Chemical changes or reactions that occur within the body are collectively known as

A. Metabolism
B. Physiology
C. Assimilation
D. Excretion

2. Which of the following lists best illustrates the idea of increasing levels of complexity?
A. Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, systems
B. Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, systems
C. Organs, organelles, systems, cells, tissues
D. Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, system

3. Homeostasis is defined as the

A. Ability of human beings to keep body weight within normal limits
B. Maintenance of a constant external temperature inside a room
C. Ingestion of enough food to keep hunger pains from developing
D. Tendency of the body to maintain a stable environment

4. How is oxygen used by living organisms?

A. It controls the amount of heat produced
B. Its a source of energy
C. It is used to release energy that is stored in food
D. It is part of water and is necessary to keep organisms hydrated

5. Which of the following organs is located in the abdominopelvic cavity?

A. Heart
B. Trachea
C. Thymus gland
 D. Kidney

6. The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the

A. Visceral pleura
B. Parietal pleura
C. Visceral pericardium
D. Parietal pericardium

7. A section that separates the body in to right and left portions would be the
A. Frontal section
B. Transverse section
C. Coronal section
D. Sagittal section

8. The thoracic cavity lies where in relationship to the abdominopelvic cavity?

A. Dorsal (posterior)
B. Ventral (anterior)
C. Superior
D. Inferior

9. When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?
A. The face is forward
B. The arms are at the sides
C. The palms are facing backward
D. The body is erect

10. A mechanism functioning to maintain a stable internal environment is most likely to

involve
A. Positive feedback
 B. Negative feedback
C. A vicious circle
D. None of the above

11. A decomposition reaction can be symbolized by

A. A+B --> C+D
B. A+B -->AB
C. AB-->A+B
D. C+D-->AB

12. Electrolytes are substances that

A. Form covalent bonds with water
B. Ionize when dissolved in water
C. Cannot conduct electricity in solution
D. Are not found in the human body in any appreciable amounts.

13. The pH scale measures the

A. Concentration of hydrogen ions in solution
B. Amounts of salts dissolved in water
C. Number of hydroxyl ions in water
D. Strength of an electrical current carried by a solution

14. Synthesis reactions are particularly important in the body for

A. Release of energy
B. Digestion of food particles
C. Growth of body parts
D. Neutralization of acids by buffers
15. Lipids are characterized by
A. A group of substances that are insoluble in water.
B. A number of compounds such as phospholipids, cholesterol and fats.
C. Fat molecules containing C, H, & O but the proportion of oxygen is much
smaller than in carbohydrates.
D. All of the above.

16. The general characteristics of proteins are that they

A. Serve as structural materials, energy sources, and chemical messengers.
B. Contain C, H, O and N, and sometimes sulfur.
C. Can act as enzymes
D. All of the above.

17. An enzyme is defined as a

A. Protein that speeds up chemical reactions without being changed or
depleted.
B. Protein that functions as a hormone
C. Protein that inhibits chemical reactions by being changed or depleted
D. Fibrous protein that is used to help build certain tissues in the body

18. Sodium ions and calcium ions are examples of

A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Salts
D. Buffers

19. Which of the following is not hydrophilic?

A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
 C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acid

20. Glycogen is a complex polysaccharide that is synthesized by the body

A. True
B. False

21. The endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a

A. Formless liquid
B. Cellular inclusion
C. Network of interconnected membranes
D. Membranous sac

22. The movement of molecules through a membrane by filtration depends upon the
presence of
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Hydrostatic pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. None of the above

23. Which of the following processes involves the use of specific carrier molecules?
A. Phagocytosis
B. Pinocytosis
C. Active transport
D. Dialysis

24. If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the
concentration inside,
A. Water will tend to enter the cell by osmosis
 B. Water will tend to leave the cell by osmosis
C. Glucose will tend to enter the cell by osmosis
D. Glucose will tend to leave the cell by osmosis

25. Because of mitosis and cytoplasmic division, the resulting cells contain
A. Identical chromosomes
B. Identical DNA information
C. Both identical chromosomes and DNA information
D. None of the above.

26. The 2 major components of the cell membrane are

A. Lipids and carbohydrates
B. Proteins and carbohydrates
C. Lipids and proteins
D. Carbohydrates and polysaccharides

27. The cell membrane functions to

A. Maintain wholeness of the cell
B. Control the entry and exit of various substances
C. Provide a barrier to water soluble substances
D. All of the above

28. Which of the following is not a factor that influences the rate of diffusion?
A. The distance of diffusion
B. The concentration of the substance
C. The amount of energy available for transport molecules
D. The molecular weight of the diffusing molecules
29. What characteristic is shared by simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
A. Both require cellular energy for the transport of substances.
B. Both involve the movement of water across a semi- permeable membrane
C. Both require a special carrier molecule to move substances across the membrane
D. Both involve the movement of a substance from regions of higher
concentration to lower concentration without cellular energy.

30. What occurs if a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution?

A. The cell will shrink
B. The cell will swell and may eventually burst
C. Nothing; the cell will remain the same size and shape
D. Only permeable substances will leave the cell; otherwise, the concentrations
within the cell do not change

31. In what phase of mitosis do the chromosomes duplicate?

A. Prophase
B. Interphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase

32. Which of the following is isotonic to red blood cells?

A. 0.9% NaCl solution
B. Distilled water
C. 0.9% glucose solution
D. None of the above

33. A selectively permeable membrane is defined as one that

A. Allows all substances to pass through
 B. Allows all organic substances to pass through but excludes all inorganic
substances
C. Allows some substances to pass through and excludes others
D. Is leaky or allows substances to leak through

34. Which of the following organelles has its structures and function correctly
described?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum: network of interconnected membranes forming
sacs and canals; packages proteins molecules
B. Ribosomes: membranous vesicles; contains digestive enzymes
C. Golgi apparatus: particles composed of protein and RNA; synthesizes proteins
D. Mitochondrion: non-membranous structure that synthesizes proteins

35. Osmosis is defined as the movement of

A. Molecules from high concentration to a low concentration
B. Water molecules from a high concentration to a low concentration
through a selectively permeable membrane.
C. Water molecules from a low concentration to a high concentration through a
selectively permeable membrane
D. Ions from a low-pressure region to a high pressure region through a
selectively permeable membrane

36. The relationship of osmotic pressure and the number of solute particles in a solution
is
A. The lower the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure
B. The greater the number of solute particles, the lower the osmotic pressure
C. The greater the osmotic pressure, the lower the number of solute particles
D. The greater the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic
pressure
37. A hypertonic solution
A. Has a greater concentration of solute particles than the cells in the solution
B. Would cause cells in the solution to lose water or become shrunken
C. Has greater osmotic pressure than do the cells in the solution
D. All of the above

38. Lipids are synthesized in

A. The Golgi apparatus
B. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. The rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. The liver

39. The movement of sodium ions from a region of lower concentration inside a cell
toward a region of higher concentration outside the cell is accomplished by
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Active Transport
D. Filtration

40. In dehydration synthesis of a carbohydrate,

A. Larger molecules are decomposed into smaller ones
B. Monosaccharides become joined together
C. Water molecules become joined to monosaccharide molecules
D. The molecule is decomposed in to CO2 and H2O

40. When a sucrose molecule is decomposed to yield a glucose molecule and a

fructose molecule,
A. The process involves dehydration synthesis
B. A water molecule is released
 C. A water molecule is used
D. None of the above

41. The reactions of anaerobic respiration occur in the

A. Cytoplasm
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus
D. All of the above

42. Which of the following is an example of catabolism?

A. The synthesis of the cell membrane from precursor molecules
B. The oxidation of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria
C. The formation of secretory proteins in the pancreas
D. The duplication of DNA molecules in the nucleus

43. What is the function of ADP molecules living in cells?

A. They form a genetic material important for reproduction
B. They act to "capture" energy from the oxidation of fuels to be used in
other cell processes
C. They act as coenzymes so that the fats can be synthesized.
D. They are an integral part of the cell membrane, important in the transport of
water molecules.

44. In the citric acid cycle,

A. Carbon dioxide is released
B. Hydrogen atoms are released
C. 2 ATP's form
D. All of the above
45. Cellular respiration is defined as the process by which
A. Energy is released from molecules and is transferred to other molecules
B. Cells breathe, or take in O2 and give off CO2
C. Cells produce energy from O2 and absorb heat.
D. Energy is absorbed from glucose and is transferred to CO2

46. Anaerobic respiration involves chemical reactions in____________, where as

aerobic respiration involves reactions in ____________.
A. Mitochondria; cytplasm with O2 needed
B. Cytoplasm without O2 needed; cytoplasm with CO2 required
C. Mitochondria without O2 needed; mitochondria with O2 needed
D. Cytoplasm without O2 needed; mitochondria with O2 needed

47. The process of copying DNA information into the structure of the mRNA molecule is
called which of the following?
A. Translation
B. Synthesis
C. Replication
D. Transcription

48. Which of the following is not one of the 4 basic body tissues
A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Brain tissue
D. Muscle tissue
49. A basement membrane occurs between
A. Muscle and nerve tissue
B. Epithelial and connective tissue
C. Connective tissue and muscle tissue
D. Brain and nervous tissue

50. Epithelial tissue functions in

A. Secretion
B. Absorption
C. Protection
D. All of the above

51. The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is

A. Smooth
B. Skeletal
C. striated
D. None of the above

52. Connective tissue fibers are produced by

A. Macrophages
B. Mast cells
C. Fibroblasts
D. All of the above

53. A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it

A. Consists of cells with much intercellular material between them
B. Has no blood supply to the tissue
C. Covers the outside of organs
 D. Commonly found lining body cavities

54. Adipose tissue is a specialized form of

A. Fibrous connective tissue
B. Elastic connective tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Reticular connective tissue

55. Epithelial tissues are characterized by a lack of blood vessels

A. True
B. False

56. Membranes lining the body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called
A. Synovial
B. Mucous
C. Serous
D. Cutaneous

57. The primary means by which body heat is lost

A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Evaporation
D. Radiation

58. Which of the following is a normal response to excessive loss of body heat in a cold
environment?
A. Dermal blood vessels become constricted
B. Sweat glands become inactive
C. Skeletal muscles contract involuntarily
 D. All of the above

59. Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating the production
of
A. Melanin
B. Carotene
C. Hemoglobin
D. Cyanin

60. An example of a serous membrane is

A. The nasal membranes that secrete mucous
B. The linings of the gastrointestinal system
C. The lining of the thorax
D. The membranes covering joint cavities in the knee

61. Sweat functions to cool the body by

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Evaporation
D. Radiation

62. Which of the following layers of the epidermis consists of a single row of columnar
cells that undergo mitosis and includes pigment producing melanocytes?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum germinativum
63. Shafts of hair are composed of
A. Living dermal cells
B. Dead dermal cells
C. Living epidermal cells
D. Dead epidermal cells

64. Eccrine sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands

A. In terms of what is secreted
B. In their location in the body
C. Because subaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, sweat glands are
not.
D. All of the above

65. Epidermal cells are supplied with nutrients from blood vessels located in the
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Subcutaneous layer
D. All of the above

66. Serous membranes are characterized by __________, whereas mucous

membranes are characterized by____________.
A. Lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside; lining body
cavities and tubes opening to the outside
B. Being composed of connective tissue only; being composed of epithelial tissue
only
c. synovial fluid that lubricates the joint surfaces; secreting mucous
D. Lining joint cavities; covering the surface of the body
67. Epidermis is distinguished by being _____________, whereas the dermis is
distinguished by being
__________.
A. The innermost layer of the skin; under the dermis
B. Composed of largely fibrous connective tissue; composed of stratified
squamous epithelial tissue
C. The outermost layer of skin; composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue
D. Composed of stratified squamous epithelial tissue; composed of fibrous
connective tissue.

68. A hair is distinguished from a hair follicle by

A. Being composed of living stratified squamous cells, whereas a hair follicle is
composed of dead dermal cells
B. Originating in the subcutaneous layer, whereas a hair follicle originates in the
dermis
C. Strictly the position, with the hair being in the center of the follicle
D. Being composed of dead epidermal cells, whereas a hair follicle is
composed of living dermal cells

69. The subcutaneous layer can be described as

A. Being composed of loose connective tissue and adipose tissue
B. The skin
C. Functioning as a heat insulator or helping to conserve body heat
D. All of the above

70. Which of the following blood vessels carries blood towards the heart?
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Capillaries
D. The aorta
71. What is the purpose of the heart valves?
A. To allow gaseous exchange.
B. To prevent gaseous exchange.
C. To allow backflow of blood.
D. To prevent backflow of blood.

72. Which of the following best describes the flow of blood in systemic circulation?
A. Left ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava,
and right atrium
B. Right ventricle, pulmonary artery, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, pulmonary
veins, left atrium
C. Right ventricle, aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, vena cava, left
atrium
D. Left ventricle, pulmonary artery, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins, pulmonary
veins, right atrium

73. Why does the left ventricle have thicker walls than the right ventricle?
A. So it can pump blood more forcefully
B. So it can pump blood less forcefully
C. To allow gaseous exchange
D. To prevent gaseous exchange

74. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood to the heart from the lungs?
A. The aorta
B. The pulmonary vein
C. The venae cavae
D. The pulmonary artery
75. Which of the following describes a long bone?
A. It is curved to help absorb stress
B. It provides protection and sites for muscle attachment
C. It is almost equal in length and width
D. It has a very complex shape

76. Which of the following muscles lifts the ribs to expand the chest cavity?
A. The diaphragm
B. The internal intercostals
C. The external intercostals
D. The pectoralis major

77. Which of the following gases diffuses into the alveoli from the capillaries to be
exhaled?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon monoxide

78. Where would you find the tarsals?

A. The upper arm
B. The wrist
C. The upper leg
D. The foot

79. Which of the following is a function of the skeleton?

A. It supplies oxygen to working muscles
B. It makes ATP for energy
C. It stores ATP for energy
 D. It protects vital organs

80. Which of the following forms a part of the axial skeleton?

A. The ulna
B. The tibia
C. The ribs
D. The scapula

81. Which of the following describes an irregular bone?

A. Curved to help absorb stress from the body
B. Thin, give protection to internal organs, provide sites for muscle attachment
C. Almost equal in width and length, cube shape
D. Have complex shapes

82. Which type of bone is the femur?

A. Long
B. Flat
C. Short
D. Irregular

83. What percentage of oxygen is found in exhaled air?

A. 16
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20

84. In the process of ossification, what does bone develop from?

A. Bone marrow
B. Ligaments
 C. Cartilage
D. Synovial fluid

85. What effect does regular weight-bearing exercise have on joints?

A. Increased ligament strength
B. Increased mitochondria density
C. Increased joint friction
D. Increased joint volume

86. Which bones meet to form a pivot joint?

A. The femur and tibia
B. The pelvis and hip
C. The radius and ulna
D. The clavicle and humerus

87. Which joint action is taking place when the palm turns upwards?
A. Pronation
B. Supination
C. Adduction
D. Abduction

88. Which of the following muscles is located in the upper arm?

A. Biceps
B. Hamstrings
C. Trapezius
D. Soleus
89. Where would you find the cardiac muscle?
A. The veins
B. The arteries
C. The heart
D. The lungs

90. What is the function of actin and myosin filaments?

A. Muscle fibre breakdown
B. Energy production
C. Muscle contraction
D. Regeneration of ATP

91. Which of the following is predominantly recruited during a 10 km walk?

A. Slow twitch muscle fibers
B. The creatine phosphate system
C. Fast twitch muscle fibres
D. The lactic acid system

92. Which one of these is a type of voluntary muscle?

A. Gastrointestinal
B. Biceps
C. Heart muscle
D. Capillaries

93. Which of the following is a component of muscle structure?

A. Sarcomere
B. Synovial membrane
C. The epiphysis
 D. The periosteum

94. Which of the following muscles is contracting eccentrically during the lowering
phase of a lateral raise?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Erector spinae
C. Triceps
D. Medial deltoids

95. What term describes a muscle that assists the prime mover?
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Fixator

96. Which of the following is the antagonist during a calf raise?

A. Gastrocnemius
B. Tibialis anterior
C. The quadriceps
D. The hamstring

97. Which of the following describes a concentric contraction?

A. A muscle develops tension and shortens
B. A muscle develops tension and lengthens
C. A muscle develops tension, but muscle length remains the same
D. A muscle develops tension to fix a joint in one position

98. What duration of activity can muscle stores of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
support?
A. Up to 4 seconds
B. Up to 6 seconds
 C. Up to 20 seconds
D. Up to 120 seconds

99. Which of the following nutrients can be stored in the muscle and liver?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Fat
C. Protein
D. Fibre

100. During an activity that lasts for 20 minutes which energy system will be
predominantly used to produce ATP?
A. The phosphocreatine system
B. The aerobic system
C. The lactic acid system
D. The cardiovascular system

101. What is the antagonist during a dumbbell curl exercise?

A. The triceps
B. The biceps
C. The deltoids
D. The pectorals

102. What will happen to slow-twitch muscle fibers as a result of long term endurance
training?
A. They will develop more mitochondria
B. The will use less oxygen
C. Metabolic activity will decrease
D. They will fatigue more quickly
103. Which of the following affects the strength of a muscle contraction?
A. The amount of glycogen stored in the muscle
B. The amount of fat stored in the muscle
C. The range of movement at the working joint
D. The number of motor units recruited