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FIITJEE – INTERNAL Phase Test

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

QP CODE: 100563 PAPER - 1


Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
BATCH – NWCM2125O1S _PT3

OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A & B of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) PART–A (01–03) contains (3) Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result
in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (04-07) – Contains Four (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(iii) Part-A (08-11) – This section contains Four (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice
Question. Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II
has Five entries (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based
on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple
Choice Question. Each question carries +3 Marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(iii) Part-B (01-06) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-
NEGATIVE INTEGER. For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer. Each
question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate: ____________________________________________

Batch: ____________________ Date of Examination: ___________________

Enrolment Number: _______________________________________________

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2 NWCM2125O1S_PT-3_Paper-1

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two


compartments I and II. The same gas fills the two compartments
whose initial parameters are given. The partition is a conducing
wall which can move freely without friction. Which of the following
statement is/are correct, with reference to the final equilibrium
position?
(A) The pressure in the two compartments are equal.
3V
(B) Volume of compartment I is
5
12V
(C) Volume of compartment II is
5
5P
(D) Final pressure in compartment I is
3

2. Two waves travelling in opposite directions produce a standing wave. The individual wave
functions are given by y1 = 4 sin(3x – 2t) and y2 = 4 sin(3x + 2t) cm, where x and y are in cm
3
(A) The maximum displacement of the motion at x = cm is 4 cm.
4

(B) The maximum displacement of the motion at t = sec is 4 2 cm .
6
(C) Nodes are formed at x values given by 0, /3, 2/3, , 4/3, ………..
(D) Antinodes are formed at x values given by /6, /2, 5/6, 7/6, ………….

3. n moles of an ideal gas undergo an isothermal process at P


temperature T. P-V graph of the process is as shown in the
figure. A point A (V1, P1) is located on the P-V curve. Tangent at A (P1, V1)
point A, cuts the V-axis at point D. AO is the line joining the point
A to the origin O of PV diagram. Then,
O V
 3V  D
(A) coordinates of points D is  1 , 0 
 2 
(B) coordinates of points D is ( 2V1, 0 )
(C) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
3
(D) area of the triangle AOD is nRT
4
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(Single Correct Answer Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. A rain drop of radius 1.5 mm, experiences a drag force F = 2  10−5 v N , while falling ( )
through air from a height 2 km, with a velocity v. The terminal velocity of the rain drop will be
nearly (use g = 10m/s2–)
(A) 200 m/s (B) 80 m/s
(C) 7 m/s (D) 3 m/s

5. A travelling wave is given by


0.8
y= 2
3x + 12xt + 12t 2 + 4
Where x and y are in m and t is in sec, then velocity and amplitude of wave will be
(A) 2 m/s, 0.2 m (B) 4 m/s, 0.2 m
(C) 2 m/s, 0.4 m (D) none of these

6 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken from A to C


along the path ABC. The temperature of the gas at A is T0.
For the process ABC (where R is gas constant). Which of 2P0 C
the following is incorrect,
11
(A) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
12
P0 B
11 A
(B) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
2
(C) Work done by the gas = RT0
V0 2V0
9
(D) Change in internal energy of gas is RT0
2
u
7. A wall is moving with velocity u and a source of sound moves with velocity in the same
2
direction as shown in figure. Assuming sound is travelling with 10u velocity. The ratio of incident
sound wavelength on the wall to the reflected sound wavelength by the wall is equal to

(A) 9 : 11 (B) 11 : 9 (C) 4 : 5 (D) 5 : 4


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(Matching List Sets)


This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings, 1, 2, 3 and 4 with mass per
unit length , 2, 3 and 4 respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings by
varying the free length in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1.() at free
length L0 and tension T0 the fundamental mode frequency is f0.
List-I gives the above four strings while List-II lists the magnitude of some quantity.

List-I List-II
(P) String-1 () (1) 1
(Q) String-2 (2) (2) 1/ 2
(R) String-3 (3) (3) 1/ 2
(S) String-4 (4) (4) 1/ 3
(5) 3 / 16

If the tension in each string is T0 the correct match for the highest fundamental frequency in
f0 units will be.
(A) P → 1 ; Q → 3 ; R → 4 ; S → 2 (B) P → 2 ; Q → 4 ; R → 3 ; S → 1
(C) P → 1 ; Q → 2 ; R → 5 ; S → 4 (D) P → 2 ; Q → 1 ; R → 3 ; S → 5

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9. In the thermodynamic process on an ideal monatomic gas, the infinitesimal heat absorbed
by the gas is given by TX. where T is temperature of the system and X is the infinitesimal
change in a thermodynamic quantity X of the system. For a mole of monatomic ideal gas
3  T   V 
X = R ln   + R ln   . Here R is gas constant. V is volume of gas. TA and VA are
2  TA   VA 
constants.

The List-I below gives some quantities involved in a process and List-II gives some possible
values of these quantities.

List – I List – II
(P) Work done by the system in process 1→2→3 (1) 1
RT0 ln 2
3
(Q) Change in internal energy in process 1→2→3 (2) 1
RT0
3
(R) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1→2→3 (3) RT0
(S) Heat absorbed by the system in process 1→2 (4) 4
RT0
3
(5) 5
RT0
6

If the process carried out on one mole of monatomic ideal gas is as shown in figure in the
1
PV-diagram with P0 V0 = RT0 , the correct match is.
3

(A) P → 2 ; Q → 3 ; R → 4 ; S → 5 (B) P → 2 ; Q → 4 ; R → 3 ; S → 5
(C) P → 2 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 5 (D) P → 4 ; Q → 3 ; R → 2 ; S → 5
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10. A long wire ABC is made by joining two wires AB and BC of


equal area of cross section. AB has length 4.8 m and mass
0.12 kg while BC has length 2.56 m and mass 0.4 kg. The A B C
wire is under a tension of 160 N. A wave Y (in cm) = 3.5 sin
(kx – wt) is sent along ABC from end A. No power is
dissipated during propagation of wave.

List-I List-II
(P) Amplitude of reflected wave (1) 2.0
(Q) Amplitude of transmitted wave (2) 1.5
(R) Maximum displacement of antinodes in (3) 5
the wire AB
(S) Percentage fraction of power transmitted in (4) 82
the wire BC
(5) 92

The correct option is:


(A) P → 2 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 5 (B) P → 2 ; Q → 1 ; R → 4 ; S → 3
(C) P → 2 ; Q → 1 ; R → 3 ; S → 4 (D) P → 4 ; Q → 5 ; R → 1 ; S → 2

11. A rectangular block of density , base area A and height h is kept on m


h
a spring. The lower end of spring is fixed on the bottom of an empty
vessel of base area 2A. The block compresses the spring by h/4 at
equilibrium. The vessel is then slowly filled by a liquid of density 2 till k
the spring becomes relaxed. The block is then slowly pushed inside
the liquid till it is immersed completely. Work done to slowly push the
block completely inside is W1, work done by gravity on the block is
W2, and work done by upthrust is W3.
Match the following based on the above statements.

List-I List-II
(P) | W1 | (1) 5gh A 2

8
(Q) | W2 | (2) gh2 A

4
(R) | W3 | (3) 3gh2 A
4
(S) W3 (4) gh2 A
4
(5) 3gh2 A

4

The correct option is:


(A) P → 1 ; Q → 3 ; R → 5 ; S → 2 (B) P → 1 ; Q → 4 ; R → 3 ; S → 5
(C) P → 1 ; Q → 4 ; R → 3 ; S → 3 (D) P → 2 ; Q → 3 ; R → 1 ; S → 5
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(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)
1. A string of length 20 cm and linear mass density 0.40 g/cm is fixed
at both ends and is kept under a tension of 16 N. A wave pulse is
produced at t = 0 near an end as shown in figure which travels
towards the other end. The string will have the shape shown in the
figure again after k × 10–2 s, then ‘k’ is

2. Consider the adjacent figure, a piston divides a cylindrical Adiabatic


container into two parts. The left part contains 1 mole of Partition wall
helium gas and the right part contains two moles of oxygen
gas. The initial temperatures and pressures of the gases in
the left chamber are T0 and P0 and the right chamber are 1 mole He 2 mole O2
P0, T0 P0, T0/2
T0
& P0 respectively, as shown in the figure. The piston as
2
well as the walls of the container are adiabatic. After
removal of the piston, gases mix homogeneously and the
4n
final pressure becomes P = P0 . Find the value of ‘n’.
13

3. Heat is transferred to a heat engine from a furnace at a rate of 80 mW. If the rate of heat
75
rejection is 50 mW, then percentage efficiency of the engine is . Find the value of ‘N’.
N

4. A liquid X of density 3.36 g/cm3 is poured in a U-tube, which Y X


contains Hg. Another liquid Y is poured in left arm with height 8 cm 10 cm
8 cm. Upper levels of X and Y are same. The density of Y is
N
 5  gm/cc. Find the value of ‘N’.
 

5. A tuning fork of frequency 340 Hz is vibrated just above a cylindrical tube of length 130 cm.
Water is slowly poured in the tube. If the speed of sound is 340 ms–1 then the minimum
height of water required for resonance is (in cm).

6. A large tank is filled with water to a height H. A small hole is made at the base of the tank.
It takes T1 time to decrease the height of water to H/ 9 and it takes T2 time to take out the
rest of water. Find T1 / T2
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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. CH 3CH 2CH = CH 2, CH 3 - C = CH 2

CH3
(I) (II)
(A) Order of heat of hydrogenation : I > II
(B) Heat of combustion: I > II
(C) Heat of atomization: II > I
(D) Enthalpy of HCl (electrophilic) addition: I > II

(hv) Product(s)
NBS ion
titut
S ubs action-I
CH 3CH 2CH = CH 2 e
2. NBS R
/hv
Ad
Rea dition
ctio Product(s)
n-II

Choose correct statement(s) from the following(Consider stereisomers).


(A) Reaction-I gives more than one product
(B) Reaction – II also gives more than one product
(C) No products show optical isomerism
(D) No product shows geometrical isomerism

3. Reagent −I
CH3 − C  C − CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ ( X)

Reagent-II

H H
H3C CH3
Br Br
(A) Reagent-I may be Na/liquid NH3
(B) Reagent-II may be Br2/CS2
(C) The oxidation product of (X) may be CH3COOH
(D) The end product of the reaction is an optically active compound
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(Single Correct Answer Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. The most reactive compound towards CHCl3/KOH is


(A) 2-butyne (B) 1-butyne
(C) cis-2-butene (D) trans-2-butene

5. Which has the largest number of stereoisomers?


(A) CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH2 – CH = CH2
(B) CH 3CH = CH - CH - CH = CHCH 3
Cl
(C) CH 3CH = CH - CH - CH = CHC 2H5
Cl
(D) CH 3 CH = CH - CH - CH 2 - CH = CH 2

CH3

X Y

6.
and

The stability of above two compounds will increase if


(A) X departs as X- and Y as Y+ (B) X departs as X+ and Y as Y–
- –
(C) X departs as X and Y as Y (D) X departs as X+ and Y as Y+

7. Which isomerism is not given by 2-butyne?


(A) Chain isomerism (B) Position isomerism
(C) Functional isomerism (D) Geometrical isomerism
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(Matching List Sets)


This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. Match the atoms or group of atoms mentioned in list - I with their electronic effects
mentioned in list - II.
List – I List – II
(P) CH3 (1) Stabilize carbocations by pi-electrons
and destabilize them by sigma electrons

(Q) OH (2) Stabilize carbocations only by sigma
electrons
(R) NO2− (3) Destabilise carbocations by both - and
- electrons
(S) Cl– (4) Destabilize carbanions by -electrons
and stabilize carbanions by -electrons
(5) Stabilize carbanions by sigma as well as
pi-electrons
(A) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2 (B) P – 2; Q – 1; R – 3; S – 4
(C) P – 2; Q – 5; R – 4; S – 3 (D) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 5; S – 2

9. Match the hydrocarbons mentioned in list - I with their properties mentioned in list - II.
List – I List – II
(P) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (1) Functional isomer can form salt with
NaNH2
(Q) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (2) Temperature dependent addition
products are formed
(R) CH3 – C  C – CH3 (3) Two moles of the same product is
formed by ozonolysis reaction
(S) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 (4) Undergoes no addition reaction
(5) Free radical halogenation form three
monochloro products
(A) P – 5; Q – 2; R – 3; S – 1 (B) P – 4; Q – 3; R – 1; S – 2
(C) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 1; S – 5 (D) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 5; S – 4

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10. Match the reactions mentioned in list - I with the nature of their products mentioned in list - II.
List – I List – II
(P) CH 3 (1) Product after hydrogenation reaction
shows only geometrical isomerism
Cl
Alcoholic KOH (E2 )
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
1, 2−elimination

CH3
(Q) CH3 (2) Product after hydrogenation shows both
geometrical and optical isomerism
Cl
Alcoholic KOH (E 2 )
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
1, 2−elimination

CH3
(R) CH3 (3) Product before hydrogenation shows
optical isomerism
Cl
Alcoholic KOH (E 2 )
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
1, 2−elimination

CH3
(S) CH3 (4) One product is formed in the reaction
CH3
Alcoholic KOH ( E2 )
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
1, 2−elimination

Cl
(5) More than one product is formed in the
reaction
(A) P – 4; Q – 3; R – 2; S – 1 (B) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 2; S – 1
(C) P – 2; Q – 1; R – 5; S – 3 (D) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 5

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11. Match the benzoid compounds mentioned in list - I with the properties of their EAS products
mentioned in list - II.
List – I List – II
(P) CH 2CH 2CH 2COCl (1) Product reacts with Cl2/hv and
Anhy.AlCl3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
Cl2/Fe

(Q) (2) Cyclic product is formed


Anhy.AlCl3
+ ClCH2CH2Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →

( 2 moles)
(R) CH2Cl (3) Major product forms two
Anhy.AlCl3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → monochloro products upon free
radical chlorination(Consider
optical isomerism)
( 2 moles)
(S) (4) Major product contains one Cl
+ CH3 Cl ( excess )
Anhy.AlCl3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
atom

(5)
Forms most stable carbocation
intermediate
(A) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 5 (B) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 5; S – 4
(C) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 5; S – 1 (D) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 4; S – 1

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

1. CH 3 - CH - CH - CH - CH - C 2H5
Cl Cl Cl Cl

NaNH 2(excess)

( X ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Lindlar 's catalyst
Excess
→ (Y)

Br2(excess)/ CCl 4

(Z)
How many structural isomer(s) is/are formed as the end product of above reaction?

2. A saturated hydrocarbon(X) forms more than one dichloro products. The molar mass of one
of the dichloroproduct is 113 g mol–1. How many dichloro product(s) is/are formed by the
hydrocarbon(X)? (Consider stereoisomers)
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3. NO2

CH3COCl,Anhy.AlCl3
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Product
C6H6

How many oxygen atoms(s) is/are present in the product of above reaction?

4. 2CHCl3 + Ag ⎯⎯→ (P) + AgCl


How many sp-hybridized carbon atoms are present in (P)?

5. Formula of an organic compound C4H10O.


If a = Number of metamers possible with the formula
b = Number of tertiary alcohols possible with the formula
What is the value of (a + b)?

6. How many aromatic isomer(s) is/are possible with formula C7H8O?


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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

1. If x 4 + 3 cos ( ax 2 + bx + c ) = 2 ( x 2 − 2 ) has two solutions with a,b,c  ( 2,5 ) then


(A) a + b + c =  (B) a − b + c = 
(C) a + b + c = 3 (D) a − b + c = 3

( )
n
2. If 9 + 80 = I + f where I, n are integers and 0  f  1, then
(A) I is an odd integer (B) I is an even integer
(C) (I + f )(1 − f ) = 1 ( )
n
(D) 1 − f = 9 − 80

3. Number of shortest ways in which we can reach from the point (0, 0, 0) to point (3, 7, 11) in
space where the movement is possible only along the x – axis, y – axis and z – axis or
parallel to them and change of axes is permitted only at integral points (an integral point is
one, which has its coordinates as integer) is:
(A) equivalent to number of ways of dividing 21 different objects in three groups of size 3, 7,
11
(B) equivalent to coefficient of y3 z7 in the expansion of (1 + y + z )
21

(C) equivalent to number of ways of distributing 21 different objects in three boxes of size 3,
7, 11
(D) equivalent to number of ways of arranging 21 objects of which 3 are alike of one kind, 7
are alike of second type and 11 are alike of third type

(Single Correct Answer Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
   
4. ( 2
)( )
The solution set of inequality cot −1 x tan−1 x +  2 −  cot −1 x − 3 tan−1 x − 3  2 −   0, is:
 2
(A) x  ( tan 2,tan 3 ) (B) x  ( cot 3, cot 2)
(C) x  ( −, tan2)  ( tan 3,  ) (D) x  ( −, cot 3)  ( cot 2,  )

x2 y2 x2 y2 1
5. The foci of the ellipse + 2 = 1 and the hyperbola − = coincide. Then the
16 b 144 81 25
value of b 2 is:
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 9 (D) 1
Space For Rough Work

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6. ABCD is a convex quadrilateral and 3, 4, 5 and 6 points are marked on the sides AB, BC,
CD and DA respectively. The number of triangles with vertices on different sides is:
(A) 270 (B) 220
(C) 282 (D) none of these

7. 7 different coloured balls are to be kept in 5 different boxes. A box may contain any
number of balls and no box is empty (order of balls is considered in the boxes). Then
number of such ways are:
(A) 7!. 6C4 (B) 7!.5! 6C2
(C) 7!.5! (D) none of these

(Matching List Sets)


This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets. Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question. Each set
has TWO lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (P), (Q), (R) and (S) and List-II has Five entries (1),
(2), (3), (4) and (5). FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.

8. Match the following


Column-I Column-II
(P) Four different movies are running in a town. Ten (1) 11
students go to watch these four movies. The number of
ways in which every movie is watched by at least one
student, is:
(Assume each way differs only by number of students
watching a movie)
(Q) Consider 8 vertices of a regular octagon and its centre. If (2) 36
T denotes the number of triangles and S denotes the
number of straight lines that can be formed with these 9
points then the value of ( T − S ) equals
(R) In an examination, 5 children were found to have their (3) 52
mobiles in their pocket. The Invigilator fired them and
took their mobiles in his possession. Towards the end of
the test. Invigilator randomly returned their mobiles. The
number of ways in which at most two children did no get
their own mobiles is
(S) The number of ways in which a mixed double tennis (4) 60
game can be arranged from amongst 5 married couple if
no husband and wife plays in the same game, is
(5) 84
(A) P → 5, Q →1, R →4, S →2 (B) P → 1, Q →3, R →1, S →4
(C) P → 5, Q →1, R →3, S →5 (D) P → 1, Q →2, R →5, S →3
Space For Rough Work

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9. Match the following


Column-I Column-II
(P) The coefficient of x 7 in the expansion of (1) –144
(1 − x − x )
6
2
+x 3
is
(Q) The sum of the two middle coefficients of (1 + x )9 is (2) 19
(R)
( ) (3) 35
4
The coefficient of x 4 in the expansion of 1 + x + x 2 is
(S) 8 8 8 8 8 (4) 252
  −   +   −   +   is
 0   1  2   3   4 
(5) 195
(A) P → 5, Q →1, R →4, S →2 (B) P → 1, Q →3, R →1, S →4
(C) P → 5, Q →1, R →3, S →5 (D) P → 1, Q →4, R →2, S →3

10. Match the following


Column-I Column-II
(P) The area of the triangle that a tangent at a point of the (1) 12
x2 y2
hyperbola − = 1 makes with its asymptotes
16 9
(Q) If the line y = 3x +  touches the curve 9x2 − 5y2 = 45 (2) 6
then  is
(R) If the chord x cos  + y sin  = P of the hyperbola (3) 24
2 2
x y
− = 1 subtends a right angle at the centre, then
16 18
the radius of the circle concentric with the hyperbola to
which the given chord is a tangent is
(S) If  be the length of the latus rectum of the hyperbola (4) 32
16x − 9y + 32x + 36y − 164 = 0, then 3 is equal to
2 2

(5) 30
(A) P → 5, Q →1, R →4, S →2 (B) P → 1, Q →3, R →1, S →4
(C) P → 5, Q →1, R →3, S →5 (D) P → 1, Q →2, R →1, S →4

11. Match the following columns:


Column-I Column-II
(P) 2 cot ( cot ( 3 ) + cot ( 7 ) + cot −1 (13 ) + cot −1 ( 21) )
−1 −1
has the (1) 3
value equal to
(Q) If (2) 4
  1  1  1  1  m
tan  tan−1   + tan−1   + tan−1   + ... + tan−1   =
 3 7  13   381   n
where m,n  N , then the least value of (m + n + 2) is
(R) Number of integral ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the (3) 5
1 1 1
equation arc tan + arc tan = arc tan , is
x y 10
(S) The smallest positive integral value of n for which (4) 8
(n − 2) x2 + 8x + n + 4  sin−1 (sin12) + cos−1 (cos12)  x R, is
(5) 10
(A) P → 5, Q →1, R →4, S →2 (B) P → 5, Q →1, R →3, S →5
(C) P → 1, Q →1, R →2, S →3 (D) P → 1, Q →2, R →1, S →4
Space For Rough Work

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(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

1. There are four balls of different colours and four boxes of colours, same as those of the
balls. The number of ways in which the balls, one each in a box, could be placed such that a
ball does not go to a box of its own colour is ____

 1 1 
2. If the coefficients of x −2 and x −4 in the expansion of  x 3 + 1  , ( x  0 ) , are m and n
 
 2x 3 
m
respectively, then is equal to
n

3. Let  1 be the area of PQR inscribed in an ellipse and  2 be the area of the P'Q'R'
whose vertices are the points lying on the auxiliary circle corresponding to the points P, Q,
4 3 
R, respectively. If the eccentricity of the ellipse is , then the ratio 343 2 must be ___
7 1

4. An isosceles ABC is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 = 16, A = (0, 4 ) . From points A, B and C
x2 y2
three ordinates are drawn which cut the ellipse + = 1 at the points P, Q and R
16 9
respectively such that A and P are on the opposite sides, Q and B are on the same side and
C and R are on the same side of the major axis. If PQR is right angled at P and  is the
smallest angle of the ABC, then find the value of 16 tan2  + 8 tan  + 9 .


5. (
Find the number of solutions of equation sin−1 4 sin2  + sin  + cos−1 ( −1 + 6 sin  ) = ) 2
,

  0, 5

  5 −1 10 + 2 5
6. If the sum of all values of x   0,  satisfying the equation + = 8 is,
 2  sin x cos x
 k 
 10  , then find the value of k.
 
Space For Rough Work

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FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


BATCH: NWCM2125O1S
PHASE TEST–3: PAPER-1
Code: 100563
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEYS
Physics
PART – A
1. ABCD 2. CD 3. BC 4. C
5. A 6. A 7. A 8. A
9. A 10. C 11. B
PART – B
1. 2 2. 3 3. 2 4. 7
5. 5 6. 2

Chemistry
PART – A
1. ABC 2. AB 3. ABC 4. C
5. C 6. B 7. D 8. B
9. B 10. C 11. D
PART – B
1. 4 2. 5 3. 1 4. 2
5. 4 6. 5

Mathematics
PART – A
1. BC 2. ACD 3. ABD 4. B
5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B
9. D 10. D 11. C
PART – B
1. 9 2. 182 3. 2401 4. 24
5. 6 6. 4

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