MCQ’s of Health Assessment-II

Unit-1 Assessment Of Mental Status & Sensory Neuro System

1. Which part of the central nervous system is A) Thalamus

responsible for coordinating voluntary B) Cerebellum
C) Brainstem
movements and maintaining balance and
D) Cerebrum
posture
A) Cerebrum 5. The protective layers that surround and
cushion the brain and spinal cord are called:
B) Cerebellum
A) Synapses
C) Medulla Oblongata B) Meninges
D) Thalamus C) Ventricles
D) Ganglia

2. The primary sensory relay station in the 6. Which structure connects the two
brain that processes and directs sensory hemispheres of the cerebrum and facilitates
information to the appropriate areas of the communication between them?
A) Corpus Callosum
cortex is the: B) Medulla Oblongata
A) Hippocampus C) Pons
B) Hypothalamus D) Amygdala

C) Thalamus
7. The fluid-filled spaces within the brain that
D) Amygdala
provide cushioning and support are called:
A) Ventricles
3. Which part of the CNS plays a crucial role
B) Meninges
in regulating autonomic functions such as
C) Ganglia
breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure?
D) Synapses
A) Cerebrum
B) Medulla Oblongata
8. Which area of the brain is associated with
C) Hypothalamus
emotions, particularly fear and pleasure
D) Pons
responses?
A) Thalamus
4. The largest part of the human brain
B) Hypothalamus
responsible for voluntary muscle movement,
C) Amygdala
sensory perception, and higher cognitive
D) Hippocampus
functions is the:

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 14. Which part of the CNS is responsible for
9. The area of the brain that regulates body relaying motor and sensory signals between
temperature, hunger, thirst, and other the cerebral cortex and the peripheral
homeostatic functions is the: nervous system?
A) Thalamus A) Spinal Cord
B) Hypothalamus B) Cerebellum
C) Amygdala C) Medulla Oblongata
D) Hippocampus D) Pons

10. Which part of the CNS is responsible for 15. The region of the brainstem that helps
reflexes and serves as a pathway for control breathing and other autonomic
ascending and descending nerve tracts? functions is the:
A) Cerebrum A) Pons
B) Spinal Cord B) Midbrain
C) Brainstem C) Reticular Formation
D) Cerebellum D) Medulla Oblongata

11. The area of the brainstem that plays a role in 16. Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from
sleep, arousal, and attention is the:
A) Medulla Oblongata A) CNS to muscles
B) Pons B) CNS to receptors
C) Midbrain
D) Reticular Formation C) Receptors to CNS

12. Which structure is responsible for producing D) Effector organs to CNS

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the central
nervous system? 17. Which of the following parts of the brain
A) Corpus Callosum controls the body temperature and urge of
B) Choroid Plexus
eating?
C) Cerebellum
D) Thalamus A) Thalamus

13. The region of the brain involved in the B) Cerebellum

formation of new memories and spatial
C) Pons
navigation is the:
A) Hippocampus D) Hypothalamus
B) Amygdala
C) Hypothalamus
18. Which cranial nerve is responsible for
D) Pons
vision?

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 A) Cranial Nerve II (Optic)
B) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
C) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
D) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
19. The cranial nerve responsible for taste
sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue is:
A) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
C) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
20. Which cranial nerve is responsible for
controlling the muscles of mastication
(chewing)?
A) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
B) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
C) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)
21. The cranial nerve that controls movements
of the eyeball and constriction of the pupil is:
A) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
B) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
C) Cranial Nerve VI (Abducent)
D) Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
22. Cranial Nerve responsible for the sense of
hearing and balance is:
A) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
C) Cranial Nerve VIII
(Vestibulocochlear)
D) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
23. Which cranial nerve is involved in
controlling the muscles of facial expression?
A) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
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B) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
C) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
24. The cranial nerve responsible for controlling
the muscles of the tongue is:
A) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
C) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
25. Which cranial nerve is involved in the sense
of smell?
A) Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory)
B) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
C) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
D) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
26. The cranial nerve responsible for controlling
the muscles that move the eyes is:
A) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor)
B) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear)
C) Cranial Nerve VI (Abducent)
D) Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
27. The cranial nerve involved in the sensation
of the face and the motor functions for chewing
is:
A) Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal)
B) Cranial Nerve VII (Facial)
C) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
D) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)
28. The cranial nerve responsible for controlling
the muscles of the soft palate and throat is:
A) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus)
C) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory)
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
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29. Which cranial nerve is responsible for 34. The term "Affect" in mental status
controlling the muscles that turn the head and examination refers to:
shrug the shoulders?
A) Overall presentation
A) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) B) Mood and feelings
B) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus) C) Thought content
C) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory) D) Thought process
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
35. When assessing a person's thought process,
30. The cranial nerve responsible for controlling the examiner is primarily concerned with:
the muscles that move the eyes downward and
inward is: A) Content of thoughts
B) Flow and organization of thoughts
A) Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor) C) Specific beliefs or ideas
B) Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear) D) Memories and perceptions
C) Cranial Nerve VI (Abducent)
D) Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear) 36. Which term refers to a false belief that is
firmly held despite clear evidence to the
31. Cranial Nerve involved in the gag reflex and contrary?
swallowing is:
A) Obsession
A) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal) B) Compulsion
B) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus) C) Delusion
C) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory) D) Phobia
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal)
37. A mental status examination includes an
32. The cranial nerve responsible for controlling assessment of memory. Which type of memory
the muscles that move the tongue is: is typically assessed by asking the patient to
recall recent events?
A) Cranial Nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B) Cranial Nerve X (Vagus) A) Immediate memory
C) Cranial Nerve XI (Accessory) B) Short-term memory
D) Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) C) Long-term memory
D) Remote memory
33. Which component of mental status
examination assesses a person's general 38. In mental status examination, the term
appearance, behavior, and cooperation? "Perception" refers to:

A) Affect A) Recognition of familiar faces

B) Appearance B) Interpretation of sensory stimuli
C) Thought Process C) Ability to plan and execute tasks
D) Perception D) Ability to concentrate and sustain
attention

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39. Which of the following best describes
"Cognition" in mental status examination?
A) Ability to express emotions
B) Ability to think abstractly and solve
problems
C) Motor coordination and balance
D) Ability to perceive the environment
accurately
40. A person's "Orientation" in mental status
examination refers to:
A) Awareness of one's own thoughts
B) Awareness of time, place, and person
C) Ability to concentrate and sustain
attention
D) Memory of past experiences
41. When assessing "Judgment" in mental status
examination, the examiner is primarily
interested in:
A) Ability to remember past events
B) Ability to plan for the future
C) Ability to concentrate and sustain
attention
D) Ability to express emotions
42. Which term refers to an involuntary
repetition of thoughts, words, or phrases?
A) Obsession
B) Compulsion
C) Circumstantiality
D) Palilalia
43. In mental status examination, the term
"Circumstantiality" is associated with:
A) Repetition of thoughts
B) Repetition of words
C) Excessive detail and delay in reaching
the point
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D) Lack of inhibition
44. Which term describes a rapid shift of ideas
with only superficial connections between
them?
A) Flight of ideas
B) Poverty of thought
C) Tangentiality
D) Blocking
45. When assessing "Insight" in mental status
examination, the examiner is evaluating the
patient's:
A) Awareness of current feelings
B) Awareness of the examiner's feelings
C) Awareness of one's own illness or
condition
D) Ability to plan for the future
46. The term "Echolalia" refers to:
A) Repetition of one's own words
B) Repetition of others' words
C) Rapid speech with a pressured rhythm
D) Paucity of speech
47. When assessing "Abstraction" in mental
status examination, the examiner is evaluating
the patient's ability to:
A) Recognize familiar objects
B) Think in concrete terms
C) Think in abstract terms and
understand proverbs
D) Perceive sensory stimuli
48. While assessing vibration sense Nurse
should Place stem of tuning fork which of the
following part of patient body:
A) On face
B) Against bony prominences
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 C) Directly on abdomen C) Judgment test
D) Non of the above D) Insight test

49. Stereognosis is the test always done with the 54. A patient is able to list five month's
patient eyes close to assess the: backwards but unable to repeat five digits span
forward and backward which type of memory is
A) Gate and posture affected?
B) Eye site
A) Recent memory
C) Ability to identify a familiar object by B) Remote memory
touch C) Immediate memory
D) All of the above D) Long term memory
50. A Nurse Touch the patient face with cotton
55. The Digit Span test is part of which aspect
swab on forehead, cheek, and chin and instruct of a mental status examination?
the patient to clench your teeth. Nurse is A) Apperance and behavior
assessing: B) Thought
A) Motor function of trigeminal nerves C) Cognition
B) Sensory function of trigeminal nerves D) Mood and affect
C) Both motor and sensory function of
trigeminal nerves 56. Which of the following is not a component
D) Motor function of facial nerves of the cerebellar examination?
A) Coordination
51. During History taking nurse assess memory B) Balance
of a patient she ask a question, When you C) Fine coordination
celebrate your birthday? Nurse purpose is to D) Motor activity integration
assess:
57. What is the function of the cerebellum?
A) Recent memory
A) Body control and coordination
B) Remote memory
B) Integration of voluntary movement:
C) Immediate memory
posture, balance, coordination
D) All of the above
C) Involuntary control of internal environment
52. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a measure D) Comprehension of written words and
of; symbols

A) Level of consciousness 58. Which of the following is not a chief

B) Memory
complaint for patients with neurological
C) Intra cranial pressure
disorders?
D) Fluid volume
A) Seizures
53. Nurse sohail asked the patient to repeat the B) Nausea
series counting backwards from 100 by 3's he C) Pain
performed which of the following; D) Weakness or paresthesia
A) Memory test
B) Attention test

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59. Which of the following is the most sensitive
indicator of changes in the neurological
status of patients with neurological
disorders?
A) LOC
B) Orientation
C) Cognitive function
D) Coordination
60. When examining a patients general
appearance and behavior—look at:
A) Facial expressions and orientation to place
B) How they are sitting and facial
expressions
C) Grooming and orientation to time
D) Facial expressions and object identification
61. Of the following, which one is not one of
the functions assessed in the Glasgow Coma
Scale.
A) Eye opening
B) Verbal response
C) Motor response
D) Pain response
62. Pick two tests that you could used on your
patient when assessing cerebellar
coordination.
A) Back bends
B) Tandem walking
C) Touching toes
63. How do you facilitate a Romberg’s test?
A) Client touches finger to nose, finger-finger
B) Client stands on one foot, puts arms above
head, and does one knee bend
C) Client stands with feet together, hands at
sides and eyes closed
D) Client sits on chair and then tries to stand
back up
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64. True of false a + Romberg’s test is
pathological?
A) True
B) False
65. Which of the following is a major role of the
central nervous system?
A) Involuntary control of internal environment
B) Personality and strength
C) Body control and coordination
D) Fight or flight
66. Which of the following gait disturbances
does not match with their clinical
manifestations?
A) Spastic hemiparesis: arm flexed, close to
side
B) Parkinsons’: stooped, hips, knees flexed;
short shuffling steps
C) Cerebellar ataxia: staggering, unsteady,
wide based
D) Scissor gait: paralysis of the lower foot
E) Steppage gait: feet lifted high, slapped down
67. Which test is the most effective when
testing arousability?
A) Testing the patients orientation to person,
place, and time
B) Pouring ice cold water into the patients ear
C) Screaming into the patients left ear for six
seconds
D) Applying a painful (noxious) stimulus to
the nail bed
68. Which of the following is not a risk factor
for acquiring stroke/ CVA
A) HTN
B) Hyperlipidemia
C) Contraceptive use
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D) Being over 55

69. When should cranial nerves be assessed in

the physical examination?
A) Peripheral vascular
B) Musculoskeletal
C) Head and Neck
D) Integumentary

70. The parasympathetic system is a fight or

flight response.
A) True
B) False

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