Allen Test Papers

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(1701CMD305219013) Test Pattern

*1701CMD305219013* NEET(UG)
32 This Booklet contains 32 pages.
Bio-Chemistry
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Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 1/32 13032020/E/H
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LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (ALL PHASE)
BIO-CHEMISTRY TEST DATE : 13 - 03 - 2020

SYLLABUS – 01
CHEMISTRY : Inorganic Chemistry
Periodic Table + Chemical Bonding.

BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :
(i) The living world

(ii) Biological Classification
(iii) Plant Kingdom
(iv) Animal Kingdom
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1. The element whose electronic configuration is 1s2, 1. 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2
2s2, 2p6, 3s2 is a/an : (1)
(1) Metal
(2)
(2) Metalloid
(3) Intert gas (3)
(4) Non-metal (4)
2. The element of group 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 are 2. 1, 2, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18
collectively called :
(1) Noble element (1)
(2) Main group element (2)
(3) Representative elements (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
3. Which one pair of atoms or ions will have same 3.
configuration ?
(1) F and Ne (2) Li+ and He (1) F Ne (2) Li+ He
(3) Na and K (4) Cl and Kr (3) Na K (4) Cl Kr
Rb Cs Rb Cs
Na K Na K
Li Li
Atomic Atomic
D volume D
volume
4. 4.
A B C A B C
Atomic weight Atomic weight
In above graph correct position of transition metal

elements. (1) A (2) B
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
5. In 8 period of the periodic table contains
th 5. 8th
(1) 8 elements (1) 8
(2) 50 elements (2) 50
(3) 32 elements (3) 32
(4) 18 elements (4) 18
6. Which of the following is a super heavy elements? 6.
(1) Th (2) Pm (3) Uub (4) Pa (1) Th (2) Pm (3) Uub (4) Pa
7. Which of the following is smallest in size ? 7.
(1) Na+ (2) N3– (3) O2– (4) F– (1) Na+ (2) N3– (3) O2– (4) F–
8. The correct order of increasing radii are : 8.
(1) Be2+ < Mg+2 < Na+ (1) Be2+ < Mg+2 < Na+
(2) O2– < F < N3– (2) O2– < F < N3–
(3) K+ < Ca+2 < S2– (3) K+ < Ca+2 < S2–
(4) S2– < O2– < As3– (4) S2– < O2– < As3–
LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)
13032020/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 3/32
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9. Which of the following pairs of elements have almost 9.
similar atomic size ?
(1) Zr, Hf (2) Cu, Ag (1) Zr, Hf (2) Cu, Ag
(3) Sc, Ti (4) Pd, Ni (3) Sc, Ti (4) Pd, Ni
10. Shielding effect of d-electrons is : 10. d-
(1) More than s-electrons (1) s-
(2) More than p-electrons (2) p-
(3) Less than s-electrons (3) s-
(4) Same as f-electrons (4) f-
11. Which of the following order is correct for the first 11.
ionisation energies of their elements ?
(1) B < Be < N < O (2) Be < B < N < O (1) B < Be < N < O (2) Be < B < N < O
(3) B < Be < O < N (4) B < O < Be < N (3) B < Be < O < N (4) B < O < Be < N
12. The electron configuration of elements A, B and C 12. A, B C [He]2s1, [Ne]3s1
are [He]2s1, [Ne]3s1 and [Ar]4s1 respectively. Which [Ar]4s 1
of the following order is correct for the first ionisation (kJ/mol) A, B C

potentials (in kJ/mol) of A, B and C ?
(1) A > B > C
(1) A > B > C
(2) C > B > A
(2) C > B > A
(3) B > C > A (3) B > C > A
(4) C > A > C (4) C > A > C
13. The correct order of second Ionisation energy of C, 13. C, N, O F
N, O and F is : (1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C
(1) C > N > O > F (2) O > N > F > C
(3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C (3) O > F > N > C (4) F > O > N > C
14. The first ionisation energy in electron volt of nitrogen 14.
and oxygen atoms are respectively given by :
(1) 14.6, 13.6 (2) 13.6, 14.6 (1) 14.6, 13.6 (2) 13.6, 14.6
(3) 13.6, 13.6 (4) 14.6, 14.6 (3) 13.6, 13.6 (4) 14.6, 14.6
15. Which of the following species has the highest 15.
ionisation potential ? (1) Li+ (2) Mg
(1) Li+ (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Ne (3) Al (4) Ne
16. The electron affinity values (in kJ/mol–1) of three 16. X, Y Z (kJ/mol–1)
halogens X, Y and Z are respectively –349, –328 and –349, –328 –325 X, Y Z
–325, then X, Y and Z respectively are
(1) F, Cl and Br (2) Cl, F and Br (1) F, Cl Br (2) Cl, F Br
(3) Cl, Br and F (4) Br, Cl and F (3) Cl, Br F (4) Br, Cl F
17. In which process maximum energy is released. 17.
 C
(1) C   N
(2) N   C
(1) C   N
(2) N 
 S
(3) S  (4) None of these  S
(3) S  (4)
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18. Which of the following is a endothermic process ? 18.
 N
(1) N   O
(2) O   N
(1) N   O
(2) O 
 P
(3) P   C
(4) C   P
(3) P   C
(4) C 
19. Which is correct order of electro negativity ? 19.
(1) B < C < O < N (1) B < C < O < N
(2) Na < Mg < Al < Si (2) Na < Mg < Al < Si
(3) Li < Na < < K < Rb (3) Li < Na < < K < Rb
(4) B < Al < Ga < In (4) B < Al < Ga < In
20. Which is correct order of electronegativity ? 20.
(1) SbF3 < SbF5 (1) SbF3 < SbF5
(2) CF4 < CCl4 (2) CF4 < CCl4
(3) Mn+2 < Mn+7 < Mn+4 (3) Mn+2 < Mn+7 < Mn+4
(4) None of these (4)
21. Correct order of Lewis acid strength. 21.
(1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+ (1) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
(2) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4 (2) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(3) NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4 (3) NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3 < SiCl4
(4) AlCl3 < AlF3 (4) AlCl3 < AlF3
22. Select the correct pairs of Lewis acid species. 22.
(1) BeCl2, CCl4 (2) AlF3, AlCl3 (1) BeCl2, CCl4 (2) AlF3, AlCl3
(3) SiCl4, SF6 (4) AlCl3, BCl3 (3) SiCl4, SF6 (4) AlCl3, BCl3
23. Correct order of basic strength 23.
(1) Li2O < Na2O < Rb2O < CaO (1) Li2O < Na2O < Rb2O < CaO
(2) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3 (2) Na2O < MgO < Al2O3
(3) Na2O < K2O < Cr2O3 < P2O5 (3) Na2O < K2O < Cr2O3 < P2O5
(4) MgO < K2O < Rb2O < Cs2O (4) MgO < K2O < Rb2O < Cs2O
24. Which of the following is increasing order of acidic 24.
strength ? (1) Na2O < K2O < Cs2O
(1) Na2O < K2O < Cs2O (2) MgO < Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5
(2) MgO < Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5
(3) Na2O < Cu2O < B2O3 < MgO
(3) Na2O < Cu2O < B2O3 < MgO
(4) Al2O3 < Br2O3 < Ca2O3 (4) Al2O3 < Br2O3 < Ca2O3
25. Which is correct order of Lattice energy ? 25.
(1) NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl (1) NaCl < KCl < RbCl < CsCl
(2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 (2) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3
(3) AlF3 < MgCl2 < NaF (3) AlF3 < MgCl2 < NaF
(4) Na3N < AlN < Mg3N2 (4) Na3N < AlN < Mg3N2
26. Which of the following has a giant covalent structure ? 26.
(1) SiO2 (2) CO2 (1) SiO2 (2) CO2
(3) CCl4 (4) SiCl4 (3) CCl4 (4) SiCl4
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27. Which of the following compounds does show ionic, 27.
covalent and coordinate bonds as well ?
(1) CuSO4 (2) CuSO4.5H2O (1) CuSO4 (2) CuSO4.5H2O
(3) HCl (4) NaCl (3) HCl (4) NaCl
28. The orbital of same energy level providing most 28.
efficient overlapping are.
(1) sp–sp (2) sp3–sp3 (1) sp–sp (2) sp3–sp3
(3) sp2–sp2 (4) All of these (3) sp2–sp2 (4)
29. In Lewis formula of O3, there are : 29. O3
(1) 2, 1 4 lone pair of electrons. (1) 2, 1 4
30. Which one of the following molecules are formed by 30. p–p
p–p overlapping ? (1) Cl2 (2) HCl
(1) Cl2 (2) HCl (3) H2O (4) NH3 (3) H2O (4) NH3
31. A molecule possessing dipole moment is : 31.
(1) CH4 (2) H2O (3) CO2 (4) BF3 (1) CH4 (2) H2O (3) CO2 (4) BF3
32. The hybridisation of P in PO43– species : 32. PO43–
(1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp (4) sp3d (1) sp2 (2) sp3 (3) sp (4) sp3d
33. In a regular octahedral molecules, MX6, the number 33. MX6 X–M–X
of X–M–X bonds are 180° is : 180°
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6
34. Hybridisation is change in following interchange. 34.
(1) AlH3 to AlH4 (2) H2O to H3 O (1) AlH3 AlH4 (2) H2O H3 O
(3) NH3 to NH4+ (4) All of these (3) NH3 NH4+ (4)
35. ˆ bond angle is maximum in :
The ONO 35. ˆ
ONO
 
(1) NO3 (2) O N O (1) NO3 (2) O N O
(3) NO2 (4) NO2 (3) NO2 (4) NO2
36. The structure of ICl2 is : 36. ICl2

(1) Trigonal (1)
(2) Octahedral (2)
(3) Square planar (3)
(4) trigonal bipyramidal (4)
37. Which of the following has p-d bonding ? 37. p-d
(1) NO3 (2) SO32 (1) NO3 (2) SO32
(3) BO33 (4) CO32 (3) BO33 (4) CO32
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38. The species having bond order different from that in 38. CO
CO is : (1) NO (2) NO
(1) NO (2) NO (3) CN  (4) N2 (3) CN  (4) N2
39. Which of the following species exhibits the 39.
diamagnetic behaviour ?
(1) NO (2) O22 (1) NO (2) O22
(3) O2 (4) O2 (3) O2 (4) O2

40. Planar structure is shown by : 40.
(1) CO32 (1) CO32
(2) BCl3 (2) BCl3
(3) N(SiH3)3 (3) N(SiH3)3
(4) All of these (4)
41. The calculated bond order of spuer oxide ( O2 ) is 41. ( O2 )
(1) 1.5 (2) 1 (1) 1.5 (2) 1
(3) 2.5 (4) 2 (3) 2.5 (4) 2
42. In the formation of N 2 from N2, the electron is 42. N2 N 2
removed from ?
(1)  orbital (1) 
(2)  orbital (2) 
(3)  orbital (3) 
(4)  orbital (4) 
43. The correct statement with regard to H2 and H 2 is: 43. H2 H 2
(1) Both H2+ and H 2 do not exist (1) H2+ H 2
(2) H 2 is more stable than H2+ (2) H 2 , H2+
(3) H2+ is more stable than H 2 (3) H2+ , H 2
(4) Both H2+ and H 2 are equally stable (4) H2+ H 2

44. Which of the following compound has the lowest 44.
melting point ? (1) CaCl2 (2) CaBr2
(1) CaCl2 (2) CaBr2 (3) CaI2 (4) CaF2 (3) CaI2 (4) CaF2
45. Among the following the maximum covalent character 45.
is shown by the compound ?
(1) FeCl3 (1) FeCl3
(2) SnCl2 (2) SnCl2
(3) AlCl3 (3) AlCl3
(4) MgCl2 (4) MgCl2
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46. Select correct match :- 46.
(1) Albugo - parasitic fungi on mustard (1)
(2) Puccinia - smut causing fungi (2)
(3) Penicillium - bread making fungi (3)
(4) Aspergillus - Fungi used in gentic works (4)
47. Select incorrect match about red algae :- 47.
(1) Major pigments - Chlorophyll a, d & phycorethrin (1) a, d
(2) Stored food - Floridean starch (2)
(3) Cell wall - Chitin and polysulphated ester (3)
(4) Flagella - Absent (4)
48. Examine the figure A, B and C. In which one of the 48. A, B C
four options all the items A, B and C are correct? A, B C
(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C)

(1) Fucus Selaginella Ginkgo (1)
(2) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Ginkgo (2)
(3) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia (3)
(4) Fucus Selaginella Salvinia (4)
49. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied 49.
by "complex post fertilisation developments" in a
group of algae in which
(1) Spores and gametes are non-motile (1)
(2) Dominance of chlorophyll a and c is observed (2) a c
(3) Pyrenoids act as storage body commonly (3)
(4) Vegetative cells are covered by gelatinous coating (4)
of pectose
50. Match Column I with Column II. 50. I II
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(a) Sphenopsida (i) Psilotum (a) Sphenopsida (i) Psilotum
(b) Lycopsida (ii) Selaginella (b) Lycopsida (ii) Selaginella
(c) Pterosida (iii) Equisetum (c) Pterosida (iii) Equisetum
(d) Psilopsida (iv) Pteris (d) Psilopsida (iv) Pteris
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
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51. Identify the A, B, C, D & E in given diagram :- 51. A, B, C, D E
A B C D E A B C D E
(1) Stipe Frond Frond Branches Porphyra (1) Stipe Frond Frond Branches Porphyra
(2) Stipe Frond Frond Porphyra Branches (2) Stipe Frond Frond Porphyra Branches
(3) Frond Frond Stipe Branches Porphyra (3) Frond Frond Stipe Branches Porphyra
(4) Stipe Frond Porphyra Frond Branches (4) Stipe Frond Porphyra Frond Branches
52. Which one of the following is a correct statement ? 52.

(1) The sporophyte in mosses is less elaborate then (1)
in liver worts
(2) The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate then
(2)
in liver worts
(3) The sporophyte is main plant body in mosses
(4) The sporophyte has only foot and seta in liver (3)
worts (4)
53. Smallest and sporophytic dependent female 53.
gametophyte occurs in :-
(1) Angiosperm (1)
(2) Gymnosperm (2)
(3) Pteridophytes (3)
(4) Bryophytes (4)
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54. Read the following statement (A-E) and answer the 54. (A-E)
question which follow them :-
(A) Viruses are inert outside there speific host (A)
(B) Some virus contain both DNA and RNA (B) DNA RNA
(C) Virus causing diseases are mumps, ringworm, (C)
typhoid and AIDS AIDS
(D) When virus infect a cell they take over the (D)
machinery of host cell to replicate themselves
(E) Protein coat of virus is called capsid which is made
up of small subunits called as capsomeres. (E)
How many above statements are correct ?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
55. Match Column I with Column II for Mango 55. I II
classification and select the correct option using the
codes given below :-
(a) Class (i) Anacardiaceae (a) (i)
(b) Division (ii) Dicotyledonae (b) (ii)
(c) Order (iii) Angiospermae (c) (iii)
(d) Family (iv) Sapindales (d) (iv)
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
56. Which of the following event is a precursor to the seed 56.
habit considered an important step in evolution?
(1) Development of the zygotes into young embryos (1)
within the monoecious gametophytes
(2) Development of zygotes into young sporophytes (2)
within the male gametophytes
(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within (3)
the female gametophytes
(4) Development of the zygotes into young embryos (4)
within the female gametophytes
57. Which one of the following is not a correct statement? 57.
(1) Biological museums are generally set up in (1)
educational institutes
(2) Keys are generally analytical in nature (2)
(3) Indian Botanical Garden is a famous botanical (3)
garden situated in Lucknow
(4) Herbarium also serve as quick referral system in (4)
taxonomical studies
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58. Which one of the following is a correct statement:- 58.
(1) Linnaeus proposed a five kingdom classification (1)
(2) Halophiles are present in the gut of several
ruminant animals (2)
(3) All singls celled prokaryotes are placed under (3)
protista
(4) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen (4)
59. Which one of the following diagrams represents the 59.
slime mould :-
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
60. How many organisms in the given below list have 60.
protistans ?
Mucor, Vibrio cholerae, Paramoecium, Agaricus,
Euglena, Alternaria, Amoeba, Bacillus, Neurospora,
Gonyaulax, Ustilago, Physarum. (1) 5 (2) 4
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2
61. Mark the correct answer : 61.
(a) (b) (a) (b)

(1) Porifera - Sycon, Coelenterata - Hydra, (1)
Spongilla Obelia
(2) Ctenophora - Annelida - Earthworm,
(2)
Pleurobranchia Adamsia
Ctenoplana
(3) Coclenterata - Coral, Mollusca - Pila, (3)
Aurelia Pinctada
(4) Arthropoda - Prawn, Hemichordata -
(4)
Lepisma Balanoglossus,
Saccoglossus
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62. Which type of body organization is found in given 62.
taxon.
(1) Mollusca - Organ system level (1)
Arthropoda - Organ level
(2) Aschelmintues - Organ system level (2)
Cyclostomata - Organ system level
(3) Chonridrichthyes - Organ level (3)
Pisces - Organ level
(4) Ctenophora - Tissue level (4)
Platyhelminthes - Tissue level
63. Read the given options and select the incorrect option. 63.
(1) Digestive system in platyhelmintues has only a
single opening to the outside of the body that serve (1)
as both mouth and anus
(2) Where body is divided into two equal half parts (2)
in only one central axis called bilateral symmetry
(3) In coelenterata, an undifferentiated layer mesoglea (3)
is present in between the ectoderm and endoderm
(4) Coelenterata, ctenophora and member of class (4)
gastropoda (snail) represent radial symmetry
64. Read the given term with match pair and select correct 64.
answer for phylum ctenophora
(1) Seawalnuts – Common name of molluscus (1)
(2) Digestion – Intracellular (2)
(3) Osmoregulation – Help in excretion (3)
(4) Metamere – Little ring of body (4)
65. Examine the given table with animal taxon is correctly 65.
match their characters with suitable examples :
(A) (B)
(A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
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A B C D
(1) Arthropoda Echinodermata Urochordata Osteichthyes A B C D
rasping organ spiny skin Marine animal Bony (1)
radula is present Ex. Asterias Ex. Ascidia endoskeleton
Ex. Prawn Ex. -
Scoliodon
(2)
(2) Arthropoda Echinodermata Urochordata Chondrichthyes
Chitinous Sexual Notochord is Cartilagenous
exoskeleton reproduction present in larval endoskeleton
Ex. - Prawn Ex. - Asterias tail Ex. - Pristis
Ex. - Ascidia
(3)
(3) Annelida Mollusca Cephalochordat Amphibia
Segmented body Calcareous a Oviparous
Ex. - Scorpion shell Marine animal Ex.
Ex.- Ophiura Ex. Salpa Salamendra (4)
(4) Aschelminthes Arthropoda Hemichordata Osteichthyes
Common name Malpighean Proboscis gland Operculum
roundworm tubules present present present
Ex. - Prawn Ex.- Butter fly Ex. - Ex. Labeo
Saccoglossus
66. Water vascular system and endoskeleton of 66.

calcareous ossicles are character of phylum
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata (1) (2)
(3) Echinodermata (4) Porifera (3) (4)
67. Select the correct option for given animal. 67.
(1) Circulatory system is of open type (1)

(2) Marine animal with organ-system level of organization (2)
(3) Respiration take place through gills (3)
68. Which of following character is true for phylum chordata? 68.
(1) Coelom is developed by splitting of mesodermal plate (1)
(2) Blastopore develop into mouth and notochord is (2)
present in all chordata animals throughout life
(3) Dorsal hollow and single nerve cord and ventral (3)
heart is present
(4) Post-anal tail is absent and all members are terres (4)
trail
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69. Sea lily is the common name of 69.
(1) Asterias (2) Branchiostema (1) (2)
(3) Doliolum (4) Antedon (3) (4)
70. Mark the incorrect option. 70.
(A) (B) (A) (B)
A B A B
(1) Cyclostomate animal Cartilagenous fish with (1)
with bony direct development
endoskeleton
(2)
(2) Cyclostomate with Bony fish with terminal
circular mouth without mouth
Jaw (3)
(3) Cartilagenous fish Bony fish and cold
without operculum blooded
(4)
(4) Myxine which has Marine and notochord is
cartilagenous cranium persistent through out life
71. Select the wrong match pair. 71.
(1) Trygon - Great white shark (1)
(2) Icthyophis - Limbless amphibian (2)
(3) Chameleon - Tree Lizard (3)
(4) Balaenoptera - Blue whale (4)
72. Which of following character is not true for class reptilia? 72.
(1) Body is covered by dry and cornified skin, (1)
mesodermal scales.
(2) Oviparous and internal fertilization (2)
(3) External ear is absent (3)
(4) Two pairs of limbs and they are mostly terrestrial animals (4)
73. Which of following character is false in reference of 73.
class mammalia ?
(1) Presence of milk producing mammary glands. (1)
(2) Two pairs of limbs adapted for walking, running, (2)
climbing, burrowing, swimming or flying
(3) Presence of hairs and external pinna (3)
(4) They are homoiothermous and only viviparous (4)
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74. How many animals are warm-blooded in given table: 74.
Pteropus, Equus, Psittacula, Calotes, Testudo
Corvus, Hyla, Pteropyllum, Carcharadon,
Columba (1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 5
(2) 5
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 3 (4) 3
75. Read the given statements. 75.
(i) Endoskeleton is fully ossified (i)
(ii) Only hind limbs have scales. (ii)
(iii) Sexes are seperate & internal fertilization. (iii)
(iv) Tympanum represent ear.
(iv)
(v) Digestive tract has additional chambers the crop
(v)
and gizzard.
How many characters are only belongs to class aves?
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) 5 (4) 5
76. Identify the poisonous snakes 76.
(1) Naja, Alligator, Vipera (1)
(2) Cobra, Bangarus, Viper (2)
(3) Krait, Chelone, Calotes (3)
(4) Phrenosoma, sphenodon, python (4)
77. Mark the amphibian. 77.
(1) Bufo (1)
(2) Seahorese (2)
(3) Pristis (3)
(4) Aptenodytes (4)
78. Sea-cucumber belongs to 78.
(1) Hemichordata (1)
(2) Tunicata (2)
(3) Mollusca (3)
(4) Echinodermata (4)
79. Select the group of false fish. 79.
(1) Devil fish, Cuttle fish, Angel fish (1)
(2) Silver fish, Star fish, Jelly fish (2)
(3) Saw fish, Dog fish, Cray fish (3)
(4) Fighting fish, Star fish, Silver fish (4)
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80. Study the given animal and choose the character of 80.
phylum in which given animal is place.
(1) Small group of worm like marine animals

(2) Triploblastic and schizocoelomate (1)
(3) Bilateral symmetry and close type of circulatory (2)
system (3)
(4) Notochord extends from head to tail region and (4)
is persistent through out their life.
81. Identify the animal which has only single opening to 81.
the outside of the body that serves as both mouth and
anus.:-
(1) Neries (1)
(2) Limulus (2)
(3) Pila (3)
(4) Adamsia (4)
82. Which one of the following is a bilaterally summetrical, 82.
blind sac body plan and triploblastic animal ?
(1) Physalia (1)
(2) Planaria (2)
(3) Ascaris (3)
(4) Pinctada (4)
83. Which one of the following pair is mismatched ? 83.
(1) Echinus - Water vascular system. (1)
(2) Balanoglossus - Respiration by gills. (2)
(3) Betta - Moist, smooth and scale less skin. (3)
(4) Hemidactylus - three chambered heart. (4)
84. What is common about Pleurobrachia, 84.
Cetenoplana, Physalia, Adamsia, Pennatula ,
Gorgoina and Meandrina. :- (1)
(1) These are all parasites. (2)
(2) Digestion is both extracelular and intracellular,
(3) Cnidoblast present on the tentacles (3)
(4) Triploblastic and Acoelomates. (4)
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85. Radial symmetry and cnidioblasts are the 85.
characterstic feature of :-
(1) Starfish and Hydra (1)
(2) Ctenoplana and Physalia (2)
(3) Meandrina and Adamsia (3)
(4) Antedon and Cucumaria (4)
86. Suppose you are a taxonomist and you go for field 86.
experment, then you get the maximum species fo
which animal phylum ?
(1) Protozoa (2) Annelida (1) (2)
(3) Arthropoda (4) Chordata (3) (4)
87. Select the correct option about the given diagrams. 87.
(A) (B) (A) (B)

(1) A=Calotes = Dry cornified skin = 3 chambered heat (1) A = = =3
(2) B = Pteropus = Oviparous = Uricotelic (2) B = = =
(3) A = Chameleon = Oviparous = skin is moist and (3) A = = =
scale less.
(4) B=Ornitorynchus=Oviparous = 4 chamberbed heart (4) B = = =4
88. Which is incorrect ? 88.
Animal Habitat
(1) Catla Fresh water (1)
(2) Pristis Marine water (2)
(3) Echinus Sea rocks (3)
(4) Taenia Human blood (4)
89. Which of the following animal is not viviparous ? 89.
(1) Tiger (Panthera) (1) ( )
(2) Monkey (Macaca) (2) ( )
(3) Kangaroo (Macropus) (3) ( )
(4) Duck-billed platypus (Orinithorhynchus.) (4) ( )
90. Which of the following living organism completely 90.
lacks a cells wall ?
(1) Trichoderma (1)
(2) Cyanabacteria (2)
(3) Mangifera (3)
(4) Dentalium (4)
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91. Which one is not a aschelminthes ? 91.
(1) Ascaris (1)
(2) Ancylostoma (2)
(3) Wuchereria (3)
(4) Fasciola (4)
92. Water transport system is found in :- 92.
(1) Porifera (1)
(2) Echinodermata (2)
(3) Mollusca (3)
(4) Chordata (4)
93. Select the real fish from the following :- 93.
(1) Star fish (2) Devil fish (1) (2)
(3) Dolphin (4) Sea-horse (3) (4)
94. Given below is the diagramatic sketch of a chordate 94. A, B, C
animal. Identify the structures labelled as A,B,C and D
D and select the right option about them :-
A B A B
D D
C C
(1) A-Nerve cord - Tububular, single and hollow (1) A - -
(2) B-Notochord - Ectodermally derived (2) B - -
(3) C-Gill slits - In fishes found only in embryonic (3) C - -
stage
(4) D- Post and tail- absent in salamander (4) D - -
95. Read the following statements w.r.t birds and identify 95.
the incorrect statement :-
(1) Body temperature remains constant. (1)
(2) Digestive tract has additional chambers- the
(2)
stomach and gizzard
(3) Endoskleton is bony and long bones are pneumatic (3)
(4) Fertilization is internal and development is direct. (4)
96. A marine cartilaginous fish with dog like sense of 96.
smell is :-
(1) Pristis (2) Trigon (1) (2)
(3) Scoliodon (4) Torpedo (3) (4)
97. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum ? 97.
(1) Pila, Aplysia, Pinctada, Octopus, Echinus (1)
(2) Asterias, Ophiura, Adamsia, Physilia (2)
(3) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer, locusta, Ascidia (3)
(4) Amphioxus, Petromyzon, Betta, Hyla, Vipera (4)
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98. Select the correct option w.r.t given diagram :- 98.
(1) Homeothermic (1)

(2) Aptenodytes (2)
(3) Viviparous (3)
(4) Largest living bird (4)
99. Which one of the following give birth to their young 99.
ones but the female do not secretes milk ?
(1) Platypus (1)
(2) Ostrich (2)
(3) Kangaroo (3)
(4) Dog fish (4)
100. Which is common between peacock, platypus and 100.
dog ? (a)
(a) Ovaparity (b)
(b) Homiothermy
(c) 4
(c) 4 chambered heart
(d)
(d) Internal fertilization
(1) a, c (1) a, c
(2) b,c,d (2) b,c,d
(3) b,c (3) b,c
(4) c,d (4) c,d
101. Which of the following statement is/are correct with 101.
respect to Bacteria (a)
(a) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom
(b)
Monera
(b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere (c)
(c) Bacteria are the most abundant micro organism (d) 80 S
(d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in bacteria (1) a d
(1) a & d
(2) b d
(2) b & d
(3) a, b, c (3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d (4) b, c, d
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102. By observing following figure find correct match. 102.
With example.
(a) (b)
(a) (b)
(c)
(c)
(d)
(d)
Examples
(i)
(i) Vibrio
(ii) Spirillum (ii)
(iii) Bacillus (iii)
(iv) Micrococcus roseus & Diplococcus
(iv)
pneumoniae
(1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)
(1) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)
(2) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (2) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i)
(3) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i) (3) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i)
(4) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i) (4) a (iii), b (ii), c (iv), d (i)
103. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to 103.
Archaebacteria. (a)
(a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different cell wall structure. (b)
(b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival
in extreme conditions. (c)
(c) Methanogens are present in the guts of several
ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo.
(d)
(d) These are oldest of the living fossils.
(e)
(e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell
wall
(1) a e
(1) a and e
(2) b and e (2) b e
(3) a, b and c (3) a, b c
(4) only e (4) e
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104. Kingdom Organism 104.
(i) Monera Archaebacteria, (i)
Eubacteria, BGA,
Euglenoids
(ii) Protista Diatoms, Dinoflagellates, (ii)
Euglenoids
(iii)
(iii) Fungi Albugo, Mucor,
Penicillium, Slime-moulds
Which one is/are correct match
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (ii) (1) (i) (2) (ii)
(3) Only (iii) (4) All are correct (3) (iii) (4)
105. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to kingdom 105.
protista.
(i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under protista (i)
(ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are not well
defined. (ii)
(iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellated, Euglenoids, slimemoulds (iii)
and protozoans are included under protista.
(iv) All protista are eukaryotic, achlorophyllous, (iv)
heterotrophic, nonvascular organism.
(1) only (ii) (2) only (iii) (1) (ii) (2) (iii)
(3) only (iv) (4) None of these (3) (iv) (4)
106. Match Column I with Column II 106. I II
(i) Chrysophytes (a) Absence of cell wall (i) (a)
(ii) Dinoflagellates (b) Golden algae (ii) (b)
(iii) (c)
(iii) Euglenoids (c) Gonyaulax
(iv) (d)
(iv) Slime moulds (d) Saprophytic protists.
(1) (i) a (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d
(1) (i) a (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) d
(2) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d
(2) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) a, (iv) d
(3) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) a (3) (i) b (ii) c, (iii) d, (iv) a
(4) (i) c (ii) a, (iii) b, (iv) d (4) (i) c (ii) a, (iii) b, (iv) d
107. Slime moulds are _____(i)______protists. The body 107. _____(i)______
moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing
organic material under suitable conditions, they form
an aggregation called_____(ii)______which may _____(ii)______
grow and spread over several feet.
In above question (i) & (ii) are respectively. (i) (ii)
(1) (i) Autotrophic, (ii) plasmodium (1) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) Chemosynthetic autotrophic, (ii) plasmodium (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) Saprophytic, (ii) Phycobiont (3) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) saprophytic, (ii) plasmodium (4) (i) (ii)
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108. Majority of Euglenoids are Fresh water organisms 108.
found in stagnant water. Instead of cell wall, they
have a protein rich layer called _____(a)________
_____(a)________which makes their body flexible. _____(b)______
They have _____(b)______flagella;
(a) & (b) are respectively. (a) (b)
(1) (a) Pellicle (b) One (1) (a) (b)
(2) (a) Pellicle, (b) Three (2) (a) (b)
(3) (a) Gelatinous sheath (b) Two (3) (a) (b)
(4) (a)Pellicle (b) Two (4) (a) (b)
109. Organisms which are found in fresh water as well as 109.
in marine environment, they are microscopic and float
passively in water current (plankton). Most of them
are photosynthetic. The cell wall form two thin
overlapping shell, which fit together as in a soap box.
Organisms which possess above characters are
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Chrysophytes (1) (2)
(3) Diatoms (4) 2 & 3 both (3) (4) 2 3
110. Read statements A to D 110. A D
(A) Golden Algae are classified under chrysophytes. (A)
(B) Gonyaulax & Diatoms are classified under (B)
Dinoflagellates
(C) In Diatoms the cell wall form thin overlapping (C)
shell, which fit together as in soap box.
(D) Most of the Dinoflagellates have two flagella. (D)
How many statement are wrong.
(1) one (1)
(2) two (2)
(3) three (3)
(4) four (4)
111. Read the following four statements (A-D) and answer 111. (A-D)
as asked next to them.
(A) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under (A)
protista
(B) Most of the organism of chrysophytes are (B)
photosynthetic. (C)
(C) Dinoflagellates appear yellow, green brown, blue
or red depend on the main pigments present in (D)
their cells.
(D) Chloroplast absent in Euglena (1) (2)
How many of the above statement are correct ? (3) (4)
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) one
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112. As compared to slime moulds, Euglenoids has: 112.
(A) Presence of chloroplast (A)
(B) Mixotrophic nutrition (B)
(C) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle (C)
(D) Presence of contractile vacuole (D)
(1) A & B (2) B & C (1) A B (2) B C
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D (3) A, B C (4) A, B, C D
113. Select the wrong pair 113.
(1) Red tide – Gonyaulax (1) –
(2) Cellulosic cell wall – Archeobacteria (2) –
(3) –
(3) Saprophytic protist – Slime moulds
(4) –
(4) Mycoplasma – Cell wall less & can
survive without oxygen.
114. Read the following statement (A-D) 114. (A-D)
(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin. (A)
(B) Most fungi are heterotrophic (B)
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association (C)
with algae as lichens and with roots of higher
plants as mycorrhiza
(D) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy (D)
How many of the above statement are correct ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) one (1) (2) (3) (4)
115. The sexual cycle in fungi involves three steps, which 115.
statement is/are correct (A)
(A) Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or
nonmotile gamete called karyogamy (B)
(B) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy (C)
(C) Meiosis in zygote resulting in haploid spores–
(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) A & C (4) only C (1) A B (2) B C (3) A C (4) C
116. Match the classes of fungi given in Column I with 116. I II
their common names given in Column II
Column I Column II -I -II
(i) Phycomycetes (a) Imperfect fungi (i) (a)
(ii) Asocomycetes (b) Club fungi (ii) (b)
(iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Sac fungi (iii) (c)
(iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Algal fungi (iv) (d)
Options - -
(1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d (1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d
(2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a (2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a
(3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a (3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a
(4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d (4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d
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117. Read the following statement (A-D) regarding the 117. (A-D)
class phycomycetes & select wrong statement
(A) In phycomycetes mycelium is multinucleate (A)
(Coenocytic) and septate
(B) Wall of hyphae is composed of cellulose (B)
(C) A sexual reproduction take place through (C)
sporangia. (D)
(D) Sexual reproduction take place by gametangial (1) A
contact. (2) B
(1) only A (2) only B (3) C
(3) only C (4) A & D (4) A D
118. A dikaryon is formed when 118.
(1) Meiosis is arrersted (1)
(2) Nuclei of fusing cells do not fuse immediately (2)
(3) Cytoplasm does not fuse (3)
(4) None of the above (4)
119. Members of phycomycetes are found in 119.
i. Aquatic habitats i.
ii. On decaying wood ii.
iii. Moist and damp places iii.
iv. As obligate parasite on plants iv.
Choose from the following options
(1) (i) and (iii) (1) (i) (iii)
(2) i and iv (2) i iv
(3) ii and iii (3) ii iii
(4) All of the above (4)
120. Given below the following statements 120.
(a) Cell wall in many members of phycomycetes is (a)
composed of cellulose.
(b) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is aseptate & (b)
unbranched & Asexual reproduction is performed
by conidia. (c)
(c) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced
exogenously on conidiophores.
(d)
(d) Trichoderma is used to control fungal diseases
in plants which belong to class basidiomycetes.
(e) Bread and beer are manufactured by Yeast (e)
How many statements are correct
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
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121. Match column I with column II 121. I II
Column I Column II -I - II
(A) Unicellular algae (i) Hydrodictyon or (A) (i)
waternet (B) (ii)
(B) Motile colony (ii) Volvox (C) (iii)
(C) Nonmotile colony (iii) Ulothrix, spirogyra
(D) (iv)
(D) Filamentous algae (iv) Chlamydomonas
(E) (v)
(E) Massive plant body (v) Kelps
(1) A (iv), B (ii), C (i), D (iii), E(v)
(1) A (iv), B (ii), C (i), D (iii), E(v)
(2) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i), E(v) (2) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i), E(v)
(3) A (iii), B (ii), C (iv), D (i), E(v) (3) A (iii), B (ii), C (iv), D (i), E(v)
(4) A (v), B (iv), C (iii), D (ii), E(i) (4) A (v), B (iv), C (iii), D (ii), E(i)
122. Read statement (A-D) & find which is/are wrong 122. (A-D)
statement
(A) Asexual reproduction in liver worts takes place (A)
by fragmentation of thalli or by the formation of
specialised structure called Gemmae
(B)
(B) Bryophytes are known as a amphibians of plant
(C)
kingdom
(C) Funaria, Polytrichum & Sphagnum are
classified under mosses. (D)
(D) Vascular tissues (xylem & phloem) are present
in Bryophytes. (1) A
(1) only A
(2) A D
(2) A & D
(3) C
(3) only C
(4) only D (4) D
123. Read the statement A to D & select wrong statement 123. A B
(A) The pteridophytes include horse tails & fern (A)
(B) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to (B)
possess vascular tissues xylem & phloem.
(C) In Bryophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle (C)
is the sporophytic plant body.
(D) In Pteridophytes, the main plant body is a
(D)
gametophyte
(1) B
(1) only B
(2) ony A & C (2) A C
(3) only C & D (3) C D

(4) only B & D (4) B D
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124. Read statement A to D & find out how many is/are 124. A B
incorrect statement
(A) In majority of the pteridophytes all the spores are (A)
of similar kinds.
(B) Genera like Selaginella & Salvinia produce two (B)
kind of spore.
(C) The development of the zygote into young embryos (C)
take place within the female gametophytes. This
event is a precursor to the seed habit.
(D) Azolla is an aquatic fern that is used as biofertilizer (D)
due to presence of nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
Anabaena in its leaves
(1) zero (2) one (3) two (3) three (1) (2) (3) (3)
125. Roots in some genera of Gymnosperm have fungal 125.
association in the form of mycorrhiza in____(i)_____ ____(i)_____
wihle in some others like ___(ii)____ small specialised
roots called coralloid roots are associated with N2
fixing cyanobacteria. The stem are unbranched
___(ii)____ ___(iii)____
in___(iii)____ or branched in___(iv)____. In this
___(iv)____ (i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
question (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are respectively.
(1) (i) Pinus, (ii) Cycas, (iii) Cycas (iv) Pinus (1) (i) (ii) , (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) Cycas (ii) Pinus (iii) Pinus (iv) Cycas (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) Pinus (ii) Cycas (iii) Pinus (iv) Cycas (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) Cycas (ii) Pinus (iii) Cycas (iv) Pinus (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
126. Which is/are wrong regarding gymnosperms 126.
(A) Heterosporous (A)
(B) Produce haploid microspore & megaspore (B)
(C) Two kind of spore are produced within sporangia
(C)
that are borne on sporophyll
(D)
(D) The microspores develop into a male
gametophytic generation, which is highly reduced.
(1) only A & D (2) only B & D (1) A D (2) B D
(3) only B & C (4) none (3) B C (4)
127. Which statement is/are correct with respect to 127.
Angiosperm. (A)
(A) The seeds are enclosed by fruits. (B)
(B) The angiosperms are an exceptionally large group
of plants. occuring in wide range of habitats. (C)
(C) They range in size from the smallest wolffia to
tall trees of Eucalyptus (over 100 meters).
(D)
(D) They provide us food, fodder, fuel medicine etc.
(1) A C (2) A, D
(1) only A & C (2) only A, D
(3) A, C D (4) A, B, C D
(3) only A, C & D (4) A, B, C & D
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128. The double fertilisation is an event unique to 128.
angiosperms. The zygote develops into an _____(i)______
_____(i)______ & the PEN develops into ____(ii)_______
____(ii)_______which provide nourishment to the
developing embryo. During these events the ovule
_____(iii)______
develop into _____(iii)______ & the ovaries into
____(iv)______
____(iv)______in this question (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(i), (ii), (iii) (iv)
are respectively.
(1) (i) Embryo (ii) Endosperm, (iii) Fruits (iv) Seed (1) (i) (ii) , (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) Endosperm (ii) Embryo (iii) Seed (iv) Fruit (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (i) Embryo (ii) Endosperm (iii) Seed (iv) Fruit (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) Embryo (ii) Seed (iii) Fruit (iv) Endosperm (4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
129. A moss, provides peat that have long been used as 129.
fuel & as packing material for transshipment of living
material
(1) Riccia (2) Sphagnum (1) (2)
(3) Funaria (4) Selaginella (3) (4)
130. All seed bearing plants i.e. gymnosperms & 130.
angiosperms follow which type of alternation of
generation.
(1)
(1) Haplontic
(2)
(2) Diplontic
(3) Diplo-haplontic (3)
(4) None (4)
131. Choose correct statements 131.
(A) Pyrenoids are present in all algae that is meant (A)
for storage of starch only.
(B) Gelatinous coating of algin is found on cellulosic (B)
wall of Phaeophyceae.
(C) Rhodophyceae contains r-phycoerythrin pigments (C) r- 2-
as well as 2, unequal lateral flagella.
(D) Majority of red algae are marine with greater (D)
concentration found in the warmer areas.
(1) A (2) B and D (1) A (2) B D
(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D
132. Which among the following statements are wrong. 132.
(1) The strobili bearing microsporophylls & microsporangia (1)
are called microsporangiate or male strobili.
(2) In Cycas small specialized roots called coralloid (2)
roots are associated with N2- fixing cyanobacteria. N2-
(3) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species. (3)
(4) In Cycas the pinnate leaves persist for a longer time (4)
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133. 133.
Label the part :-

(1) A - Frond , B - Midrib , C - Holdfast , D - Air (1) A - B - C -
bladder D-
(2) A - Air bladder , B - Frond , C - Midrib , (2) A - B - C - ,
D - Holdfast D-
(3) A - Air bladder , B - Holdfast , C - stipe , (3) A - B - C -
D - Frond D-
(4) A - Air bladder , B - stipe , C - Frond , (4) A - B - C -
D - Holdfast D-
134. How many statements about Bryophytes correct :- 134.
(a) Sterile jacket around reproductive organs (a)
(b) Archegonium like a flaskshaped. (b)
(c) Sporophytic structure totally or partially dependent (c)
on gametophyte.
(d) Vascular tissues are well developed (d)
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
135. Which of the following is not correct 135.
(1) Zoodiogamy found in both Bryophytes and (1)
Pteridophytes.
(2) Aplanogamy is observed in Spirogyra (2)
(3) Secondary protonema forms leafy stage in mosses (3)
(4) Chl - a, c,d r-phycoerythrin pigment are found in (4) Chl - a, c,d r-
brown algae
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@AAKASHDELHI02
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@AAKASHDELHI02
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@AAKASHDELHI02
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Read carefully the following instructions : :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1.
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2.
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the 3.
Examination Hall without handing over their
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is 4.
prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5.
Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
Rules and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6.
shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7.
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer
Sheet.
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days
along with Paper code and Your Form No.
Correction Paper code Form No. 2

dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in mail


@AAKASHDELHI02
LEADER & ACHIVER COURSE
(ALL PHASE) 13–03–2020
PATTERN / TYPE : NEET / BIO-CHEMISTRY ANSWER KEY PRE-MEDICAL 2020

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 4
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 4
1701CMD305219013 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020 SIKAR

(ALL PHASE) 13–03–2020

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 4
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 4

(ALL PHASE) 13–03–2020

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 1 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 3 4 1 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 4 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 4
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 1 4 1 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 @AAKASHDELHI02
4
HINT – SHEET
46. NCERT XI, Pg # 23 78. NCERT XI, Pg # 54
47. NCERT XI, Pg # 33 79. NCERT XI, Pg # 56 to 57
48. NCERT XI, Pg # 31, 34, 39 80. NCERT XI, Pg # 54
53. NCERT XI 85. NCERT XI, Pg # 50
56. NCERT XI, Pg # 38 88. NCERT XI, Pg # 51, 54, 56, 57
58. NCERT XI, Pg # 16, 19, 20 90. NCERT XI, Pg # 54
60. NCERT XI, Pg # 20 to 21 92. NCERT XI, Pg # 49
65. NCERT XI, Pg # 53 to 55 97. NCERT XI, Pg # 54 to 58
@AAKASHDELHI02
122. NCERT XI, Pg # 35 to 36 135. NCERT XI, Pg # 30 to 35
@AAKASHDELHI02
*1701CMD305219014* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
2. 1 90 2. The test is of 1 hours duration and this Test Booklet
4 4 contains 90 questions. Each question carries 4 marks.

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 02
BIOLOGY : STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN PLANTS AND ANIMALS
(v) Morphology of Flowering Plants

(vi) Anatomy of Flowering Plants
(vii) Structural Organisation in Animals
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1. Regions of root from base to root tip are 1.
(1) Maturation zone - Cell division zone - Elongation zone (1)
(2) Maturation zone - Elongation zone - Cell division zone (2)
(3) Cell division zone - Elongation zone - Maturation zone (3)
(4) Elongation zone - Cell division zone - Maturation zone (4)
2. In maize, the fibrous roots develop from 2.
(1) Lower nodes (2) Upper nodes (1) (2)
(3) Upper internodes (4) None of the above (3) (4)
3. Leguminous plants possess 3.
(1) Napiform roots (1)
(2) Nodulated roots (2)
(3) Tuberous roots (3)
(4) Fusiform roots (4)
4. See the following diagrams 4.
Which of the following is not correct about A, B, C A, B, C D

and D (1) A, B C D
(1) A, B and C are underground roots but D grows
vertically upwards
(2)
(2) Pneumatophore is found in the plants that grow
in sandy soil
(3) Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for (3)
respiration
(4) Tap roots of carrot, turnip and adventitious root (4)
of sweet potato, get swollen and store food
5. New Banana plants develop from 5.
(1) Rhizome (2) Sucker (1) (2)
(3) Stolon (4) Seed (3) (4)
6. Stem takes part in storage and perennation in 6.
(1) Wheat (1)
(2) Groundnut (2)
(3) Radish (3)
(4) Ginger (4)
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7. Match the Column-I with Column-II. 7. -I -II
Column I Column II -I - II
(A) Underground stem (1) Euphorbia (A) (1)
(B) Stem tendril (2) Opuntia (B) (2)
(C) Stem thorns (3) Potato
(C) (3)
(D) Flattened stem (4) Citrus
(D) (4)
(E) Fleshy cylindrical (5) Cucumber
(E) (5)
tem
(1) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4 (1) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4
(2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-l (2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-l
(3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-l, E-2 (3) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-l, E-2
(4) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-l (4) A-3, B-5, C-4, D-2, E-l
8. Which of the following plants have long slender and 8.
coiled stem tendrils developed from axillary buds
(1) Grapevine and pumpkins (1)
(2) Australian Acacia and watermelon (2)
(3) Bougainvillea and cucumber (3)
(4) Strawberry and grapevine (4)
9. Prop roots of Banyan tree are meant for 9.
(1) Respiration (1)
(2) Absorption of water from soil (2)
(3) Retention of water in soil (3)
(4) Providing support to big tree (4)
10. Rachis is present in 10.
(1) Pinnate compound leaf (1)
(2) Palmate compound leaf (2)
(3) Both correct (3)
(4) Both wrong (4)
11. Study the following statements and select the correct 11.
option :
(A) Buds are present in the axil of leaflets of the (A)
compound leaf
(B) Pulvinus leaf-base is present in some leguminous (B)
plants
(C) In Alstonia, the petioles expand, become green (C)
and synthesize food
(D) Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava (D)
(1) (B) and (D) are correct but (A) and (C) are wrong (1) (B) (D) (A) (C)
(2) (A) and (C) are correct but (B) and (D) are wrong (2) (A) (C) (B) (D)
(3) (A) and (D) are correct but (B) and (C) are wrong (3) (A) (D) (B) (C)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) are correct but (A) is wrong (4) (B), (C) (D) (A)
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12. Identify the correct types of phyllotaxy which shown 12.
in the following figures
(1) A - Whorled, B - Alternate, C - Opposite (1) A - ,B- ,C-

(2) A - Alternate, B - Whorled, C - Opposite (2) A - ,B- ,C-
(3) A - Whorled, B - Opposite, C - Alternate (3) A - ,B- ,C-
(4) A - Alternate, B - Opposite, C - Whorled (4) A - ,B- ,C-
13. 13.
See the following figures and identify leaves A and B A B

(1) A - Palmately compound leaf, (1) A -
B - Palmately compound leaf B-
(2) A - Pinnately compound leaf, (2) A - ,
B - Pinnately compound leaf B-
(3) A - Palmately compound leaf, (3) A - ,
B - Pinnately compound leaf B-
(4) A - Pinnately compound leaf, (4) A - ,
B - Palmately compound leaf B-
14. See the following diagrams and identify inflorescence 14. A B
A and B
(1) A - Cymose, B - Cymose (1) A - B-

(2) A - Racemose, B - Racemose (2) A - ,B-
(3) A - Racemose, B - Cymose (3) A - ,B-
(4) A - Cymose, B - Racemose (4) A - ,B-
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15. In monoadelphous condition, stamens have 15.
(1) Filaments of all united in one group but anthers (1)
are fre
(2) Filaments united in groups but all anthers are (2)
free
(3) Anthers are fused but filaments are free (3)
(4) Both anthers and filaments are fused (4)
16. Perianth represents the 16.
(1) Sepal (2) Petal (1) (2)
(3) Tepal (4) Carpel (3) (4)
17. Tetradynamous condition is related to 17.
(1) Androecium (2) Inflorescence (1) (2)
(3) Perianth (4) Gynoecium (3) (4)
18. The flower of Calotropis has which of the following 18.
aestivations
(1) Twisted (2) Imbricate (1) (2)
(3) Valvate (4) Vexillary (3) (4)
19. On the basis of position of the ovary, mustard plants are 19.
(1) Hypogynous (2) Perigynous (1) (2)
(3) Epigynous (4) Zygomorphic (3) (4)
20. When placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture 20.
of the ovary and the ovules are borne on this ridge
forming two rows, the placentation is termed as
(1) Axile (2) Parietal (1) (2)
(3) Marginal (4) Basal (3) (4)
21. When margin of thalamus grows upward enclosing 21.
ovary completely and getting fused with it and the
other parts of flower arise above the ovary, the flower
is said to be
(1) Hypogynous (2) Perigynous (1) (2)
(3) Epigynous (4) Inferior (3) (4)
22. Aleuron layer have 22.
(1) Starchy (1)
(2) Proteinous (2)
(3) Non-endospermic (3)
23. The arrangement of veins & veinlets in the leaf lamina 23.
is called as :
(1) Phyllotaxy (2) Inflorescence (1) (2)
(3) Venation (4) Non of these (3) (4)
24. The spines in cacti are modified form of : 24.
(1) Leaf (2) Stem (3) Root (4) Flower (1) (2) (3) (4)
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25. The fleshy fruits with hard and stony endocarp are 25.
called
(1) Drupe (1)
(2) Berry (2)
(3) Pepo (3)
(4) Pome (4)
26. The following diagram is the typical structure of 26.
monocotyledonous seeds. Identify all the five parts A, A, B, C, D E
B, C, D and E
(1) A - ,B- ,C- ,

(1) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum, D- ,E-
D -Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile (2) A - ,B- ,C- ,
(2) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum,
D- ,E-
D -Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza
(3) A - ,B- ,C- ,
(3) A - Embryo, B - Endosperm, C - Scutellum,
D -Coleoptile, E - Coleorhiza D- ,E-
(4) A - Endosperm, B - Embryo, C - Scutellum, (4) A - ,B- ,C- ,
D -Coleorhiza, E - Coleoptile D- ,E-
27. The following diagram is the typical structure of 27.
dicotyledonous seeds. In which one of the options all A E
the five parts A to E are correctly identified
(1) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, (1) A - ,B- ,C- ,

D - Radicle, E - Cotyledon D- ,E-
(2) A - Micropyle, B - Hilum, C - Plumule, (2) A - ,B- ,C- ,
D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle D- ,E-
(3) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Plumule, (3) A - ,B- ,C- ,
D - Cotyledon, E - Radicle D- ,E-
(4) A - Hilum, B - Micropyle, C - Radicle, (4) A - ,B- ,C- ,
D - Cotyledon, E - Plumule D- ,E-
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28. Figure - I - Mango, Figure - II - Coconut are shown 28. -I- - II -
in the following diagram. Identify the parts of the fruit A, B, C D
A, B, C and D are respectively
(1)
(1) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Embryo, Endocarp
(2) , , ,
(2) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovary, Endocarp
(3) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Ovule, Endocarp (3) , , ,
(4) Epicarp, Mesocarp, Seed, Endocarp (4) , , ,
29. The correct floral formula of Liliaceae family is 29.
(1) (2)  P (3+3)A 3+3G (3) (1) (2)  P (3+3)A 3+3G (3)
+ +
(3) (4) (3) (4)
30. Colchicine is obtained from which of the following 30.
families (1)
(1) Brassicaceae
(2)
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Poaceae (3)
(4) Fabaceae (4)
31. Which of the following is correct with reference to 31.
flowers of family solanaceae
(1) Pentamerous, actinomorphic, unisexual, hypogynous (1)
(2) Pentamerous, zygomorphic, bisexual, epigynous (2) ,
(3) Pentamerous, bisexual, actinomorphic, hypogynous (3)
(4) Trimerous, actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous (4)
32. Which of the following represents the floral 32.
characters of Liliaceae family ?
(1) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular (1)
ovary, axile placentation
(2) Tetramerous, actinomorphic, polyphyllous, (2)
unilocular ovary, axile placentation
(3) Trimerous, actinomorphic, polyandrous, Superior (3)
ovary, axile placentation
(4) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior (4)
ovary, marginal placentation
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33. Bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium, parietal 33.
placentation, tetradynamous stamens and siliqua fruit
are characteristic features of family
(1) (2)
(1) Cucurbitaceae (2) Cruciferae
(3) Compositae (4) Solanaceae (3) (4)
34. Match the column-I with column-II 34. -I -II
Column I Column II Column I Column II
(Family) (Androecium formula) ( ) ( )
(A) Brassicaceae (1) A3+3 (A) (1) A3+3
(B) Fabaceae (2) A(5) (B) (2) A(5)
(C) Solanaceae (3) A(9)+1 (C) (3) A(9)+1
(D) Liliaceae (4) A2+4 (D) (4) A2+4
(1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l (2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4 (1) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l (2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2, B-3; C-4, D-l (4) A-3, B-4, C-l, D-2 (3) A-2, B-3; C-4, D-l (4) A-3, B-4, C-l, D-2
35. See the following figures and identify the given below 35.
species belong to which of the following families
respectively
Pea Makoi Onion

(1)
(1) Solanaceae, Fabaceae, Liliaceae
(2) Compositae, Malvaceae, Liliaceae (2)
(3) Fabaceae, Solanaceae, Liliaceae (3)
(4) Liliaceae, Compositae, Malvaceae (4)
36. Heart wood of most of the woody trees, fails to 36.
conduct sap due to the obstruction by ? :-
(1) Excess secondary wall deposition (1)
(2) Storing a variety of material by Tyloses (2)
(3) Deposition of reserved food material (3)
37. Monocot root differs from dicot root in having : 37.
(1) Open vascular bundles (1)
(2) Scattered vascular bundles (2)
(3) Well developed pith (3)
(4) Radially arranged vascular bundles (4)
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38. In dicot leaves, size of vascular bundles are dependent 38.
on the : (1)
(1) Size of the leaves (2)
(2) Size of the mesophyll cells
(3)
(3) Size of the veins
(4) Size of the bundle sheath cells (4)
39. What is true about heartwood ? 39. heartwood ?
(a) It does not help in water conduction (a)
(b) It is also called alburnum (b) alburnum
(c) It is dark in colour but is very soft (c)
(d) It has tracheary elements which are filled with (d) tannins, resins,
tannins, resins, etc.
(1) b, c, d (1) b, c, d
(2) a, b, c (2) a, b, c
(3) b, d (3) b, d
(4) a, d (4) a, d
40. The activity of cambium is under the control of : 40.
(1) Environmental factors (1)
(2) Physiological factors (2)
(3) Both 1 & 2 (3) 1 2
41. Match the columns I, II and III, and choose the correct 41. I, II III
combination from the option given : :
Column-I Column-II Column-III Column-I Column-II Column-III
a. Early wood 1. Autumn season K. Lighter colour a. Early wood 1. K.
b. Late wood 2. Spring season L. Higher density b. Late wood 2. L.
M. Darker colour M.
N. Lower density N.
Q. Wide vessels Q.
R.Narrow vessels R.
(1) a-1-K-L-Q, b-2-M-N-R (1) a-1-K-L-Q, b-2-M-N-R
(2) a-1-M-N-R, b-2-K-L-Q (2) a-1-M-N-R, b-2-K-L-Q
(3) a-2-K-N-Q, b-1-L-M-R (3) a-2-K-N-Q, b-1-L-M-R
(4) a-2-K-M-R, b-1-K-N-Q (4) a-2-K-M-R, b-1-K-N-Q
42. Read the following statements and find out the 42.
incorrect statement : (1)
(1) Phellogen develops usually in the cortex region
(2)
(2) Phellogen is couple of layers thick
(3) The cells of the secondary cortex are (3)
parenchymatous (4)
(4) The cork is impervious to water due to lignin
deposition in the cell wall
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43. Among the following, secondary growth is seen in 43. a— ,
a—dicot root, b—dicot stem, c—monocot root, d— b— , c— , d— ,
monocot stem, e—gymnosperm root, f—gymnosperm e— , f—
stem
(1) a, b, c d (2) c, d, e f
(1) a, b, c and d (2) c, d, e and f
(3) a, b, e and f (4) All of the above (3) a, b, e f (4)
44. Gymnosperm wood is soft as it : 44.
(1) Lacks cambium (1)
(2) Lacks vessels (2)
(3) Does not yield timber (3)
45. Which is true of heartwood? 45.
(1) It does not help in water transport (1)
(2) It is resistant to bacterial infections (2)
(3) It is made up of degenerated cells (3)
46. Which one contains chloroplast ? 46.
(1) Collenchyma and sclerenchyma (1)
(2) Sclerenchyma and parenchyma (2)
(3) Collenchyma and pith (3)
(4) Collenchyma and parenchyma (4)
47. Tetrach bundles occur in : 47.
(1) Leaf of Cicer arietinum (1) Cicer arietinum
(2) Leaf of Pisum sativum (2) Pisum sativum
(3) Root of Cicer arietinum (3) Cicer arietinum
(4) Root of Zea mays (4) Zea mays
48. A simple tissue with both mechanical and physiological 48.
functions in young dicotyledonous plant is :
(1) Meristematic tissue (1)
(2) Parenchyma (2)
(3) Sclerenchyma (3)
(4) Collenchyma (4)
49. Consider the following statements out of them how 49.
many statements are true and false, respectively : :
(a) Axillary bud is derived from shoot apical meristem (a)
(b) Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively (b)
known as periderm
(c) Secondary phloem and periderm are included in
(c)
bark
(d) Cicer root is triarch (d)
(1) Two and two (2) Three and one (1) Two and two (2) Three and one
(3) One and three (4) Four and none (3) One and three (4) Four and none
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50. Match the following and choose the correct 50.
combination A. 1.
A. Endodermis 1. Companion cells B. 2.
B. Stomata 2. Lenticels
C. 3.
C. Sieve tube 3. Palisade cells
D. Periderm 4. Passage cells D. 4.
E. Mesophyll 5. Accessory cells E. 5.
(1) A-4 B-5 C-2 D-1 E-3 (1) A-4 B-5 C-2 D-1 E-3
(2) A-5 B-3 C-1 D-2 E-4 (2) A-5 B-3 C-1 D-2 E-4
(3) A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2 E-3 (3) A-4 B-5 C-1 D-2 E-3
(4) A-2 B-5 C-3 D-4 E-1 (4) A-2 B-5 C-3 D-4 E-1
51. Derivatives of the secondary meristem in the steler 51.
region are : (1)
(1) Phellem and phelloderm
(2)
(2) Alburnum and primary phloem
(3)
(3) Duramen and alburnum
(4) Primary xylem and secondary phloem (4)
52. Which of the following is incorrect for collenchyma? 52.
(1) Intercellular spaces are generally absent (1)
(2) Living machanical tissue (2)
(3) Deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin (3)
in cell wall
(4) Constitutes hypodermis in dicot root (4)
53. Find the correct sequence of events during secondary 53.
growth in dicot stem :
(1) b, a, c, d (1) b, a, c, d
(2) d, c, b, a (2) d, c, b, a
(3) d, c, a, b (3) d, c, a, b
(4) d, b, c, a (4) d, b, c, a
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54. How many of the given structures are redifferentiated 54.
structures developed during secondary growth?
Primary xylem, Secondary cortex, Secondary phloem,
Primary cortex, Cork, Phellogen, Sap wood, Primary
phloem
(1) Five (2) Two (1) Five (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Three (3) Four (4) Three
55. In dicot stem, secondary growth in stelar region is 55.
due to
(1) Intercalary meristem (2) Vascular cambium (1) (2)
(3) Apical meristem (4) Phellogen (3) (4)
56. Removed parts of grasses by the grazing herbivores 56.
are regenerated fast by :
(1) Both apical and intercalary meristems (1)
(2) Lateral meristems only (2)
(3) Secondary meristems (3)
(4) Intercalary meristems (4)
57. Secondary meristems originate from ___(A)___ in 57. ___(C)__ __(B)__
___(B)__ parts of __(C)__ : __(A)__
(1) A – Primary meristem (1) A
B – Mature B
C – Dicot stem only C
(2) A – Primary permanent tissue (2) A
B – Mature B
C – Dicot stem and root C
(3) A – Primary permanent tissue (3) A
B – Mature B
C – Dicot & monocot plants C
(4) A – Primary meristem (4) A
B – Young B
C – Dicot stem, leaves and root C
58. Find out the incorrect matched pair : 58.
(1) Peripheral metaxylem – Stem (1)
(2) Peripheral protoxylem – Root (2)
(3) Phloem parenchyma – Common in monocots (3)
(4) Xylem parenchyma – Sore starch or fat (4)
59. Formation of secondary xylem and phloem 59.
respectively (1)
(1) Centrifugal and centripetal (2)
(2) Centripetal and centrifugal
(3)
(3) Both centripetal
(4) Both centrifugal (4)
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60. Leaves of grasses roll and unroll due to :- 60.
(1) Hormonal change (1)
(2) Change in temperature (2)
(3) Change in turgor pressure (3)
(4) Presence of bulliform apparatus (4)
61. Identify the correct match w.r.t. wood characters : 61.
Wood Feature
(1)Heart wood Peripheral non-functional
(1)
wood
(2)Sap wood Light coloured wood (2)
involved in conduction of
water and minerals (3)
(3)Early wood Small sized vessels in xylem
elements
(4)Autumn wood Cambium is more active (4)
62. Water-containing cavities are present in vascular 62.
bundles of :
(1) Rice root (1)
(2) Cucurbita stem (2)
(3) Maize stem (3)
(4) Mustard root (4)
63. Identify the given anatomy and choose the correct 63.
statement :
(1) Phloem parenchyma is absent (1)

(2) It has semilunar patches of sclerenchyma just above (2)
medullary rays
(3) It has large number of scattered vascular bundles (3)
(4) The innermost layer of cortex is rich in starch (4)
grains
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64. Dead, long cylindrical tube like most advance 64.
conducting element of xylem, present in mustard plant is :
(1) Wood fibres (2) Vessels (1) (2)
(3) Tracheids (4) Xylem parenchyma (3) (4)
65. Grittiness of the guava fruit pulp is due to : 65. pulp
(1) Chlorenchyma (2) Idioblast (1) (2)
(3) Fibres (4) Sclereids (3) (4)
66. The cells which are in the continuous state of division 66.
also show presence of :
(1) Plastids (1)
(2) Large sized vacuoles (2)
(3) Thin cellulosic cell wall (3)
(4) Inconspicuous nucleus (4)
67. Which of the following meristems does not originate/ 67.
appear early in the life of plants ?
(1) Intercalary meristem (1) (Intercalary meristem)
(2) Intrafascicular cambium (2) (Intrafascicular cambium)
(3) Apical meristem (3) (Apical meristem)
(4) Interfascicular cambium (4) (Interfascicular cambium)
68. Which of the following is capable of forming either a 68.
branch or a flower - (1) (2)
(1) Intercalary meristem (2) Axillary bud
(3) Lateral meristem (4) Vegetative bud (3) (4)
69. Cell which become structurally and functionally 69.
specialised and lose the ability to divide are termed as-
(1) Permanent or mature cells (1)
(2) Meristematic cell (2)
(3) Immature cell (3)
(4) Undifferentiated cell (4)
70. Vegetative shoot apical meristem : 70.
(1) Responsible for primary growth (1)
(2) Protected by leaf primordium (2)
(3) Produce floral part during reproductive phase (3)
71. Which is the thinest epithelial tissue ? 71.
(1) Simple (2) Compound (1) (2)
(3) Transitional (4) Simple Squamons (3) (4)
72. Heighest regeneration power is present in : 72.
(1) Epithelial tissue (1)
(2) Connective tissue (2)
(3) Muscular tissue (3)
(4) Nervous tissue (4)
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73. Choose the incorrect statement : 73.
(1) Straited muscles are of two types skeletal & cardiac (1)
(2) Involuntry muscles are of two types smooth & cardiac (2)
(3) Uninucleated muscles are of two types smooth & (3)
cardiac
(4) Branched muslces are of two types skeletal & cardiac (4)
74. First body segment in earthworm is called : 74.
(1) Prostomium (1)
(2) Pygidium (2)
(3) Peristomium (3)
(4) Probosis (4)
75. Choose the incorrect statmenet : 75.
(1) All mouth part in cockroach are chitinous except (1)
hypopharynx
(2) Alimentary canal of cockroach lined by cuticle (2)
except midgut
(3) Development is indirect in cockroach (3)
(4) Eyes & ovaries are compound in cockroach. (4)
76. In frog, how many structure open in Cloaca, Among, 76.
Degestive Tract, Reproductive Tract, Urenary Tract,
Urinnay Bladder, Urethra. (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 2 (3) 5 (4) 2
77. Choose the correct statement w.r.t frog. 77.
(1) Ovary & testis fused both phyically & (1)
physiologically
(2) Ovary & kidney fused physiologically not (2)
physically
(3) Testis & kidney fused both physically & (3)
physiologically (4)
(4) Testis & kidney fused physically not physiologically
78. In frog digestion starts from : 78.
(1) Buccal cavity (1)
(2) Oesophagus (2)
(3) Stomach (3)
(4) Before mouth (4)
79. Diaphragm, Cloaca, Anus, Urethra, Urinary bladder, 79.
Fat bodies, RBC RBC
How many structre present in both cockorach & frog.
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
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80. Match the column-I with column-II w.r.t. cockroach. 80. Match the column-I with column-II w.r.t. cockroach.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(i) Allary muscles (a) 13 (i) (a) 13
(ii) Heart chamber (b) 12 pair (ii) (b) 12 pair
(iii) 1st pair wings (c) 2 pair (iii) (c) 2 pair
(iv) Eyes (d) Tagmina (iv) (d) Tagmina
(1) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c (1) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d (2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d (3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(4) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b (4) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
81. Most ideal connective tissue is : 81.
(1) Areoler (1)
(2) Adipose (2)
(3) Dense regular (3)
(4) Bone (4)
82. Which epithelial tissue is present in buccal cavity 82.
phaynx and duct of gland ?
(1) Simple (1)
(2) Compound (2)
(3) Transitional (3)
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) (1) (2)
83. Which of the following cells are mesodermal in origin? 83.
(1) Nerves cells (1)
(2) Astrocytes (2)
(3) Oligodendro cytes (3)
(4) Microgleal cells. (4)
84. Which cells act as both muscle cell as well as nerve 84.
cell also ?
(1) Smooth muscle cells (1)
(2) Cardiac muscle cells (2)
(3) Skeletal muscle cells (3)
(4) Non straited muscle cells (4)
85. Intercalated disc present in 85.
(1) All muscles (1)
(2) Cardiac muscles only (2)
(3) Smooth muscles only (3)
(4) Nervus tissue (4)
86. Which of the following is/are nonvascular structure? 86.
(1) Epthelial tissue & bone (1)
(2) Cartilage & smooth muscles (2)
(3) Cartilage & Epithelial tissue (3)
(4) Bone & cartilage (4)
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87. In our body excess nutrient stored as : 87.
(1) Adipose tissue (1)
(2) Areoler tissue (2)
(3) Skin dermis (3)
(4) Blood (4)
88. Which type vision found in cockroach ? 88.
(1) Mosaic with less resolution (1)
(2) Mosaic with high resolution (2)
(3) No image formed in cockroach (3)
(4) Vision form only during night (4)
89. In cockroach coiled part of alimantry canal is : 89.
(1) Foregut (1)
(2) Midght (2)
(3) Hind gut (3)
(4) (1) & (3) both (4) (1) (3)
90. Choose the correct statement : 90.
(1) A female cockroach produce 9-10 ootheca (1) 9-10
(2) A female frog lays 250-300 eggs at a time (2) 250-300
(3) Fertilization is external in cockroach (3)
(4) Development is direct in frog (4)
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prohibited.
Sheet.



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Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 1 2 2 2 4 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 2
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 2 4 3 4 2 1 4 4 1 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 1 2 1
HINT – SHEET
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44. NCERT XI, Pg # 96 71. NCERT XI, Pg. # 101
50. NCERT XI, Pg # 87 to 89 77. NCERT XI, Pg. # 119
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*1701CMD305219015* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 03
CHEMISTRY : ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
Nomenclature + Isomerism
BIOLOGY : STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS
(viii) Cell : The Unit of Life

(ix) Biomolecules
(x) Cell Cycle and Cell Division
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1. How many functional groups are present in following 1.
compound ?
O
O O NH N
O NH N
O OH O
O OH O
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4 (3) 5 (4) 4
2. How many 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° carbon atom present is 2. 2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane 1°, 2°, 3° 4°
2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane -
(1) 4, 2, 1, 1 (2) 5, 1, 1, 1 (1) 4, 2, 1, 1 (2) 5, 1, 1, 1
(3) 5, 0, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 0, 1 (3) 5, 0, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 0, 1
3. Which is incorrect combination of structure and name 3.
of compound ? (1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane C(CH3)4
(1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane C(CH3)4 (2) 2, 2-dimethylheptane (CH3)3C(CH2)CH3
(2) 2, 2-dimethylheptane (CH3)3C(CH2)CH3
(3) 3, 5-diethyl-3,5-dimethylheptane
(3) 3, 5-diethyl-3,5-dimethylheptane
C(C2H5)2(CH3)CH2(C2H5)CH(CH3)CH2CH3 C(C2H5)2(CH3)CH2(C2H5)CH(CH3)CH2CH3
(4) 3-methylhexane CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3 (4) 3-methylhexane CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
4. Which is incorrect name of given compound ? 4.
O O
(1) 3-methyl-3-butenal (1) 3-methyl-3-butenal
O O O O
(2) 2,4-pentanedion (2) 2,4-pentanedion
OH OH
(3) cyclopent-1-en-3-ol (3) cyclopent-1-en-3-ol
OH OH
| |
(4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH3 (4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
3-methylpentan-2-ol 3-methylpentan-2-ol
5. Which is correct structure of isopropyl 2, 5. isopropyl 2,2-dimethylpropanoate
2-dimethylpropanoate ? ?
O O O O
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O O O
O O
(3) (4) O (3) (4) O
O O O O
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6. Which is incorrect combination of IUPAC name and 6. IUPAC
structure of compound ?
(1) cyclohex-3-en-1-one O (1) cyclohex-3-en-1-one O
(2) 4-oxopentanal CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CHO (2) 4-oxopentanal CH 3  C  CH 2  CH 2  CHO

|| ||
O O
(3) 2, 2,-dimethyl-3,4-dioxobutanoic acid (3) 2, 2,-dimethyl-3,4-dioxobutanoic acid
O O
COOH COOH
O O
(4) Pent-3-en-1-yne HC  C–CH=CH–CH3 (4) Pent-3-en-1-yne HC  C–CH=CH–CH3
CH 3 CH 3
7. Which is correct IUPAC name of 7. IUPAC
(1) 4-methylclopenta-1,3-diene (1) 4-methylclopenta-1,3-diene

(2) 1-methylcyclopenta-2,4-diene (2) 1-methylcyclopenta-2,4-diene
NH 2 NH 2
CH3 CH3
8. Which is correct IUPAC name of 8. IUPAC
OH OH
(1) 4-amino-3-methylphenol (1) 4-amino-3-methylphenol

(2) 2-amino-5-hydroxytoluene (2) 2-amino-5-hydroxytoluene
(3) 4-hydroxy-2-methylaniline (3) 4-hydroxy-2-methylaniline
(4) 1-amino-4-hydroxy-2-methylbenzene (4) 1-amino-4-hydroxy-2-methylbenzene
9. The IUPAC name of the compound 9. IUPAC
CH3  HC  CH  CH  CH2COOH is : CH3  HC  CH  CH  CH2COOH

| |
NH2 NH2
(1) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid (1) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid

(2) -Amino--heptenoic acid (2) -Amino--heptenoic acid
(3) 3-Aminohex-4-enoic acid (3) 3-Aminohex-4-enoic acid
(4) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid (4) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid
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10. Which of the following IUPAC name is correct? 10. IUPAC
(1) 3-ehyl-2-methylpentane (1) 3-ehyl-2-methylpentane
(2) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol (2) 2-methylpentane-2,4-diol
(3) 4,4-dimethylpent-2-yne (3) 4,4-dimethylpent-2-yne
(4) All (4)
11. Which is structure of Ethanoic propanoic anhydride? 11. Ethanoic propanoic anhydride ?
O O O O
(1) O (2) (1) O (2)
O O
O O
O O O O
O O
(3) O (4) (3) O (4)
O O
12. IUPAC name of 4-isopropyl-m-xylene is : 12. 4-isopropyl-m-xylene IUPAC

(1) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-xylene (1) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-xylene
(2) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene (2) 1-isopropyl-2,4-dimethyl benzene
(3) 4-Isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene (3) 4-Isopropyl-3,5-dimethylbenzene
(4) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-diemthylbenzene (4) 4-Isopropyl-1,3-diemthylbenzene
13. The IUPAC name of 13. IUPAC
CH 2 CH3 CH 2 CH3
|| | is : || |
C2 H5  C  CH 2  CH  NH 2 C2 H5  C  CH 2  CH  NH 2
(1) 4-Ethylpent-4-en-2-amine (1) 4-Ethylpent-4-en-2-amine
(2) Amino-4-pentene (2) Amino-4-pentene
(3) 2-Ethylpentan-4-amine (3) 2-Ethylpentan-4-amine
(4) 4-Amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene (4) 4-Amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene
14. Which is incorrect IUPAC name ? 14. IUPAC
(1) 4-phenyl-3-hydroxybutanal (1) 4-phenyl-3-hydroxybutanal
(2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane (2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol (3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone (4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone
15. Which statement is incorrect for 15.
CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  CH 2
| | | | | |
CN CN CN CN CN CN
(1) IUPAC name is propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile (1) IUPAC propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(2) Carbon is sp3 and sp hybridised (2) sp3 sp
(3) Five 2° hydrogen atoms are present (3) 2°
(4) All nitrogen atoms are sp hybridised (4) sp
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16. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 16. IPUAC
IPUAC name ?
(1) CH=CH–COOH
(1) CH=CH–COOH
3-phenylprop-2-enoic acid
3-phenylprop-2-enoic acid
(2) CH 2  CH  CH  CH3
(2) CH 2  CH  CH  CH 3 |
| OH
OH
1-methylprop-2-en-1-ol
1-methylprop-2-en-1-ol
(3) CH2=CH–CN
(3) CH2=CH–CN
prop-2-ene-1-nitrile prop-2-ene-1-nitrile
CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  CH 2
(4) | | | (4) | | |
OH OH OH OH OH OH
Propane-1,2,3-triol Propane-1,2,3-triol
17. Which is incorrect statement ? 17.
(1) IUPAC name of urea is 1-Aminomethanamide (1) IUPAC 1-Aminomethanamide
(2) IUPAC name of maleic acid is propane-1,3-dioic (2) Maleic acid IUPAC propane-1,3-dioic acid
acid
(3) IUPAC name of mesitylene is 1,3,5- (3) Mesitylene IUPAC 1,3,5-trimetylbenzene
trimetylbenzene
(4) IUPAC name of DMF is N,N- (4) DMF IUPAC N,N-dimethylmethanamide
dimethylmethanamide
18. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 18. IUPAC
IUPAC name ? OH
OH COOH
(1)
COOH
(1)
3(5-hydroxycyclopen-2-enyl)-propanoic acid
3(5-hydroxycyclopen-2-enyl)-propanoic acid
(2) CH 3  O  CH 2  CH  CH3
(2) CH 3  O  CH 2  CH  CH3 |
| C2 H5
C2 H5
1-methoxy-2-methylbutane
1-methoxy-2-methylbutane
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–NH–CH3
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–NH–CH3
Allyl methylamine Allyl methylamine
(4) Cl  C  OC 2 H 5 (4) Cl  C  OC 2 H 5
|| ||
O O
Ethyl-1-chloromethanoate Ethyl-1-chloromethanoate
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19. Which compound have incorrect common name? 19.
(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH Crotonic acid (1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH Crotonic acid
(2) CH2=CH–CN Acrylonitrile (2) CH2=CH–CN Acrylonitrile
HO  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH3 HO  CH 2  CH  CH 2  CH3
(3) | (3) |
CH 3 CH 3
Isopentylalcohol Isopentylalcohol
CH 2  CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2 CH 2  CH  C  CH 2  CH  CH 2
(4) || (4) ||
O O
Allyl vinyl ketone Allyl vinyl ketone
20. Which is incorrect combination of structure and 20. IUPAC
IUPAC name ?
(1) CH2=CH–C  CH But-1-en-3-yne (1) CH2=CH–C  CH But-1-en-3-yne
(2) CH 3  C  CH  C  CH (2) CH 3  C  CH  C  CH
| |
Cl Cl
2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne 2-chloropent-2-en-4-yne
CHO CHO
| |
(3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3 (3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CH 3
| |
CHO CHO
2-methy-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial 2-methy-3-propylbutan-1,4-dial
CH3  C  CH 2  COOC2 H5 CH3  C  CH 2  COOC2 H5

(4) || (4) ||
O O
Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate Ethyl-3-oxobutanoate
(1) Ethoxyethane and 1-methoxypropane are (1) Ethoxyethane 1-methoxypropane
metamers
(2) Diethyl ether and Butanone are isomeric
(2) Diethyl ether Butanone
compounds
(3) n-Butane and isobutane are chain isomers (3) n-Butane isobutane
(4) Number of dibromoderivatives possible for (4) Dibromoderivatives
propane are 4
22. How many monochlorodervatives are possible for 22. monochlorodervatives
neohexane ?
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
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23. Which is correct statements ? 23.
(1) The functional group isomer of ethane nitrile is (1) Ethane nitrile methyl carbylamine
methyl carbylamine
(2) Isohexane and neohexane are chain isomers (2) Isohexane neohexane
(3) Isopropyl amine and trimethylamine are functional (3) Isopropyl amine trimethylamine
group isomers
(4) All (4)
24. Which can show Tautomerism ? 24.
O O
OH OH
OH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
O O
O OH O OH
O O O O
(3) (4) (3) (4)
25. In which of the following cases functional isomerism 25.

is not possible ?
(1) C2H6O (2) CH2O (3) C3H6O (4) C4H8O2 (1) C2H6O (2) CH2O (3) C3H6O (4) C4H8O2
26. Which of the following will not show tautomerism? 26.
(1) HCN (2) Dimethyl Ethere (1) HCN (2) Dimethyl Ethere
O O
(3) CH3CH2NO2 (4) (3) CH3CH2NO2 (4)
27. Which statement is incorrect ? 27.

(1) CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 –OCH 3 and CH 3 –CH 2 –O– (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OCH3 CH3–CH2–O–CH2–
CH2–CH3 are metamers CH3
(2) C6H14 can form five chain isomers (2) C6H14
(3) CH3COOH and HCOOCH3 are functional group (3) CH 3 COOH HCOOCH 3
isomers
(4) Isobutyl alcohol is primary alcohol (4) Isobutyl alcohol alcohol
28. How many amines are formed from C4H11N ? 28. C4H11N amines ?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
29. Which is incorrect statement regarding C4H10O 29. C4H10O
(1) Total possible structural isomers are 7 (1) 7
(2) Four isomers produce H2 when treated with Na. (2) H2
(3)
(3) One isomer gives unsaturation test
(4) Tolle's
(4) No isomer give +ve test Tolle's reagent.
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30. Possible Benzenoid compound from C8H10 are 30. C8H10
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1
31. Which is incorrect order ? 31.
(1) Fully eclipsed > Partially eclipsed > Gauche > Anti (1) > > > Anti from (
from (order of energy)
(2) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (stability) )
(3) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of melting (2) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
point)
(3) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
(4) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene (order of boiling
point) (4) Trans-2-butene > cis-2-butene ( )
32. Which compound can exhibit geometrical isomerism? 32.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) F2C = CHF (3) (4) F2C = CHF

Cl Cl
33. Which compound have incorrect configuration ? 33.
NC Cl NC Cl
C=C C=C
(1) H 2N I (1) H 2N I
Z Z
D 3C CH 2–Br D 3C CH 2–Br
C=C C=C
(2) H 3C Cl (2) H 3C Cl
Z Z
CH3 Cl CH3 Cl
C=C C=C
(3) Cl CH 3 (3) Cl CH 3
E E
CH3 CH 3 CH3 CH 3
C=C C=C
(4) H H (4) H H
Z Z
34. Which is inocrrect statement ? 34.
(1) Chiral molecules are optically active compounds (1)
(2) Meso tartric acid is optically inactive. (2) Meso tartric
(3) For optical isomerism compound must have chiral (3)
carbon
(4) cis & trans 2-butene are diastereomers (4) cis trans 2-butene
35. Which compound does not shows Geometrical 35.
isomerism ? (1) 1-Pentene (2) 2-Pentene
(1) 1-Pentene (2) 2-Pentene
(3) 2-Hexene (4) 3-Heptene
(3) 2-Hexene (4) 3-Heptene
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36. Which compound have D-configuration ? 36. D- ?
CHO CHO
HO H HO H
(1) (1)
CH 2OH CH 2OH
H H
CH2 OH CHO CH2 OH CHO

(2) (2)
OH OH
CH2OH CH2OH
HO H HO H
(3) (3)
CHO CHO
HO HO
CH 2OH CH 2OH
(4) OHC (4) OHC
H H
37. Which have R-configuration ? 37. R- ?

H OH H OH
OH OH
(1) HOH2C (2) HOH2C H
(1) HOH2C (2) HOH2C H
CHO CHO CHO CHO
H3 C H H3 C H
(3) (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) (4) (1) (3)
Cl NH2 Cl NH2
38. Which compound is optically active ? 38. ?
(1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl amine (1) Isobutyl alcohol (2) Sec. butyl amine
(3) Ethyl methyl amine (4) tert. pentyl alcohol (3) Ethyl methyl amine (4) tert. pentyl alcohol
39. Which is meso form ? 39. meso ?
H H H H
CH3 HO CH3 COOH CH3 HO CH3 COOH
(1) H HO (2) H COOH (1) H HO (2) H COOH
CH3 H CH3 H
COOH CH 3 COOH CH 3
H OH H OH H OH H OH
(3) H OH (4) H OH (3) H OH (4) H OH
COOH COOH COOH COOH
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40. How many minimum carbon atom required in 40. Carboxylic acid
carboxylic acid to exhibit optical isomerism ?
(1) 2 (1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 3
(3) 4 (3) 4
(4) 5 (4) 5
41. In which compound two chiral carbon atom present? 41.
Cl Cl
(1) (1)
Cl Cl
(2) HO OH (2) HO OH
CH3  CH  CH  CH 3 CH3  CH  CH  CH 3
| | | |
CH 2 OH CH 2 OH
(3) | (3) |
Cl Cl
CH3 CH3
OH OH
(4) (4)

(1) Cinnamic acid can exhibit geometrical isomerism (1) Cinnamic acid
(2) Crotonic acid can exhibit geometrical isomerism (2) Crotonic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid can exhibit optical isomerism (3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Ethylene glycol can exhibit conformational isomerism (4) Ethylene glycol
43. How many stereo isomers are formed by 43.
CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH3 CH3  CH  CH  CH  CH3

| |
NH 2 NH 2
(1) 4 (1) 4
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 8 (4) 8
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(1) Racemic mixture is optically inactive due to (1) Racemic
external compensation
(2) Isobutene can exhibit geometrical isomerism
O (2) Isobutene
(3) have more enol content as compared to O O
(3) enol
O
(4) D-glucose D-fructose

(4) D-glucose and D-fructose are functional group
isomers
45. How many minimum carbon atom are required to 45.
exhibit both geometrical and optical isomerism in
alkene ? (1) 4 (2) 5
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 (3) 6 (4) 7
46. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? 46.
(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent (1)
existence
(2)
(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a
cell does not ensure independent living
(3) Matthias Schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed (3) ( )
that body of animals are composed of cells and
products of cells
(4)
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the
cell theory
47. Which of the following is incorrect for Rudolf Virchow? 47.
(1) He gave the statement 'Omnis cellula e cellula' (1) ' '
(2) He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and (2)
Schwann to give cell theory a final shape
(3)
(3) According to him, all cells arise from pre-existing
cells (4)
(4) He proposed the cell theory but this theory did
not explain how new cells are formed
48. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t. size ? 48.
(1) Mycoplasma — 0.3 um in length (1) — 0.3 um
(2) Bacteria — 3-5 um in length (2) — 3-5 um
(3) RBC — 7 um in diameter (3) RBC — 7 um
(4) All are correct (4)
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49. Choose the wrong match w.r.t. shapes of bacteria : 49.
(1) Coccus — Spherical (1) —
(2) Vibrio — Comma (2) —
(3) Spirillum — Rod-like (3) —
(4) Bacillus — Rod-like (4) —
50. The bacterial cell envelope consisting of a tightly bound 50.
three layered structure from outside to inside is :
(1) Cell wall  Glycocalyx  Plasma membrane (1)  
(2) Plasma membrane  Glycocalyx  Cell wall (2)  
(3) Glycocalyx  Cell wall  Plasma membrane (3)  
(4) Glycocalyx  Plasma membrane  Cell wall (4)  
51. Polyribosomes or polysomes represent: 51.
(1) Microbodies like glyoxysomes (1)
(2) Ribosomes and snRNA
(2) snRNA
(3) Aggregation of rRNA
(4) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA (3) rRNA
forming a chain (4) mRNA
52. Which one is not incorrect for plasma membrane? 52.
(1) It is selectively permeable to some molecules (1)
present on either side of it
(2) It allows neutral solutes to pass through only by (2)
carrier proteins
(3) Na+ / K+ pump performs secondary active transport (3) Na+ / K+
53. Cell wall : 53.
(1) is a living structure (1)
(2) Provides a free passage for undesirable (2)
macromolecules (3)
(3) Of algal cell is made of cellulose, galactans
mannans and calcium carbonate (4)
(4) Has middle lamella, mainly made of magnesium pectate
54. Which of the following is true for ER ? 54.
(1) It is involved in synthesis of lipid (1)
(2) It is not included in endomembrane system (2)
(3) It is found in some prokaryotes (3)
(4) It is a double membrane bound structure (4)
55. Select the odd one out w.r.t. endo-membrane system 55.
(1) Vacuole (1)
(2) Golgi and ER (2)
(3) Mitochondria and chloroplast (3)
(4) Lysosome (4)
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56. In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy upto ____ % 56. ____ %
of the volume of the cell.
(1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 90 (1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 90
57. The 'Power house' of cell : 57.
(1) Is bound by a single membrane (1)
(2) Posses cristae which are extension of its outer (2)
membrane
(3) Are sites of formation of 'energy currency' of (3)
the cell (4)
(4) Is found in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells
58. Which of the following possess DNA ? 58. DNA
(1) Mitochondria (1) /
(2) Chloroplast (2)
(3) Golgi apparatus (3)
(4) More than one option is correct (4)
59. Which of the following is non-membranous cell 59. /
organdies/structures? (1)
(1) Ribosome, centriole
(2)
(2) Nucleolus, centrosome
(3) Chromosome, microtubules (3)
60. The cell organelle responsible for autolysis is : 60.
(1) Glyoxysomes (1)
(2) 'Sucidal bags' (2)
(3) Autophagosomes (3)
61. The ribosomes of eukaryotic cytoplasm, mitochondria 61.
and plastids are respectively :-
(1) 80S, 70S and 70S (1) 80S, 70S 70S
(2) 70S, 70S and 80S (2) 70S, 70S 80S
(3) 50S, 30S and 70S (3) 50S, 30S 70S
(4) 70S, 80S and 70S (4) 70S, 80S 70S
62. The cells which are secretory in function have 62.
abundant :
(1) Mitochondria (2) Dictyosome (1) (2)
(3) Plastid (4) Vacuoles (3) ( ) (4)
63. Extra-nuclear inheritance is due to the presence of 63.
genes in : (1)
(1) Mitochondria (2)
(2) Chloroplast
(3) (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Nucleus and ER (4)
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64. Which of the following is correct for the diagrma given 64.
below?
(1)
(1) It represents prokaryotic flagella (2) '9 + 0'
(2) It possess '9 + 0' microtubular organisation (3) (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4)
(4) It represents hair-like outgrowths of cell
membrane in eukaryotic ciliates and flagellates
65. The arrangement of microtubules of a flagellum (F) 65. (F) (B)
and a centriole (B) in eukaryotes is :
(1) F = 9 +2, B = 9 + 2 (1) F = 9 +2, B = 9 + 2
(2) F = 8 + 2, B = 5 + 4 (2) F = 8 + 2, B = 5 + 4
(3) F = 9 + 0, B = 9 + 2 (3) F = 9 + 0, B = 9 + 2
(4) F = 9 + 2, B = 9 + 0 (4) F = 9 + 2, B = 9 + 0
66. Ribosome is made of : 66.
(1) rRNA + protein (1) rRNA +
(2) rRNA + mRNA + protein (2) rRNA + mRNA +
(3) mRNA + protein (3) mRNA +
(4) rRNA + tRNA + protein (4) rRNA + tRNA +
67. Which one is correct for lysosomes ? 67.
(1) It is non-membranous (1)
(2) It lacks proteases (2)
(3) It works at a lower pH than the cytoplasm (3) pH
(4) It is abundantly present in plant cells (4)
68. Select the wrong match : 68.
(1) Aleuroplast — Protein storage (1) —
(2) Elaioplast — Fat/oil storage (2) — /
(3) Amyloplast — Starch storage (3) —
(4) Etioplast — Chlorophyll storage (4) —
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69. ATP synthesis occur in : 69. ATP
(2) Chloroplast (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Leucoplasts (4)
70. Which of the following has direct connections to outer 70.
membrane of nuclear envelope ?
(1) RER (1)
(2) Golgi (2)
(4) Plastid (4)
71. Choose the correct one for the chromosome given below: 71.
(1) It is with one chromatid and one molecule of

(1) DNA
dsDNA
(2) It is with two chromatids and two molecules of (2) DNA
dsDNA (3)
(3) It is with two chromatids and two arms
(4) It is one arm and two chromatids (4)
72. The photosynthetic pigments in a chloroplast is 72.
restricted to : (1) ( )
(1) Stroma (2)
(2) Outer membrane
(3)
(3) Thylakoid
(4) Inner membrane (4)
73. The number of chloroplast in Chlamydomonas is 73. ________
________ and in a mesophyll cell ranges between ________
________ .
(1) 1, 2 – 4 (2) 2, 20 – 40 (1) 1, 2 – 4 (2) 2, 20 – 40
(3) 20 – 40, 1 (4) 1, 20 – 40 (3) 20 – 40, 1 (4) 1, 20 – 40
74. The interphase nucleus has highly extende 74.
nucleoprotein fibres called :
(1) Chromosomes (1)
(2) Chromatin (2)
(3) Chromatid (3)
(4) Pericentriolar satellite (4)
75. Nucleus is absent in : 75.
(1) Mature RBC (1) RBC
(2) Mature sieve tube (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) All mature cells (4)
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76. Which of the following is incorrect ? 76.
(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth's (1)
crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
(2) The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen (2)
with respect to other elements is higher in any
living organism than in earth's crust
(3) The % weight of nitrogen in earth's crust is very (3)
high in comparison to human body
(4) The % weight of silicon in earth's crust is very (4)
high in comparison to human body
77. For the chemical analysis of a tissue, it is generally 77.
grind in which acid ?
(1) Trichloroacetic acid (1)
(2) Triodobenzoic acid (2)
(3) Sulphuric acid (3)
(4) Acetic acid (4)
78. Identify the amino acids marked as A, B and C : 78. A, B C :
(1) A = Alanine, B = Serine, C = Glycine (1) A = ,B= ,C=

(2) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Arginine (2) A = ,B= ,C=
(3) A = Glutamic acid, B = Serine, C = Alanine (3) A = ,B= ,C=
(4) A = Glycine, B = Serine, C = Alanine (4) A = ,B= ,C=
79. Given below are the example of few amino acids : 79.
Glutamic acid, lysine, valine, tyrosine, phenylalanine,
tryptophan.
How many of the above are aromatic amino acids ?
(1) 4
(1) 4
(2) 2
(2) 2
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
80. The protein structure that gives a 3-D view is : 80. 3-D
(1) -helix (1) -
(2) Primary structure (2)
(3) Tertiary structure (3)
(4)  -pleated sheath (4)  -pleated sheath
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81. Observe the structural formula of organic compound 81.
given below and answer accordingly :
(1)
(1) It represents trihydroxypropane (2) ( )
(2) It represents cholesterol- a component of cell
membrane (3)
(3) It represents a phospholipid called gingely oil
(4) It represents a phospholipid called lecithin, a (4)
component of cell membrane
82. Choose a saturated fatty acid : 82.
(1) Palmitic acid (2) Linoleic acid (1) (2)
(3) Oleic acid (4) Arachidonic acid (3) (4)
83. Which of the two groups of the structure of an amino 83.
acid given below are involved in peptide bond formation?
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (1) (i) (iii) (2) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) (3) (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (iv)
84. How many of compounds given below represent 84. (X)
nucleosides (X) and nucleotides (Y). (Y)
Adenylic acid, cytidine, AMP, dCTP, Guanosine, , AMP, dCTP, ,
dAMP dAMP
(1) X = 4, Y = 2 (1) X = 4, Y = 2
(2) X = 3, Y = 3 (2) X = 3, Y = 3
(3) X = 2, Y =4 (3) X = 2, Y =4
(4) X = 1, Y = 5 (4) X = 1, Y = 5
85. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. polymer : 85.
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids (1) (2)
(3) Polysaccharides (4) Nucleic acids (3) (4)
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86. Which of the following is a protein ? 86.
(1) Antibody (1)
(2) GLUT-4 (2) GLUT-4
(3) Sensory receptors and collagen (3)
87. How many carbon atoms are usually present in 87.
monosaccharides ?
(1) 1 – 5 (2) 3 – 7 (1) 1 – 5 (2) 3 – 7
(3) 7 – 10 (4) 7 – 15 (3) 7 – 10 (4) 7 – 15
88. A segment of dsDNA has 120 adenine and 120 88. DNA 120 120
cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides
present in the segment is : (1) 120 (2) 480
(1) 120 (2) 480 (3) 60 (4) 240 (3) 60 (4) 240
89. Choose the odd one out w.r.t homopolymers : 89.
(1) Cellulose (2) Glycogen (1) (2)
(3) Protein (4) Chitin (3) (4)
90. Galactose is known as: 90.
(1) Fruit sugar (1)
(2) Brain sugar (2)
(3) Leaf sugar (3)
(4) Bone sugar (4)
91. Identify X and Y in the newly synthesised polypeptide 91. X Y
chain given below :
(1) X = —NH2, Y = —COOK (1) X = —NH2, Y = —COOK

(2) X = —NH2, Y = —COOH (2) X = —NH2, Y = —COOH
(3) X = —COOH, Y = —NH2 (3) X = —COOH, Y = —NH2
(4) X = —COOR, Y = —NH2 (4) X = —COOR, Y = —NH2
92. Which of the following is a zwitter ion ? 92.
(1) W (2) W and X (1) W (2) W X

(3) W and Y (4) X (3) W Y (4) X
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93. Identify the sugars A and B : 93. A B :
(1) A = Glucose, B = Deoxyribose (1) A = ,B=

(2) A = Glucose, B = Ribose (2) A = ,B=
(3) A = Pentose, B = Hexose (3) A = ,B=
(4) A = Non-reducing sugar, B = Ribose (4) A = ,B=
94. What does X and Y represents the structures 94. X Y
provided?
(1) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Guanine (1) X = ,Y=

(2) X = Uridine, Y = Uridylic aicd (2) X = ,Y=
(3) X = Thymidylic acid, Y = Adenine (3) X = ,Y=
(4) X = Adenylic acid, Y = Adenine (4) X = ,Y=
95. Find out the primary, secondary, tertiary and 95.
quaternary protein structures in the diagram :
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96. In onion root cell there is 16 chromosome. Than find 96. 16
out how many chromosome and DNA moleculewill DNA
be in following stages. DNA
Chromosome DNA (A) G1 – 16 16
(A) G1 phase – 16 16 (B) – 16 32
(B) Prophase – 16 32 (C) – 32 64
(C) Anaphase – 32 64 (D) – 32 32
(D) Metaphase – 32 32
Which option is not proper ? (1) B, C (2) C, D
(1) B, C (2) C, D (3) Only D (4) Only B (3) D (4) B
97. Which one is related with quiscent stage of cell cycle? 97.
(A) Parmanenet loss the capibility of division (A)
(B) Metabolicly inactive so they exited the G1 phase. (B) G1
(C) These stage cell are suspended to cell cycle & (C)
may enter again to cell cycle on need of organism.
(D) Heart cell in adult animal always remain in quies (D)
cent stage.
(1) B & C (2) A & B (3) Only C (4) C and D (1) B C (2) A B (3) C (4) C D
98. Which statement is not related with prophase ? 98.
(1) Duplication of chromosome take place (1)
(2) Chromosome material untangled. (2)
(3) Centriol begain to move toward oposite pole. (3)
(4) Duplicated chromosome appear (4)
99. Which one will not visulised at end of prophase : 99.
(1) Golgi complex and Endoplasmic repicolum (1)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Endoplasmic reficalum only (4)
100. Metaphase is best stage for study of chromosome, 100.
which one is not character of metaphase ?
(A) Spindle fiber attach to chromosome (A)
(B) Condensation of chromosome complete in this (B)
phase (C)
(C) Sister chromtid held with kinetochrose (D) I II
(D) In metaphse I number of bivalent is equal with
number of chromosome in metaphase II (1) C D (2) C
(1) C & D (2) Only C (3) A, C & D (4) All (3) A, C D (4)
101. Centromere of each chromosome is toward the pole 101.
and arms of chromosome trailing behind it. This :
statement is related with :
(1) (2)
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophast (3) (4)
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102. Which one is not characterstic of anaphase ? 102.
(1) Joining of spindle fiber to chromosome (1)
(2) Spliting of chromosome. (2)
(3) Movement of chromatid toward pole (3)
(4) Movement of chromatid away from equatorial line (4)
103. In which stage the chromosome loss their individuality 103.
(1) Prophase (2) Interphase (1) (2)
(3) Metaphase (4) Telophase (3) (4)
104. Syncytium condition known as : 104.
(1) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis (1)
(2) Cytokinesis not followed by karyokinesis
(3) Chromosome duplication is not followed by (2)
karyokinesis (3)
(4) Chromosome spliting not followed by karyokinesis (4)
105. Which one ensecure the haploid phase in life cycle 105.
of sexualy reproducing organism ?
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis (1) (2)
(3) Crossing over (4) gamet formation (3) (4)
106. If a gamete have 7 chromosome in diploid sexual 106. 7
reproducing organism, than which one is wrong.
(A) Anaphase I – 14 chromosome, 28 DNA (A) I – 14 28 DNA
(B) Metaphase I – 7 bivalent, 28 DNA (B) I–7 , 28 DNA
(C) Anaphase II – 14 duplicated chromosome, 14 (C) II – 14 , 14 DNA
DNA molecule (D) II – 14 , 28 DNA
(D) Metaphase II – 14 duplicated chromosome, 28 (1) B C
DNA molecule (2) A D
(1) B & C (2) A & D (3) C D
(3) C & D (4) B & D (4) B D
107. The site where crossing over take place is ? 107.
(1) Chiasmeta (1)
(2) Synaptimal complex (2)
(3) Recombination nodule (3)
(4) Pachytene (4)
108. In oocyte of some vertibrates, ....... can last for 108. .......
monthes, or years -
(1) Leptoene (2) Zygotene (1) (2)
(3) Pachytne (4) Diplotene (3) (4)
109. What should be correct among following if diploid 109.
cell go for meiosis
(1) Anaphase I – 2n, 4c (2) Anaphase II – n, 2c (1) I – 2n, 4c (2) II – n, 2c
(3) Prophase I – 4n, 4c (4) Metophase II – 2n, 2c (3) I – 4n, 4c (4) II – 2n, 2c
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110. In which respect meiotic anaphase II is differ from 110. II
mitotic anaphase : (1)
(1) identical sister chromotid are Absent
(2) spliting of centromese is absent (2)
(3) each chromosome is unduplicable (3)
(4) chromosomal spindle fiber depolyrisation don't take
place (4)
111. What should be the number of chromosome and DNA 111. I 32
molecule in dyad cell. If bivalent number is accounted DNA
32 in metaphase I (1) 32 , 64 DNA
(1) 32 chromosome, 64 DNA
(2) 64 , 64 DNA
(2) 64 chromosome, 64 DNA
(3) 64 chromosome, 128 DNA (3) 64 , 128 DNA
(4) 16 chromosome, 32 DNA (4) 16 , 32 DNA
112. Chromosome duplication take place in : 112.
(1) Anaphase II (2) Anaphase (1) II (2)
(3) (1) & (2) both (4) Synthesis phase (s) (3) (1) (2) (4)
113. Who first time seen & discribed about live cell : 113.
(1) Leeuwen Hoek (2) Robert Hook (1) (2)
(3) Robert Brown (4) Schileidy and Schwann (3) (4)
114. Main arena of cellular activity accure in : 114.
(1) Cell membrane (1)
(2) Cytoplasm (2)
(3) Nucleoplasm (3)
(4) Membranes boodn cell organells (4)
115. Which character are related with inclusion body ? 115.
(a) Storage of waste material. (a)
(b) Storage of reserve material. (b)
(c) Not bound by membrane (c)
(d) Glycogen granules is a example of this (d)
(1) a, b, and d (2) b, c and d (1) a, b d (2) b, c d
(3) a, c and d (4) a, b, c and d (3) a, c d (4) a, b, c d
116. Animal cell differ with plant cell in having : 116.
(1) Centriol (1)
(2) Plasmid (2)
(3) (1) and (2) both (3) (1) (2)
(4) Large central vacoule (4)
117. The ability to move within membrane is measured as 117.
its fluidily. Rate of fluidily is checked art by :
(1) degree of unsaturated faty acid in membrane (1)
(2) degree of saturated faty acid in membrane (2)
(3) lateral movement of protein (3)
(4) Lateral movement of phospholipid (4)
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118. Which statement is incorrect regarding with 118.
tranportation through membrane ? (1)
(1) Polar meolcule is transproted down the gradient
through transmembrane selective protein
(2) ATP is utiliged by transporting molecule when, it (2)
is trans ported across the membrane against the
ATP
concentration gradient
(3) Carrier protein are selective for molecule (3)
transportation. (4)
(4) Diffusion of water molecle across the membrane
is known osmosis.
119. If a cell actively involved in secretion of molecule 119.
than which one is correct :
(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum will be more in cell (1)
(2) Lipid harmone will be more synthesiyed
(3) More protein will be accumulted with in cell membrane (2)
(4) RER will be more and secretory protein will be (3)
synthesisyed (4) RER
120. 120.
Which statement is correct :

(A) Glycosylation occure A to B. (A) A B
(B) Glycosylation take place after packing (B)
(C) A is cis part & B is trans part. (C) A cis B
(D) Mature vesicle form at A part. (D) A
(1) A and B (1) A B
(2) A, C and C (2) A, C C
(3) B and D (3) B D
(4) Only D (4) D
121. Enzyme of lysosome are synthesiyed on 121.
(1) RER (2) SER (1) RER (2) SER
(3) Glogi body (4) Plasma membrane (3) (4)
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122. Which cell organlles is involved mainly in 122.
ormosegulation ? (1) (2)
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(3) ER (4) Vacoule (3) ER (4)
123. Plastid are classified into 3 type this classification is 123. 3
based on :
(1) performed function (1)
(2) presence of pigment (2)
(3) presence of thylakoid (3)
(4) All (4)
124. Which one that make differ mitochondria from 124.
chloroplast ? (1) ETS
(1) Presence of ETS
(2) DNA
(2) Presence of single circuar DNA
(3) Presence of protein synthesiying enzyme (3)
(4) Absence of thired membrane system (4)
125. Which one is correct pairing ? 125.
(I) (II) (I) (II)
(A) Centriol 9+2 (A) 9+2
(B) Basal body 9+0 (B) 9+0
(C) Triplet microtubule Centriol (C)
(D) Singlet microtubule Axonema (D)
(1) A & C (2) B, C & D (1) A C (2) B, C D
(3) B & D (4) A & D (3) B D (4) A D
126. Which type of chromosome don't exist? 126.
(1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric (1) (2)
(3) Sub metacentric (4) Acentric (3) (4)
127. Which will not appear in interphasic nucleus ? 127.
(1) Nucleoprotein fiber (1)
(2) Chromosome (2)
(3) Nucleoli (3)
(4) (2) and (3) both (4) (2) (3)
128. Which one is incorrect ? 128.
(1) Inner membrane of chloroplast are less permeably (1)
than outer
(2) Axonema have total 20 microtubule (2) 20
(3) Cytoskelton involve filament of protenious structure (3)
(4) Chloroplast and mitochondria both have (4)
carbohydrate and protein synthesis enzyme
129. Which one is not part of endomembrane system ? 129.
(1) Golgi body (2) Lysosome (1) (2)
(3) Peroxysome (4) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) (4)
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130. Which one is fundamently common structure form in 130.
both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell ?
(1) DNA (1) DNA
(3) Photosynthesis mechinary (3)
(4) (1) & (2) both (4) (1) (2)
131. How many statement are correct ? 131.
(A) Haploid and diploid both type cell can do meiosis. (A)
(B) Number of chromosome in Anaphase II is similar
with number of chromosome in Anaphase I (B) II I
(C) Final Allelic gene sepration occure during
Anaphase II if crossing over in between two locai (C) II
take place.
(D) Final Allelic segrigation occure in Anaphase I, if (D)
there is no crossing over in between two locai. I
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
132. How many statement are correct about axonema ? 132.
(A) Made up of microtubule which arranged radialy (A)
to long Axis.
(B) double microhibule have nine pair.
(B) 9
(C) Axonemal microtubule is referred to 9 + 2
(C) 9+2
arrangement.
(D) Axonema lmerge from basal body. (D)
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
133. Cart wheel like structure is : 133.
(1) Cilia and flagilla (1)
(2) Axonema (2)
(3) Centriol (3)
(4) Centrosome (4)
134. Satellite part associated structure is : 134.
(1) centriol (1)
(2) Chromosome (2)
(3) Loysosome (3)
(4) Peroxysome (4)
135. Which cell organells is present both in prokayotic and 135.
eukargotic cell ?
(2) Ribosome (2)
(3) Nuclus (3)
(4) Mesosome (4)
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prohibited.
Sheet.



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Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 3 1 1 3 4 2 3 3 1 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 2
HINT – SHEET
52. NCERT XI, Pg # 131 to 132 72. NCERT XI, Pg #
56. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 76. NCERT XI, Pg #
60. NCERT XI, Pg # 80. NCERT XI, Pg # 144
64. NCERT XI, Pg # 134 to 135 84. NCERT XI, Pg #
65. NCERT XI, Pg # 137 85. NCERT XI, Pg #
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86. NCERT XI, Pg # 111. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 to 10.4.2
87. NCERT XI, Pg # 112. NCERT XI, Pg # 163
88. NCERT XI, Pg # 147 113. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.1
90. NCERT XI, Pg # 1 115. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.4.2
96. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2 121. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3
97. NCERT XI, Pg # 163 122. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3.4
98. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.1 123. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.5
99. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.2.1 124. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.4 to 8.5.5
105. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4 130. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.4.1 to 10.4.2
110. NCERT XI, Topic # 10.3 135. NCERT XI, Topic # 8.5.3
@AAKASHDELHI02
*1701CMD305219015* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 04
BIOLOGY : PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
(xi) Transport in Plants

(xii) Mineral Nutrition
(xiii) Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
(xiv) Respiration in Plants
(xv) Plant Grawth and Development
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1. A cell when immersed in a solution, increases in 1.
volume, so the external solution is
(1) Hypertonic (1)
(2) Isotonic (2)
(3) Hypotonic (3)
(4) Either hypertonic or hypotonic (4)
2. The hydrostatic pressure which develops due to entry 2.
of water into a plant cell is
(1) Positive (2) Negative (1) (2)
(3) Zero (4) Undetermined (3) (4)
3. Symplast pathway of water in plants is not related to 3.
(1) Vacuolar path (1)
(2) Cytoplasm (2)
(3) Plasmodesmata (3)
(4) Cell wall (4)
4. The water rises in straw due to suction, it is due to 4.
(1) Positive hydrostatic pressure (1)
(2) Negative hydrostatic pressure (2)
(3) Zero hydrostatic pressure (3)
(4) Diffusion pressure (4)
5. Identify the means of transport represented below 5. A
and the structure marked as A
(1) Simple diffusion; A - Transport protein (1) A-

(2) Facilitated diffusion; A-Transport protein (2) A-
(3) Facilitated diffusion; A-Transport pumps (3) A-
(4) Active transport; A-Transport pumps (4) A-
6. Which of the following equation is wrong? 6.
(1) s = – (1) s = –
(2) DPD = OP – TP (2) DPD = OP – TP
(3) w = s – p (3) w = s – p
(4) w = –DPD (4) w = –DPD
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7. In a stomatal apparatus, cellulosic microfibrils are 7.
oriented :
(1) Longitudinally on subsidiary cells (1)
(2) Radially in the cell walls of guard cells (2)
(3) Radially and longitudinally in wall of guard cells (3)
(4) Longitudinally on both guard cells (4)
8. During stomatal opening (photoactive) which does 8.
not occur?
(1) Increase in pH of guard cells (1) pH
(2) Hydrolysis of starch in guard cells (2)
(3) Increased TP of subsidiary cells (3) TP
(4) Dissociation of malic acid in guard cells (4)
9. • Transport of water and minerals in Xylem, is __A__. 9. • __A__
• Transport of organic and mineral nutrients is __B__. • __B__
(1) A - Unidirectional, B - Unidirectional (1) A - B-
(2) A - Multidirectional, B - Multidirectional (2) A - B-
(3) A - Multidirectional, B - Unidirectional (3) A - B-
(4) A - Unidirectional, B - Multidirectional (4) A - B-
10. Phloem loading and unloading process are respectively 10.
(1) Active, Passive (2) Passive, Active (1) (2)
(3) Active, Active (4) Passive, Passive (3) (4)
11. The compounds that are oxidised during respiration 11.
are called (1)
(1) Reduced substrates
(2)
(2) Respiratory substrates
(3) Oxidisable compounds (3)
12. Common respiratory substrate is 12.
(1) Fructose (1)
(2) Glucose (2)
(3) Sucrose (3)
(4) Lactose (4)
13. In plants, glucose is derived from sucrose, which is 13.
the end product of photosynthesis or from storage
carbohydrates. Sucrose is converted into glucose and
fructose by the enzyme
(1) (2)
(1) Zymase (2) Hexokinase
(3) Sucrase (4) Invertase (3) (4)
14. The key product of glycolysis is 14.
(1) PEP (2) Acetyl CoA (1) PEP (2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Pyruvic acid (4) Glucose (3) (4)
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15. Which one of the PGRs would be used by farmers if 15. PGRs
they are asked to ?
(a) Induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes (a)
(b) Hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples (b)
(c) Induces flowering in mango (c)
(d) Elongation and improvement in shape of apple (d)
(e) Promote nutrient mobilisation (e)
(1) a-Auxins, b-Ethephon, c-Ethylene, d-GA, (1) a- , b- , c- , d-GA,
e-Cytokinin e-
(2) a-Ethylene, b-GA, c-Auxin, d-Ethephon, (2) a- , b-GA, c- , d- ,
e-Cytokinin e-
(3) a-Auxin, b-Ethephon, c-Cytokinin, d-Ethylene, (3) a- , b- , c- , d- ,
e-GA e-GA
(4) a-Cytokinin, b-Auxin, c-GA, d-Ethephon, (4) a- , b- , c-GA, d- ,
e-Ethylene e-
16. In glycolysis, enzyme enolase produces 16.
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid (1)
(2) Phosphoenol pyruvate (2)
(3) Phosphoglyceraldehyde (3)
(4) Pyruvate (4)
17. In eukaryotes, the breakdown of complex molecules 17.
to yield energy takes place in the
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria (1) (2)
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Both 2 and 3 (3) (4) 2 3
18. Which one of the PGRs would you use if you are asked to? 18. PGRs
(a) Induce growth in axillary buds (a)
(b) 'Bolt' a rosette plant (b) ' '
(c) Induce immediate stomatal closure in leaves (c)
(1) a-Cytokinin, b-GA, c-ABA (1) a- , b-GA, c-ABA
(2) a-Auxin, b-GA, c-ABA (2) a- , b-GA, c-ABA
(3) a-Auxin, b-Ethylene, c-GA (3) a- , b- , c-GA
(4) a-Cytokinin, b-Ethylene, c-ABA (4) a- , b- , c-ABA
19. Match the columns: 19.
Column-I Column II Column-I Column II
(a) 4C (1) Acetyl Co A (a) 4C (1) Acetyl Co A
(b) 2C (2) Pyruvate (b) 2C (2) Pyruvate
(c) 5C (3) Citric acid (c) 5C (3) Citric acid
(d) 3C (4) -ketoglutaric acid (d) 3C (4) -ketoglutaric acid
(5) Malic acid (5) Malic acid
(1) a-2,b-5,c-3,d-l (2) a-3,b-l,c-4,d-2 (1) a-2,b-5,c-3,d-l (2) a-3,b-l,c-4,d-2
(3) a-5,b-l,c-4,d-2 (4) a-5,b-3,c-l, d-2 (3) a-5,b-l,c-4,d-2 (4) a-5,b-3,c-l, d-2
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20. Succinate + FAD forms 20. Succinate + FAD
(1) Fumarate + FADH2 (2) Malate + NADH2 (1) Fumarate + FADH2 (2) Malate + NADH2
(3) Isocitrate + NADH2 (4) Citrate + Water (3) Isocitrate + NADH2 (4) Citrate + Water
21. Component of ETC of mitochondria is 21. ETC
(1) Carotenoids (2) Plastocyanin (1) Carotenoids (2) Plastocyanin
(3) Phytochrome (4) Cytochrome oxidase (3) Phytochrome (4) Cytochrome oxidase
22. Column-I Column-II 22. Column-I Column-II
(a) Glycolysis (1) Stroma (a) (1)
(b) Kerb's cycle (2) Grana (b) (2)
(c) Calvin cycle (3) Cytosol (c) (3)
(d) Photolysis of water (4) Mitochondrial matrix (d) (4)
(e) ETS (5) Inner mitochondria (e) ETS (5)
membrane
(1) a-3,b-4,c-5,d-1,e-2 (2) a-4,b-3,c-5,d-2,e-1 (1) a-3,b-4,c-5,d-1,e-2 (2) a-4,b-3,c-5,d-2,e-1
(3) a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2,e-5 (4) a-1,b-2,c-3, d-4,e-5 (3) a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2,e-5 (4) a-1,b-2,c-3, d-4,e-5
23. Column-I Column-II 23. Column-I Column-II
(a) Complex I (1) Cytochrome bc 1 (a) Complex I (1) Cytochrome bc 1
complex complex
(b) Complex II (2) NADH dehydrogenase (b) Complex II (2) NADH dehydrogenase
(c) Complex III (3) Cytochrome c oxidase (c) Complex III (3) Cytochrome c oxidase
(d) Complex IV (4) ATP synthase (d) Complex IV (4) ATP synthase
(e) Complex V (5) FADH2 (e) Complex V (5) FADH2
(1) a-3,b-4,c-2,d-5,e-1 (2) a-4,b-5,c-1,d-2,e-3 (1) a-3,b-4,c-2,d-5,e-1 (2) a-4,b-5,c-1,d-2,e-3
(3) a-2,b-4,c-3,d-1,e-5 (4) a-2,b-5,c-1, d-3,e-4 (3) a-2,b-4,c-3,d-1,e-5 (4) a-2,b-5,c-1, d-3,e-4
24. Match the column I and column II. 24. -I -II
(A) Mg (1) Found in some amino (A) Mg (1)
acids
(B) S (2) Structural component (B) S (2)
of chlorophyll
(C) I (3) No important for plants (C) I (3)
(D) Mn (4) Required for photolysis (D) Mn (4)
of water
(1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 (1) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4 (2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-l, B-3, C-4, D-2 (3) A-l, B-3, C-4, D-2
(4) A-2, B-3, C-l, D-4 (4) A-2, B-3, C-l, D-4
25. An elements which with the help of Na+ and K+ 25. Na+ K+
determines the solute concentration and anion-cation
balance in cell is (1) Cl (2) S
(1) Cl (2) S (3) Zn (4) Mo (3) Zn (4) Mo
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26. NH4+ is used to synthesiz amino acids in plants. For 26. NH4+
it, there are two main ways :
(i) -ketoglutaric acid + NH4+ + NADPH (i) -ketoglutaric acid + NH4+ + NADPH

Glutamate
Dehydrogenase
 Glutamate + H2O + NADP 
Glutamate
Dehydrogenase
 Glutamate + H2O + NADP
H H
| |

(ii) R 1  C  COO   R 2  C  COO   (ii) 
R1  C  COO   R 2  C  COO  
| || | ||
NH3 O NH3 O
H H
| |
R 1  C  COO   R 2  C  COO  R 1  C  COO   R 2  C  COO 
|| | || |
O NH 3 O NH 3
(1) Both (i) and (ii) are reductive amination (1) (i) (ii)
(2) Both (i) and (ii) are transamination (2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) is transamination and (ii) is reductive amination (3) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) is reductive amination and (ii) is transamination (4) (i) (ii)
27. The moderate decrease of micronutrients causes ___ 27. _____
symptoms while a moderate increase causes ___. _____
(1) deficiency, toxicity (2) toxic, chlorosis (1) (2)
(3) chlorotic, toxic (4) chlorotic, necrosis (3) (4)
28. Aspargine and glutamate are 28.
(1) amino acids (2) imino acids (1) (2)
(3) amide (4) protein (3) (4)
29. Which one of the following is not an essential ''mineral 29.
element for plants while the remaining three are?
(1) Iron (2) Manganese (1) (2)
(3) Cadmium (4) Calcium (3) (4)
30. Which element requires for activity of 30.
carboxypeptidase.
(1) zinc (2) iron (3) niacin (4) copper (1) (2) (3) (4)
31. The hormone which promotes rapid internode or 31.
petiole elongation in deep water rice plants, also :-
(1) Initiates germination in peanut seeds and sprouting (1)
of potato tubers
(2) Breaks seed and bud dormancy (2)
(3) Inhibits seed germination (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
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32. Photosynthesis is 32.
(1) a physical process (1)
(2) a chemical process (2)
(3) a physico-chemical process (3)
(4) an energy wasting process (4)
33. Who discovered the role of light and green parts of 33.
the plants in purifying the noxious air?
(1) Von Mayr (1)
(2) De saussure (2)
(3) Sachs (3)
(4) Joseph Priestley (4)
34. Which of the following options correctly represent 34. (A) (B) (C)
the figures (A) (B) and (C) respectively?
(A) (B) (C ) (A) (B) (C )

Long day Short day Day neutral
(1) (1)
plant plant plant
Short day Long day Day neutral
(2) (2)
plant plant plant
Day neutral Short day Long day
(3) (3)
plant plant plant
Day neutral Long day Short day
(4) (4)
plant plant plant
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35. Leaf pigments, chl a, chl b, xanthophyll and carotene 35. chl a, chl b,
be separated by
(1) Paper chromatography (2) Electrophoresis (1) (2)
(3) X-ray diffusion (4) ELISA test (3) X- (4) ELISA
36. A graph that plots the rate at which CO2 is converted 36. CO2
to glucose versus the wavelength of light illuminating
a leaf is called
(1) An absorption spectrum (1)
(2) An action spectrum (2)
(3) A plank constant (3)
(4) Enzyme kinetics (4)
37. The electron flow from PS-II to NADP via ETS and 37. PSII NADP ETS PS-I
PS-I follows
(1) Uphill  Downhill  Uphill  Downhill (1) Uphill  Downhill  Uphill  Downhill
(2) Downhill  Uphill  Downhill  Uphill (2) Downhill  Uphill  Downhill  Uphill
(3) Downhill  Uphill  Uphill  Downhill (3) Downhill  Uphill  Uphill  Downhill
(4) Uphill  Downhill  Downhill  Uphill (4) Uphill  Downhill  Downhill  Uphill
38. Which statement is false? 38.
(1) H2S, not H2O is involved in photosynthesis of (1) H2S
purple sulphur bacteria H2O
(2) Light and dark reactions are stopped in the absence (2)
of light
(3) Calvin cycle occurs in the grana of chloroplast (3)
(4) ATP is produced during light reaction via chemiosmosis (4) ATP
39. Sugarcane shows high efficiency of CO2 fixation 39. CO2
because it performs :-
(1) Calvin cycle (1) Calvin cycle
(2) EMP pathway (2) EMP pathway
(3) Hatch and Slack pathway (3) Hatch and Slack pathway
(4) TCA cycle (4) TCA cycle
40. The enzyme rubisco is found in 40.
(1) chloroplast (2) mitochondria (1) (2)
(3) cytoplasm (4) nucleus (3) (4)
41. During carbon dioxide fixation/Calvin cycle, CO2 41. CO2
combines with
(1) NADPH2 (2) Water (1) NADPH 2 (2)
(3) Ribulose bisphosphate(4) 3PGAL (3) (4) 3PGAL
42. The net energy outcome of cyclic phosphorylation is 42.
(1) ATP and NADPH2 (1) ATP NADPH2
(2) ATP (2) ATP
(3) Sugar (3)
(4) NADPH and H+ (4) NADPH H+
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43. Calvin cycle occurs in 43.
(1) only monocots and dicots (1)
(2) in only C3 plant (2) C3
(3) in only C4 plant (3) C4
(4) in all photosynthetic plants (4)
44. Photorespiration starts 44.
(1) in mitochondria (2) in chloroplast (1) (2)
(3) in C4 plants (4) in cytoplasm (3) C4 (4)
45. In C4 plants, during photosynthesis C4 acid undergoes 45. C4 C4 _____
decarboxylation in _____ to produce C3 acid (pyruvic C3
acid) and ______. ____
(1) mesophyll, O2 (1) , O2
(2) bundle sheath, CO2 (2) CO2
(3) grana, CO2 (3) CO2
(4) bundle sheath, O2 (4) O2
46. Light saturation occurs at ______% of full sunlight. 46. ______%
(1) 20 (2) 100
(3) 50 (4) 10 (1) 20 (2) 100 (3) 50 (4) 10
47. If CO2 concentration increases upto 0.05%, the rate 47. CO 2 0.05%
of photosynthesis
(1) decreases (1)
(2) increases (2)
(3) first decreases and then increases (3)
(4) becomes zero (4)
48.
48.
Identify A, B and C. A, B C
A B C A B C
(1) ATP 3PGA RuBP (1) ATP 3PGA RuBP
(2) 3PGA ATP Sugar (2) 3PGA ATP
(3) RuBP 3-PGA ATP (3) RuBP 3-PGA ATP
(4) Sugar RuDP NADPH (4) RuDP NADPH
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49. Study the pathway ATP synthesis through 49. ATP
chemiosmosis given below.
In which of the following options correct words for A, B, C D

all the four blanks A, B, C and D are indicated.
(1) A-F1, B-Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (I), (1) A-F 1 , B- C- (I),
D-Photosystem (II) D- (II)
(2) A-F0, B-Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (I), (2) A-F 0 , B- C- (I),
D-Photosystem (II) D- (II)
(3) A-F1, B-Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (3) A-F 1 , B- C- (II),
(II), D-Photosystem (I) D- (I)
(4) A-F0, B-Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (4) A-F 0 , B- C- (II),
(II), D-Photosystem (I) D- (I)
50. Study the pathway given below. 50.
In which of the following options, correct words for A, B C

all the three blanks A, B and C are indicated ?
(1) A-Decarboxylation, B-Reudction, C-Regeneration (1) A- B- , C-
(2) A-Fixation, B-Transamination, C-Regeneration (2) A- B- C-
(3) A-Fixation, B-Decarboxylation, C-Regeneration (3) A- B- C-
(4) A-Carboxylation, B-Decarboxylation, C-Reduction (4) A- B- C-
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51. Which one of the following is essential for photolysis 51.
of water?
(1) Manganese (2) Zinc (1) (2)
(3) Copper (4) Boron (3) (4)
52. Glycolytic pathway from glucose to pyruvic acid 52.
involves 10 reactions. Each individual reaction 10
needs
(1) One molecule of ATP (1) ATP
(2) One molecule of ADP (2) ADP
(3) One molecule of NAD (3) NAD
(4) One molecule of specific enzyme (4)
53. ATP is 53. ATP
(1) an energy currency (1)
(2) nucleoside (2)
(3) formed in both respiration and photosynthesis (3)
(4) (1) and (3) both (4) (1) (3)
54. Which one performs both respiration and photosynthesis? 54.
(1) Root cells (1)
(2) Mesophyll (2)
(3) Ovum of angiosperm (3)
(4) Xylem parenchyma (4)
55. How many molecules of O2 are used and how many 55.
CO2 comes out during the glycolytic breakdown of CO2
one glucose molecules ? (1) 1, 2 (2) 2,1
(1) 1, 2 (2) 2,1 (3) 0,0 (4) 36,6 (3) 0,0 (4) 36,6
56. If glucose is labelled with C, what molecule will
l4
56. l4
C
become radioactive as glycolysis and TCA cycle are TCA
completed?
(1) Water (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) CO2 (1) (2) NADH (3) ATP (4) CO2
57. In alcoholic fermentation, NAD+ is produced during the 57. NAD+
(1) reduction of acetaldehyde to ethanol (1)
(2) oxidation of glucose (2)
(3) oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA (3) CoA
(4) hydrolysis of ATP to ADP (4) ATP ADP
58. If O2 is not present, yeast cells break down glucose 58. O2
to
(1) CO2 + H2O (2) CO2 + lactic acid (1) CO2 + H2O (2) CO2 +
(3) CO2 + pyruvic acid (4) C2H5OH and CO2 (3) CO2 + (4) C2H5OH CO2
59. Conversion of -ketoglutaric acid into succinic acid 59. -
is a step of
(1) EMP pathway (2) TCA cycle (1) EMP (2) TCA
(3) HMP pathway (4) ED pathway (3) HMP (4) ED
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60. Most of the CO2 is released during 60. CO2
(1) Glycolysis (1)
(2) The Kreb's Cycle (2)
(3) Both (a) and (b) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation (4)
61. Which of the following shows correct order of 61.
electron tronsport in mitochondria ?
(1) FeS  NADH  CoQ  Cyt b  FeS  Cyt C1 (1) FeS  NADH  CoQ  Cyt b  FeS  Cyt C1
 Cyt c  Cyt a3  Cyt b  Cyt c  Cyt a3  Cyt b
(2) NADH  FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cyt b  (2) NADH  FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cyt b 
FeS  Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3  O2 FeS  Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3  O2
(3) NADH  Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3 (3) NADH  Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3
 O2  FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cytb Fes  O2  FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cytb Fes
(4) Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3  NADH  (4) Cyt c1  Cyt c  Cyt a  Cyt a3  NADH 
FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cyt b  Fes  O2 FMN  FeS  CoQ  Cyt b  Fes  O2
62. 2(C51H98O6) +145 O2  102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy 62. 2(C51H98O6)+145 O2  102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy
The RQ of above reaction is RQ
(1) 1 (2) 0.7 (3) 1.45 (4) 1.62 (1) 1 (2) 0.7 (3) 1.45 (4) 1.62
63. In mitochondria, protons accumulate in the 63.
(1) outer membrane (2) inner membrane (1) (2)
(3) intermembrane space (4) matrix (3) (4)
64. The characteristic of plant growth includes which of 64.
the following? (1)
(1) It is localized and generally determinate
(2)
(2) It is localized and generally indeterminate
(3) It is non-measurable (3)
(4) It is diffused, determinate and non measurable (4)
65. The form of growth where in new cells are always 65.
being added to the plant body by the activity of
meristem is called (1)
(1) Open form of growth
(2)
(2) Close form of growth
(3) Diffused form of growth (3)
(4) Discontinuous form of growth (4)
66. Increase in growth per unit time is called 66.
(1) Exponential growth (2) Intrinsic growth (1) (2)
(3) Growth rate (4) Cell elongation (3) (4)
67. Arithmetic growth includes all, except 67.
(1) constant growth rate (1)
(2) it is found in root and shoot cells (2)
(3) It is expressed as Wt = W0ert (3) Wt = W0ert
(4) its characteristic graph is linear (4)
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68. Exponential growth cannot sustain for long. The 68.
possible cause is :
(1) limited nutrient available (1)
(2) limited space (2)
(3) accumulation of toxic materials (3)
(4) all of these (4)
69. In the leaf A and B what is the value of AGR (average 69. A B AGR ( ) RGR (
growth rate) and RGR (relative growth rate)? )
A-Leaf B-Leaf A- B-
AGR RGR AGR RGR AGR RGR AGR RGR
(1) 1% 1 2% 2 (1) 1% 1 2% 2
(2) 100% 5 10% 5 (2) 100% 5 10% 5
(3) 5 100% 5 10% (3) 5 100% 5 10%
(4) 0.5 100% 1.5 100% (4) 0.5 100% 1.5 100%
70. Under certain conditions regaining the lost capacity 70.
of division by living cells is called
(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Redifferentiation (1) (2)
(3) Differentiation (4) Efficiency index (3) (4)
71. Which one (s) is/are redifferentiated cell(s)? 71.
(1) Cork (1)
(2) Secondary cortex (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
72. Column-I Column-II 72. -I -II
(I) IAA (A) Terpenes (I) IAA (A)
(II) GA (B) Indole Compounds (II) GA (B)
(III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives (III) ABA (C)
(IV) C2H4 (D) Gases (IV) C2H4 (D)
(V) Kinetin (E) Carotenoid derivatives (V) Kinetin (E)
The correct match is
(1) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C (1) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-D, V-C
(2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E (2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
(3) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C (3) I-E, II-D, III-A, IV-B, V-C
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73. Which one includes growth promoters only? 73.
(1) Auxin, Cytokinin and ABA (1) ABA
(2) GA, Cytokinin and ABA (2) GA, ABA
(3) C2H4 and ABA (3) C2H4 ABA
(4) Auxin, Cytokinin and GA (4) GA
74. Column-I Column-II 74. -I -II
(I) C. Darwin and (A) Cytokinin (I) C. Darwin (A)
F. Darwin F. Darwin
(II) Millwer and Skoog (B) ABA (II) Millwer Skoog (B) ABA
(III) F.W. Went (C) C2H4 (III) F.W. Went (C) C2H4
(IV) Kurosawa (D) Auxin (IV) (D)
(E) GA (E) GA
The correct match is
(1) I-D, II-A, III-D, IV-E (1) I-D, II-A, III-D, IV-E
(2) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B (2) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
(3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D (3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(4) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A (4) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A
75. The term 'auxin' is used for : 75.
(1) Kinetine (1)
(2) NAA (2) NAA
(3) 2,4-D and 2,4,5-T (3) 2,4-D 2,4,5-T
(4) (2) & (3) both (4) (2) (3)
76. Removal of auxin source demonstrates that young 76.
leaf abscission is _____ by auxin, and apical _____
dominance is _____ by auxin. _____
(1) promoted, promoted (1)
(2) inhibited, inhibited (2)
(3) promoted, inhibited (3)
(4) inhibited, promoted (4)
77. Go through the following statements. 77.
(I) Promotes flowering in pineapple (I)
(II) Used to prepare weed free lawn (II)
(III) Promotes the abscission of older mature leaves (III)
and fruits.
The above functions are carried out by (1) GA (2) C2H4
(1) GA (2) C2H4 (3) ABA (4) Auxin (3) ABA (4)
78. The removal of shoot tips (decapitation) means loss 78. (decapitation)
of apical dominance and it is widely applied in
(1) Tea plantation (1)
(2) Hedge making (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Bolting (4)
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79. The fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend 79.
the market period. This is due to which function of GA
GA ?
(1) Bolting (1)
(2) Delay senescence (2)
(3) Internodal elongation (3)
(4) Parthenocarpy (4)
80. Two cytokinins are kinetin and zeatin. What is the 80.
difference between the two?
(1) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin (1)
(2) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin (2)
(3) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and kinetin is (3)
naturally occurring
(4) Zeatin is a naturally occurring cytokinin, kinetin is not (4)
81. Auxin and cytokinin are antagonistic in which of the 81.
following functions?
(1) Cell division (1)
(2) Phototropism (2)
(3) Apical dominance (3)
(4) Geotropism (4)
82. Zeatin was extracted for the first time from 82.
(1) Maize (1)
(2) Grapes (2)
(3) Fungus (3)
(4) Autoclaved herring sperm (4)
83. (I) C2H4 promotes leaf senescence 83. (I) C2H4
(II) C2H4 speeds the ripening of fruits (II) C2H4
(III) C2H4 causes apical hook formation in dicot (III) C2H4
seedling
(IV) C2H4 promotes horizontal growth of seedling
(IV) C2H4
and swelling of axis in dicot seedling
(V) C 2H4 promotes male flowers in cucumber,
(V) C2H4
thereby increasing the yield
Which one is false?
(2) I and V (2) I V
(3) II and IV (3) II IV
(4) V (4) V
84. Which hormone is used to initiate flowering and 84.
synchronizing fruit set in pineapple ?
(1) C2H4 (2) IBA (1) C2H4 (2) IBA
(3) GA3 (4) IAA (3) GA3 (4) IAA
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85. 85.
Identify growth(s) and phase(s) in above (s) (s)

diagrammatic representation.
(1) G-I—Arithmetic growth; G-II—Geometric (1) G-I— ; G-II— ;
growth; P-I—Geometric phase;
P-II— Arithmetic phase P-I— ; P-II—
(2) G-I—Arithmetic growth ; G-II—Geometric (2) G-I— ; G-II— ;
growth; P-I—Arithmetic phase;
P-II— Geometric phase P-I— ; P-II—
(3) G-I—Geometric growth ; G-II—Arithmetic (3) G-I— ; G-II— ;
growth; P-I—Geometric phase;
P-II— Arithmetic phase P-I— ; P-II—
(4) G-I—Geometric growth ; G-II—Arithmetic (4) G-I— ; G-II— ;
growth; P-I—Arithmetic phase;
P-II— Geometric phase P-I— ; P-II—
86. The correct sequence of the developmental process 86.
in a plant cell is (1)
(1) Plasmatic growth, differentiation, senescence and
maturation, respectively
(2) , ,
(2) Plasmatic growth, differentiation, maturation and
senescence, respectively
(3) , ,
(3) Maturation, plasmatic growth, differentiation, and
(4) Differentiation, plasmatic growth, maturation and (4) , ,
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87. Match the plant hormones listed in Column A with 87. -A -B
their major role listed in Column B and select the
correct option from the codes given below.
Column-A Column-B -A -B
(A) Auxin (i) Fruit ripening (A) (i)
(B) Cytokinins (ii) Phototropism (B) (ii)
(C) Abscisic acid (iii) Antagonist to GAs (C) (iii) GAs
(D) Ethylene (iv) Stomatal opening (D) (iv)
(v) Growth of lateral buds (v)
(1) A-IV; B-V; C-III, II; D-I (1) A-IV; B-V; C-III, II; D-I
(2) A-II; B-IV; C-III, IV; D-I (2) A-II; B-IV; C-III, IV; D-I
(3) A-II; B-IV, V; C-III; D-I (3) A-II; B-IV, V; C-III; D-I
(4) A-III, IV; B-V; C-II; D-I (4) A-III, IV; B-V; C-II; D-I
88. Vernalization stimulates flowering in 88.
(1) Zamikand (2) Turmeric (1) (2)
(3) Carrot (4) Ginger (3) (4)
89. Match the columns :- 89.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II

Constituent of
(a) Potassium I. (a) Potassium I.
ferredoxin
Involved in stomatal
(b) Sulphur II. (b) Sulphur II.
movement
Needed in synthesis
(c) Molybdenum III. (c) Molybdenum III.
of auxin
Component of
(d) Zinc IV. (d) Zinc IV.
nitrogenase
(1) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III (2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV (1) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III (2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(3) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I (4) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II (3) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I (4) a-I, b-III, c-IV, d-II
90. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:- 90.
(1) a-Flaccid, b-Turgid, c-Plasmolysed (1) a- , b- , c-

(2) b-Flaccid, c-Turgid, a-Plasmolysed (2) b- , c- , a-
(3) c-Flaccid, a-Turgid, b-Plasmolysed (3) c- , a- , b-
(4) c-Flaccid, b-Turgid, a-Plasmolysed (4) c- , b- , a-
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prohibited.
Sheet.



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Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 4 1 1 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 4 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 4 2 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 4 1 4 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 1 2 3 3 1 2
HINT – SHEET
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@AAKASHDELHI02
*1701CMD305219017* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 05
CHEMISTRY : s,p,d,f-Block
BIOLOGY : Human Physiology,
(xvi) Digestion and Absorption

(xvii) Breathing and Exchange of Gases
(xviii) Body Fluids and Circulation
(xix) Excretory Products and Their Elimination
(xx) Locomotion and Movement
(xxi) Neural Control and Coordination
(xxii) Chemical Coordination and Integration
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1. Which element have one & more typical metallic 1.
structures at normal temperature
(1) Ti (2) Mn (3) Sc (4) Cr (1) Ti (2) Mn (3) Sc (4) Cr
2. In 3 Transition series which element have highest
rd
2. 3rd
enthalpy of atomisation ?
(1) V (2) Sc (3) Zn (4) Fe (1) V (2) Sc (3) Zn (4) Fe
3. Which of the following option is correct on the basis 3.
of stable oxidation state ?
(1) Ni+2 > Ni+4 (2) Mn+7 > Mn+6 (1) Ni+2 > Ni+4 (2) Mn+7 > Mn+6
(3) Co+4 > Co+2 (4) Both 1 & 2 (3) Co+4 > Co+2 (4) Both 1 & 2
4. Correct order of SRP (M3+ / M+2) would be :- 4. SRP (M3+ / M+2)
(1) Co > Mn > Cr > Fe (2) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr (1) Co > Mn > Cr > Fe (2) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr
(3) Co > Fe > Mn > Cr (4) Co > Cr > Mn > Fe (3) Co > Fe > Mn > Cr (4) Co > Cr > Mn > Fe
5. Correct order of Melting Point is :- 5.
(1) Cr > V > Ti > Mn (1) Cr > V > Ti > Mn
(2) Mn < Ni < Co < Fe (2) Mn < Ni < Co < Fe
(3) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn (3) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
6. Correct order of Ionization energy is :- 6.
(i) Zn > Fe (ii) Ti > Cr (iii) Ni > Mn (iv) Co >Fe (i) Zn > Fe (ii) Ti > Cr (iii) Ni > Mn (iv) Co >Fe
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (i), (ii) , (iii) (1) (i), (ii), (iv) (2) (i), (ii) , (iii)
(3) (i) , (iv) (4) (iv) (3) (i) , (iv) (4) (iv)
7. Correct order of Metallic Radius is :- 7.
(1) Sc > Ti (2) Co = Ni (1) Sc > Ti (2) Co = Ni
(3) Cr > Cu (4) All are correct (3) Cr > Cu (4)
8. Which statement is correct :- 8.
(1) Cr2+ is reducing Agent (1) Cr2+
(2) Mn3+ is oxidising Agent (2) Mn3+
(3) Both 1 & 2 (3) 1 2
9. Which statement is correct ? 9.
(1) Copper (I) compounds are unstable in aqueous (1) Copper (I)
solution and undergo disproportionation.
(2) Cu2+ (aq) > Cu1+(aq) [Stability] (2) Cu2+ (aq) > Cu1+(aq) [ ]
(3) Both 1 & 2 (3) 1 2
(4) Cu1+ (aq) > Cu2+(aq) [Stability] (4) Cu1+ (aq) > Cu2+(aq) [ ]
10. Which element of 3d series doesn't oxidised by 1M H+ :- 10. 3d 1M H +
:-
(1) Fe (2) Cr (3) Cu (4) Mn (1) Fe (2) Cr (3) Cu (4) Mn
11. The allotropic form of phosphrous which is called 11.
metallic phosphorus is :-
(1) Black phosphor;us (2) White phosphorus (1) Black phosphorus (2) White phosphorus
(3) Brown Phosphorus (4) Red Phosphorus (3) Brown Phosphorus (4) Red Phosphorus
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12. An oxy acid which of heating forms a hydride :- 12.
(1) HNO3 (2) HClO3 (1) HNO3 (2) HClO3
(3) HClO4 (4) H3PO3 (3) HClO4 (4) H3PO3
13. Which of the following reaction is possible ? 13.
(1) I2 + 2NaBr  Br2 + 2Nal (1) I2 + 2NaBr  Br2 + 2Nal
(2) I2 + 2NaCl  Cl2 + 2Nal (2) I2 + 2NaCl  Cl2 + 2Nal
(3) Br2 + 2NaCl  Cl2 + 2NaBr (3) Br2 + 2NaCl  Cl2 + 2NaBr
(4) Cl2 + 2NaBr  Br2 + 2NaCl (4) Cl2 + 2NaBr  Br2 + 2NaCl
14. Which of the hydrogen halides forms salts like KHX2 14. KHX2
(where X is a halogen atom) ? ( X )?
(1) HF (2) HCl (1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HI (4) HBr (3) HI (4) HBr
15. Which of the following inert gases is least polarised? 15.
(1) He (2) Ne (1) He (2) Ne
(3) Kr (4) Xe (3) Kr (4) Xe
16. Chlorine gas is dried over :- 16.
(1) CaO (2) NaOH (1) CaO (2) NaOH
(3) KOH (4) Conc. H2SO4 (3) KOH (4) Conc. H2SO4
17. Which of the following inter halogen compund is not 17.
possible ? (1) FCl3 (2) ClF3
(1) FCl3 (2) ClF3 (3) IF5 (4) BrF5 (3) IF5 (4) BrF5
18. Test for ozone is :- 18.
(1) Nesseler's reagent (1) Nesseler's reagent
(2) Tailing of mercury (2) Tailing of mercury
(3) Million's base (3) Million's base
(4) None of these (4) None of these
19. Thiosulphuric acid is :- 19.
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
20. X 
H2 O
 H 4 P2 O7 
825K
Y . In the above 20. X 
H2O
 H 4 P2 O7 
825K
Y . X
sequence of reactions X and Y are respecitvely. Y
(1) H3PO4, H3PO4 (1) H3PO4, H3PO4
(2) HPO3, H3PO4 (2) HPO3, H3PO4
(3) H3PO4, HPO3 (3) H3PO4, HPO3
(4) HPO3, HPO3 (4) HPO3, HPO3
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21. Ce(Z=58) and Yb(Z=70) exhibits stable + 4 and 21. Ce(Z=58) Yb(Z=70) +4
+2 oxidation states respectively. This is becuase : +2
(1) Ce4+ and Yb2+ acquire f7 Configuration (1) Ce4+ Yb2+ , f7
(2) Ce4+ and Yb+2 acquire f0 Configuration (2) Ce4+ Yb+2, f0
(3) Ce4+ and Yb+2 acquire f0 and f14 configuration (3) Ce 4+
Yb+2 , f0 f14
(4) Ce+4 and Yb+2 acquire f7 and f14 configuration (4) Ce+4 Yb+2 , f7 f14
22. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with 22. H2O2
H2O2 gives blue colour which is due to :-
(1) CrO3 + H2O + O2 (1) CrO3 + H2O + O2
(2) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2 (2) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2
(3) CrO5 + H2O (3) CrO5 + H2O
(4) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + CO2 (4) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + CO2
23. The correct statement :- 23.
(1) Green vitriol and blue vitroil are isomorphus (1)
(2) KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7. are coloured due to d-d (2) KMnO4 K2Cr2O7 d-d
transitions
(3) Cu2Cl2 and Ag2S are coloured (3) Cu2Cl2 Ag2S
(4) Upon strong heating paramagnetic gases are (4) AgNO3 LiNO3
evolved by AgNO3 and LiNO3
24. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? 24.
(1) Cl2 – colourless gas (1) Cl2 –
(2) SO2 – colourless gas (2) SO2 –
(3) Pb3O4 – red powder (3) Pb3O4 –
(4) NO2 – brown gas (4) NO2 –
25. Which of the following is arranged correctly in 25.
increasing order of the character given ?
(1) N2 < O2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 – Bond length (1) N2 < O2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 –
(2) H2O < CO2 < N2O5 – Acidity (2) H2O < CO2 < N2O5 –
(3) HI < HBr < HCl < HF – Bond strength (3) HI < HBr < HCl < HF –
26. Which of the following equation is correct ? 26.
(1) 2Na + 2NH3 

 2NaNH2 + H2 (1) 2Na + 2NH3 

 2NaNH2 + H2
8NH3  3Cl2  N 2  6NH 4 Cl 8NH3  3Cl2  N 2  6NH 4 Cl
(2) (excess) (2) (excess)
NH3  3Cl2  NCl3  3HCl NH3  3Cl2  NCl3  3HCl

(3) (excess) (3) (excess)

27. The products obtained when chlorine reacts with cold 27.
and dilute solution of sodium hydroxide are
(1) Cl– + ClO– (2) Cl– + ClO2– (1) Cl– + ClO– (2) Cl– + ClO2–
(3) Cl– + ClO3– (4) Cl– + ClO4– (3) Cl– + ClO3– (4) Cl– + ClO4–
@AAKASHDELHI02
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28. Among the oxo-acids, the acid with highest Ka value is: 28. Ka
(1) HIO (1) HIO
(2) HBrO (2) HBrO
(3) HClO (3) HClO
(4) All have equal acid strength (4)
29. The order of oxidising power of XO4– (X-halide) is 29. XO4–
(1) ClO4– > IO4– > BrO4– (1) ClO4– > IO4– > BrO4–
(2) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4– (2) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4–
(3) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4– (3) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4–
(4) ClO4– > BrO4– > IO4– (4) ClO4– > BrO4– > IO4–
30. NH3 + O2 
Pt

 A + H2O 30. NH3 + O2 
Pt

 A + H2O
A + O2 
 B A + O2 
 B
B + O2 + H2O 
 C B + O2 + H2O 
 C
Compound A, B and C respectively are : A, B C
(1) NO, NO2 and HNO3 (1) NO, NO2 HNO3
(2) NO2, N2O and NO (2) NO2, N2O NO
(3) NO, N2O and HNO3 (3) NO, N2O HNO3
(4) N2O, NO2 and HNO3 (4) N2O, NO2 HNO3
31. Phosphine on reaction with hydrobromic acid gives 31.
(1) PBr3 (2) P2H4Br 2 (1) PBr3 (2) P2H4Br 2
(3) PBr5 (4) PH4Br (3) PBr5 (4) PH4Br
32. P4H10 has short and long P–O bonds. The number of 32. P4H10 P–O P–O
short P–O bonds in the compound is :
(1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 4
33. The number of oxygen atom in borax which do not 33. P  –P 
from P  –P  back bond is :- (1) 3 (2) 2
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 1 (3) 5 (4) 1
34. Which of the following are planar in both monomeric 34.
and dimeric forms :-
(1) NO2 (2) AlCl3 (3) BeCl2 (4) BH3 (1) NO2 (2) AlCl3 (3) BeCl2 (4) BH3
35. Be2C+ H2O 
 BeO + X 35. Be2C+ H2O 
 BeO + X
CaC2 + H2O 
 Ca(OH)2 + Y CaC2 + H2O 
 Ca(OH)2 + Y
Then X and Y are Respetively :- X Y
(1) CH4 , CH4 (2) CH4, C2H6 (1) CH4 , CH4 (2) CH4, C2H6
(3) CH4,C2H2 (4) C2H2, CH4 (3) CH4,C2H2 (4) C2H2, CH4
36. Which of the following hydride is not ionic ? 36.
(1) CaH2 (2) BaH2 (3) SrH2 (4) BeH2 (1) CaH2 (2) BaH2 (3) SrH2 (4) BeH2
@AAKASHDELHI02
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37. Which of the alkali metal is having least melting point? 37.
(1) Na (2) K (1) Na (2) K
(3) Rb (4) Cs (3) Rb (4) Cs
38. What is best reagent to convert MnO24  toMnO4 :- 38. MnO42– MnO4–
(1) Cl2 (2) O3
(1) Cl2 water (2) O3
(3) (1) and (2) both (4) None of the above (3) (1) (2) (4)
39. Which oxide is the best reducting agent ? 39.
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (1) CO2 (2) NO2
(3) SiO2 (4) SO2 (3) SiO2 (4) SO2
40. A silicate mineral having chemical formula 40. Ca2MgxSi8O22(OH)2
Ca2MgxSi8O22(OH)2 and known as tremolite, predit x
the value of x :- (1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5 (3) 2 (4) 5
41. By which of the following reactions is borazine prepared? 41.
(1) B2H6 + NH3(excess) 
Low temperature
(1) B2H6 + NH3(excess) 
Low temperature
(2) B2H6 + NH3(excess)  

High temperature
 (2) B2H6 + NH3(excess)  
High temperature

 2 6  2 6
Ratio 2 NH :1B H
(3) B2H6 + NH3(excess) 
Ratio 2 NH :1B H
3
High temperature
(3) B2H6 + NH3(excess)  3
High temperature

42. Most thermally stable peroxide can be generated for 42.
which of the following alkali metals ?
(1) Li (2) Na (1) Li (2) Na
(3) K (4) Cs (3) K (4) Cs
43. Both termporary and permanent hardness is removed 43.
on boiling water with :-
(1) Ca(OH)2 (1) Ca(OH)2
(2) Na2CO3 (washing soda) (2) Na2CO3 ( )
(3) CaCO3 (lime stone) (3) CaCO3 ( )
(4) CaO (quick lime) (4) CaO ( )
44. BeCl2 + LiAlH4 
 X + LiCl + AlCl3 :- 44. BeCl2 + LiAlH4 
 X + LiCl + AlCl3 :-
(1) X is LiH (1) X is LiH
(2) X is BeH2 (2) X is BeH2
(3) X is BeCl2. 2H2O (3) X is BeCl2. 2H2O
(4) None of these (4) None of these
45. The commercial name for calcium oxide is :- 45.
(1) quick lime (1)
(2) milk of lime (2)
(3) limestone (3)
(4) slaked lime (4)
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46. Select the correct one : 46.
(1) Biomacromolecule in food cannot be utelised by (1)
our body is their original form.
(2) Organic food can be absorbed in their orginal from (2)
(3) Digestion includes only chemical digestion of food.
(4) Human digestinve system is consist of alimentary (3)
canal only (4)
47. Find the odd one : 47.
(1) Thecodont (2) Diphyodont (1) (2)
(3) Acrodont (4) Heterodont (3) (4)
48. An man of age 20 years, have ...... teeth per jaw. 48. 20 ......
(1) 16 (2) 20
(3) 32 (4) 14 (1) 16 (2) 20 (3) 32 (4) 14
49. The hard chewing surface of teeth is made up of : 49.
(1) Enamel (2) Dentine (1) (2)
(3) Cementum (4) Fibres (3) (4)
50. The upper surface of tongne has small projections 50.
called : (1) (2)
(1) Villus (2) Papillae
(3) Taste buds (4) Tonsils (3) (4)
51. Select the incorrect statement : 51.
(1) Major digestion of food takes place in body part (1)
of stomach
(2)
(2) Colon is divided into three region
(3) Defecation is helped by diaphragm (3)
(4) Wall of alimentary canal formed of four layer (4)
52. In human, tongue is attached to the floor of mouth by 52.
(1) Labial frenulum (1)
(2) Lingual frenulum (2)
(3) Cartilageneous flap (3)
(4) Voluntary muscular flap (4)
53. Select the odd one on the basis of action : 53.
(1) Pepsin (1)
(2) Trypsin (2)
(3) Chymotrpsin (3)
(4) Carboxypeptidase (4)
54. Oblique layer is only found is : 54.
(1) Intestine (2) Caecum (1) (2)
(3) Oesophagus (4) Stomach (3) (4)
55. In small intestine pH value is : 55. pH
(1) 7.0 (2) 8.0 (1) 7.0 (2) 8.0
(3) 7.8 - 8.5 (4) 2.5 - 4.5 (3) 7.8 - 8.5 (4) 2.5 - 4.5
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56. The food that gives more calories per unit mass of 56.
food is :
(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrates (1) (2)
(3) Fat (4) Water (3) (4)
57. Hydrolysis of lactose yields : 57.
(1) Glucose and fructose (1)
(2) Glucose and galactose (2)
(3) Fructose and galactose (3)
(4) Glucose and maltose (4)
58. Jaundice may be caused due to 58.
(1) Stone in pancreas (1)
(2) Removal of Gall bladder causes deposition of bile (2)
pigments in skin cell.
(3) Blockage of bile duct causes excess bile pigements (3)
(4) Increased production of RBC (4) RBC
59. Which of the following is structural and functional 59.
unit of liver ?
(1) Kuffer cell (2) Hepatic lobe (1) (2)
(3) Hepatocytes (4) Hepatic lobules (3) (4)
60. Assimilation of food takes place in : 60.
(1) Stomach (2) Ileum (1) (2)
(3) Duodenum (4) Body tissue (3) (4)
61. Trachea is lined with incomplete rings of 61.
(1) Fibrous cartilage (2) Calcified cartilage (1) (2)
(3) Elastic cartilage (4) Hyaline cartilage (3) (4)
62. Ribs move outwards during respiration with : 62.
(1) Intercoastal muscle (2) Petrohyal muscle
(1) (2)
(3) Pharyngeal muscle (4) None of these (3) (4)
63. If CO2 level get increased in the blood, it favours 63. CO2
(1) Loading of O2 in the blood (1) O2
(2) Unloading of O2 from the blood (2) O2
(3) Decreased availibility of oxygen to tissue (3) O2
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) (1) (3)
64. Rate and depth of respiration shell increase when : 64.
(1) Oxygen concentration increased in Alveolar air (1) O2
(2) CO2 concentration increases in Alveolar air (2) CO2
(3) Bicarbonate concentration increases (3)
(4) Bicarbonate concentration decreases (4)
65. With the increases of temperature the respiratory rate will: 65.
(1) Increase (2) Decrease rapidly (1) (2)
(3) Remain unaffacted (4) Decrease slowly (3) (4)
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66. Vocal cords found in : 66.
(1) Larynx (2) Pharynx (1) (2)
(3) Glottis (4) Bronchial tube (3) (4)
67. The vital capacity of human lung is euqal to : 67.
(1) 3500 ml (2) 4800 ml (1) 3500 ml (2) 4800 ml
(3) 500 ml (4) 1200 ml (3) 500 ml (4) 1200 ml
68. Exchange of gases in lungs alveoli occurs through : 68.
(1) Active transport (2) Osmosis (1) (2)
(3) Simple diffusion (4) Facilitated diffusion (3) (4)
69. Asthma is a respiration disease caused due to : 69.
(1) Infection of lungs (1)
(2) Tracheal infection (2)
(3) Bleeding in pleural cavity (3)
(4) Cramps in broncial muscle obstructing the air passage (4)
70. Which has less affinity for hemoglobin ? 70.
(1) Carbonmonoxide (2) Carbon dioxide (1) (2)
(3) Oxygen (4) Both (2) & (3) (3) (4) (2) (3)
71. Which of the following has neurogenic heart ? 71.
(1) Cockroach (2) Octopus (1) (2)
(3) Frog (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
72. Centre for heart beat regulation is present is : 72.
(1) Pons varoli (2) Cerebellum (1) (2)
(3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla (3) (4)
73. Lymph differs from blood in possessing : 73.
(1) More Proteins and less waste products (1)
(2) Less proteins and more waste products (2)
(3) More proteins and more waste products (3)
(4) Less proteins and less waste products (4)
74. During diastole : 74.
(1) Blood enters the heart (1)
(2) Blood leaves the heart (2)
(3) Blood leaves the ventricle (3)
(4) Blood enters lungs (4)
75. Impulse of heart beat orginates from : 75.
(1) S.A. Node (2) A.V. Node (1) S.A. Node (2) A.V. Node
(3) Vagns Nerve (4) Cardiac Nerve (3) Vagns Nerve (4) Cardiac Nerve
76. How do parasympathetic neural signal affact the 76.
working of the heart ?
(1) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase (1)
(2) Heart rate decrease but cardiac output increase (2)
(3) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output (3)
(4) Heart rate is increased without affacting the
(4)
cardiac output
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77. Artifical pacemaker is required when a person is 77.
surffering from :
(1) Areterioselerosis (1)
(2) Atherosclerosis (2)
(3) Irregularity of heart beat (3)
(4) Hyper tension (4)
78. Rise is heat beat, increase in the cardiac output, blood 78.
pressure and blood sugar occur during emergency
by the hormone.
(1) (2) ADH
(1) Aldosterone (2) ADH
(3) Epinephrine (4) Oxytocin (3) (4)
79. When the heart is not pumping the blood effectively 79.
enough to meet the needs of the body, it is called :
(1) Heart failure (2) Cardiac Arrest (1) Heart failure (2) Cardiac Arrest
(3) Heart attack (4) Angina (3) Heart attack (4) Angina
80. The main difference in the structure of arteries and veins is in: 80.
(1) Tunica intima, made up of simple squamous epithelium (1) Tunica intima
(2) Tunica media (2) Tunica media
(3) Tunica externa (3) Tunica externa
(4) Tunica adventitia (4) Tunica adventitia
81. Purkinje fibres arise from : 81.
(1) Apex of ventricles (1)
(2) Middle of ventricles (2)
(3) Anterior parts of atria (3)
(4) Posterior part of atria (4)
82. All veins carry deoxygenated blood except : 82.
(1) Renal Artery (1)
(2) Hepatic vein (2)
(3) Hepatic portal vein (3)
(4) Pulmonary vein (4)
83. High blood pressure can potentially harm the vital 83.
organ like :
(A) Heart (B) Brain (A) (B)
(C) Kidney (D) Lungs (C) (D)
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only (1) A B (2) B C
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B, C and D (3) A, B C (4) A, B, C D
84. Lymph – 84.
(1) Transport oxygen to brain (1)
(2) Transport carbondioxide the lungs (2) CO2
(3) Returns interstitial fluid back to heart (3)
(4) Contains RBC, leucocyte and more proteins as (4) RBC, WBC
compared to blood
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85. Select the odd are : 85.
(1) Eosinophil (2) Basophil (1) Eosinophil (2) Basophil
(3) Monocyte (4) Neutrophil (3) Monocyte (4) Neutrophil
86. How many of the following have closed circulatory 86.
system : Annelida, Echinodermata, Vertebrata,
Annelida, Echinodermata, Vertebrata, Platyhelminthes, Arthropoda
Platyhelminthes, Arthropoda (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4
87. Removal of metabolic waste in the form of urea is called: 87.
(1) Amonotelism (2) Ureotelism (1) Amonotelism (2) Ureotelism
(3) Uricotelism (4) Aminotelism (3) Uricotelism (4) Aminotelism
88. The smallest functional unit of kidney is : 88.
(1) Nephron (2) Collecting tubmle (1) (2)
(3) Glomeruling (4) Bowman's Capsule (3) (4)
89. Reabsorption of Na is controlled by
+
89. Na+
(1) Vasopression or ADH (1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone (2)
(3) Renin (3)
(4) Arginase (4)
90. Ultrafiltration occurs is a glomeruls when : 90.
(1) Osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure (1)
(2) Hydrostatic pressure exceeds oxmotic pressure (2)
(3) Colloidal osmotic pressure plus capsular pressre (3)
remains less than glomerular hydrostatic pressure
(4) Capsular hydrostatic pressure exceeds glomerular (4)
hydrostatic pressure
91. Why transplantation of kidney requires blood relative 91.
preferably ?
(1) can easily donates (1)
(2) easy to handle both donar and reciver (2)
(3) much similar genone (3)
(4) to reduce expenditure of surgery (4)
92. Concentration of urine depands upon which organ : 92.
(1) Bowman's capsule (1)
(2) Length of Henle's loop (2)
(3) P.C.T. (3) P.C.T.
(4) Network of capillaries arising from glomerls (4)
93. If one litre of water is introduced directly in human 93.
blood, then
(1) BMR increases (1) BMR
(2) BMR decrease (2) BMR
(3) RBC brust and urine production increases (3) RBC
(4) RBC collapses and uring production decreases (4) RBC
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94. The tubular epithelium cell of different segment of 94.
nephron perform reabsorption by :
(1) Active mechanism (1)
(2) Passive mechanism (2)
(3) Facilitated mechanism (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
95. Which of the following is not correct regarding fall in GFR? 95. GFR ?
(1) JGA cells release an homore renin (1) JGA
(2) Glomerular vessels and capillaries dilates (2)
(3) Increased colloidal pressure (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
96. In human beings ciliary movement is found in 96.
(1) Macrophages and leucocytes (1)
(2) Fallopian tube and Bowman's capsule (2)
(3) Fallopian tube and trachea (3)
(4) Small intestine (4)
97. Match the following and mark the correct option. 97.
(A) Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin (A) (i)
(B) Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid (B) (ii)
(C) Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit (C) (iii)
(D) Sarcomere (iv) I-band (D) (iv) I-
(1) A-i B-ii C-iv D-iii (1) A-i B-ii C-iv D-iii
(2) A-ii B-i C-iii D-iv (2) A-ii B-i C-iii D-iv
(3) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii (3) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii
(4) A-iii B-ii C-iv D-i (4) A-iii B-ii C-iv D-i
98. Which points are correct with the regard to the 98.
skeletal muscles? (1)
(1) Their activities are under the involuntary conrol
of the nervous system (2)
(2) They are located in the inner walls of visceral organs (3)
(3) They are primarily involved in locomotory actions
and changes of body postures
(4) They have no actin and myosin filaments (4)
99. Thoracic cage in human beings is made up of 99.
(1) Ribs, vertebral column and diaphragm (1)
(2) Ribs, diaphragm and collar bone (2)
(3) Vertebral column, diaphragm and sternum (3)
(4) Ribs, vertebral column and sternum (4)
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100. Match the columns and pick out the correct answer. 100.
Column-A Column-B -A -B
(1) Atlas/axis (A) Saddle joint (1) (A)
(2) Carpal/metacarpal (B) Hinge joint of thumb
(2) (B)
(3) Between phalanges (C) Fibrous joint
(4) Femur/acetabulum (D) Ball and (3) (C)
socket joint (4) (D)
(5) Between cranial bones (E) Pivot joint (5) (E)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(1) 1-E 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-D (1) 1-E 2-A 3-B 4-C 5-D
(2) 1-E 2-A 3-B 4-D 5-C (2) 1-E 2-A 3-B 4-D 5-C
(3) 1-E 2-A 3-D 4-B 5-C (3) 1-E 2-A 3-D 4-B 5-C
(4) 1-E 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-B (4) 1-E 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-B
101. Which one of the following is the correct description 101.
of a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(1) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the (1)
occipital condyles
(2) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating (2) 9th 10th
ribs
(3) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh (3)
bone articulates
(4) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull (4)
are joined by the fibrous joint
102. (1) Plenty of mitochondria 102. (A)
(2) Myoglobin content is high (B)
(3) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high (C)
(4) Depend on aerobic process for ATP production (D) ATP
(E) Gives a reddish appearance (E)
How many points are correct about Red fibres of
muscle? (1) (2)
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (3) (4)
103. Which one of the following option gives the correct 103.
categorisation of different stages nervous system?
A B C A B C
Polarized Depolarized Excitable Cell
(1) Resting stage Excitable Neuron (1)
Stage
(2) Repolarization Excited stage Nissl's granule (2)
(3) Resting stage Na+ channel Neurons (3) Na+
close
(4) Na+ high in Na+ low in Effector organ (4) Na+ Na+
axoplasm axopolasm
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104. Across synapse, the following steps of transmission 104.
of nerve impulse are given. Arrange in sequence.
(A) Opening of specific ions channels allows the (A)
entery of ions a new excitatory or inhibitory
potential are generated
(B) Arrival of action potential at axon terminal. (B)
(C) Depolarization of presynaptic membrane (C)
(D) Synaptic vescicle fuses with the synaptic
(D) Ca+2
membrane and neurotransmitter releases in
synaptic cleft by influx of Ca+2 ions
(E)
(E) Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post
synaptic membrane
(1) (B)-(A)-(C)-(D)-(E) (2) (B)-(C)-(D)-(E)-(A) (1) (B)-(A)-(C)-(D)-(E) (2) (B)-(C)-(D)-(E)-(A)
(3) (E)-(D)-(C)-(B)-(A) (4) (E)-(C)-(B)-(D)-(A) (3) (E)-(D)-(C)-(B)-(A) (4) (E)-(C)-(B)-(D)-(A)
105. Which part of cerebrum converts short term memory 105.
into long term memory?
(1) Prefrontal cortex (2) Limbic lobe (1) (2)
(3) Temporal lobe (4) Hippocampal lobe (3) (4)
106. Which of the following is not correctly matched? 106.
(1) Cerebellum—Balance (1)
(2) Pons — Pneumototic center (2)
(3) Hypothalamus—Pitutary (3)
(4) Medulla oblongata—Temperature regulation (4)
107. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called 107.
thalamus, which is (1)
(1) a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor
signaling
(2)
(2) a major coordinating centre for sensory signal
only
(3) a major centre for motor signaling (3)
(4) not a nervous part of a brain (4)
108. "Organ of Corti" is found in 108.
(1) Scala rotundes (1)
(2) Scala media (2)
(3) Scala vestibule (3)
(4) Scala tympani (4)
109. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the centre of the 109.
visual field, where
(1) more rods than cones are found (1)
(2) high density of cones occur, but has no rods (2)
(3) the optic nerve leaves the eye (3)
(4) only rods are present (4)
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110. "Secondary messenger" is called 110.
(1) Cyclic A.M.P. (2) ATP (1) A.M.P. (2) ATP
(3) ADP (4) DNA (3) ADP (4) DNA
111. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland secretes hormones 111.
(A) FSH, GH and LH (A) FSH, GH LH
(B) STH, ACTH and TSH (B) STH, ACTH TSH
(C) FSH, ADH and prolactin (C) FSH, ADH prolactin
(D) ACTH, TSH and oxytocin (D) ACTH, TSH oxytocin
Which option is correct?
(1) A and B are correct (1) A B
(2) B and D are correct (2) B D
(3) A and C are correct (3) A C
(4) A, B and C are correct (4) A, B C
112. Match column I with column II and choose the correct 112. I II
option.
(A) Adrenal (I) Graves disease (A) (I)
(B) Pancrease (II) Diabetes Insipidus (B) (II)
(C) Pituitary (III) Acromegali (C) (III)
(D) Thyroid (IV) Addison disease (D) (IV)
(V) Diabetes mellitus (V)
(1) A-III B-V C-IV D-I (1) A-III B-V C-IV D-I
(2) A-IV B-II C-III D-I (2) A-IV B-II C-III D-I
(3) A-IV B-V C-III D-I (3) A-IV B-V C-III D-I
(4) A-I B-II C-IV D-III (4) A-I B-II C-IV D-III
113. Both adrenaline and Cortisol are secreted in response 113.
to stress. Which of the following statements is also
true for both of these hormones?
(1)
(1) They act to increase blood glucose
(2) They are secreted by the adrenal cortex (2)
(3) Their secretion is stimulated by adrenocorticotropin
(3)
(4) They are secreted into the blood within seconds
of the onset of stress (4)
114. Match the items in Columns I and II 114. I II
(A) Adenohypophysis (1) Epinephrine (A) (1)
(B) Adrenal medulla (2) Somatotropin (B) (2)
(C) Thyroid gland (3) Androgens (C) (3)
(D) Adrenal cortex (4) Calcitonin (D) (4)
(1) A-3, B-l, C-4, D-2 (2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4 (1) A-3, B-l, C-4, D-2 (2) A-l, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-2, B-l, C-4, D-3 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l (3) A-2, B-l, C-4, D-3 (4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-l
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115. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from 115.
stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence
quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of
(1) Over secretion of pairs distalis (1)
(2) Deficiency of iodine in diet (2)
(3) Low secretion of growth hormone (3)
(4) Cancer of the thyroid gland (4)
116. How many hormone from given list produce their 116.
effect by secondary messanger mechanism :
Cortisol, Estrogen, Prolactin, GnRh, Melatonin, GnRh,
Thyroxin, Calcitonin, PTH, Adrenaline, Aldosteron PTH,
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
117. Which hormone originating in hypothalamic neuron 117.
pass through axon and are released from their nerve
ending and reach the pituitary through portal circulation:
(1) GnRh & FSH (2) ADH & Oxytocin (1) GnRh & FSH (2) ADH & Oxytocin
(3) GnRh & GHRh (4) TRH & Thyroxin (3) GnRh & GHRh (4) TRH & Thyroxin
118. Which one is not the function of PTH ? 118. PTH
(1) It increase mineralisation of bone (1)
(2) It increase osteoclastic activity (2)
(3) It increase absorption of Ca+ from GIT (3) GIT
(4) It increase demineralisation of bone (4)
119. Identify the correctly matched pair : 119.
(1) Zona glomerulosa – Secretes hormone which (1)
increase blood glucose level.
(2) Zona reticularis – Secrets a hormone which (2) DCT Na+
stimulate Na+ absorption from DCT
(3) Zona fasciculata – Secrets hormone which (3)
maintain water balance in body.
(4) Catcholamines – Increase lipolysis & proteolysis (4)
120. Select the incorrect statement. 120.
(1) Some amount of androgen are secreted by adrenal (1)
cortex
(2) Cortisol involved in maintaining kidney function. (2)
(3) Aldosteron helps in maintenance of osmotic (3)
pressure & blood pressure
(4) Glucocorticoids stimulates glycogenesis (4)
121. Identify the correct matching pair – 121.
(1) Glucagon, adrenaline – Peptide hormone (1)
(2) Cortisol, Androgen – Amino acid derivative (2)
(3) Aldosteron, ADH – Protein hormone (3) ADH –
(4) TSH, FSH – Protein hormone (4) TSH, FSH –
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122. Which one is characteristic of exopthalmic goitre ? 122.
(1) is a form of hypothyroidism (1)
(2) enlargement of thyroid gland (2)
(3) increase basal metabolic rate & weight loss (3)
(4) (2) & (3) both (4) (2) (3)
123. Select out the correct statement : 123.
(1) Tympanic membrane is composed of connective (1)
tissue covered with skin inside and mucus
membrane outside
(2) Membranous labyrinth is surrounded by perilymph. (2)
(3) The membranous canals are suspended in the (3)
endolymph of bony canal
(4) Macular are the specific receptor of semicirclar (4)
canal which maintain balance of body
124. Macula is the sensory part of : 124.
(1) Ampulla (2) Utricle (1) (2)
(3) Saccule (4) (2) & (3) both (3) (4) (2) (3)
125. Which option is correct for Rodcell ? 125.
(a) More in number (b) Scotopic vision (a) (b)
(c) Day light vision (d) Dim light vision (c) (d)
(e) Twilight vision (f) Colour vision (e) (f)
(g) Visual purpal (h) Visual violet (g) (h)
(1) a, b, c, h (2) a, b, d, e, g (1) a, b, c, h (2) a, b, d, e, g
(3) a, e, g, h (4) a, b, c, d, f (3) a, e, g, h (4) a, b, c, d, f
126. Which one is not the function of emotional brain ? 126.
(1) Regulation of sexual behaviour (1)
(2) Expression of excitement, fear (2)
(3) Motivation & Olfaction (3)
127. Consider the given diagram of nerve impulse transmission: 127.
A B A B
–– – –– +++++++ –– – –– +++++++
+++++ –– –– – –– – +++++ –– –– – –– –
Which one is correct for site A & B ? A B ?

+ + + + + +
Na channel K channel Na K pump Na channel K channel Na K channel
(1) Site - A Open Closed Open (1) Site - A Open Closed Open
Site - B Closed Closed Open Site - B Closed Closed Open
(2) Site - A Open Closed Closed (2) Site - A Open Closed Closed
Site - B Closed Closed Open Site - B Closed Closed Open
(3) Site - A Closed Open Open (3) Site - A Closed Open Open
Site - B Closed Open Open Site - B Closed Open Open
(4) Site - A Closed Open Open (4) Site - A Closed Open Open
Site - B Open Closed Closed Site - B Open Closed Closed
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128. Tetany is the rapid spasm in muscles due to : 128.
(1) Low Ca++ in blood (1) Ca++
(2) High Ca++ in blood (2) Ca++
(3) High Ca++ in tissue fluid (3) Ca++
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) (1) (3)
129. Anatomical unit of muscles is : 129.
(1) sarcomere (2) myofibrils (1) (2)
(3) muscle fibre (4) fasciculi (3) (4)
130. Two halves of pelvic girdle meet ......... to form the 130. .........
pubic symphysis containing .......... cartilage. ..........
(1) Ventrally, Hylaine (1)
(2) Ventrally, White fibrous (2)
(3) Ventrally, Yellow elastic (3)
(4) Laterally, White fibrous (4)
131. How many bones from given list are paired and 131.
included in axial skeletal :
Femur, Radius, Tibia, Hyoid, Malleus, Frontal,
Ethmoid, Patella, Sternum, Clavicle, Zygomatic,
Vomar, Palatine (1) 6 (2) 3
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 11 (4) 8 (3) 11 (4) 8
132. Which one is correctly matched ? 132.
(1) Acetabulum cavity – Humerus bone (1)
(2) Glenoid cavity – Clavicle (2)
(3) Acromian process – Scapulla (3)
(4) Collar bone – Clavicle (4)
133. In the centre of each 'I band' is an Z-line which bisects 133. 'I ' Z-
it. This Z-line is made up of : Z-
(1) Reticular fiber (1)
(2) Elastic fiber (2)
(3) Collagen fiber (3)
(4) Non fibrous only membranous (4)
134. Which one is correct for skeletal muscle fibers ? 134.
(a) Striated (b) Syncytium (a) (b)
(c) Voluntary (c)
(d) Large number of myofibirls (d)
(1) Only a & b (2) a, c, d only (1) a b (2) a, c, d
(3) only a & c (4) a, b, c, d (3) a c (4) a, b, c, d
135. Which one is false during muscle contraction ? 135.
(1) Decrease in H-zone (1) H-
(2) Decrease length of thin flament (2)
(3) Decrease length of I-band (3) I-
(4) A-band remains constant (4) A-
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

prohibited.
Sheet.



Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 20/20

20/28 26072020/E/H
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CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
ALL PHASE
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020
BIO-CHEMISTRY
TEST DATE : 26 - 07 - 2020
TEST SYLLABUS : UNIT-5
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 4 4 1 3 3 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 4 1 1 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 4 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 3
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 1 2 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 4 2
HINT – SHEET
49. NCERT XI, Pg # 258 71. NCERT XI, Health & Disease
64. NCERT XI, Pg # 275 86. NCERT XI, Animal Kingdom
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91. NCERT XI, Health & Disease 114. NCERT XI, Pg. # 335 to 336
93. NCERT XI, Miscellaneous NCERT 116. NCERT XI, Pg. # 340
96. NCERT XI, Pg. # 303 119. NCERT XI, Pg. # 337
112. NCERT XI, Pg. # 336 to 337 135. NCERT XI, Pg. # 307
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*1701CMD305219018* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
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UNIT – 06
BIOLOGY : Reproduction
(i) Reproduction in Organisms
(ii) Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
(iii) Human Reproduction
(iv) Reproductive Health
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1. What is incorrect w.r.t. monocarpic plants? 1.
(1) The plants flower only once (1)
(2) Plants die after flowering and fruiting (2)
(3) Most of such plants are perennials (3)
(4) Very few such plants are perennial also (4)
2. A group of plants which after reaching maturity, flower 2.
every year in particular seasons, are
(1) Annuals, polycarpic (1)
(2) Biennials, monocarpic (2)
(3) Perennials, monocarpic (3)
(4) Perennials, polycarpic (4)
3. A perennial plant which bears flowers throughout the 3.
year is (1) (2)
(1) Apple (2) China rose (3) Mango(4) Orange (3) (4)
4. Inter flowering period of polycarpic plants is 4.
(1) Juvenile phase (1)
(2) Recovery stage as a part of juvenile phase (2)
(3) Recovery stage as a part of mature phase (3)
5. Seed formed without meiosis and fertilization by the 5.
process :
(1) Apomixis (1) Apomixis
(2) Amphimixis (2) Amphimixis
(3) Parthenocarpy (3) Parthenocarpy
(4) Polygamy (4) Polygamy
6. In most primitive sexually reproducing organisms 6.
(1) The functional gametes belong to different (1)
parents only
(2) Gametes are morphologically and physiologically (2)
different
(3) The functional gametes belong to same parents only. (3)
(4) The functional gametes belong to genetically similar (4)
or different parents
7. Find odd one out w.r.t. sexuality 7.
(1) Cucurbits (2) Date palm (1) Cucurbits (2) Date palm
(3) Coconut (4) Maize (3) Coconut (4) Maize
8. Which one of the following group of plants shows 8.
haploid plant body?
(1) Algae, mosses and ferns (1) Algae, mosses ferns
(2) Fungi, algae and bryophytes (2) Fungi, algae bryophytes
(3) Bryophytes, pteridophytes and algae (3) Bryophytes, pteridophytes algae
(4) Bryophytes, algae, pteridophytes and mosses (4) Bryophytes, algae, pteridophytes mosses
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9. Read the following four statement (A-D) 9. (A-D)
(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological (A)
marvels and the site of sexual reproduction.
(B) Anther are attached to proximal end of the (B)
filament of stamen. (C)
(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non
essential parts of flower. (D)
(D) The number and length of stamens are variable
in flowers of different species
How many of the above statements are right ? (1) (2)
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (3) (4)
10. In the flower of Mussaenda, advertising flag is 10. (Mussaenda)
modification of ?
(1) Sepal (2) Petal (1) (2)
(3) Funicle (4) Thalamus (3) (Funicle) (4) (Thalamus)
11. Function of Guiding and attracting pollen tube is done by:- 11. :-
(1) Egg cell (2) Filiform apparatus (1) (2)
(3) Antipodal cell (4) Secondary nucleus (3) (4)
12. Select correct statement w.r.t. chromosomes number 12.
in rice plant (1) 24 oosphere
(1) Microspore mother cells have 24 chromosomes 12
and oosphere has 12 chromosomes (2) megasporocyte 20
(2) Both hucellus and megasporocyte have 20,
chromosomes (3) 24 16
(3) Endosperm and meiocytes have 24 and 16 respectively
(4) Microspores and definitive nucleus have 12 chromosomes. (4) 12
13. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. binary fission 13.
(1) It takes place under unfavourable conditions (1)
(2) It makes the organism immortal (2)
(3) No residue is left behind (3)
(4) Nucleus division is prior to cytoplasm division (4)
14. Select odd one out with respect to post fertilization events 14.
(1) Development of endosperm (1)
(2) Development of embryosac (2)
(3) Formation of fruit (3)
(4) Embryogenesis (4)
15. In adventive polyembryony a _____ develops from 15. _____ _____
a _____ directly
(1) Gametophyte, gametophyte (1)
(2) Gametophyte, sporophyte (2)
(3) Sporophyte, sporophytes (3) ,
(4) Sporophyte, gametophyte (4) ,
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16. A : Sexual reproduction enables the organisms to 16. A:
survive during unfavourable conditions.
B : Interaction between hormones and certain B:
environmental factors regulate the reproductive processes
and the associated behavioural expressions of organisms.
(1) Only A is correct (1) A
(2) Only B is correct (2) B
(3) Both A & B are wrong (3) A B
(4) Both A & B are correct (4) A B
17. Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell :- 17.
(1) Below the egg apparatus (1)
(2) Below the antipodals (2)
(3) Above the egg apparatus (3)
18. A : Grape vine is polycarpic plant. 18. A:
B : It is a perennial plant which flowers repeatedly at B:
intervals.
(1) A is correct but B is wrong (1) A B
(2) B is correct but A is wrong (2) B A
(3) Both A & B are wrong (3) A B
(4) Both A & B are correct (4) A B
19. Select the correct match : 19.
Propasub Plant
(a) Rhizome (i) Ginger (a) (i)
(b) Leaf bud (ii) Agave (b) (ii)
(c) Offset (iii) Bryophyllum (c) (iii)
(d) Bulbil (iv) Eichornia (d) (iv)
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, a-i
(2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, a-iv
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, a-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, a-ii
20. Which one is not a example of hermaphrodite ? 20.
(1) Sproge (2) Tapeworm (1) (2)
(3) Earthworm (4) Cockroch (3) (4)
21. External fertilisation occurs in : 21.
(1) Mammales (2) Bird (1) (2)
(3) Reptiles (4) Bony fishes (3) (4)
22. Select the wrong statement : 22.
(1) Stamen also known as microsporophyll (1)
(2) Anther is present at distal end of filament (2)
(3) Each another is always bilobed (3)
(4) In malvaceae the anther is bisporangiate (4)
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23. Select the correct match according to functional role 23.
(a) Epidermis (i) Hygroscopic (a) (i)
(b) Endotheciun (ii) Ephemeral (b) (ii)
(c) Middle layer (iii) Protective layer (c) (iii)
(d) Tapetum (iv) Endomitosis (d) (iv)
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv (4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
24. Select the wrong statement : 24.
(1) Sporopollenin is polymer of carotenoids (1)
(2)
(2) Food is stored in middle layer
(3)
(3) Most common tetrad in dicot is isobilateral
(4) All tetrad are found in aristolochia elegars (4)
25. Which one is not a underground stem ? 25.
(1) Rhizome (2) Runner (1) (2)
(3) Bulb (4) Tuber (3) (4)
26. In angiosperms, triple, fusion is required for the 26. :-
formation of :- (1) (2)
(1) Fruit wall (2) Seed coat
(3) Embryo sac (4) Endosperm (3) (4)
27. Dehiscence of anther take place during : 27.
(1) Dry season (2) Cold season (1) (2)
(3) Rainy season (4) Moist season (3) (4)
28. The free end of the carpel which serve as landing 28.
platform for pollen grain called :
(1) Stigma (2) Style (1) (2)
(3) Ovary (4) Thalanus (3) (4)
29. Select the wrong one for adaptation for self pollination: 29.
(1) Monocliny (2) Homogary (1) (2)
(3) Dicliny (4) Cleistogary (3) (4)
30. Morphological barrier are formed in between anther 30.
and stigma of same flower so pollination cannot occur
is called :
(1) Herkogary (1)
(2) Heterostyly (2)
(3) Dicltogary (3)
(4) Homogany (4)
31. In which part only cleistogamous flower occur : 31.
(1) Connelia (1)
(2) Oxalis (2)
(3) Viola (3)
(4) Arachis hypogea (4)
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32. Polyembrgony was first observed by ___(A)____ 32. ___(A)____ ____(B)____
in ____(B)____ seeds.
(1) Leeuwen Hoek-A, Orange-B (1) -A, -B
(2) Robert Koch-A, Cok-B (2) -A, -B
(3) Louies pastore-A, Lemon-B (3) -A, -B
(4) Goethe-A, Capsella-B (4) -A, -B
33. Identify the labelled part-A in given diagrammatic 33. -A
view and choose correct for it.
(1) It is primary sexual organ

(2) Situated outside the abdominal cavity because here (1)
2-2.5°C temp low than normal internal body (2) 2-2.5°C
temparature
(3) Produce male germ cells and androgens (3)
34. Incorrect match pair is : 34.
(1) Testicular lobule - about 250 in each testis (1) 250
(2) Leydig cells - Produce testosterone and found in (2)
seminiferous tubule
(3) Sertoli Cells - Provide nutrition to the germ cells (3)
(4) Epididymis - Located along the posterior surface
of each testis (4)
35. What is the function of scrotum ? 35.
(1) Helps in maintaining the low temp. of the testes (1)
(2) Help in development of testes (2)
(3) Testes descend in scrotum through inguinal canal (3)
36. Consider the statements and mark the false option. 36.
(1) The urethra originates from the urinary bladder (1)
and extends through the penis (2)
(2)Maleurethraisacommonpathforurineandsemenejaculation (3)
(3) Penis is made up of special tissue that helps in
erection of the penis to faciliatate insemination.
(4) The secretion of bulbourethral gland neutralise the (4)
acidity of vestibule and also help in lubrication of
prostatic urethra.
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37. Which of following gland found in unpaired form? 37.
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate (1) (2)
(3) Cowper's gland (4) Bartholin gland (3) (4)
38. The enlarge end of penis is called 38.
(1) Corpora cavernosa (1)
(2) Fore skin (2) Fore skin
(3) Glans penis (3)
(4) Corpora spongiosum (4)
39. Match the column 39.
(A) Seminal plasma (i) Sperms + Seminal plasma (A) (i) +
(B) Rich in fructose (ii) Maturation and motility (B) (ii)
of sperm
(C) Semen (iii) Prostatic fluid (C) (iii)
(D) Epididymis (iv) Seminal fluid (D) (iv)
(v)Secretionof accessory glands (v)
(1) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (1) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (2) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii (3) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
40. Identify the correct match pair 40.
(1) Primary sexual organ - Testes, ovary, mammary gland (1)
(2) Secondry sexual organ - Epidimymis, Uterus, Ovary (2)
(3) Secondary sexual character - Appearance of pubic (3)
hairs, Heavy voice, development of Gubernaculum
(4) Ovary - Mesodermal, Located in lower abdomen (4)
41. Which of following is not a part of female accessory ducts? 41.
(1) Bartholin gland (1)
(2) Uterus (2)
(3) Vagina (3)
(4) Fallopian tube (4)
42. Fimbriae help in : 42.
(1) Formation of ovum (1)
(2) Collection of ovum (2)
(3) Formation of follicle (3)
(4) Collection of follicle (4)
43. Which of following is true for isthmus 43.
(1) Wider part of oviduct (1)
(2) Funnel shaped part of oviduct (2)
(3) Narrow part of oviduct (3)
(4) It is inverted part of oviduct (4)
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44. Select the incorrect match pair. 44.
(1) Cervical canal - Lumen of body part of uterus (1)
(2) Ampulla - Fertilization take place (2)
(3) Birth canal - Vagina and cervical canal (3)
(4) Myometrium - Middle thick layer of smooth muscle (4)
45. Examine the given diagram and select the correct 45. A, B
option for labelled part A, B and C. C
A A
B B
C C
(1) A = Perimetrium – Outer Layer (1) A =

C = Myometrium – Middle Layer
C=
(2) B = Myometrium – Thin smooth muscle layer
A = Endometrium – Glandular layer (2) B = –
(3) B = Myometrium – Middle thick layer A=
C = Perimetrium – Thick membranous layer (3) B = –
(4) B = Myometrium – Exhibits strong
C= –
contraction during delivery
A = Endometrium – Cyclic changes during (4) B = –
mehstrual cycle A= –
46. Which of following is not a part of external genitalia 46.
of female (1)
(1) Breast and mons pubis
(2)
(2) Clitoris and Labia minora
(3) Labia majora and mons pubis (3)
(4) Labia majora and clitoris (4)
47. Ploidy of cells that line seminiferous tubules on its 47.
inside is :
(1) 'n' only (1) 'n'
(2) '2n' only (2) '2n'
(3) Both 'n' and '2n' (3) 'n' '2n'
(4) Neither 'n' nor '2n' (4) 'n' '2n'
48. Duct which form by joining of vas deference and duct 48.
of seminal vesicle is :
(1) Ejaculatery duct (2) Urethra (1) (2)
(3) Vasa-efferentia (4) Tubuli-recti (3) (4)
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49. How many of the following statements is/are not 49.
correct ? (A)
(A) Presence or absence of hymen is a reliable
indicator of virginity/sexual experience (B)
(B) Vaginal opening is compeletly closed by a septum
of mucus membrane called hymen (C)
(C) The uterus open into fibromuscular and glandular
tube like organ called vagina (D)
(D) Vagina and cervical canal form a birth canal
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
50. Which structure arrested at metaphase stage ? 50.
(1) Primary oocyte (1)
(2) Secondary oocyte (2)
(3) Primary spermatocyte (3)
(4) Secondary spermatocyte (4)
51. Which phase of oogenesis run during the menstrual 51.
cycle in a human ?
(1) Growth phase (2) Multiplication phase (1) (2)
(3) Vitellogenesis (4) Maturation (3) (4)
52. The follow refers to schematic represention of 52. A,
oogenesis find out A, B, C, D. B, C, D
A A
B 22+x First polar body B 22+x

Sperm
entery
D C Amount of cytoplasm less D C
A B C D
A B C D (1)
(1) Primary Secondry Ovum Second polar
oocyte oocyte body
(2)
(2) Oogenium Primary Polar body Secondary
oocyte Oocyte
(3) Primary Secondry Second Ovum (3)
oocyte oocyte Polar body
(4) Primordial Oogenium Polar body Primary (4)
germ cell Oocyte
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53. Observe the given flow chart which show ovarian change 53.
changes during menstrual cycle. Identify the name of
hormone responsible for event shown (A, B, C) (A, B, C)
Primary follicle
A A
Graafian follicle
B B
Corpus luteum C C
(1) A – FSH, B – RnRH, C – Estrogen (1) A – FSH, B – RnRH, C –

(2) A – FSH, B – LH, C – Progestrone (2) A – FSH, B – LH, C –
(3) A – GnRH, B – FSH, C – Estrogen (3) A – GnRH, B – FSH, C –
(4) A – FSH, B – FSH, C – Estrogen (4) A – FSH, B – FSH, C –
54. How many structures are haploid in given table which 54.
form during oogenesis and spermatogensis.
Spermatogonia, Primary Oocyte, First polar
body, Spermatid, Oogonia, Ovum, Secondry
Oocyte, Spermatozoa
(1) 6 (1) 6
(2) 5 (2) 5
(3) 7 (3) 7
(4) 8 (4) 8
55. The layer which attach with endometrium of uterus 55.
during the process of implantation is :
(1) Trophoblast (1)
(2) Zona pellucida (2)
(3) Corona radiata (3)
(4) Embryonal knob (4)
56. Which hormone act on the uterine muscle during parturtion? 56.
(1) FSH (1) FSH
(2) LH (2) LH
(3) Oxytocin (3)
(4) Prolactin (4)
57. HCG, HPL, Estrogen, Progesterone, Androgen 57. HCG, HPL,
Relaxin, Thyroxin
How many of hormones are produced in women only
during pregnancy ?
(1) One (1)
(2) Four (2)
(3) Three (3)
(4) Five (4)
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58. Match the columns. 58.
(A) Follicular phase (i) Graffian follicle toaus (A) (i)
trans form into corpus luteum
(B) Luteal phase (ii) The secretion of
(B) (ii)
gonadotropins (LH and
FSH) increase (LH FSH)
(C) Ovulatory phase (iii) LH-surge and release (C) (iii) LH-
of ovum (D) (iv) 3-5
(D) Bleeding phase (iv) 3-5 days and breakdown
of endometrium lining
A B C D
A B C D
(1) ii iv i iii
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) ii i iii iv (2) ii i iii iv
(3) iv iii i ii (3) iv iii i ii
(4) iii ii i iv (4) iii ii i iv
59. When menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age 59. 50
of female termed as :
(1) Menarche (2) Pubarche (1) (2)
(3) Thelarche (4) Menopause (3) (4)
60. Which of following match pair is incorrect ? 60.
(1) Semen – Alkaline, Seminal plasma along with the (1)
sperms constitute.
(2)
(2) Acrosome – Anterior portion of sperm is covered
by cap like structure (3)
(3) Tertiary follicle – Fluid filled cavity called antrum,
with secondary oocyte (4) 60%
(4) Normal fertility – At least 60% sperms must have
normal shape and size and at least 40% of them 40%
must show less motility
61. Read the following match pairs. 61.
(A) Insemination – During coitus semen is released (A)
by penis in uterus
(B) Fertilization – Take place in ampulla (B)
(C) Second meiotic division – Unequal and completion (C)
when sperm enter the oocyte
(D) Morula – Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres (D) 8 16
(E) Inner cell mass – Form the placenta (E) –
(1) All are correct except E and B (1) E B
(2) All are correct except A and E (2) A E
(3) All are correct except A, C and E (3) A, C E
(4) All are correct except C and D (4) C D
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62. Hormones which are secreted by placenta 62.
(1) HCG, HPL (1) HCG, HPL
(2) Progesterone, Thyroxin (2)
(3) Estrogen only (3)
(4) HPL, FSH (4) HPL, FSH
63. The milk produced during the initial few days of 63.
lactation is called.
(1) Antral fluid (1)
(2) Liquour folliculi (2)
(3) Colostrum (3)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3)
64. How many number of Lactiferous duct in each 64.
mammary gland.
(1) 15-20 (2) 30-40 (1) 15-20 (2) 30-40
(3) 20-30 (4) 5-10 (3) 20-30 (4) 5-10
65. When sperm released from sertoli cell called ? 65.
(1) Insemination (2) Copulation (1) (2)
(3) Spermiation (4) Speratogenesis (3) (4)
66. Which of following secondary sexual character in female? 66. ?
(1) Developed mammary gland (1)
(2) Heavy voice (2)
(3) Narrow pelvic region (3)
67. The first movement of the foetus and appearance of 67.
hair on the head are usually observed during.
(1) First month (2) Second month (1) (2)
(3) First timester (4) Fifth month (3) (4)
68. Consider the statement given below regarding 68.
contraceptive and answer as directed there after :
(i) An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, (i)
easily available, effective and reversible with
more side-effects.
(ii) Lactational amenorrhea reported to be effective (ii)
only upto a maximum period of sixteen months
following parturition. (iii)
(iii) In barrier methods, ovum and sperms are
prevented from physically meeting with the help (iv)
of barriers
(iv) Both the male and female condoms are disposable. (1) (ii) (iii)
Which of the above options are correct ? (2) (iii) (iv)
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (3) (i) (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii) (4) (i) (ii)
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69. Which one of the followingstatement about IUDs is incorrect? 69. IUDs
(1) Full form of IUDs is Intra uterine devices (1) IUDs Intra uterine devices
(2) These devices are inserted by doctors or expert (2)
nurses in the ovaries through vagina
(3) Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD (3) IUD
(4) Multiload 375 is a copper releasing IUD (4) Multiload 375 IUD
70. Identify the mis-match pair : 70.
(1) Diaphragms – Barrier method (1)
(2) Cervical caps – Made up of rubber (2)
(3) Vaults – Cover the cervix during coitus (3)
(4) Cervical caps – Not reusable (4)
71. Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the 71.
fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce
ones, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development is called :
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) ICSI (4) AI (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT (3) ICSI (4) AI
72. Condoms are barriers that cover : 72.
(1) Penis in male and ovary in female (1)
(2) Penis in male and cervix and vagina in female (2)
(3) Scrotum in male and cervix and vagina in female (3)
(4) Cervix in male and vagina in female (4)
73. Birth control pills : 73.
(1) Inhibit ovulation (1)
(2) Inhibit implantation (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
74. What is the figure given below showing in particular? 74.
(1) Testicular cancer (2) Prostatic cancer (1) (2)

(3) Vasectomy (4) Tubectomy (3) (4)
75. Which of the following is an example of IVF ? 75. IVF
(1) ZIFT (1) ZIFT
(2) IUT (2) IUT
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
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76. Which one of the following is not a method of 76.
contraception ? (1) IUDs
(1) IUDs
(2)
(2) Condoms
(3) Pills containing oxytocin and vasopressin (3)
(4) Lippes loop (4)
77. Given below are four statement (a-d) regarding ART. 77. ART
(a) ZIFT – Zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 (a) ZIFT – 8
blastomere transferred into fallopian tube.
(b) ICSI – A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian (b) ICSI –
tube to form an embryo
(c) IUI – Semen collected either from husband or (c) IUI –
healthy donor is artificially introduced into uterus
(d) GIFT – Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube (d) GIFT –
of female.
Which two of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (a) and (d) (1) (a) (d)
(2) (b) and (c) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (a) and (c) (3) (a) (c)
(4) (b) and (d) (4) (b) (d)
78. Find out incorrect match from following table : 78.
Contains
(i) Mala D Daily pill (i) D
Progestogen
(ii) Saheli Centchroman Steroidal (ii)
(iii) LNG-20 Progesterone Natural method (iii) LNG-20
(1) (ii) (iii)

(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) Only (ii) (2) (ii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i), (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) and (ii) (4) (i) (ii)
79. Which of the following method of contraception has 79.
almost nill side-effects ?
(1) LNG-20 (1) LNG-20
(2) Lactational amenorrhoea (2)
(3) Oral pills (3)
(4) Saheli (4)
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80. Examine the table given below : 80.
Contraceptive
Device Action
method
Prevent physical
(i) A Condom meeting of ovum and (i) A
sperm
Make cervix hostile to
(ii) IUDs B
sperm (ii) IUDs B
Make uterus
(iii) Hormonal IUD C unsuitable for
implantation (iii) IUD C
Choose the correct option.

A B C A B C
(1) Barrier LNG-20 Saheli (1) LNG-20
(2) Barrier Progestasert Mala-D (2) -D
(3) Natural method LNG-20 Saheli (3) LNG-20
(4) Barrier Progestasert LNG-20 (4) LNG-20
81. Choose incorrect option : 81.
(1) Chemical method – Today (1) – Today
(2) Barrier method – Diaphragms (2) –
(3) IUD – Progestasert (3) IUD –
(4) Hormonal method – Copper-T (4) – Copper-T
82. Periodic abstinence is which type of contraceptive 82.
method ? (1) (2)
(1) Chemical method (2) Hormonal method
(3) Natural method (4) Surgical method (3) (4)
83. In M.C. fertile period is of : 83. M.C.
(1) Day 1 to 6 (2) Day 7 to 10 (1) 1 6 (2) 7 10
(3) Day 10 to 17 (4) Day 20 to 25 (3) 10 17 (4) 20 25
84. "Nirodh" is a popular brand of : 84. "Nirodh"
(1) Contraceptive pill (2) Condom for male (1) (2)
(3) Condom for female (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) (4) (2) (3)
85. What is the function of Copper-T ? 85. Copper-T ?
(1) Checks mutation (1)
(2) Stops fertilisation (2)
(3) Stop Ectoderm formation (3)
(4) Stop endoderm formation (4)
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86. Trade name of weekly oral contraceptive pill is : 86.
(1) Mala (2) Saheli (1) (2)
(3) Mala-A (4) Mala-D (3) -A (4) -D
87. Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from 87.
amniotic fluid by looking for :
(1) Barr bodies (2) Autosomes (1) (2)
(3) Chaismata (4) Kinetochore (3) (4)
88. Match the following figures with related method of 88.
birth control :
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
(I) Implants (II) Male Condom (I) (II)

(III) Female Condom (IV) CU-T (III) (IV) CU-T
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
89. Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus 89. IUD
unsuitable and cervix hostile to sperms as it is :
(1) Hormone releasing IUDs (1) IUDs
(2) Copper releasing IUDs (2) IUDs
(3) Barrier method (3)
(4) Non-medicated IUDs (4) IUDs
90. What is false for ZIFT ? 90. ZIFT ?
(1) ZIFT – Zygote intra fallopian transfer. (1) ZIFT – Zygote intra fallopian transfer.
(2) It is a type of ART (2) ART
(3)
(3) Zygote or early embryo transferred to the uterus
(4) Embryo with more than 8 blastomere are (4) 8
transferred to the uterus
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prohibited.
Sheet.

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
@AAKASHDELHI02
ALL PHASE
BIO-CHEMISTRY
TEST DATE : 01 - 08 - 2020
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4 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 4 4
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 1 3 1 3 1 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 1 4
HINT – SHEET
1. NCERT XII, Pg # 9 26. NCERT XII, Pg # 16
11. NCERT XII, Pg # 15 36. NCERT XII, Pg # 43 to 44
@AAKASHDELHI02
53. NCERT XII, Pg # 50 to 51 73. NCERT XII, Pg # 61
@AAKASHDELHI02
*1701CMD305219019* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 07
CHEMISTRY : GOC-I
BIOLOGY : GENETICS AND EVOLUTION
(v) Principles of Inheritance and Variation
(vi) Molecular Basis of Inheritance
(vii) Evolution
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1. The temporary effect in which there is a complete 1.
transfer of shared pair of -electrons to one of the -
atoms joined by a multiple bond on the demand of an
attacking reagent is called : (1)
(1) electromeric effect
(2)
(2) hyper conjugation
(3) inductive effect (3)
(4) +ve resonance effect (4)
2. An electrophilic reagent is : 2.
(1) an electron rich species (1)
(2) an electron deficient species (2)
(3) a Lewis base (3)
(4) a negatively charged species (4)
3. A nucleophile is : 3.
(1) an electron rich species (1)
(2) an electron deficient species (2)
(3) a Lewis acid (3)
(4) a positively charged species (4)
4. Which of the following is the most stable carbocation 4.
among the following ?  
 
(1) C6 H 5 C H 2 (2) CH 3 C H 2
(1) C6 H 5 C H 2 (2) CH 3 C H 2
 

(3) C6 H 5 CH 2 C H 2

(4) C6 H 5 C HC 6 H 5 (3) C6 H 5 CH 2 C H 2 (4) C6 H 5 C HC 6 H 5
5. Which one of the following carbanions is the least stable? 5.
(1) (CH3 )3 C (2) CH3 (1) (CH3 )3 C (2) CH3
(3) HC  C (4) (C6 H 5 )3 C (3) HC  C (4) (C6 H 5 )3 C

6. Nucleophile is a species that should have : 6.
(1) a pair of electrons to donate (1)
(2) Positive charge (2)
(3) Negative charge (3)
(4) Electron dificient species (4)
7. Hyper conjugation involves delocalisation of : 7.
(1) electron of carbon-hydrogen  bond of an alkyl (1) C–H 
group directly attached to an atom of unsaturated
system.
(2) Electrons of carbon-hydrogen  bond of alkyl (2)
group directly attached to the negatively charged C–H 
carbon atom
(3)  C–C
(3)  electrons of carbon-carbon bond
(4) Lone pair of electrons (4)
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8. Match the terms mentioned in column I with the terms 8. -I -II
in column II -I -II
Column-I Column-II (i) (a)
(i) Carbocation (a) Species that can
recieve a pair of
(ii) (b) C–H 
electrons
(ii) Nucleophile (b) Conjugation of
electrons of C–H  bond p-
with empty p-orbital
present at adjacent
(iii) (c) sp2-
positively charged carbon
(iii) Hyper conjugation (c) sp2-hybridised carbon p-
with empty p-orbital (iv) (d)
(iv) Electrophile (d) species that can supply
a pair of electrons. (1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a (3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-a (4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-c, (iv)-a
9. Hyper conjugation is possible in which of the following 9.
species ?
(1) CH3  CH 2
(1) CH3  CH 2
(2) C6H5–CH3
(2) C6H5–CH3 (3) H2C=CH2
(3) H2C=CH2
CH 3 CH 3
| |
H 3C  C  CH  CH 2 H 3C  C  CH  CH 2
(4) (4) |
|
CH 3 CH 3
10. Which of the following carbocations will show the 10.

highest number of hyper conjugative forms ?
 

H 3C  C H H 3C  C H

(1) H 3 C  C H 2 (2) | (1) H 3C  C H 2 (2) |
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
| | | |
H 3C  C CH3  CH 2  C  H 3C  C CH3  CH 2  C 
(3) | (4) | (3) (4)
| |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
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11. Which of the following alkenes will show maximum 11.
number of hyper conjugation forms ?
(1) H2C=CH2 (2) H3C–CH=CH2 (1) H2C=CH2 (2) H3C–CH=CH2
CH 3 CH 3
(3) H3C–CH2–CH=CH2 (4) | (3) H3C–CH2–CH=CH2 (4) |
H 3C  CH  CH  CH 2 H 3C  CH  CH  CH 2
12. The decreasing order of basic strength in : 12.
(I) C6H5NH2 (II) (C6H5)2NH (I) C6H5NH2 (II) (C6H5)2NH
(III) CH3NH2 (IV) NH3 (III) CH3NH2 (IV) NH3
(1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV (1) IV > III > II > I (2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III > IV > I > II (4) II > I > III > IV (3) III > IV > I > II (4) II > I > III > IV
13. Consider the following alkenes, what is the correct 13.
decreasing order of stability ?
(I) CH3CH2CH=CH2 But-1-ene (I) CH3CH2CH=CH2 But-1-ene
(II) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 2,3-Dimethyl but-2-ene (II) (CH3)2C=C(CH3)2 2,3-Dimethyl but-2-ene
(III) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 2-methylbut-2-ene (III) (CH3)2C=CHCH3 2-methylbut-2-ene
(IV) (CH3)2C=CH2 2-methyl propene (IV) (CH3)2C=CH2 2-methyl propene
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > III > IV > I (1) I > II > III > IV (2) II > III > IV > I
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) III > IV > I > II (3) IV > III > II > I (4) III > IV > I > II
14. Out of the following series the one containing only 14.
electrophiles is :
 
(1) H2O, Cl , NH3 (1) H2O, Cl , NH3
 
(2) H2O, R-NH2, H 3O (2) H2O, R-NH2, H 3O
 
(3) BF3, SO3, NO 2 (3) BF3, SO3, NO 2
(4) AlCl3, NH3, H2O (4) AlCl3, NH3, H2O
15. Stability of alkyl carbocations can be explained by : 15.
(1) Inductive effect (1)
(2) Hyper conjugation (2)
(3) Both Inductive effect and hyper conjugation (3)
(4) Electromeric effect (4)
16. Which of the following is most acidic in nature : 16.
COOH OH COOH OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH OH
(3) (4) R–COOH (3) (4) R–COOH
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17. The ortho and para directing group among the 17. Ortho Para
follwoing is :
(1) –CHO (2) –COCH3 (1) –CHO (2) –COCH3
(3) –NHCOCH3 (4) C  N (3) –NHCOCH3 (4) C  N
18. Correct order of –I groups is : 18. –I
(1) –F > –NO2 > –COOH > –OH (1) –F > –NO2 > –COOH > –OH
(2) –F > –COOH > –OH > –NO2 (2) –F > –COOH > –OH > –NO2
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –F > –OH (3) –NO2 > –COOH > –F > –OH
(4) –COOH > –OH > –F > –NO2 (4) –COOH > –OH > –F > –NO2
19. CH3CH2Cl undergoes homolytic fission, produces : 19. CH3CH2Cl

(1) CH 3CH 
and Cl

(2) CH 3 C H 2 and Cl 
(1) CH 3CH 
Cl

(2) CH 3 C H 2 Cl
2 2


(3) CH 3 C H 2 and Cl 
(4) CH 3CH and Cl

(3) CH 3 C H 2 
Cl 
(4) CH 3CH Cl
2 2
20. Arrange the following carbocation in order of 20.

increasing stability :
   
(I) (CH 3 )3 C C H 2 (II) (CH 3 )3 C (I) (CH 3 )3 C C H 2 (II) (CH 3 )3 C
   
(III) CH 3 CH 2 C H 2 (IV) CH 3 C HCH 2 CH 3 (III) CH 3 CH 2 C H 2 (IV) CH 3 C HCH 2 CH 3
(1) IV < III < II < I (2) I < III < IV < II (1) IV < III < II < I (2) I < III < IV < II
(3) III < IV < I < II (4) II < IV < III < I (3) III < IV < I < II (4) II < IV < III < I
21. Which of the following reaction of methane is 21.
incomplete combustion ?
(1) 2CH4+O2   2CH3OH (1) 2CH4+O2   2CH3OH
Cu/523K Cu /523K
100 atm 100 atm
(2) CH4+O2 

Mo 2 O3
 HCHO+H2O (2) CH4+O2 
Mo 2 O3
 HCHO+H2O
(3) CH4+O2 
 C(s) + 2H2O(l) (3) CH4+O2 
 C(s) + 2H2O(l)
(4) CH4+2O2 
 CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (4) CH4+2O2 
 CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
22. Increasing order of carbon-carbon bond length for the 22. C–C
following is (A) C2H4 (B) C2H2
(A) C2H4 (B) C2H2 (C) C6H6 (D) C2H6 (C) C6H6 (D) C2H6
(1) B < A < C < D (2) C < B < A < D (1) B < A < C < D (2) C < B < A < D
(3) D < C < A < B (4) B < C < A < D (3) D < C < A < B (4) B < C < A < D
23. Which one of the following is a non-benzenoid 23. non-benzenoid aromatic
aromatic compound ?
(1) Tropolone (1) Tropolone
(2) Anthracene (2) Anthracene
(3) Aniline (3) Aniline
(4) Benzoic acid (4) Benzoic acid
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24. What is the correct order of decreasing stability of 24.
the following cations ? 

(a) CH 3  C H  CH 3
(a) CH 3  C H  CH3

 
(b) CH 3  C H  OCH

(b) CH 3  C H  OCH 
3

3


(c) CH 3  C H  CH 2  O  CH 3 (c) CH 3  C H  CH 2  O  CH 3
 
(d) CH 3  CH 2  C H  CH 2  CH 3 (d) CH 3  CH 2  C H  CH 2  CH 3
(1) b > a > c > d (2) b > c > a > d (1) b > a > c > d (2) b > c > a > d
(3) c > a > b > d (4) None of these (3) c > a > b > d (4)
25. In which of the following compounds the carbon 25.
marked with asterisk is expected to have greatest
positive charge ? * *
* *
(1) C H 3  CH 2  Cl (2) C H 3  CH 2  Mg  Cl 
(1) C H 3  CH 2  Cl (2) C H 3  CH 2  Mg  Cl
* *
*
(3) C H 3  CH 2  Br
*
(4) C H 3  CH 2  CH 3 (3) C H 3  CH 2  Br (4) C H 3  CH 2  CH 3
26. Ionic species are stabilised by the dispersal of charge. 26.

Which of the following carboxylate ion is the most stable?
O O O O
(1) || (2) || || ||
(1) (2)
CH3  C  O Cl  CH 2  C  O CH3  C  O Cl  CH 2  C  O
O O O O
F F
(3) || (4) (3) || (4)
CH C O CH C O
F  CH 2  C  O  F F  CH 2  C  O  F
27. Electrophilic addition reaction proceed in two step. 27.
The first step involves the addition of an electrophile.
Name the type of intermediate formed in the first step
of the following addition reaction :
H3C  CH  CH 2  H   ?

H3C  CH  CH 2  H  ?
(1) 2° carbocation (2) 1° carbocation
(1) 2° carbocation (2) 1° carbocation
(3) 2° carbanion (4) 1° carbanion (3) 2° carbanion (4) 1° carbanion
28. Covalent bond can undergo fission in two different 28.
ways. The correct representation involving a CH3–Br
heterolytic fission of CH3–Br is :
(1) CH Br CH3 + Br
3
(1) CH Br CH3 + Br
3
(2) CH Br CH3 + Br
(2) CH Br CH3 + Br
3
3
(3) CH Br CH3 + Br
(3) CH Br CH3 + Br 3
3
(4) CH3 (4) CH3 Br CH3 + Br

Br CH3 + Br
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29. Electrophiles are electron seeking species. Which of 29.
the following group contain only electrophiles?
 
(1) BF3, NH3, H2O (2) AlCl3, SO3, NO2 (1) BF3, NH3, H2O (2) AlCl3, SO3, NO2
       
(3) NO 2 ,CH 3 , R  O   H (4) C H ,C H , C H   H (4) C H ,C H , C H
(3) NO 2 , CH 3 , R  O
 
2 5 2 5 5 2 5 2 5 5
30. Select the incorrect statement : 30.

(1) Delocalisation of C–H  (sigma) electron is hyper (1) C–H  (sigma)
conjugation
(2) Delocalisation of  or lone pair of electron are resonance (2) 
(3) Partial displacement of  (sigma) electron is (3)  (sigma)
inductive effect
(4) Electromeric effect is permanent effect (4)
31. Match the intermediates given in column-I with their 31. -I -II
probable structure in column-II.
(i) Free radical (a) Trigonal planar (i) (a)
(ii) Carbocation (b) Pyramidal (ii) (b)
(iii) Carbanion (c) Linear (iii) (c)
(1) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a (2) (ii)-c, (i)-b, (iii)-a (1) (i)-c, (ii)-b, (iii)-a (2) (ii)-c, (i)-b, (iii)-a
(3) (i)-a, (ii)-a, (iii)-b (4) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c (3) (i)-a, (ii)-a, (iii)-b (4) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c
32. Match the ions given in column-I with their nature 32. -I -II
given in column-II.

  CH  CH (a) Stable due to
(i) CH 3  O 
  CH  CH (a)
(i) CH 3  O

3

3
resonance

 (ii) F3 C (b)
(ii) F3 C (b) Destabilised due to
inductive effect.
CH 3 CH 3
| |
H C  C H 3C  C
(iii) 3 | (c) Stable by (iii) (c)
|
CH 3 CH 3
hyperconjugation
 
(iv) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (d) A secondary (iv) CH 3  CH  CH 3 (d)
carbocation (1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(1) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a
(3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c (3) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
(4) (i)-a,b, (ii)-a,b, (iii)-b, (iv)-c,d (4) (i)-a,b, (ii)-a,b, (iii)-b, (iv)-c,d
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33. The arrangement of (CH3)3C–, (CH3)2CH–, CH3– 33. (CH3) 3C–, (CH3) 2CH–, CH3–CH 2–
CH2–, when attached to a benzene or an unsaturated
group in increasing order of inductive effect is :
(1) (CH3)3C– < (CH3)2CH– < CH3–CH2– (1) (CH3)3C– < (CH3)2CH– < CH3–CH2–
(2) CH3–CH2– < (CH3)2CH– < (CH3)3C– (2) CH3–CH2– < (CH3)2CH– < (CH3)3C–
(3) (CH3)2CH– < (CH3)3C– < CH3–CH2– (3) (CH3)2CH– < (CH3)3C– < CH3–CH2–
34. Which of the following compounds are aromatic? 34. ?
O O
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

O O
(v) (v)
(1) (i), (iii), (v) (2) (iii), (v) (1) (i), (iii), (v) (2) (iii), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (v) (4) (i), (v) (3) (i), (ii), (v) (4) (i), (v)
35. Identify correct order of heat of hydrogenation. 35.
(i) < < (i) < <
(ii) < < (ii) < <
(iii) < < (iii) < <
(iv) < (iv) <
(1) ii, iii (2) ii, iii, iv (1) ii, iii (2) ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iii (4) iii, iv (3) i, ii, iii (4) iii, iv
36. Which of the following order is correct for the acidity 36. H–
of indicated H–atoms ?
H3 H3
H2 H2
O O O O
H1 H1
(1) (H)1 > (H)2 > (H)3 (2) (H)3 > (H)2 > (H)1 (1) (H)1 > (H)2 > (H)3 (2) (H)3 > (H)2 > (H)1
(3) (H)2 > (H)1 > (H)3 (4) (H)1 > (H)3 > (H)2 (3) (H)2 > (H)1 > (H)3 (4) (H)1 > (H)3 > (H)2
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37. Which among these can exhibit tautomerism ? 37.
O O O O
(I) (II) (I) (II)
O O
(III) (III)
(1) I only (2) II only (1) I (2) II

(3) III only (4) All of these (3) III (4)
38. Which statement is correct for following compound? 38.
+ +
(I) N (II) (I) N (II)
H H + H H +
(1) I & II are aromatic (1) I II

(2) I & II are antiaromatic (2) I II
(3) I is aromatic and II is antiaromatic (3) I II
(4) I is non-aromatic and II is anti-aromatic (4) I II
39. Which of the followingcompoundshasthe most basic nitrogen? 39.
.. ..
(I) N (II) O N O (I) N (II) O N O
H H H H
N N N N
(III) O (IV) (III) O (IV)
H O H O
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
40. Compare bond length in the given compounds across 40.
(Carbon–Oxygen) :
OH OH
OH O OH O
(I) (II) (III) (I) (II) (III)

NO2 NO2
(1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I (1) I > II > III (2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II (3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II
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41. Which of the following has smallest bond dissociation 41. C–H
energy of C–H bond ?
(1) H (2) CH2–H (1) H (2) CH2–H
(3) H2C=CH–H (4) H2C=CH–CH2H (3) H2C=CH–H (4) H2C=CH–CH2H

42. Which of the following is most basic ? 42.
NH NH
NH NH
(1) (2) NH (1) (2) NH
NH NH NH NH
(3) HN NH (4) O (3) HN NH (4) O
43. Which compound contains most acidic H ? 43.

(1) H2C = CH2 (1) H2C = CH2
(2) HC  CH (2) HC  CH
(3) (3)
(4) H2C=CH–CH2–CH=CH2 (4) H2C=CH–CH2–CH=CH2

44. Most stable carbocation is : 44.
+ + + +
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
CH3 OH CH3 OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)
+ +
+
CH2 +
CH2
CH2 CH2
NO2 NO2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
CH3 CH3
45. Which can show +M effect ? 45. +M

(1) –NO2 (2) –CH=O (1) –NO2 (2) –CH=O
C  CH3 C  CH3
(3) –OH (4) || (3) –OH (4) ||
O O
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46. What do we mean by monohybrid cross and dihybrid 46.
cross ? (1)
(1) A monohybrid cross is performed for one
generation whereas dihybrid cross is performed
for two generations (2)
(2) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent,
whereas a dihybrid cross involved two parents
(3)
(3) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny
whereas a dihybrid cross produce two progenies
(4) a monohybrid cross involves individuals with one (4)
heterozygous character, whereas a dihybrid cross
involves individuals with two heterozygous
characters
47. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on 47.
garden peas for seven years from :
(1) 1842-1847 (2) 1856-1863 (1) 1842-1847 (2) 1856-1863
(3) 1863-1873 (4) 1820-1831 (3) 1863-1873 (4) 1820-1831
48. Mendel selected_______ characters with ______ 48. _______ ______
pea plant varieties :
(1) Fourteen, seven (2) Seven, fourteen (1) (2)
(3) Three, seven (4) Seven, three (3) (4)
49. What was the most significant conclusion that Mendel 49.
drew from his experiments with pea plants ?
(1) Traits are inherited as discrete units and are not (1)
the results of blending.
(2) There is considerable genetic variation in garden
(2)
pea
(3) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 (3) F1
generation than do dominant ones
(4) Genes are composed of nucleotides (4)
50. How many unique gametes could be produced through 50. AaBBCcDdee
the independent assortment by an individual with the ?
genotype AaBBCcDdee? (1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 16 (3) 2 (4) 16
51. A typical monohybrid test-cross ratio is : 51.
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
52. An organism has two unlinked genes X and Y. Its 52. X Y
gentotype is XxYy. Which of the following genotypes XxYy
is possible in a gamete from this organism ?
(1) XX (2) XxYy (1) XX (2) XxYy
(3) Xy (4) Yy (3) Xy (4) Yy
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53. The fact that the pea plant traits studied by Mendel 53.
obeyed the principle of independent assortment most
probably indicates which of the following ?
(1) The formation of gametes in plants occur by (1)
mitosis only
(2) All the genes controlling the traits were located (2)
on the same chromosome
(3) All the genes controlling the traits behaved as if (3)
they were located on different chromosomes
(4) None of the traits obeyed the law of segregation (4)
54. In the cross : AaBb × AaBb, what is the probability 54. : AaBb × AaBb AABB
of producing the genotype AABB ?
(1) 1/16 (2) 3/16 (1) 1/16 (2) 3/16
(3) 1/2 (4) 1/4 (3) 1/2 (4) 1/4
55. Which of the following is correct for law of dominance 55.
proposed by Mendel ? (1)
(1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called
factors
(2)
(2) In dissimilar pair of factors one member of the
pair dominates the other
(3) Factors occur in pairs (3)
56. An example of incomplete dominance is the flower 56.
colour inheritance in :
(1) Mirabilis jalapa (Four O' clock plant) (1) (Four O' clock plant)
(2) Antirrhinum majus (Dog flower or Snapdragon) (2) ( )
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Hibiscus (4)
57. The unmodified allele represents the_____allele and 57. _____
the modified allele is generally the______allele. ____
(1) Mutant, wild (1)
(2) Recessive, recessive (2)
(3) Dominant, dominant (3)
(4) Dominant, recessive (4)
58. Which of the following is incorrect ? 58.
(1) Multiple allelism is evident in a population (1)
(2) Constricted pod shape in pea is a recessive trait (2)
(3) The product of a single gene always produces (3)
one phenotypic effect
(4) Very closely placed genes on a chromosome have (4)
the chances of linkage
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59. Consider the cross for the pleiotropic gene (R) in pea 59. (R)
seed :
P: RR × rr P: RR × rr
(Large starch grain) (Small starch grain) ( ) ( ) ( )
Accordingly which of the following is true for F, hybrid: F1
(1) It posses intermediate sized starch grains (1)
(2) It posses round seeds (2)
(3) Incomplete dominance can be observed (3)
60. The genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits 60.
are called :
(1) Alleles (1)
(2) Polygene (2)
(3) Multiple alleles (3)
(4) Pseudoallele (4)
61. Which scientists are credited with the rediscovery of 61.
Mendel's work ? (1)
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2)
(2) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
(3) Bateson and Punnet (3)
(4) Morgan and Bridges (4)
62. The chromosomal theory of inheritance was put 62.
forward by: (1)
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2)
(2) Bateson and Punnett
(3) Morgan (3)
(4) deVries (4)
63. Recombination frequency is : 63.
(1) Always < 50% (1) < 50%
(2) Always > 50% (2) > 50%
(3) < 50% (3) < 50%
(4) 100% (4) 100%
64. Which of the following is true for the location of few 64.
genes of Drosophila studied by T.H. Morgan :
(1) y, w and m genes are located on Y chromosome (1) y, w m Y
(2) y +, w + and m + genes are located on Y (2) y , w
+ +
m+
Y
chromosome (3) y, y+, w, w+, m m+ X
(3) y, y+, w, w+, m and m+ genes are located on
X-chromosome (4) y, y+, w, w+, m m+
(4) y, y+, w, w+, m and m+ genes are autosomal
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65. The Punnett square shown below gives a pattern of 65.
inheritance in dihybrid cross where yellow (Y) is (Y) (y)
dominant over green (y) seeds and round (R) is (R) (r)
dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds.
The plant of type 'X' will produce seeds with the

The plant of type 'X' will produce seeds with the 'X'
genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants of
the type : (1) C (2) N
(1) C (2) N (3) B (4) K (3) B (4) K
66. Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits 66. X
than females because :
(1) X-chromosomes in males generally have more (1) X- X-
mutations than X-chromosomes in females
(2) Males are hemizygous (2) (Hemizygous)
(3) Mutations on the Y chromosome often worsens (3) Y X
the effects of X-linked mutations
(4) Male hormones like testosterone often alter the (4) X
effects of mutations on X-chromosomes
67. SRY-gene is located on : 67. SRY-
(1) Y-chromosome (1) Y-
(2) X-chromosome (2) X-
(3) Chromosome number-12 (3) -12
(4) Chromosome number-10 (4) -10
68. In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination in birds : 68. ZW-ZZ
(1) Males are heterogametic (1)
(2) Females are heterogametic (2)
(3) Females are homogametic (3)
(4) Both males and females are homogametic (4)
69. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. a recessive disorder : 69.
(1) Cystic fibrosis (1)
(2) Haemophilia (2)
(3) Huntington's disease (3)
(4) Phenylketonuria (4)
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70. Both husband and wife have normal vision though 70.
their fathers were colourblind. The probability of
daughter becoming colourblind is : (1) 25% (2) 0%
(1) 25% (2) 0% (3) 50% (4) 75% (3) 50% (4) 75%
71. Match the column w.r.t. pedigree symbols : 71.
(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii) (1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(2) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv) (2) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iv)
(3) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii) (3) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii)
(4) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i) (4) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i)
72. The sixth amino acid in the  -globin chain of HbA 72. HbA -
peptide is :
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Valine (1) (2)
(3) Histidine (4) Proline (3) (4)
73. Which of the following is true ? 73.
(1) The mutant haemoglobin of sickle cell anaemic (1)
individual undergo polymerisation under low RBC
oxygen tension causing sickling of RBC
(2) Sickle cell anaemia occur due to the single base (2) -
substitution (GAG  GUG) at the sixth codon of (GAG  GUG)
-globin gene
(3) Individuals heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia (3) (HbSHbA)
(HbSHbA) are resistant towards malaria
74. Study the pedigree chart of certain family given below 74.
and select the correct conclusion which can be drawn
for the character :
(1) The trait under study could be haemophilia (1)

(2) Inheritance of a condition like sickle cell anemia (2)
as an autosomal recessive trait
(3) Both the parent is homozygous dominant (3)
(4) Only female parent is homozygous recessive (4)
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75. At a particular locus, frequency of 'A' allele is 75. 'A' 0.6 'a'
0.6 and that of 'a' is 0.4. What would be the frequency 0.4
of heterozygotes in a random mating population at
equilibrium ? (1) 0.16 (2) 0.48
(1) 0.16 (2) 0.48 (3) 0.36 (4) 0.24 (3) 0.36 (4) 0.24
76. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. genetic 76.
material molecule ?
(1) Can express as mendelian characters (1)
(2) Provides scope for frequent mutations (2)
(3) Chemically and structurally be stable (3)
(4) Should be able to generate its replica (4)
77. Essential life processes such as metabolism 77.
translation, splicing evolved around
(1) Protein enzymes (1)
(2) RNA (2) RNA
(3) DNA (3) DNA
(4) Protein (4)
78. Which of the following activities is associated with 78. 23s rRNA ?
23s rRNA? (1) mRNA
(1) Translocation of ribsomes on mRNA
(2) 40s mRNA tRNA
(2) Binding of 40s mRNA complex with tRNA
(3) Binding of mRNA with smaller unit of ribsomes (3) mRNA
(4) Peptide bond formation (4)
79. Consider the statements w.r.t. Lac operon and select 79.
right choice a.
a. It has three structural genes b.
b. Glucose can act as inducer c.
c. Repressor is active and exerts negative control
over the working of structural genes
d. Repressor is synthesized by constitutive genes d.
(1) Only c is correct (1) c
(2) b and d are incorrect (2) b d
(3) Only b is incorrect (3) b
(4) a and c are incorrect (4) a c
80. Consider the following organisms 80.
a. Drosophila b. Arabidopsis a. b.
c. Coenorrhabditis d. Triticum c. d.
In which of the above complete genome sequencing HGP
was also completed with the completion of HGP? ?
(1) a, b & c (2) a, c & d (1) a, b & c (2) a, c & d
(3) b, c & d (4) a, b & d (3) b, c & d (4) a, b & d
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81. Least Number of genes are found on 81.
(1) Y-chromosome (1) Y-
(2) X-chromosome (2) X-
(3) 1st chromosome (3) 1st
(4) Autosomes (4)
82. Before the declaration of HGP draft, human genome 82. HGP
was estimated to have
(1) < 30,000 genes (1) < 30,000
(2) 80,000-1,40,000 genes (2) 80,000-1,40,000
(3) 30,000 genes (3) 30,000
(4) 6000-9000 genes (4) 6000-9000
83. A translation unit in mRNA is flanked by 83. mRNA
(1) Start codon (1)
(2) Repetitive sequences (2)
(3) Untranslated regions (3)
(4) 5'UAA and 3'GUG (4) 5'UAA 3'GUG
84. Under Influence of RNA polymerase enzyme, new 84. RNA RNA
RNA strand is formed in which direction?
(1) 3'-5' direction (1) 3'-5'
(2) 5-3' direction (2) 5-3'
(3) In both these directions (3)
85. DNA fingerprinting involves use of 85. DNA
(1) VNTRs (1) VNTRs
(2) Polymorphism (2)
(3) Radioactive probes (3)
86. When cytosine is inserted at the beginning of a genetic 86.
code what will happen ?
(1) One codon of genetic code become changed (1)
(2) Quantity of amino acids in protein would become
(2)
increased
(3) The first amino acid would become changed (3)
(4) All codon of the genetic code become changed (4)
87. Which one of the following is not applicable to SS 87. SS RNA ?
RNA ? (1) 5
(1) Sugar with five carbon
(2) N
(2) Hetrocyclic nitrogen base
(3) Chargaff s rule (3)
(4) Phosphodiester bond (4)
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88. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by 88. DNA DNA
three regions in DNA. These regions are
(1) Promoter, regulator and structural gene (1)
(2) Promoter, structural gene and terminator (2)
(3) Promoter, regulator and terminator (3)
(4) Promoter, regulator and operator gene (4)
89. Which of the following mutation forms the genetic 89.
basis of proof that codon is a triplet and it is read in a
continuous manner is : (1)
(1) Chromosomal structural mutations
(2)
(2) Chromosomal numerical mutations
(3) Substitutional mutation (3)
(4) Frame shift insertion or deletion mutation (4)
90. An adapter molecule that would on one hand read 90.
the code and on the other hand would bind to specific
amino acids is (1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
(3) t-RNA (4) hm - RNA (3) t-RNA (4) hm - RNA
91. m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are 91. m-RNA
not translated called UTR. The function of UTR is UTR UTR
(1) Charging of t-RNA (1) t-RNA
(2) Formation of peptide bond (2)
(3) Helps in efficient translation (3)
(4) Helps in translocation (4)
92. Which of the following is not the feature of human 92.
genome ? (1) 2
(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code for
protein
(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene (231) (2) 1
(3) Repetitive sequences make up very large portion (3)
of human genome
(4) 50%
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of the
discovered genes
93. Which of the following is incorrect regarding lac 93.
operon (1)
(1) Positive regulation w.r.t. inducer
(2)
(2) Negative regulation w.r.t. repressor
(3) y- -
(3) y-gene produces -glactosidase
(4) Regulator gene produces repressor protein (4)
94. How many types of pyrimidines are present in a 94. DNA
DNA? (1) (2)
(1) Three (2) Two (3) One (4) Four (3) (4)
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95. Which among the following is not true about Alfred 95.
Hershey and Martha chase (1) DNA
(1) Provide is unequivocal proof about the fact the
DNA is genetic material (2) N P
(2) Used radioactive isotopes of N and P
(3) P S
(3) Used radioactive isotopes of P and S
(4) Performed transduction experiment (4)
96. Which of the following feature generates 96. DNA
approximately uniform distance between the two :-
strand of DNA :-
(1)
( 1) One purine always comes opposite to a pyrimidine
(2) One purine always comes opposite to a purine (2)
(3) One pyrimidine always comes opposite to a
(3)
pyrimidine
(4) Presence of pentose sugar (4)
97. Consider the following structure of ds DNA and 97. DNA I, II, III IV
identify I, II, III and IV :- :-
I II III IV I II III IV
(1) Sugar Phosphoester Adenine H-bond (1) H-
bond (2)
(2) Guanine Sugar Phosphate Adenine (3) N- H-
(3) Sugar Guanine N-glycosidic H-bond
bond
(4) N- H-
(4) Sugar Thymine N-glycosidic H-bond
bond
98. Biochemical explanation of transformation experiment 98.

was provided by (1)
(1) Avery, Griffith and MacCarty
(2)
(2) Avery, Macleod and MacCarty
(3) Hershey and Chase (3)
(4) Freiderick Griffith and Oswald Avery (4)
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99. What is true for Okazaki-segment ? 99.
(1) Polymerize in 5'-3' direction and formed in leading (1) 5'-3'
strand
(2) Polymerize in 3'-5' direction and formed in lagging strand (2) 3'-5'
(3) Formed at the time of transcription (3)
(4) Polymerize in 5'-3' direction and formed in lagging
strand (4) 5'-3'
100. Due to which property of DNAWatson & Crick proposed 100. DNA DNA
idea of semi-conservative mode of DNA replication ?
(1) Double helix (1)
(2) Complementary base pairing (2)
(3) Antiparallel nature (3)
(4) Stability (4)
101. E.Coli having light DNA is allowed to grow for 80 101. DNA E.Coli 80 NH4Cl
15
minutes in 15NH4Cl medium then what would be the DNA DNA

proportion of hybrid and heavy density DNA
molecules (1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1
(1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1 (3) 14 : 2 (4) 1 : 4 (3) 14 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
102. Which of the following scheme of replication fork is true 102.
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
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103. Which of the following enzymes did not affect 103.
transformation? (1) RNase
(1) RNase (2) DNase
(2) DNase
(3) Protease
(3) Protease
104. Which organism was utilised by Taylor et. al. to prove 104. DNA
semiconservative replication of DNA using radioactive
thymidine?
(1) E.coli (2) Oryza sativa (1) E.coli (2)
(3) Drosophila (4) Vicia faba (3) (4)
105. Select the incorrect statements 105.
(1) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA (1) 200 DNA
helix
(2) Histones are negatively charged basic proteins (2)
(3) Euchromatins are transcriptionally active (3)
(4) Heterochromatin is more densely packed (4)
106. Which one proposed that the first form of life came 106.
from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?
(1) Oparin and Haldane (1)
(2) Stancly Miller and Herald Urey (2)
(3) Lamarek and Darwin (3)
(4) Hugo de Vries and Dobzhansky (4)
107. Primitive atmosphere was made up of the mixture of 107.
(1) oxygen, ammonia, methane and water (1)
(2) hydrogen, ammonia, methane and oxygen (2)
(3) hydrogen, steam, methane and ammonia (3)
(4) oxygen, methane, water and nickel (4)
108. Which compounds were formed in the direction of 108.
the origin of life?
(1) Urea and nucleic acid (1)
(2) Urea and amino acid (2)
(3) Proteins and nucleic acid (3)
(4) Proteins and amino acid (4)
109. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from which of 109.
the following? (1)
(1) Methane, ammonia, oxygen and nitrogen
(2)
(2) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia and water
(3) Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide and oxygen (3)
(4) Hydrogen, oxygen, water and nitrogen (4)
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110. 'Origin of Life1 look place in which of the following period? 110.
(1) Mesoxoic (2) Proterozoic (1) (2)
(3) Precambrian (4) Devonian (3) (4)
111. Pasteur succeeded in disproving the theory of 111.
spontaneous generation because
(1) the laboratory was clean (1)
(2) he pulled out the neck of flask into a tube (2)
(3) he w as lucky (3)
(4) yeast used in flask w ere dead (4)
112. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at 112.
present because
(1) high degree of environmental pollution (1)
(2) a very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere (2) O2
(3) very high atmospheric temperature (3)
(4) absence of raw materials (4)
113. 'Change with desent' is the basis of which theory? 113. ' '
(1) Recapitulation theory (1)
(2) Oparin's theory (2)
(3) Theory of organic evolution (3)
(4) Cell theory (4)
114. If a particular animal has shelled eggs, hair and teats 114.
on the body and has cloaca, it may be a connecting
link between
(1) reptiles and birds (1)
(2) birds and mammals (2)
(3) reptiles and mammals (3)
(4) none of these (4)
115. Wings of locust, pigeon, and bat are examples of 115.
(1) vestigial organs (1)
(2) analogous organs (2)
(3) homologous organs (3)
(4) exoskeleton (4)
116. An era "age of birds and mammals" is 116. " "
(1) Mesozoic (2) Palaecozoic (1) (2)
(3) Coenozoic (4) Cretaceous (3) (4)
117. Given names Marsupial mole. Koala. Bandicoot and 117.
Wombat are examples of
(1) Divergent evolution (1)
(2) Convergent evolution (2)
(3) Adaptive radiation (3)
(4) Both (a) and (c) (4) (a) (c)
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118. In some animals of different groups different 118.
structures developed along same direction due to
adaptation to same needs. This is known as (1)
(1) Divergent evolution
(2)
(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution (3)
(4) Natural selection (4)
119. Branching descent is accounted for 119.
(1) Homology (2) Analogy (1) (2)
(3) Vestigeal organs (4) Atavism (3) (4)
120. Identify the below diagram 120.
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus (1) (2)

(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Trieeratops (3) (4)
121. Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection was based on 121.
(1) inheritance of acquired characters (1)
(2) mutation (2)
(3) enormous rate of reproduction in organisms, (3)
struggle for existence and survival of the fittest
(4) Changes due to the use and disuse of organ (4)
122. There would be no evolution if 122.
(1) the inheritance of acquired characters did not take
(1)
place
(2) somatic variations were not inheritable (2)
(3) genetic variations were not found among members
of the population (3)
(4) somatic variations would not transform into
germinal variations (4)
123. In the population of a species, chances of the 123.
spreading of a mutant gene increases when it is
(1) recessive (1)
(2) natural selection occurs (2)
(3) dominant (3)
(4) neither dominant nor recessive (4)
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124. One major criticism of Darwin's theory is that 124.
(1) It presumes that environment upon earth has been (1)
chancing through ages
(2) It does not explain variations with heredity (2)
(3) It over estimates the reproductive capacity of
animals and plants (3)
(4) It does not explain vestigial organs (4)
125. Which of the following evidences does not fav our 125.
the Lamarckian concept? (1)
(1) Absence of limbs in snakes
(2)
(2) Presence of w ebbed toes in aquatic birds
(3) Melanization in peppered moth in industrial area (3)
(4) Lack of pigment in cave dwelling animals (4)
126. Darwins finches represent the phenomenon of 126.
(1) adaptive radiation (2) parallel evolution (1) (2)
(3) convergent evolution (4) both (1) and (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
127. According to Hugo De Vries, speciation due to 127.
mutation is also called 'Saltation' which means
(1) Single step variation (1)
(2) Single step small mutation (2)
(3) Single step large mutation (3)
(4) Huge change due to natural selection (4)
128. Darwin finches differ with each other on the basis of 128.
(1) feather (2) beak (1) (2)
(3) colour of eye (4) body colour (3) (4)
129. Select the incorrect statements. 129.
(1) Natural selection is a heritable variation and by (1)
reproduction leave greater number of progeny
(2) During stabilization of natural selection more individuals (2)
acquire value other than mean character value
(3) By the time of 500 million years ago invertebrates (3) 500
were formed and were active
(4) Reptiles lay thick Shelled eggs which do not dry (4)
up in sun unlike those of amphibians
130. Select the true statements. 130.
(1) Ramapithecus and Dryopithecus were existing (1) 50
about 50 million years ago
(2) Ramapithecus was man like while Dryopithecus (2)
was more ape like
(3) Ramapithecus was more ape like while (3)
Dryopithecus was more man-like
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
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131. The story of evolution of modem man in respect to 131.
brain and language appears as
(1) convergent evolution (1)
(2) divergent evolution (2)
(3) parallel evolution (3)
132. Agriculture and human settlement was started 132.
(1) 10.000 years back (2) 20,000 years back (1) 10.000 (2) 20,000
(3) 30,000 years back (4) 40,000 years back (3) 30,000 (4) 40,000
133. Match the columns 133.
(I) Australopithecus (i) First human like (I) (i)
(II) Homo Habilis (ii) Used hides to (II) (ii)
protect the body
(III) Homo Erectus (iii) Arose in Africa (III) (iii)
(IV) Neanderthal man (iv) Probably ate meat (IV) (iv)
(V) Homo Sapiens (v) Hunted with stone (V) (v)
weapons and ate fruits
(1) I-v, II-ii, III-iv, IV-i, V-iii (1) I-v, II-ii, III-iv, IV-i, V-iii
(2) I-i, II-ii, III-iv, IV-iii, V-v (2) I-i, II-ii, III-iv, IV-iii, V-v
(3) I-v, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii, V-iii (3) I-v, II-i, III-iv, IV-ii, V-iii
(4) I-v, II-ii, III-ii, IV-i, V-iv (4) I-v, II-ii, III-ii, IV-i, V-iv
134. The concept of sudden genetic change which breeds 134.
true in a species is represented as
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters (1)
(2) Natural selection (2)
(3) Laws of inheritance (3)
(4) Mutation (4)
135. Coloured rock paintings were first done by 135.
(1) Cromagnon man (1)
(2) Java ape man (2)
(3) Peking man (3)
(4) Neanderthal man (4)
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prohibited.
Sheet.

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

21032020/E/H
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ALL PHASE
BIO-CHEMISTRY
TEST DATE : 06 - 08 - 2020
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 1 2 2 4
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 2 4 4 1 4 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 1 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 4 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
3 2 1 2 2 1 4 2 4 2 1 2 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 2 1 1
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
3 3 2 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 1
HINT – SHEET
1. NCERT XI, Pg # 346 24. NCERT XI, Pg # 346, 347
8. NCERT XI, Pg # 342, 347 31. NCERT XI, Pg # 342
12. NCERT XII, Pg # 307 35. NCERT XI, Pg # 370
16. NCERT XII, Pg # 380, 381 39. NCERT XII, Pg # 306
19. NCERT XI, Pg # 342 42. NCERT XII, Pg # 306, 307
23. NCERT XI, Pg # 331
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46. NCERT XII, Chapter # 5 90. NCERT XII, Pg # 114
63. NCERT XII, Chapter # 5 109. NCERT XI, Pg # 128
124. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
78. NCERT XII, Pg # 109
125. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
126. NCERT XI, Pg # 132
127. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
128. NCERT XI, Pg # 132
129. NCERT XI, Pg # 136
130. NCERT XI, Pg # 140
131. NCERT XI, Pg # 140
132. NCERT XI, Pg # 140
133. NCERT XI, Pg # 140
134. NCERT XI, Pg # 135
135. NCERT XI, Pg # 141
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*1701CMD305219020* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
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UNIT – 08
BIOLOGY : Biology in Human Welfare
(viii) Human Health and Disease
(ix) Strategies for Enhancement in food Production
(x) Microbes in Human Welfare
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1. In good humor hypothesis by hippocrates as well as 1.
India Ayurveda term 'humor' refers to :
(1) Immunity (1)
(2) Body fluid (2)
(3) Lymphocytes (3)
(4) Spleeh (4)
2. Among non infectious disease major cause of death is 2.
(1) AIDS (1) AIDS
(2) Cancer (2)
(3) Dengue (3)
(4) Malaria (4)
3. All parasites are pathogen because ? 3.
(1) They depends on host for food (1)
(2) They depends on host for shelter (2)
(3) They cause harm to the host (3)
4. Sustained high fever (39°-40°C), stomach, pain, 4. (39°-40°C),
constipation, loss of apetite are the common symptoms
of
(1) (2)
(1) Typhoid (2) Ascariasis
(3) Dengue (4) Malaria (3) (4)
5. Mary Mellon nicknamed typhoid marry was a 5.
(1) Vector host (1)
(2) Carrier (2)
(3) Causing agent (3)
6. Choose the correct statement ? 6.
(1) All congenital disease are genetic disorders. (1)
(2) All genetic disorders are congenital disease (2)
(3) All conganital desease are not genetic disorder (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
7. In sever case lips and finger nail turn grey to bluish in 7.
case of :
(1) Infection of strepto coccus and Haemophillus (1)
(2) Infection of salmonella and staphylococcus (2)
(3) Infection of papiloma virus and trichomonas (3)
(4) Infection of vibrio and microsporum (4)
8. Causitive factor of malaria is : 8.
(1) Female culex (1)
(2) Female anapheles (2)
(3) Female aedes (3)
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9. Spores of plasmodium stored in : 9.
(1) Alimentary canal of mosquito (1)
(2) Salivary glands of mosquito (2)
(3) Alimentay canal of human (3)
(4) RBC of human (4) RBC
10. Following diagram showin infection of pathogen that 10.
belongs to
(1) Monera (2) Protusta (1) (2)

(3) Fungi (4) Animalia (3) (4)
11. Which group of disease are air bone disease 11.
(1) Pneumania & common cold (1)
(2) Elephantiasis & Ringworm (2)
(3) Malaria & Ringworm (3)
(4) Common cold & Ringworm (4)
12. Match column-I with column-II 12. -I -II
(a) Filariasis (i) Aedes (a) (i)
(b) Malaria (ii) Culex (b) (ii)
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Anapheles (c) (iii)
(d) Common cold (iv) Bacterial disease (d) (iv)
(v) Viral disease (v)
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v (2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-v (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-iv, d-v (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-v (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-iv, d-v
13. Skin on our body and mucus coating include in : 13.
(1) Physical barrier (1)
(2) Physiological barrier (2)
(3) Cellular barrier (3)
(4) Acquired innunity (4)
14. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. interferon. 14.
(1) Secreted from viral infected cells and protect them (1)
from viral infection
(2) Secreted from Non infected cells and protect (2)
other viral infected cells
(3) Secreted from viral infected cells & protect other (3)
cells by kill virus
(4) Secreted from viral infected cells & makes other (4)
cells resist to viral infection
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15. How many disease spreaded by insect vector 15.
Malaria, Filariasis, Dengue, Plague, Ringworm, Ascariasis
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2 (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 2
16. Which one is the physical barrier that crossed by 16.
pathogen to enter in body ?
(1) Skin & mucus membrane (1)
(2) Tear & Saliva (2)
(3) PMNL (3) PMNL
(4) NK-Cells (4) NK-
17. Which of the following is/are not a type of lymphocytes ? 17.
(1) B-cell (1) B-
(2) T-cell (2) T-
(3) Mast cell (3)
(4) Plasma cell (4)
18. Which one is responsible for Rejection of mismatched 18.
graft ?
(1) AMI (1) AMI
(2) CMI (2) CMI
(3) Humoral immunity (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
19. Which antibodies produced in response of Allergens ? 19.
(1) IgA (2) IgE (1) IgA (2) IgE
(3) IgM (4) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgD
20. In which disease immune system attack it self 20.
body.
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis (1)
(2) Gout (2)
(3) Osteoporosis (3)
(4) Osteoarthritis (4)
21. Which of the following is not infected by Rhino virus? 21.
(1) Nose (1)
(2) Lungs (2)
(3) Upper respiratory passage (3)
(4) Lungs & upper respiratory passage (4)
22. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. antibodies. 22.
(1) They also called H2L2 (1) H2L2
(2) These are gamma globulin protein (2)
(3) All antibodies contain sulphur containg amino acids (3)
(4) Secreted by Undifferentiated B-lympholytes called (4) B-
plasma cells
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23. Which type immunity is provided to new born baby 23.
through colostrum ? (1) (2)
(1) Natural active (2) Artificial active
(3) Natural passive (4) Artificial passive (3) (4)
24. In case of snake bite injection of antivenum is an example of: 24.
(1) Natural active immunity (1)
(2) Artificial active immunity (2)
(3) Natural passive immunity (3)
(4) Artificial passive immunity (4)
25. All lymphoid organs are secondary lymphoid organs except. 25.
(1) Thymus & MALT (1) MALT
(2) Red bone marrow & MALT (2) MALT
(3) Red bone marrow & spleeh (3)
(4) Red bone marrow & thymus (4)
26. Which organ act as both lymphoid organ as well as 26.
endocrine gland ?
(1) Thymus (1)
(2) Spleeh (2)
(3) Pitutary (3)
(4) Pineal (4)
27. AIDS was first reported in : 27. AIDS
(1) 1983 (2) 1991 (1) 1983 (2) 1991
(3) 1981 (4) 1984 (3) 1981 (4) 1984
28. HIV is a ___(A)___ virus that produce ___(B)___ 28. HIV ___(A)___
by reverse trauscription is host body. ___(B)___
(1) A-ss-RNA, B-ss-DNA (1) A-ss-RNA, B-ss-DNA
(2) A-ds-RNA, B-ds-DNA (2) A-ds-RNA, B-ds-DNA
(3) A-ss-RNA, B-ds-DNA (3) A-ss-RNA, B-ds-DNA
(4) A-ds-RNA, B-ss-DNA (4) A-ds-RNA, B-ss-DNA
29. Maximum HIV replication occur with in : 29. HIV
(1) Macrophages (1)
(2) Monocytes (2)
(3) Helper T-cells (3) T-
(4) B-cells (4) B-
30. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. cancer cells. 30.
(1) Cancer cells do not show the property of contact inhibition (1)
(2) Telomerase activity increase in cancer cells (2)
(3) Spreading of cancer tumor called metagenesis (3)
(4) Chromosomal aboberetion also seem in cancer cells (4)
31. Which drug formed by Acetylation of morphine ? 31.
(1) Opium (2) Heroin (1) (2)
(3) Cannabinoid (4) Charas (3) (4)
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32. How many drugs obtained from same plant source. 32.
Bhang, Charas, Ganja, Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, LSD,
Hasish (1) 5 (2) 4
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 5 (3) 3 (4) 5
33. Which one has no hallucenogenic property. 33.
(1) Atropa belladona (1)
(2) Datura (2)
(3) Coacine (3)
(4) None (4)
34. Person of which age group are more Vulnerable to 34.
drug & alcohol abuse.
(1) 18-25 (2) 12-18 (1) 18-25 (2) 12-18
(3) 20-35 (4) above 40 (3) 20-35 (4) 40
35. Cannabinoid receptors are mainly present in : 35.
(1) Brain (1)
(2) Spinal chord (2)
(3) Gastro intestinal tract (3)
(4) Tongue (4)
36. Match the column-I with column-II. 36. -I -II
(a) Opioids (i) Seeds off coffee (a) (i)
(b) Cannabinoids (ii) Erythroxylum cocca (b) (ii)
(c) Cocaine (iii) Papever sominferum (c) (iii)
(d) Caffine (iv) Cannabis sativa (d) (iv)
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
37. Which of the following is not a effect of nicotine ? 37.
(1) Secretion of adrecnaline and Moradre naleine (1)
(2) Increase heart rate (2)
(3) Increase blood pressure (3)
(4) Stimulate secretion of acetyl choline (4)
38. Cocaine interfere with transport off which 38.
neurotransmitter ?
(1) Serotonin (1)
(2) Dopamine (2)
(3) Adrenaline (3)
(4) Gamma amino butyirc acid (4)
39. Which of the following is a depressant ? 39.
(1) Alcohol (2) Coacine (1) (2)
(3) Amphitamine (4) Caffine (3) (4)
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40. Majority of drugs are obtained from ? 40.
(1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiosperms (1) (2)
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Fungs (3) (4)
41. Among HIV, HPV, HBV, AIDS, Rubeola, Vareola. 41. HIV, HPV, BHV, AIDS,
How many are onco viruses ?
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5 (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
42. Which diseases is 100% fatal ? 42. 100%
(1) Tetanus (2) Rabies (1) (2)
(3) Cancer (4) Malaria (3) (4)
43. Choose correct order in the way of HIV multiplication? 43. HIV
Reverse, Transcription, Transcription, Translation
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 2, 3, 1 (3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 1, 3 (1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 2, 3, 1 (3) 3, 2, 1 (4) 2, 1, 3
44. HIV utilize all tools from host cell for multiplication in 44. HIV
host cell except ?
(1) DNA polymerase (1) DNA
(2) Reverse Transcriptase (2)
(3) Peptidyl transferase (3)
(4) Transcriptase (4)
45. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. immune system. 45.
(1) Antibodies are protein weapon provide AMI (1) AMI
(2) 'T'-cell involve in both AMI & CMI (2) 'T'- AMI CMI
(3) Hyper sensitivity of immune system called allergy (3)
(4) Helper 'T' cell act as HIV factory (4) 'T' HIV
46. Which disease also called Allergic rhinitis ? 46.
(1) Hay fever (2) Common cold (1) (2)
(3) Infeuenza (4) Bronchitis (3) (4)
47. Which cells involve in specific immunity ? 47.
(1) B-cell (2) T-cell (1) B- (2) T-
(3) Lymphocytes (4) Macrophages (3) (4)
48. Antigen binding site of Antibody is composed of ? 48.
(1) Light chain only (1)
(2) Heavy chain only (2)
(3) Both light & heavy chain (3)
(4) Amino group (4)
49. Cytokine barriers included ? 49.
(1) Interferons (2) Gamma Globulin (1) (2)
(3) Antibodies (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
50. Characteristic feature of acquired immunity is : 50.
(1) Memory (1)
(2) Discrimination between self & nonself (2)
(3) Specificity & Diversity (3)
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51. Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in India 51.
by cross-breeding which may be between
(1) Malavari ewes and Bikaneri rams
(1)
(2) Bikaneri ewes and Malavari rams
(2)
(3) Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams (3)
(4) Marino ewes and Bikaneri rams (4)
52. Which one are primary and secondary product of 52.
apiculture
(1) Both wax and honey are considered as secondary
(1)
product as some nutritive substances are also
obtained from honey bee which is the primary
product
(2) No criteria is set to differentiate the primary and
secondary products in apiculture (2)
(3) Wax is the primary product but honey is the
secondary product
(3)
(4) Honey is the primary product but wax is the
secondary product (4)
53. MOET is a process in which the animal is either 53. MOET
mated with an elite bull or artificially inseminated, and
the fertilized eggs are collected to transfer to the
surrogate mothers. Which among these statements
is correct?
(1) Fertilized egg is collected at only 12 cell stage (1) 12
and it is done by surgery
(2) Fertilized egg is collected at 64 cell stage and (2) 64
surgery is done for it
(3) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cell stage and (3) 8-32
there is no need of surgery
(4) Fertilized egg is collected at 8-32 cell stage and (4) 8-32
surgery is done for it
54. Which one is hybrid breed of sheep? 54.
(1) Brown swiss (2) Hisardale (1) (2)
(3) Sunandini (4) Holstein (3) (4)
55. A fresh water fish is 55.
(1) Pomfrets (2) Hilsa (1) (2)
(3) Catla (4) Mackerel (3) (4)
56. Which one is correct option for queen bees? 56.
(1) Fertile females (2) Sterile males (1) (2)
(3) Sterile females (4) Fertile males (3) (4)
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57. Fishes reared in culture fishery in India are 57.
(1) Catla and Magur (2) Rohu and Catla (1) (2)
(3) Salmon and Rohu (4) Salmon and Catla (3) (4)
58. Match the terms given in Column-I with their 58. -I -II
descriptions given in Column-II and select the correct
option from the codes given below.
-I -II
Column-I Column-II
A. Out-Crossing (i) Mating of closely related A. (i)
individuals within the same
breed.
B. (ii)
B. Interspecific (ii) Mating of animals of
hybridization same breed 4-6
but having no common
ancestors on either side of
their pedigree for 4-6
generations. C. (iii)
C. Cross breeding (iii) Mating between
animals of two different
species.
D. Inbreeding (iv) Mating of animals D. (iv)
belonging to different
breeds.
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) (3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) (4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
59. Super ovulation and embryo transplantation are meant 59.
for improving
(1) human race (2) livestock (1) (2)
(3) poultry (4) plants (3) (4)
60. Carp fishes, Catla Labeo and Cirrhina can be grown 60.
together in the same pond more economically as they
have (1)
(1) positive interactions
(2)
(2) commensalism
(3) symbiosis (3)
(4) no competition for food (4)
61. The process of RNA interference has been used in 61. RNA
the development of plant resistant to
(1) insects (2) nematodes (1) (2)
(3) fungi (4) viruses (3) (4)
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62. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching? 62.
(1) Micropropagation—In vitro production of plants (1)
in large numbers (2)
(2) Callus—Unorganized mass of cells produced in
tissue culture
(3) Somatic hybridization—Fusion of two diverse cells (3)
(4) Vector DNA—site for tRNA synthesis (4) DNA — tRNA
63. In plant breeding programmes, the entire collection 63.
(of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all
genes in a given crop is called (1)
(1) Selection of superior recombinants
(2)
(2) Cross-hybridization among the selected parents
(3) Evaluation and selection of parents (3)
(4) Germplasm collection (4)
64. Which of the following enhances or induces fusion 64.
of protoplasts?
(1) IAA and gibberellins (1) IAA
(2) Sodium chloride and potassium chloride (2)
(3) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate, (3)
(4) IAA and kinetin (4) IAA
65. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal 65.
husbandry because it
(1) exposes harmful recessive genes that are (1)
eliminated by selection
(2)
(2) helps in accumulation of superior genes
(3) is useful in producing pure lines of animals (3)
(4) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression (4)
66. Best milk breed of cattle is 66.
(1) Red Sindhi (2) Deoni (1) Red Sindhi (2) Deoni
(3) Holstein-Friesian (4) Sahiwal (3) Holstein-Friesian (4) Sahiwal
67. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET) is the 67. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer (MOET)
method of
(1) fish cultivation (2) hybridisation of cattle (1) (2)
(3) birth control (4) cloning of sheep (3) (4)
68. Which one of the following correct match ? 68.
Resistance to
Crop Variety
disease
(1) Wheat Himgiri White rust
(1)
(2) Brassica Pusa swarnim Leaf and Strip rust (2)
(3) Cowpea Pusa Komal Bacterial blight (3)
(4) Chilli Pusa Shubhra Chilly mosaic virus (4)
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69. Surrogate mother is used for 69.
(1) induction of lactation (1)
(2) artificial insemination (2)
(3) future mother with transplanted embryo (3)
(4) all of the above (4)
70. Which of the following breeding technique used to 70.
over come the problem of in breeding depression ?
(1) Out crossing (1)
(2) Cross breeding (2)
(3) Interspecific hybridization (3)
(4) Inbreeding (4)
71. Which of the following is used to manufacture of 71.
ethanol by fermentation :
(1) Yeast (1) Yeast
(2) Alfaro (2) Alfaro
(3) Agarics (3) Agarics
(4) Macro (4) Macro
72. Which bacteria is utilized for methane gas production 72.
from cow dung :
(1) Nitrosamines (1) Nitrosamines
(2) Nitrobacteria (2) Nitrobacteria
(3) Methanomonas (3) Methanomonas
(4) E.Coli (4) E.Coli
73. The technology of biogas production was developed 73.
in India manly due to the efforts of :
(1) WHO (2) IARI (3) KVIC (4) INC (1) WHO (2) IARI (3) KVIC (4) INC
74. Milk is changed into curd by the help of 74.
(1) Agrobacterium (1) Agrobacterium
(2) Nitrosamines (2) Nitrosamines
(3) Lactobacillus (3) Lactobacillus
(4) Azotofacter (4) Azotofacter
75. Which of the following is used as Bio-insecticide 75.
(1) Clostridium (1) Clostridium
(2) Bacillus thuringinesis (2) Bacillus thuringinesis
(4) Xanthomonas (4) Xanthomonas
76. Which of the following is correct for gobber gas 76.
(1) Contains mainly butane (1)
(2) Contains only CO2 (2) CO2
(3) Contains mainly CH4 and CO2 (3) CH4 CO2
(4) Contains only H2 (4) H2
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77. Select the correct matched. 77.
(1) Acetobacter aceti - Lactic acid (1) Acetobacter aceti - Lactic acid
(2) Bacillus thuringenesis - Endotoxin (2) Bacillus thuringenesis - Endotoxin
(3) Penicillium – Chloram phenical (3) Penicillium – Chloram phenical
(4) yeast – CH3OH (4) yeast – CH3OH
78. Which of the following is used as blood cholesterol 78.
lowering agent :
(1) Statin (1) Statin
(2) Diastase (2) Diastase
(3) Cyclosporine A (3) Cyclosporine A
(4) Subtelis (4) Subtelis
79. Product of which organism used during organ transplantation: 79.
(1) Trichoderma polysporum (1) Trichoderma polysporum
(2) Aspergillums Niger (2) Aspergillums Niger
(3) Yeast (3) Yeast
(4) Acetobacter (4) Acetobacter
80. Which of the following is nematode and causes plant disease 80.
(1) Bacillus vulgaris (1) Bacillus vulgaris
(3) Meloidegene incognitia (3) Meloidegene incognitia
(4) Trichoderma (4) Trichoderma
81. A bacterial product which is used during myocardial 81. myocardial infarction
infarction is obtaned from
(1) Streptococcus (1) Streptococcus
(2) Bacillus Subtelis (2) Bacillus Subtelis
(4) Yeast (4) Yeast
82. Bacillus thuringenesis is not used to control : 82. Bacillus thuringenesis
(1) Moth (2) Flies (1) Moth (2) Flies
(3) Mosquito (4) Nematode (3) Mosquito (4) Nematode
83. Which of the following is free living N2 fixing organism: 83. N2
(1) Azotobacter (1) Azotobacter
(2) Agaro bacterium (2) Agaro bacterium
(3) Pseudomonas (3) Pseudomonas
(4) Rhizobium (4) Rhizobium
84. Select the incorrect match 84.
(1) Aspergillus – CH3COOH (1) Aspergillus – CH3COOH
(2) Cyclosporn –A– Immneso sappresine agent (2) Cyclosporn –A– Immneso sappresine agent
(3) Statin – Blood glucose lowering agent (3) Statin – Blood glucose lowering agent
(4) Yeast – C2H5OH (4) Yeast – C2H5OH
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85. The primitive prokaryotes which is also found in 85. Rumen
Rumen of animals and used for goober gas production:
(1) Methanococcus (1) Methanococcus
(2) Thermophiles (2) Thermophiles
(3) Halophiles (3) Halophiles
(4) Nostoc (4) Nostoc
86. Bio fortification can be achieved through 86. Biofortification
(1) SCP (1) SCP
(2) Breeding practices (2)
(3) Diseases resistant varieties (3)
87. Microbial biomass production is not concerned with 87.
(1) An alternative source of protein for animal and (1)
human nutrition
(2)
(2) A food supplement
(3) Enhancement of nutritional content of crops (3)
(4) The utilisation of waste matter in culture process (4)
88. During formation of bread it becomes porous due to 88. CO2
release of CO2 by the action of :
(1) Bacteria (1) Bacteria
(2) Yeast (2) Yeast
(3) Protozoans (3) Protozoans
(4) Archaebacteria (4) Archaebacteria
89. In the manufacture of wine, as the alcohol 89.
concentration increases, yeast cells due. The cells Yeast
are tolerate alcohol upto :
(1) 5 % (1) 5 %
(2) 13 % (2) 13 %
(3) 20 % (3) 20 %
(4) 30 % (4) 30 %
90. When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, 90.
the BOD will : BOD :
(1) Increase (1)
(2) Decrease (2)
(3) Slightly decrease (3)
(4) Remain unchanged (4)
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10082020/E/H
Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 15/16 Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 15/16
10082020/E/H
@AAKASHDELHI02
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prohibited.
Sheet.



@AAKASHDELHI02
ALL PHASE
BIO-CHEMISTRY
TEST DATE : 10 - 08 - 2020
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 4 1 3 3 1 3
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
2 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 3
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 2 2 1
HINT – SHEET
3. NCERT XII, Pg # 146 28. NCERT XII, Pg # .....
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@AAKASHDELHI02
*1701CMD305219021* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 09
CHEMISTRY : Coordination Compound, Metallurgy & Hydrogen Compound
BIOLOGY : BIOTECHNOLOGY
(xi) Biotechnology : Principles and Process
(xii) Biotechnology and its Applications
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1. The lighter impurities can be removed from the ore 1.
by
(1) Magnetic separation (1)
(2) Froth floatation process (2)
(3) Gravity separation (3)
(4) Leaching (4)
2. The magnetic ore of metal, containing non-magnetic 2.
impurities is concentrated by
(1) Magnetic separation (1)
(2) Froth floatation (2)
(3) Gravity separation (3)
(4) Leaching (4)
3. The process by which Al(OH)3 is converted into Al2O3 3. Al(OH)3 Al2O3
is known as
(1) Roasting (2) Calcination (1) (2)
(3) Ignition (4) Leaching (3) (4)
4. Which of the following extraction is based on oxidation? 4.
(1) Extraction of chlorine from brine (1)
(2) Leaching of gold and silver metal with CN– (2) CN–
(3) Both (1) & (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Extraction of sodium from electrolysis of rock salt. (4)
5. Na[Ag(CN)2] can be converted into Ag by 5. Na[Ag(CN)2] Ag
(1) Treating it with Zn (1) Zn
(2) Treating with Pt (2) Pt
(3) Treating with Au (3) Au
(4) All of the above possible (4)
6. Which of the following can be used for the reduction 6.
in metallurgical processes?
(1) Carbon (2) Carbon monoxide (1) (2)
(3) Water gas (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
7. Anode mud obtained in the electrorefining of copper contains 7.
(1) Ag & Au only (1) Ag Au
(2) Ag, Au and other insoluble impurities (2) Ag, Au
(3) Ag, Au, Fe and insoluble impurities (3) Ag, Au, Fe
(4) Ag, Au and Fe only (4) Ag, Au Fe
8. Correct statement about chromatography is 8.
(1) Purification is based on adsorption and absorption (1)
phenomenon (2)
(2) Useful for purification of elements which are
available in minute quantities (3)
(3) There is one stationary phase and one mobile phase
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9. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves 9.
converting the metal to a
(1) Volatile stable compound (1)
(2) Volatile unstable compound (2)
(3) Non volatile stable compound (3)
(4) Non volatile unstable compound (4)
10. Highly electropositive metal can not be extracted by 10.
carbon reduction process, because these
(1) Metal combines with carbon to form carbide (1)
(2) Metal oxides are not reduced by carbon (2)
(3) Metals are not reduced by carbon (3)
11. In extractive metallurgy of zinc, reduction of ZnO with 11. Zn ZnO
coke is called
(1) Smelting (2) Calcination (1) (2)
(3) Roasting (4) Sintering (3) (4)
12. In the commercial electrochemical process for 12. Al
aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is
(1) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution (1) Al(OH)3, NaOH
(2) An Aq solution of Al2(SO4)3 (2) Al2(SO4)3
(3) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6 (3) Al2O3 Na3AlF6
(4) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3 (4) Al2O3 Al(OH)3
13. Gold is soluble in 13.
(1) cone. HNO3 (2) Aqua regia (1) HNO3 (2)
(3) NaOH (4) cone. HCl (3) NaOH (4) HCl
14. ICE structure, at very low temperature 14.
(1) Cubic (1)
(2) Hexagonal (2)
(3) Open cage like structure (3)
(4) Linear chain (4)
15. For reaction 15.
(a) 2HgS + 3o2  2HgO + 2SO2 (a) 2HgS + 3o2  2HgO + 2SO2
(b) 2HgO + HgS  3Hg + SO2 (b) 2HgO + HgS  3Hg + SO2
In above reaction (b) represents (b)
(1) Auto reduction (2) Thermite process (1) (2)
(3) Smelting (4) Refining (3) (4)
16. Zone refining is based on principle 16.
(1) Impurities have greater affinity for oxygen then itself (1)
(2) Impure metal get easily converted to volatile compound (2)
(3) Difference in solubility of impurities in molten and
solid state (3)
(4) More electropositive on displace less electropositive (4)
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17. Reaction which is not related to thermite process 17.
(1) 3Mn3O4 + Al  Mn + GAl2O3 (1) 3Mn3O4 + Al  Mn + GAl2O3
(2) Cr2O3 + Al  Cr + Al2O3 (2) Cr2O3 + Al  Cr + Al2O3
(3) 2Fe + Al2O3  2Al + Fe2O3 (3) 2Fe + Al2O3  2Al + Fe2O3
(4) B2O3 + 2Al  2B + Al2O3 (4) B2O3 + 2Al  2B + Al2O3
18. By which process zinc is extracted from zinc blende? 18. Zn
(1) Electrolytic reduction (1)
(2) Roasting followed by reduction with carbon (2)
(3) Calcination followed by reduction with carbon (3)
(4) Roasting followed by self reduction (4)
19. Select incorrect reduction process 19.
(1) 2[Ag(CN)2]– + Zn  [Zn(CN)4]–2 + 2Ag (1) 2[Ag(CN)2]– + Zn  [Zn(CN)4]–2 + 2Ag
(2) CuO + H2  Cu + H2O (2) CuO + H2  Cu + H2O
(3) ZnO + H2  Zn + H2O (3) ZnO + H2  Zn + H2O
(4) MgO + C  Mg + CO (4) MgO + C  Mg + CO
20. Which of the following oxide is thermally least stable? 20.
(1) CaO (2) Al2O3
(3) Fe2O3 (4) Ag2O (1) CaO (2) Al2O3 (3) Fe2O3 (4) Ag2O
21. High purity metals can be obtained by zone refining 21.
method because
(1) Impurity is more soluble in the melt than metal (1)
(2) Impurity is less soluble in melt than metal (2)
(3) Metal is volatile (3)
(4) Impurity do not melt on heating (4)
22. Thomas slag is 22.
(1) Calcium silicate (2) Anode mud (1) (2)
(3) FeSiO3 (4) Calcium phosphate (3) FeSiO3 (4)
23. Which of the following on roasting give respective metal? 23.
(1) Galena (2) HgS (1) (2) HgS
(3) ZnS (4) Both(1) & (2) (3) ZnS (4) (1) (2)
24. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 24.
(1 ) Al2O3 cannot be reduced into Al by Cr2O3 (1 ) Al2O3, Cr2O3 Al
(2) Ca is stronger reducing agent than Mg (2) Ca, Mg
(3) At 673 K, CO is poor reducing agent than carbon (3) 673 K , CO
25. The incorrect among the following is 25.
(1) Pyridine is a monodentate ligand (1)
(2) [Ni(CN)4]2– is tetrahedral and diamagnetic (2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(3) Organometallic compounds contain at least one (3)
metal-carbon bond
(4) The oxidation state of nickel in [Ni(CO)4] is zero (4) [Ni(CO)4]
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26. Which is not true for ligand metal complex? 26.
(1) Larger the ligand, the more stable is the metal- (1)
ligand complex (2)
(2) Stability of complex decreases due to
(3)
macrocyciic effect
(3) Larger the permanent dipole moment of ligand,
the more stable is the bond „ (4) [NiCl 4] 2– [PtCl 4] 2–
(4) [NiCl4]2– is tetrahedral but [PtCl4]2– is square planar
27. [CoF6]3– is an 27. [CoF6]3–
(1) Inner orbital, paramagnetic (1)
(2) Outer orbital, paramagnetic (2)
(3) Outer orbital, diamagnetic (3)
(4) Inner orbital, diamagnetic (4)
28. Which of the following statement is incorrect? 28.
(1) [NI(CN)4]2– has square planar geometry (1) [NI(CN)4]2–
(2) [Ti(H2O4)6 is colouréd (2) [Ti(H2O4)6
(3) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] can show ionisation isomerism (3) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(4) CoCl3.6H2O can show hydrate isomerism (4) CoCl3.6H2O
29. The complex [Ma3b3] given below respectively are 29. [Ma3b3]
(1) C is and trans isomers (1) C is and trans isomers

(2) Trans and cis isomers (2) Trans and cis isomers
(3) Facial and meridional (3) Facial and meridional
(4) Meridional and facial (4) Meridional and facial
30. Which of the following is the correct crystal field d- 30. d-
orbital splitting for octahedral complex?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
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31. Which of the following is incorrect for [Fe(CN)6]3–? 31. [Fe(CN)6]3–
(1) The secondary valency is-6 (1) 6
(2) It is paramagnetic (2)
(3) It is d2sp3 hybridised (3) d2sp3
(4) E.A.N, is equal to 32 (4) E.A.N 32
32. Which of the following pair of complexes have same 32. E.A.N.
E.A.N.of central metal ion/atom?
(1) [Fe(NH3)6]2+, [Fe(CN)6]4– (1) [Fe(NH3)6]2+, [Fe(CN)6]4–
(2) Cr(CO)6, Ni(CO)4 (2) Cr(CO)6, Ni(CO)4
(3) [Co(en)3]3+, [Cu(CN)4]3– (3) [Co(en)3]3+, [Cu(CN)4]3–
33. In the complex, K2Fe(Fe(CN)6] 33. K2Fe(Fe(CN)6]
(1) Both Fe atoms are in the same oxidation state (1) Fe
(2) Both Fe atoms aré in different oxidation states (2) Fe
(3) The oxidation number of K is +2 (3) K +2
(4) [Fe(CN)6]n– is a ferricyanide ion (4) [Fe(CN)6]n–
34. Which of these is optically active? 34.
(1) Bis-glycinatonickel(ll) (1) Bis-glycinatonickel(ll)
(2) Trans-dichlorodioxalatochromium(lll)ion (2) Trans-dichlorodioxalatochromium(lll)ion
(3) Tetraaminecopper(ll)sulphate (3) Tetraaminecopper(ll)sulphate
35. If a complex has high negative G of formation but 35. G
is very reactive, it is said to be
(1) Tstable but labile (1)
(2) Unstable and labile (2)
(3) Unstable but non-labile (3)
(4) Stable and non-labile (4)
36. The complex, 36.
is a : a :
(1) fac-[Cu(gly)2] (2) cis-[Cu(gly)2] (1) fac-[Cu(gly)2] (2) cis-[Cu(gly)2]
(3) trans-[Cu(gly)2] (4) mer-[Cu(gly)2] (3) trans-[Cu(gly)2] (4) mer-[Cu(gly)2]
37. The correct statement about crystal field theory is 37.
(1) Metal-ligand bond is purely electrostatic (1)
(2) It based on attractive force between positive metal (2)
ion and the negatively charged ligands
(3) The magnitude of crystal field splitting does not (3)
depends upon the nature of ligands
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) (1) (2)
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38. Which of the following aquatated metal ion has the 38.
least paramagnetism?
[considering H2O is weak field ligand] [H2O ]
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (3) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (4) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
39. Which of the following will show optical activity? 39.
(1) Cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (1) Cis-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(2) Trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (2) Trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+
(3) [Co(NH)3]3+ (3) [Co(NH)3]3+
(4) Trans-[Co(H2O)4Cl2]+ (4) Trans-[Co(H2O)4Cl2]+
40. Complex ion [Co(NH3)6]2+ is readily oxidised to 40. [Co(NH3)6]2+ [Co(NH3)6]3+
[Co(NH3)6]3+ because
(1) [Co(NH3)6]2+ contain unpaired electron in p orbital (1) [Co(NH3)6]2+ p
(2) [Co(NH3)6]2+ do not have unpaired electrons in
p orbital (2) [Co(NH3)6]2+ p
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ has one unpaired electrons (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]2+ can't oxidise (4) [Co(NH3)6]2+
41. Which of the following is correct statement? 41.
(1) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured complex (1) [Ti(H2O)6]3+
(2) [Si(H2O)6]4+ is colourless complex (2) [Si(H2O)6]4+
(3) d - of transition is not possible in [Si(H2O)6]4+ complex (3) [Si(H2O)6]4+ d-d
42. Impure Al is purified by : 42. Al
(1) Baeyer's process (1)
(2) Hall's process (2)
(3) Hoop's process (3)
(4) Serpeck's process (4)
43. Syngas is? 43.
(1) CO + H2 (1) CO + H2
(2) CO2 + H2 (2) CO2 + H2
(3) CO + H2 + N2 (3) CO + H2 + N2
(4) CO + N2 (4) CO + N2
44. Select the process having exothermic process 44.
2   2  
(1) S g   S g  (2) Na  g   Cl g   NaClS (1) S g   S g  (2) Na  g   Cl g   NaClS
2 3 2 3
(3) N g   N g  (4) Al g   Al g  (3) N g   N g  (4) Al g   Al g 
– –
45. Ligand used in anti-concer drug called cisplatin :- 45.

(1) NH3,Cl– (1) NH3,Cl–
(2) NH3, H2O (2) NH3, H2O
(3) Cl, H2O (3) Cl, H2O
(4) NO2–, Cl– (4) NO2–, Cl–
@AAKASHDELHI02
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46. A virus with DNA is discovered. Its DNA is amplified 46. ds DNA DNA
by running 20 cycle of PCR. How many ds DNA PCR 20 PCR
will be formed at the end of PCR. ds DNA
(1) 1 trillian (2) 1024 (1) 1 trillian (2) 1024
(3) 210 × 210 (4) 1 billion (3) 210 × 210 (4) 1 billion
47. If the bacterial colonies produce colour in the presence 47.
of chormogenic substance it confirms :
(a) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase enzyme (a) -
(b) Recombinant stage (b)
(c) Activation of -galactosidase enzyme (c) -
(d) Nonrecombinant stage (d)
(1) a & b (2) b & c (1) a b (2) b c
(3) a & c (4) c & d (3) a c (4) c d
48. An enzyme isolated from E-coli, strain RY-13 which 48. E-coli RY-13
cut the phosphodiester bond between Nuclotide G & G A
A bases in given palindrome will create
51 GAATTC 31 51 GAATTC 31
31 CTTAAG51 31 CTTAAG51
(1) sticky end (1)
(2) blunt end (2)
(3) pointed end (3)
(4) both (1) & (2) (4) (1) (2)
49. During separation of DNA fragment by gel 49. DNA
electrophoresis, the DNA fragment move towards DNA
.......... under electric field through the gel matrix made .......... ..........
of .......... respectively.
Select the option which fills both blanks correctly.
(1) Negatively charged electrode, Ethidium bromide
(1)
(2) Cathode, Agarose
(2)
(3) Positively charged electrode, Agarose (3)
(4) Anode, Chilled Ethyl Alcohol (4)
50. Consider the following statements. 50.
(a) Normally, E.coli cell does not carry resistance (a) E.coli
against any antibiotic.
(b) In pBR 322 site for BamHI present in ampR gene. (b) pBR 322 BamHI ampR gene
(c) Ideal plasmid vector does not need presence of (c) ori
ori site.
Select the incorrect option w.r.t. above statement.
(1) only (a) (2) only (b) (1) (a) (2) (b)
(3) both (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (c) both (3) (a) (b) (4) (b) (c)
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51. For mass scale production of a transgenic product 51.
transforment host cells are cultured in a stirred tank
type of Bioreactor. The stirring process is to ensure.
(1) Uniform pH across the tank
(2) Uniform temperature across the culture medium. (1) pH
(2)
(3) Uniformity in product quality obtained anywhere
from the tank (3)
(4) Uniform mixing of culture medium & oxygen
abailabilty (4)
52. Which is incorrect match ? 52.
(1) DNA ligase – Molecular glue (1) DNA –
(2) DNA polymerase – Require RNA primer for (2) DNA – RNA
replication primer
(3) ECoRI –Cut DNA molecule at (3) ECoRI – DNA
pallindome between G C
nucleotide G & C
(4) RNA plymerase - 3 type in eulcaryote (4) RNA - 3
53. Which reagent is used to precipitate DNA from 53. DNA
solution (Aqueous phase) during the process of DNA DNA
isolation ?
(1) Phenol (2) Ehtidium bromide (1) (2)
(3) CCl4 (4) Chilled Ethanol (3) CCl4 (4)
54. For transformation with recombinant DNA the host 54. DNA
cell must first be made competent which means : (competent)
(1) Ability to divide fast (1)
(2) Inhibit the expression of desired gene present in (2) rDNA
rDNA
(3) Provide colour in presence of chromogenic substrate (3)
(4) Increase efficiency with which DNA enter into (4) DNA
the host
55. How many statements are wrong 55.
(a) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions within DNA. (a) DNA
(b) In biolistics method, recombinant DNA is directly
injected into the nucleus without any coating on gold (b) DNA
or tungston.
(c) Proteins encoded by genes cry I Ab and cry II Ab (c) I Ab cry II Ab
control the bollworms while cry I Ac controls corn I Ac
borer.
(d) c - peptide is not present in the mature insulin and (d) c-
is removed during maturation
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2 (1) (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2
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56. Identify the palindromic sequence. 56. DNA
(1) 5'–CATTC – 3' (2) 5' – AACTC –3'
(1) 5'–CATTC – 3' (2) 5' – AACTC –3'
3' GTAAG – 5' 3'–TTGAG – 5'
3' GTAAG – 5' 3'–TTGAG – 5'
(3) 5' GAATTC – 3' (4) 5'–CTTCC–3' (3) 5' GAATTC – 3' (4) 5'–CTTCC–3'
3' CTTAAG – 5' 3' GAAGG – 5' 3' CTTAAG – 5' 3' GAAGG – 5'
57. Match the column : 57.
(a) Cloning vector (i) Restriction enzymes (a) (i)
(b) Bt (ii) AmpR gene (b) Bt (ii) AmpR
(c) Selectable maker (iii) pBR 322 (c) (iii) pBR 322
(d) Molecular scissors (iv) insecticidal protein (d) (iv)
(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i (1) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i (2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii (3) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv (4) a – ii, b – iii, c – i, d – iv
58. How many statements are correct ? 58.
(a) Presence of recombinant DNA into the coding (a) DNA –
sequence of enzyme – galactosidase results into
the production of blue coloured colonies in
presence of chromogenic substance. (b) EcoRI, DNA pallindromic
(b) EcoRI cut the DNA strand at pallindromic
sequence and produce blunt end.
(c)
(c) Cellulase, chitinase are the enzymes that are used
DNA
to break the bacterial cell and to release DNA
along with other macromolecules.
(d) In mammals insulin is synthesized as a fully (d)
matured and functional hormone and is consisted
of a single peptide chain. (1) (2)1
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
59. Identify A, B and C in the following figure. 59. A, B C
Agarose gel electrophoresis

(1) A = wells , B = Small DNA Bands , (1) A = ,B= DNA ,
C = Large DNA Bands C= DNA
(2) A = wells , B = Large DNA Bands, (2) A = B= DNA ,
C = Small DNA Bands
C= DNA
(3) A = Large DNA Bands , B = wells,
(3) A = DNA ,B= ,
C = Small DNA Bands
C= DNA
(4) A = Small DNA Bands, B = Large DNA Bands,
(4) A = DNA ,B= DNA ,C=
C = wells
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60. Match the following with their correct functions. 60.
(a) Down stream (i) Its function is similar to (a) (i)
processing retroviruses & it convert
/ transforms normal cell
into a tumor cell.
(b) (ii)
(b) Agrobactrium (ii) Here raw materials are
tumeficians converted into specific
products & it provides optimal
conditions for achieving this.
(c) Biopiracy (iii) Process includes
separation & purification (c) (iii)
before product is ready for
marketing
(d) Bioreactors (iv) Use of bioresources
without proper authrisation
from countries and people (d) (iv)
concerned.
(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv , d – ii
(2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii , d – iv
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – ii , d – iv (1) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii (2) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i , d – ii (3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv (4) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
61. Choose the right combination of components required 61. (PCR)
to set up a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) from
the following : (1) DNA, dNTPs DNA
(1) template DNA, two primers, dNTPs & DNA
ligase (2) DNA, NTPs DNA
(2) template DNA, two primers, NTPs & DNA ligase
(3) template RNA, two primers, NTPs & Taq DNA (3) RNA, NTPs Taq DNA
polymerase
(4) template DNA, two primers, dNTPs & Taq DNA (4) DNA, dNTPs Taq DNA
polymerase
62. Match the following : 62.
(a) Origin of replication (i) Vector (a) (i)
(b) Restriction enzymes (ii) gene amplification (b) (ii)
(c) Plasmid DNA (iii) initiation of replication (c) DNA (iii)
(d) PCR (iv) molecular seissors (d) PCR (iv)
(1) a- (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i) (1) a- (iii), b - (iv), c - (ii), d - (i)
(2) a- (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii) (2) a- (iii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (ii)
(3) a- (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii) (3) a- (iv), b - (i), c - (iii), d - (ii)
(4) a- (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii) (4) a- (iv), b - (iii), c - (i), d - (ii)
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63. In recombinant DNA technology which of the 63. DNA
following tools are required :
(a) restriction enzymes (b) polymerase enzyme (a) (b)
(c) ligases (d) vector (c) (d)
(1) a,b (2) a, c & d (1) a, b (2) a, c d
(3) b & d (4) all of these (3) b d (4)
64. In the naming of restriction enzymes second two latter 64.
represents.
(1) gene (1)
(2) species of prokaryotic cell (2)
(3) strain (3)
(4) order in which enzymes are isolated (4)
65. Choose the correct statements :- 65.
(a) Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific (a) DNA
pallindromic sequences in the DNA
(b) Restriction endonucleases are used in genetic (b)
engineering to form recombinant molecule of DNA DNA
(c) Fragments can be separated by a technique known (c) DNA
as gel electrophoresis
(d) Separated DNA fragments can be visualised by (d) DNA
staining with any dye in the visible light.
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c (1) a, b d (2) a, b c
(3) b, c & d (4) a, b, c & d (3) b, c d (4) a, b, c d
66. How many statements are correct :- 66.
(a) Origin of replication is a sequence from where (a)
replication starts
(b) Ori is responsible for controlling the copy number (b) Ori DNA
of linked DNA
(c) For recovery of many copies of target DNA (c) DNA
vector should have low copy number
(d) Selectable marker helps in identifying & (d)
elimination transformants & selectively permitting
the growth of non transformants.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
67. The process for transfer the recombinant DNA into 67. DNA DNA
the host, cells are bombarded with high velocity
microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA
known as
(1) treatment with Ca to make competent cell (1) Ca
(2) Micro - injection (2)
(3) biolistics (3)
(4) electroporation (4)
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68. Arrange the following statements in particular order 68. DNA
that how process of recombinant DNA technology
takes place :- (a) DNA
(a) isolation of desired DNA (b) DNA
(b) ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
(c)
(c) culturing the host cells in medium
(d) isolation of desired DNA fragment (d) DNA
(e) fragmentation of DNA by restriction enzyme (e) DNA
(f) extraction of desired product (f)
(1) a,c,d,e,b,f (2) a,f,d,b,c,e (1) a,c,d,e,b,f (2) a,f,d,b,c,e
(3) a,e,d,b,c,f (4) a,d,b,f,e,c (3) a,e,d,b,c,f (4) a,d,b,f,e,c
69. Thermostable enzyme which is utilised during 69. PCR
amplification of DNA using PCR.
(1) DNA ligase (1) DNA
(2) Taq DNA polymerase (2) Taq DNA
(3) RNA polymerase (3) RNA
(4) Restriction endonuclease (4)
70. The goal of the polymerase chain reaction is to 70.
(1) Speed up protein synthesis for the production new (1)
drugs
(2) Create many copies of a DNA sequence which (2) DNA
is initially very rare
(3) Create many copies of messenger RNA molecules (3) RNA
(4) Investigate the properties of organisms which (4)
normally grow at very high temperatures
71. Correct for microinjection method of gene transfer : 71.
(1) It is method of vector mediated gene transfer (1)
(2) Desired DNA is directly injected into the nucleus (2) DNA
of an animal cell
(3) Use of gold pellet (3)
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) (2)
72. 72.
Identify a, b, c,d, e, in the given diagram of E. coli pBR 322 a, b,

cloning vector pBR 322. c,d, e
a b c d e a b c d e
R R R R
(1) Bam HI tet amp EcoRI Hind I (1) Bam HI tet amp EcoRI Hind I
R R R R
(2) EcoRI amp Hind I tet Bam HI (2) EcoRI amp Hind I tet Bam HI
R R R R
(3) Ori EcoRI amp Bam HI tet (3) Ori EcoRI amp Bam HI tet
R R R R
(4) EcoRI tet amp Bam HI Ori (4) EcoRI tet amp Bam HI Ori
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73. Read the following four statements (A-D) about 73. (A-D)
certain mistakes in two of them
(A) Disarmed retroviruses are not used as a vector in (A) DNA
making transgenic animals by r-DNA technology
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA (B) DNA
from other macro-molecules
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of (C) r-DNA
r-DNA technology
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in (D) r-DNA
transfer of r-DNA into the host
Which are the two statements having mistakes ?
(1) Statement (B) and (C) (1) (B) (C)
(2) Statement (C) and (D) (2) (C) (D)
(3) Statement (A) and (C) (3) (A) (C)
(4) Statement (A) and (B) (4) (A) (B)
74. Recognition sequence identifyed by EcoRI is 74. EcoRI
composed of
(1) 8 (2) 6
(1) 8 base pair (2) 6 base pair
(3) 4 base pair (4) 2 base pair (3) 4 (4) 2
75. Ti-plasmid is used for making transgenic plants. It is 75. Ti-
obtained from
(1) Azotobacter (1)
(2) Agrobacterium (2)
(3) Rhizobium in leguminous root (3)
(4) Yeast (4)
76. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic 76.
engineering are
(1) Restriction endonuclease and carboxylase (1)
(2) Exonuclease and carbonic anhydrase (2)
(3) Restriction endonuclease and ligase (3)
(4) Ligase and oxidoreductase (4)
77. Taq polymerase enzyme is used in 77.
(1) restriction mapping (1)
(2) gene cloning (2)
(3) PCR (3) PCR
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78. 78.
Select the correct option having correct labelling in

above diagram.
(1) i – Denaturation, ii – Primers, iii – Annealing, iv – (1) i – ii – iii – iv –
DNA ligase, v – Extension DNA v–
(2) i – Heating, ii – Anealing, iii, Primers, iv – DNA (2) i – ii – iii – iv – DNA
Polymerase, v – Amplification v–
(3) i – Denaturation, ii – Primers, iii – Annealing, iv – (3) i – ii – iii – iv – Taq
Taq DNA Polymerase, v – Extension DNA v–
(4) i – DNA, ii – Denaturation, iii – Primer, iv – (4) i – DNA, ii – iii – iv –
Annealing, v – Extension. v–
79. In ECORI, What does 'I' part is it stands for 79. ECORI 'I'
(1) Immigration (1)
(2) Order in which enzymes were isolated from the (2)
strains of Bacteria
(3) Number of species (3)
(4) Number of plasmid (4)
80. Which is correct for bioprocess engineering ? 80. (bioprocess engineering)
(1) Technique to alter the chemistry of genetic material ?
(2) Maintenance of sterile ambience in chemical (1)
engineering (2)
(3) Introduction of rDNA into host (3) rDNA
(4) Down stream processing (4)
81. Read the following statement. 81.
(A) EcoRI recognise a specific sequence of 6 base (A) EcoRI, 6
pair and produce sticky end
(B) Hind II recognise a specific sequence of 4 base (B) Hind II, 4
pair.
(C) Restriction enzyme belong to a larger class of (C)
enzyme called nuclease
(1) A & B correct but C is false (1) A B C
(2) A, B, C all are correct (2) A, B, C
(3) A & C false but C is correct (3) A C C
(4) A & C correct but B is false (4) A C B
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82. In almost all recombinant technologies, the ultimate 82.
aim is to produce ?
(1) Transtormant only (1)
(2) Recombinant only (2)
(3) Desirable protein (3)
(4) Transformant with Non-recombinant (4)
83. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a 83.
heterologous host, it is called as :
(1) SiRNA (1) SiRNA
(2) Homologous protein (2)
(3) Recombinant protein (3)
(4) Recombinant DNA (4) DNA
84. Read the following statements with respect to biotech. 84.
(A) PCR means photosynthetic chain reaction which (A) PCR
is utilised for amplification of carbohydrate.
(B) Multiple copies of the gene (or DNA) synthesized (B) PCR
invivo by using PCR
(C) 30 cycle of PCR result into synthesis of 1 trillion (C) PCR 30 1 DNA
copies of DNA
(1) All are correct statement (1)
(2) All are incorrect statement (2)
(3) Only A & B incorrect (3) A B
(4) Only C is correct (4) C
85. If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance 85. DNA
to an antibiotic like ampicillin is transfered into host E.coli
E.coli cells then :
(1) the host cell become transformed into tetra cyclin (1)
resistant cell.
(2) No change in host cell (2)
(3) Host cell in known as non transformant & it (3)
become resistant to ampicillin
(4) Host cell become transformed into ampicillin (4)
resistant cell.
86. A bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for 86.
achieving the desired product by providing optimum
growth condition of :
(1) Temperature & pH only
(1) pH
(2) Temperature, pH & substate only
(2) pH
(3) Temperature, pH, Substrate, salt only
(4) Temperature, pH, substarate, salt, vitamin & (3) pH,
oxygen (4) pH,
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87. Read the following statement : 87.
(A) The most commonly used bioreacter are of (A)
stirring type
(B) The downstream processing & quality control (B)
testing are same for all biotehcnological products.
(C) Downstream processing include separation & (C)
purification of product.
How many of above statement are incorrect.
(1) zero (2) one (3) two (4) three (1) (2) (3) (4)
88. Vectors used at present, are engineered in such a 88.
way that they help.
(1) Easy linking of foreign DNA (1) DNA
(2) Selection of recombinants from non-recombinants (2)
(3) (1) and (2) both (3) (1) (2)
(4) Idal plasmid vector has more than one recognition (4) RE
site for same RE
89. The tumour inducing (Ti) plasmid of ___(a)___ 89. ___(a)___ (Ti)
bacteria has now been modified into a cloning vector ____(b)___
which is ____(b)___ to the plant.
Correct for a & b. a b
(1) a – salmonella, b – pathogenic (1) a – b–
(2) a – agrobacterium, b – non-pathogenic (2) a – b–
(3) a – agrobacterium, b – pathogenic (3) a – b–
(4) a – VIR, b – T-DNA (4) a – VIR, b – T-DNA
90. Read the following statement. 90.
(A) DNA is hydrophobic molecule (A) DNA
(B) DNA can pass easily through cell membrane (B) DNA,
without treatment of host.
(C) To make host competent it should be treated with (C) (competent)
a specific concentration of monovalent anion.
How many of above are incorrect.
(1) one (2) two (3) three (4) zero (1) (2) (3) (4)
91. Startegy used to prevent nematode infection of tobacco 91.
roots is :
(1) Use of agrochemicals (1)
(2) Bt toxin gene (2) Bt
(3) Gene mutation (3)
(4) RNA-interference (4) RNA-
92. Which one of the following is not used as 92.
bio-fertilizer
(1) Bacillus thuringensis (2) Anabeana (1) Bacillus thuringensis (2) Anabeana
(3) Nostoc (4) Rhizobium (3) Nostoc (4) Rhizobium
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93. Which of the following statement are correct ? 93.
(A) Bt-toxin is produced by a bacterium called Bacillus (1) Bt-
thuringienesis
(B) The choice of gene depends upon the crop and (2)
the targeted pest, as most Bt-toxins are insect Bt-
group specific.
(C) Bt-cotton helped to reduce post harvest losses. (3) Bt-
(D) Bt-toxin protein exists as inactive protoxin but once
an insect ingest due to alkaline pH it becomes active. (4) Bt-
(1) A & B only alkaline pH
(2) B, C & D
(3) A, B, C & D (1) A B (2) B, C D
(4) A, B & D (3) A, B, C D (4) A, B D
94. The microbe provides a natural system for gene 94.
transfer to produce transgenic palnts is :
(1) E.coli (1) E.coli
(2) Pseudomones putida (2) Pseudomones putida
(3) Bacillus thuringinesis (3) Bacillus thuringinesis
(4) Agrobacterium tumefacines (4) Agrobacterium tumefacines
95. Transgenic plants are produced by introducing new 95.
genes by using :
(1) Mutation (2) Crossing over (1) Mutation (2) Crossing over
(3) Radiation (4) Gene gun (3) Radiation (4) Gene gun
96. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing 96. mRNA (silencing)
transgenic plants resistant to :
(1) Boll Worms (2) Nematodes (1) Boll Worms (2) Nematodes
(3) Viruses (4) Bacteria (3) Viruses (4) Bacteria
97. In transgenics, expression of target gene in target 97.
tissue is determined by :
(1) Enhancer (2) Promoter (1) Enhancer (2) Promoter
(3) Reporter (4) Attenuator (3) Reporter (4) Attenuator
98. The number of aminoacids contained in insulin is : 98. Insulin
(1) 106 (2) 86 (1) 106 (2) 86
(3) 51 (4) 21 (3) 51 (4) 21
99. Cry 1A(b) gene is resistant to 99. Cry 1A(b)
(1) Boll worm (2) Cornborer (1) Boll worm (2) Cornborer
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Honey bees (3) Mosquitoes (4) Honey bees
100. Golden rice is yellow in colour due to presence of : 100.
(1) B-corotene (1) B-
(2) Vitamin B1 (2) B1
(3) Complex genetic material (3)
(4) Riboflavin (4)
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101. Potential pathogens for bioweapons are : 101.
(1) Bacillus anthracis (1) Bacillus anthracis
(2) Yerisina pestis (2) Yerisina pestis
(3) Vibrio cholerae (3) Vibrio cholerae
(4) All of these (4) All of these
102. The first introduced transgenic crop in India (2002) 102. (2002)
is :
(1) Bt-cotton (2) Bt-brinjal (1) Bt- (2) Bt-
(3) Bt-rice (4) Bt-turmeric (3) Bt- (4) Bt-
103. A transgenic plant golden rice enhanced nutritional 103.
value of food :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B2 (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B2
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
104. The crystals of Bt-toxin produced by some bacteria 104.
do not kill the bacteria themselves because :
(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin (1)
(2) Toxin is inactive (2)
(3) Toxin is immature (3)
(4) Bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac (4)
105. In RNAi genes are silenced by : 105. RNAi
(1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA (1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA
(3) ssDNA (4) dsDNA (3) ssDNA (4) dsDNA
106. In which of the following plants, resistance against a 106. RNAi
nematode was introduced by implying RNAi?
(1) Tomato (2) Tobacco (1) (2)
(3) Golden rice (4) Bt-cotton (3) (4) Bt-
107. Which one of the following technique is used to 107. GM
produce the GM crops ?
(1) Micropropagation (1)
(2) Somatic hybridiszation (2)
(3) r-DNA technology (3) r-DNA
(4) Cross breeding (4)
108. In E.CoRI, E is strand for : 108. E.CoRI , E
(1) Strain (2) Species (1) (2)
(3) Genus (4) Order (3) (4)
109. Genetically modified plants have been useful in 109.
money ways except :
(1) Enhanced nutritional value of good (1)
(2) Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (2)
(3) Made crops more tolerat to abiotics (3)
(4) Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants (4)
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110. The process of separation and purification of 110.
expressed protein before marketing is called :
(1) Bioprocessing (1)
(2) Biofortification (2)
(3) Downstream processing (3)
(4) Upstream processing (4)
111. Which of the following is correct match ? 111.
(1) Insuling – SCID disease (1) – SCID
(2) ADA gene – Diabetes (2) ADA gene – Diabetes
(3) -1 antitrypsin – Cancer (3) -1 antitrypsin – Cancer
(4) Golden Rice – Vitamin-A (4) Golden Rice – Vitamin-A
112. The following diagram represents : 112.
S S S S
A Peptide (21 AA) A Peptide (21 AA)
S S S S
S S S S
B Peptide (30 AA) B Peptide (30 AA)
(1) Proinsulin (1) Proinsulin

(2) Immature insulin (2) Immature insulin
(3) Functional insulin (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
113. Match the column-I with column-II. 113. -I -II
(a) -1 antitrypsin (i) Molcular diagonsis (a) -1 (i)
(b) Rosie cow (ii) Mice (b) (ii)
(c) Polio vaccine (iii) Alpha lactabumin (c) (iii)
(d) PCR (iv) Emphysema (d) PCR (iv)
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
114. CryIIAb endotoxins obtained from Bacillus 114. Bacillus thuringensis CryIIAb
thuringensis are effectove against :
(1) Nematodes (2) Cotton Bollworms (1) (2)
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Corn borer (3) Mosquitoes (4)
115. Which technique is now routinely used to detect HIV 115. AIDS HIV
in suspected AIDS patients ?
(1) PCR (2) ELISA (1) PCR (2) ELISA
(3) RFLP (4) Western blotting (3) RFLP (4) Western blotting
116. Which of the following companies started 116. 1983
manufacturing humulin in year 1983
(1) Eli lilly (2) Gene tech (1) Eli lilly (2) Gene tech
(3) GEAC (4) None of these (3) GEAC (4) None of these
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117. The estimated varieties of rice in India is : 117.
(1) 200000 (2) 100000 (1) 200000 (2) 100000
(3) 20000 (4) 50000 (3) 20000 (4) 50000
118. How many documented varities of Basmati are grown 118.
in India : (1) 17 (2) 27
(1) 17 (2) 27 (3) 37 (4) 47 (3) 37 (4) 47
119. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector 119. DNA
for introducing a DNA fragment in plants :
(1) Retrovirus (2) Ti-plasmid (1) Retrovirus (2) Ti-plasmid
(3) -phage (4) pBR322 (3) -phage (4) pBR322
120. The C-peptide is : 120. C-
(1) Not present in proinsulin (1)
(2) Present in mature insulin (2)
(3) Removed during maturation of insulin (3)
(4) Also present in artificial insulin (4)
121. CryIAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus 121. Bacillus thuringiensis CryIAc endotoxim
thuringiensis are effective against.
(1) Nematodes (2) Bollworms (1) Nematodes (2) Bollworms
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Flies (3) Mosquitoes (4) Flies
122. Denaturation, annealing and extension are the correct 122.
order of steps in :
(1) RNAi (2) PCR (3) r-DNA (4) BOD (1) RNAi (2) PCR (3) r-DNA (4) BOD
123. Strategy used in prevent nematode infection of tobacco 123. nematode
roots is :
(1) Use of agrochemicals (2) Bt-toxin gene (1) (2) Bt-toxin
(3) Gene mutation (4) RNA interference (3) (4) RNA
124. Which one is not a transgenic product ? 124.
(1) Flavr savr tomato (1) Flavr savr tomato
(2) Herbicide resistant tobacco (2) Herbicide resistant tobacco
(3) Golden rice (3) Golden rice
(4) Iron fortified rice (4) Iron fortified rice
125. Which of the following is a mismatch regarding the 125.
transgenic plant and its application ?
(1) Golden rice – Vatmin A enriched rice (1) – A
(2) Flavr savr tomato – Delay ripening (2) Flavr savr –
(3) Tobacco – Herbicide resistent (3) –
(4) Bt corn – Resistant of nematode (4) Bt –
126. Golden rice will help in : 126.
(1) Producing petrol like fuel (1)
(2) Making pest resistence (2)
(3) Making herbicide tolerance (3)
(4) Enhance nutritional valine (4)
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127. Maturation of proinsulin into insulin takes place after. 127.
(1) Removal of C-peptide (1) C-peptide
(2) Removal of disulphide bridge (2) Disulphide bridge
(3) Addition of C-peptide (3) C-peptide
(4) Removal of A-peptide (4) A-peptide
128. From which of the following technique early diagnosis 128.
of disease is/are not possible.
(a) ELISA (b) Urine analysis (a) ELISA (b)
(c) PCR (d) Serum analysis (c) PCR (d)
(e) RDT (e) RDT
(1) a, b, d (2) a, c, e (3) a, b (4) b, d (1) a, b, d (2) a, c, e (3) a, b (4) b, d
129. ADA- deficiency occurs due to the : 129. ADA-
(1) Deletion (2) Translocation (1) (2) Translocation
(3) Substitution (4) Inversion (3) Substitution (4)
130. From all trangeinc animals, 95% of all existing 130. 95%
transgenic animals are : (1) (2)
(1) Pig (2) Sheep (3) Cow (4) Mice (3) (4)
131. Which of the following is the correct match ? 131.
(1) CryIAb – Cotton bollworm (1) CryIAb – Cotton bollworm
(2) CryIAc – Cotton bollworm (2) CryIAc – Cotton bollworm
(3) CryIAc – Corn borer (3) CryIAc – Corn borer
(4) CryIIAb – Corn borer (4) CryIIAb – Corn borer
132. Atransgenic food crop which may help in solving the 132.
problem of night blindness in developing contries is :
(1) Bt - rice (2) Bt - Brinjal (1) Bt - (2) Bt -
(3) Golden rice (4) Both (1) & (3) (3) (4) (1) (3)
133. First clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4 133. 1990
year old girl child for treating :
(1) Insulin dependent diabetes (1)
(2) Phenyl ketonuria (2)
(3) Cystic fibrosis (3)
(4) Adenosine deaminase deficiency (4)
134. Root knot disease of tobacco can be manage by : 134.
(1) Bt - technology (1) Bt -
(2) RNA i technique (2) RNA i
(3) Chemiacl herbicide (3)
(4) Organic farming (4)
135. Which is not a basic step of r-DNA technology? 135. r-DNA
(1) Formation of recombinant DNA (1) DNA
(2) PCR (2) PCR
(3) Transfer of desired gene into host cell (3)
(4) Selection of tranformed and recombinant host cell (4)
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prohibited.
Sheet.

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1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 2 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
4 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 2 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 2 4 2 2 2 3 3 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 4 2 3 2 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
4 1 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 3
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
2 2 4 4 4 4 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 2 2
HINT – SHEET
51. NCERT XII, Pg # 204 73. NCERT XII, Pg # 200, 201, 204
55. NCERT XII, Pg # 196, 201, 209, 211 77. NCERT XII, Pg # 203
58. NCERT XII, Pg # 200, 196, 201, 211 80. NCERT XII, Pg # 194
60. NCERT XII, Pg # 200, 204, 214 82. NCERT XII, Pg # 203
65. NCERT XII, Pg # 195 to 196 87. NCERT XII, Pg # 204 to 205
@AAKASHDELHI02
@AAKASHDELHI02
®
*1701CMD305219022* NEET(UG)
Bio-Chemistry
4

them.
Answer Sheet.
the Answer Sheet.
( ):
:
:
: in words
( ):
: :
@AAKASHDELHI02

UNIT – 10
CHEMISTRY : GOC-II, Biomolecules, Polymers & Chemistry in everyday life
BIOLOGY : ECOLOGY
(xiii) Organisms and Populations
(xiv) Ecosystem
(xv) Biodiversity and Conservation
(xvi) Environment Issues
@AAKASHDELHI02
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1. Glyptal polymer is obtained from glycol by reacting 1. Glyptal Glycol
it with :
(1) Malonic acid (2) Phthalic acid (1) Malonic acid (2) Phthalic acid
(3) Meleic acid (4) Acetic acid (3) Meleic acid (4) Acetic acid
2. An example of natural biopolymer is 2.
(1) Nylon (2) Rubber (1) Nylon (2) Rubber
(3) Teflon (4) DNA (3) Teflon (4) DNA
3. Which one of the following statement is wrong ? 3.
(1) PVC stands for polyvinyl chloride (1) PVC stands for polyvinyl chloride
(2) PTEF stand for teflon (2) PTEF stand for teflon
(3) PMMA stand for polymethyl acrylate (3) PMMA stand for polymethyl acrylate
(4) Buna-S stand for natural rubber (4) Buna-S stand for natural rubber
4. Which has the maximum protein 4.
(1) Groundnut (1) Groundnut
(2) Cow-milk (2) Cow-milk
(3) Egg (3) Egg
(4) Wheat (4) Wheat
5. The disaccharide present in milk is ? 5. disaccharide
(1) Sucrose (1) Sucrose
(2) Lactose (2) Lactose
(3) Maltose (3) Maltose
6. Which gives red colour with Fehling's solution ? 6. Fehling's
(1) Glucose (2) Cellulose (1) Glucose (2) Cellulose
(3) Benzaldehyde (4) Cane suger (3) Benzaldehyde (4) Cane suger
7. Enzyme are ? 7.
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Lipid (1) (2)
(3) Proteins (4) None of these (3) (4)
8. The number of chiral carbon atoms in -D-(+) glucose 8. -D-(+) glucose
molecule is :
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) 4 (4) 6
9. Chloramphenicol in an 9. Chloramphenicol
(1) Analgesic (1) Analgesic
(2) Anaosthetic (2) Anaosthetic
(3) Antibiotic (3) Antibiotic
(4) Antiseptic (4) Antiseptic
10. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of 10. Arsenic
(1) Taundice (1) Taundice
(2) Typhoid (2) Typhoid
(3) Syphilis (3) Syphilis
(4) Cholera (4) Cholera
@AAKASHDELHI02
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11. The major product in the following reaction is : 11.
OC2H5 OC2H5

HBr
 ? 
HBr
 ?
OH Br OH Br
(1) + C2H5 – Br (2) C2H5OH + (1) + C2H5 – Br (2) C2H5OH +
Br Br
(3) + CH3–CHO (4) All of these (3) + CH3–CHO (4)
12. CH3  CH  CH  CH 3 

HBr
 Major product? 12. CH3  CH  CH  CH 3 
HBr
 ?
| | | |
CH3 OH CH3 OH
CH3  CH  CH  CH 3 CH3  CH  CH  CH 3
(1) | | (1) | |
CH3 Br CH3 Br
CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  Br CH 3  CH  CH 2  CH 2  Br
(2) | (2) |
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3  CH  C  CH 3 CH 3  CH  C  CH 3
(3) | || (3) | ||
CH 3 O CH 3 O
Br Br
| |
CH 3  C  CH 2  CH3 CH 3  C  CH 2  CH3
(4) | (4) |
CH 3 CH 3
13. Identify the correct order of boiling point of the 13.

following compounds.
(I) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH (I) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(II) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO (II) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
(III) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH (III) CH3–CH2–CH2–COOH
(1) I > II > III (1) I > II > III
(2) III > II > I (2) III > II > I
(3) III > I > II (3) III > I > II
(4) I > III > I (4) I > III > I
@AAKASHDELHI02

14. The correct order of given carbonyl compounds 14.
towards nucleophilic addition reaction is :
(1) Benzaldehyde > P-Toloadehyde > (1) Benzaldehyde > P-Toloadehyde >
P-Nitrobenzaldehide P-Nitrobenzaldehide
(2) P-Nitrobenzaldehyde > Benzaldehyde > (2) P-Nitrobenzaldehyde > Benzaldehyde >
P-Tolualdehyde P-Tolualdehyde
(3) P-Talualdehyde > Benzoldehyde > (3) P-Talualdehyde > Benzoldehyde >
P-Nitrobenzaldehyde P-Nitrobenzaldehyde
O NaOH O NaOH
A+B A+B
I2 I2
C CH3 C CH3
15. 15.
H2 CrO4 C H2 CrO4 C
Identify A, B and C ? A, B C ?
(1) CHI3, C6H5–COOH, C6H5–COONa (1) CHI3, C6H5–COOH, C6H5–COONa
(2) C6H5–COONa, I2, C6H5–CHO (2) C6H5–COONa, I2, C6H5–CHO
(3) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–COOH (3) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–COOH
(4) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–CHO (4) CHI3, C6H5–COONa, C6H5–CHO
16. C 6 H 5 –CH=O+CH 3 –CH 2 –CHO 
dil
NaOH
 Major 16. C 6 H 5 –CH=O+CH 3 –CH 2 –CHO 
dil
NaOH

product ? ?
(1) C6H5–COONa, CH3–CH2–CH2–OH (1) C6H5–COONa, CH3–CH2–CH2–OH
(2) C6 H5  CH  C  CHO (2) C6 H5  CH  C  CHO
| |
CH 3 CH 3
(3) C6H5–CH2–CH=CH–CHO (3) C6H5–CH2–CH=CH–CHO
(4) C6 H5  CH  CH  CHO (4) C6 H5  CH  CH  CHO
| | | |
OH CH3 OH CH3
CH3 CH3
NaNO 2  HCl NaNO 2  HCl

17. 
Br2 / Fe
 A 
Sn / HCl B 
0 5 C
C 17. 
Br2 / Fe
 A 
Sn / HCl B 
0 5 C
C
NO2 NO2
 D  E  D 
KMnO 4 KMnO 4
H 3 PO 2
OH  
H 3 PO 2
OH 
E
Final product is ?
CH3 COOH CH3 COOH
Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)
Br Br
COOH COOH
COOH COOH
Br Br
(3) Br (4) (3) Br (4)
N2 Cl N2 Cl
@AAKASHDELHI02

18. C6H5 –N 2Cl 
CuCN
 A 
H 2O/H 
 B 
NH 3

C 18. C6H5 –N 2Cl 
CuCN
 A 
H 2O/H 
 B 
NH 3

C

NaOBr
 D NaOBr
 D
Identify the 'C' ? 'C' ?
(1) C6H5–COOH (2) C6H5–NH2 (1) C6H5–COOH (2) C6H5–NH2
(3) C6 H5  C  NH 2 (4) C6H5–CN (3) C6 H5  C  NH 2 (4) C6H5–CN
|| ||
O O
19. The correct order of given compounds towards SN1 reaction? 19. SN1
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br < (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br < (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br
< (CH3)3C–Br < (CH3)3C–Br
(2) (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br < CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br (2) (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br < CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
< (CH3)3C–Br < (CH3)3C–Br
(3) (CH 3 ) 3 C–Br < CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 –CH 2 –Br < (3) (CH 3 ) 3 C–Br < CH 3 –CH 2 –CH 2 –CH 2 –Br <
(CH3)2CH–CH2–Br (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br
(4) (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br < (CH3)3C–Br < CH3–CH2– (4) (CH3)2CH–CH2–Br<(CH3)3C–Br<CH3–CH2–CH2
CH2–CH2–Br –CH2–Br
20. Correct product of the following reaction ? 20.
C6H5–CH2–CH=CH2+HBr  P eroxide
? C6H5–CH2–CH=CH2+HBr  P eroxide
?
(1) C6 H5  CH  CH2  CH3 (1) C6 H5  CH  CH 2  CH3
| |
Br Br
(2) C6 H5  CH2  CH  CH3 (2) C6 H5  CH2  CH  CH3
| |
Br Br
(3) C6H5–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br (3) C6H5–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
21. Identify the correct order of M.P. of the following compounds. 21.
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(1) > > (1) > >
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(2) > > (2) > >
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(3) > > (3) > >
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
(4) > > (4) > >

Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
@AAKASHDELHI02

O O
CH2 C OCH3 CH2 C OCH3
22. 
NaBH4
 'A' A is ? 22. 
NaBH4
 'A' A ?
O O
OH OH
(1) CH2 CH2 OH + CH3 + OH (1) CH2 CH2 OH + CH3 + OH
O O
CH2 CH CH3 CH2 CH CH3
(2) (2)
OH OH
OH OH
CH2 C OCH3 CH2 C OCH3
(3) (3)
O O
O O
(4) CH2 CH2 OH + CH3–OH (4) CH2 CH2 OH + CH3–OH
23. A hydrocarbon C5H10 does not react with Cl2 in dark 23. C5H10 , Cl2
but gives a single monlchloro compounds C5H9Cl in
bright sunlight. Identify the hydrocarbon : C5H9Cl
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3 (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
CH 3 CH 3
| |
(2) CH 3  C  CH 3 (2) CH 3  C  CH 3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
(3) (3)
(4) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3 (4) CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
@AAKASHDELHI02

CH2 OH CH2 OH
24. + HCl 
 'A'.
Heat 24. + HCl 
Heat
 'A'.
HO HO
'A' is : 'A'
CH2 Cl CH2 Cl
(1) (1)
Cl Cl
CH2 Cl CH2 Cl
(2) (2)
HO HO
CH2 OH CH2 OH
(3) (3)
Cl Cl
CH2 Cl CH2 Cl
(4) HO (4) HO
Cl Cl
25. Amino acids are building blocks of 25.
(1) Carbhydrates (1)
(2) Fats (2)
(3) Proteins (3)
(4) Vitamins (4)
26. Arragne the following polymers in increasing order 26. intermolecular
of their intermolecular forces
Polythene, Buna-S, Nylon-66 Polythene, Buna-S, Nylon-66
(1) Buna-S < Nylon-66 < Polythene (1) Buna-S < Nylon-66 < Polythene
(2) Nylon-66 < Buna-S < Polythene (2) Nylon-66 < Buna-S < Polythene
(3) Buna-S < Polythene < Nylon-66 (3) Buna-S < Polythene < Nylon-66
(4) Nylon-66 < Polythene < Buna-S (4) Nylon-66 < Polythene < Buna-S
27. CH3–CH=CH–Ph+NOCl  'P'. 27. CH3–CH=CH–Ph+NOCl  'P'.
Identify the addition products :
(1) CH 3  CH  CH  Ph (2) CH 3  CH  CH  Ph (1) CH3  CH  CH  Ph (2) CH3  CH  CH  Ph

| | | | | | | |
Cl NO NO Cl Cl NO NO Cl
Cl Cl
| |
(3) CH 3  CH  C  Ph (4) CH 2  CH 2  CH  Ph (3) CH 3  CH  C  Ph (4) CH 2  CH 2  CH  Ph
| | | | | |
NO NO Cl NO NO Cl
@AAKASHDELHI02

28. Suppure the following reaction
28. H
+ CH 3 –CH=CH 2  A 
O2
 B
H
+ CH 3 –CH=CH 2  A 
O2
 B
H / 
  C + acetone
H / 
  C + acetone B
The structure of intermediate compound B will be
OH
OH
(1)
(1)
CH3
CH3
OH C H
OH C H
(2) CH3
(2) CH3
CH3 CH3
CH3 C O O H CH3 C O O H
(3) (3)
CH3 CH CH2 O CH3 CH CH2 O

(4) (4)
29. Which is copolymer ? 29.

(1) Nylon-6 (2) Nylon-6,6 (1) Nylon-6 (2) Nylon-6,6
(3) PVC (4) Polystyrene (3) PVC (4) Polystyrene
NH2 NH2
 X  Y
LiAlH 4
30. 
CHCl3 / KOH
 H 2O 30. 
CHCl3 / KOH
 X 
LiAlH 4
H 2O
 Y

Y is : Y :
(1) Ph–NH–CH3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2 (1) Ph–NH–CH3 (2) Ph–CH2–NH2
Ph  NH  C  H Ph  NH  C  H
(3) || (4) Ph  N  C ||
O (3) (4) Ph  N  C
O
31. Which of the following is Narcotic analgesic ? 31.
(1) Paracetamole (2) Asprin (1) Paracetamole (2) Asprin
(3) Morphene (4) Chloroquine (3) Morphene (4) Chloroquine
@AAKASHDELHI02
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32. Non-stick cookwares generally have a coating to 32. (Non-stick)
polymer, where monomer is ?
(1) CH2=CH2 (2) CH2=CH–CN (1) CH2=CH2 (2) CH2=CH–CN
(3) CH2=CH–Cl (4) CF2=CF2 (3) CH2=CH–Cl (4) CF2=CF2
33. Most basic -amino acid is ? 33. -
(1) Arginine (2) Histidine (1) Arginine (2) Histidine
(3) Lyrine (4) Alamine (3) Lyrine (4) Alamine
34. Chloroamphenicol is an ? 34.
(1) Antibiotic narrow spectrum (1)
(2) Antibiotic limited spectrum (2)
(3) Antibiotic broad spectrum (3)
(4) Antiseptic (4)
35. Natural rubber is a polymer of ? 35.
CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2 CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2
(1) | (1) |
CH 3 CH 3
CH 2  C  CH  CH 2 CH 2  C  CH  CH 2
(2) | (2) |
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3  C  CH  CH 3 CH 3  C  CH  CH 3
(3) | (3) |
Cl Cl
CH 2  C  CH  CH 2 CH 2  C  CH  CH 2
(4) | (4) |
Cl Cl
NH2 NH2
36. HNO3  H 2SO4

  Major product ? 36. HNO3  H 2SO4
  ?
NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
(1) (2) (1) (2)

NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
NH2 NH2
NH2 NO2 NH2 NO2
NO2 NO2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
NO2 NO2
@AAKASHDELHI02
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37. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin? 37.
(1) Vitamin-B (1) -B
(2) Vitamin-D (2) -D
(3) Vitamin-E (3) -E
(4) Vitamin-A (4) -A
38. R  C  NH 2 
Br2  KOH
 R–NH2 38. R  C  NH 2 
Br2  KOH
 R–NH2
|| ||
O O
This reaction is known as :
(1) Hell valhard - Zelinky reaction (1) Hell valhard - Zelinky reaction
(2) Hunsdicker reaction (2) Hunsdicker reaction
(3) Hoff Mann bormamide reaction (3) Hoff Mann bormamide reaction
(4) Curtiur reaction (4) Curtiur reaction
O O
C NH2 C NH2
39. 
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H2 O
 Product is : 39. 
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H2 O

O O
OH NH2 OH NH2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
OH O OH O
O O
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
OH OH OH OH
40. The reagent used for separation and purification of 40.

carbonyl compound ?
(1) 2, 4-DNP (1) 2, 4-DNP
(2) NaHSO3 (2) NaHSO3
(3) HCN (3) HCN
(4) NaCl (4) NaCl
41. Equanil is : 41. Equanil
(1) Artifical sweetener (1)
(2) Tranqurllizer (2)
(3) Antihistamine (3)
(4) Antifertility drug (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02
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O O
42. [Ag( NH3 ) 2 ]
  Product is : 42. 

[Ag( NH3 ) 2 ]

CHO CHO
O OH O OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH2–OH COOH CH2–OH COOH
O OH O OH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

COOH CHO COOH CHO
43. An organic compound with the molecular formula 43. C9 H10 O
C9H10O forms 2,4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollen's 2,4-DNP
reagent and undergoces cannizzaro raction on
vijorous oxidation it gives 1,2-benzene dicarboxylic 1,2-benzene dicarboxylic
acid. Identify the compound ?
CHO CH3 CHO CH3

C=O C=O
(1) (2) CH3 (1) (2) CH3
C2H5 C2H5
CH2 OH CH2 OH
CHO CHO
C2H5 C2H5
(3) (4) (3) (4)
C2H5 C2 H5
+ – + –
N2 Cl N2 Cl
+ HBF4 
 A  + HBF4 
 A 
NaNO 2 NaNO 2
44. Cu , B, Final product? 44. Cu , B, ?
F NO2 Cl F F NO2 Cl F
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
NO2 NO2
@AAKASHDELHI02
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45. Tincture of Iodine is a ? 45. (Tincture)
(1) Disinfectant (2) Antibiotic (1) Disinfectant (2) Antibiotic
(3) Antiseptic (4) Analgesic (3) Antiseptic (4) Analgesic
46. When did the water (Prevention and control of 46.
pollution) Act came into operation in India ?
(1) 1969 (2) 1972 (3) 1976 (4) 1974 (1) 1969 (2) 1972 (3) 1976 (4) 1974
47. In India, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) 47. _____
Act come into force in _____, but was amended in _____
_____ to include noise as an air pollutant.
(1) 1981, 1987 (2) 1987, 2000 (1) 1981, 1987 (2) 1987, 2000
(3) 2003, 2010 (4) 2010, 2017 (3) 2003, 2010 (4) 2010, 2017
48. Effects of noise pollution include all, except. 48.
(1) Sleeplessness (1)
(2) Increased heart beat (2)
(3) Altered breathing pattern (3)
(4) Increased RBC number (4) RBC
49. Which pollutant gas is released by ruminant animals? 49.
(1) CH4 (2) CO2 (3) CO (4) NO2 (1) CH4 (2) CO2 (3) CO (4) NO2
50. Ozone depletion in atmosphere would result in 50.
(1) Forest fires (1)
(2) Global warming (2)
(3) Increased incidence skin cancer (3)
51. Algal blooms in a lake 51.
(1) Leads to oxygen depletion (1)
(2) Increase CO2 level (2) CO2
(3) Kills fishes and other organisms (3)
52. If the river water is polluted with domestic sewage 52.
and garbage it leads to the depletion of
(1) CO2 (2) CO (1) CO2 (2) CO
(3) O2 (4) All the above (3) O2 (4)
53. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was 53.
(1) Methyl isocyanate (1)
(2) Potassium isothiocyanate (2)
(3) Sodium isothiocyanate (3)
(4) Ethyl isothiocyanate (4)
54. Monteral protocol is related to 54.
(1) Ozone depletion (1)
(2) Global warming (2)
(3) Climatic changes (3)
(4) Biodiversity hot spot (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02
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55. BOD is related to : 55. BOD
(1) Detergents (2) Air pollution (1) (2)
(3) Inorganic pollutants (4) Organic pollutants (3) (4)
56. Lichens are best ecological indicator of 56.
(1) Air pollution (2) Water pollution (1) (2)
(3) Noise pollution (4) All of these (3) (4)
57. A disease caused by eating fish contaminated by industrial 57.
waste containing mercury compounds is known as
(1) Hiroshima disease (2) Minamata disease (1) (2)
(3) Itai-itai disease (4) Osteosclerosis (3) (4)
58. Which is not a nondegradable pollutant? 58.
(1) DDT (2) Sewage (1) DDT (2)
(3) Plastics (4) Heavy metals (3) (4)
59. Snow blindness is caused by 59.
(1) UV radiations (2) X-rays (1) UV (2) X-
(3) Gamma rays (4) Age factors (3) (4)
60. Itati-itai, a bone softening disease is due to 60.
(1) Cadmium (2) Mercury (1) (2)
(3) Zinc (4) Lead (3) (4)
61. The main effect of DDT on birds is 61. DDT
(1) Fewer feathers (2) Stunted growth (1) (2)
(3) Blindness (4) Thinneng of egg shells (3) (4)
62. Supersonic jets cause thinning of 62.
(1) O3 layer (2) SO2 layer (1) O3 (2) SO2
(3) O2 layer (4) None of the above (3) O2 (4)
63. CO2, CH4, N2O and CFCs are called greenhouse 63. CO2, CH4, N2O CFCs
gases, because they can absorb
(1) Ultraviolet radiation (1)
(2) Long wave (infrared) radiation (2)
(3) Visible light radiation (3)
(4) X-rays radiation (4) X-
64. Kyoto protocol is 64.
(1) To mitigate the climatic change (1)
(2) To check depletion of ozone layer (2)
(3) To check soil erosion (3)
(4) To preserve water resources (4)
65. Global warming will cause 65.
(1) Rise in level of oceans (1)
(2) Decrease in glaciers (2)
(3) Reduction in ice caps (3)
(4) All the above (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02
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66. SPM causes 66. SPM
(1) Respiratory diseases (1)
(2) Premature death (2)
(3) Inflammation and damage to the lungs (3)
67. A fine powder of recycled modified plastic, called 67.
(1) Bitumen (2) Plastic waste (1) (2)
(3) Polyblend (4) Ethylene (3) (4)
68. Montreal Protocol was signed in 68.
(1) 1978 (2) 1987 (1) 1978 (2) 1987
(3) 1991 (4) 1993 (3) 1991 (4) 1993
69. The Kangaroo rat is capable of meeting all its water 69.
requirements through its one of the following reason
(1) Internal protein oxidation (1)
(2) Internal fat oxidation (2)
(3) Ability to dilute its urine (3)
(4) Moderate volume of water is used to remove (4)
excretory product
70. Soldiers of Indian army experienced the altitude 70.
sickness at Siachen glacier. The symptoms of the
sickness include all, except
(1) Nausea and heart palpitation (1)
(2) Increased breathing rate (2)
(3) Increasing the oxygen binding capacity of hemoglobin (3)
(4) Increased RBC production (4) RBC
71. Which of the following is a biome? 71.
(1) Wheat field (1)
(2) Rain water pond (2)
(3) Grass field (3)
(4) Deciduous forest (4)
72. Which one is not a factor of the abiotic environment? 72.
(1) Sunlight (2) Decomposers (1) (2)
(3) Water (4) Temperature (3) (4)
73. In a grassland, there are 200 Cyanodon grass at the 73. 2010 200
end of year 2010. In every month 20 plants are added. 20 2012
What would be the population and birth rate if
calculated in the beginning of year 2012?
(1) 440 and 1.2 individual per grass per year (1) 440 1.2
@AAKASHDELHI02
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74. After exponential increase, population becomes 74.
stagnant. The growth curve is
(1) J-shaped (2) S-shaped (1) J- (2) S-
(3) Fluctuating (4) Circular (3) (4)
75. Population of an insect species increases explosively 75.
during rainy season and then disappears at the end o
the season, it shows
(1) Food plants mature and die at the end of rainy season (1)
(2) Population of predators increases enormously (2)
(3) Population growth curve is J-shaped (3) J-
(4) Population growth curve is S-shaped (4) S-
76. dN/dt = rN represents 76. dN/dt = rN
(1) Environmental resistance (1)
(2) Carrying capacity (2)
(3) Vital index (3)
(4) Exponential growth (4)
77. The graphic representation of age groups of a 77.
population given here, shows
Post-reproductive
Reproductive
Pre-reproductive
(1) Declining population (2) Increasing population (1) (2)

(3) Stable population (4) Fluctuating population (3) (4)
78. When population reaches carrying capacity 78.
(1) Mortality = Birth Rate (1) =
(2) Natality > Birth Rate (2) >
(3) Mortality < Birth Rate (3) <
79. Find odd one (w.r.t. life history variations strategy) 79. ( )
(1) Pigeon (1)
(2) Bamboo (2)
(3) Mustard (3)
(4) Pacific salmon fish (4)
80. (K-N)/K represents ____ in ecology 80. (K-N)/K ____
(1) Carrying capacity (1)
(2) Environmental resistance (2)
(3) Vital index (3)
(4) Crash phase (4)
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81. More than 10 species of invertebrates became extinct 81.
within a year in rocky intertidal communities of 10
American pacific coast due to
(1) Introduction of pisaster (1)
(2) Removal of pisaster (2)
(3) Introduction of prey (3)
(4) Introduction of many predators (4)
82. Mutualism and proto-cooperation are 82.
(1) Positive interactions (2) Negative interactions (1) (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these (3) (1) (2) (4)
83. Association of nitrogen fixing bacteria with the 83.
leguminous plant roots is
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (1) (2)
(3) Neutralism (4) Parasitism (3) (4)
84. Which is a protective device in animals ? 84.
(1) Competition (2) Commensalism (1) (2)
(3) Mimicry (4) Symbiosis (3) (4)
85. Species interaction with negative influence on both is 85.
(1) Predation (2) Parasitism (1) (2)
(3) Amensaltsm (4) Competition (3) (4)
86. Obligatory mutually beneficial relationship is 86.
represented by
(1) Symbiosis (2) Protocooperation (1) (2)
(3) Commensalism (4) Mimicry (3) (4)
87. A negative interaction in which Cuckoo lays its eggs in 87.
the nest of Crow and lets the crow incubate them is called
(1) Hyperparasitism (1)
(2) Mutualism (2)
(3) Brood parasitism (3)
(4) Proto-coperation (4)
88. Types of interaction that occur în prédation and 88.
parasitism are (1) +, + (2) –, –
(1) +, + (2) –, – (3) +, 0 (4) +, – (3) +, 0 (4) +, –
89. Association between balanus and chathamalus 89.
barnacles is (1) (2)
(1) Symbiosis (2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism (4) Competition (3) (4)
90. Killing an organism for feeding is 90.
(1) Predation (1)
(2) Parasitism (2)
(3) Symbiosis (3)
(4) Exploitation (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02
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91. Mimicry is a device for 91.
(1) Concealment from predator (1)
(2) Concealment from prey (2)
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) (2)
(4) Becoming conspicuous (4)
92. Earliest settlers on barren lands so called farmers of 92.
nature are
(1) Annual grasses (2) Perennial grasses (1) (2)
(3) Lichens (4) Mycorrhiza (3) (4)
93. A detrivore is 93.
(1) Animal feeding on plant matter (1)
(2) Animal feeding on decaying organic matter (2)
(3) A plant feeding on an animal (3)
(4) Animal feeding on another animal (4)
94. Highest annual net primary productivity is of 94.
(1) Tropical deciduous forest (1)
(2) Temperate evergreen forest (2)
(3) Temperate deciduous forest (3)
(4) Tropical rain forest (4)
95. CO2 and O2 balance in atmosphere is due to 95. CO2 O2
(1) Photosynthesis (1)
(2) Respiration (2)
(3) Leaf anatomy (3)
(4) Photorespiration (4)
96. Ecological pyramids were given by 96.
(1) Elton (1)
(2) Haeckel (2)
(3) Odum (3)
(4) Reiter (4)
97. In terrestrial ecosystem, maximum energy is present 97.
in (1) T3 (2) T2
(1) T3 (2) T2 (3) T1 (4) T4 (3) T1 (4) T4
98. An ecosystem is an interacting system of 98.
(1) Communities (1)
(2) Communities and their environment (2)
(3) Populations (3)
(4) Individuals (4)
99. Which one is the correct food chain? 99.
(1) Eagle  Snake  Grasshopper  Grass  Frog (1)    
(2) Frog  Snake  Eagle  Grasshopper  Grass (2)    
(3) Grasshopper  Grass  Snake  Frog  Eagle (3)    
(4) Grass  Grasshopper  Frog  Snake  Eagle (4)    
@AAKASHDELHI02
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100. Who among the following have recently put price tags 100.
on ecosystem services i.e. nature's life-support services?
(1) E.P. odum and et al (1) E.P. odum
(2) Dr. R. Mishra and P. Maheshwari (2) Dr. R. Mishra P. Maheshwari
(3) Elton and Tansley (3) Elton Tansley
(4) Robert Constanza and et al (4) Robert Constanza
101. Mr X is eating curd. For this he is occupying trophic 101. X
level
(1) First (2) Second (1) (2)
(3) Third (4) Fourth (3) (4)
102. The annual net primary productivity of the whole 102.
biosphere is ______ and ______ billion tones on land ______ ______
and oceans respectively
(1) 170 70 (2) 70 55
(1) 170 and 70 (2) 70 and 55
(3) 55 and 70 (4) 115 and 55 (3) 55 70 (4) 115 55
103. Decomposition rate is slower if detritus is rich in 103.
(1) Chitin and protein (1)
(2) Suberin and glycoprotein (2)
(3) Lignin and chitin (3)
(4) Protein and sugar (4)
104. Rate of conversion of light energy into chemical 104.
energy in an ecosystem is called
(1) Net primary productivity (1)
(2) Gross primary productivity (2)
(3) Net secondary productivity (3)
(4) Gross secondary productivity (4)
105. Nepenthes belongs to the category of 105.
(1) Primary consumer (1)
(2) Producer (2)
(3) Secondary consumer (3)
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) (2) (3)
106. Trophic levels in a food chain are formed by 106.
(1) Producers (1)
(2) Consumers (2)
(3) Decomposers (3)
107. A GFC always starts with 107. GFC
(1) Photosynthesis (2) Respiration (1) (2)
(3) Nitrogen fixation (4) Decay (3) (4)
108. Primary consumers are 108.
(1) Green plants (2) Herbivores (1) (2)
(3) Carnivores (4) All the above (3) (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02

109. Which ecosystem has the highest gross primary 109.
productivity?
(1) Rainforests (2) Coral reefs (1) (2)
(3) Mangroves (4) Grasslands (3) (4)
110. Bio geochemical cycle with gaseous phase is 110.
(1) Carbon (2) Sodium (1) (2)
(3) Phosphorus (4) Magnesium (3) (4)
111. Which one is sedimentary cycle? 111.
(1) Oxygen cycle (1)
(2) Nitrogen cycle (2)
(3) Hydrogen cycle (3)
(4) Phosphorus cycle (4)
112. Which is true? 112.
(1) Tigers prey upon herbivores (1)
(2) Tigers prey upon all types of land animals (2)
(3) Tigers prey upon most of land animals but can (3)
also eat aquatic animals
(4) Tigers prey upon medium-sized land animals (4)
113. The trophic level of a lion in given food chain is 113.
Grass  Deer  Lion  
(1) T3 (2) T2 (3) T4 (4) T1 (1) T3 (2) T2 (3) T4 (4) T1
114. A pond/lake is 114.
(1) A biome (1)
(2) A natural ecosystem (2)
(3) An artificial ecosystem (3)
(4) A community of plants and animals only (4)
115. Food web is constituted by 115.
(1) Various interlinked food chains in a ecosystem (1)
(2) Relationship between animals and plants
(2)
(3) Relationship between organisms and their
environment (3)
(4) Relationship between animals, plants and microbes (4)
116. Total organic matter present in an ecosystem is called 116.
(1) Biomass (2) Biome (1) (2)
(3) Litter (4) Food (3) (4)
117. Arrange the following cities on the basis of decreasing 117.
order of diversity of birds species
A = India, B = New York, C = Colombia A= ,B= ,C=
(1) A, B and C (1) A, B C
(2) C, B and A. (2) C, B A.
(3) A, C and B (3) A, C B
(4) C, A and B (4) C, A B
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
118. Which of the following sample shows higher 118.
diversity?
Sample (a) Sample (b) Sample (c)

Algae = 10 Algae = 7 Algae = 7
Fern = 5 Fern = 7 Fern = 3
Angiosperm = 7
Angiosperm = 6 Angiosperm = 7
Bryophyte = 4
(1) a (1) a
(2) b (2) b
(3) c (3) c
(4) All show equal species diversity (4)
119. Which of the following is incorrect for observation 119. A.V. Humboldt
made by A.V. Humboldt?
(1) Species richness increases with increase of (1)
explored area
(2) S = CAZ (2) S = CAZ
(3) The larger the explored area, more is steepness (3)
of slope of line
(4) Log S = log C + A log Z (4) Log S = log C + A log Z
120. Which of the following vertebrate group occupy 120.
almost 50 percent space in global biodiversity chart 50
of vertebrate?
(1) Mammals (2) Birds (1) (2)
(3) Reptiles (4) Fishes (3) (4)
121. A biosphere reserve preserves 121.
(1) Wild populations (1)
(2) Traditional life styles of tribais (2)
(3) Genetic resources of organisms (3)
122. Forests, called Nation's Green Gold, are important as 122.
(A) They provide timber and medicines (A)
(B) They provide shelter to animal (B)
(C) They mitigat the impact of green house gases. (C)
(D) They provide fibre, firewood and industrail (D)
products
(1) A & B only (1) A B
(2) B & C only (2) B C
(3) A & C only (3) A C
(4) All (4)
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
123. Which one of the following is an example of ex situ 123.
conservation ?
(1) Sanctuary (1)
(2) National Park (2)
(3) Biosphere reserve (3)
(4) Zoological park (4)
124. Hot spots are characterized by 124.
(1) Their location (1)
(2) Number of endemic species with extent of threat
(2)
to them
(3) Developing and developed countries (3)
(4) Presence of hot species (4)
125. Western Ghats come under "Hot Spot" category 125.
because of
(1) High elevation (1)
(2) Tropical climate (2)
(3) Evergreen forest (3)
(4) Highendemism (4)
126. The world summit on sustainable development held 126.
in (1) 1996 (2) 1992
(1) 1996 (2) 1992 (3) 2002 (4) 2000 (3) 2002 (4) 2000
127. A species restricted to a given area is 127.
(1) Endemic species (1)
(2) Allopatric species (2)
(3) Sympatric species (3)
(4) Sibling species (4)
128. Find odd one (w.r.t. Alien species invasions) 128. ( )
(1) Parthenium (1)
(2) Lantana (2)
(3) Ophrys (3)
(4) Clarias (4)
129. India has _____ biosphere reserves _____ national 129. _____ _____
parks and _____ wildlife sanctuaries _____
(1) 14, 90,490 (1) 14, 90,490
(2) 90,14, 400 (2) 90,14, 400
(3) 14,90,450 (3) 14,90,450
(4) 3,14, 34 (4) 3,14, 34
130. Germplasm conservation at liquid nitrogen 130.
temperature is (1) (2)
(1) Stratification (2) Tissue culture
(3) Cryopreservalion (4) In situ conservation (3) (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02

131. Which of the following ecosystem shows upright 131.
pyramids in most of the cases ?
(1) Pyramids of energy (1)
(2) Pyramids of biomass (2)
(3) Pyramids of number (3)
(4) Grassland ecosystem (4)
132. The historic convention on Biological Diversity "____" 132. "____", _____
held in _____ in year ____. ____
(1) The Earth Summit, Rio de Janerio, 1992 (1) , 1992
(2) The World Summit, Kyoto, 1990 (2) , 1990
(3) The Ozone Summit, India, 2007 (3) , 2007
(4) The World Summit, Rio de Janerio, 2003 (4) , 2003
133. Which of the following is not included in "The Evil 133.
Quartet".
(1) Over exploitation (1)
(2) Alien species invasions (2)
(3) Co extinction (3)
(4) Competition (4)
134. Many species like Steller's sea cow and passenger 134.
pigen are not found now a days. What's the reason ?
(1) Over Exploitation (1)
(2) Alien Species Invasions (2)
(3) Co Extinction (3)
(4) Competition (4)
135. Which sacred grove is found in Rajasthan ? 135.
(1) Khashi and Jaintia hills (1)
(2) Sarguja area (2)
(3) Chanada and Bastar areas (3)
(4) Aravali Hills (4)
@AAKASHDELHI02


prohibited.
Sheet.



@AAKASHDELHI02
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
2 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 2 3 2 1
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 4 1 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 1 1
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
4 1 2 1 4 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 1
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
3 3 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 1 4 3 4 4
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 4 4 2 4 3 1 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 4
HINT – SHEET
@AAKASHDELHI02
@AAKASHDELHI02

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@AAKASHDELHI02

(1701CMD305219013) Test Pattern

4. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this

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BIO-CHEMISTRY TEST DATE : 13 - 03 - 2020

Periodic Table + Chemical Bonding.

(i) The living world

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Atomic weight Atomic weight

In above graph correct position of transition metal

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of the following order is correct for the first ionisation (kJ/mol) A, B C

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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36. The structure of ICl2 is : 36. ICl2

(3) BO33 (4) CO32 (3) BO33 (4) CO32

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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(3) O2 (4) O2 (3) O2 (4) O2

(1) Both H2+ and H 2 do not exist (1) H2+ H 2

(2) H 2 is more stable than H2+ (2) H 2 , H2+

(3) H2+ is more stable than H 2 (3) H2+ , H 2

(4) Both H2+ and H 2 are equally stable (4) H2+ H 2

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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(A) (B) (C) (A) (B) (C)

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52. Which one of the following is a correct statement ? 52.

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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(3) (4) (3) (4)

(a) (b) (a) (b)

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(C) (D) (C) (D)

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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66. Water vascular system and endoskeleton of 66.

(1) Circulatory system is of open type (1)

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(A) (B) (A) (B)

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LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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(1) Small group of worm like marine animals

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(A) (B) (A) (B)

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(1) Homeothermic (1)

LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase)

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(3) only C & D (3) C D

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