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FIITJEE
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
BATCHES – SANKALPRN2226,2226RA,RAH,RB,WA1-WA4,WAH
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into three sections: PART-A, PART-B & PART-C
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.
(i) Section-A (01 – 08) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (09 - 14) 2 comprehension (3 questions each with single option correct). Each question carries +3
marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) (15 – 18) contains 4 multiple choice questions which have one or more than one correct
answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
(iv) Section-B (01 – 02) contains 2 Matrix Match Type questions containing statements given in 2 columns.
Statements in the first column have to be matched with statements in the second column. Each question
carries +8 marks for all correct answer. For each correct row +2 marks will be awarded. There may be one
or more than one correct choice. No marks will be given for any wrong match in any question. There is no
negative marking.
(v) Section-C (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from
0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking
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SE
ECCT
TIION
N-- II:: PHYSIICS
S
SECTION – A (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
3. If the radius of the earth’s orbit around the Sun is R and the time period of revolution of the earth
around the Sun is T. The mass of the Sun is
GT3 4 2R 3
(A) 2
(B)
4 R GT 2
1 1
4 2R 3 2 4 2R 3 3
(C) (D)
GT 2 GT 2
4. An open knife edge of mass M is dropped from a height h on a wooden floor. If the blade penetrates a
distance s into the wood, the average resistances offered by the wood to the blade is
h
(A) Mg (B) Mg 1
s
2
h h
(C) Mg 1 (D) Mg 1
s s
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5. A body of mass 2 kg is free to move along x-axis. It is at rest at t = 0. from t = 0 onward it is subjected to
a time-dependent force F(t) in x-direction. The variation of F with time is as shown.
F(t)
4N
4.5s
t
2N 3s
6. If the momentum of a moving body is increased by 50% then the kinetic energy will increased by :
(A) 100% (B) 125%
(C) 150% (D) 200%
7. A block of mass M is placed on a rough horizontal surface. as shown in the figure. A force
F = Mg acts on the block. It is inclined to the vertical at an angle . The coefficient of friction is . The
block can be pushed along the surface only when:
F = Mg
M
8. An object is placed on the surface of a smooth inclined plane of inclination . It takes time ‘t’ to reach
the bottom. If the same object is allowed to slide down a rough inclined plane of inclination , it take
time nt to reach the bottom where n is a number grater than 1. The coefficient of friction is given by :
1 1
(A) tan 1 2 (B) cot 1 2
n n
1 1
1 2 1 2
(C) tan 1 2 (D) cot 1 2
n n
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A satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around a planet of mass ‘M’ in a circular path of radius ‘R’. Now answer the
following questions.
m
9. What is the magnitude of acceleration of the satellite? (Take speed of the satellite as ‘v’)
Gm GM
(A) 2 (B) 2
R R
Gm v 2 GM v 2
(C) 2 (D) 2
R R R R
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A body hangs from a spring balance supported from the roof of an elevator.
2
12. If the elevator has an upward acceleration of 2 m/s and balance reads 240 N, what is the true weight of
the body?
(A) 200 N (B) 100 N
(C) zero (D) 250 N
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This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
15. A person says that he measured the acceleration of a paticle to be non zero while no force was acting
on the particle.
(A) He might have used inertial frame.
(B) His clock might have run slow.
(C) His meter scale might have been longer than the standard.
(D) He might have used noninertial frame.
16. The force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing there is more than the
weight of the person if the elevator is
(A) going up and slowing down (B) going up and speeding up
(C) going down and slowing down (D) going down and sleeding up.
17. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit around a planet depends on
(A) The mass of the planet (B) The mass of the satellite
(C) Radius of the circular orbit (D) All of the above
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SECTION –B
(Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
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SECTION C
(Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards twice once with a velocity 40 m/s and then with a velocity 80 m/s.
The ratio of distance travelled by the ball in last second of its upward journey in the two cases is 1 : R.
Find ‘R’.
2. Time period of two planets round the sun are in the ratio 1 : 8 then radii will be in the ratio 1: R. Find ‘R’.
3. A constant force acts an object of mass 2 kg for a duration of 3s. This force increases the velocity of
3F
object from zero to 7 m/s without change in direction. Force acting on the object is F, then find .
7
rough surface
2
5. With what minimum acceleration (in m/sec ) can a fireman slide down a rope whose breaking strength
2
is 50% of his weight? (g = 10 m/s )
6. A planet is having a mass twice to that of earth’s mass and its radius as 4 times that of the earth’s
radius. Determine four times the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of this planet. Acceleration
–2
due to gravity at the earth’s surface is 10 ms .
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SE
ECCTIO
ONN -- III:: C
CHE
EMIS
STRY
Y
SECTION – A (Total Marks : 24) (3, – 1)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. According to the definition of pure substance, which of the following is a pure substance?
(A) Sodium (B) Mercury
(C) Iron (D) All of these
3. When the liquid is spun rapidly, the denser particles are forced to the bottom and the lighter particles
stay at the top. This principle is used in:
(A) Centrifugation (B) Fractional distillation
(C) Evaporation (D) None of these
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Distillation refers to the selective boiling and subsequent condensation of a component in a liquid mixture. It is a
separation technique that can be used to either increase the concentration of a particular component in the
mixture or to obtain (almost) pure components from the mixture. The process of distillation exploits the
difference in the boiling points of the components in the liquid mixture by forcing one of them into a gaseous
state.
The solutions which boil at constant temperatures like pure liquid and possess same composition in liquid as
well as vapour state are called azeotropes. The components of azetrops cannot be separated by fractional
distillation. Only non-ideal solution form azeotropes. Solutions with negative deviation form maximum boiling
azeotropes and the solutions with positive deviation form minimum boiling azeotrope. Boiling point of an
azeotrope is never equal to the boiling points of any of the compounds of the azeotrope.
The concentration of a solution can be expressed in several different ways as, in case of a solid dissolved in a
liquid, it is convenient to express the concentration of a solution in mass percentage. Mass percentage of a
component is defined as the mass percentage of the solute dissolved in 100 g of the solution.
Mass by volume percentage is defined as the amount of solute in grams dissolved in 100 ml of the solution. If a
solution is prepared by dissolving a liquid solute in a liquid solvent the concentration of a solution is usually
expressed in volume by volume percentage of simply volume percentage. (The volume of a solute in ml
dissolved in 100 ml of the solution).
12. 25 g of methyl alcohol is present in 100 ml of solution. If the density of solution is 0.96 g/ml, calculate
the mass by mass percentage of methyl alcohol in solution.
(A) 15.041% (B) 26.041%
(C) 25% (D) 35.041%
13. Density of the solution of a salt X is 1.15 g/ml. 20 ml of the solution when completely evaporated gave a
residue of 4.6 g of the salt. Calculate the mass by volume percentage of the solute in solution.
(A) 40% (B) 20%
(C) 23% (D) 60%
14. Aqueous urea solution is 20% by mass of solution. Calculate percentage by mass of solvent.
(A) 75% (B) 15%
(C) 25% (D) 65%
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SECTION –B
(Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
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SECTION–C
(Total Marks : 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
3. What is the concentration of a solution which contains 9 mL of acetone in 150 ml of its aqueous
solution?
4. At 20C, 0.10 kg of sugar dissolve in 2 kg of water to form sugar solution. What is the solubility of
sugar?
5. Among the following how many are examples of oil in water type emulsion:
Milk, Mayonnaise, Butter, Cold cream butter, Brine solution.
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S
SECTION - IIII:: M
MAATHEMA
ATIC
CS
SECTION – A (Total Marks: 24) (3, – 1)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
2. If the sides of a right triangle are 9 cm, 12 cm and 15 cm long, then the sum of squares of medians is
2
(in cm )
(A) 227.5 (B) 337.5
(C) 537.5 (D) none of these
3. P is a point inside ABC. If PBA = 20°, BAC = 50° and PCA = 35°, A
then the measure of BPC is
(A) 65° (B) 75°
(C) 90° (D) 105°
P
B C
1 1 1 1
4. log10 1 log10 1 log10 1 ....... log10 1 when simplified has the value equal
2 3 4 1999
to
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 10 (D) 100
5. If A = log27625 + 7log11 13 and B = log9125 + 13log11 7 then find the relation between A and B
(A) A > B (B) B > A
(C) A = B (D) none of these
7. If the altitudes of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4, then the lengths of the corresponding sides are in
the ratio
(A) 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 6 : 4 : 3
(C) 3 : 2 : 4 (D) 3 : 2 : 1
8. The mean of a data is ‘p’. If each observation is multiplied by 3 and then 1 is added to each result, then
the mean of the new observations so obtained is
(A) p (B) 3p
(C) p + 1 (D) 3p + 1
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If a, b and c are three sides of a triangle then (a + b) > c, (b + c) > a and (a + c) > b
9. All the three sides of a ABC have lengths in integral units, with AB = 2001 units and BC = 1002 units.
The possible number of triangle with this condition is
(A) 2001 (B) 2002
(C) 2003 (D) 2004
10. Consider triangles having integer sides such that no side is greater than 4 units. How many such
triangles are possible?
(A) 13 (B) 17
(C) 24 (D) 64
11. Let ‘m’ be the number of distinct (non-congruent) integer sided triangles each with perimeter 15 and ‘n’
be the number of distinct (non-congruent) integer sided triangles each with perimeter 16. Then (m – n)
equals.
(A) – 2 (B) 0
(C) 2 (D) – 4
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Average mean =
x1n1 x 2n2 ...... xn .nn
and mean = x
x i
n1 n2 ...... nn n
12. The mean of weight of 100 persons is 46 kg. The mean of weight of males being 50 kg and of females
being 40 kg then the number of males is
(A) 50 (B) 60
(C) 55 (D) 65
13. The mean weight of a class of 34 students is 47 kg. If the weight of the teacher is included the mean
rises by 1 kg. Then the weight of the teacher is
(A) 82 kg (B) 62 kg
(C) 64 kg (D) 72 kg
14. The average age of 5 teachers is 30 years. If one teacher is excluded, the mean gets reduced by 4
years. The age of the excluded teacher is
(A) 26 years (B) 33 years
(C) 36 years (D) 46 years
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This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
15. The degree measure of each of the three angles of a triangle is an integer. Which of the following could
be the ratio of their measures?
(A) 2 : 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 4 : 5
(C) 5 : 6 : 7 (D) 6 : 7 : 8
2
16. Three equilateral triangles are cut from an equilateral triangle having area 324 cm such that a regular
hexagon is left. Then which of the following is/are correct?
2 2
(A) area of regular hexagon = 108 cm (B) area of regular hexagon = 216 cm
2 2
(C) area of each cutted triangle = 18 cm (D) area of each cutted triangle = 36 cm
17. If a, b 1, ab > 0, a b and logab = logba, then which of the following values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ is/are
possible
1
(A) a = 2 and b = (B) a = b = 2
2
1
(C) a = 3 and b = (D) a = b = 3
3
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SECTION –B
(Total Marks : 16) (+2, 0 for each row)
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
four statements (p, q, r and s) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with
one or more statement(s) in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles
corresponding to q and r in the ORS.
B D C
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SECTION-C
(Total Marks: 24) (+4, 0)
(Integer Answer Type)
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9.
The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
1. The numbers 3, 5, 6 and 4 have frequencies of x, (x + 2), (x – 8) and (x + 6) respectively. If their mean
is 4 then find x:
1 1
2. If x2 + y2 = z2, then
log z x y log z x y
2
3. Side of an equilateral triangle with area of 9 3 cm is
2
4. Area of a right-angled triangle is 6 cm and its perimeter is 12 cm. Find its hypotenuse (in cm)
2
5. The value of log10 5log10 100 is
6. The number of triangles with any three of the lengths 1 cm, 4 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm, are
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IIT–JEE STAGE – I
ANSWERS
Physics [SECTION-I]
SECTION–A
1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A
9. B 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. A 14. C 15. D 16. B,C
17. A,C 18. A,B,C,D
SECTION–B
1. A (s), B (r), C (q), D (p)
2. A (r), B (p), C (s), D (q)
SECTION–C
1. 1 2. 4 3. 2 4. 1
5. 5 6. 5
Chemistry [SECTION-II]
SECTION–A
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D
5. C 6. D 7. A 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. C 12. B
13. C 14. C 15. A,B,D 16. A,B,D
17. B,C 18. A,B
SECTION–B
1. A (q), B (p), C (r), D (s)
2. A (r), B (s), C (p), D (q)
SECTION–C
1. 3 2. 3 3. 6 4. 5
5. 2 6. 3
Mathematics [SECTION-III]
SECTION–A
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B
5. B 6. B 7. B 8. D
9. C 10. A 11. C 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. A,B,C 16. B,D
17. A,C 18. B,C
SECTION–B
1. A (r), B (p), C (s), D (q)
2. A (r), B (p), C (s), D (q)
SECTION–C
1. 7 2. 2 3. 6 4. 5
5. 1 6. 1
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