
(c) A sophisticated and intellectual approach, engaging readers with complex ideas.
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(d) An overtly emotional and subjective perspective on contemporary spirituality.
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According to the passage, what is the connotation of the term "obscurantist" in relation to religion?
(a) Progressive and enlightening
(c) Traditional and conservative
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(b) Empirical and scientific
(d) Unorthodox and revolutionary
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Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Recently, under Section 144 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, (CrPC) the Rajkot
Police criminalized use of the PUBG mobile application. Soon, Ahmedabad and Sabarkantha followed suit. To
justify the ban, the notification said that the game had a tendency to “affect the behavior, manners, speech and
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development of the youth and children.” The power to ban PUBG was sourced from section 37(3) of the Gujarat
Police Act, 1951 (The Act) read with Section 188 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) which allows the State to take
necessary steps to maintain public order. Although, the ban has been lifted now, I argue that this ban was a
frivolous attempt by the State to expand its inherent powers of restricting free speech to previously unchartered
territories and that by prioritizing the restrictions above the right, the State acted in a manner which is
constitutionally impermissible.
Section 37(3) of The Act may only be invoked if the competent authority feels that the prohibition is for the
preservation of public order. The threshold for tr-5R 7U5S3R8T1L5Na violation of public order was laid down in the case
determining
of Shreya Singhal vs Union of India, (Shreya Singhal) and the narrative which governed the setting of such a
threshold was that a violation a public order would necessarily entail a threat to public peace and tranquility.
Hence, the threshold is particularly high. The court further went on to say that mere annoyance could not be
elevated to the threshold of disrupting public order. Here, even if we assume that the use of PUBG did lead to
the causing of annoyance, there was no empirical data,3Ror statistics
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that the game violated the Shreya Singhal threshold. This made the promulgation of the notification manifestly
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tr-arbitrary, thus violating Article 14 of the Constitution of India. The test for manifest arbitrariness was laid down
in the Indian Express Newspapers case, where it was said that a legislation would be considered manifestly
arbitrary if it was enacted in an unreasonable manner, or without a determining principle or at will alone. This
was also mentioned in the Shyara Bano case, where Justice Nariman reiterated the settled law that manifest
arbitrariness was a ground to invalidate a legislation. The criminalization of PUBG also violated Article 19(1)
(a) of the Constitution of India. This is because it attempted to curb the freedom of speech and expression of the
individuals, without any reasonable restrictions, as the tendency to “affect the behavior, manners, speech and
development of the youth and children” cannot be said to be a reasonable restriction under Article 19(2) and
the Shreya Singhal threshold. The game has provisions for online chatrooms, where the users are given the
opportunity to converse with each other over the internet, and by banning the game, they are being deprived of
their right to free speech guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). Furthermore, the access to recreation, and the
opportunity to assemble peacefully and form associations is an essential tenet of Part III of our Constitution,
under Article 19(1)(c) was also being threatened. Courts require the State to establish with practical evidence
that a particular activity is inherently averse to public order.
6. Which of the following best sums up the author’s main point in the passage above?
(a) In banning a popular mobile game, the police have injured public feelings and freedom of speech and
expression under the Constitution of India.
(b) In banning PUBG, the police order has violated the constitution and the absolute freedom of speech under
it.
(c) The police order banning PUBG had tried upholding wider restrictions as interpreted in judgments above the
right of equality and speech under the constitution.
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(d) PUBG banning order by the police is a violation of the rights as per the guidelines of the Supreme Court in
Shreya and Shayara case which lay down that restrictions can never outshine rights.
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Based on the information in the passage above, which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) Online chatrooms are not covered within the freedom of free speech and expression under Article 19 of the
Constitution.
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(b) There is no violation of freedom of speech and expression as contained in Article 19 from the police order
declaring PUBG criminal.
public order.
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(c) Annoyance to public is a cogent ground for considering restriction of any right under the constitution within
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(d) Bans on gaming apps by police are frivolous attempts at restricting the rights of persons and increasing the
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power of the state to curb free speech.
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Which of the following will replace the bold word from the passage?
9.
(a) Theoretical.
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(b) Conjectural. (c) Speculative.
From the first paragraph of the passage, one can figure out that
(d) Empirical.
(a) The police banned and criminalised PUBG which was in violation of rights of life and personal liberty under
the constitution. The ban is still in force.
(b) The police is making efforts to ban PUBG under its power in Criminal procedure and Indian penal code
which will violate rights under Constitution.
(c) The police criminalised the use of PUBG utilizing its power in law and using the restriction of public order
restricting right to speech and expressiontr-under
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3R8TConstitution. The ban was lifted later.
(d) The police action made restrictions to rights of citizens in playing games like PUBG difficult and violating
rights of equality and freedom of speech and expression under the constitution. The restrictions were lifted
later.
10. Why according to the author did police err in banning3RPUBG?

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(a) Because they did not have powers under the criminal procedure code and Indian Penal Code for banning the
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(b) Because they tried to use public order as a restriction in upholding rights of the police personnel to limit
activities of citizens.
(c) Because they tried putting restrictions above rights of citizens and extending power of state beyond
constitutional acceptability.
(d) Because the police tried making ban of PUBG to be within constitutional limits of the right of free speech
and expression.
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Once upon our time, there was an earthquake: but this one is the most powerful ever
recorded since the invention of the Richter scale made possible for us to measure apocalyptic warnings. It tipped
a continental shelf. These tremblings often cause floods; this colossus did the reverse, drew back the ocean as a
vast breath taken. The most secret level of our world lay revealed: the sea-bedded – wrecked ships, facades of
houses, ballroom candelabra, toilet bowl, pirate chest, TV screen, mail-coach, aircraft fuselage, canon, marble
torso, Kalashnikov, metal carapace of a tourist bus-load, baptismal font, automatic dishwasher, computer, swords
sheathed in barnacles, coins turned to stone. The astounded gaze raced among these things; the population who
had fled from their toppling houses to the martime hills, ran down. Where terrestrial crash and bellow had
terrified them, there was naked silence. The saliva of the sea glistened upon these objects; it is given that time
does not, never did, exist down there where the materiality of the past and the present as they lie has no
chronological order, all is one, all is nothing – or all is possessible at once.
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People rushed to take; take, take. This was – when, anytime, sometime – valuable, that might be useful, what
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was this, well someone will know, that must have belonged to the rich, it’s mine now, if you don’t grab what’s
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over there someone else will, feet slipped and slithered on seaweed and sank in soggy sand, gasping sea-plants
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gaped at them, no-one remarked there were no fish, the living inhabitants of this unearth had been swept up and
away with the water. The ordinary opportunity of looting shops which was routine to people during the political
uprisings was no comparison. Orgiastic joy gave men, women and their children strength to heave out of the
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slime and sand what they did not know they wanted, quickened their staggering gait as they ranged, and this was
more than profiting by happenstance, it was robbing the power of nature before which they had fled helpless.
Take, take; while grabbing they were able to forget the wreck of their houses and the loss of time-bound
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possessions there. They had tattered the silence with their shouts to one another and under these cries like
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the cries of the absent seagulls they did not hear a distant approach of sound rising as a great wind does.
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And then the sea came back, engulfed them to add to its treasury. That is what is known; in television
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coverage that really had nothing to show but the pewter skin of the depths, in radio interviews with those few
infirm, timid or careful who had not come down from the hills.
11.
12.
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Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?
(a) Informative. (b) Persuasive. (c) Descriptive (d) Objective
Which of the following can be said about the measurement of the earthquake when it occurred in the passage?
(a) There was no instrument which was available to measure the Earthquake.
(b) There is an instrument by the name of the Mercusor scale which can measure the Earthquake and issue
warning for any impending ones.
(c) There is an instrument by the name of Richter scale which can measure and issue warning about impending
earthquakes. 1L5N
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(d) There is an instrument by the name of Richter scale which predicts about the destruction caused by the
earthquake.
13. What can be appropriately inferred from the bold text in the passage?
(a) The sea engulfed the belongings described from the sea-bed
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noisy people.
tr-(b)
5D7IThe 1F5A were playing music while looting which led them to not recognize a sound of the wind indicating
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a storm.
(c) The people were shouting to each other while looting which led them to ignore a sound of the sea coming
back to submerge them.
(d) There was noise from shouting among the looting people which made them ignore the excessive wind
coming back to destroy them.
14. Which of the following statements is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The people were not bogged down by the rich inhabitants of the place whose belongings were being looted.
(b) The sea had retreated after the consequences of the earthquake whose return was unleashed on the looting
persons.
(c) Richter scale is an invention which made it possible for mankind to manufacture apocalyptic events.
(d) The people were doing unspeakable physical things among themselves in the ecstasy of the looting.
15. Which of the following will be the replacement of the emboldened word ‘careful’ from the passage?
(a) Prudent. (b) Impulsive. (c) Hasty. (d) Short-sighted.
Passage (Q.16-Q.20): The Japanese climate is characterised by four distinct seasons that influence our culture,
and students at school learn that all things are in a cycle of continuous change. Plant leaves offer an excellent
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example of this concept. In spring, leaves develop and then actively synthesise starch by sunlight, but in autumn
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leaves become red or yellow and fall off. What we see as beautiful autumn colours is actually caused by the
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degradation of the leaf ’s photosynthetic machinery: green chloroplasts are completely degraded, and the
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resulting amino acids are transported to the trunk, leaving only the red or yellow-coloured accessory
photosynthetic pigments in leaves. Similarly, rice leaves turn yellow at harvest time. All the protein in the leaves
is degraded and transported to make proteins in rice grains for the next generation. These examples demonstrate
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that degradation is not an adverse process, but rather is essential for new construction or regeneration. Let’s think
about the human body. Our bodies make about 2–300 grams of protein every day, but we only intake about 70–
80 grams of protein from our diet. The amino acids required for protein synthesis mostly come from the
degradation.
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degradation of the body’s own proteins. Life is maintained by a tightly controlled balance between synthesis and
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Autophagy, from the Greek for ‘selfeating,’ was described after its discovery by the Rockefeller University
researchers as having several hallmarks. Firstly, a membrane sac appears and enwraps a portion of the cytoplasm,
forming a double-membrane structure, the autophagosome. Next, the outer membrane of the autophagosome
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fuses with the lysosome, and originally the inner membrane and its contents are degraded within the lysosome.
Nutrient starvation is the most potent signal for the induction of autophagy, representing a fundamental
evolutionary adaptation to the persistent challenge of nutrient limitation, starvation. Constitutive autophagy, the
progress of which is independent of starvation, is important for the maintenance of cytoplasmic homeostasis.
The mechanism by which individual organelles are marked for degradation is not clear and further research is
essential, but it appears that selective autophagy plays a role in maintaining the efficient function and health of
intracellular components, removing organelles as they age or accumulate damage. This type of autophagy
therefore also plays a role in the maintenance of cellular homeostasis, regardless of environmental circumstances
such as starvation. 1L5N
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16. What are the examples which demonstrate through Japan that degradation is essential for regeneration?
(a) Protein synthesis in human bodies.
(b) Autumn colours in leaves of rice and other plants due to decay of photosynthetic machinery.
(c) Beautiful autumn colours in Japaneses cherry blossom 1Lplants
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(d) Protein synthesis in rice and plants having no leaves.
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17. What does the word “synthesis” as used in the passage mean?
(a) Combination to form new. (b) Interweaving to innovate.
(c) Reconciliation. (d) Simplify by merging.
18. Which of the types of autophagy is not influenced by starvation for cellular maintenance?
(a) Constitutive and Selective autophagy. (b) Constitutive autophagy.
(c) Normal autophagy. (d) Synthetic autophagy.
19. Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?
(a) The Invention of autophagy
(b) Autophagy: Regeneration through degradation
(c) Autophagy in plants: Japanese examples
(d) Autophagy as self-eating: Human life balance.
20. What does the author mean when they say that life is a balance between synthesis and degradation?
(a) There is decay of living matter by death and formation of new matter when new births and germination take
place in animals and plants.
(b) There is decomposition of certain parts of plants and human cells which is then utilized in other parts to
generate something new.
(c) There is combination of chemical components to make something new by destroying old components in
laboratory.
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(d) Life is an artificial edifice which is synthetic and is generally balanced by prevention from degradation.
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Passage (Q.21-Q.24): In the second quarter of 2023, the global economy is sustaining the momentum gained in
the preceding quarter in spite of still elevated though moderating inflation, tighter financial conditions, banking
sector stress, and lingering geopolitical conflicts. Sovereign bond yields are trading sideways on expectations of
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the imminent peaking of the tightening cycle of monetary policy while the US dollar has appreciated. Equity
markets have remained range bound since the last MPC meeting. For several emerging market economies
(EMEs) like India, weak external demand, elevated debt levels and geoeconomic disintegration amidst tighter
them on renewed risk appetite.
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external financial conditions pose risks to growth prospects, although capital flows are cautiously returning to
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Going forward from the global to the domestic, the headline inflation trajectory is likely to be shaped by food
price dynamics. Wheat prices could see some correction on robust mandi arrivals and procurement. Milk prices,
on the other hand, are likely to remain under pressure due to supply shortfalls and high fodder costs. The forecast
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of a normal south-west monsoon by the India Meteorological Department (IMD) augurs well for kharif crops;
however, the spatial and temporal distribution of the monsoon would need to be closely monitored to assess the
prospects for agricultural production. Crude oil prices have eased but the outlook remains uncertain. According
to the early results from the Reserve Bank’s surveys, manufacturing, services and infrastructure firms polled
expect input costs and output prices to harden. A clearer picture will emerge when the final survey results are
available. Taking into account these factors and assuming a normal monsoon, CPI inflation is projected at 5.1
per cent for 2023-24, with Q1 at 4.6 per cent, Q2 at 5.2 per cent, Q3 at 5.4 per cent and Q4 at 5.2 per cent.
The MPC took note of the moderation in CPItr-5R headline 1L5N

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with projections, reflecting the combined impact of monetary tightening and supply augmenting measures.
Headline inflation is projected to decline in 2023-24 from its level in 2022-23 but would still be above the target,
warranting continuous vigil. The progress of the south west monsoon is critical in this regard. Domestic
economic activity is holding up well. Consumer confidence is improving and businesses remain optimistic about
the future. The cumulative rate hike of 250 basis points 1Lundertaken
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economy and its fuller impact should keep inflationary pressures contained in the coming months. Monetary
tr-policy 8I1F5A need to be carefully calibrated for alignment of inflation with the target. Against this backdrop, the
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MPC decided to keep the policy repo rate unchanged at 6.50 per cent. The MPC resolved to continue keeping a
close vigil on the evolving inflation and growth outlook. It will take further monetary actions promptly and
appropriately as required to keep inflation expectations firmly anchored and to bring down inflation to the target.
The MPC also decided to remain focused on withdrawal of accommodation to ensure that inflation progressively
aligns with the target, while supporting growth.
21. What is the author’s main point in the passage above?
(a) There is need for the global economy to support the domestic economy by a widespread targeting of inflation.
(b) There are some mixed growth aspects on the global economy front but there is effort to manage domestic
inflation and improve other economic indicators.
(c) The MPC is making all efforts to reduce inflation while the global front is marred by less growth in developed
market economies.
(d) The MPC is managing domestic inflation with perfect alacrity while the global situation is abysmal.
22. What does the word “augmenting” as used in the passage mean?
(a) Decreasing. (b) Decimating. (c) Enhancing. (d) Annihilating.
23. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?
24.
(a) Vitriolic. (b) Technical. (c) Euphemistic.
Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? m

(d) Motivating.
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decide agricultural production.
(b) Monetary policy needs to be fine-tuned to align itself with targeting of inflation.
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(a) South West monsoon forecast is good for Kharif crops but where and when such rain happens will eventually
(d) Consumers and businesses have a positive outlook in the domestic economy.
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(c) There will be close and deep regulation and intervention in static inflation and growth outlook by the MPC.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.51): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Direction (Q.25-Q.29): UN 2023 Water Conference

Over 700 commitments were made at the United Nations 2023 Water Conference in New York City to make the
world water-secure, according to a statement. The three-day summit ended on March 24, 2023. “The
commitments at this Conference will propel humanity towards the water-secure future every person on the planet
needs,” UN Secretary-General António Guterres stated during the closing ceremony. The commitments were
captured in the Water Action Agenda, the key outcome of the Conference. They were made by countries in Asia
and the Pacific, Europe, North America and Africa. Japan announced that it will proactively contribute to the
solution of water-related social issues faced by the Asia-Pacific region by developing “quality Infrastructure”,
providing financial assistance worth approximately 500 billion yen ($3.65 billion) over the next five years.
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Another Asian nation, Vietnam, pledged to develop policies for major river basins management by 2025 and to
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ensure all households would have access to clean running water by 2030. African heads of state took a lead at
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the event by announcing presidential compacts or commitments. SDG 6 deals with Clean Water and Sanitation.
25.
Downtoearth
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Which country announced a commitment of up to $49 billion for climate resilient water and sanitation
infrastructure?
(a) China (b) Germany (c) United States (d) Australia
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26.
introduced. What does IWRM emphasize?
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At the 1977 UN Water Conference, the concept of "Integrated Water Resources Management" (IWRM) was
(a) Prioritizing urban water supply over rural water access
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(b) Maximizing water extraction for agricultural use
(c) Treating water as a finite and vulnerable resource
(d) Promoting large-scale dam construction for water storage
27.
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The UN 2023 Water Conference is also known as the 2023 Conference for the Midterm Comprehensive Review
of Implementation of the _____________.
(a) UN Decade for Action on Water and Sanitation (2018-2028)
(b) UN Decade for Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021-2030)
(c) UN Decade of Ecosystem Restoration (2021-2030)
(d) UN Decade for Water Strategy (2019-2028)
28. What is the primary objective of the Nationaltr-Water 8T1L5N (NWM) of India?
Mission
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(a) To promote the construction of large-scale dams for water storage
(b) To ensure equitable distribution of water resources across all states
(c) To increase the efficiency of water use in various sectors
(d) To address water-related conflicts with neighboring countries
5R 7U5S3R8T1L5N
29. Clean Water and Sanitation is the focus of UNtr-Sustainable Development Goal _________.
5A
5D7I35F3I8I1F
tr-(a) (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
Direction (Q.30-Q.33): Rare Disease
The Delhi High Court has set up a five-member panel to implement the Centre’s rare diseases policy in an
efficient manner and ensure that its benefits reaches patients. The National Rare Diseases Committee will also
look into the case of these patients, enrolled with the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Delhi, and
the manner in which their treatment can begin. Under the National Policy for Rare Diseases, 2021, hundreds of
patients — mostly children — are registered with the ‘Digital Portal for Crowdfunding and Voluntary donations
for Patients of Rare Diseases’ by the Union Health Ministry. However, the government has been unable to fully
finance their treatment due to high costs, resource constraints, and competing health priorities.
Justice Prathiba M. Singh, in her order dated May 15, observed, “...there is a need for some urgent steps to be
taken in close coordination between the medical community, the providers of therapies for rare diseases and
Governmental agencies”. The Rare Disease Registry’s aggregated data becomes a valuable resource for
m
pharmaceutical companies involved in rare disease drug research. Insights gained from the data aid in identifying
o
patient populations, understanding disease progression, and designing effective clinical trials. Predictive models
c
within the solution can identify undiagnosed patients, allowing for targeted screening and early detection.
30.
The Hindu
What is the primary challenge in developing treatments for rare diseases?
rs .
(a) Lack of interest from pharmaceutical companies
(b) limited government medical infrastructure
(c) People’s interest in buying such medicines
k e
31.
r n
(d) High prevalence of rare diseases in the population
a
What is the name of the government program under the National Health Mission (NHM) for child health
o
(a) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)
(b) Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi (RAN)
p
screening and early intervention services, which was suggested to be expanded for rare disease management?
32.
T
(c) Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK)
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY)
Rare Disease Day 2023 was observed on _________.

(a) 28th February (b) 29th February (c) 30th March (d) 31st March
33. What is the name of the legislation in the United States that provides incentives for the development of treatments
for rare diseases?
(a) Rare Disease Act (b)
tr-5R 3R8T1L5N
Orphan
7U5S Drug Act
(c) Rare Disease Research Initiative (d) Rare Disease Treatment Incentive Act
Direction (Q.34-Q.38):Inter-Services Organization Bill, 2023

The Rajya Sabha on Tuesday (August 8) passed a bill that empowers the commander-in-chief and the officer-
in-command of inter-services organisations with disciplinary 1L5Nand administrative powers over personnel from the
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
other services serving in them. The Inter-Services Organisation (Command, Control & Discipline) Bill – 2023
tr-was 3I8I1F5A
introduced
5D7I5F in the Upper House amid a walkout by opposition members demanding a discussion on the
Manipur violence. It was passed by the Lok Sabha on August 4. A parliamentary panel had recently
recommended that the Bill be passed without any amendments. The bill will empower the theatre commander or
even those reporting to him to take disciplinary or administrative action against personnel attached to that specific
theatre command without having to refer those cases to the individual services of the personnel. However, this
would be first notified through a separate government notification. With the Indian Armed Forces drawing up
the finer details of the integrated theatre commands, this bill can be considered one of the several steps paving
the way for their establishment. Currently, the plans are to establish three theatre commands—one facing
Pakistan, one facing China, and a maritime theatre command, largely taking care of the peninsular India. This is
because every integrated theatre command will have components of the three services and will be headed by a
theatre commander of one of the services.
Indian Express
34. What is the primary objective of the Inter-services Organisations (Command, Control and Discipline) Bill, 2023?
(a) To establish new Inter-services Organisations
(b) To empower the Commander-in-Chief or Officer-in-Command to exercise disciplinary and administrative
control
(c) To create a Joint Services Command
(d) To redefine the ranks of military officers
35. What does the superintendence of an Inter-services Organisation entail under the Bill?
(a) Full operational control over the organisation's functions
(b) Direct oversight of the organisation's financial matters
(c) Authority to appoint officers for command positions
c o m
36.
(d) Central government's general authority and ability to issue directions
What is the primary objective of the National Defence Academy (NDA) in India?
rs .
(a) To provide advanced military training to officers.
(b) To conduct research and development in defense technology.
(c) To train cadets for entry into the Indian Navy.
k e
37.
r n
(d) To promote international cooperation in defense.
a
The Bill empowers the Central Government to constitute an Inter-Services Organisation. For the purpose of this
Act, Commanding Officer means ________.
o p
(a) Any officer appointed by the Central Government
(b) The officer in actual command of the unit, ship, or establishment
38.
T
(c) The highest-ranking military officer
(d) The Chief of Defense Staff
Which of the following is NOT an existing Inter-services Organisation mentioned in the Bill?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Command
(c) National Defence Academy
(b) Defence Space Agency
(d) Central Military Commission
Direction (Q.39-Q.43): First Loss Default Guarantee

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Thursday allowedtr-5R7U5Sa3R‘first
8T1L5Nloss default guarantee’ (FLDG) arrangement between
regulated entities and lending service providers for digital lending. Under FLDG — a credit-risk sharing
agreement — a third party guarantees to compensate up to a certain percentage of default in a loan portfolio of
the regulated entities (banks and NBFCs). “Arrangements between Regulated Entities and Lending Service
Providers or between two REs involving default loss guarantee (DLG), commonly known as FLDG, has since
been examined by the Bank and it has been decided to3Rpermit 1L5N such arrangements,” RBI said in a release. Digital
tr-5R7U5S 8T
Lenders Association of India (DLAI) CEO Jatinder Handoo, said: “One of the key asks from most sector players
tr-has
5D7Ibeen to5A
5F3I8I1F provide clarity on the permissible structure for DLG arrangements between two parties. The circular
issued today clearly specifies details on scope, eligibility, structure, form, cap, disclosure requirements, and
exceptions. This leaves limited room for ambiguity.” The RBI also directed these entities to put in place a board-
approved policy before entering into any DLG arrangement. It, however, said DLG arrangement shall not act as
a substitute for credit appraisal requirements and robust credit underwriting standards need to be put in place
irrespective of cover.
Indian Express
39. What is the primary purpose of the First Loss Default Guarantee (FLDG) Scheme?
(a) To compensate borrowers in case of default
(b) To provide insurance to fintech companies
(c) To compensate lenders if the borrower defaults
(d) To regulate digital lending practices
40. What is the key role of fintech companies in the FLDG scheme?
(a) Providing insurance to lenders
(b) Offering traditional banking services
(c) Enhancing and automating financial services
(d) Regulating digital lending practices
41. How can banks and NBFCs benefit from the FLDG mechanism in digital lending?
(a) By increasing their credit risk
(b) By lowering their operational costs
c o m
(c) By delegating all tasks to fintech companies
(d) By providing guarantees to borrowers
rs .
42.
from an LSP, as per the RBI guidelines?
(a) 5% of the amount of that loan portfolio
k e
What is the maximum amount of DLG cover that a bank or an NBFC can avail on any outstanding loan portfolio
(b) 10% of the amount of that loan portfolio
43.
r n
(c) 15% of the amount of that loan portfolio (d) 20% of the amount of that loan portfolio
a
____________ is not a function that an LSP can perform on behalf of an RE in digital lending, as per the RBI
guidelines.
(a) Sourcing
o
(b) Underwriting
p
(c) Servicing (d) Securitising
T
Direction (Q.44-Q.47): Green Credit program
"India has truly strengthened its global leadership towards environmental sustainability through a pioneering and
unique regulatory step to introduce the Green Credit Programme, which is far beyond just carbon but
encompasses all major attributes of environment and social sustainability. One of the major highlights of the
draft notification is to provide regulatory provisions to account for individual and community actions, besides
corporate and businesses, and incentivize them,” said Manish Dabkara, Chairman and MD of the BSE listed EKI
Energy Services ltd, which is a market leader in Carbon Trading. For the implementation of the Green Credit
Programme, the government has identified sectors to start with, which include increasing the green cover through
tree plantation across the country, promoting 8T1L5N conservation, water harvesting and water use
water
tr-5R7U5S3R
efficiency/savings, including treatment and reuse of wastewater, promoting natural and regenerative agricultural
practices and land restoration to improve productivity, soil health and nutritional value of food produced, waste
management, reducing air pollution, conservation and restoration of mangroves, sustainable building and
infrastructure and more.
tr-5R 7U5S3R8T1L5N
44. What is the primary goal of the Green Credit Programme proposed by the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and
tr-Climate 1F5A
5D7I5F3I8IChange (MoEFCC)?
(a) To promote carbon emissions trading
(b) To encourage individuals and organizations to take voluntary environmental actions
(c) To provide financial incentives for carbon emissions
(d) To establish a regulatory framework for environmental protection
45. What is "greenwashing" in the context of market-based environmental mechanisms?
(a) The act of promoting genuine environmental actions
(b) The appearance of doing good without having a significant positive impact
(c) A type of eco-labeling activity
(d) The process of carbon credit trading
46. Which scheme will be launched to promote alternative fertilizers and balanced use of chemical fertilizers under
the Green Credit Programme?
(a) PM-PRANAM (b) PM-KISAN (c) PM-KUSUM (d) PM-FASAL
47. Which Indian state is home to the Bhitarkanika Mangrove Forest, a significant mangrove ecosystem and a
designated Ramsar Wetland of International Importance?
m
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (c) Odisha (d) Gujarat
Direction (Q.48-Q.51): ISRO to transfer SSLV to private sector
c o
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will soon transfer its Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV)
.
to the private sector, after conducting two development flights of the rocket that seeks to provide on-demand
rs
services to put satellites weighing up to 500 kg in a low-earth orbit. The space agency has decided to opt for the
bidding route to transfer the mini-rocket to the industry, a senior official said. "We will be transferring the SSLV
k e
completely to the private sector. Not just the manufacturing, but full transfer," the official said. ALSO READ
ISRO successfully launches SSLV's second developmental flight with three satellites from Sriharikota The
n
maiden flight of the SSLV in August last year was a failure due to vibration disturbance for a short duration on
the Equipment Bay deck during the second-stage separation.
48.
The Hindu
p r a
What is the specific purpose of the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) in the field of space exploration?
o
(a) To launch human missions to Mars.
(b) To establish a global satellite internet network.
49. T
(c) To provide on-demand launch services for nano and micro-satellites.
(d) To transport large cargo shipments to the International Space Station.
What future economic contribution is projected for India's economy by the commercial satellite launch services
sector, according to a recent report, as a result of transferring the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) to the
private sector?
(a) $5 billion by 2025 (b) $10 billion by 2030
(c) $13 billion by 2025 (d) $15 billion by 2030
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
50. From which space center did the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) launch Singapore's TeLEOS-2
satellite, and what is the primary objective of this satellite?
(a) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota - To study interstellar phenomena.
(b) Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station - To analyze space debris.
(c) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre - To explore Mars' surface composition.
1L5N
3R8Tprovide
(d) Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota - 5STo
tr-5R7U high-resolution Earth imagery for various
applications.
tr-5D7I5F3I 8I 1F 5A
51. What significant contributions did Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam make to the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO)?
(a) Inventing a new satellite propulsion technology.
(b) Establishing India's first space station.
(c) Leading the development of India's first interplanetary mission.
(d) Pioneering indigenous ballistic missile and launch vehicle technology.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.52-Q.83): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.52-Q.55): The difference between an offer and an invitation to offer is very basic and lies mainly in
the ‘intention’ of the parties. While an offer directly allows the other parties to enter into a contract (that is, a
legally binding agreement) as soon as it is accepted, an invitation to offer mainly invites the other party to make
negotiations and himself make an offer to the seller. The term offer/proposal has been defined in Sec 2(a) of the
Indian Contract Act. According to the Act, “when one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain
from doing something with a view to obtaining the assent of the other to such an act or abstinence, he is said to
make a proposal”. It means when a person tells another person that he would or wouldn’t do something for them,
they are said to be making a proposal to them. In an invitation to offer, no specific party has the intention to enter
into a contract. The seller may enter into a contract with anybody from the public who makes the best offer to
m
him. So, the essence of an invitation to offer is that the offer is actually made by the buyer. Therefore, an
o
invitation to offer ‘evolves’ into a contract in a different manner than an offer. Initially, it is an invitation to offer,
c
say by a display of goods and their prices. When a person makes an offer that is good enough and the seller
rs .
‘accepts’ it, it becomes a contract. Unlike offer, which is made by the seller to the buyer. In an offer, both the
parties have an intention to enter into a legally binding agreement after due negotiation. Such an intention is
absent in an invitation to offer.
52.
(Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/offer-and-invitation-to-offer/ )
k e
K was walking past a store that sold bag packs. 50% off on selected bags was written on its glass door. K wanted
n
to buy one because he would start college the following week. He chose a bag from the store even though the
a
salesperson informed him that the discount did not apply to it. K filed a lawsuit against the shopkeeper for breach
r
of contract because he liked the bag so much. Determine.
o p
(a) By putting the bags on display, the shopkeeper made an offer, and when K accepted it, a contract was formed.
As a result, the shopkeeper will be held accountable for contract breach.
(b) The shopkeeper shall not be held liable because it was only an invitation to offer and not a definite offer.
53.
T
(c) The shop owner will be held accountable because he was supposed to list the items that qualified for the
discount.
(d) Given that it is his shop and he has the discretion to sell to whoever he wants, the shopkeeper cannot be held
accountable.
If Y declines to take his exam, F assures him that he will give him a month's worth of groceries. Since the exam
only carried 10 points and Y had spent all of his money, he considered accepting the same. He skipped the exams
after accepting the same. He made F give him the groceries after the tests were finished. F objected, claiming
that since he had forbid him from acting intr-a5Rcertain 1L5N the proposal had never been valid to begin with.
7U5S3R8Tway,
Comment on the proposal's validity.
(a) The offer shall be deemed valid since, pursuant to Section 2(a), refraining from doing an act is also a valid
offer.
(b) Since F voluntarily asked Y to skip the exam, the proposal will be considered valid.
(c) Since one cannot make an offer to the other that prevents 1L5N him from doing something, the proposal will not
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
be considered valid.
tr-(d) 5F3I8I1FF5A
5D7ISince in this instance took away Y's right to an education, the proposal cannot be upheld.
54. R had a large collection of mathematics books from various publishers. He wanted to sell those books now that
he had finished high school. He posted about it in one of his WhatsApp groups. Three people expressed an
interest. The first was willing to buy for Rs.800, the second for Rs.1200, and the third for Rs.2000. R accepted
the third person's offer. Read the passage carefully and comment on whether he is qualified to accept the offer.
(a) R is qualified to do so because he issued an invitation to make an offer and it is obvious that he would accept
the best one.
(b) R is ineligible to do so because, according to the invitation to offer principle, the person is obligated to accept
only the first offer made to him.
(c) R is ineligible to accept any offer because contracts cannot be made via social media.
(d) It is not feasible to determine whether R is eligible to accept the offer because there is insufficient information
in the facts.
55.
c o m
P was looking for a job that would pay her at least Rs. 5,000 per month. She advertised in her society that she
was willing to teach students from grades two to nine. She received calls about it after a few weeks. As a result,
she accepted three of them, each of which would pay her Rs. 2,000. Comment on whether this is a valid contract
in light of the passage.
(a) This is not a valid contract because contracts must be finalized in writing.
rs .
(b) Since P would only be teaching the students for a limited time, this can be considered a partial contract.
k e
(c) In accordance with the definition in Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act, this is not a valid contract.
(d) Because there was a valid proposal and a similar valid acceptance, this is a valid contract.
n
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Sexual harassment at the workplace is an affront to the fundamental rights of a woman,
a
the Supreme Court remarked while upholding a High Court judgment that quashed a transfer of a woman bank
r
employee. A woman employee of a Bank, who was holding the office of Scale IV in Indore branch was
o p
transferred to the branch in Jabalpur. She challenged the said transfer, alleging that her reports about irregularities
and corruption at her branch and her complaints against an officer who sexually harassed her met with an order
of transfer. The High Court allowed the writ petition and quashed the Transfer order. While considering the
T
bank's appeal, the bench of Justice Dhananjaya Y. Chandrachud and Justice Ajay Rastogi at the outset noted the
following principles to be adopted while examining the validity of transfer order: An employee cannot have a
choice of postings. Administrative circulars and guidelines are indicators of the manner in which the transfer
policy has to be implemented. However, an administrative circular may not in itself confer a vested right which
can be enforceable by a writ of mandamus. Unless an order of transfer is established to be malafide or contrary
to a statutory provision or has been issued by an authority not competent to order transfer, the Court in exercise
of judicial review would not be inclined to interfere.
The Court noted that the employee had alsotr-levelled 1L5N

allegations
5R7U5S3R8T specifically of sexual harassment against the
Zonal Manager along with the report of rampant corruption in the bank. In this context, the bench made these
observations on the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act,
2013. It said: Sexual harassment at the workplace is an affront to the fundamental rights of a woman to equality
under Articles 14 and 15 and her right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution as well as her
right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation,1L5N trade or business. Clause (c) of Section 4(2) of the
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
same act indicates that one member of the Internal Complaints Committee has to be drawn from amongst a non-
5A
5D7I5F3I8I1F
tr-governmental organization or association committed to the cause of women or a person familiar with issues
relating to sexual harassment. The purpose of having such a member is to ensure the presence of an independent
person who can aid, advice and assist the Committee. It obviates institutional bias.
56. Namita was a very bright student in her studies, but this one incident she heard really shocked her conscience
when she learned that a government female employee was not only given rape threats but also fell into the trap
of office politics and which has left her with no job instead of suspension. She decided she will study hard and
would join the private sector for a job. She graduated from a reputed law school and grabbed a placement at a
tier one firmnamed Magaldas and Sons. It was her first day when she was asked directly by her boss for a late
dinner date, as these things are considered normal in metro city corporate culture. She was new, so she was
denied the invite, but the very next day she was transferred to the back office team. She filed a writ of mandamus
with that of the high court to command the employer of his act and reinstate his employment to the very same
post of senior legal associate that she was initially offered. Can she do so?
(a) She cannot do so as no employee has been given a choice so as to have a choice of posting.
(b) She may do so because the transfer order was made erroneously and as payback by Namita's employer.
(c) She is able to do so because the transfer was made by a competent authority.
57.
(d) She is able to do since the transfer order made by the Employer was not valid. .
c o m
Namita was a highly intelligent student, but the one time she heard about a government employee receiving rape
rs .
threats as well as falling victim to office politics, losing her job, and receiving suspension, it greatly jolted her
conscience. She made the decision to work hard in school and find employment in the government sector, and
she will fight against the societal evil of harassment of women at the workplace.She put forth a lot of effort to
k e
get a grade A job at the government bank's rural branchShe had been hoping for a transfer at the bank's urban
branch for a very long time, but to no effect. She became aware of the branch head's unethical behaviour one
day. She challenged the bank manager about his misdeeds, and he responded with profanity and rape threats.
n
She complained about the bank manager in writing. The bank manager was not subject to any punishment.
a
Instead, Namitahad her pay scale reduced and was sent to a different branch. Choose an appropriate statement.
r
(a) The transfer is valid as she herself has been wanting to get a transfer from a very long time.
o p
(b) The transfer is not valid as the order made was one of malafide nature.
(c) The transfer is valid as she made false allegation on the manager of the bank blackmailing him to give her
transfer to a good branch.
58.
T
(d) The transfer is not justified as an order of transfer has been issued by an authority not competent to order
transfer.
Suppose, in the case presented above, no action was taken against Namita; instead, she got a premature promotion
to her choice of place and branch. Choose an appropriate statement with respect to the validity of the transfer.
(a) The transfer is valid as she herself has been wanting to get a transfer from a very long time.
(b) The transfer is valid as it has not been made with malice.
(c) The transfer is not valid as the order of transfer is not established to be mala fide.
(d) The transfer is not valid as it is a compromise 5N
tr-5R7Uon her
5S3R dignity,
8T1L thus not justified.
59. Nayan was a manager at the Patiala and Co. baking company. It is one of India's most well-known bakeries, and
every hotel management student who is interested in baking aspires to work there. Chaya came across Nayan's
profile and requested him for a job at the company; in response, Nayan asked for sexual favours, which Chaya
not only declined but also filed a sexual harassment complaint
1L5N with the organization's internal complaints
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
committee. Will she be successful?
tr-(a)
5D7INo, 1F5A
5F3I8Ibecause the interaction was only on a social networking website and there was no physical interaction
between the two, she will not be successful.
(b) She would have been succeeding in case she was an employee of the company and Naman was her boss.
(c) She would not be successful as she was not a employee of the company.
(d) Yes, as she was harassed by the employer of the company i.e., Naman.
60. In the preceding example, suppose Nayan requested Chaya’s sexual favours. In response, Chaya took two days
to consider it but also responded with the condition that she would agree only after Naman hired her as a full-
time employee with all perks and benefits. Chaya files a harassment complaint with theInternal Complaints
Committee as soon as Naman hires her and sends her an employment letter in order to teach Naman a good
lesson about respecting and having dignity towards the other gender. What, according to you, will be the decision
of the ICC, will Naman be held Liable for sexual harassment at the workplace?
(a) Yes, she is now an employee of the company and Naman his employer made an attempt to harass her.
(b) No, as at the time of the incident Chaya was not the employee of the company.
(c) Yes, as Chaya only complaint once she became the employee.
(d) No, as there was no actual incident of sexual harassment it was mere an attempt.
Passage (Q.61-Q.64): Exception 1 to Section 300 of Indian Penal Code it explains when culpable homicide is
not a murder when done under grave and sudden provocation.
c o m
So the ingredients to attract the exceptions are : (1) the deceased must have given provocation to the accused;
rs .
(2) the provocation must be grav;, (3) the provocation must be sudden; (4) the offender, by reason of the said
provocation, shall have been deprived of his power of self-control, like any other reasonable man would;(5) he
should have killed the deceased during the continuance of the deprivation of the power of self-control; and (6)
mistake or accident.
k e
the offender must have caused the death of the person who gave the provocation or that of any other person by
n
In Arun Raj vs Union Of India,it was observed that the 'provocation' must be such as will upset not merely a
a
hasty, hot tempered and hypersensitive person but also a person with calm nature and ordinary sense. "What is
r
sought by the law by creating the exception is that to take into consideration situations wherein a person with
o p
normal behaviour reacts to the given incidence of provocation. Thus, the protection extended by the exception
is to the normal person acting normally in the given situation. "
T
"The doctrine of provocation" was stated as: The test to be applicable is that of the effect of the provocation on
a reasonable man, so that an unusually excitable or pugnacious individual is not entitled to rely on provocation,
which would not have led an ordinary person to act as he did. In applying the test, it is of particular importance
to (a) consider whether a sufficient interval has elapsed since the provocation to allow a reasonable man time to
cool and (b) to take into account the instrument with which the homicide was effected, for to retort, in the heat
of passion induced by provocation, by a simple blow, is very different thing from making use of a deadly
instrument like a concealed dagger.
61. Ranbir and Randhir are step brothers. Whiletr-there

5R7U5Swas 1L5Nanimosity between the two, they also did not have a
3R8Tno
friendly connection. Ranbir was a Border Security Force (BSF) constable in Bihta Village, Bihar, and was
accused of killing his younger brother Randhir. There is evidence to show that Randhir had slapped and pushed
the accused down, which provoked Ranbir to open fire from his rifle. Can Ranbir claim the exception of grave
and sudden provocation?
(a) No, as the provocation to kill another man should 3R be such
1L5N that not only Ranbir but any other reasonable man
tr-5R7U5S 8T
would lose his self-control.
tr-(b)
5D7IYes, 1F5A
5F3I8Ias given the situation Randhir created, Ranbir lost his self control and thus shot Randhir.
(c) No, as the provocation cannot be proved in a minor tussle between two brothers.
(d) Yes, as it is clear that the provocation was sudden and Ranbir by the reason of said provocation lost his
control and killed his brother.
62. Suppose, in the above case Ranbir is given the benefit under the exception of grave and sudden provocation.
However, it is brought to record that after shooting Randhir, Ranbir went on to shoot Randhir’s wife Sudha, who
was also there, side with Randhir in the quarrel and gaslighting both of them. Can Ranbir claim the exception
of grave and sudden provocation for the death of Sudha?
(a) No, as the provocation to kill another man should be such that not only Ranbir but any other reasonable man
would lose his self-control.
(b) Yes, as given the situation Randhir created, Ranbir lost his self control and thus shot Randhir.
(c) No, as the ingredients of grave and sudden provocation suggest that the accused should have killed the person
who provoked him.
(d) In response to Sudha and Randhir's actions, Randhir lost his mind and murdered them both in a fit of sudden
and grave provocation.
63.
c o m
Continuing with similar facts as given in Q6, consider that along with Ranbir, his wife Mrinalini was also present.
Now when the two brothers were fighting,and situation was such that all present there were losing their temper.
When Mrinalini saw that Randhir was slapping and pushing Ranbir, in a gush of anger, she took the revolver
provocation?
rs .
from Ranbir as he was in BSF, and shot Randhir dead. Can Mrinalini claim an exception of grave and sudden
(a) Yes, as she was provoked on seeing her husband being thrashed by another man and thus Mrinalini lost her
control and killed Randhir in deprivation of the power of self-control.
(b) No, as the quarrel was not of such nature that can lead to provocation.
(c) No, as the exception can only be applied when Randhir provoked Mrinalini.
k e
an
(d) Yes, as there was clearly a situation of sudden and grave provocation where Mrinalini lost her control and
killed Randhir in deprivation of the power of self-control.
r
64.
o p
After Ranbir shot Randhir, In front of his wife Sudha who was tried with rope by ranbir present at the spot was
deeply in shock. She drove the car back to her home, looked for a weapon to come back to the scene and hit hard
Ranbir on the head with an iron rod. As a consequence, Ranbir died on the spot. Can Sudha claim the exception
T
of grave and sudden provocation?
(a) No, as on seeing her husband being killed before her eyes made her lose her self control.
(b) Yes, as the provocation of death of a loved one would make any person lose their self control.
(c) No, as significant time had passed between the provocation and the blow by her which caused the death of
Ranbir.
(d) Yes, as she was in deep shock and has killed Ranbir during the continuance of the deprivation of the power
of self-control.
Passage (Q.65-Q.68): In a landmark judgement, tr-5R7Uthe 8T1L5N held that any constitutional court has the power to
5S3RCourt
grant bail to people accused of offences under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, irrespective of S. 43-
D(5), so as to enforce the right to a speedy trial which is guaranteed under Art.21 of the Constitution. The UAPA
creates an alternate criminal justice system where the CrPC does not apply and there are few safeguards for the
accused.
tr-5R 7U5S3R8T1L5N
The provisions of S.43-D(5) makes it almost impossible for a person to secure bail for an offence under UAPA,
7I5F3I8I
tr-if5Dthere are1F5A
reasonable grounds for believing that the accusation against such a person is prima facie true. Which
makes undertrials languish in jail while the trial drags on for years? In Hussainara Khatoon v Home Secretary,
the court observed several under - trial prisoners spending more than half of the maximum punishment of which
they could be convicted, which then laid down S.436A of the CrPC in 2005, stating that if an accused has spent
half the period of time out of the maximum period of punishment specified for that offence, the accused has to
be released on bail.
However, India's bail jurisprudence is notoriously inconsistent and discriminatory. It is well settled that right to
a speedy trial extends to all stages, including investigation, inquiry, trial, appeal, revision, and re-trial. In the
context of UAPA it is important to pay attention to one particular stage i.e., investigation. Maybe, because the
NIA is India's anti-terror agency, it deliberately slows the investigation to keep the accused in prison for as long
as possible. This can be done by filing charge sheets and supplementary charge sheets with long gaps, ensuring
that the trial is kept in suspended animation while the accused is in prison. This can be especially done when
the agencies know that their case is weak and will not stand a trial.
65. Jack is a middle-class man residing in Chiglu village, Andhra Pradesh. Jack had applied for an education loan at
a bank for the purpose of his daughter’s admission to a good management college, but due to some reasons, his
loan was rejected by a couple of banks. He later tried in at some other banks but did not receive a loan. Suddenly,
a man approached him outside the bank and asked him whether he needed a money. Since Jack was in utter
need of money, he replied yes to him even without knowing him. But the man notified him that he would not be
m
arranging a loan from any bankand wouldbe transferring him the money through a friend. He also asked for 20%
o
of the amount from Jack in order to help him. Jack agreed but was unaware that the man he was approached by
c
was a hacker. The next day, they both met again in order to fulfil the transaction. The man transferred anamount
rs .
of 25 Lakh rupees from a flat account (an account used by a terrorist organization for planning a terror attack
and then left abandoned) to Jack’s account and then asked him to transfer his 20%. The man also asked Jack to
deposit the monthly amount on a given account number. A week later, police officials took Jack into custody
k e
and alleged him of having links with terrorist organization. Jack was prosecuted under the Unlawful Activities
Act. Jack pleaded that he has no links with terrorist org. and had borrowed money from a person, and he
demanded to be released on bail. The prosecution rebutted his appeal of bail on the grounds of Section 43(D)(5)
n
of the Act. Is the argument put forward by the prosecution valid?
a
(a) Yes, Jack Should be granted bail as per right to speedy trial under Article 21 of the Indian constitution and
also mentioned by the constitutional court.
r
o p
(b) Yes, Jack should not be granted bail, as he has been prosecuted under UAPA and as per section 43(d) of the
Act, the transfer of amount from a flat account to Jack is a prima facie evidence.
(c) No, Jack should be granted bail because Jack did not knew that the amount was transferred from a flat
66.
T
account and therefore, there is no prima facie evidence of terror links.
(d) Jack can be granted bail if the court is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing that the
accusation against such person is prima facie true.
Jaani is a local crook who has been arrested several times for stealing. Jaani once broke into a residence in the
neighbourhood with the intent of thieving. While taking items from the residence, he entered the master bedroom
and saw a dead person on the floor with blood all over his head. Jaani panicked and attempted to flee the house
with all he had stolen. Unfortunately, while he was leaving the residence, he was approached by the housemaid,
who then contacted the cops. Jaani was arrested
tr-5R7Ufor 8T1L5N under Section 300 of the IPC. In his case, Jaani
5S3Rmurder
claimed that he entered the residence with the goal of stealing and wanted to flee as soon as he discovered the
body in the bedroom. However, the court was unsatisfied, and the matter was taken to trial. Due to a backlog of
cases in the court, just three hearings on the case were held over a seven-year period. Assuming the maximum
punishment for the offence he is accused of is Fourteen Years. Jaani then petitioned the High Court for
anticipatory bail. The prosecution contended that Jaani should
1L5N not be given bail because he committed murder,
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
which is a cognizable and non-bailable offence under penal law. Consider yourself Jaani's attorney, and make a
tr-strong 8I1F5A
5D7I5F3Icase in his defence.
(a) Bail should be granted to Jaani because there is no evidence except for him committing a theft in the house.
(b) Bail should be granted to Jaani because, he has served half of the maximum imprisonment that is to be
granted if convicted.
(c) Jaani should be set free from all the charges as there is no evidence proving his conviction of the offence.
(d) Jaani should be granted bail as he has served his period of sentence for the offence of theft and still his case
is under-trial.
67. Happu Singh is an Indian resident who is suspected of being a sleeper cell for a terrorist group based outside of
India. Happu Singh was arrested from his kiosk by the Delhi Police, who said he was plotting a bomb attack
against a Delhi Vegas mall. He was charged with violating the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act. Happu
appealed at every hearing that he is not a terrorist and that he is a local resident of Delhi who owns a refreshment
store in Sarojini Nagar. Happu Singh also applied for bail, but the court denied his request under Section 43(D)(5)
of the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act, finding that the charge against Happu is prima facie genuine. Even
after years of detention, Happu is still being interviewed by the NIA and is decaying behind prison walls without
being convicted. Which of the following statements do you believe is accurate in the case of Happu Singh?
(a) There is no violation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution in the case of Happu Singh, as he is a terrorist
who has been accused under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act.
(b) There is a violation of the right to a speedy trial under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, as he has been
rotting in prison for years without being convicted.
m
(c) The non-granting of bail to Happu Singh is against the provisions of Section 436A of CrPC.
o
(d) If an accused is booked under the provisions of UAPA, it is almost impossible for a person to secure bail
for an offence under UAPA.
c
68.
rs .
The Mumbai police received information from an intelligence cell that there would be massive bomb attacks in
significant areas around Mumbai. They also received information on one Neelam, who claimed to be a terrorist
k e
operating remotely for a terrorist organisation not operating from India. Neelam has also been accused of
harbouring an 18-year-old terrorist who was said to have been killed in the Mumbai attack in 2000. The Mumbai
police also revealed that the information was acquired by Neelam's neighbours. Neelam, via his attorney,
n
petitioned the Supreme Court for anticipatory bail. Which the Supreme Court denied on the basis of Unlawful
a
Activities Prevention Act Section 43(D)(5). Do you think the rejection of bail on the grounds of Section 43(D)(5)
r
of the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act is justified?
o p
(a) No, Neelam cannot be denied bail on the grounds of section 43 of the UAPA, because she is not found to be
involved in any unlawful activities as such.
(b) Yes, the rejection of bail on the grounds of section 43 of the UAPA is justified as Neelam was found to be
helping the terrorist.
T
(c) Yes, the rejection of bail on the grounds of section 43 of the UAPA is justified as it is to be believed by the
court that she has been involved in unlawful activities under the UAPA.
(d) No, Neelam is alleged to be the handler of a terrorist organization & therefore cannot be denied bail without
any prima facie evidence against her.
Passage (Q.69-Q.71): “Indemnity" in English law means a promise to save a person from harm from the
consequences of an act. The promise may be express or implied by the circumstances of the case. The English
definition of indemnity is wide enough to include
tr-5R7U5Sa3R 8T1L5N of indemnity against loss arising from any cause
promise
whatsoever, e.g., loss caused by fire or by some other accident. Indeed, every contract of insurance, other than
life assurance, is a contract of indemnity. But the definition of "indemnity" in Section 124 of the Indian Contract
Act is somewhat narrower. It is like this: S. 124. "Contract of Indemnity" defined.—A contract by which one
party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the
conduct of any other person, is called a "contract of indemnity".
1L5N The person who gives the indemnity is called
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
the "indemnifier" and the person for whose protection it is given is called the "indemnity-holder" or
5A
5D7I5F3I8I1F
tr-"indemnified". The employer of an agent is bound to indemnify him against the consequences of all lawful acts
done by such agent in the exercise of the authority conferred upon him.
A contract of indemnification can be express or implicit, depending on the circumstances; though implied
indemnity does not appear to be covered under Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act, but it is covered under
the act. When a person performs an act at the request of another and the conduct is not inherently tortious to the
knowledge of the person performing it, and the act injures the rights of a third person, the person performing the
act is entitled to an indemnification from the person who requested that it be done.
Loss must be caused by some human agency. Such cases and the case of a loss arising from an act done at the
request of the promisor are covered by Section 223 of the Act, which provides for indemnity between principal
and agent. An indemnity bond that permits an employee to leave the employment earlier than the minimum
agreed period only at the cost of the forfeiture of his bond money is valid, provided both the period of restriction
and the bond money are reasonable. Only that part of the bond money can be retained which is necessary to
indemnify the employerfor his loss.
69. Neeta gave an emerald ring to keep it safe with Bharti in her new safe keep that she exclusively created for
keeping her important items safe. The ring that Neeta gave to Bharti belonged to her great- great- grandmother,
which will come under the category of antiquities and, if sold, will provide a return of 100 crores. On Neeta's
(Defendant) instruction, Bharti (plaintiff) sold the ring at auction. It was later discovered that the ring did not
belong to the defendant, but to another individual, who held the auctioneer liable, and the auctioneer sued the
directives. Which of the following is the most suitable option?
c m
defendant for indemnification for the damage she had experienced as a result of acting on the defendant's
o
(a) The defendant would have to indemnify the plaintiff, the plaintiff had assumed that if what she did was not
wrong, he would be indemnified by the defendant.
rs .
(b) The defendant would not have to indemnify the plaintiff because she was not the owner of the ring.
(c) The defendant would not have to indemnify because the plaintiff should have checked whether he was the
true owner of the ring.
k e
(d) The defendant would indemnify the plaintiff as to the best of the Bharti's knowledge, the act is not inherently
tortious.
70.
an
Dinnanth, a jeweller by trade, hired Anant to collect interest payments from all the defaulters to whom he had
r
paid cash in exchange for their pledged gold. Maya was one of these defaulters. Maya slammed the door in
o p
Anant's face and refused to pay the monthly installment when he went to her residence to collect it. As a result,
Anant launched a lawsuit against Maya in order to reclaim the money. He hired a big- lawyer to make sure he
won the case and paid the lawyer Rs. 1 lakh in fees. He lost the claim and had to pay Maya compensation. Can
T
he recoup these expenses from Dinanth?
(a) Yes, because he has suffered no loss for which the Dinanath should compensate him.
(b) Yes, because filing a case is a lawful act performed in the course of work.
(c) No, because filing a case is not a legal act in the course of work.
(d) No, since Anant has suffered a loss for which the Dinanath must compensate him.
71. Brijesh’s great- grand father has planted a banyan tree in the backyard of his house located at Avadhpuri Farms
,Delhi. Brijesh’s neighbour Sonu one day found out that banyan tree roots are one of the major reasons for
foundation problems and may cause a foundation tr-5R7U5S 8T1L5Ntilt, or shift up and down. Now, Sonu wants to sell
to3Rcrack,
the property, but the buyer put a condition that Brijesh will indemnify the new owner for any loss or damage
that may occur if the banyan tree on Brijesh's property causes damage to Sonu's property. On a rainy day, the
tree topples and falls on the neighbour's property, destroying the garden area. The neighbour demanded that
Brijesh pay for the damages. Is this a reasonable argument?
(a) No, because Brijesh did not indemnify the neighbor against
1L 5N any such conduct
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
(b) No, because there is a contract of indemnity between Sonu and Brijesh as under Section 124
tr-(c)
5D7IYes, 1F5A
5F3I8Ibecause there is a contract of indemnity between Sonu and Brijesh as under Section 124
(d) Yes, because the cost has to be first be incurred by Brijesh and only then does Sonu have to pay for the
damages caused to Brijesh's neighbor.
Passage (Q.72-Q.75): Plea of Alibi ('elsewhere') is not an exception in IPC but a mere rule of evidence u/S.11
of IEA as "a fact inconsistent with fact in issue". The defense pleads that at the time of commission of crime, he
was so far off from the place of incident that would render his presence abundantly improbable.
The burden of proof to establish the presence and participation of accused in the crime lies on the prosecution.
When it discharges its burden satisfactorily, only then the accuser’s defense of alibi is considered which has to
be proved with certitude. It is sufficient for the defense to instill a seed of reasonable doubt in the mind of Court
to give him the benefit of doubt.
The Apex Court rejected the plea of alibi of the accused when he contended that when the crime was committed
in Karnal, he was in Panipat but failed to it but the prosecution satisfactorily proved the opposite.
m
In another case, the accused took the plea of alibi and claimed that he was on duty in one Madrassa on the basis
o
of attendance register. But it was neither signed by the Head Master nor was the Head Master present on the day
of incident. Hence, the plea was rejected to convict the accused for the offence.
c
rs .
Therefore, it could be said that Courts are not inclined to acquit the accused if he has not succeeded even in
instilling a slight suspicion in the minds of Court regarding his presence at place of occurrence, let alone proving
in various cases.
k e
his absence from the crime scene with certitude. The same has been done by the trial, high and Supreme Court
(Source: https://articles.manupatra.com/article-details/Case-Analysis-Vutukuru-Lakshmaiah-v-State-of-
72.
Andhra-Pradesh)
r an
Which of the following statement is misinterpreted with the information given in the passage relating exception
to the principle of plea of alibi?
o p
(a) To make a plea, the person should be accused of the said crime.
(b) The defence of alibi should be taken by the accused as soon as possible.
73.
T
(c) There should be a commission of a crime punishable by law.
(d) The plea must file by the offender and proof that supports on the behalf of the defendant's argument.
The accused claimed that at the time of the crime, he went to Panipat to meet with an advocate for legal advice.
The crime occurred in the Karnal district. However, the advocate failed to provide evidence regarding the time
and location of the visit. Choose the statement that describes the next course of action in this case.
(a) The burden of proof is on the prosecution to prove the contrary.
(b) The prosecution's case is now much stronger and will most certainly win the case.
(c) The accused bears the burden of provingtr-his absence 5N the crime scene beyond a reasonable doubt.
5S3R8T1Lfrom
5R7U
(d) The accused will most certainly be convicted by the court.
74. Consider the following illustration, and choose the instance in which the court is likely to accept the accuser’s
plea of alibi?
(a) The accused pleaded that he had been away from 3R the 1L
scene
5N of crime and had in fact gone to buy a thresher.
tr-5R7U5S 8T
The thresher dealer testified to that and showed a book but that was in an irregular shape with blank pages.
tr-(b)
5D7IThe 1F5A
5F3I8Iaccused was discharged from a hospital situated 160 kms away from the place of the incident and his
discharge was just only 1 ½ hours before the incident, the plea of alibi was made out.
(c) A Government worker's presence in workshop at the material time was substantiated by the time-keeper's
record.
(d) The police officer contended that he was not present at the station where bribe was supposed to have been
offered to him. In his defence showed his presence at such places as was within reach, being a few miles
away.
75. Construing to the passage above, which of the interpretation is the likely to be incorrect?
(a) We must bear in mind that an alibi is not an exception (special or general) envisaged in the Indian Penal
Code or any other law. It is only a rule of evidence.
(b) The burden of prove always relies on the prosecution’s side that the accused was available at the place and
he fully involve in the offence.
(c) If the accused adduced such type of evidence in the court that accused creates some reasonable doubt in the
court regarding that his presence at the scene when offence occurred took place. It may be possible that
accused is not liable for the offence.
(d) Beyond every reasonable doubt and with clear supporting evidence, the accused must justify his plea.
Passage (Q.76-Q.79): Medical negligence is a combination of two words. The second word solely describes the
meaning, though the meaning of negligence has not been described in a proper way, but it is an act recklessly
m
done by a person resulting in foreseeable damages to the other. Negligence is an offense under tort, IPC, Indian
o
Contracts Act, Consumer Protection Act, and many more. Medical Negligence basically is the misconduct by a
c
medical practitioner or a doctor by not providing enough care resulting in breach of their duties and harming the
rs .
patients which are their consumers. Medicine is such a profession where a practitioner is supposed to have
requisite knowledge and skill needed for the purpose and has a duty to exercise reasonable duty of care while
dealing with the patient. The standard of the care depends upon the nature of the profession. A surgeon or
k e
anaesthetist will be determined by the standard of the average practitioner in that field while in the case of
specialists, a higher skill level is needed. There are 3 components of medical negligence: the existence of a legal
duty, the breach of legal duty and the damage caused by such a breach. Moreover, the liability of the doctor
n
cannot be invoked now and then, and he can’t be held liable just because something has gone wrong. For
a
fastening the liability very high degree of such negligence is required to be proved. A doctor or medical
r
practitioner when attending to his patients, owes him the following duties of care: (a) a duty of care in deciding
o
administration of the treatment.
p
whether to undertake the case; (b) a duty of care in deciding what treatment to give; and (c) a duty of care in the
(Source: https://www.lawctopus.com/academike/medical-negligence/ )
76.
T
N was experiencing severe chest pain. He was given a few medications, but after eight hours of inability to
control his pain, he was admitted to the hospital. The doctors informed that a minor surgery was required. In the
operation theatre, the doctor had another patient with an equally serious condition waiting for him. As a result,
he was a little hurried and forgot to give him an important injection. Regardless, the operation was a success. N
was later discovered to be allergic to the chemical in the injection. However, because the doctor forgot about the
injection, N's parents felt that the doctor acted negligently and decided to file a medical negligence claim. Decide.
(a) As a result of the doctor's gross negligence, N's life may have been in danger.
(b) Since the conditions for medical negligence 3R8T1L5N in this case, the doctor must be held accountable.
are5Ssatisfied
tr-5R7U
(c) The doctor shouldn't be held responsible because it is obvious that he was aware that N was allergic to that
specific chemical.
(d) The doctor shouldn't be made accountable because there was no harm done, so his actions do not constitute
medical negligence.
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
77. Y had a very dangerous virus inside her. Y could only be saved by the American medication that the hospital
had on hand, the doctors realized as they were administering the treatment. Before giving him the medication,
the doctors requested that Y's parents make arrangements for seventeen lakh rupees so that they can use the
American medication. The money was arranged by the parents and given to them. They later learned that the
medicine had expired and was no longer effective in treating Y. They searched the market for a similar
medication and as a result, gave him what little they could. Y passed away instantly when the medication reacted
with his body. Establish the liability.
(a) Since they did everything within their ability to avoid the injury, the hospital is not responsible.
(b) The hospital is responsible for the patient's death because the wrong medication was given to him.
(c) If the hospital reimburses the money it had taken from Y's parents, it will not be held accountable.
(d) Since the hospital failed to keep the necessary medications on hand for emergencies, they will be held
accountable.
78.
o m
Z used to be a cook at V's house. He used to visit his house twice a day for two hours each time. He once heard
c
screaming from the room while he was preparing dinner. He went there and discovered V on the floor as a result
rs .
of a paralysis attack. He immediately dialed the number for the family doctor. The doctor told him to do certain
things to keep V awake until he arrived at the house. V died before the doctor arrived. In the given case, who
will be held accountable?
k e
(a) The doctor will be held accountable because he was late, which resulted in V's death.
(b) Z will be held liable because he did not follow the doctor's instructions, resulting in medical negligence on
his part.
an
(c) No one shall be held liable in this case because none of their actions indicate any medical negligence.
(d) Z and the doctor will be held accountable because they both failed to save V's life.
r
79.
o p
T was taken to the hospital after suffering a major heart attack. The parents became concerned because T was
only thirty years old and was too young to suffer a heart attack. His family doctor L treated him, and the operation
went smoothly. T had another heart attack while in the emergency department, and this time he died on the spot.
T
As a result, T's parents sued L for medical negligence. Determine.
(a) L will not be held liable for anything that occurs after the operation has been concluded.
(b) L will be held accountable because there may have been some negligence on his part that caused T to suffer
yet another heart attack.
(c) L is not liable because there was no breach of duty on his part.
(d) L will be held accountable because he should have directed an attendant to stay with T until he was
discharged.
Passage (Q.80-Q.83): We are all aware thattr-there are

5R7U5S 1L5N
two
3R8T parties in a suit, i.e., the plaintiff and the defendant.
Generally, both parties must be present in court for the hearing. But if, in any case, any of them is not present,
Order 9 is applicable. This Order provides rules for the appearance of parties in a suit and also gives the
consequences for their absence. According to Rule 1 of the Order, both parties must be present either personally
or through their pleaders in the court on the day fixed in summons issued to the defendant. Rule 2 further provides
that if it is found that no summons were issued to the defendant
1L5N due to the plaintiff’s fault, the suit will be
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
dismissed by the court. Rule 7 provides the procedure in cases where the defendant was absent in the previous
5D7I5F3I8I
tr-hearing but1F5A
appears in the subsequent hearing and gives a reasonable or good cause for his absence in the previous
hearing. It provides that in a situation where the court has adjourned the hearing of the suit ex parte and the
defendant provides a good cause for his absence, the court, on its terms and conditions, may hear him and deal
with the suit as if he had appeared on the date fixed for hearing. For the application of Rule 7 in a suit, the
following essentials or conditions must be fulfilled: The defendant must not have appeared on the previous day
fixed for the hearing, he should have a good or reasonable cause for his previous absence or non-appearance, the
court must have adjourned the ex parte hearing in his absence, the court has discretionary power to order him to
pay the costs or impose any other condition. Rule 8: According to this Rule, when the defendant appears but the
plaintiff is absent on the day fixed for the hearing, the court will dismiss the suit by passing an order. But if the
defendant admits any of the claims of the plaintiff, even in plaintiff’s absence, the court will pass an order against
the defendant in favour of the plaintiff with respect to that particular claim and dismiss the remaining suit. It is
applicable only when there is one plaintiff and he does not appear for the hearing; if there is more than one
plaintiff, all of them must be absent for this Rule to be applicable.
80. R was T’s boss. One day T insulted R in front of all the other workers and then fired him. R sued T for defamation
because he was angry with him, but in the suit, both sides were unable to establish their claims in the initial
hearing. A three-month suspension was placed on the case, post that, T received many summonses for the next
hearing but failed to show up. T finally responded that he was unable to attend because he met with an accident
and hence was not able to drive any vehicle to the court, but still the court imposed fine on him. Determine the
best response in light of the given passage.
(a) Rule 7 of order 9 will be applied here since the defendant did not appear at the previous hearing.
the plaintiff in order to continue the case.
c m
(b) Court should dismiss the case by applying rule 2 because it is essential that summons should be issued by
o
(c) Rule 7 of order 9 will not be applied here because according to the rule the defendant must have reasonable
cause for not appearing in the previous hearing.
rs .
(d) Defendant did not appear and court also exercised his power and ordered him to pay cost hence rule 7 will
be applied.
81.
k e
M and R lived next door to each other. M used to forbid people from using the shortcut that led from his house
to the main road. One day, R took the shortcut past M's house since he needed to get to a meeting quickly. M
n
observed him and filed a trespass complaint against him. At the initial hearing, some of the accusations made by
a
both parties were proven. M, however, was unable to show up for the following session because of a death in his
r
family. Subsequently, the remaining lawsuit was dismissed by the court citing rule 8. Determine the correctness
of the court’s decision.
o p
(a) Rule 8 will not be applied because there was only one plaintiff and not many plaintiffs.
(b) Rule 8 of order 9 will be applied because plaintiff had reasonable cause for been absent at previous hearing.
82.
T
(c) Defendants did not admit the remaining claims made by plaintiff hence court cannot dismiss the case and
rule 8 cannot be applied.
(d) Rule 8 will be applied because the plaintiff did not appear at the hearing.
Q was a worker at the XYZ Society, a building site. The bricks were wrongly set because Q over-watered the
cement. When XYZ Company learned of this, they brought a legal case accusing Q of negligence. The plaintiff
was able to prove some allegations in the first two hearings, but Q was unable to do so. Since Q had given up
trying to prove any of his accusations, he chose not to show up for the second hearing. There was no summons
issued for him. In excess of its legal jurisdiction,
tr-5R7Uthe 8T1L5N
5S3Rcourt sentenced Q to two years in prison. Choose the best
response in the light of the passage that whether Rule 7 will be applied or not.
(a) Rule 7 of order 9 will be applied because the defendant has reasonable cause for his absence in the last
hearing.
(b) The court does not satisfy the essentialsof rule 7 hence it will not apply
(c) Rule 1 of order 9 will be applied because summons against
1L5N defendants were not filed.
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
(d) Defendant was the only one and not many as required along with other essentials of order 7 hence it will not
tr-5D7Ibe 8I1F5A
5F3Iapplied.
83. X and Y were friends. One day, both parties got into a heated dispute during a casual get together. As the fight
continued, X grew irrational and assaulted Y. Y filed suit for battery against X. At the initial hearing when Y
appeared, and X didn’t appear for the same it has been found that no summon issued to X. Due to Y’s lapse, the
court dismissed the case because no summons was issued. Choose the best response in the light of the passage
and which rule will be applied as per the passage.
(a) X did not have reasonable cause for his absence in hearing hence rule 7 cannot be applied.
(b) Order 9 is not valid because both the parties were present in the first hearing of the case.
(c) Court exercised excessive power of dismissing the case without hearing X, hence rule 7 cannot be applied.
(d) Court rightly dismissed the suit because summons was not issued due to Y’s fault hence rule 2 was followed.
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.84-Q.107): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.84-Q.88): The land near the mouth of the Mississippi River is barely land at all. Muddy water forks
into a labyrinth of pathways through a seemingly endless expanse of electric-green marsh grass, below skies
thick with birds. Shrimp and crabs wriggle in the water below, and oak and cypress sprout from wet soils on
higher grounds. Stretching for more than a hundred miles along the coast of Louisiana, this is one of the world’s
largest, and most famous, river deltas.
Similar landforms – flat and wet and rich with wildlife – have built up wherever rivers dump their mud and sand
into shallow oceans. There are thousands of such deltas across the world, ranging in size from just a few acres
to, in the case of the Mississippi River’s, thousands of square miles. Many of these places, including the marshes
m
in Louisiana, are now disappearing, often quite rapidly.
o
The soils are sinking, for varied and complex reasons. Worse, as the climate warms, the seas are rising. In
c
Louisiana, a football field’s worth of land is gone every hundred minutes, a fact that is devastating for the
.
hundred-million birds that stop here on their migrations — and for the people whose families have lived amid
rs
these wetlands for generations, and sometimes millennia. Hundreds of millions of people that live on other deltas,
too, could lose their homes and their livelihoods.
k e
Later this year, a state agency in Louisiana will begin construction on what has been called the largest ecosystem
restoration project in US history. A set of gates in the levee will allow water to once more carry mud into the
n
marshes, an effort to rebuild tens of thousands of acres of land. The project has been controversial, particularly
a
because it’s likely to affect fisheries, a major local industry.
r
Deltas are inherently impermanent: As climate changes through the epochs, as the seas rise and fall, deltas are
o p
formed and then buried underwater. Still, these past few thousand years can be thought of as an “age of the
delta,” says Utrecht University geomorphologist Jaap Nienhuis. Not coincidentally, it has also been an age of
human flourishing. “Human civilisation started when modern river deltas started to appear,” Nienhuis says. “It’s
T
scary to think of what could happen if river deltas disappear.”
Nienhuis, lead author of a 2023 paper on river deltas for the Annual Review of Earth and Planetary Sciences,
spoke with Knowable Magazine about what deltas face in the coming centuries, and whether strategies like
Louisiana’s “sediment diversion” can make the needed difference.
84. Which among the following option can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The author is optimistic about the prospects of restoring river deltas and saving their wildlife and people.
(b) The author is pessimistic about the prospects of restoring
1L5N river deltas and saving their wildlife and people.
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
(c) The author is neutral about the prospects of restoring river deltas and saving their wildlife and people.
(d) The author is ambivalent about the prospects of restoring river deltas and saving their wildlife and people.
85. The author will agree with each of the following EXCEPT
(a) River deltas are important habitats for wildlife and human communities.
(b) River deltas are vulnerable to the effects oftr-5R
climate
7U5S3Rchange
8T1L5N and human activities.
(c) River1Fdeltas
5A
are permanent and stable landforms that do not change over time.
5D7I5F3I8I
tr-(d) River deltas are diverse and complex ecosystems that vary in size and shape.
86. Which one of the following validates the author’s argument?
(a) The restoration project in Louisiana will be successful and replicable in other river deltas.
(b) The climate change and human activities that cause river delta loss and degradation are irreversible and
inevitable.
(c) The river deltas that exist today are similar to the ones that existed when human civilisation started.
(d) The river deltas that support wildlife and human communities are essential for the survival and well-being
of both.
87. Which of the following strengthens the argument that many deltas, including the marshes in Louisiana, are now
disappearing, often quite rapidly?
(a) River deltas are the only habitats that support wildlife and human communities.
(b) River deltas are essential for the survival and well-being of wildlife and human communities.
(c) The pattern of delta land loss observed in Louisiana is not very different from those observed at other Deltas.
(d) River deltas are diverse and complex ecosystems that vary in size and shape.
88. Which of the following is a flaw in the author’s argument?

(a) The author relies on empirical evidence from Louisiana to generalize about river deltas across the world.
(b) The author assumes that river deltas are essential for human civilisation without providing any supporting
evidence.
(c) The author assumes a correlation between human civilisation and modern river deltas without considering
the possibility that humans could have existed independently of deltas.
o m
(d) The author appeals to emotion by using words like “devastating” and “scary” to describe the consequences
of river delta disappearance.
c
rs .
Passage (Q.89-Q.93): What happens when the established values of science become propaganda machines?
Recently, scientists have started acknowledging that the concept of “merit” pitches unequals against each other.
k e
Slowly, they have tried to correct academic practices so that the academic community becomes more inclusive
and diverse. Social justice, a concept that acknowledges inherent inequalities in society and aims to restore
equality of opportunities via systematic steps, is slowly assimilating into academia.
an
A paper published in the Journal of Controversial Ideas aims to counter all such efforts. It defends the idea of
r
merit in science. It claims that the concept of merit has served science with significant advances, led to
p
technological revolutions, and reduced human suffering. It strongly advocates that merit should be the only
metric that dictates academic practices. Not explaining how, it claims that only “a sharp focus on merit” promotes
o
inclusion in academia. It claims that ideological currents like social justice undermine the possibility of scientific
T
advances, and hence, academicians should stick to meritocracy for the good of science.
In an ideal world, such a paper would not gain attention. But the world is far from perfect. Leading international
newspapers covered the paper’s content. These arguments have serious flaws, are hypocritical, and the authors
use a deliberately selective choice of examples and are seemingly motivated by their ideological stance. I have
been a practising scientist before, and this article draws from my understanding of science, scientific practices,
and the role of scientists.
The most severe flaw the paper suffers from tr- 5S3R8T1L5N
is5Rits7Uover-reliance on “objective” truth. Such truth may not always
exist. While experiments rule out false scientific theories, there arise scenarios where multiple theories can
explain observed phenomena accurately. Access to scientific resources and networking play a role in the trends
that set the tone for further examination of competing theories.
While further experiments may eventually tell between theories,

1L5N scientists find a way to fit some theories into
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
the broader framework of observations. This trend is common in astronomy, cosmology, and high-energy
1F5A the truth depends on which scientist you ask. The scientific practice, which includes debates,
5D7I5F3I8IThen,
tr-physics.
trends, biases, and relative weightage to competing ideas to explain the natural world, is thus inherently
subjective. Social privilege plays a critical role in setting the contours of science. It decides whose ideas are
heard and supported by the scientific community.
89. Which among the following options can be inferred from the passage?
(a) The author is in favour of meritocracy as the only criterion for scientific excellence.
(b) The author is against social justice as a guiding principle for scientific practices.
(c) The author is critical of the paper published in the Journal of Controversial Ideas and its arguments.
(d) The author is indifferent to the role of social privilege in shaping scientific knowledge.
90. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s argument?
(a) The paper published in the Journal of Controversial Ideas has been widely appreciated by other scientists
and scholars for its methodological and logical approach.
(b) The concept of merit in science is based on an inclusive definition of excellence that considers many
potential contributors.
(c) The concept of social justice in science is based on a broad and inclusive vision of diversity that enriches
and enhances scientific knowledge and practice.
o m
(d) The concept of objective truth in science is an illusion that obscures the social and historical factors that led
to the scientific theories and discoveries.
c
91.
rs .
In the context of the passage, which of the following best encapsulates the author's primary contention regarding
the interplay between the concept of meritocracy and the inherent subjectivity in scientific practices?
k e
(a) The author states that meritocracy in academia is indestructible, and its application invariably leads to the
most objective and unbiased scientific outcomes, irrespective of the socio-cultural milieu.
(b) The author suggests that unbridled application of meritocracy in academia can confuse the nuanced interplay
n
of subjective biases and social privilege in scientific practices.
a
(c) The author unequivocally supports the paper from the Journal of Controversial Ideas, emphasizing that the
r
interplay of meritocracy and objective truth is necessary for scientific advancements.
o p
(d) The author opposes that scientific practices are predominantly driven by social privilege, and the idea of
meritocracy is merely a vestigial concept with no real bearing on modern scientific outcomes.
92.
other.
T
Based on the passage, which of the following lines is the primary objection presented in the passage?
(a) Recently, scientists have started acknowledging that the concept of “merit” pitches unequals against each
(b) It claims that ideological currents like social justice undermine the possibility of scientific advances, and
hence, academicians should stick to meritocracy for the good of science.
(c) This trend is common in astronomy, cosmology, and high-energy physics.
(d) The most severe flaw the paper suffers from is its over-reliance on “objective” truth.
93. The author develops the argument in this passage

tr-5R7Uby 8T1L5Nof the following?
which
5S3R
(a) Relying heavily on personal anecdotes to elucidate the nuances of scientific practices.
(b) Drawing subtle contrasts between a paper's meritocratic stance and the multifaceted intricacies inherent in
scientific endeavors.
(c) Offering a sequential breakdown of the paper's content without delving into its implications.
(d) Solely emphasizing the universal benefits of meritocracy
3R8T1L5N
while sidelining its potential limitations.
tr-5R7U5S
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
Passage (Q.94-Q.98): The standards of ethics expected of judges are more rigorous than those applied to other
professions. Hence, the maintenance of discipline in the judicial service is of paramount significance and the
acceptability of the judgment depends upon the credibility of the conduct, honesty, integrity and character of the
officer.
The District Judiciary in India plays an important role in preserving and protecting the rule of law. It also plays
a crucial role in generating public confidence which sustains the credibility of the judiciary. What is vital to the
judicial system is the independence of the District Judiciary as it is the backbone of the judicial system.
The Supreme Court has time and time again held that the District Judiciary should not be referred to as
Subordinate Judiciary because the District Judge is not subordinate to any other person in the exercise of his/her
jurisdiction and it is also disrespectful to the constitutional position of a District Judge to call him/her as a
Subordinate Judge.
c o m
The Constitution recognizes a District Judge as an essential cog in the judicial system and respect ought to be
rs .
accorded to the District Judiciary and its contribution in preserving the rule of law in the country at all times.
The District Judiciary is the only physically accessible institution for majority of the litigants for accessing justice
k e
which is a facet of right to life guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution. Therefore, adequate emoluments,
pension and good working conditions for the members of the District Judiciary are essential for its effective
functioning.
an
In All India Judges Association v. Union of India & Ors., the Supreme Court held that the separation of powers
r
demands that the officers of the Judiciary should be treated separately from the staff of the legislative and
judicial power.
o p
executive wings as the judges are not employees of the State but are holders of public office who wield sovereign
T
Article 50 of the Constitution directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the Executive and this
distinction is important because judicial independence from the executive and the legislature requires the
judiciary to have a say in matters of their finances.
Allowing the Executive to decide the pay of the judiciary may lead to unintended consequences, hence, to secure
the independence of the judiciary, it is essential that the pay of judicial officers is separate and distinct from the
pay of staff of other wings of the State.
94. Which among the following options capturestr-the 5R7Umain 1L5Nof the passage?
idea
5S3R8T
(a) The District Judiciary is an integral part of the judicial system and deserves respect, independence and an
adequate emoluments.
(b) The District Judiciary is subordinate to the Supreme Court and the High Courts and needs to follow their
directions.
(c) The District Judiciary is separate from the Executive 1Land
5N the Legislature and has a say in matters of its
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
finances.
tr-(d)
5D7IThe 1F5A
5F3I8IDistrict Judiciary is accessible to the majority of the litigants and provides justice as a facet of right to
life.
95. Which of the following arguments most closely parallels the reasoning used in the passage regarding the District
Judiciary in India?
(a) The role of a captain in a sports team is pivotal; hence, they should not be referred to as just another player.
They should be provided with special training to enhance their skills.
(b) The principal of a school holds a unique position; therefore, they should not be considered as another teacher.
They should have a separate office from the rest of the staff.
(c) The CEO of a company is crucial for its direction and growth; thus, they shouldn't be viewed as a regular
employee. Their vision determines the company's trajectory, and they should have a say in the board's
decisions.
(d) The editor of a newspaper plays a significant role in shaping public opinion; hence, they should not be seen
as just another journalist. Their editorial choices influence the paper's credibility, and they should be given
autonomy in their decisions.
96.
o m
Which of the following situations, if true, would most significantly weaken the author's core arguments?
c
(a) A recent survey shows that the some of litigants in India prefer approaching higher courts directly, bypassing
the District Judiciary.
rs .
(b) The Constitution of India has been amended to exclude the term "Subordinate Judiciary" to officially refer
to the District Judiciary.
conditions.
k e
(c) Some District Judges have publicly stated that they are content with their current remuneration and working
(d) In a pilot across three states, the Executive's involvement in judiciary finances led to improved efficiency,
97.
r n
quicker case resolutions, and greater litigant satisfaction.
a
Based on the author's argument, which of the following best represents the primary premise that supports the
author's conclusion?
o p
(a) The District Judiciary in India is the backbone of the judicial system.
(b) The Supreme Court has often corrected the terminology used for the District Judiciary.
98.
T
(c) The Constitution recognizes the importance of a District Judge.
(d) The District Judiciary plays a role in generating public confidence.
Which among the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The District Judiciary should be given more autonomy and resources to perform its functions effectively.
(b) The District Judiciary should be merged with the High Courts and the Supreme Court to create a unified
judicial system.
(c) The District Judiciary should be supervised and regulated by the Executive and the Legislature to ensure
accountability and transparency. 1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
(d) The District Judiciary should be abolished and replaced by alternative dispute resolution mechanisms.
Passage (Q.99-Q.103): Theoretically speaking, middle powers are countries which are not as strong as a
superpower but are strong enough to wield significant influence in international affairs. In reality, countries like
India have emerged as strong middle powers as they prefer multilateral solutions for global problems and have
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
negotiated settlements for bilateral conflicts. Even by traditional parameters like higher GDP ratio, trade volume,
5A
5D7I5F3I8I1Fforeign exchange reserves, stabilised economy and a good defense mechanism. Importantly, in the
tr-sufficient
present global context, ability to determine the position of the existing and contesting superpowers in the global
arena appears to be an important attribute of a middle power.
Middle powers are slowly but surely emerging in the geopolitical and geo-economic horizon, indicating the
beginning of a new chapter in global power positioning. Call them mere emerging economies or more
uncharitably, fence sitters in the ongoing Russia-Ukraine conflict, the middle powers are guided by their
respective national interests and compulsions of regional complexities and considerations.
While America has no ‘region’ of its own, expansionist China in its hegemonic urge has aggrandised its ‘regions’
into its geography. Not having to deal with the immediate neighbourhood gives the US and China certain distinct
advantages but the two contesting powers are also having to look for allies, supporters, and strategic partners
from among middle powers. It is this unique “non-aligned” positioning that gives the middle powers strength in
determining their stand on global issues and negotiate their way into the high table of global institutions, mainly
dominated by the West or the Global North.
Unlike the sharply divided North-South, the middle powers are largely distributed in both halves, thus bridging
the schism between the developed North and the developing South. The middle powers are growth engines
through their huge natural resource banks, vast manufacturing capabilities and huge consumer strength, more
prominently in the global South. These strengths have compelled the middle powers to create and run regional
economic and trade facilitation institutions, which are now drawing the attention of global hegemons.
In international relations, a middle power is a sovereign state that is neither a superpower nor a great power, but
m
still has large or moderate influence and international recognition. Countries like Australia, Japan, India, Brazil,
o
South Korea are important middle powers that are important for India in changing world order. These countries
c
can play an important economic, strategic and political role in India’s rise as a major Asian and global power.
99. Which among the following options captures the central idea of the passage?
rs .
(a) Middle powers are countries that are not as strong as superpowers but have significant influence in
international affairs.
k e
(b) Middle powers are countries that are guided by their national interests and regional complexities and can
bridge the gap between the developed North and the developing South.
n
(c) Middle powers are countries that have large natural resources, manufacturing capabilities and consumer
a
strength and can create and run regional economic and trade institutions.
r
(d) Middle powers are not the superpowers but have a considerable weight in international affairs, perceived as
power.
o p
the growing engines with immense natural resource banks, with India’s potential of being the future global
T
100. Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?
(a) Middle powers always remain neutral in global conflicts.
(b) Middle powers have the ability to challenge the dominance of superpowers.
(c) All countries with a high GDP ratio and trade volume are middle powers.
(d) The US and China are dependent on middle powers for their geopolitical strategies.
101. Based on the facts given in the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be inaccurate?
(a) Middle powers are the entities bridging the schism between the developed North and the developing South.
(b) The US and China are superpowers solely 5N do not have to deal with immediate neighboring
tr-5Rbecause they
7U5S3R8T1L
regions.
(c) The middle powers have vast manufacturing capabilities and huge consumer strength.
(d) Middle powers always prefer multilateral solutions for global problems.
102. Which among the following options would strengthen3Rthe 1Largument

5N that middle powers are important for India
tr-5R7U5S 8T
in changing world order?
tr-(a) 5F3I8I1F5A
5D7IMiddle powers have common interests and values with India and can cooperate on various issues such as
climate change, trade, security and more. .
(b) Middle powers have different interests and values from India and can compete with India on various issues
such as resources, markets, influence, etc.
(c) Middle powers have no interests and values in common with India and can ignore India on various issues
such as human rights, democracy, development, etc.
(d) Middle powers have conflicting interests and values with India and can oppose India on various issues such
as territorial disputes, nuclear proliferation, terrorism, etc.
103. Which of the following statements from the passage is primarily based on opinion rather than factual
information?
(a) Middle powers are countries that have significant influence in international affairs but are not superpowers.
(b) While America has no ‘region’ of its own, expansionist China in its hegemonic urge has aggrandised its
‘regions’ into its geography.
(c) In international relations, a middle power is a sovereign state that is neither a superpower nor a great power.
(d) Countries like Australia, Japan, India, Brazil, South Korea are important middle powers.
Passage (Q.104-Q.108): After the first lockdown was lifted three summers ago, I made it a point to pay a visit
to the nearby mosque as throughout the preceding weeks, the media was full of stories that the Tablighi Jamaat
played a role in spreading COVID-19. As if that was not enough, false claims were also made that migrant
workers congregated near the Bandra railway station because of an announcement made by a mosque.
o m
Because of these developments, I planned to visit a mosque the very day the lockdown restrictions on places of
c
worship were eased. As I have a vision problem (and now even a heart patient), I seldom step out of my rented
rs .
flat. Yet, I decided to accompany my son to go to the masjid in Patna (where I live) to offer maghrib namaz,
which is the prayer offered just after sunset. Among other things, the purpose was certainly to gauge the mood
outside the four walls of my house as it was for the first time after several months that the common people got
an opportunity to interact with others.
k e
What happened after the namaz was over came as a surprise to me. As my son and I were coming out of the
n
masjid, a woman approached us. “Maulana saheb kahan hain? (Where is the imam of the mosque?)” she asked.
a
My son whispered in my ear that she was carrying a glass of water for dum karwana hai – a sort of exorcism.
r
For this, the imam would recite some Quranic verses before the glass of water which would then be given to the
person who needs to be exorcised.
o p
My son added that she is a Hindu woman. I instructed him to usher her into the mosque as the imam was still
T
there. I stood at the gate and pondered for a few moments. Why this Hindu woman has come here on the very
first day after the lifting of restrictions? Was she really waiting all these days for the mosque to open? Do the
Hindus still have so strong faith in the imam of the masjid, notwithstanding so much media propaganda?
As ours is a mixed locality – Muslims mostly are concentrated around the masjid – there are temples too at some
distance. Probably, the Hindu woman might have gone to mandirs too. But she came here as well.
These thoughts come to me even now. Perhaps the officially-backed propaganda had not worked so effectively.
104. Which one of the following is an assumptiontr-on which

5R7U 1L5N
5S3R8Tthe conclusion depends?
(a) The Hindu woman was not aware of the media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque.
(b) The Hindu woman had a strong faith in the imam of the mosque and his ability to perform exorcism.
(c) The Hindu woman had visited other places of worship before coming to the mosque.
(d) The Hindu woman was representative of the common people who did not believe in the media propaganda.
tr-5R 7U5S3R8T1L5N
105. Which among the following options would resolve the paradox that despite the media propaganda against the
5A
5D7I5F3I8I1F
tr-Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque, a Hindu woman came to the mosque for exorcism?
(a) The Hindu woman was not aware of the media propaganda, and had a strong faith in the imam of the mosque.
(b) The Hindu woman was aware of the media propaganda but worried about her child, and she also ventured
the offerings of the mosque.
(c) The Hindu woman was aware of the media propaganda and believed it, but had no other option than to go to
the imam of the mosque.
(d) The Hindu woman was not aware of the media propaganda, and had no other option than to go to the imam
of the mosque.
106. Which among the following options identifies a flaw in the reasoning of the passage?
(a) The passage generalizes the attitude of the common people based on a single anecdotal evidence of a Hindu
woman visiting a mosque.
(b) The passage assumes that the media propaganda was officially-backed without providing any evidence or
source for this claim.
(c) The passage contradicts itself by stating that the media was full of stories against the Tablighi Jamaat and
the mosque but also that the Hindu woman had a little faith in the imam of the mosque.
(d) The passage presents a superfluous piece of evidence that has no bearing on the Hindu woman visiting the
mosque.
107. Which among the following is the author most likely to agree with?
(a) The media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque was justified and effective in creating
awareness among the people.
o m
(b) The media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque was unjustified and ineffective in
influencing the people’s faith and trust.
c
the people’s behavior and attitude.
rs .
(c) The media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque was justified but ineffective in changing
(d) The media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque was unjustified but effective in creating
fear and hatred among the people.
k e
108. Which among the following options would evaluate the argument that the officially-backed propaganda had not
worked so effectively?
an
(a) The difference between the footfall of non-Muslims was similar or increased in mosque after the lockdown
was lifted.
r
o p
(b) The opinion of the imam of the mosque about the media propaganda and its impact on his congregation.
(c) The frequency and intensity of the media propaganda against the Tablighi Jamaat and the mosque during the
lockdown.
T
(d) The attitude and behavior of the Hindu woman towards the imam of the mosque and his exorcism service.
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.109 – Q.112): Sheetal has a big cupboard full of books. The cupboard has 5 equal shelves, A, B,
C, D, and E, each having some books. Total number of books in the cupboard is 1200. The number of English
books is 24 more than the number of Hindi books. One-fourth of the total books are kept in Shelf (c) 16% of
total books are kept in Shelf (a) Shelf D has 50 more books than Shelf (a) The ratio of the number of English
and Hindi books is 3:1 in Shelf (a) The number of books in Shelf E is 20 more than the number of books in
Shelf (a) There are an equal number of English and Hindi books in Shelf (d) 50% of the total books in Shelf B
are English books. Three-fourths of the total books in Shelf E are Hindi books.
109. Find the total number of books in Shelf B

(a) 254 (b) 268 (c) 302 (d) 318
110. Find the difference between the number of Hindi books in shelf E and shelf D
(a) 26 (b) 38 (c) 42 (d) 46
c o m
rs .
111. The total number of Hindi books in shelf A and E together are more/less by how much as compared to the total
number of English books in shelf B and C together?
(a) 87 more (b) 61 less (c) 87 less
112. The average of number of English books in shelf C and shelf A is

(d) 61 more
k e
(a) 102.5 (b) 135.75
r an
(c) 128.25 (d) 155.5
Direction (Q.113 – Q.116): The local office of the OLA company evaluates the performance of five cab
given below:
P1: timely arrival
o p
drivers, A, B, C, D, and E for their monthly payment based on ratings in five different parameters (P1 to P5) as
P2: behavior
P3: comfortable ride
T
P4: driver's familiarity with the route
P5: value for money
Based on feedback from the customers, the office assigns a rating from 1 to 5 in each of these parameters.
Each rating is an integer from a low value of 1 to a high value of 5. The final rating of a driver is the average of
his ratings in these five parameters. The monthly payment of the drivers has two parts – a fixed payment and
final rating-based bonus. If a driver gets a rating of 1 in any of the parameters, he is not eligible to get bonus.
To be eligible for bonus a driver also needs to get
tr-5R 7Ua 3R8T1L5N
5Srating of five in at least one of the parameters.
The partial information related to the ratings of the drivers in different parameters and the monthly payment
structure (in rupees) is given in the table below:
P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 Fixed Payment Bonus

A 4 Rs. 2000
1L5N Rs. 500 × Final Rating
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
B 3 Rs. 2400 Rs. 400 × Final Rating
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
C 2 Rs. 2800 Rs. 200 × Final Rating
D 3 Rs. 2600 Rs. 300 × Final Rating
E 2 Rs. 2200 Rs. 400 × Final Rating
The following additional facts are known.

1. A and B have got a rating of 5 in exactly one of the parameters. C has got a rating of 5 in exactly two
parameters.
2. None of drivers has got the same rating in three parameters.
113. If D does not get a bonus, what is the maximum possible value of his final rating?
(a) 3.8 (b) 3.4 (c) 3.6 (d) 3.2
114. If E gets a bonus, what is the minimum possible value of his final rating?
(a) 3.0 (b) 3.2 (c) 2.8 (d) 3.4
115. If all five drivers get bonus, what is the minimum possible value of the monthly payment (in rupees) that a
driver gets?
(a) 3840 (b) 3600 (c) 3400 (d) 3500
116. If all five drivers get bonus, what is the maximum possible value of the monthly payment (in rupees) that a
driver gets?
(a) 3920 (b) 3900 (c) 3800 (d) 4100
c
Direction (Q.117–Q.120): The table below shows imports for three types of steel over a six month period in
o m
thousands of tonnes. Use this information to answer the following question.
rs .
e
Chart Title
k
70
60
60
50
r an 55
50
40
50
45
50 50
40
55
40
p
40 35 35 35 35
30 30
To 30
20
10
0
20
JANUARY FEBRUARY MARCH APRIL MAY JUNE
COIL SHEET SCRAP

Average cost per tonne over six month period are $200 for coil, $300 for sheet, $400 for scrap.
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
117. Which month showed the 2nd largest decrease in total imports over the previous month?
(a) April (b) May (c) February (d) June
118. What was the difference (in thousands of tonnes) between coil steel and sheet steel imports in the first three
months of the year? 1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
(a) 35
5F3I8I1F5A
(b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 50
tr-5D7I
119. What was the total cost of sheet steel imported over the 6 month period?
(a) 99000000 (b) 88556000 (c) 88500000 (d) 70855000
120. What is the ratio of total sheet steel and scrap steel imports respectively in the last three months together?
(a) 20:17 (b) 31:17 (c) 26:17 (d) 2:5
Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F
Notes:-
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
1L5N
tr-5R7U5S3R8T
5A
tr-5D7I5F3I8I1F

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

k e11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for

Subject Q. No. Page No.

1. What is the main idea of the passage? 1L5N

The author's writing style in the passage reflects:

10. Why according to the author did police err in banning3RPUBG?

them on renewed risk appetite.

The MPC took note of the moderation in CPItr-5R headline 1L5N

23. Which of the following reflects the tone of the passage?

Which of the following statements is not supported by the passage? m

Direction (Q.25-Q.29): UN 2023 Water Conference

(a) Prioritizing urban water supply over rural water access

What is the primary challenge in developing treatments for rare diseases?

Rare Disease Day 2023 was observed on _________.

Direction (Q.34-Q.38):Inter-Services Organization Bill, 2023

Direction (Q.39-Q.43): First Loss Default Guarantee

(b) 10% of the amount of that loan portfolio

Direction (Q.48-Q.51): ISRO to transfer SSLV to private sector

The Court noted that the employee had alsotr-levelled 1L5N

61. Ranbir and Randhir are step brothers. Whiletr-there

directives. Which of the following is the most suitable option?

Passage (Q.80-Q.83): We are all aware thattr-there are

the plaintiff in order to continue the case.

88. Which of the following is a flaw in the author’s argument?

While further experiments may eventually tell between theories,

93. The author develops the argument in this passage

102. Which among the following options would strengthen3Rthe 1Largument

104. Which one of the following is an assumptiontr-on which

109. Find the total number of books in Shelf B

112. The average of number of English books in shelf C and shelf A is

P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 Fixed Payment Bonus

The following additional facts are known.

JANUARY FEBRUARY MARCH APRIL MAY JUNE

COIL SHEET SCRAP

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