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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24


MOCK CLAT 04
TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120


1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy
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Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.

k e11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for


shading the circles. Indicate only the most

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2. In case of any discrepancy in the question appropriate answer by shading from the

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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for options provided. The answer circle should be

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replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. shaded completely without leaving any space.
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected
for a fresh booklet so obtained.

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3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
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on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
to take necessary precautions before marking

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OMR response Sheet under any circumstance. the appropriate circle.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the space provided on the OMR response
shall result in the cancellation of his/her 0D4F Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
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examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates have marked more than one
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response.
CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.


English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 11
Legal Reasoning 53-84 17
Logical Reasoning 85-108 28
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 34

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SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passages carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): Government think-tank NITI Aayog’s recent report, released on July 17, revealed a
remarkable achievement in India’s fight against multidimensional poverty. According to the report, a staggering
13.5 crore people successfully emerged from multidimensional poverty between 2016 and 2021. This progress
was mirrored in a decline of 9.89 percentage points in the number of multidimensionally poor people, dropping
from 24.85 per cent in 2015-16 to 14.96 per cent in 2019-21. The assessment was conducted using three equally
weighted dimensions: health, education, and standard of living, keeping in line with the global Multidimensional
Poverty Index (MPI).

However, despite these positive strides in economic development, a consortium of esteemed organisations

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including the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the International Fund for

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Agricultural Development (IFAD), the United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), the World Food Programme

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(WFP), and the World Health Organization (WHO) had jointly published a report titled “The State of Food
Security and Nutrition in the World” earlier on July 12.

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This report shed light on a disconcerting nutritional trend in India, where a staggering 74.1 per cent of the

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population cannot afford healthy food. This means that more than 100 crore people in India are compelled to
consume food with insufficient nutrition. Comparatively, 10.9 per cent of China’s population faces a similar
predicament, reflecting a stark contrast.

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Globally, the prevalence of undernourishment, a key measure of hunger, remained relatively unchanged from

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2021 to 2022, but it remained significantly higher than pre-pandemic levels. In 2022, approximately 9.2 per cent
of the world population faced chronic hunger,

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9P0R4Pto 7.9 per cent in 2019.

The issue of undernourishment is also impacting India, as 16.6 per cent of the population remains

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undernourished. The unavailability of affordable and nutritious food is exacerbating the malnutrition crisis in
the country. UNICEF highlighted the adverse effects of undernutrition on economic advancement, leading to
reduced productivity, poorer cognition, and unfavourable educational outcomes. Moreover, UNICEF
emphasised that undernutrition should be viewed as a manifestation of larger development issues.

A significant challenge lies ahead for India to achieve one of the Sustainable Development Goals 2030:
eradicating hunger in all its forms. The report suggests that this goal might be unattainable, projecting that nearly
600 million people could still be facing hunger in 2030. This is an increase of 119 million people compared to a
scenario without the COVID-19 pandemic and 0D4F
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5C7Kwar
9F9Cin Ukraine, and approximately 23 million more people
compared to a scenario where the war had not occurred.

Extracted with edits and revisions from India’s triumphs over poverty marred by an alarming hunger crisis,
https://frontline.thehindu.com/news/indias-triumphs-over-poverty-marred-by-an-alarming-hunger-crisis-as-
niti-aayog-report-finds-that-majority-of-the-population-cannot-afford-healthy-food/article67101938.ece

1. What is the primary contradiction highlighted in the passage regarding India's socio-economic progress?
(a) While India has made significant strides in reducing multidimensional poverty, a vast majority of its
population cannot afford nutritious food.
(b) India's economic growth has been unparalleled, but its educational standards have declined.
(c) The Indian government's policies have been inconsistent in addressing poverty and malnutrition.
(d)5MIndia's advancements
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2. How can the author's tone be best described when discussing the nutritional challenges faced by India?
(a) Optimistic and hopeful about the future prospects.
(b) Neutral, merely presenting the facts without any bias.
(c) Critical and disapproving of the government's efforts.
(d) Concerned and analytical about the prevailing situation.

3. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?


(a) The decline in multidimensional poverty in India is primarily due to improvements in health, education, and
standard of living.
(b) All esteemed organizations globally believe that India's fight against malnutrition has been successful.
(c) The war in Ukraine has had an impact on global hunger projections for 2030.
(d) UNICEF views undernutrition as a reflection of broader developmental challenges.

4.

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Which idiom or phrase best expresses the situation where, despite India's progress in reducing multidimensional
poverty, it still faces significant nutritional challenges?

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(a) "Biting off more than you can chew."
(b) "Two sides of the same coin."
(c) "Out of the frying pan and into the fire."

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(d) "One step forward, two steps back."

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Based on the passage, which of the following statements best captures the relationship between India's reduction

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in multidimensional poverty and the nutritional challenges it faces?

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(a) The reduction in multidimensional poverty has directly led to an increase in nutritional challenges in India.

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(b) Despite significant strides in reducing multidimensional poverty, India still grapples with severe nutritional
challenges.

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(c) The nutritional challenges in India are a direct consequence of the methods used to assess multidimensional
poverty.

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(d) India's focus on reducing multidimensional poverty has overshadowed its efforts to address nutritional
challenges.

Passage (Q.6-Q.10): “Why do you want your marriage to be doomed?” I was asked by a relative, for daring to
wear a black jumpsuit to my court wedding. Seemingly, I’d opened a floodgate of disapproving remarks from
relatives and family members, who berated me, saying: “It invites bad luck, don’t you know?”

Superstitions — those irrational beliefs, rooted in ancient traditions, folklore, and religious teachings, that defy
logic and reason — have been a part of human culture
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dismiss them as mere quirks, the impact of growing up in superstitious households is, often, far-reaching and
profound.

Even though wearing black was part of my broader — and deeply deliberate — decision to distance myself from
the norms surrounding marriage, I couldn’t help but worry that I had stupidly challenged fate. Growing up around
superstitious family members meant that I’d internalized a significant chunk of their belief systems — from
avoiding a path crossed by black cats to retracting my steps if I happened to sneeze on my way out. Despite
attempting to challenge these unfounded fears that I refused to carry forward, I struggle to come to terms with
the fact that I, as an individual, am not responsible for every misfortune that befalls me.

Superstitions often create a heightened sense of responsibility for events beyond an individual’s control, with
the5Mundue burden
9P0R4P contributing to elevated levels of anxiety about one’s actions. A 2016 article by the American
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Psychological Association notes that even though most people are aware that their superstitious beliefs have no

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basis in reality, they still struggle to overcome these ideas — leading to cognitive dissonance between people’s
rational selves and the superstitions ingrained in their minds.

Labelling this experience as a “neurotic paradox,” Eric Storch, a clinical psychologist, explains how
superstitions are self-perpetuating: When one engages in superstitious behavior to avoid a certain outcome, their
belief in the superstition is strengthened when that outcome doesn’t occur. “You think it works, so the behavior
persists. That’s one of the reasons you see these behaviors continue for a lot of people. They see a truth to it
because the feared outcomes didn’t take place.” Concurring research adds that the persistence of superstitions
can indeed be “ascribed to the placebo effect that yields an increased sense of control and mental reassurance in
unpredictable [circumstances].”

The inability to let go can also result from the pervasive and pernicious sense of self-blame that accompanies
superstitions — prompting people to attribute unfavorable circumstances in their lives to their own lapses in

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following superstitions. V., a disabled individual, recounts his experience of being parented by a superstitious

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mother. “She put me through horrible fasting, literal emotional abuse, and made me get involved in superstitious
affairs — all in order to ‘cure’ my disability.

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Extracted with edits and revisions from Many Indians Grow Up With Superstitious Families. A Lifetime of
Anxiety, Self‑Blame Follows, https://theswaddle.com/many-indians-grow-up-with-superstitious-families-a-

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lifetime-of-anxiety-self-blame-follows/

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Which of the following best describes the author's initial reaction to wearing black to her court wedding?

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(a) She was indifferent to the color choice and didn't think it mattered.

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(b) She wore black to deliberately challenge traditional norms surrounding marriage.

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(c) She wore black because it was a family tradition.

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(d) She chose black because it was her partner's favorite
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Which phrase in the passage is an example of a metaphor?

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(a) "floodgate of disapproving remarks"
(c) "heightened sense of responsibility"
(b) "defy logic and reason"
(d) "pervasive and pernicious sense of self-blame"

Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's struggle with superstitions?
(a) The author has completely overcome all superstitious beliefs from her childhood.
(b) Despite challenging these beliefs, the author still occasionally feels influenced by them.
(c) The author believes that all superstitions have a basis in reality.
(d) The author feels that her family's superstitious beliefs have had no impact on her.
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9. In the context of the passage, what does the term "neurotic paradox" most likely mean?
(a) A situation where one's rational understanding conflicts with deeply ingrained beliefs.
(b) A medical condition characterized by an irrational fear of superstitions.
(c) A phenomenon where people deliberately choose to believe in superstitions.
(d) A state where individuals are completely free from any superstitious beliefs.

10. Which of the following best summarizes the main argument of the passage?
(a) Superstitions are irrational beliefs that have no real impact on individuals.
(b) While many people dismiss superstitions as harmless, they can have profound psychological effects and
contribute to self-blame and anxiety.
(c) The majority of the world's population believes in superstitions, making them an essential part of global
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(d) Superstitions are beneficial as they provide a sense of control and mental reassurance in unpredictable
circumstances.

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Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Where we live can affect the way we talk — whether it’s the language we speak, how we
pronounce certain words, or which words and phrases we are more inclined to use. A recent study — published
in Frontiers in Psychology — alludes to that possibility.

Ian Maddieson, an adjunct research professor in the department of linguistics at the University of New Mexico,
who led the study, wanted to demonstrate the impact of our environment on the sound structure of the languages
we speak. “Most of the properties of a language, as it’s spoken today, are inherited from earlier stages of the
same language… They’re inherited from an older generation of speakers of the same language, but over long
periods of time, spoken languages do subtly change shape,” Maddieson told Phys.org, explaining, “What we’re
looking at are these subtle changes over a period of time. The idea was to basically look for what kinds of
correlations there are between these design features of sound systems of languages and the properties of the
environment in which they are spoken.”

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In pursuance of this, the researchers gathered data on language and environmental factors — looking at things

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like humidity, altitude, temperature, precipitation, and vegetation density in different parts of the world, and

languages from around the world — spanning a timeline spread across 300 years.

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analyzing their influence on the languages spoken in these regions. This led them to study over a thousand

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“Ian went to great lengths to specifically build the linguistic data set to provide that geographic diversity. We
tried to be intentional about making sure that we had languages in all environmental areas that are implicated in
the potential development of these linguistic features,” said Karl Benedict, Maddieson’s co-author, and the

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director of Research Data Services at the College of University Libraries and Learning Sciences. “The

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representation of a diversity of languages were scattered geographically over the widest possible range of global
environments.”

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As anticipated, the researchers were indeed able to find overarching patterns between the environment one
resides in, and the way they speak. Broadly, the four patterns that emerged from the data they analyzed were:

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first, in areas with high humidity and warm temperatures, people tend to use more vowels in their speech; second,
in regions of higher altitude, there was a marked tendency to use ejective consonants — also described as
voiceless consonants — more frequently; third, regions with higher humidity also boasted of complex tone
structures in their languages; fourth, warm areas that received more rainfall were found to have fewer complex
consonants in their languages.

Extracted with edits and revisions from How the Climate Subtly Shapes the Way We Talk,
https://theswaddle.com/how-the-climate-subtly-shapes-the-way-we-talk/
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11. Which statement best captures the primary focus of the study led by Ian Maddieson?
(a) The study aimed to understand the historical evolution of languages over centuries.
(b) The primary goal was to explore the correlation between environmental factors and the sound structures of
languages.
(c) The research was focused on the impact of altitude on the use of vowels in speech.
(d) The study was designed to analyze the influence of vegetation density on language tonality.

12. Which of the following sentences from the passage is in the passive voice?
(a) “Ian went to great lengths to specifically build the linguistic data set...”
(b) “The representation of a diversity of languages were scattered geographically...”
(c) “Broadly, the four patterns that emerged from the data they analyzed were...”
(d)5M“A recent study
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13. What underlying assumption can be inferred about the researchers' approach to gathering linguistic data?
(a) They prioritized languages from regions with extreme environmental conditions to ensure stark linguistic
contrasts.
(b) The researchers focused only on languages that have undergone significant phonetic changes in the past
century.
(c) The linguistic dataset was intentionally diverse, aiming to cover a wide range of global environments.
(d) The study predominantly relied on languages that have extensive historical documentation available.

14. According to the study, which environmental factor was NOT explicitly linked to a specific linguistic feature?
(a) Humidity and temperature influencing vowel usage.
(b) Altitude affecting the use of ejective consonants.
(c) Precipitation determining the complexity of consonants.

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(d) Vegetation density influencing tonal structures.

In the context of the passage, what does the word "pervasive" most closely mean?

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“(Refer to the second passage (Q.6-Q.10): Why do you want….)”
(a) Limited to a specific region or area.
(b) Sporadically appearing and disappearing.

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(c) Having a widespread influence or effect.
(d) Being of minor or negligible importance.

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Passage (Q.16-Q.20): In September 2015, Chinese President Xi Jinping took the stage to address the assembly

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at the Global Leaders Meeting on Gender Equality and Women’s Empowerment. In his speech, he identified

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four propositions to advance gender equality, among which included the active protection of women’s rights,

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the cultivation of a favourable global environment for9Pgender
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and customs.” This declaration seemed to provide indication of changed, progressive attitudes towards women

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in China: The Chinese modern woman is independent rather than subservient, more empowered than her

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repressed historical counterparts, and earns her bread and butter instead of serving them on the breakfast table.

Yet international metrics of gender equality seem to suggest a different story. In a 2019 World Economic Forum
study, China was ranked in the 105th position among 153 nations, a significant fall from its 57th position rank
among 139 nations in 2008. Globally, China has also been subject to criticisms on gender-based discrimination
and inequality, which have been largely attributed to the shortcomings of the state. Thus, this paper aims to
investigate the conflicting narratives that have arisen in recent years by exploring the question: To what extent
has feminism in modern day China been curtailed by the state, and what are the reasons underpinning this
phenomenon? 0D4F
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Many political occurrences in modern day China have roots in the Maoist era. Physically, Mao’s presence looms
over Beijing’s most prominent hallmark of political advocacy; his portrait faces squarely towards Tiananmen
Square with both ears opened and listening to all sides, a marker of his omniscient presence in Chinese politics.
Non-materially, his legacy cannot be understated either — not only are Mao’s quotes continually embraced by
the Chinese Communist Party (CCP), but many present-day developments, particularly in relation to women’s
rights, also have roots in the Maoist era. In fact, some, particularly from the West, have ventured to proclaim
20th Century China as a Neo-Maoist regime. Whether or not this is accurate, the Xi government has remained
hyper-aware of Mao’s legacy and often wields it to their advantage. In Xi’s own words, “Try to picture, if we
fully repudiate Comrade Mao Zedong, can our party stand still? Can socialism stand still? They won’t be able
to, and chaos is doomed to follow.”
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Before the Maoist era, the advancement of women’s rights could be argued as non-existent at worst and dilatory
at best, especially given Confucian values that had underpinned Chinese society. In Confucian philosophy, the

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differentiation between husband and wife is a precondition for family harmony, which requires the
complementarity of yin and yang forces represented by the wife and husband respectively. Indirectly, these often
encouraged the manifestation of practices that oppressed women (as illustrated by foot-binding rituals), or
produced hierarchies which inferiorised women (such as by confining them to the domestic sphere or treating
them as mere appendages to men).
[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sisters in Solidarity: The Fight for Feminism in Modern Day China
By Ashley Tan]

16. The passage suggests that President Xi Jinping's speech at the Global Leaders Meeting on Gender Equality and
Women’s Empowerment in 2015 was primarily intended to:
(a) Highlight the historical oppression of women in China.
(b) Emphasize the modern Chinese woman's independence and empowerment.
(c) Criticize the international metrics of gender equality.

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(d) Advocate for the return to traditional Confucian values.

The author's tone towards the international metrics of gender equality is:

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(a) Dismissive.
(b) Neutral.
(c) Critical.

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18.
(d) Supportive.

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Which of the following best describes the relationship between Mao's legacy and the current Chinese Communist
Party (CCP) as suggested by the passage?

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(a) The CCP disregards Mao's legacy in favor of modern ideologies.

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(b) The CCP embraces Mao's legacy selectively to further its agenda.
(c) Mao's legacy is irrelevant to the current

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(d) The CCP fully aligns with Mao's ideologies without any deviations.

19.

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Based on the passage, how does the author perceive the Chinese Communist Party's (CCP) utilization of Mao's
legacy?
(a) The author believes the CCP genuinely reveres Mao and follows his ideologies faithfully.
(b) The author suggests the CCP manipulates Mao's legacy for its own political advantage.
(c) The author feels the CCP has distanced itself from Mao's ideologies and only pays lip service to his legacy.
(d) The author is indifferent to the CCP's relationship with Mao's legacy and merely presents it as a historical
fact.

20. Given the historical context and recent developments, 0D4F


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women's rights in China?
(a) Women's rights in China have seen a linear progression, moving from complete oppression to full
empowerment.
(b) While there have been significant advancements in women's rights, traditional values and state interventions
have sometimes hindered progress.
(c) The state's efforts in promoting women's rights have been largely symbolic, with no real change in societal
attitudes.
(d) The Maoist era was the golden age for women's rights in China, and there has been a decline ever since.

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Passage (Q.21-Q.24): Even for a government that has shown itself to be intolerant of critical journalism, the
actions by the Bharatiya Janata Party-led regime on the news website NewsClick smack of extreme vendetta and
brazen harassment. The government has, thus far, disclosed no specific allegation on what exactly merited the
arrest of the site’s Editor-in-Chief Prabir Purkayastha and another person under the draconian provisions of the
Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act among others. Reportedly, the website is under investigation for a “terror
case with Chinese links”, but no article or content has been brought to light that allegedly suggests any link to
“terror” or pro-Chinese propaganda. The news organisation has also said it has not been given a copy of the First
Information Report or informed about the particulars of the offences it has been charged with. And yet, the
journalists, contributors and employees associated with it have been subjected to raids, with many of their mobile
phones and laptops seized. These actions against the website are not new — it has been under the scrutiny of the
Enforcement Directorate (ED) and the Income-Tax Department since 2021, with seizures of electronic
equipment, but no charge sheet was ever filed against it. The Delhi High Court, finding a prime facie case in

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favour of NewsClick, granted interim protection to Mr. Purkayastha from arrest and also deterred the ED from

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taking coercive action against the organisation. A lower court had dismissed a complaint filed by the Income-
Tax department on a similar matter.

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The trigger for the set of actions now is apparently an article in The New York Times that questioned the motives
of an investor in NewsClick and alleged his proximity to the Chinese government, but it did not point to any

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specific article on the site that amounted to illegal propaganda against India. Government representatives first
engaged in a systematic vilification and disinformation campaign against the site based on this article. Tuesday’s

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actions seem driven by an impulse to scapegoat a media outlet and to bring about, therefore, a chilling effect on

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critical journalism. No government can or should so brazenly target journalists solely based on suspicion about

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its funding and thereby undermine the freedom of expression, which is guaranteed under the Constitution. Mr.

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Purkayastha was arrested and kept in jail during the Emergency in 1975 under the draconian Maintenance of
Internal Security Act, on trumped up charges,

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was a student-activist at Jawaharlal Nehru University.
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Today, history seems to be repeating itself, but without even the fig leaf of a declared Emergency.

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Extracted with edits and revisions from Undeclared Emergency: On the arrests and actions in Newsclick case,
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/undeclared-emergency-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-arrests-in-the-
newsclick-case/article67380803.ece

Which of the following best encapsulates the author's nuanced stance on the government's actions against
NewsClick?
(a) The author unequivocally supports NewsClick and dismisses any potential wrongdoing on their part.
(b) The author is primarily concerned with the broader implications of the government's actions on journalistic
freedom, rather than the specifics of the NewsClick 0D4F
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(c) The author believes that the government's actions are justified based on suspicions about NewsClick's
funding sources.
(d) The author is neutral and merely presents the facts surrounding the NewsClick case without taking a stance.

22. What can be inferred about the author's view on the use of legal provisions against journalists and media outlets?
(a) The author believes that legal provisions should be used sparingly and with concrete evidence.
(b) The author supports the use of legal provisions to ensure journalistic integrity.
(c) The author feels that legal provisions are often misused to suppress dissenting voices.
(d) The author is indifferent to the use of legal provisions as long as they are used lawfully.

23. Which of the following best describes the author's tone in the passage?
(a)5MObjective
9P0Rand
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(c) Supportive and approving. (d) Indifferent and detached.

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24. In the phrase "without even the fig leaf of a declared Emergency," the term "fig leaf" is used to imply:
(a) A genuine reason or justification.
(b) A superficial or inadequate cover-up.
(c) A historical reference to past events.
(d) A symbol of peace and reconciliation.

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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.25-Q.29): Post Quantum Cryptography and All about Crypto Currency
It will take a while to get to the aforementioned quantum supremacy, where quantum computers can outgun the
classical incumbents. But… the IBM solution is already at 127 qubits (quantum bits). If quantum computers are
put up against a classical supercomputer capable of up to a quintillion (1018 ) floating-point operations per
second, quantum supremacy could be reached with as few as 208 qubits. Quantum supremacy isn’t science
fiction. Now, as is well known, one of the interesting problems that a quantum computer can solve is breaking
the asymmetric cryptography at the heart of cryptocurrency in order to transfer money out of lost or abandoned
wallets.That means there are billions of dollars up for grabs in a quantum computing digital dumpster dive. If

m
we apply quantum computers to the problem of breaking the 256-bit elliptic curve encryption of keys in the

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Bitcoin network within the small available time frame in which it would actually pose a threat to do so,

c
researchers calculate it would require 317 × 106 physical qubits to break the encryption within one hour using

rs .
the surface code, a code cycle time of 1 μs, a reaction time of 10 μs, and a physical gate error of 10−3 10 − 3.
https://www.forbes.com/sites/davidbirch/2023/08/30/quantum-cryptography-should-be-part-of-your-security-
strategy/?sh=7c20a6415b57

25.

k e
Which of the following is one of the three algorithms specified in the draft FIPS published by NIST in August
2023 for post-quantum cryptography standardization?
(a) CRYSTALS-Dilithium
(b) XMSS
(c) Rainbow

r an
26.
(d) NTRUEncrypt

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Which of the following is a quantum algorithm that can factor large numbers in polynomial time, thus threatening

27.
(a) Grover’s algorithm
(c) Simon’s algorithm
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the security of RSA encryption?
(b) Shor’s algorithm
(d) Deutsch’s algorithm

Which of the following is a well-known cryptographic algorithm for hash-based signatures that can be a post-
quantum alternative to ECC?
(a) Merkle signatures (b) Lamport signatures
(c) Leighton-Micali signatures (d) Winternitz signatures
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28. Which cryptocurrency is well-known for its smart contract functionality, allowing users to perform various
functions within its blockchain ecosystem?
(a) Tether (USDT) (b) Litecoin (LTC)
(c) Ethereum (ETH) (d) Cardano (ADA)

29. How does RippleNet differ from the SWIFT network in terms of cross-border funds transfer?
(a) RippleNet uses blockchain technology for faster and more cost-effective transactions.
(b) SWIFT operates with a real-time gross settlement system.
(c) RippleNet has multiple layers that slow down the transfer process.
(d) SWIFT enables end-to-end transfers within minutes.

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Passage (Q.30-Q.34): Presently, the business world is abuzz with discussions on Vivad se Vishwas II
(Contractual Disputes) (“Scheme”). The highly anticipated one-time settlement scheme for contractual disputes,
to clear the backlog of old cases. For almost 7 years now, the Central Government has been wary about the cash
flow concerns of the companies in the construction sector and the resultant downfall of India’s rankings in the
World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business rankings.

In past, both Central and State Governments have developed various similar amnesty schemes for resolving
direct and indirect tax disputes where relaxations were given to the assessees. All these schemes were fervently
accepted by the assessees and resulted in a large revenue collection for the government. In the last decade, it was
observed that an increasing number of infrastructure projects were being subjected to prolonged litigations. Many
of these were arbitrations, whose awards were invariably challenged and took years to attain finality. This caused
a severe liquidity crunch for the contractors as it blocked the execution of the projects and stressed their balance
sheets. It created a ripple effect in the financial ecosystem of India and reduced competition, investment, ease of
doing business with the Government, etc.

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https://www.barandbench.com/law-firms/view-point/vivad-se-vishwas-ii-a-road-from-conflict-to-confidence

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30. Which ministry launched Vivad se vishwas scheme II?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

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(c) Ministry of Commerce.
(d) Ministry of Finance

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31.
30.04.2023 under the Vivad se Vishwas II scheme?

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Which of the following is the settlement amount offered to the contractor for Court Awards passed on or before

(a) Up to 65% of the net amount awarded or upheld by the court


(b) Up to 75% of the net amount awardedtr-or

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upheld by0Rthe
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(c) Up to 85% of the net amount awarded or upheld by the court
(d) Up to 95% of the net amount awarded or upheld by the court

32.

33.
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What is the specified payment deadline for the appellant upon receiving the certificate under the Vivad se
Vishwas Bill, 2020, as part of the proposed resolution mechanism for tax disputes?
(a) 30 days (b) 45 days (c) 15 days (d) 60 days

In which budget this scheme was announced by the government and who will bw benefitted with this scheme?
(a) Budget 2019-20, taxpayers only
(b) Budget 2020-21, taxpayers and government
(c) Budget 2019-20, government only 0D4F
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(d) Budget 2018-19, taxpayers only

34. When was the Make in India initiative introduced to promote manufacturing and business growth in India,
including support for MSMEs?
(a) 2005 (b) 2010 (c) 2014 (d) 2018

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Passage (Q.35-Q.39): China’s Stapled Visas
“They (the Chinese) signalled their intention by refusing to give a visa to an Indian government official who was
serving in Arunachal Pradesh in late 2006. Subsequently, they started the practice of issuing ‘stapled’ visas – the
visa was not affixed to the passport but was given on a separate piece of paper stapled to the passport – to all
Indian citizens from Arunachal Pradesh (as well as Jammu and Kashmir),” Gokhale wrote. The stapled visas for
Jammu and Kashmir residents appear to have started around 2008-09, media reports have noted. In 2013, The
New York Times published an account of a Kashmiri man who claimed he had been issued a stapled visa by the
Chinese embassy in New Delhi and had been stopped at the airport in September 2009. In 2010, the Chinese
refused a visa to Northern Army Commander Lt Gen B S Jaiswal to attend an official meeting on the ground that
he serves in “sensitive” Jammu and Kashmir. In 2011, ahead of a scheduled meeting between Prime Minister
Manmohan Singh and China’s President Hu Jintao, media reports quoted Chinese foreign ministry official Hong
Lie as saying China was “ready to work with India to have friendly consultation and properly handle” issues
such as the one related to the stapled visas.

c o m
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/stapled-visa-meaning-china-issue-arunachal-

35.
jammu-kashmir-8864788/

What distinguishes a stapled visa from a regular visa?

rs .
(b) A stapled visa is glued to the passport, whereas a regular visa is stapled.

k e
(a) A stapled visa is a biometric identification card, while a regular visa is a stamp in the passport.

(c) A stapled visa is a detachable piece of paper attached to a passport, unlike a regular visa which is stamped
directly on the passport.

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(d) A stapled visa requires additional documentation, whereas a regular visa does not.

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36. Which martial arts discipline prompted India

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to withdraw
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World University Games in Chengdu, China, in response to China's issuance of stapled visas to three athletes
from Arunachal Pradesh?

37.
(a) Taekwondo

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(b) Karate (c) Wushu (d) Judo

What term does China employ to designate Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of its territory on its official
maps?
(a) Zangnan (b) Lhasa (c) Xuzhou (d) Xingtai

38. During which recent geopolitical event were international agreements, notably the Border Peace and Tranquility
Agreement (BPTA), most extensively and severely breached?
(a) 2023 Sino-Indian Border Clashes at Nathu La5Cand Cho
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La Pass
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(b) The Dragon's Tension of 2017: Sino-Indian Border Showdown
(c) 2020 China–India Skirmishes
(d) Tordesillas Demarcation Treaty

39. What is the name of the region where China claims a tri-junction with India and Bhutan, leading to complex
geographical and geopolitical dynamics?
(a) Gipmochi (b) Jelep La (c) Kula Kangri (d) Jomolhari

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Passage (Q.40-Q.44): Agriculture Export Policy in India
Increasing exports has been at the centre of policymaking for ensuring India’s economic growth and
development. An analysis of the relative contribution of intensive and extensive margins to growth in India’s
agricultural exports from 2001–20 reveals that the intensification of the export of existing products to existing
destinations dominated export growth, whereas the contribution of export diversification has remained subdued.
Broadly, the results indicate that India’s exports along the extensive margin have not been fully exploited and
that export diversification holds the key to higher export growth. There is a wide scope for expansion of India’s
agricultural exports through the development of new product varieties and markets. A few studies have analysed
the effects of FTAs (including agreements made with the World Trade Organization [WTO]) on India’s
agricultural trade flows (Veeramani and Saini 2010; Francis 2011; Jagdambe and Kannan 2020). These studies,
importantly, have ignored whether export growth is due to an increase in the quantity of existing exports going
to established destinations (intensive margin), or to the export of new products to existing markets, or to the

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extension of exports to new geographical markets (extensive margin). To the best of our knowledge, no empirical

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studies are available that have conducted a decomposition analysis of India’s agricultural exports explicitly along
these channels.

c
rs .
https://www.epw.in/journal/2023/36/special-articles/role-intensive-and-extensive-margins-indias.html

40.
(a) India's agricultural trade has resulted in a trade deficit.

k e
What is the impact of India's agricultural trade on its trade balance and global trade shares?

(b) India's share of agricultural exports as a percentage of total exports has remained constant over the years.

0.69% in 2020.

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(c) India's share of agricultural imports as a percentage of total imports has declined from 1.67% in 2001 to

a
(d) India's agricultural trade has had a positive impact on its trade balance and its share of world imports.

41.

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Which of the following is the projected growth rate of the agriculture sector in FY 2022-23 according to the
Statement of Fiscal Policy?

42.
(a) 3.5%

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(b) 4.1% (c) 7.7% (d) 9.1%

Which of the following has recently imposed a regulation on the temporary increase of official controls and
emergency measures governing the entry into the Union of certain goods originating from India?
(a) Mercosur
(c) European Union
(b) NAFTA
(d) CARICOM

43. Which Indian state, renowned for its agro-biodiversity, is home to a wide variety of crops, including rice, maize,
and pulses, and is often referred to as the "Granary 9C0D4F
of9FIndia"?
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(a) Punjab (b) Kerala (c) Assam (d) Madhya Pradesh

44. Which Indian state is a major producer of spices, including black pepper, cardamom, and ginger, contributing
significantly to India's crop diversity and spice production?
(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d) Haryana

Passage (Q.45-Q.48): 6th Census of Minor Irrigation Schemes


A sound and reliable data base for minor irrigation schemes is essential for effective planning and policy making
in this sector. With this objective, Government of India has been conducting census of minor irrigation schemes.
So far, five censuses have been conducted with reference year 1986-87, 1993-94, 2000-01, 2006-07 and 2013-
14 respectively. The 6th minor irrigation census with reference year 2017-18 was completed in 32 States/ UTs.
The 6th MI9Pcensus
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completed now and the All India and State-wise report on 6thMI census has been published. The census was
conducted under the centrally sponsored scheme “Irrigation Census”. Detailed information on various

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parameters like irrigation sources (dug well, shallow tube well, medium tube well, deep tube well, surface flow
and surface lift schemes), irrigation potential created (IPC), potential utilized, ownership, holding size of land
by owner, devices used for lifting water, sources of energy, energy conserving devices such as sprinkler and drip
irrigation, use of non-conventional energy sources such as solar pumps, wind mills etc. was collected. This report
will be useful for planners, policy makers, researcher scholars, agricultural and ground water scientists,
administrators & all concerned with development of irrigation and agricultural economy of the country.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1952480

45. Which state in India possesses the largest number of minor irrigation (MI) schemes, as per the 6th Census Report
On Minor Irrigation (MI) Schemes 2023?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Karnataka
46. What type of minor irrigation schemes in India has the highest share among all MI schemes according to the 6th
Census Report on Minor Irrigation (MI) Schemes 2023?
(a) Shallow tube-wells
(c) Surface flow schemes
(b) Dug-wells
(d) Deep tube-wells

c o m
47.
(a) Financial year 2019-20
(c) Financial year 2016-17
(b) Financial year 2015-16
(d) Financial year 2017-18 .
In which financial year was the "Per Drop More Crop" micro-irrigation scheme launched in India?

rs
48.

k e
What type of irrigation system delivers water directly to the root zone of plants using a network of tubes, pipes,
and emitters?
(a) Furrow Irrigation
(c) Basin Irrigation

an
(b) Drip Irrigation
(d) Center Pivot Irrigation

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Passage (Q.49-Q.52): Cyber Security 2 - IT Rules 9P0R4P
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The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Friday issued draft Master Directions on Cyber Resilience and Digital

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Payment Security Controls for Payment System Operators (PSOs). According to the RBI's release, the central

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bank has invited feedback from the shareholders on the same. RBI's draft directions include a governance
mechanism for the identification, assessment, monitoring, and management of cybersecurity risks including
information security risks and vulnerabilities, along with specifying baseline security measures for ensuring safe
and secure digital payment transactions. The draft comes after the central bank, during the April monetary policy
meeting (MPC), announced that it will issue these guidelines. The release further added, "These directions aim
to improve safety and security of the payment systems operated by PSOs by providing a framework for overall
information security preparedness with an emphasis on cyber resilience." The decision was taken to ensure the
safety and security of payment systems, which is a key objective of the RBI. These directions for draft rules will
also cover baseline security measures for ensuring system
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resiliency as well as safe and secure digital payment
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transactions, the RBI said. The release also added that the board of directors of the PSOs will be responsible to
ensure adequate oversight over information security risks, which includes cyber risks and cyber resilience.
https://www.business-standard.com/finance/news/rbi-releases-draft-rules-on-cyber-resilience-for-payment-
system-operators-123060200780_1.html
49. The IT Rules 2023 were created under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Section 64 (b) Section 79 (c) Section 46 (d) Section 81
50. Which of these is the name of the prestigious event that served as a unifying platform for over 300 participants
from government, public, and private sectors, all committed to the safeguarding of critical digital infrastructure
in India in October 2023?
(a) Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (NCX) 2023
(b)
tr-5MBharat National
5Q7R9U9P 0R4P Cyber Security Summit (NCSS) 2023
(c) Bharat National Cyber Security Conference (NCC) 2023
(d) Bharat National Cyber Security Forum (NCF) 2023

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51. In 2020, under which section of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) did the number of cases filed against people
'circulating fake/false news/rumours' increase by 214%, according to the National Crime Records Bureau?
(a) Section 153A (b) Section 124A (c) Section 505 (d) Section 420

52. What cybersecurity practice involves encoding data or communications in such a way that only authorized parties
can access it, making it unreadable to unauthorized users?
(a) Phishing (b) Encryption (c) Rootkit (d) DdoS

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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.

Passage(Q.53 – Q.57): The Delhi High Court recently observed that even the slightest possibility of confusion
cannot be permitted when it comes to labelling medicines. [Mankind Pharma Limited v. Novakind Bio Sciences
Private Limited] The Court made the observation while deciding on Mankind Pharma’s suit for a permanent
injunction to restrain Novakind BioSciences from using the word ‘Kind’ in any of its medicinal and
pharmaceutical preparations. Justice C Hari Shankar said that whether different medicines are deceptively
similar must be viewed from the point of view of a customer of average intelligence and imperfect recollection.
The judge also commented that the existence of poorly designed pharmacies, run by unqualified persons, is an
unfortunate reality in India.

“The little apothecary, oftentimes not even able to flaunt a medical degree, occupying the little cubbyhole at the

m
street corner, dispensing medicines, is an unfortunate reality in this country. The poor, and those who are unable

o
to afford the services of the more upmarket physician, often people these “clinics”. Many of these “doctors”
prescribe medicines based on their manufacturer,” the judgment stated.

c
rs .
On April 21 in 2021, the Court had issued an ex parte interim injunction against Novakind. This year, Novakind
filed an application to vacate the interim injunction, arguing that Mankind has no registration in its favour for

k e
the mark ‘Kind’ and that it cannot claim exclusive control over it. However, the Court said that Mankind has
registration over the mark ‘Mankind’ in every class. It further observed that ‘Mankind’ and ‘Novakind’ are
phonetically and deceptively similar. Since both marks have the same suffix, the submission that Mankind did

r an
not have any registration for the mark ‘Kind’, failed to impress the Court.
“The “KIND” suffix not being endemic to pharmaceutical preparations, there is every likelihood of a customer
of average intelligence and imperfect recollection,9U who chances across the defendant’s “NOVAKIND” product,

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to believe it to be one of the KIND family of the marks belonging to the plaintiff. At the very least, therefore, the

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possibility of an impression of association between the defendant‟s mark and the plaintiff’s mark, in the mind

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of the customer of average intelligence and imperfect recollection would exist,” the Court said. Justice Shankar
added that such a likelihood of association is sufficient to constitute trademark infringement. The Court was also
unconvinced by Novakind's submission that medicines are prescribed and given by persons who know their job.
Justice Shankar said that even a physician or chemist may get confused owing to the common ‘Kind’ suffix. “At
the end of the day, the guiding principle is that, where medicines are concerned, even the slightest possibility of
confusion cannot be permitted, and that, therefore, drugs – especially prescription drugs – have to be clearly
distinguishable from one another,” the Court observed. The Court, therefore, made the interim injunction
absolute and dismissed Novakind’s application.
[Source: https://www.barandbench.com/news/medicines-distinguishable-confusion-not-permitted-delhi-high-
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court]

53. A pharmaceutical company called "PharmaCure" has been producing a popular over-the-counter (OTC) pain
reliever for several years under the brand name "PainFree-500." This medicine is widely trusted and used by
consumers across the country for its effectiveness and safety. Recently, another pharmaceutical company named
"MediRelief" launched a new pain reliever called "PainEase-500." The packaging and appearance of "PainEase-
500" are strikingly similar to "PainFree-500." Both medicines come in identical blue-colored boxes with white
lettering, and the pills themselves are identical in shape, size, and color. Consumers have started to notice the
similarities between the two products and have raised concerns about the potential for confusion. Some have
reported accidentally purchasing "PainEase-500" when they intended to buy "PainFree-500." What can be the
possible remedy for the company suffering deception in products?
(a) There can be an application in the Court for an interim injunction against the defendant.
9P0R4P
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(b)
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(c) There can be a civil suit for trademark infringement under Section 23 of the Trademark Act 1999.
(d) There can be a civil suit for deceptive similarity under the Patents Act 1970.
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54. A pharmaceutical company named "MediPharma" has been manufacturing and selling a popular pain relief
medication called "PainEase" for several years. PainEase is known for its distinctive blue and white packaging,
which prominently displays the product name and logo. Recently, another pharmaceutical company named
"MediCure" introduced a new pain relief medication called "PainRelief." PainRelief is marketed as a more
affordable alternative to PainEase and is sold in similar packaging. The packaging of PainRelief also features a
blue and white color scheme and a similar font style for the product name. The logo of PainRelief bears a
resemblance to that of PainEase, although it has some subtle differences. What can be the defence used by
infringing company to save itself in the Court? Choose in the light of the information given in the passage.
(a) They can contend that there was no registration of the trademark of the previously existing mark.
(b) They can contend that there was a previous case existing in the Court regarding copyright infringement.
(c) They can contend that there were multiple registrations of the trademark from the existing mark.
(d) They can contend that there was similar design which was in contravention of the Design Act.

55.

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XYZ Pharmaceuticals, a well-established and reputable company, has been manufacturing CardioCare tablets

c
for several years and has gained a considerable market share due to its effective product. The tablets are easily

rs .
identifiable by their distinctive blue color and unique diamond-shaped logo embossed on each pill. Recently,
ABC Pharmaceuticals entered the market with their own CardioCare tablets. While their product also claims to
effectively treat the same heart condition, it bears an uncanny resemblance to XYZ Pharmaceuticals' CardioCare

k e
tablets. ABC Pharmaceuticals' tablets are also blue, have a similar diamond-shaped logo, and even come in
nearly identical packaging. Consumers, doctors, and pharmacists have been facing confusion when
differentiating between the two brands of CardioCare tablets. This has raised concerns about patient safety, as

n
individuals might accidentally take the wrong medication or dosage due to the similarities in appearance. Will a

a
case of deceptive similarity succeed in light of the passage?

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(a) Yes, because there cannot be any confusion in labeling medicines according to the High Court.
(b) No, because there cannot be any confusion

o p in registration
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9P0R4P of medicines according to the Supreme Court.
(c) Yes, because there cannot be any confusion in the colour coding of the medicines according to the
Pharmaceuticals Act.

56.
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(d) No, because there cannot be any confusion in the Corporate policy of deceptively naming two intellectual
products.

Two pharmaceutical companies have deceptively similar names, raising issues related to potential confusion
among healthcare professionals and patients. This scenario involves two companies, "MediPharm India Pvt.
Ltd." and "MediFarma India Pvt. Ltd." MediPharm India Pvt. Ltd. is a long-established and reputable
pharmaceutical company known for producing a wide range of healthcare products, including prescription
medicines and over-the-counter drugs. Over the years, they have built a strong brand presence in the Indian
pharmaceutical market. Recently, a relatively new
tr-5K 9F9C0D4F MediFarma India Pvt. Ltd., emerged in the same
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market, specializing in the production of generic medicines and medical supplies. The striking similarity between
the two company names has caused confusion among healthcare professionals, including doctors, pharmacists,
and nurses, as well as patients who are trying to locate their preferred medications. If there is a case for deceptive
similarity, will the case result in a success?
(a) Yes, because the drugs were clearly not distinguishable from each other.
(b) No, because there was no similarity between the ingredients of the medicine.
(c) Yes, because there were prescription drugs of the same variety in the industry.
(d) No, because there will not be a proper case in Copyright Act.

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57. MediGen Pharmaceuticals is an established pharmaceutical company with a long-standing presence in the Indian
market. They have built a reputation for manufacturing and distributing a wide range of high-quality medicines
and healthcare products. Their distinct logo features a green cross within a circle. On the other hand, MediCare
Pharmaceuticals is a relatively new entrant to the pharmaceutical industry but has rapidly expanded its
operations. They too manufacture and market pharmaceutical products, including medicines for various medical
conditions. What has caused concern is that their company name, "MediCare Pharmaceuticals," closely
resembles that of MediGen Pharmaceuticals. The striking similarity in the names, with only one letter
differentiating them ("Gen" vs. "Care"), has resulted in confusion among healthcare professionals, pharmacists,
and patients. This has led to instances where prescriptions intended for MediGen Pharmaceuticals have been
inadvertently sent to MediCare Pharmaceuticals, and vice versa. Such mix-ups have the potential to compromise
patient safety and undermine the effectiveness of healthcare services. Can there be case for deceptive similarity?
(a) Yes, because there was confusion in the medicines with each other in labeling requirements.
(b) No, because there has to be medicines which match the ingredients of each other.

o m
(c) Yes, because there has been a case of copyright infringement according to the Copyright Act.
(d) No, because there were no medicines which match each other’s description.

c
rs .
Passage(Q.58-Q.62): The Supreme Court on Monday (August 28) observed that there is no blanket ban on
advocates solemnising “self-respect” marriages under Section 7(A) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. In doing

e
so, a Bench of Justices S Ravindra Bhat and Aravind Kumar set aside a 2014 ruling of the Madras High Court
holding that marriages performed by the advocates are not valid and that “suyamariyathai” or “self-respect”

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marriages cannot be solemnised in secrecy. On January 17, 1968, the Hindu Marriage (Tamil Nadu Amendment)

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Act, 1967, received the President’s approval and became the law. This amendment modified the Hindu Marriage

a
Act of 1955, by inserting Section 7-A into it. However, it extended only to the state of Tamil Nadu. Section 7-A

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deals with the special provision on “self-respect and secular marriages”. It legally recognises “any marriage
between any two Hindus”, which can be referred

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as0R“suyamariyathai” or “seerthiruththa marriage” or by any
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other name. Such marriages are solemnised in the presence of relatives, friends, or other persons, with parties
declaring each other to be husband or wife, in a language understood by them. Further, each party to the marriage

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garlands the other or puts a ring on the other’s finger or ties a “thali” or mangal sutra. However, such marriages
are also compulsorily required to be registered as per the law. In the case of “Ilavarasan v. Superintendent of
Police”, a Bench of Justices Ravindra Bhat and Aravind Kumar was hearing an appeal of a man called Ilavarasan
against a Madras High Court order passed in May 2023, rejecting his habeas corpus petition to present his wife
before the court. The petitioner had claimed that he had performed “suyamariyathai” with his wife, who was
currently under her parents’ “illegal custody”. Refusing to accept the “self-respect” marriage certificate issued
by the advocate, the Madras High Court dismissed Ilvarasan’s habeas corpus plea. Thus, he was compelled to
move the top court, which successfully admitted his plea. In doing so, the court overruled the 2014 ruling of the
Madras High Court in “Balakrishna Pandian tr-v.5KThe
5C7KSuperintendent
9F9C0D4F of Police”, where it was held that marriages
performed by the advocates are invalid and that “suyammariyathai” or “self-respect” marriages cannot be
solemnised in secrecy.
[Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/self-respect-marriages-supreme-court-
8914350/]

58. In a small village in Tamil Nadu, a young couple decided to have a self-respect marriage. Both the bride and
groom came from families that supported the principles of social equality and self-respect, just as Periyar had
envisioned. The bride's family, in particular, had been long-time proponents of gender equality and self-respect
in marriage. The wedding ceremony was organized in a simple yet meaningful manner, devoid of any
complexity. Instead, it focused on the values of equality, respect, and social justice. The couple exchanged
garlands, took an oath to treat each other as equals with rings exchanged, and vowed to support one another in
their pursuit of4P self-respect and social reform. They registered the marriage in the registrar’s office. Is the
9P0R
tr-5M5Q7R9U
marriage valid in light of the passage?

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(a) Yes, because all the requirements of section 7-A of the Act has been fulfilled.
(b) No, because there cannot be self-respect marriage between couples without registration.
(c) Yes, because section 9 of the Tamil Nadu Act makes it valid along with the High Court’s judgment.
(d) No, because there cannot be marriages with mutual consent under the Hindu law.

59. In a small village in Tamil Nadu, a young couple, Priya and Arvind, decided to enter into a self-respect marriage.
Both hailed from different castes, which traditionally could have led to social stigma and resistance from their
families. However, they were determined to uphold their self-respect and individual choices. Priya, a progressive
thinker, and Arvind, an advocate for social justice, had met during their college years. Their shared values and
principles bonded them, and they realized they were meant for each other. They decided to marry despite
opposition from their families and the rigid caste-based norms that had governed the village for generations. To
stand up for their self-respect and love, Priya and Arvind organized a self-respect marriage ceremony in their
village. They sought guidance from a local social reform organization that supported such unions with garland

m
exchange and rings exchange. The event garnered significant attention in the community and became an example

o
of breaking free from caste-based prejudices. Herein, is it valid according to the Supreme Court judgment?

c
(a) Yes, because there has been self-respect marriage which has been allowed by the Delhi High Court.
(b) No, because there has not been registration of the marriage which is compulsory.

rs .
(c) Yes, because there has been registration of the marriage in accordance with the High Court.
(d) No, because there has not been allowance of self-respect marriage in accordance with the Hindu Marriage

60.
Act.

k e
A young couple named Ramesh and Meera found themselves in a unique predicament. Both hailed from

n
traditional families in Maharashtra that held conservative values and were deeply rooted in caste-based norms.

a
Ramesh was a member of a lower caste, while Meera belonged to an upper-caste family. Despite their love for

r
each other, they knew that their families would vehemently oppose their union. The rigid caste system and

p
societal norms in their village dictated thattr-5M
inter-caste marriages were taboo and considered a breach of honor.
4P
5Q7R9U9P0R

o
Ramesh and Meera, however, were determined not to bow down to these caste ties and decided to pursue a self-
respect marriage by exchanging garlands and rings along with registration. Ramesh and Meera's story soon

T
became a symbol of defiance against the caste system and an example of self-respect. Is their decision valid in
accordance with the Act in the passage?
(a) Yes, because all the requirements of Section 7-A has been met in the situation.
(b) No, because their decision has not been backed by the judgment of the High Court.
(c) Yes, because the requirements of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act has been fulfilled.
(d) No, because it has not been covered by the territorial application of the Act.

61. Priya and Arun, decided to enter into a self-respect marriage. Both Priya and Arun were well-educated and held
progressive views on gender equality and societal 4F
tr-5K5Cnorms. They
7K9F9C0D strongly believed in the principles of self-respect
marriage, which aimed to challenge traditional caste-based and patriarchal practices prevalent in many parts of
their domicile state of Tamil Nadu. Priya, hailing from a Dalit community, and Arun, from a dominant upper-
caste background, had been in a loving relationship for several years. They faced resistance from their families
when they initially disclosed their intention to marry. Priya's parents were concerned about societal backlash and
potential discrimination, while Arun's family feared social ostracization. Undeterred by the obstacles, Priya and
Arun decided to pursue a self-respect marriage. They organized a simple ceremony at a local community hall,
inviting friends and well-wishers who shared their beliefs in caste equality and self-respect. The ceremony was
devoid of any caste related aspect, symbolizing their commitment to break free from the shackles of caste-based
discrimination. Is their marriage valid in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because such marriages have been allowed by section 7-A of the Act.
(b) No, because such marriages are in violation of the rigid Hindu caste based hierarchy.
(c)5MYes, because
9P0R4P such marriages have been allowed by the Constitution of India under Article 21.
tr- 5Q7R9U
(d) No, because such marriages have been allowed in Tamil Nadu while this is a case of Maharashtra.

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62. Arvind belongs to a lower-caste community, while Priya comes from an upper-caste background. Despite the
societal pressures and family objections they faced, they decided to get married, firmly believing in the principles
of self-respect and equality. Their decision to marry outside their respective caste boundaries led to considerable
tension within their families and communities. Arvind's family faced ostracization from their community, while
Priya's parents were shunned by their upper-caste relatives. They exchange rings and garlands in secrecy. They
file an application for registration of this marriage which is granted. Is their marriage valid in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because they have exchanged garlands and rings and registered their marriage.
(b) No, because they have performed the ceremony in secrecy which is not recognized.
(c) Yes, because they have fulfilled all the requirements under section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act.
(d) No, because they have not performed saptapadi which is an essential part of the religious ritual.

Passage(Q.63-Q.68): How men can protect their finances while going through a divorce, here are some points-
The husband has a right to any jewellery, valuables or gifts given to him by the wife’s parents before, after or

m
during marriage. Any asset that was bought by the husband in the wife’s name, without passing it on as a gift,

o
does not belong to the wife. If the wife has spent her earnings for the household, these cannot be claimed.

c
The wife has no right over ancestral property. She can stake a claim to self-acquired property only if she is a
joint owner or has contributed to its purchase, and can prove it.

rs .
Property jointly owned, but loan taken by husband: The husband can have a strong claim to a significant portion
of its value.

the proportion in which the spouses contributed financially.

k e
Property jointly owned and loan taken by both: In this case, the property is divided fairly, taking into account

n
Property owned by wife, loan taken by husband: The wife will be the legal owner, but if the husband can prove

a
he paid the loan for the house, he can stake a claim to it.

r
Property owned by husband, loan by wife: Courts may consider it as marital property and divide it fairly based
on the wife’s contribution.

o p
tr-5M5Q7R9U
9P0R4P

Property owned and financed by wife: It will be considered wife’s separate property and won’t be divided in the

T
divorce.
[Extracted with revisions from https://m.economictimes.com/wealth/legal/will/how-are-property-jewellery-
divided-after-a-divorce-in-india-know-husbands-rights/amp_articleshow/102444386.cms ]

63. During the grand celebration of Mukesh Vohra and Manjari's wedding, Manjari's parents present Mukesh with
an exquisitely crafted necklace as a symbol of their happiness and warm welcome into the family. Mukesh gifts
this necklace to his mother. The necklace is valuable heirloom that has been passed down through generations
in the maternal family of Manjari and her family holds a lot of sentimental value with respect to the same. What
is Mukesh’s right over the necklace in this situation, 9C0D4F
considering
tr-5K5C7K9F the principles provided in the given passage?
(a) Mukesh has no right to the necklace, as it's a family heirloom in Manjari’s family that has been passed down
through several generations.
(b) The necklace belongs to Manjari since it was her parents' gift to Mukesh in the marriage of their daughter.
(c) Mukesh can sell the necklace without Manjari's permission as it was gifted to him
(d) Mukesh can claim ownership of the necklace as it was gifted to him in marriage

64. John, Sarah's husband, purchases a charming vacation home in a picturesque countryside location. To handle the
legal aspects, he decides to put the property under Sarah's name, as she is a legal expert. Now, Sarah is the legal
owner of the property as per the purchase agreement of the house. What happens to the property according to
the passage?
(a) The property belongs to John since he purchased it and it is merely registered in Sarah’s name.
(b)
tr-5MThe
5Q7Rproperty
9U9P0R4P belongs to Sarah as it's in her name even though John purchased it.
(c) The property is jointly owned by Sarah and John since they are married to each other
(d) The property can be considered as a gift to Sarah from John.

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65. Rani, an accomplished information technology professional, dedicates her hard-earned income to contribute
significantly to household expenses and improvements. Over the years, she has invested in various
enhancements, such as remodelling the kitchen, installing energy-efficient appliances, and landscaping the
garden. Now, Rani decides to part ways from her husband and separate from him due to irreconcilable
differences. According to the principles, what can she do in regards to these earnings and contributions?
(a) She can claim ownership of the household improvements she funded from her salary.
(b) She can claim ownership of the household expenses she covered from her salary.
(c) She has no rights over the household expenses or improvements, regardless of her contributions to the same.
(d) She can claim ownership of the household expenses but not the improvements.

66. Prior to her marriage, Ojaswi invests her personal savings into purchasing a luxurious beachfront villa. After her
marriage, Ojaswi proposed to her husband Monish that they should reside at the villa since it was a scenic and

were to end, could Monish lay claim to a portion of the villa?


(a) Yes, Monish has a potential claim due to his shared residence in the villa.

c m
well-connected property. Throughout their married life, both Ojaswi and Monish reside there. If their marriage

o
(c) Yes, if Monish can validate his contributions toward the villa's upkeep.
(d) No, unless Ojaswi explicitly grants him a share in the villa's ownership.

rs .
(b) No, Monish cannot assert a claim since the villa was self-acquired by Ojaswi from her personal savings.

67.

k e
Claire and Max jointly purchase a suburban house that they both had their eyes set on since they first got married.
Max ended up financing most of the purchase via a substantial bank loan. If their relationship ends, could Max

n
potentially stake a larger claim to the property's value based on his loan contributions?

a
(a) Yes, Max's loan contributions allow him to assert a significant claim over the property's value.

r
(b) No, the loan contributions do not significantly impact the division of property value.

p
(c) Yes, if Max manages to repay the loantr-completely, 0Rhe
4P can then claim exclusive ownership.
5M5Q7R9U9P

o
(d) No, unless Claire formally consents to distribute property value based on loan contributions.

68.

T
Alia and Ranveer are married. While Alia owns the flat, Ranveer takes out a loan to make substantial renovations
in the flat, particularly to extend the house and construct an additional room as per the wish of Alia. The
construction is now complete and their house has been converted from a 2BHK to a 3BHK and is situated in a
posh area in South Bombay. This means that the value of the house is likely to appreciate substantially in the
near future. If they divorce, how might the court handle the property?
(a) The property will remain solely Alia's due to only the loan contributions by Ranveer.
(b) The property will be divided proportionally, considering each spouse's financial inputs.
(c) The property will be divided fairly, with recognition of Alia's ownership and Ranveer's loan input.
(d) The property will be viewed as marital property, and 4F
division
9C0D will account for each spouse's role.
tr-5K5C7K9F

Passage(Q.69-Q.73): The Supreme Courtin 2023 set aside the conviction of three persons under Section 498-A
of the Indian Penal Code and observed that the conviction would not be sustainable as the marriage has been
found to be null and void. Under Section 498-A IPC, a husband or his relatives can be sentenced to a jail term
of three years for subjecting the wife to cruelty.

In this case, the accused were convicted for the offences punishable under Section 498-A IPC and Sections 3
and 4 of the Dowry Prohibition Act. In appeal before the Apex Court, it was contended that, as the marriage
between the parties has been held to be null and void by the judgment of the High Court of Madras, the conviction
under Section 498-A IPC would not be sustainable. Reliance was placed on the decision in Shivcharan Lal Verma
v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2002) (3 judge bench).
9P0R4P
tr-5M5Q7R9U
In Reema Aggarwal v Anupam, a two judge bench of the Supreme Court in 2004, while dealing with the case of
a woman who had married a man during the lifetime of his first wife, said, "legislations, enacted with some

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policy to curb and alleviate some public evil rampant in society and effectuate a definite public purpose or benefit
positively, requires to be interpreted with certain element of realism too and not merely pedantically."

Particularly referring to provisions of Dowry Act and Section 498-A, the apex court in the ruling said the obvious
objective was to prevent harassment to a woman who enters into a marital relationship with a person and later
on, becomes a victim of the greed for money.
[Extracted from
https://www.livelaw.in/know-the-law/explained-conviction-ipc-498a-marriage-declared-null-void-22194]

69. Munni and Manav married each other in December 2003 as per Hindu rites and customs in an arranged marriage
and moved to Chennai. When the couple was living in Chennai, Manav found out that the Munni was not a
Hindu but actually a Christian. He filed for divorce in 2005, alleging that his wife and her family were Christians
and had misrepresented their religion when the marriage was performed. However, Munni argued that she and

m
her family members were always Hindus. The trial and appellate courts dismissed Manav’'s case. In 2006, Munni

o
filed a case under Section 498A of IPC against Manav and Manav was convicted. Subsequently, in appeal for

c
the divorce case, the judge observed that misrepresentation regarding the religion would be a misrepresentation

marriage null and void. What will be the impact of this on Manav’s conviction?

rs .
regarding a material fact and would affect the very validity of the marriage. As a result, the judge declared the

(a) The conviction is valid and will continue to exist since both the proceedings are separate from each other
(b) The conviction is valid because the marriage of Manav and Munni is null and void

k e
(c) The conviction is invalid because Manav and Munni are not husband and wife in the first place
(d) The conviction is invalid because the marriage of Manav and Munni is not null and void

70.

an
Pintu was convicted under Section 306 (abetment of suicide) and Section 498A of the IPC. While his wife was

r
very much alive, Pintu had married a second woman. In India, bigamy i.e., the practice of marrying another wife

p
while the first wife is alive is illegal. It wastr-5M
alleged
5Q7R9Uthat
9P0Rboth he and his first wife would torture the second wife.
4P

o
At last, the second wife succumbed to the physical and mental torture and in the end she died by suicide. After
a speedy trial, Pintu and his first wife Aarti were convicted in the case. Pintu has challenged his conviction under

set aside.
T
Section 498A of IPC. He argues that the court made a grave error in convicting him under Section 498A and the
same ought to be set aside. Based on the principles mentioned in the passage, decide if Pintu's conviction can be

(a) Yes, because Pintu's second marriage was null and void since it was performed while Aarti was alive
(b) Yes, because abetment to suicide is still a crime irrespective of the marital status
(c) No, because Pintu's second marriage was not null and void even though his first wife was alive
(d) No, because abetment to suicide is still a crime irrespective of the marital status

71. Ronita filed a complaint against her husband Manish and


tr-5K5C7K9F his4Frelatives, accusing them of subjecting her to cruelty.
9C0D
She alleged that they threw ice cold water on her face and hit her for minor things. The trial court convicted
Manish under Section 498-A of the Indian Penal Code. However, on appeal, the Supreme Court set aside the
conviction. Based on your reading of the passage, decide which of the following could have been the reasons
behind the decision of the Supreme Court.
(a) Insufficient evidence against Manish for cruelty against Ronita
(b) Lack of proper legal representation for Manish for the charges framed against him
(c) The marriage between Ronita and her husband being declared null and void
(d) Constitutional challenge to the validity of Section 498-A

9P0R4P
tr-5M5Q7R9U

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72. Anjali was a victim of domestic violence. She finally mustered the courage to get out of her terrible situation.
She approached an NGO by the name of 'Meri Pehchaan' which provided her with legal and psychological help.
She sought justice by filing a complaint against her husband and his relatives under Section 498-A. The
proceedings were completed and the husband and his relatives were convicted. However, two years later the
husband filed a petition in the Supreme Court to set aside the conviction. The Supreme Court set aside the
conviction of the husband. Based on your reading of the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn
from the given scenario?
(a) Anjali's complaint lacked credibility so the conviction was set aside by the Supreme Court
(b) The accused were proven innocent beyond a reasonable doubt which is the standard of proof in such cases
(c) The marriage between Anjali and her husband was declared null and void
(d) The Supreme Court determined Section 498-A to be unconstitutional

73.

c o m
Riya filed a complaint against her husband Manish and his relatives, accusing them of subjecting her to cruelty.
The investigation was completed and a trial was conducted. At the end of the trial, the trial court convicted
Manish under Section 498-A of the Indian Penal Code. Manish appealed against the conviction before the

rs .
Supreme Court on the ground that there was never a valid marriage between him and Riya because they had
never completed saptapadi i.e., taking seven rounds around the holy fire which is an essential ingredient for
Hindu marriage. He argues that without saptapadi, his marriage is void ab initio i.e., void from the beginning. If

(a) Yes, because without saptapadi the marriage is null and void
(b) Yes, because even without saptapadi the marriage is not null and void

k e
the facts alleged by Manish are true, can the Supreme Court set aside the conviction?

an
(c) No, because even without saptapadi the marriage is not null and void
(d) No, because without saptapadi the marriage is null and void

r
Passage(Q.74-Q.79): Trespass can be defined

o p as the9P0R
tr-5M5Q7R9U
act4Pof knowingly, or intentionally, entering or interfering
with another person’s body or lawfully owned goods and land, without the consent of the rightful owner.
Trespass to land is actionable per se. Thus, the party whose land is entered upon may sue even if no actual harm

T
is done. Trespass to land, usually a civil offence, is an offence under the Indian Penal Code (section 441) as
well, if and when requisite intent is present.
There is actually no requirement of force, actual damage, or even unlawful intention to constitute the tort of
trespass. Any invasion, as slight as possible, is considered as a trespass in the eyes of the law.
There are several types of trespass to land, such as trespass by airspace, trespass to ground beneath the surface,
trespass by entering the land (wrongful entry) and continuing trespass.
a) Trespass by Wrongful Entry: This occurs when a person walks onto someone else’s land without due
permission of the rightful owner, or, when a person refuses to vacate the land when the permission to enter
the land is withdrawn by the owner. Throwing 4F
tr-5K5C7K9Fan
9C0Dobject on the land is also an example of trespass by
wrongful entry. There has to be contact with another person’s property for this form of trespass, however
slight it may be.
b) Trespass to the Airspace: Legal maxim ‘quare clausum fregit’ defines land as, “land includes not only the
surface and any buildings on it but also the airspace and subsoil, in so far as these are vested on the plaintiff.
Therefore, intrusion into airspace at a relatively low height constitutes the tort of trespass to land. It has,
however, been settled that the rights of landowners in the airspace extend only up to such a height as is
necessary for reasonable use and enjoyment of land and the structures on it.
c) Continuing Trespass: A repeated or ongoing (not one-time) trespass (unlawful entry or possession),
especially onto real property. The trespasser is aware of it but does nothing about it. For example, building
a road or structure that extends onto a neighbour’s property, or piling up rocks or garbage there, would be a
continuing trespass.
[Extracted
5M5Q7R9U9P
from
0R4Phttps://medium.com/legal-jumble/trespass-to-land-9af2e5a596b6 ]
tr-

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74. Kell was commissioned to deforest a section of land on Bond’s property. For this purpose, Bond asked Kell to
report to his property in the morning and directed him to cut all the trees in a designated area of 2 meters.
However, once Kell started cutting the trees, he got so engrossed in the work that he ended up cutting all the
trees in a 5 meter distance. When Bond realized this, he sued Kell for trespass since he went beyond the scope
of his employment and did more than he was asked to do. Will Bond's action stand the test of law?
(a) No, because Kell had a lawful license to enter Bond’s property.
(b) No, because cutting a few extra trees does not mean illegal occupation of land
(c) Yes, because Kell cut down more trees in the area that was asked and went beyond what was ordered
(d) Yes, because Kell commits continuing trespass by continuing to stay on the property even though he had no
permission

75. In the previous question, Bond was extremely upset with Kell. Being a plant lover, he hated to see trees being
cut down for no reason. Angry at Kell, he decided to make a criminal case against him so that he receives
punishment. Can Bond do so?

o m
(a) Yes, because Kell had both the intention and the action of cutting the trees which constitutes a crime

c
(b) Yes, because trespass to land is punishable under Section 441 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) No, because there is nothing criminal about cutting trees
(d) No, because trespass is a tort which is a civil remedy

rs .
76.

k e
ABC Company built a power plant and erected several towers for transmission of electricity. The wires of the
towers hung at a height of 100 ft from the ground to get a good signal and avoid any inconvenience to people on
the ground. The construction of the power plant helped in ensuring a stable and consistent supply of electricity

n
to the local residents. However, one such wire passed through the airspace of Mohan's property. Mohan is of the

a
opinion that such wires passing in the sky above his property hinders his ability to enjoy his property. ABC Co.

r
contends that the height of the wires is high enough to not create any problems for Mohan. Mohan wants to sue

o p
ABC for trespass. Will he be successful intr-such an action?
5M5Q7R9U9P
0R4P
(a) No, because the construction of the power plant and placement of wires is essential to ensure consistent
electricity supply

77.
T
(b) No, because the height of the wires is reasonably high to prevent any possible problems for Mohan
(c) Yes, because the height of the wires is not high enough and may prevent Mohan from enjoying his land
(d) Yes, because the wires are passing through the airspace of Mohan's personal property

In the previous question, assume the following alternate facts. The wires constructed by ABC Company are
connected to tall towers. The height of the wires is 15 ft from the ground and they are low hanging in nature. In
this case, would Mohan succeed in a case of trespass to airspace?
(a) Yes, because the wires are going through Mohan's property which constitutes trespass by wrongful entry
(b) Yes, because the wires are low hanging and 0D4F Mohan's airspace
tr-5Kintrude
5C7K9F9Cinto
(c) No, because a height of 15 ft from the ground cannot be deemed unreasonably low
(d) No, because the wires are necessary for provision of electricity

78. A neighbour constructs a fence that extends beyond their property line and onto your land. Despite your
objections and requests to remove the encroaching fence, your neighbour intentionally keeps it in place. This has
been going on for several months. Does this situation constitute a continuing trespass?
(a) No, it is not a continuing trespass because the fence was initially constructed with permission.
(b) No, it is not a continuing trespass because the encroachment occurred only once.
(c) Yes, it is a continuing trespass because the neighbour is aware of the encroaching fence but refuses to remove
it.
(d) Yes, it is a continuing trespass because the neighbour repeatedly enters the property through the fence
9P0R4P
tr-5M5Q7R9U

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79. Manish is the neighbour of Ayesha. He constructs a shed on Ayesha's property without her permission. She
discovered the unauthorized shed one morning while inspecting her land and immediately approached Manish
about the matter. She informs him that the shed is encroaching on her property and requested him to remove it.
Manish acknowledges his mistake but insists that he needs the shed for storage and cannot relocate it. Over the
next few weeks, she engaged in several discussions with Manish, providing him with alternative storage options
and emphasizing the importance of respecting property boundaries. Despite her efforts, Manish persists in
keeping the shed on her property, claiming that it is convenient for him and that he has nowhere else to store his
belongings. Each time she raises the issue, Manish dismisses her concerns and refuses to take any action to
rectify the situation. On this basis, choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(a) The fact that the shed may have been built accidentally does not negate the ongoing trespass if the person
refuses to remove it after being notified.
(b) It is a continuing trespass because the person is aware of the unauthorized shed but refuses to remove it.

continuing trespass and the focus is on the persistent trespass itself.

c m
(c) The inconvenience caused by the shed is not the determining factor in whether the situation constitutes a

o
(d) The personal needs of the person who constructed the shed are relevant to whether the situation constitutes
a continuing trespass.

rs .
Passage(Q.80-Q.84): The Special Marriage Act, 1954 is a piece of law that establishes a special type of marriage

k e
by registration. Marriage is unique in that there is no requirement to convert or reject one’s religion. It applies to
the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir and applies also to citizens of India domiciled in the
territories to which this Act extends who are (residing in the State of Jammu and Kashmir).The fundamental

n
requirement under this Act for a valid marriage is the consent of both parties to the marriage. The parties must

a
file with the district’s Marriage Registrar a notice stating their intention to marry each other in which at least one

r
of the parties to the marriage has lived for at least 30 days prior to the date on which such notice is filed. After
the expiry of 30 days from the date that such

o p notice 9Pwas
tr-5M5Q7R9U
0R4Ppublished, the marriage is then said to be solemnized.
For a valid marriage, the parties must also give their consent to the marriage before the marriage officer and
three witnesses. Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 of 1954, certain circumstances must be met before a

T
marriage can be solemnised. Firstly, both parties should be monogamous at the time of marriage. Second, both
parties must be mentally fit and in a position to make their own decisions; that is, neither party should be of
unsound mind, suffer from any mental ailment, or have been subject to recurrent outbreaks of insanity. Third,
the man must be at least twenty-one years old and the female must be at least eighteen years old at the time of
marriage. Fourth, the parties must not be within the degrees of forbidden kinship; that is, they should not be
blood relatives. As a result, any violation of any of the conditions will render the union null and void. Unless
and until one year has expired from the date of their marriage as recorded in the marriage books, the parties may
not apply for divorce in the District Court. However, in exceptional cases, a request for divorce would be
retained, if the above conditions are not fulfilled. 0D4F
tr-5K5C7K9F9C
[Source- https://blog.ipleaders.in/special-marriage-act/ ]

80. Akbar (21) and Jodha (20) are an interfaith couple, both are domiciled in Madhya Pradesh but are currently
living in Kashmir due to their respective professions. Due to religious constraints, they wish to get married under
the Special Marriage act,1954.In the given situation, which of the following statements is true?
(a) They cannot get married under this act as this act is not applicable in Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) They can get married under this act as they are domiciled in Madhya Pradesh.
(c) They cannot get married under this act as Jodha is 21 years old.
(d) They can get married under this act but after moving back to Madhya Pradesh.

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81. Rajesh and Steffy, an interfaith couple wishes to get married but do not want to change their religion after
marriage so they decided to get married under the special marriage act, 1954. Steffy is suffering from recurrent
outbreaks of insanity but was sane at the time of the marriage. In the given situation, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) The marriage will be valid since Steffy was sane at the time of the marriage.
(b) The marriage will be valid as both, Rajesh and Steffy fulfilled all the conditions required under the act.
(c) The marriage will not be valid since Steffy was suffering from recurrent outbreaks of insanity.
(d) The marriage will not be valid since Steffy is insane.

82. Urooz and Ram fall in love and decides to get married. Belonging to different religions, they decide to get
married under the special marriage act. They get married successfully under the act but after a month Urooz
finds out that Ram was already married at the time of their marriage. In the given situation, which of the following
statements is true?
(a) Their marriage will still be valid as their marriage had already got registered.
(b) Their marriage will become void as Ram was not monogamous at the time of marriage.

c o m
(c) Their marriage will become void as Ram married Urooz by fraud.

rs .
(d) Their marriage will still be valid as Ram’s earlier marriage was not registered under the special marriage act.

83.

k e
Joseph and Raveena gets married in front of their families on 1st January 2010 and then gets their marriage
registered in the marriage book under the special marriage act on 1st May 2010. One day Raveena finds out
about Joseph’s affair and decides to divorce him. She files for divorce on 10th February 2011. In the given

n
situation, which of the following statements is true?

a
(a) She can get a divorce as their marriage in front of their families had completed one year.

r
(b) She can get a divorce as Joseph has committed adultery against her.

p
(c) She cannot file for divorce as her marriage has not completed one year from the date of registration.
9P0R 4P
tr-5M5Q7R9U

o
(d) She cannot file for divorce as adultery is not a ground for divorce.

84.

T
In the light of the given passage, which among the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
I. There is no requirement to change religion under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
II. The special marriage act does not apply to any of the residents of Jammu and Kashmir.
III. Couples getting married under this act has to give notice to the Marriage Officer 30 days before the date of
marriage.
IV. No witnesses are required for the registration of marriage under this act.
(a) Only IV (b) I and II (c) II and IV (d) I and III

0D4F
tr-5K5C7K9F9C

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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

Passage (Q.85-Q.90): The rarity of his public appearances has apparently not given MI6 chief Richard Moore's
July 19 speech at a think tank event in Prague its expected originality. Although it is reportedly the only public
appearance the head of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service plans to make this year, Moore used it
to parrot Washington's China threat cliches, rather than focusing on the real threats to the UK. The country is
blindly allowing itself to be used as a pawn in the United States' geopolitical game in both Europe and the Asia-
Pacific.

In the speech, Moore claimed that China is "absolutely complicit" in the Ukraine crisis, trying to "steal" the

m
research of British universities, and setting "data traps" when cooperating with other countries. As the Chinese

o
embassy in the UK said in a subsequent readout, Moore's "accusations" against China are totally groundless and
slanderous and malicious in nature. China firmly opposes and strongly condemns them.

c
rs .
Since he talked the same talk as Washington on the Ukraine crisis, it is natural that Moore felt unhappy with
China on that issue. Out of the need to wear out Russia and control Europe, the US has not only brokered the

k e
conflict but also sought to protract it as long as possible. However, being neither the one that created the crisis
nor a party to it, China has consistently called for peace talks and is committed to facilitating a political settlement
of the issue. Compared with the US' one-sided stance, China's position on the Ukraine crisis has always been
balanced.

r an
Moore's comments are no surprise, the US club has been doing its utmost to discredit the peace plans put forward

o p
by China, as well as Indonesia, Brazil, tr-India and African
5M5Q7R9U9P
0R4P countries. Washington is well aware that these
proposals, which prioritize a cease-fire and aim to secure a lasting agreement between the two belligerents, touch
upon the crux of the issue.

T
The UK would do better to take a serious and objective look at what is really in its best interests rather than just
aping the US and smearing genuine pro-peace efforts that the UK doesn't have the capacity to make. It is time
for countries such as the UK to liberate themselves from the bewitching fantasy Washington has spun for them
that they cannot survive outside the protective umbrella of the US. Nations should realize that not only can they,
but they would do better by not toeing the US' line as the world will be a more stable and peaceful place.

As for Moore's other smears they are easily dismissed by anyone without prejudice. China-UK scientific research
cooperation is voluntary and mutually beneficial, 9F9C0D4F
Moore's
tr-5K5C7K attempt to sabotage the cooperation benefits neither
side. And the so-called "data traps" are nothing more than malicious fabrications. As the embassy's readout points
out, China's exchanges and cooperation with other countries are aboveboard and upright. The international
community is well aware which party is engaged in massive-scale monitoring, surveillance, and espionage and
which countries are abetting it.

85. What is the main conclusion of the passage regarding MI6 Chief Richard Moore's speech and its relation to the
United Kingdom's stance on international matters?
(a) The passage applauds Moore's insightful approach to the China-UK relationship and his original thinking.
(b) The passage contends that Moore's remarks reveal the UK's intelligent alignment with U.S. foreign policies.
(c) The passage criticizes Moore's alignment with U.S. views, urging the UK to think independently regarding
China.
(d)5MThe passage
5Q7R9U9P0R
4P emphasizes Moore's role in strengthening the UK's scientific research collaboration with China.
tr-

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86. Which of the following statements would most likely strengthen the author's argument against Richard Moore's
alignment with U.S. views and the need for an independent UK stance?
(a) Richard Moore's speech was largely applauded by U.S. policymakers for its nuanced approach.
(b) The Chinese embassy's response to Moore's accusations was well-reasoned and diplomatically sound.
(c) Moore's views reflect an independent analysis that considers the geopolitical interests of the UK.
(d) Other nations such as Brazil and India have similarly advocated for peace and a balanced approach.

87. Which of the following statements would most likely weaken the author's argument against Richard Moore's
alignment with U.S. views and criticism of his speech?
(a) The UK has historically maintained an independent foreign policy that aligns with its interests.
(b) Richard Moore's speech was grounded in substantial evidence of China's involvement in global issues.
(c) Other nations, such as Brazil and India, have criticized China's stance on international peace efforts.
(d) The U.S. has consistently advocated for peace and balanced approaches in global conflicts.

88.

o m
Based on the passage, which of the following is a reasonable inference regarding the author's perspective on
international peace efforts?

c
(b) The author supports the United States' one-sided stance on the Ukraine crisis.

rs
(c) The author values balanced peace efforts and criticizes alignment with U.S. views.
.
(a) The author believes that the UK is leading international peace efforts with unique strategies.

89.
(d) The author advocates for China's dominance in shaping global peace negotiations.

k e
According to the passage, what specific claim did Richard Moore make regarding China's involvement with
other countries?

an
(a) China has been forging alliances to undermine European stability.

r
(b) China is setting "data traps" when cooperating with other countries.

o p
(c) China is providing financial support totr-countries
5M5Q7R9U9P
involved
0R4P in conflicts.
(d) China has been violating international law in its cooperative agreements.

90.

T
What necessary assumption must the author make in order for his arguments against Moore's speech and the
UK's alignment with the US to hold?
(a) The UK's alliance with the US is fundamentally detrimental to world peace.
(b) China's actions in the international community are entirely benign.
(c) Moore's speech reflects the unanimous opinion of the UK government.
(d) The US is solely responsible for brokering the conflict in Ukraine.

Passage (Q.91-Q.96): On July 27, 1953, military commanders from the Chinese People's Volunteers force, the
Democratic People's Republic of Korea's Army and 0D4FUnited States (on behalf of the "United Nations
9F9Cthe
tr-5K5C7K
Command") signed the Korean Armistice Agreement, putting an end to "all acts of armed force" on the Korean
Peninsula.
Seventy years on, representatives of China, the DPRK and Russia gathered in Pyongyang to mark the 70th
anniversary of the armistice. For China, the DPRK and Russia, whose predecessor the Soviet Union played an
important supporting role behind the Chinese and DPRK forces during the war, there are many things worth
remembering as they commemorate the occasion.
The foremost lesson is about the importance of solidarity. Solidarity helped them resist the aggression of the US-
led forces back then and it can help them counter the pressure the US and its allies are putting on all of them
today. In China, the occasion is also being commemorated as a milestone establishing the country's status as a
major country, and an example that a weaker country armed with an unwavering fighting spirit may not yield to
the very strong.
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Thus, the intrepid fighting spirit demonstrated by the Chinese People's Volunteers force has commanded the
limelight. Remembering the War to Resist US Aggression and Aid Korea is essentially to cherish peace and to
solemnly declare to the world the Chinese people's desire for a peaceful environment for development.
With the US persisting with its Cold War mentality, commemorating the armistice reiterates the message
delivered by then premier Zhou Enlai to the US on Sept 30, 1950, that "The Chinese people love peace, but in
order to defend peace, they have never been and will never be afraid to resist a war of aggression." That is why
the People's Liberation Army is resolved to carry on the fighting spirit of the Chinese People's Volunteers force
and upgrade its preparedness amid the worsening security environment, and the country at large is displaying
similar perseverance as it comes under escalating external pressure and threats.
Beyond and above everything, on this occasion, peace-loving people and nations must not ignore the simple
truth that the armistice 70 years ago only stopped the fighting. In the absence of a permanent settlement, the
Korean Peninsula technically remains in a state of war. As hostility intensifies and escalates among various

m
parties, and with the US upgrading its military deployments in the region and increasing the pressure on the

o
DPRK, the Korean Peninsula is once again becoming a powder keg. It has never been so important and

c
imperative for all the parties involved to review the lessons of that war, and apply meaningful crisis management.
91.

rs .
What central conclusion does the author reach in the passage regarding the 70th anniversary of the Korean
Armistice Agreement and the current situation on the Korean Peninsula?

e
(a) The armistice anniversary is mainly a celebration of China's rise as a global power.
(b) The People's Liberation Army is actively preparing for a new war, given the escalating tensions.

still technically at war.

a k
(c) The anniversary serves as a reminder of solidarity and the ongoing need for peace, with the Korean Peninsula

n
(d) The commemoration is primarily focused on resisting US aggression and does not consider the broader

92.
regional situation.

p r tr-5M5Q7R9U
9P 0R4P
Which of the following statements would most strengthen the author's argument about the importance of

o
cherishing peace and learning from the lessons of the Korean War?

T
(a) The Korean Peninsula has seen a significant increase in military exercises in recent years.
(b) The global community has expressed support for peaceful negotiations on the Korean Peninsula.
(c) Historical analyses have shown that wars generally lead to devastating consequences.
(d) Economic pressures on China, the DPRK, and Russia are influencing their commemoration of the armistice.

93. Which of the following statements would most weaken the author's argument about the pressing need for crisis
management and cherishing peace on the Korean Peninsula?
(a) The United States has withdrawn significant military forces from the region in recent years.
(b) The leaders of China, the DPRK, and Russia have held
tr-5K5C7K9F9C
0D4Ffrequent dialogues on peace initiatives.
(c) International organizations have praised the Korean Peninsula for improved human rights conditions.
(d) The DPRK has significantly increased its military preparedness in response to perceived threats.

94. According to the passage, what message was reiterated by commemorating the armistice of the Korean War by
China, DPRK, and Russia?
(a) The Chinese people will not yield to U.S. military threats in the future.
(b) The Chinese people love peace and will resist a war of aggression to defend it.
(c) The armistice symbolizes the permanent end of hostilities on the Korean Peninsula.
(d) The Chinese People's Volunteers force is resolved to upgrade its preparedness.

95. Which of the following is an inference from the passage regarding the Korean Peninsula?
(a) The commemorating of the armistice is a sign of China's preparedness against the US.
(b)
tr-5MThe 9U9P0R4PPeninsula is once again becoming a powder keg.
5Q7RKorean
(c) The armistice has permanently ended all hostilities on the Korean Peninsula.
(d) The intrepid fighting spirit of the Chinese People's Liberation Army has commanded attention.
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96. According to the author's opinion in the passage, what is a central theme surrounding the commemoration of the
70th anniversary of the Korean Armistice Agreement?
(a) The armistice is an indication that the Korean Peninsula is no longer at risk of war.
(b) The commemoration primarily serves to foster a new alliance between China, the DPRK, and Russia.
(c) The armistice is a symbol of China's major country status and a testament to resisting aggression.
(d) The celebration of the armistice represents a commitment to fully denuclearize the Korean Peninsula.

Passage (Q.97-Q.102): The shooting down of a Chinese surveillance balloon by the U.S. military has served as
a stark reminder of the deep distrust that characterises relations between the world’s two biggest powers. The
detection of the balloon last week over Montana sparked a diplomatic crisis, leading to U.S. Secretary of State
Antony Blinken calling off a highly anticipated visit to China from February 6. The visit, which would have
been the first by a top U.S. diplomat since 2018, was the result of a months-long effort to halt the downward

m
spiral in ties, coming out of the Biden-Xi meet in November at the G-20 Bali summit. The fragility of that effort

o
has been laid bare by the controversy over the balloon, which has punctured the process of restoring stability in

c
relations that have been marred by growing discord. Beijing has maintained that the balloon was “civilian”

rs .
(meteorology), but had drifted off-course. It also slammed the move to shoot it down as an overreaction. The
U.S. has seen the deployment of what it called a surveillance balloon, on the eve of the Blinken visit, deep into
its airspace as a grave provocation — one, it pointed out, that Beijing too would not have tolerated.

k e
U.S. officials have acknowledged this was by no means the first such surveillance balloon spotted over American
skies; there was a similar incident under the Trump administration. Balloons were also spotted over Japan in

n
2020 and 2021, and over India’s Andaman Islands last year. All three governments did not take steps to shoot

a
down the balloons, presumably coming to the conclusion that the balloons, in the age of intelligence powered by

r
advanced satellites, were not important enough to warrant being shot down. New Delhi and Tokyo may now be
prompted to reassess how they handle such

o p intrusions
tr-5M5Q7R9U
9P0R4Pin the future. Beijing, for its part, would do well to
reconsider the benefits and costs of what appears to be a new, and provocative, tool for intelligence-gathering.
It is conceivable that the Biden administration may have allowed the balloon to quietly drift away had it not been

T
spotted in Montana. The Biden administration faced intense criticism at home for not shooting down the balloon
earlier. Its response, including cancelling the Blinken visit, reflects how China has become a hot-button issue in
U.S. politics. This development has constrained how a key relationship is managed. In 2001, the U.S. and China
were able to dial down tensions after a collision between a U.S. spy plane and a Chinese fighter jet over Hainan
island in China. Should a similar crisis now arise, particularly against the charged backdrop of an intensifying
rivalry, muscle-flexing over Taiwan, and a heated domestic discourse, finding an off-ramp will be far more
difficult.

97. What is the main idea behind the author writing this
tr-5K5C 9C0D4F about the U.S. military shooting down a Chinese
message
7K9F
surveillance balloon?
(a) To express disappointment in the U.S. military's action
(b) To warn of the consequences of growing tensions between the two nations
(c) To praise the U.S. military's quick response
(d) To criticize China for its provocative intelligence-gathering tool

98. What can be inferred from the author's writing about the U.S. military shooting down a Chinese surveillance
balloon?
(a) The U.S. military acted rashly in shooting down the balloon.
(b) The balloon incident has improved relations between the U.S. and China.
(c) The U.S. Secretary of State's visit to China was expected to result in a positive outcome.
(d)5MThe balloon4Pincident has further strained relations between the U.S. and China.
5Q7R9U9P0R
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99. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's arguments about the negative impact of the
balloon incident on the U.S.-China relationship?
(a) The U.S. military has a history of shooting down Chinese balloons in its airspace.
(b) The U.S. Secretary of State's visit to China was not expected to result in any positive outcomes.
(c) The U.S. and China have a history of resolving similar incidents peacefully.
(d) The U.S. government faced criticism for not shooting down the balloon earlier.

100. Which of the following must necessarily be true, for the author's argument to hold?
(a) The U.S. and China are able to dial down tensions whenever a crisis arises.
(b) Beijing's deployment of the surveillance balloon was a grave provocation.
(c) The U.S. government has always shot down balloons in their airspace.
(d) The people of the US don’t take Chinese balloon incident in the positive light.

on U.S.-China relations?

c m
101. Which of the following has the author used to back up his argument about the balloon incident's negative impact

o
(a) The fact that similar balloons were spotted over Japan and India in recent years but were not shot down.

rs .
(b) The efforts of the Biden administration to halt the downward spiral in U.S.-China relations.
(c) The criticism faced by the Biden administration for not shooting down the balloon earlier.
(d) The U.S. and China's history of resolving similar incidents peacefully.

102. Which of the following can be concluded from the information present in the passage?

k e
(a) The U.S. Secretary of State's visit to China was planned for February 6th and it wasn’t the first one since
2018.

an
(b) The U.S. and China haven’t had a very smooth and stable relationship in the past.

r
(c) The shooting down of a Chinese balloon by the U.S. police has increased the Chinese distrust towards the
US.

o p
tr-5M5Q7R9U
9P0R4P
(d) The U.S. government was praised for shooting down the balloon earlier.

T
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): Much ink has been spilled by now on the Budget’s hike in the tax-free ceiling under
the new income-tax system introduced in 2020, to ₹7 lakh from ₹5 lakh, with lower tax rates for those who give
up existing tax exemptions. Experts outline varying arithmetic to determine at what levels of income and savings
taxpayers should consider to switch to the new “default” regime. The Opposition has raised concerns that the
government eventually wants to do away with the exemptions that “give some social security to the middle class”
altogether. Industry captains are worried this may affect the savings rate and hit investments. So far, government
mandarins have said, among other things, that the savings rate would not be affected; lower income earners do
not save enough to avail the tax exemptions and end up paying higher rates. “As an adult, you have to be the
best judge on what suits you,” Finance Minister Nirmala
tr-5K5C7K9F9C0DSitharaman
4F summed up on Saturday. All of them are
individually valid arguments. However, the bigger picture needs to factor in that many are not in a position to be
the best judge for themselves — especially not the lower income earners who the government believes will
benefit the most in the new tax system.

India’s literacy and financial literacy levels mean many taxpayers cannot deem the right mix of consumption
and savings, leave alone directing savings into an appropriate medley of safe as well as inflation-beating
investments. Adult humans do not behave as rationally as economists would assume. For instance, there is a
propensity towards more conspicuous consumption among the youth who may find the new tax regime with
higher take-home salaries alluring. Financial products are routinely mis-sold to those not equipped to understand
market nuances and the risks embedded in fine print. In a country that cannot yet provide universal social security
and health benefits, the old exemption-based regime helps guide families towards some level of prudent asset
allocation to cope
9P0R 4P with life’s uncertainties, with a leg-up for building a critical asset over their working lives —
tr-5M5Q7R9U
a roof over their head. India’s retail participation in stocks may have risen in recent years, but not everyone can
handle the risks of equity markets or avoid being conned by influencer-operators. So the nudge away from the

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old tax regime must be accompanied by greater financial literacy efforts from the government and regulators and
a crackdown on unethical selling practices that could lead to people ending up in penury. If people did not need
the government’s prodding to act in their own best interest, there would have been no need for mandatory
contributions to provident funds and pensions.

103. What would weaken the author's argument against the statement made by the Finance Minister regarding the
new tax system?
(a) Financial literacy rate increases in the country
(b) Government provides better financial education to taxpayers
(c) Increase in the number of fraud cases in the financial sector
(d) Studies show that most taxpayers save enough to avail tax exemptions

104. What should the government do to make sure the change in tax system benefits lower income taxpayers
according to the author?
I. Increase tax exemptions
II. Provide universal social security and health benefits

c o m
III. Enhance financial literacy efforts and regulate unethical sales practices
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III

rs .
(c) Only II
(d) Only I and II

k e
n
105. Which of the following must be true if the author’s arguments are to hold?

a
(a) The government has a duty to provide universal social security and health benefits.

r
(b) The Finance Minister's statement that people must be the best judge for themselves is flawed.
(c) Lower income earners do not save enough

p
to take advantage of tax exemptions.
9P0R 4P
tr-5M5Q7R9U

o
(d) The new tax system will not affect the savings rate.

T
106. Which of the following best describes the author's stance towards the new income tax system introduced in 2020
in India?
(a) The author is fully supportive of the new tax system and sees it as a positive step forward.
(b) The author has a neutral stance towards the new tax system and presents both the positives and negatives.
(c) The author has some concerns about the new tax system, but ultimately thinks it is for the best.
(d) The author strongly criticizes the new tax system and believes it will harm the lower income earners.

107. What role does the statement "Financial products are routinely mis-sold to those not equipped to understand
market nuances and the risks embedded in fine tr-5Kprint" 9C0D4F
5C7K9Fplay in the context of the passage?
(a) It supports the idea that the new tax system will not impact the savings rate.
(b) It serves as evidence that the Finance Minister's statement is flawed.
(c) It is used as a premise to reject the idea that old tax system is beneficial for savings rate.
(d) It suggests that the old tax regime doesn’t help guide families towards prudent asset allocation.

108. Which of the following statements is a fact according to the passage and not a claim?
(a) The Finance Minister's statement that people must be the best judge for themselves is flawed.
(b) The new tax system will affect the savings rate.
(c) Lower income earners do not save enough to take advantage of tax exemptions.
(d) India’s literacy and financial literacy levels are poor as many taxpayers cannot determine the right mix of
consumption and savings.
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SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.

Three friends, Rahul, Sanjay, and Vicky, spend 15%, 10%, and 13% of their monthly salary on traveling in the
given order. Each of them saves half of the remaining amount. Rahul and Sanjay have the same monthly salary,
and Rahul's monthly savings are Rs. 127.5 less than Sanjay's. The total expenditures of Rahul and Sanjay together
on traveling are Rs. 534 more than Vicky's.

109. Rahul's monthly expenditures on traveling is how much (in rupees) more than the Vicky's monthly expenditures
on traveling?
(a) 17 (b) 12 (c) 24 (d) 18

110. What percentage of their monthly salary do Rahul and Vicky spend on traveling combined?
(a) 8.64% (b) 16.56% (c) 6.97% (d) 13.94%

c o m
111. How much is Vicky's monthly salary (in rupees) more or less than that of Sanjay?
(a) 600 (b) 400 (c) 800 (d) 500

rs .
spends?

k e
112. How much more do Rahul and Vicky combinedly spend on traveling each month compared to what Sanjay

(a) Rs. 996 (b) Rs. 998 (c) Rs. 926

r an (d) Rs. 932

Directions (Q.113-Q.116): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.

p
In a colony, there is a branch of a PSU (Public Sector Undertaking) insurance company, namely XYZ Insurance
tr-5M5Q 7R9U9P0R4P
Company Limited. One day, all the employees had 100% attendance, but not all of them were punctual, and not

o
everyone stayed until the end of the office hours. On that day, among the employees who arrived early at the

T
office, 25% of them left early, 30% left late, and the rest left on time. For those who arrived late at the office,
22.22% left late, 33.33% left on time, and the remainder left early. Among those who arrived on time, 22.22%
left early, 44.44% left late, and the rest left on time. The number of employees who arrived early was 13 more
than the number of employees who left on time, and the number of employees who left early was 3 less than the
number of employees who arrived late at the office. Additionally, 139 employees did not leave on time.

113. What is the difference between the total number of employees who left early and the total number of
employees who left late?
(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 7K
179F9C0D4F (d) 18
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114. Find the respective ratio of the number of employees who arrived early, the number of employees who arrived
on time, and the number of employees who arrived late.
(a) 27 : 54 : 36 (b) 50 : 27 : 36 (c) 60 : 27 : 46 (d) 50 : 26 : 69

115. Suppose on the day before yesterday of that day, 50% of the employees were on leave for personal reasons. How
many employees were present on the day before yesterday of that day?
(a) 113 (b) 139 (c) 226 (d) 152

116. The total number of employees who left on time was how much percent more or less than the total number of
employees who didn't leave on time?
(a) 37.41% 4P (b) 42.63% (c) 46.86% (d) 39.43%
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Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Read the data carefully and answer the following questions.
In a movie theatre, tickets are available in three categories: VIP, Deluxe, and Standard. The visitors are
categorized as Adults, Teenagers, and Children. The following facts are known about visitors and ticket sales on
a particular day:
1. A total of 114 tickets were sold.
2. The number of Teenagers was 2.5 times the number of adults, and the number of Children was 2.4 times the
number of Teenagers.
3. Children purchased 40 of the 49 Standard tickets that were sold, and they also bought half of the total number
of VIP tickets that were sold.
4. The number of Deluxe tickets bought by adults was equal to the number of Standard tickets bought by adults.

117. If the number of adults buying VIP tickets was equal to the number of Teenagers buying VIP tickets, then which
among the following could be the total number of VIP tickets sold?
(a) 38 (b) 42 (c) 32 (d) 36

c o m
is the number of adults buying Deluxe tickets?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 9

rs .
118. If the number of adults buying VIP tickets is equal to the number of teenagers buying Standard tickets, then what

k e
119. If the number of adults buying Deluxe tickets is strictly greater than the number of children buying Deluxe
tickets, then what is the number of teenagers buying Deluxe tickets?
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 5

120. Which of the following statements MUST be FALSE?

r an (d) 2

(a) The numbers of Teenagers and Children

o p
buying 9P
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Deluxe
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(b) The numbers of Adults and Teenagers buying Standard tickets were equal
(c) The numbers of Deluxe and VIP tickets bought by Children were equal

T
(d) The numbers of Adults and Teenagers buying VIP tickets were equal

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Notes:

c o m
rs .
k e
r an
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