IITJEE Stage-1

Four Yr CRP226 (R & W)_PT-2_IITJEE-1
FIITJEE - INTERNAL PHASE TEST

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
CODE:
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 255
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall befor e the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
BATCHE S – FeSCF226A1R-A2R & FeSCF226A1W_PT-2
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. SECTION-I is Physics, SECTION -II is Chemistry and SECTION -III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.
(i) PART–A (01–07) contains 7 Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Correct answer.
For each question in the group Q. 01 – 07 of PART – A you will be awarded
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −1
mark, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (08-14) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer
(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each table, there are Two multiple choice
questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer.
There is no negative marking.
(iv) Part-A (19-20) – This section contains Two (02) List-Match Sets, each List-Match set has One (01) Multiple
Choice Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. FOUR options are given in each
Multiple Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the
condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question. Each question carries +3 Marks for correct combination
chosen and -1 mark for wrong options chosen.
(v) Part-B (01-06) contains six (06) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Name of the Candidate :________________________________________________
Batch :________________________ Date of Examination :___________________
Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
PART – A
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
1. Two particles A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 Kg are kept at a separation of 1 m.

Both the particles are free to move. If the two particles are released from rest, then
mark out the correct statement(s)
(A) Both the particles experience an equal and opposite force.
(B) Magnitudes of acceleration of both the particles are the same.
(C) Magnitude of acceleration of both the particles are different.
(D) Magnitude of acceleration of A is double of that of B.
1. ACD
Sol. M1a1 = M2a2
2. A vehicle is going on a horizontal road towards west. The frictional force on the front
wheel of the vehicle by the road
(A) is towards west if the vehicle is accelerating.
(B) is zero if the vehicle is moving with a uniform velocity.
(C) must be towards west.
(D) must be towards east
(Neglect any force by the air)
2. AB
Sol. Friction is responsible for producing acceleration.
3. On which of the following no net force is acting?

(A) a drop of rain falling down with constant velocity.
(B) a cork of mass 10 g floating in water.
(C) a car moving with a constant velocity of 30 km h–1 on a rough road.
(D) a kite skillfully held stationary in the sky.
3. ABCD
4. The earth revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit, its speed
(A) is least when it is farthest from the sun
(B) is greatest when it is closest to the sun
(C) is greatest when it is farthest from the sun
(D) is constant at all the point on the orbit
4. AB
Sol. v1r1 = v2r2
5. A satellite of the planet Earth moving in circular orbit experiences air resistance.
Then, which of the following is correct?
(A) Its kinetic energy will increase
(B) Its potential energy will decrease
(C) It will burn off and in the process, the angular momentum will be conserved
(D) No change in orbital speed
5. ABC
Sol. Due to air resistance, some mechanical energy of the satellite will be converted into
GMm GMm
heat energy. So, there is loss of mechanical energy. So, decreases.
2r 2r
increases. Thus, r decreases. The satellite follows a spiral path towards the Earth.
 −GMm 
Potential energy   decreases and kinetic energy increases.
 r 
6. The force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing there is
more than the weight of the person if the elevator is
(A) going up and slowing down. (B) going up and speeding up.
(C) going down and slowing down. (D) going down and speeding up.
6. BC
Sol. The force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person standing there is
more than the weight of the person if the elevator is going up & speeding up and
going down & slowing down.
7. Mark out the correct statements.

(A) Static friction is always equal to sN.
(B) Static friction can be less than kN.
(C) Static friction may be greater than kN.
(D) Static friction can be equal to kN.
7. BCD
Sol. The correct statements are:
- Static friction can be less than kN.
- Static friction may be greater than kN.
- Static friction can be equal to kN.
Single Correct Choice Type

and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
8. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of mass m from earth’s surface to out of
earth’s field is
1 1 1
(A) mgR (B) mgR (C) mgR (D) mgR
8 4 2
8. D
2
1  2GM  2GMm
Sol. K.E. = m   = = mgR
2  R  2R
9. A hanging body of mass m1 is pulled by a force F = m2g acting

on the massless inextensible smooth string. The acceleration
of m1 is
m − m1 m
(A) 2 g (B) 1 g m1
m1 + m2 m2
m1m2 ( m2 − m1 ) F= m2g
(C) (D) g
( m1 + m2 ) g
2
m1
9. D
Sol.
M2g
M1 a
M1g
10. The value of g at the earth’s surface is 10 ms–2, the value of g at a height of 3 RE
from the surface of earth is
10 5
(A) ms–2 (B) ms–2
9 8
3 10
(C) ms–2 (D) ms–2
8 8
10. B
GM 5
Sol. g= 2
= m/s2
(4R) 8
11. The wheel of a car is rolling without skidding while the car is moving with 80 km/hr.
The frictional force acting on the wheel by the ground is
(A) static (B) kinetic
(C) dynamic (D) any one of the above
11. A
Sol. Point on tyre in contact with ground is at rest w.r.t. ground.
12. The magnitude of the force in Newton acting on a body varies with time t (in micro-
second) as is shown in figure. AB, BC and CD are straight line segments. The
magnitude of total impulse of the force on the body from t = 4 s and t = 16 s is
C
800
Force (F)
600
400
B
200
A
D
2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
Time (s)
−3
(A) 5 × 10 Ns (B) 5000 Ns
1
(C) 5 Ns (D) Ns
500
12. A
Sol. Impulse equals the area under the F – t graph.
13. A 1000 Kg aeroplane moves in straight flight with a constant velocity. The force of air
friction is 1800 N. The net force on the plane is
(A) zero (B) 1800 N
(C) 9000 N (D) 3600 N
13. A
Sol. Fnet = 0.
14. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 5 Kg, 3 Kg and 2 Kg respectively are placed on
a horizontal surface. If a force F = 10 N is applied on A as shown and then in second
case on C (show dotted), then the ratio of normal contact force between B and C in
first to second case is [ g = 10 ms-2 and neglect friction everywhere]
F A B C
(A) 13/12 (B) 12/13

(C) 1/4 (D) 4/1
14. C
2F
Sol. N1 =
10
8F N1 1
N2 =  =
10 N2 4
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 Paragraphs which has two multiple choice questions each. Each
question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Paragraph - I (15-16)
Two point masses of 2 kg and 5 kg are placed at a A B

distance of 5 m as shown in the figure. A point mass of 5m
2 kg 5 kg
1 kg has to be placed on the line joining them.
Based on above information answer the following questions:
15. If 1 kg mass is placed at the mid-point of AB, then it will experience a net force of
12G 12G
(A) N towards A (B) N towards B
25 25
28G 28G
(C) N towards A (D) N towards B
25 25
15. B
G  5  1 G  2  1 12G
Sol. F= − = N
(2.5)2 (2.5)2 25
16. The distance of the point from A where the 1 kg mass should be placed so that it
does not experience any net force, is
(A) 1.94 m (B) 2.68 m
(C) 1.52 m (D) 1.25 m
16. A
G  2 1 G  5 1
Sol. =
x2 (5 − x)2
 x = 1.94 m
Paragraph –II (17-18)
The aeroplane of mass ‘M’ moves with horizontal velocity ‘V’ at a height ‘H’, then it
explodes breaking into two pieces. If after explosion a piece of mass ‘m’ comes to
rest.
17. The following is conserved

(A) Kinetic energy (B) Momentum
(C) Neither momentum nor K.E. (D) Both momentum and K.E.
17. B
Sol. momentum is conserved.
18. Find the time, it will take to reach ground.

h H
(A) (B)
g V
2H
(C) (D) None of these
g
18. C
1 2
Sol. H= gt
2
Match Type
This section contains Two (02) List-Match Sets, each List-Match set has One (01) Multiple
Choice Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. FOUR options are given
in each Multiple Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four
options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Mass is the quality of matter in a physical body. Weight is the measure of the force of
gravity acting on a body.
List-I List-II
(I) Mass of an object (P) Same values at all places
(II) Weight (Q) Different values at different places
(III) Gravitational Constant (G) (R) Depends upon the mass of planet, say
earth.
(IV) Acceleration due to gravity (S) Does not depend upon the mass of planet.
19. Match the entries of Column I with the entries of Column II.
(A) I → PS ; II → QR ; III → RS ; IV → PR
(B) I → PS ; II → QR ; III → PS ; IV → QR
(C) I → QS ; II → QR ; III → QS ; IV → RS
(D) I → PS ; II → QS ; III → QR ; IV → PR
19. B
20. A body hangs from a spring balance supported from the roof of an elevator. If the
elevator moves up with an acceleration of 2m/s2, the spring balance reading is
120 N. (g = 10 m/s2).
List-I List-II
(I) The true weight of the body is ______ (N). (P) 150
(II) The acceleration of lift so that balance reads 100 (Q) 100
N is _______ (m/s2)
(III) The reading of the balance when lift cable breaks (R) 0
is _______ (N).
(IV) The spring balance reading will be zero when lift (S) 10
accelerates down at ______ (m/s2)
20. Based on above information, match the following columns.

(A) I → R ; II → P ; III → S ; IV → Q (B) I → S ; II → R ; III → P ; IV → S
(C) I → Q ; II → R ; III → R ; IV → S (D) I → Q ; II → P ; III → S ; IV → R
20. C
Sol. T – mg = ma
Mg = T – ma
T = 120 N
mg – T = ma
PART – B
Numerical Based
This section contains 6 questions. The answer of which maybe positive or negative numbers
or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +3 marks for
correct answer.
1. Two ends of a spring balance are pulled each by a force of 7 kg wt. What will be the
reading of the balance? (in Newton)
1. 68.6
Sol. 1 kg wt = 9.8 N
2. With what minimum acceleration (in m/sec2) can a fireman slide down a rope whose
breaking strength is 50% of his weight? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
2. 4.9
Sol. mg
T=
2
a
mg
3. Time period of two planets round the sun are in the ratio 1 : 8 then radii will be in the
ratio 1 : R. Find ‘R’.
3. 4
Sol.  1
2
 1
3
8 = R
   
4. A 10 kg block is supported by a cord and pulled upward with an acceleration of

2 ms–2. The tension in cord is ‘T’. Find T (in N). (Take g = 10 m/s2)
4. 120
Sol. T – mg = ma
T = 10 × 12 = 120
5. A planet is having a mass twice to that of earth’s mass and its radius as 4 times that
of the earth’s radius. Determine the acceleration due to gravity at the surface of this
planet. Acceleration due to gravity at the earth’s surface is 10 ms–2.
5. 1.25
Sol. g = GM/r2
6. In the given figure if F = 30 N, the acceleration of 5kg 5kg

both the blocks is a = 2 m/s2. The frictional force m2 m1 F
between m1 and ground is K times of 10 N. Find
‘K’. rough surface
6. 0.5
F−f
Sol. a=
m1 + m2
SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
PART – A
1. Which of the following is/are impure substances?

(A) Blood (B) Acid solutions
(C) Liquid Ammonia (D) Solid carbon dioxide
1. AB
Sol. Blood and acid solutions are impure substances.
2. Which of the following is/are present in emulsions?

(A) Liquid dispersed phase (B) Liquid dispersion medium
(C) Solid dispersed phase (D) Gaseous dispersion medium
2. AB
Sol. Liquid dispersed phase and liquid dispersion medium are present in emulsions.
3. Which separation process(es) is/are applied to separate copper sulphate from its
aqueous solution?
(A) Evaporation (B) Condensation
(C) Crystallization (D) Distillation
3. AC
Sol. Evaporation and crystallization are applied to separate copper sulphate from its
aqueous solutions.
4. Which of the following statement is true regarding the effect of temperature and
pressure on solubility?
(A) Solubility of gases in liquids usually decreases on increasing the temperature and
increases on decreasing the temperature.
(B) Solubility of solid in liquids remains unaffected by the change in pressure.
(C) Solubility of solid in liquids usually increases on increasing the temperature and
decreases on decreasing the temperature.
(D) Solubility of gases in liquids increases on increasing the pressure and decreases
on decreasing the pressure.
4. ABCD
Sol. All statements are true regarding the effect of temperature and pressure on solubility.
5. Which of these choices can change the state of matter?

(A) Temperature (B) Pressure
(C) Electricity (D) Crushing a crystal
5. ABC
Sol. Temperature, Pressure and Electricity can change the state of matter.
6. Select the correct statements among the following:

(A) Cheese is a colloidal solution of liquid in solid
(B) butter is a colloidal solution of liquid in liquid
(C) Milky glass is a colloidal solution of liquid in solid
(D) Protein is a colloidal solution of liquid in solid
6. AB
Sol. AB statements are correct.
7. Which of the following is a heterogeneous system?

(A) Muddy water (B) Bread
(C) A solution of sugar in water (D) Concrete
7. ABD
Sol. ABD forms a heterogeneous system.

8. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride. This is because:

(A) the blood starts flowing in the opposite direction
(B) the blood reacts and a solid is formed which seals the blood vessel
(C) the blood is coagulated and the blood vessels are sealed
(D) the ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
8. C
Sol. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride. This is because the blood is
coagulated and the blood vessels are sealed.
9. The weight of china dish with a saturated solution of sodium nitrate at 40°C is 80g.
After evaporating the whole solution the dish’s weight along with crystals is 40 g and
solubility of NaNO3 at 40°C is 20 g. What is weight of empty china dish?
(A) 30 g (B) 32 g (C) 34 g (D) 28 g
9. B
Sol. Let weight of empty china dish x g
Weight of saturated solution = (80 – x) g
Weight of NaNO3 crystal = (40 – x) g
Weight of H2O in saturated solution = 80 x – 40 + x = 40
wt. of NaNO3
 solubility =  100
wt. of water
10. Which of the following process is called peptization?

(A) Conversion of colloids to precipitate
(B) Conversion of precipitate to colloid
(C) Conversion of positively charged colloid to negatively charged colloid
(D) Conversion of negatively charged colloid to positively charged colloid.
10. B
Sol. Conversion of precipitate to colloid.
11. Calculate the amount of heat required to melt 20 gram of ice at its melting point?
Given latent heat of fusion of ice 80 cal g−1
(A) 1.6 K cal (B) 160 K cal
(C) 160 cal (D) 20 cal
11. A
Sol. Heat required by 20 gram
= 20  80 cal
= 1600 cal = 1.6 K cal
12. Match the following:

Column I Column II Column III
1. Components can be (i) Suspension (a) Colloidal solution
separated by magnet
2. It can be separated (ii) Dust particles in air (b) Heterogeneous
by filtration
3. It shows tydall effect (iii) Separating funnel (c) One of the component is
soluble in carbon disulphide
4. Mixture of kerosene (iv) Mixture of iron fillings (d) Immiscible liquids
oil and water and sulphur powder
(A) 1-(iv)-(a), 2-(v)-(c), 3-(ii)-(b); 4-(i)-(d) (B) 1-(iv)-(c), 2-(i)-(b), 3-(ii)-(a); 4-(iii)-(d)
(C) 1-(i)-(b), 2-(iv)-(c), 3-(iii)-(d); 4-(ii)-(a) (D) 1-(iv)-(c), 2-(i)-(b), 3-(i)-(d); 4-(iii)-(a)
12. B
Sol. 1-(iv)-(c), 2-(i)-(b), 3-(ii)-(a); 4-(iii)-(d)
13. 200 g of 25% (w/w) sodium hydroxide is prepared in the laboratory. Calculate the
volume of water utilized if density of water is 0.9 g/cc at experimental conditions.
(A) 110 cm3 (B) 111.11 cm3 (C) 160 cm3 (D) 166.7 cm3
13. D
Sol. 200 g of 25% (w/w) NaOH = 50 g of NaOH
Mass 150
Vol = = = 166.7cm3
Density 0.9
14. Which of the following is used to purify water?

(A) Lime water [Ca(OH)2] (B) Chlorine (Cl2)
(C) Brine (NaCl) (D) Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3)
14. B
Sol. Chlorine (Cl2) is used to purify water.
Comprehension Type
Crystallisation is a process that separates a pure solid in the form of its crystals from a
solution. A solid can also be separated from its solution by evaporation. However
crystallization technique is better than simple evaporation technique. We can get an impure
sample of a solid even after evaporation. Some solids decomposes or some may get
charred on heating to dryness during evaporation.
15. In which of the following processes, crystallization is used.

(A) Purification of salt that we get from sea water.
(B) To separate salt from sea water.
(C) To separate camphor from salt.
(D) To separate colours in a dye.
15. A
Sol. Impure salt is recrystallized to get pure salt.
16. Crystallization is a better process than evaporation because

(A) It takes lesser time
(B) Some impurities may remain in the filtrate which remain with the solid after
evaporation.
(C) Some solid is lost during evaporation
(D) Chemical properties change during evaporation.
16. B
Sol. Some impurities may get dissolved in the solvent and remain with the solid after
evaporation.
Pure substances can be elements or compounds. An element is a form of matter which

cannot be broken down by chemical reactions into simpler substances. A compound is a
substance composed of two or more different types of elements, chemically combined in a
fixed proportion. Properties of a compound are different from its constituent elements,
whereas a mixture shows the properties of its constituting elements or compounds.
17. The substance formed by mixing, crushing and heating iron filings and sulphur
powder is
(A) an element (B) a compound
(C) a mixture (D) a solution
17. B
Sol. On heating iron sulphide (FeS) is formed.
18. Name the element which becomes liquid at a temperature slightly above the room
temperature.
(A) Caesium (B) Silicon
(C) Iodine (D) Sodium
18. A
Sol. Caesium
Match Type

List-I List-II
(P) Rusting of iron 1. Physical as well as chemical change
(Q) Melting of wax 2. Chemical change
(R) Burning of candle 3. Physical change
(S) Baking of cake 4. No change
(A P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4 (B) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
(C) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2 (D) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
19. C
Sol. P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1, S – 2

List-I List-II
(P) Fog 1. Solid in gas
(Q) Smoke 2. Solid in solid
(R) Steel 3. Solid in liquid
(S) Toothpaste 4. Liquid in gas
(A P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 3 (B) P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
(C) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4 (D) P – 1, Q – 4, R – 3, S – 2
20. B
Sol. P – 4, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 3
PART – B
Numerical Based
correct answer.
1. A solution contains 40 g of common salt in 320 g of water. Calculate the
concentration in terms of mass by mass percentage.
1. 11.1%
Sol. Mass of common salt (solute) = 40 g
Mass of water (solvent) = 320 g
 Mass of the solution
= Mass of the solute + Mass of the solvent
= 40 + 320 = 360 g
Thus, (i) mass by mass percentage of the solute
Mass of the solute 40
=  100 =  100 = 11.1%
Mass of solution 360
2. A solution contains 5 mL of alcohol in 70 mL of water. Calculate the volume by

volume percentage of the solute.
2. 6.66%
Sol. Volume of alcohol (solute) = 5 mL
Volume of water (solvent) = 70 mL
 Volume of the solution = Volume of alcohol + Volume of water
Volume of solute 5
=  100 =  100 = 6.66%
Volume of solution 75
3. The weight percentage and volume percentage (w/v) of a solution are 22 and 44
respectively. The density of the solution is
3. 2
Sol. Weight percentage of the solution = 44
Volume percentage = density of solution  percentage by weight
volume% 44
 Density of the solution = = =2
weight% 22
4. Soap, tooth paste, smoke, coke, coal, hard water, bromine, magnesium oxide, sugar.
How many pure substance(s) is/are there in the above list?
4. 4
Sol. Soap, bromine, magnesium oxide, sugar
5. Which among the following are compounds?

Vinegar, Air, Brass, Glucose, Slaked lime, Baking soda, Fog, Coal, Gunpowder, Nitric
acid, Ammonia.
5. 5
Sol. Glucose, Slaked lime, Baking soda, Nitric acid, Ammonia are the compounds.
6. 500 mL of sugar solution contains 2 g of sugar. What is the concentration of the

solution in g/L unit?
6. 4
2
Sol. Concentration =  1000 = 4 g/L
500
SECTION – III (MATHEMATICS)
PART – A
1. The value(s) of ‘a’ in the equation: log10 ( a2 − 15a ) = 2 is/are:

15  233
(A) (B) 20, − 5
2
15  305
(C) (D) 20
2
1. B
Sol. Since log10 ( a2 − 15a ) = 2, then a2 − 15a = 102 = 100 .
The solution set for this quadratic equation is 20, − 5 .
2. In which of the following triangles area of a triangle is 120 cm2 ?

(A) Perimeter of a triangle is 60cm and ratio of its sides is 5 : 12 : 13
(B) Base of a triangle is 60cm with corresponding altitude as 4cm
(C) Equilateral triangle of side 60cm
(D) Triangle with sides 15cm, 36cm and 39cm
2. AB
Sol. For option (A) →
Perimeter of triangle = 60 cm
ratio of sides = 5:12:13
 5x + 12x + 13x = 60
 30x = 60  x = 2
 sides = 10, 24, 26
60
s= = 30 cm
2
 s − a = 30 − 10 = 20
s − b = 30 − 24 = 6
s − c = 30 − 26 = 4
 = 30  20  6  4 = 10  6  2 = 120cm2
For Option B→
1 P
 PQR =  60  4 = 120 cm2
2
Q R
60
For Option C →
A
3
  ABC = ( 60 )2
4
3
=  60  60
4
60 60
= 900 3 cm2
B C
60
For Option D→
a = 15, b = 36, c = 39
15 + 36 + 39 90
s= = = 45
2 2
 = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
  = 45  30  9  6 = 270cm2
So only option A, B are correct.
3. Which of the following is/are correct?

(A) In a ABC if AB = AC and B = 50° then A = 80°
(B) In a PQR, if R > Q then PQ > PR
(C) If S is any point in the interior of  PQR then SQ + SR < PQ + PR
(D) In a right triangle ABC right angled at B, AB is the largest side.
3. ABC
Sol. For Option A→
AB = AC A
 ABC = ACB = 50o

(
 A = 180o − 50o + 50o = 180o − 100o = 80o ) 80o
50o
50o
B C
For Option B→
 P
 PQ  PR


Q R
For Option C→
QS is produced to meet PR at T. P
T
S
Q R
Now, in PQT → PQ + PT  QT (i)
STR → ST + TR  SR (ii)
Adding both,
PQ + PT + ST + TR  QT + SR
 PQ + (PT + TR) + ST  QS + ST + SR
 PQ + PR + ST  QS + ST + SR
 PQ + PR  QS + SR
For Option D→
If B = 90o then AC will be C
hypotenuse
 AC is largest side.
Hence option A, B, C are correct.
B A
4. Which of the following is/are true for the observations 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7,

7, 7, 9, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10
(A) Mean = 6.25 (B) Median = 6
(C) Mode = 4 (D) Mode – Median = 3
4. ABD
Sol. 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 9, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10.
sum of observations
Mean =
number of observation
125
= = 6.25
20
Mode = 9
10th observation + 11th observation 6 + 6
Median = = =6
2 2
 Mode – Median = 9 – 6 = 3
5. Two sides of a triangle are 0.5 cm and 3 cm. Which of the following cannot be
the measure of third side?
(A) 1 cm (B) 3 cm
(C) 2 cm (D) 4 cm
5. ACD
Sol. 3 − 0.5  third side < 3 + 0.5
 2.5 cm  third side < 3.5 cm
So, length of third side can lie between 2.5 and 3.5 cm
6. ABC and DBC are two isosceles triangles on the same base BC and vertices A
and D are on the same side of BC. If AD is extended to intersect BC at P then
(A) ABD  ACD (B) ABP  ACP
(C) AP bisects A as well as D (D) AP is perpendicular bisector of BC
6. ABCD
Sol. AB = AC
 ABC = ACB …….(i)
BD = DC
 DBC = DCB …….(ii) A
By (i) and (ii)
 ABD = ACD ……..(iii)  
Now in ABD and ACD
AB = AC
BD = DC and ABD = ACD D
 ABD  ACD
 by CPCT → BAD = CAD =  (say)
Now, in ABP and ACP
 AB = AC
   
BAP = CAP B C
P
AP = AP
 BAP  CAP
 BP = CP and APB = APC = 90o
Similarly, DPB  DPC
7. Which of the following are measures of central tendency?

(A) mean (B) median
(C) mode (D) variance
7. ABC
Sol. Mean, mode and median are measure of central tendency.

8. The arithmetic mean and mode of a data is 24 and 12 respectively, then the
median of the data is
(A) 21 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 22
8. C
Sol. Mode = 3 median – 2 mean
 median = 20
9. Mean of 9 observations was found to be 35. Later on, it was detected that an
observation 80 was misread as 8. The correct mean is:
(A) 43 (B) 42
(C) 44 (D) 45
9. A
35  9 − 8 + 80
Sol. = 43
9
10. Find the length of smallest altitude of the triangle having sides 13 cm, 14 cm and
15cm.
(A) 12 cm (B) 12.2 cm
(C) 11.2 cm (D) 11 cm
10. C
Sol. a = 13 cm, b = 14 cm and c = 15 cm
a + b + c 42
s= = = 21 cm
2 2
 area of triangle = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
= 21 8  7  6
= 3 7 2 2 2 7 2 3
= 2 237
= 84 cm2
The smallest altitude will be on the longest side hence
1
 15  x = 84
2
84  2
=x= = 11.2 cm
15
11. ABC is an acute angled triangle in which ABC = 60 . If O be the orthocentre of

the triangle ABC, then OAC + OCA equals
(A) 150 (B) 120
(C) 60 (D) 30
11. C
Sol. C + 1 = 90o A
From ABD, B + 90 + BAD

o
= 180o  BAD = 30o 1

From
AFC, 90o + FAC + ACF = 180o F E
O
FAC + ACF = 90 o
2
 FAO + OAC + ACO = 90o
B
 OAC + ACO = 60o D C
The number of digits in ( 81)

24
12. is: (given log10 3 = 0.477 )
(A) 44 (B) 45
(C) 46 (D) None of these
12. C
x = ( 81)
24
Sol.
log x = log ( 81) = 24 log81
24
= 24  4log3
= 96 log3 = 96  0.477 = 45.792
 number of digits = 45 + 1 = 46
T S
13. In the figure, if AQ= QB, then which of
the following is correct?
(A) PQ = AP
C
(B) TB = BR
(C) PQ = QR B
A
(D) SA = AP
y y
x x
P R
Q
13. C
Sol. PAQ = 180 − x − y and T S
QBR = 180 − x − y
 PAQ = QBR = 180 − x − y
C
and AQ = BQ (given)
and AQP = BQR = y B
A
AQP  BQR
 PQ = QR and AP = BR 
y y
x x
P R
Q
14. In the figure AB = AC , angles BAD = 30 , and A
AE = AD . Then x equals:
(A) 20 (B) 10 30
1
(C) 12 (D) 15 E
2
x
B D C
14. D
(180 − 30 − a) = 75 −   and
1 a
Sol. Let DAE = a , then BCA =
2 2
(180 − a ) = 90 −   = ADE .
1 a
DEA =
2 2
a + ADE + x + BCA = 180;
 x = 15 ( degree )
Comprehension Type
If G is the centroid of the equilateral triangle ABC of perimeter 24cm then find
15. The length of AG

2 3 4 3
(A) cm (B) cm
3 3
5 3 8 3
(C) cm (D) cm
3 3
15. D
16. The area of triangle AGC

64 3 16 3
(A) cm2 (B) cm2
3 3
(C) 16 3cm2 (D) None of these
16. B
Sol. (15 and 16)
Side = 8 cm
3
Altitude =  8 = 4 3 cm
2
2 8
 AG =  4 3 = 3 cm
3 3
1 3 16 3
ar ( AGC ) =   (8) =
2
cm2
3 4 3
a+b+c
If sides of the triangle are a, b, c, then semi perimeter = s = and in radius
2

r= where  is area of the triangle ABC and s is semi perimeter.
s
If sides of a triangle are 48 cm, 14 cm and 50 cm then
17. Area of triangle is

(A) 336 cm2 (B) 416 cm2
(C) 280 cm2 (D) None of these
17. A
Sol. Sides of the triangle are 48, 14, 50 cm
48 + 14 + 50
 s= = 56
2
  = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
= 56  8  42  6
= 788676
= 786
= 336cm2
18. Radius of its incircle is

(A) 10 cm (B) 8 cm
(C) 6 cm (D) None of these
18. C
 336
Sol. r= = =6
s 56
Match Type
19. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
( )
(A) 1 (P) 2
log 2 128
7
(B) log2 3  log3 2  log3 9 (Q) 0
(C) log0.2 625 − log1/2 16 (R) 1
(D) m+n n+ +m (S) 4
 am   an  a 
 n    m =
a  a  a 
(A) a−p; b− q; c−r; d−r (B) a−p; b− r; c−r; d− p

(C) a−p; b− p; c−q; d− r (D) a−p; b− s; c−q; d− r
19. C
Sol.
1 1  1
(A) log 2 (128 ) =  log1/2 27  =  7  2log2 2
7 7 7
=2
(B) log2 3  log3 2  log3 9

log3 log2 log9
=  
log2 log3 log3
log9 2log3
= = =2
log3 log3
(C) log0.2 625 − log1/2 16

log625 log16
= −
log0.2 log (1/ 2 )
log54 log24 4 4
 − = − = −4 + 4 = 0
( )
log 5 −1
log 2 ( ) −1 −1 ( −1)
m +n n+ +m
 am   an  a 
(D)  n     m 
a  a  a 
( ) ( ) ( )
m +n n+ +m
= am−n  an−  a −m
2
−n2 2
− 2 2
−m2
= am  an a
= am −n +n − 2+ −m2
2 2 2 2
= a0 = 1
20. Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(A) In a right angled triangle having legs 3 cm and 4 cm the (P) 6 cm
length of the perpendicular from vertex of right angle to
the hypotenuse is________
(B) In a PQR, R = P and QR = 4cm, PR = 5cm. The (Q) 10 cm
length of the median from P is_____
(C) The length of each side of equilateral triangle of area (R) 2.4 cm
9 3 cm2 is __________________
(D) The base of a right triangle is 8cm and its area is 24 cm2. (S) 16.5 cm
The hypotenuse is of length _______
(A) a−s; b− r; c−p; d−q (B) a−r; b− s; c−p; d− q

(C) a−r; b− r; c−p; d− q (D) a−r; b− p; c−s; d− q
20. B
Sol.
A
(A) AC = 32 + 42 = 5
1 1
  ABC =  3  4 =  BP  AC
2 2
12
 12 = BP  5  BP = = 2.4 cm .
5 3 P
B 4 C
(B) P = Q P
 PQ = QR = 4
In PQR 
By Apollonius theorem →
PQ2 + PR2 = 2 PT2 + QT2 ( ) 5
 42 + 52 = 2 PT2 + QT2 ( ) 4
16 + 25 − 8
 = PT 2
2
33 
 PT = cm Q R
2 T
4
A
3 2
(C)  ABC = 4
a =9 3
a2 = 36
a = 6 cm a a
B a C
P
1
(D)  a  8 = 24  a = 6
2
 PR = 62 + 82 = 10 cm
Q R
8
PART – B
Numerical Based
correct answer.
3a x
If logab a = 4 and value of logab  = (where x and y are coprime) then x − 2y =
 b  y
1.
 
1. 5
logab a = 4  a = ( ab )  a = a 4b 4
4
Sol.
1 −3
 a3b 4 = 1  b = 3 3
 b = ( ab )
a b
3a
= logab ( a ) − logab b1/2
1/3
logab 
 b 
 
( )
1/3 −3/2
= logab a4b4 − logab ( ab )
−3/2
= logab ( ab ) − logab ( ab )
4/3
4 3 8 + 9 17 x
+ = = = =
3 2 6 6 y
 x − 2y = 17 − 2  6 = 17 − 12 = 5
2
 AB  a
2. ABC is an equilateral triangle in which AD ⊥ BC . If   = b , (where a and b are
 AD 
coprime) then find value of a + b
2. 7
A
x2 4x 2 − x 2 3
Sol. AD = x − = 2
= x
4 4 2
2
 
 AB 
2  x   2 
2
4
  =  =  =
 AD   3   3 3 x x
 x
 2 
a 4
 =
b 3
a+b = 4+3 =7
B C
D
x/2 x/2
3. The base of an isosceles triangle is 6cm and each of its equal sides is 5cm. Then
height of the triangle(in cm) on side 6 cm is:
3. 4
Sol. AD ⊥ BC A
 BD = DC = 3
 AD = 52 − 32 = 4 cm
5 5
B C
6
median
4. If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively then the value of is:
8
4. 8
Sol. Mode = 60
Mean = 66
 Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
 60 = 3  Median − 2  66
60 + 2  66
 = Median
3
192
 Median = = 64
3
Median 64
 = =8
8 8
5. A boat takes 3 hours to travel 30 km downstream and takes 5 hours to return to

the same spot upstream. Find the speed of the boat in still water. (km/hr)
5. 8
5. Suppose speed of boat = x km/hr
Speed of stream = y km/hr
 ( x + y )  3 = 30  x + y = 10
( x − y ) 5 = 30  x − y = 6
On Adding
 2x = 16
x=8
Speed of boat = 8 km/ hr
6. The number of runs scored by 11 players of a cricket team are 5, 19, 42, 11, 50, 30,
median
21, 0, 52, 36, 27. Find the value of .
27
6. 1
Sol. 5, 19, 42, 11, 50, 30, 21, 0, 52, 36, 27 arranging it in ascending order
0, 5, 11, 19, 21, 27, 30, 36, 42, 50, 52
 Median will be 6th observation = 27
Median 27
 = =1
27 27

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Four Yr CRP226 (R & W)_PT-2_IITJEE-1

FIITJEE - INTERNAL PHASE TEST

Name of the Candidate :________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

1. Two particles A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 Kg are kept at a separation of 1 m.

3. On which of the following no net force is acting?

7. Mark out the correct statements.

Single Correct Choice Type

9. A hanging body of mass m1 is pulled by a force F = m2g acting

(A) 13/12 (B) 12/13

Two point masses of 2 kg and 5 kg are placed at a A B

Based on above information answer the following questions:

17. The following is conserved

18. Find the time, it will take to reach ground.

20. Based on above information, match the following columns.

4. A 10 kg block is supported by a cord and pulled upward with an acceleration of

6. In the given figure if F = 30 N, the acceleration of 5kg 5kg

1. Which of the following is/are impure substances?

2. Which of the following is/are present in emulsions?

5. Which of these choices can change the state of matter?

6. Select the correct statements among the following:

7. Which of the following is a heterogeneous system?

Single Correct Choice Type

8. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride. This is because:

10. Which of the following process is called peptization?

12. Match the following:

14. Which of the following is used to purify water?

15. In which of the following processes, crystallization is used.

16. Crystallization is a better process than evaporation because

Paragraph –II (17-18)

Pure substances can be elements or compounds. An element is a form of matter which

19. Match the following:

20. Match the following:

2. A solution contains 5 mL of alcohol in 70 mL of water. Calculate the volume by

5. Which among the following are compounds?

6. 500 mL of sugar solution contains 2 g of sugar. What is the concentration of the

1. The value(s) of ‘a’ in the equation: log10 ( a2 − 15a ) = 2 is/are:

2. In which of the following triangles area of a triangle is 120 cm2 ?

3. Which of the following is/are correct?

 ABC = ACB = 50o

4. Which of the following is/are true for the observations 2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7,

7. Which of the following are measures of central tendency?

Single Correct Choice Type

11. ABC is an acute angled triangle in which ABC = 60 . If O be the orthocentre of

From ABD, B + 90 + BAD

= 180o  BAD = 30o 1

The number of digits in ( 81)

14. In the figure AB = AC , angles BAD = 30 , and A

15. The length of AG

16. The area of triangle AGC

If sides of a triangle are 48 cm, 14 cm and 50 cm then

17. Area of triangle is

18. Radius of its incircle is

19. Match the following

(A) a−p; b− q; c−r; d−r (B) a−p; b− r; c−r; d− p

(B) log2 3  log3 2  log3 9

(C) log0.2 625 − log1/2 16

20. Match the following

(A) a−s; b− r; c−p; d−q (B) a−r; b− s; c−p; d− q

5. A boat takes 3 hours to travel 30 km downstream and takes 5 hours to return to

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Batch :______ Date of Examination :_