Auc PMP+ Knowledge Qa

1
PMP® Exam Knowledge Questions
PMP® Knowledge Questions
Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 2

Asad Ullah Chaudhry
Asad Ullah Chaudhry, an Oxford graduate, Masters from Stanford University, and a long
term PgMP® and PMP® practitioner.
He currently runs a project-focused consultancy and training company, AUC (Pvt.) Ltd; an
innovative company: coaching more than a score of organizations. He has also trained more
than 10,000 project management professionals.
Asad possesses diversified experience in Strategic Management, Portfolio Management,

Change Management, Information Technology, Business Process Redesign, and Supply
Chain Management. He has a particular and cherished association with Project
Management.
Asad is working with organizations to align strategies with initiatives, Portfolio

Management, Project and Program Management Office (PMO) Setup, Technology
Evaluation, and Project Implementations. He has successfully worked on many initiatives,
including: Implementing Strategy Execution Office in Pakistan Air Force, Project
Management Office in Meezan Bank, ERP Project Implementation for Burque Corporation,
ERP Project Planning and PMO Setup for Pakistan Army, PMO Setup for Pakistan Airforce,
Core Banking Project Implementation and PMO Setup for National Bank of Pakistan, PMO
Setup for Jaffer Brothers, PMO setup for Kalsoft, and PMO Setup for Emmaculate.
As a facilitator, he has more than 300 international events, to his credit, in four continents,
the Americas, Europe, Africa and Asia. He uses an innovative corporate case study-based
approach to transform organizational projects.
Globally, he has contributed to PMI’s Standard for Portfolio Management and PMO
Awareness, - which led to him being selected as one of the 25 global leaders for “Masters in
Leadership Program”.

Table of Contents
Knowledge Questions ........................................................................................................ 6
Session 1: Differentiate Project, Operations, and Program ................................................. 6
Session 2: Align Strategy with Execution ............................................................................ 7
Session 3: Design Project Life Cycle .................................................................................... 8
Session 4: Understand Project Manager Competencies ...................................................... 9
Session 5: Evaluate Project Management Requirements in Organizations........................ 10
Session 6: Map PMO in your organization........................................................................ 11
Session 7: Authorize Projects ........................................................................................... 12
Session 8: Create and Publish Project Charter .................................................................. 13
Session 9: Identify and Assess Stakeholders ..................................................................... 14
Session 10: Measure Project Management ...................................................................... 15
Session 11: Plan Stakeholder Engagement ....................................................................... 16
Session 12: Plan Communication Strategy ....................................................................... 17
Session 13: Elicit Requirement ......................................................................................... 18
Session 14: Assess Quality Requirements ......................................................................... 19
Session 15: Develop Project Scope Statement .................................................................. 20
Session 16: Decompose Work Breakdown Structure ......................................................... 21
Session 17: Decompose Project Activities ......................................................................... 22
Session 18: Sequence Project Activities ............................................................................ 23
Session 19: Estimate Project Resources ............................................................................ 24
Session 20: Estimate Project Durations and Costs ............................................................ 25
Session 21: Finalize Schedule and Cost Baselines .............................................................. 26
Session 22: Identify Risks ................................................................................................. 27
Session 23: Analyze Risks ................................................................................................. 28
Session 24: Plan and Execute Risk Responses ................................................................... 29
Session 25: Learn to Lead ................................................................................................. 30
Session 26: Produce Deliverables ..................................................................................... 31
Session 27: Negotiate for Value ....................................................................................... 33
Session 28: Manage Deliverable Issues ............................................................................ 34
Session 29: Manage Execution issues ............................................................................... 35

Session 30: Manage Changes ........................................................................................... 37
Session 31: Plan Procurements ........................................................................................ 38
Session 32: Conduct Procurements ................................................................................... 39
Session 33: Control Procurements .................................................................................... 40
Session 35: Forecast Project Status .................................................................................. 42
Session 36: Close Project or Phase.................................................................................... 43
Answers........................................................................................................................... 45

Knowledge Questions
Session 1: Differentiate Project, Operations, and Program

Question 1: What are the success criteria for projects?
A. Complete projects within time, cost and scope.

B. Achieve project benefits.
C. Achieve business value.
D. Achieve project outcomes
Question 2: Which of the following is an example of a project?
A. Running payroll application.

B. Procuring hardware for manufacturing plan.
C. Managing change Management initiative.
D. Conducting a Training workshop.
Question 3: Which of the following is not an example of operation?
A. Providing uninterrupted electricity.

B. Clearing client cheques.
C. Maintaining law and order of a city.
D. Manufacturing Government Schemes Cars.
Question 4: Which of the following is a correct definition of a program?
A. Managing multiple projects of a department.

B. Managing multiple projects of strategic client.
C. Managing multiple projects of an industry.
D. Managing multiple projects for outcomes.
Question 5: Which of the following is not an example of a program?
A. Construction a housing scheme.

B. Launching a mobile application.
C. Managing multiple releases of a product.
D. Launching a startup.

Session 2: Align Strategy with Execution

Question 6: Which of the following is correct statement of Vision?
A. Vision is your organization purpose.

B. Vision is the action you perform to achieve mission.
C. Vision is the future goal of an organization.
D. Vision and mission are synonyms.
Question 7: Which of the following is not a definition of strategy?
A. Strategy defines boundary in your organization.

B. Strategy sets direction to achieve vision.
C. Strategy is operation of your organization.
D. Strategy provides the focus of your organization.
Question 8: Which of the following is an example of strategic objective?
A. Achieve 70% revenue from online sales.

B. Become the leader in Artificial Intelligence (AI) market.
C. Provide financial services to low end market.
D. Launch automated Customer Relationship system till Dec 2020.
Question 9: Which of the following is not a function of portfolio management?
A. Maximum Business value.

B. Balance the organization initiatives.
C. Implement portfolio management office.
D. Align initiatives with strategy objectives.
Question 10: Which of the following is an example of portfolio?
A. Leading telecom sector projects to increase revenue.

B. Leading digital transformation to increase or retain customer.
C. Leading digitalization of government minister.
D. Leading Artificial Intelligence (AI) based marketing automation.

Session 3: Design Project Life Cycle

Question 11: Which of the following is not a phase sequence type?
A. Sequential.
B. Overlapped.
C. Iterative.
D. Related.
Question 12: Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Plan driven project management is also referred as waterfall model.

B. Plan driven project management phases are initiation, planning, execution,
monitoring, and closing.
C. Plan driven project management focuses to freeze scope early in project life cycle.
D. Cost of change is high in plan driven project management.
Question 13: Which of the following statement is correct?
A. In agile project management changes are welcome before the start of new iteration.
B. In agile project management iteration duration can be extended to complete the
iteration.
C. In agile project management scope can be defined using user stories.
D. In agile project management team priorities, the scope of the project.
Question 14: Which of the following is not the phase closure terminology?
A. Kill point.
B. Phase gate.
C. Go- No Go.
D. Stage date.
E. Decision
Question 15: Which of the following is not a characteristic of a project life cycle?
A. Stakeholder influence, risk, and uncertainty are highest at the start of the project.
B. Ability of the stakeholder to influence final characteristics of the project’s product
increases as the project progresses.
C. The project life cycle determines which transitional actions at the beginning and end
of the project are included, so that the project can be linked to the ongoing
operations of the performing Organization.
D. Stakeholder influence, risk and uncertainty decrease as the project progresses.

Session 4: Understand Project Manager Competencies

Question 16: Which of the following is a key responsibility of a project manager?
A. Develop Project charter.

B. Gather project requirements from stakeholders.
C. Responsible to convert project objectives into deliverables.
D. Responsible to convert project deliverables into activities.
Question 17: Which of the following aspects of a project is not the responsibility of a
project manager?
A. Keep the project on track in terms of schedule and budget.

B. Identify, monitor, and responsible to risk.
C. Provide accurate and timely report of project metrics.
D. Ensure integrity of project team members.
Question 18: Which of the following is not a talent triangle skill set?
A. Technical project management.

B. Leadership.
C. Operation management.
D. Strategic business management.
Question 19: One of the key skills of a project manager is integration, and project
manager needs to integrate at different levels. Which of the following is not an example
of the integration level?
A. Process.
B. Knowledge Area.
C. Context.
D. Cognitive.
Question 20: Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Political Awareness concerns the recognition of power relationships.

B. Cultural awareness concerns the recognition of values, norms, and behaviors.
C. Political awareness helps us to make things happens,
D. Cultural awareness helps to perceive emotions.

Session 5: Evaluate Project Management Requirements in Organizations

Question 21: Which of the following is a benefit of understanding organizational
structure?
A. It helps to elicit the project requirements.

B. It helps to focus of project milestones.
C. It helps to effectively use the political capabilities.
D. It helps to achieve strategic objectives.
Question 22: Which of the following is CORRECT for functional organization?
A. Project Manager controls the budget and resources in functional organization.

B. Project Manager works as expeditors and assign resources in functional organization.
C. Functional resources have no-home after the project in functional organization
D. Functional resources has clear career path in functional organization.
Question 23: Which of the following regarding Matrix Organization, IS NOT CORRECT?
A. In weak matrix organization, project manager works as project coordinator.

B. In strong matrix organization, team only reports to project manager.
C. In balance matrix organization, team reports to both project manager and functional
manager.
D. In weak matrix organization, project manager only reports project progress.
Question 24: Which of the following statement is INCORRECT for projectized organization?
A. You are responsible to realize project goals.

B. After completing their respective job, team members are returning back to their
department.
C. All team members are co-located
D. You are authorized to spend budget and assign resources on the project.
Question 25: In which type of organization structure project manager manages the budget
of the project?
A. Weak Matrix.
B. Balance Matrix.
C. Strong Matrix.
D. Tight Matrix.

Session 6: Map PMO in your organization

Question 26: Which of the following is correct acronym of PMO?
A. Project Management Office.

B. Prime Minister Office.
C. Portfolio Management Office.
D. Program Management Office.
Question 27: Which of the following statement regarding PMO structure is INCORRECT?
A. Supportive PMO serves as project repository.

B. Directive PMO serves as project execution hit.
C. Controlling PMO serves as project compliance.
D. Portfolio PMO develops the organization strategic objectives.
Question 28: Which of the following statement regarding project manager versus PMO
manager is INCORRECT?
A. PMO manager may reports project manager.

B. Project manager focuses on triple constraints.
C. PMO manager optimizes the use of shared organization resources.
D. Project manager focuses on the specified organization strategic objective.
Question 29: Which of the following is not a function of PMO?
A. Manage lesson learned database.

B. Manage organization changes.
C. Conduct client trainings.
D. Conduct project audits.
Question 30: Which of the following is not a function of project PMO?
A. Developing policies and procedures to lead the project.

B. Managing the status of project.
C. Developing the project schedule.
D. Assigning the resources to specific project tasks.

Session 7: Authorize Projects
Question 31: Which of the following is not an activity of project initiation?
A. Nominating the project manager.

B. Reviewing the business need.
C. Documenting the business case.
D. Publishing the project charter.
Question 32: Which of the following is not a document that can be used to make a
decision of project manager selection?
A. Business case.
B. Feasibility.
C. Statement of work.
D. Scope statement.
Question 33: You are given the following four projects. Which project will you select?
A. Project A with an opportunity cost of 200,00$.

B. Project B with a benefit-cost ratio of 0.65.
C. Project C with an IRR of -3%
D. Project D with NPV of 100,00$
Question 34: Which of the following is not an example of organizational process assets?
A. Company policy and procedures.

B. Lessons learned of past projects.
C. Lessons learned during early phases of current project
D. Work authorization system.
Question 35: Which of the following is not an example of enterprise environmental

factor?
A. Organizational structure.
B. Project management information system.
C. Government policies and procedures.
D. Organization policies and procedures.

Session 8: Create and Publish Project Charter
Question 36: Who has the ultimate responsibility to document the project?
A. Project Manager.
B. Project Sponsor.
C. CEO.
D. Functional Manager.
Question 37: Identify the stakeholder who should be part of project charter?
A. Functional Manager.
B. Operation Manager.
C. Project Manager.
D. Project team.
Question 38: Business needs drives the initiation of project. Which of the following is not
an example of business need?
A. Social need.
B. Transformational need.
C. Customer request.
D. Organizational need.
Question 39: Which of the following is not the content of project manager?
A. Project purpose.
B. Exiting criteria.
C. Cost benefits analysis.
D. Success criteria.
Question 40: Which of the following is an example of success criteria?
A. Increase in 30% sale.

B. Sales agent remainder to call sales lead.
C. Project must go live before fiscal year ends.
D. LinkedIn integration should work.

Session 9: Identify and Assess Stakeholders
Question 41: All of the following statements about sponsor are true EXCEPT?
A. Sponsor provides the financial resources, in cash or in kind.

B. Sponsor clears the road blocks for project manager.
C. Sponsor can perform phase end review.
D. Sponsor role exists client from client side.
Question 42: Who of the following is always the stakeholder?
A. CEO of the company.

B. User who is going to use the product.
C. Functional manager from sales department.
D. Business user who is going to lose his or her position.
Question 43: Which of the following is not true for stakeholder register?
A. Project manager is responsible to create and maintain stakeholder register.

B. Stakeholder register classifies the stakeholder.
C. Stakeholder register document should be reviewed at the start of each phase.
D. Project manager share stakeholder register with stakeholder to get their buy-in
Question 44: Which of the following statement is not correct?
A. Power of stakeholder their level of authority.

B. Interest of stakeholder of stakeholder is their level of concern towards project
outcomes.
C. Influence of stakeholder is their ability to cause changes to the project plan.
D. Impact of stakeholder is their ability to cause changes to the project execution.
Question 45: Which of the following is not a classification of salience model?
A. Power.
B. Impact.
C. Urgency.
D. Legitimacy.

Session 10: Measure Project Management
Question 46: Which of the following is not a project management plan document?
A. Requirement Management Plan.

B. Scope Statement.
C. Change Management Plan.
D. Configuration Management Plan.
Question 47: Which of the following is not a project document?
A. Change Log.
B. Risk Management Plan.
C. Issue Log.
D. Assumption Log.
Question 48: Which of the following is not true for baselines?
A. Baselines are part of project management plan.

B. They include approve scope change.
C. They are useful in detecting project variances.
D. They are useful to create scope statement.
Question 49: Kickoff meeting should ideally be held?
A. After project initiation phase.

B. After project planning phase.
C. After project management phase.
D. During project execution phase.
Question 50: Which of the following is not true for the project scope management plan?
A. It provides guidance on how project scope will be defined and documented.

B. It provides guidance how project scope will be verified.
C. It provides guidance how project scope will be managed and controlled.
D. It contains project scope.

Session 11: Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Question 51: Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
A. Project manager must focus on stakeholder management.

B. Project manager must focus on stakeholder engagement
C. Project manager must focus on stakeholder expectation management
D. Project manager must focus to engage stakeholders to minimize their resistance
A. Stakeholder official power is considered as authority

B. Stakeholder ability to officially cause changes in outcome is considered as influence.
C. Stakeholder focus on project outcomes is considered as interest
D. Stakeholder ability to cause changes on project execution is considered as impact
Question 53: Which of the following is the most effective strategy to convert resistant
stakeholder to supportive stakeholder?
A. Give him project deliverables success responsibility

B. Involve in project meetings
C. Share project outcomes
D. Make him the project sponsor
Question 54: Which of the following is not the effective way to collect the feedback?
A. Conduct surveys
B. Monitor key performance indicators
C. Directly discuss with end users
D. Wait end users to provide their input
Question 55: Which of the following is not a good example of active listening?
A. Acknowledge the conversation by summarizing the discussion

B. Ask relevant questions
C. Mirror the face
D. Encourage to provide more input

Session 12: Plan Communication Strategy
Question 56: Which type of communication includes meetings, phone calls, and video
conferencing?
A. Pull
B. Push
C. Interactive
D. Conservative
Question 57: Which of the following is not an example of nonverbal communication?
A. Making eye contact

B. Shaking hands
C. Asking questions
D. Standing at a distance
Question 58: Which of the following is not part of communication management plan?
A. Meeting Frequency
B. Meeting Participants
C. Meeting Minutes
D. Meeting Mode
Question 59: The number of communication channels for a project of 13 stakeholders is?
A. 39
B. 52
C. 65
D. 78
Question 60: Which of the following communication technique will help to solve project
complex problems?
A. Formal Written
B. Formal Verbal
C. Informal Verbal
D. Informal Written

Session 13: Elicit Requirement
Question 61: Which of the following is not a requirement type?
A. Stakeholder Requirement
B. Project Requirement
C. Quality Requirement
D. Procurement Requirement
A. Affinity diagram is used to group similar requirements

B. Benchmarking is comparing the requirements from your competitors
C. Nominal Group technique consolidates the requirements into map based on
similarities and differences
D. Brainstorming is used to generate and collect multiple requirements
A. Focus Group is most effective with prequalified or subject matter experts

B. Facilitated Workshop is effective with similar group of stakeholders for
requirement gathering
C. Interviews are most effective with one or small number of stakeholders
D. Surveys are most effective to gather requirements from large number of
stakeholders
A.Prototype help stakeholders to refine their expectations

B. Prototype is a working model of the expected product with complete functionalities
C. Prototyping helps the of progressive elaboration of requirement gathering
D. Prototype is a working model of the expected product with limited functionalities
A. Requirement document describe how individual requirement meets the business

needs
B. Requirement traceability matrix document contains source of requirements which
helps to align it with objectives
C. Requirement document is the component of scope baseline
D. Requirement traceability matrix helps to track the requirements throughout project
life cycle

Session 14: Assess Quality Requirements
A. Plan quality should be performed regularly throughout the project

B. Plan quality guides how quality will be managed
C. Plan quality should be performed separately
D. Plan quality guides how quality will be verified
Question 67: Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
A. High quality and low-grade product are not a problem

B. Low quality and low-grade product are not a problem
C. Low quality and high-grade product are not a problem
D. High quality and high-grade product are a problem
A. Prevention is important than inspection

B. Quality is also a management responsibility
C. Continuous improvement increases the cost of project
D. Customer satisfaction is referred as conformance to requirements and fitness for use
Question 69: Which of the following is not an example of cost of conformance?
A. Training costs
B. Testing costs
C. Inspection costs
D. Warranty costs
Question 70: Which of the following is not an example of quality metrics?
A. % of tasks completed on time

B. % of requirements covered by the test plan
C. Errors found per line of code
D. Number of requirements captured from end user
Question 71: Which of the following is not a component of Quality Management plan?
A. Quality objective
B. Corrective action recommendations
C. Quality standards
D. Corrective action procedures

Session 15: Develop Project Scope Statement
A. Simulator assessment is an example of product scope

B. Buying a Goto-Meeting license is an example of project scope
C. Risk register is an example of project management scope
D. Conducting online training is an example of project scope
Question 73: Which of the following is not an example of product analysis?
A. Value engineering
B. System engineering
C. Alternative analysis
D. Requirement analysis
Question 74: Which of the following statement regarding facilitation technique

INCORRECT?
A. It helps to capture domain specific knowledge

B. It helps to set a common understanding of project boundaries
C. It helps to capture cross functional needs
D. It helps to align variety expectations towards project objectives
Question 75: Which of the following statement relating to assumptions is inaccurate?
A. They are factors which are considered to be true, real or certain

B. They affect all aspects of project planning
C. They are progressively elaborated
D. They limit the project team`s options
Question 76: What statement regarding project scope statement is correct?
A. A document that formally authorizes a project

B. A document that describes the procurement item in sufficient detail
C. A documented basis for making future project decisions
D. A document that subdivides the major deliverables into smaller, more manageable
components

Session 16: Decompose Work Breakdown Structure
Question 77: Which of the following statements about the WBS is incorrect?
A.It is a hierarchical decomposition of project scope.

B. The lowest level WBS components are called WBS dictionaries.
C. The WBS subdivides the project work into smaller, more manageable pieces of work.
D. The WBS organizes and defines the total scope of the project work.
Question 78: Which of the following is not a component of WBS?
A.Control account
B. Milestone
C. Planning package
D. Work package
Question 79: Which of the following is not a part of scope baseline?
A.Requirement Document
B. Scope Statement
C. WBS
D. WBS Dictionary
Question 80: Which of the following is not included in the WBS dictionary?
A. List of schedule milestones

B. Resource assigned
C. Agreement Information
D. Code of Account Identifier
Question 81: Which of the following is a good example of code of account identifier?
A. 1.4.5.1, 2.6.5.1, 3.3.9

B. a.d.e.a, b.f.e.a, c.c.i
C. i.iV.V.i, ii.Vi.V.i, iii.iii.iX
D. A.D.E.A, B.F.E.A, C.C.I

Session 17: Decompose Project Activities
Question 82: Which of the following is not correct about activities?
A. Activities are result of decomposition of work packages

B. Activities shows the work needed with duration, cost, and resources attached to it
C. Decomposition of activities based on 8/80 is a good choice
D. Activities are part of work breakdown structure document
Question 83: Which of the following is not a correct definition of milestone?
A. Milestone has zero duration

B. Milestone are significant event in project plan
C. Milestone duration is equal to phase duration
D. Milestone is not a deadline
Question 84: who of the following is least likely required to decompose work packages to
create activity list?
A. Business Team
B. Project Team
C. Project Manager
D. End User
Question 85: Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding rolling wave
planning?
A. It is a form of progressive elaboration

B. It means decomposing based on availability of knowledge during project lifecycle
C. It can cause scope creep
D. It is applicable to both predictive and adaptive approaches
Question 86: Which of the following statement is correct for activity attributes?
A. Activity attribute can include predecessor and successor information

B. Activity attribute can include unique activity identifier
C. Activity attribute can include project objective identifier
D. Activity attribute can include lead and lag information

Session 18: Sequence Project Activities
Question 87: Which of the following is not an example of dependency type?
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. External dependency
D. Customer dependency
Question 88: This waiting time can also be referred to as:
A. Lead time
B. Project float
C. Buffer
D. Lag time
Question 89: Which of the following is not an example of network diagram
A.Project network diagram

B. Fragmented network diagram
C. Sub network diagram
D. WBS network diagram
Question 90: Which of the following is correct statement for precedence diagramming
method?
A.Precedence diagramming method is also referred as activity on arrow

B. Precedence diagramming method uses only finish to start dependency
C. Precedence diagramming method uses dummy activity to show relationships
D. Precedence diagramming method is also referred as activity on node
Question 91: Which of the following is least used dependency type in Activity on Node
Diagram?
A.Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Start
C. Finish-to-Finish
D. Start-to-Finish

Session 19: Estimate Project Resources
Question 92: Which of the following is not a resource type according to 3M?
A. Man
B. Manager
C. Machine
D. Material
Question 93: Which of the following statement is incorrect for RAM?
A. It is used to plan resources and determine connection between activities

B. It is used to designate the roles and responsibilities, and level of authority for
specific activities
C. It is used to identify number of resources required in each WBS component
D. It is used to define the project team or organization unit responsibility against WBS
component
Question 94: Which of the following is correct for resource breakdown structure?
A.It is a hierarchical list of project team

B. It is a hierarchical list of physical items in project
C. It is arranged as per the structure of organization departments, units, and teams
D. It can be used in conjunction with WBS
Question 95: Which of the following is a purpose of the resource management plan?
A. It provides guidance to the project manager on acquiring resources from outside the
team.
B. It provides guidance to the project manager on identifying the project and product
scope necessary to meet the project objectives.
C. It provides guidance to the project manager on scheduling project management
activities.
D. It provides guidance to the project manager on categorizing and managing project
resources.
Question 96: Which of the following is not a benefit of team charter?
A. Team charter establishes the team values

B. Team charter provides conflict resolution process
C. Team charter provides decision making criteria and process
D. Team charter provides the team reporting relationships

Session 20: Estimate Project Durations and Costs
Question 97: Which cost estimating technique costs the least and saves the most time?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Three-point estimates
Question 98: Which of the statement regarding bottom-up estimate is incorrect?
A. It helps to determines the cost of individual scope requirements in the scope

statement
B. It provides detailed costs at lowest levels that are rolled up to higher levels for
reporting and tracking purposes
C. It Is a method of estimating a component of work
D. It provides cost and accuracy, which is influenced by the size and complexity of the
individual schedule activity or work package
Question 99: Which of the following estimates is not used when implementing three-point
estimating?
A. Pessimistic
B. Optimistic
C. Most likely
D. Mean
Question 100: Which of the following is a correct range of Rough Order Magnitude?
A. -75% to +25%
B. -10% to +25%
C. -25% to +75%
D. -5% to +10%
Question 101: Which of the following statement is correct for Parametric estimate?
A. It uses the historical data to estimate the project estimate

B. It uses the current data to estimate the project estimate
C. It uses the range of expert to estimate the project estimate
D. It uses the historical information with current data to estimate the project estimate

Session 21: Finalize Schedule and Cost Baselines
Question 102: Which of the following is INCORRECT for bar charts?
A. Bar charts shows activity start and end dates

B. Bar charts shows dependencies among tasks
C. Bar charts Identify the scheduled start or completion of major deliverables
only and not all the tasks
D. Bar chart shows supporting details
Question 103: Which of the following statement is INCORRECT for resource smoothing?
A. Free and total float are used without affecting the critical path
B. Non critical path activities resources are assigned to critical path activities
C. Critical path float is used to manage the resource smoothing demand
D. Non critical path activities get delayed but it doesn’t impact the project
Question 104: All of the following are ways through which resource levelling can be
achieved EXCEPT?
A. Changing the dependency of activities form parallel to sequencing

B. Using alternative resource on parallel activities
C. Sharing the hours of resource on parallel activities
D. Utilizing more senior resource on parallel activities
Question 105: Which of the following statement is correct, if you need to reduce the
project duration without impacting the scope and quality?
A. Increase the critical path duration

B. Fast track or crash the project
C. Utilize non critical path resources on critical path activities
D. Change the project scope
A. Total float can affect the calculated early start and finish dates
B. The flexibility of schedule is facilitated by activity total float
C. Networks can have only one critical path
D. Networks may have multiple near critical paths
Question 107: Which of the following is a component of cost baseline?
A. Contingency reserves
B. Management reserves
C. Black swan reserves
D. Buffers

Session 22: Identify Risks
Question 108: Which of the following is an incorrect statement of risk?
A. Risk is an uncertain event or condition.

B. Risks have to be identified and properly managed.
C. Risks have a negative impact on the project objective.
D. Risk management should be done throughout the project.
Question 109: Which of the following is not a content of risk management plan?
A.Strategy
B. Assumptions
C. Methodology
D. Funding
Question 110: Which of the following is not a component of SWOT analysis?
A. Strength
B. Weakness
C. Opportunities
D. Triggers
Question 111: Which of the following is not a content of risk register document?
A. Identified risks
B. Potential risk owners
C. Potential risk responses
D.Risk Methodology
A. Prompt List is a predetermined list of risk categories

B. Risk report represents information on sources of overall project risks
C. Risk register captures details of identified individual project risks
D. Risk breakdowns structure is a predetermined list of risk categories
Question 113: Which of the following is incorrect for risk owners?
A. Risk owners are identified during identify risk process

B. Risk owners are responsible to implement the response plans of risks
C. Project managers are risk owners of all project risks
D. Risk owners helps to develop the risk response strategy

Session 23: Analyze Risks
Question 114: Which of the following statement is incorrect for qualitative risk analysis?
A. Qualitative analysis is subjective analysis

B. Qualitative risks analysis is performed before the start of each iteration in agile
projects
C. Qualitative analysis is objective analysis
D. Qualitative risk analysis helps to prioritize the risks
Question 115: Which of the following statement is incorrect for quantitative risk analysis?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is not required for all projects

B. Quantitative risk analysis helps to execute the risk response strategies
C. Quantitative risk analysis is a time-consuming effort
D. Quantitative risk analysis works on prioritize risks
Question 116: Which of the following is a benefit of expected monetary value?
A.It helps to calculate contingency reserves

B. It helps to calculate impact of risks on projects
C. It helps to calculate management reserves
D. It helps to calculate probability of risks
Question 117: Which of the following statement is correct for sensitivity analysis?
A. It helps to support selection of the best alternative course of action

B. It helps to determine which individual risk has the most potential impact on project
outcomes
C. It helps to make decision under uncertainty
D. It helps to discover the underlying causes that lead to problem, and develop
preventive actions
Question 118: Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding probability
impact assessment?
A. Probability is the likelihood that risk will occur

B. Probability has preference over impact
C. Impact is potential effect on one or more project objectives
D. Impact has preference over probability
Question 119: Which of the following statement is correct for Monte Carlo simulation?
A. Estimate the activity duration

B. Estimate the number of quality metrics required
C. Estimate the resources required in a project
D. Provide an overview of overall project risks

Session 24: Plan and Execute Risk Responses
Question 120: Which of the following statement about positive risk response is
INCORRECT?
A.Exploitation response is a strategy where probability of occurrence increases to 100%

B. Acceptance response is a strategy where team agrees that opportunity is outside the
scope of the project or project manager authority
C. Enhance response is a strategy where action is taken to increase the probability
D. Share response is a strategy where ownership of an opportunity is shared with third
party
Question 121: Which of the following statement about negative risk response is
INCORRECT?
A. Avoidance response is a strategy where probability of occurrence reduced to zero%

B. Acceptance response is a strategy where team agrees that threat is outside the
scope of the project or project manager authority
C. Mitigation response is a strategy where action is taken to reduce the probability
D. Transfer response is a strategy where ownership of threat is transferred to third
party
Question 122: Establishing an overall contingency reserve for project is:
A.Active risk response

B. Corrective response
C. Preventive response
D. Passive risk response
A. Fallback plan is referred as plan B

B. Workarounds are actions for those risks who were accepted with passive response
C. Residual risks are risks that were not identified during planning phase
D. Secondary risk is a risk that may occur after implementing the risk response
Question 124: Which of the following is not a result of risk review meeting?
A. Identification of new individual risks

B. Closing of outdated risks
C. Revised strategy of existing risks
D. Change in baselines
Question 125: Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding risk audits?
A. It helps to measure the effectiveness of risk management processes

B. Risk audit can be performed as a separate risk audit meeting
C. Project managers are responsible to perform risk audit
D. Risk audit can be performed during routine project review meetings

Session 25: Learn to Lead
A. Leader manages change

B. Manager manages complexity
C. Project manager needs to be leader
D. Project manager needs to be both leader and manager
Question 127: Which of the following statement is incorrect for project manager?
A. Project manager focuses on providing the management oversight

B. Project manager leads the team to meet the project objectives
C. Project manager engages the stakeholder to manage their expectations
D. Project manager is the bridge between team, and management
Question 128: Which power type is related to project manager personality?
A. Transformational
B. Expert
C. Coercive
D. Referent
Question 129: Which statement is incorrect regarding the leadership style?
A. Laissez-faire leadership style is hands-off style leadership where team makes their
own decisions
B. Transactional leadership style is based on management by exception
C. Transformational leadership style is based on accomplishment to determine rewards
D. Servant leadership focuses on other people’s growth
Question 130: Which of the following is incorrect for networking?
A. Networking is a formal connection and relations among project stakeholders

B. Networking helps to exchange information and develop contacts
C. Networking helps to improve project performance
D. Networking helps to identify the information about stakeholder engagement level

Session 26: Produce Deliverables
Question 131: Which of the following statement is incorrect for pre-assignment?
A. Pre-assignment is identification of resource at the time of project charter

B. Pre-assignment is identification of resource at the time of project contract
C. Pre-assignment is identification of resource at the time project planning
D. Pre-assignment is identification of resource at the time of project authorization
Question 132: Which of the following statements on recognition and rewards system is
incorrect?
A. Recognition and reward systems should promote or reinforce desired behavior.

B. Recognition and rewards should consider cultural differences.
C. Recognition for team members who work extra hours on the weekends.
D. Give the team recognition throughout the life cycle of the project rather than wait
until the project is completed.
Question 133: Which of the following is not correct for co-location?
A. Co-location creates a sense of community among team members

B. Co-location helps to increase communication and decrease project duration
C. Co-location is also referred as tight matrix
D. Co-location helps to avoid the conflicts
Question 134: Which of the following is not a concern for virtual team?
A. Different time zones

B. Communication issues
C. Cultural differences
D. Team members wanting to work from home
Question 135: Which of the following is incorrect for team building stage?
A. During forming stage team learns about their roles and responsibilities
B. During storming stage team works with “I am right” mentality
C. During norming stage team learns to trust each other
D. During performing stage team work “We can work together” mentality

Question 136: Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding team building?
A. Team building activities should be done throughout the project life cycle.
B. Project manager leads the team building activities by providing direction and
guidance.
C. Team building activities are most effective during the early stage of project.
D. Team building activities are not effective for virtual teams.
A. McGregor’s Theory X believes that team needs to be directed as they are not self-
motivated
B. Herzberg's Theory believes that hygiene factors does not impact the team
motivation
C. McGregor’s Theory Y believes that team needs to be coached as they are self-
motivated
D. Herzberg’s Theory believes that high salary, and good working environment
increases the team motivation
Question 138: Which of the following is a pinnacle of Maslow hierarchy of needs?
A. Self esteem
B. Self-actualization
C. Relationship
D. Safety

Session 27: Negotiate for Value
Question 139: Which of the following is not a situation for negotiation?
A. Acquiring project resources from functional manager

B. Resolving issues between team members
C. Contractual terms and conditions
D. Asking for authority for project managers
Question 140: Which of the following is not a best negotiation strategy?
A. Separate the people from the position

B. Focus on interests not positions
C. Generate options for mutual gain before choosing
D. Decide based on subjective criteria
Question 141: Which of the following is incorrect for emotional intelligence in projects?
A. It helps to reduce the tension

B. It helps to increase the cooperation between team members
C. It helps to reduces the number of change requests
D. It helps to resolve team issues
Question 142: Which of the following is not a component of emotional intelligence?
A. Self-awareness
B. Social awareness
C. Self-Management
D. Contract management
Question 143: Which of the following is incorrect for team training?
A. Training costs could be included in the project budget

B. Trainings should be planned before the execution, it should be during human
resource management plan
C. Project team can also provide training to other team members
D. Both management and technical trainings should be conducted for teams
Question 144: Which of the following is incorrect for complexity dimensions?
A. The interdependence of components is referred as system behavior

B. Frequent changes in project is referred as uncertainty
C. The interplay between diverse groups is referred as human behavior
D. Lack of understanding or confusion is referred as ambiguity

Session 28: Manage Deliverable Issues
Question 145: Which of the following is not an example to raise a change request?
A. Customer requests additional features

B. Project priority becomes low
C. Critical resource left the project
D. Additional activity required to complete the deliverable
Question 146: Which of the following is not a correct statement for change request type?
A. Corrective Action is an intentional activity to realigns the project performance with

baseline
B. Preventive Action is an intentional activity that ensures the future performance of
the project is aligned with baseline
C. Updates are changes that reflect the scope creep
D. Defect repair is an intentional action to modify a nonconforming product or product
component
Question 147: What is the process of approving changes into the project baseline?
A. After receiving the change requests, all changes will be processed through change
control board for approval
B. Changes in the baseline can be done by PM and team, when it seems necessary
C. Changes in project baselines required addendum in the contract
D. Project baselines cannot be changed once they are baselined
Question 148: What is a role of a project manager regarding changes in a project?
A. Accept and reject the changes

B. Implement the changes
C. Influence the factors that cause changes
D. Raise the change request
Question 149: Which of the following is incorrect for configuration management?
A. Configuration management is focused on specifications of project deliverables

B. Configuration management is focused on specifications of project process
C. Configuration management is focused on approving and rejecting changes
D. Configuration management can be manual or automated
Question 150: Which of the following is not a decision-making process step?

A. State the problem
B. Identify alternatives
C. Evaluate alternatives
D. Accept the decision

Session 29: Manage Execution issues
Question 151: Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding conflict?
A. Openness resolves conflict

B. Conflict is natural and forces a search for alternatives
C. Conflict is inevitable in a project environment.
D. Conflicts should be addressed early and publicly
Question 152: Which of the following statement regarding conflict management

technique is incorrect?
A. Smoothing emphasize on areas of agreement

B. Compromise search for solutions to resolve the conflict temporarily
C. Withdraw requires a cooperative attitude and open dialogue to resolve the conflict
D. Problem solving incorporates multiple viewpoints towards consensus and
commitment
Question 153: Which of the following is not a cause of conflict in a project?
A. Priorities
B. Work styles
C. Scare resources
D. Ground rules
Question 154: What conflict resolution method should be used during the project status
meetings?
A. Smoothing
B. Forcing
C. Withdrawal
D. Collaboration
Question 155: Which of the following will help to reduce the gap of cultural
differences between team members?
A. Developing the risk register together

B. Setting the ground rules
C. Following the communication plan
D. Sharing the unique attributes of cultural values

Question 156: Which of the following are ways to capture the knowledge of project?
A. Document
B. Story
C. Pictures
D. Publish
Question 157: The main purpose to manage the team performance is?
A. Acquire the best resources available.

B. Complete the project according to the project management plan.
C. Assess the viability of the project's ground rules.
D. Make sure each team member has a clearly assigned role.

Session 30: Manage Changes
Question 158: All of the following are examples of inspections EXCEPT?

Audits
Walkthroughs
Product reviews
Product analysis
Question 159: What is the target of validate scope?

A. Completeness of deliverable
B. Correctness of deliverable
C. Acceptance of deliverable
D. Verification of deliverables
Question 160: Which of the following is correct for scope creep?

A. It is referred as uncontrolled changes in a project's scope
B. It is referred as providing additional features to end user
C. It is referred as changes in project scope
D. It is referred as conformance to requirements
Question 161: A good scope change control system would define:

A. The procedures by which the project scope and product scope can be changed
B. How requests for improvements can be submitted to the project team
C. The procedures by which ONLY the product scope can be changed
D. How to more completely detail the project scope to eliminate the risk of any scope
changes
Question 162: Which of the following is incorrect?

A. Control chart shows the trends in a process over a period of time
B. Histogram demonstrate the number of defects by source
C. Scatter diagrams shows the relationship between two variables
D. Cause and effect diagram show a series of steps that lead to a defect
Question 163: The key difference between Validate Scope & Control Quality is:
A. Validate Scope is concerned with meeting the quality standards specified.
B. Validate Scope is concerned with the acceptance of deliverables.
C. Validate Scope does not apply in projects that have been cancelled.
D. Validate Scope can never be performed in parallel with Control Quality.
Question 164: Which of the following is not an influencing skill?

A. Ability to persuasive
B. Active and effective listening skills
C. Articulating points and positions
D. Enforcing decisions

Session 31: Plan Procurements
Question 165: Which of the following statement regarding project manager role during
procurement is Correct?
A. Project manager is typically authorized to sign the legal agreements
B. Project manager must be expert in procurement laws and regulations
C. Project manager identifies and document the procurement needs in statement
of work
D. Project manager monitors and control the performance of contractual
relationship
Question 166: Which of the following is not an activity of plan procurement?

A. Decide on either to make internally or buy from outside
B. Determine the source selection criteria
C. Develop the procurement strategy
D. Publish the request for proposal

A. Procurement strategy determines the project delivery method
B. Procurement management plan includes metrics to be used to manage contracts
C. Procurement strategy determines about the selection of contract payment type
D. Procurement management plan includes assumption and constraints regarding the
contract
E. Procurement strategy includes the description of products or services need
Question 168: Which of the following is not true for statement of work?
A. Statement of work includes the description of product or services needed
B. Seller develops the statement of work
C. Statement of work is subset of scope statement
D. Statement of work may be referred as term of reference for service requirements
Question 169: Which of the following is not correct for bid documents?
A. Request for information is used when more information on the goods and services
are required
B. Request for proposal is used when technical approach is required from seller
C. Request for information is used to inquire how much it will cost
D. Request for proposal is used when formal information is required within
procurement rules for content
Question 170: Which of the following is not a source selection method?

A. Return on investment
B. Least cost
C. Sole source
D. Fixed budget

Session 32: Conduct Procurements
Question 171: What is the best way to describe how contract terms and conditions are
created?
A. They use only the company's existing standard terms and conditions
B. They are created based on a risk analysis
C. They are created based on the needs of the seller
D. They are created by the procurement officer assigned to the project
Question 172: Which of the following statement is in correct?
A. Time and material contracts should be done for low-cost projects

B. Time and material contracts should be done for short term projects
C. Time and material contracts can start the work immediately
D. Time and material contracts require detailed statement of work
Question 173: Which of the following is incorrect regarding fixed price contracts?
A. Seller has high risks in fixed price contracts

B. Fixed price contracts should be done when scope of work is clearly defined
C. Fixed price contracts can account for inflations and market changes
D. Fixed price contracts are easy to negotiate
Question 174: Which of the following is incorrect regarding cost reimbursable contracts?
A. Cost reimbursable contracts are best when there are mid project changes expected
B. Seller and buyer both share the risks based on performance in cost reimbursable
contracts
C. Cost reimbursable contracts are good for staff augmentations
D. It is good for large projects with uncertainty in scope
Question 175: What is not a benefit of bidder conference?
A. Walkthrough the scope

B. Negotiate the proposal
C. Explain terms and conditions
D. Answer the seller questions
Question 176: What would be the order for seller to negotiate with?
A. Schedule, output, cost
B. Cost, output, schedule
C. Cost, schedule, output
D. Output, schedule, cost

Session 33: Control Procurements
Question 177: What is the main purpose of a procurement audit?
A. Monitor the progress of procurement

B. Audit the costs associated with contract
C. Review the process through which procurement is done
D. Negotiate the procurement changes
Question 178: Which of the following is not the cause of contract changes?
A. Economic adjustment
B. Technical debt
C. Independent estimates
D. Change requests
Question 179: Which of the following statement regarding contract change control is
incorrect?
A. Contracts should have change control process

B. Well written statement of work helps to minimize surprises during project
execution
C. Cost reimbursable contract will minimize the impact of changes in project
D. Only buyers can request for changes in project
Question 180: What is the main difference between contract change control system and
project change control system?
A. Contract Change control process requires more documentation

B. Contract change control process will be initiated by seller
C. Contract Change control process requires more sign-offs
D. Contract change control process will be initiated by buyer
Question 181: What is the best course of action, when contract is closed in between?
A. Complete the deliverable in hand

B. Move to another project
C. Close the procurement
D. Close the project
Question 182: Which of the following is correct for claims?
A. Claims are change requests by buyer

B. Claims are change request by seller
C. Claims are contested changes between buyer and seller
D. Claims are changes due to technical reasons

Session 34: Report Project Performance
A- Physical completion status is an example of work performance data

B- Schedule variance is an example of work performance information
C- Status reports are example of work performance reports
D- Cost variance is an example of work performance data
Question 184: Which of the following is CORRECT for KPIs?
A- Budget is an example of KPI

B- Milestone is an example of KPI
C- Schedule performance index is an example of KPI
D- Number of team members in a project is KPI
Question 185: Which of the following is a valid reason for project schedule delay?
A- Project CPI is 0.8

B- Critical resource is on leave
C- Project SPI is 1.1
D- Project manager is non-technical
Question 186: Which of the following is a valid reason for negative cost variance?
A- Project SPI is 0.9

B- Dollar value of critical resource increased
C- Project CPI is 1.1
D- Project manager is too technical
Question 187: Which of the following is an INCORRECT Formula?
A- SV = EV - PV
B- EV = SPI / PV
C- CV = EV – AC
D- EV = SPI / AC
Question 188: Which of the following is INCORRECT depiction?
A- SPI > 1 Project is ahead on schedule

B- SV = +ve Project on schedule
C- CPI < 1 Project is over budget
D- CV = -ve Project over budget

Session 35: Forecast Project Status
Question 189: Which of the following is an example of leading indicator?
A- %complete is an example is an example of leading indicator

B- Cost variance is an example of leading indicator
C- Estimate at complete is an example of leading indicator
D- Physical complete is an example of leading indicator
Question 190: Which of the following statement is correct for trend analysis?
A- It is difference between your planned budget and latest estimated budget

(VARIANCE)
B- It is used when you need to account for uncertainty in your estimates (3E)
C- It is used to predict future outcomes based on data collected
D- It indicates how efficiently you must perform to complete your project within a
budget.
Question 191: Which formula is valid if you want to estimate new budget based on
current performance?
A- Estimate at complete (EAC) = AC + BAC – EV

B- Estimate at complete (EAC) = BAC / CPI
C- Estimate at complete (EAC) = AC + [(BAC – EV)/(CPI * SPI)]
D- Estimate at complete (EAC) = (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC)
Question 192: Which of the following is correct for Estimate to Complete (ETC)?
A- ETC is a funding needed to complete all the remaining work

B- ETC is a total funding needed to complete the project
C- ETC is a total budget allocated to the project
D- ETC is a reserved budget allocated to complete the project
Question 193: Which of the formula is valid if you want to complete the project within
planned budget?
A- TCPI = (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC)

B- TCPI = (BAC – EV) / [EAC (Atypical) – AC]
C- TCPI = EAC - AC
D- TCPI = TCPI = (BAC – EV) / [EAC (Typical) – AC]

Session 36: Close Project or Phase
Question 194: Which of the following statement is INCORRECT, regarding project closure
types?
A. Extinction means successful conclusion of project.

B. Starvation means project is closed due to lack of funds.
C. Integration means project is merged into another project.
D. Addition means project becomes an operation task.
Question 195: Why closing process is important if the project has been terminated
abruptly. Select the BEST option?
A. To check the performance of project manager.

B. To check the performance of project team.
C. To clear the payments of work done.
D. To gather lessons learned for the benefit of future projects.
Question 196: All of the following are activities of close project or phase process EXCEPT?
A. Record lessons learned.

B. Transition the product and services to end user.
C. Validate deliverables.
D. Conduct trend analysis
Question 197: Which of the following is NOT an example of administrative activity?
A. Finalizing claims.
B. Audit project success of failure.
C. Product transition to end user.
D. Reallocating project facilities.
Question 198: Which of the following is not a content of project report?
A. Scope Objective.
B. Quality Objective.
C. Cost Objective.
D. Resource Objective.

Question 199: Which of the following is NOT a phase closure activity?
A. Record lessons learned.

B. Complete the product of the project.
C. Formally accept deliverables.
D. Release phase team.
Question 200: Which of the following best describes when a project phase is generally
concluded?
A. When deliverables are accepted

B. When the next phase work is started
C. When phase completion payment is received
D. When procurement is completed

Answers
Session 1: Differentiate Project, Operations, and Program
Question 1: Right Answer: Option A
Explanation
Option A: Is one of right answer based on given options.
Option B is a success criteria for program.
Option C is a success criteria for Operations.
Option D is also a success criteria of Program as Benefits = Measurable Outcomes
Question 2: Right Answer: Option D
Explanation
Option A: Is an example of operation.
Option B: Is an example of project activity.
Option C: is an example of Program.
Option D: is and example of Project
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are examples of Operations
Option D is an example of Project/Program
Explanation
Option A, B, and C can be defined as a role of manager projects.
Option D is right definition of Program.
Question 5: Right Answer: Option B
Explanation
Option. A, C, and are examples of Program.
Option B is an example of Project

Session 2: Align Strategy with Execution
Question 6: Right Answer: Option C
Explanation
Option A: Mission is your organization purpose not vision
Option B Wrong statement
Option C Vision is the dream or future goal of an organization
Option D Vision and mission are not synonyms
Explanation
Option A, B and D are characteristics of Strategy
Option C is wrong statement
Explanation
Option B: is an example of vision
Option C: is an example of mission
Option D: is an example of Project
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are Portfolio Functions
Option D is right definition of Program.
Explanation
Option B, and C, are examples of Program.
Option D is an example of Project

Session 3: Design Project Life Cycle
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are examples of Phase relationships
Option D Related is not a phase relationship type. It is a makeup word.
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are attributes of plan driven life cycle
Option B: Initiation, planning, execution, monitoring, and closing are process groups not
project phases.
Explanation
Option A: In agile project management changes can be accommodated before or during the
iteration
Option B: In agile project management iteration duration cannot be extended.
Option C. In agile project management scope can defined using user stories, features list or
use cases
Option D: In agile project management product owner priorities the scope of the project not
the team.
Question 14: Right Answer: Option E
Explanation
Option A, B, C, and D, are phase closure terminologies
Option E is a makeup word for this question.
Explanation
Ability of the stakeholder to influence final characteristics of the project’s product decreases
not increases as the project progresses.

Session 4: Understand Project Manager Competencies
Explanation
Option A: Develop Project charter is sponsor responsibility
Option B: Gather project requirements from stakeholders is business analyst responsibility
Option D: Project team is Responsible to convert project deliverables into activities
Explanation
Option A, B, and C is the responsibility of project manager
Option D: It is individual responsibility to ensure their integrity
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are talent triangle components
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are project manager integration levels.
Option B is a makeup word
Explanation
Emotional characteristic helps to perceive emotions not cultural awareness

Session 5: Evaluate Project Management Requirements in Organizations
Explanation
Understanding of organization structure helps to identify the power structure which will
help to use political capabilities
Explanation
Option A: Is an example of strong matrix organization structure
Option B: In Functional Organization project manager does not assign resources, although
his role is defined as expeditor, so the option is half true and half false
Option C: No-home after the project is a case of projectized organization
Option D: Is Correct scenario
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are correct statements
Option D: In Functional organization project manager works as expeditor and reports
project progress.
Explanation
Option A, and D, are correct statements.
Option C is not a mandatory scenario but it is recommended to have a colocation setup for
project base environment
Option B: Is a case of strong matrix organization
Explanation
Option A: In weak matrix project manager assig resources
Option B: In balance matrix project manager share responsibilities with functional manager
Option D: Tight matrix is not an organization structure it is an alternative name of
colocation, and can also be referred as war room.

Session 6: Map PMO in your organization
Question 26: Right Answer: Option A, B, C, D
Explanation
All are true
Explanation
Portfolio PMO helps to prioritize projects, monitor the status, track risks and share
resources
Explanation
Project manager focuses on delivering project results by focusing on scope, cost, quality
constraints
Explanation
PMO is not responsible for client trainings. It can provide trainings to their organizational
resources
Explanation
Assigning the resources to specific project tasks is a responsibility of project manager not
PMO manager.

Session 7: Authorize Projects
Explanation
Business case documentation is done before starting the project initiation. During project
initiation reviewing the business case and making decision based on business case is an
activity.
Explanation
Scope statement document is developed after the project initiation phase.
Explanation
This question is not to compare one selection method over other it is to understand how to
read the results for project selection criteria
Option A: opportunity cost is should be referred with comparison of other projects so A is
not an answer
Option B: Benefit cost ration should be 1 or greater than 1
Option C: IRR is negative
Option D: NPV is positive so it is right answer
Explanation
Work authorization system is a part of enterprise environmental factors
Explanation
Organization policies and procedures are part of organizational process assets

Session 8: Create and Publish Project Charter
Explanation
Option A: Project manager can help to document the charter but actually project charter is
an appointment letter of project manager
Option B: Project sponsor has the ultimate responsibility to document the project charter
Option C and D: can document project charter but then they will be referred as project
sponsor
Explanation
Project team is not a part of project charter. Charter is an authorization document and it
needs approval from multiple stakeholders.
Explanation
Transformational needs are not a type of business needs. Transformational needs comes
under organizational needs.
Explanation
Cost benefits analysis is part of business case not the project charter.
Explanation
Option A: Increase in 30% sale is an example of benefit and is not a project success criteria
Option B: is a project requirement
Option C: is a success criterion
Option D: is a condition of a project requirement

Session 9: Identify and Assess Stakeholders
Explanation
Sponsor can exist from both buyer and seller side
Explanation
There always will be an end user of the product
Explanation
Stakeholders assessment and classification is part of stakeholder register so it is not a public
document and it does not require buy-in or sign off
Explanation
Influence of stakeholder is their ability to cause changes to the project outcomes
Explanation
Classification of salience model are power, urgency and legitimacy

Session 10: Measure Project Management
Explanation
As per PMBok Internal and external stakeholders are classified based on their organizations.
Subcontractor is outside the client organization and hence is not a internal stakeholder.
Explanation
Scope statement is a project document
Explanation
Risk management plan is a project management plan document
Explanation
Scope statement is a component of Scope baseline. Scope baseline components are scope
statement, WBS, and WBS dictionary
Explanation
Kickoff meeting is done after project management phase. For small projects it can be done
after initiation. But in question it asks ideally so the right answer is option C

Session 11: Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Explanation
Option A, B, and C all are components of scope management plan
Option D: Scope management plan is a process document and it does not contain project
scope
Explanation
The right concept regarding stakeholder is stakeholder engagement. As a project manager
our job is to manage stakeholder expectations

Explanation
Influence is not necessary the official power...
Explanation
Sharing the project outcomes is the most effective way to buy in support from resistant
stakeholders
Explanation
One should use proactive approach to get feedback. Waiting for end. user to provide
feedback is not a good strategy

Session 12: Plan Communication Strategy
Explanation
Mirroring the face is disrespectful.
Explanation
Option A: Web portals, Intranet sites, e-learnings are examples of Pull Communications
Option B: Letter, memos, emails and blogs are examples of Push Communications
Option C: Meetings, phone calls and video conferencing are examples of Interactive
communications
Option D: Conservative is a makeup word
Explanation
Option C: Asking questions is an example of verbal communication
Explanation
Meeting minutes are recorded during meetings and are not part of communication
management plan.
Explanation
The number of communication channels = n(n–1) ÷ 2 where n is the number of stakeholders

Session 13: Elicit Requirement
Explanation
Formal written reduces the communication gap and helps to solve complex problems
Explanation
Project requirement types are Business Requirements, Stakeholder Requirements, Solution
Requirements, Transition Requirements, Project Requirements and Quality Requirements.
Explanation
Nominal Group technique uses voting to prioritize ideas.
Consolidating requirement into map based on similarities and differences is an example of
Mind map
Explanation
Facilitated workshop is more effective with cross departmental resources and helps to
reduce the differences
Explanation
It is not necessary that prototype covers all the functionalities of the expected product
Explanation
Scope statement is a component of scope baseline not the requirement document

Session 14: Assess Quality Requirements
Explanation
Plan quality should be performed in parallel with the other planning processes.
Explanation
Quality and Grade are not similar.
We cannot compromise on quality. Grade can be defined based on requirements.
Explanation
Continuous improvement helps to decrease the cost of the project.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are examples of Cost of conformance
Option D: Warranty costs is associated with cost of nonconformance
Explanation
Number of requirements captured from end user is an example of requirement gathering
and it is not associated with any quality requirements.

Session 15: Develop Project Scope Statement
Explanation
Corrective action recommendations are a part of quality report
Explanation
Project Management Scope is not a requirement type
Explanation
Alternative analysis is a separate technique used in creating a scope statement
Explanation
Option B, C, D are characteristics of facilitation technique.
Option A: Focus Group helps to capture domain specific knowledge.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are definitions of Assumption
Option D: Constraints are limiting factors for project not the assumptions
Explanation
Option A: Project Charter formally authorizes a project
Option B: SOW describes procurement items in sufficient details
Option D: WBS subdivided the major deliverable into smaller more manageable components

Session 16: Decompose Work Breakdown Structure
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are definitions of WBS
Option B: The lowest level of WBS component is referred as Work Package not WBS
Dictionaries
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are components of WBS
Option B: milestones are activities and activities are not a component of WBS
Explanation
Option A: Requirement document is an input of scope baseline, not a component of scope
baseline.
Option B, C, and D, are components of Scope Baseline
Explanation
Resource requirements are part of WBS dictionary but resource assignments are not

Session 17: Decompose Project Activities
Explanation
Numeric numbering system is preferred for WBS code of account identifier
Explanation
Activities are part of activity list, not Work breakdown structure
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are definitions of milestones
Option C: Milestone has technically zero duration. Milestone can inform about phase
completion but it is not equal to phase duration
Explanation
End User providers requirements and he is not involved in identifying activities or
decomposing work packages to list activities
Explanation
Rolling wave planning does not add project scope.
The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost,
and resources is referred to as scope creep

Session 18: Sequence Project Activities
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are components of activity attributes
Option C: Project objective identifier is part of requirement traceability document.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are types of dependency determination
Option D is a makeup option
Explanation
Option A: Lead time is a time when a successor activity can start before its planned start
date
Option B: Project float is a time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
duration
Option C: Buffer is an extra time added in an activity as reserve for any risks
Option D: Lag time is a waiting time between two activities
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are network diagram types.
Option D: network diagram concept is associated with activities and WBS does not contain
activities
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are characteristics of Arrow diagramming method.

Session 19: Estimate Project Resources
Explanation
Option A: Finish-to-Start is the most used dependency type
Option D: Start-to-Finish is the least used dependency type
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are acronym of 3M (Man, Machine, and Material)
Option B: is a makeup word
Explanation
In Resource Histogram Document we can identify the number and type of resources
required in each WBS, or Phase or Time
Explanation
OBS is arranged as per the structure of organization departments, units, and teams
Explanation
Option A: is a purpose of Procurement management plan
Option B: is a purpose of Requirement management plan
Option C: is a purpose of Schedule management plan

Session 20: Estimate Project Durations and Costs
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are attributes of team charter document
Option D: Reporting relationship is part of Project organization chart not Team charter
Explanation
Analogous estimation technique is also referred as Top Down Estimation Technique, and it is
based on previous experience. It saves time and costs least as required information is
available from past projects.
Explanation
Bottom-up estimating is a method of estimating a component of work. The cost of individual
work packages or activities is estimated to the greatest level of specified detail. The detailed
cost is then summarized or "rolled up" to higher levels for subsequent reporting and
tracking purposes. Scope requirements are not used for bottom-up estimating
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are variables of three-point estimates.
Option D is a makeup word
Explanation
Option A: Is a definition of top-down estimation which is also referred as analogous
estimation
Option B: Is a definition of bottom-up estimation which is also referred as ABC estimation
Option C: is a definition of three-point estimation
Option D: is a definition of Parametric estimation

Session 21: Finalize Schedule and Cost Baselines

Explanation
Option A, B, and D are correct definitions
Option is an example of milestone chart
Explanation
Resource smoothing helps to secure critical path by utilizing non-critical path resource on
critical path.
Options C is incorrect option as by definition critical path does not have any float.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are examples of resource levelling which can help us to solve the issue of
resource overallocation.
Option D generally used in agile frameworks to increase the velocity of team to deliver more
work in iteration.
Explanation
Option A: will increase the project duration, here we need to reduce it
Option B: are examples of schedule compression techniques
Option C: is an example of resource smoothing which is not required here
Option D: will impact the scope, which we are not supposed to do

Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are correct statements
Option C: It is possible that we have multiple critical paths in project network diagram. If in
any project we have multiple critical paths means we need to focus more on risks.
Explanation
Option A: Formula of Cost Baseline = Project Estimates + Contingency Reserve
Option B: Formula of Project Budget = Cost Baseline + Management Reserve
Option C: Management reserves are kept due to black swan events
Option D: Both Contingency reserves and management reserves are buffer.
In exam if we have specific answer and general answer. Select specific answer, like
we selection option A: Contingency reserve

Session 22: Identify Risks
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are correct statements.
Option C: implies that risk has only negative impact. However, risk can have both negative
and positive impact on the project objectives.
Negative risks are referred. as threats and positive risks are referred as opportunities
Explanation
Risk Management plan is a process document, which guides how we will perform risk
management in our project.
Option A, C, and D, are components of risk management plan
Option B: Assumptions or Assumption lists is separate document, which helps to identify
project risks.
Explanation
SWOT analysis tools helps to identify risks, and develop strategy.
the components of SWOT are Strength, Weakness, Opportunities and Threats. Triggers is a.
makeup word.
Explanation
Risk register is a project document and risk methodology are a part of risk management
plan.
Explanation
Predetermined list of risk categories is an example of prompt list.
Risk breakdown structure contains categories of risks which may/may not occur in the
project. Infact lower level of risk breakdown structure categories can be used in prompt list
document.

Explanation
Risk owner is a person who is responsible to plan risk response strategy and ensure it is
implemented if risk arises.
It is not necessary the project manager is responsible for all risks in projects.
Risk owners can be anyone inside organization, outside organization

Session 23: Analyze Risks
Explanation
Qualitative risk analysis is a subjective analysis not objective analysis. Perform qualitative
risks analysis process helps to identify the priority of risks identified during risk identification
process.
Explanation
Quantitative risks analysis helps to statically calculate the impact of project risks.
Execution of risk response strategy is part of implement risk responses process.
Explanation
Expected monetary value (EMV) helps to calculate the contingency reserves
Explanation
Option A is a definition of Decision Tree
Option B is a definition of Sensitivity analysis
Option C is a definition of Influence Diagram
Option D is a definition of Root Cause Analysis
Explanation
Probability impact assessment helps to prioritize project risks
Risks which have HIGH Probability and Medium Impact has more priority than
Medium Probability and HIGH Impact.
Based on above statement Probability has preference on Impact.
Explanation
Option A: To estimate project activity duration we use top down, bottom up, parametric,
and three-point estimation techniques
Option B: Matrix diagrams helps to identify quality metrics for project.
Option C: Resources required in the project can also be estimated through top down,
bottom up, parametric, and three-point estimation techniques
Option D: simulations help to identify the impact of risks on overall project

Session 24: Plan and Execute Risk Responses
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct statements
Option B: Acceptance response is a strategy for those risks whose opportunity is low. Not
for those whose opportunity is outside the scope of project or project manager authority
Explanation
Option B: Acceptance response is a strategy for those risks whose impact is low. Not for
those whose threat is outside the scope of project or project manager authority.
Explanation
Option A: Keeping the time, cost, or resources as contingency for overall project are
examples of active risk response strategy.
Option B: Corrective response is when risk event is triggered and you need to replan the
project, adjust the priority or change the scope or reset the project boundary.
Option C: Preventive risk response is when you are taking action in advance to prevent the
risk to happen.
Option D: Passive risk response is not doing any thing
Explanation
Option C: Residual risks are those risks that are deliberately accepted, not the ones that
were not identified during planning phase.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are the results of risk review meeting.
Option D Changes in baseline is done after acceptance of change request.

Explanation
Option A, B, and D are correct statements
Option D: Project manager is responsible for ensuring risk audits are performed not to
perform the risk audit

Session 25: Learn to Lead
Explanation
Option C is incorrect. Project manager needs to be both leader and manager
Explanation
Option A is the responsibility of functional manager. Functional manager focuses on
providing the management oversight not the project manager
Option B, C, and D, are correct statements
Explanation
Option A: Transformational is a leadership style not a power type
Option B: Expert is a power type, but it relates to the skill and knowledge one possesses
Option C: Coercive power is an ability to invoke discipline or negative consequences
Option D: Referent power is all about credibility and respect and it is best for project
manager
Explanation
Option C: Transformational leadership focuses on individual attributes and behaviors to
inspire motivation and encouragement.
Explanation
Option B, C, and D, are correct statements
Option A: Networking is an informal connection and relations among stakeholders

Session 26: Produce Deliverables
Explanation
Option C: is incorrect as Pre-Assignment is a special case where resources are identified
during authorization, charter, and/or contract time.
Explanation
Option C: Working extra hour should not be a requirement for rewards
Explanation
Option D is incorrect as Conflicts are inevitable in project teams.
Explanation
Option D: is incorrect as virtual team helps teams to work from home. Although virtual team
concept is that teams are working from remote locations or from remote office.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are correct statements.
Option D: “We can work together” mentality is developed during norming stage. During
performing stage team works together.
Explanation
Option D: is incorrect, team building activities are necessary for bother virtual teams and
physical teams

Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are correct statements of motivational theories
Option D: is incorrect statement. According to Herzberg’s theory high salary, good working
environment are example of hygiene factors not motivational factors. Hygiene factors does
not increase the motivation of employees
Explanation
Maslow hierarchy of needs are Physiological needs, Safety needs, Relationship needs, Self
Esteem, and Self-actualization. Self-actualization is a pinnacle of all.

Session 27: Negotiate for Value
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct situations for negotiation
Option B: is incorrect as resolving issues with team members is conflict management
Explanation
During negotiation decision is a tough job to do.
Option A, B, and C, are correct statements relating to negotiations
Option D: As a rule of thumb decisions should be based in objective criteria not on
subjective criteria’s.
Explanation
Emotional intelligence helps in dealing yourself and other stakeholders. However, it does
not reflect in reduces number of change requests.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are components of emotional intelligence
Option D: contract management is a makeup concept here.
Emotional Intelligence components are self-awareness, Social awareness, Self-management,
and Relationship management
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct statements.
Option B: is incorrect, as it enforces that all trainings should occur before execution and
should be planned. Although trainings can be done at any time during the project lifecycle.
It is also not necessary that all training should be planned. Trainings can be both planned
and unplanned. Unplanned training takes place as result of observation, conversation, and
project performance appraisals

Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct statements. System behavior, human behavior and
ambiguity are complexity dimensions.
Option B: Uncertainty is not a complexity dimension

Session 28: Manage Deliverable Issues
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are correct statements for raising change requests
Option D: This is a tricky one additional activity required is an example of progressive
elaboration. It may or may not need a change request.
Explanation
Change request types are corrective actions, preventive actions, updates and defect repairs.
Option C: is an incorrect statement. Updates are changes to formally controlled project
documents, plans etc., to reflect modified or additional ideas or content.
Explanation
Option B, C, and D, are incorrect statements
Option A: is correct. Project baselines will only be updated once changes have been
approved by CCB
Explanation
Option A: Accepting and rejecting the changes is the job of change control board
Option B: Implementing the changes is the job of project team
Option C: Project manager job is to influence the change causes that it should be minimum
Option D: Generally, change requests are raised by internal and external stakeholders.
Project manager receives the changes
Explanation
Option C: is incorrect statement as change management is focused on approving and
rejecting changes, not configuration management
Explanation
Decision making steps are 1) State the problem 2) Identify alternatives 3) Evaluate
alternatives 4) Make Decision 5) Implement decision

Session 29: Manage Execution issues
Explanation
Option A, B, and C all are correct statements
Option D: is incorrect statement as conflicts should be addressed early and privately
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are correct statements regarding conflict management techniques
Option C is incorrect statement. Cooperative attitude and open dialogues are being using in
collaborative/problem solving technique
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are causes of conflicts and are not right answers
Option D: is a correct. Ground rule is not a cause of conflict. It is a solution to resolve
conflicts in a project.
Explanation
Smoothing is the method that was most likely used to resolve the conflict that arose at the
status meeting. Smoothing is a temporary way to resolve conflict.
Explanation
Understanding cultural difference and respecting cultural values is an important element in
project teams. To reduce the gap of cultural difference between team members, sharing the
unique attributes of cultural values is a good strategy.
Explanation
Options A, B, and C, are ways to share the knowledge of projects
Option D: is incorrect. Publish is not the way to capture the story. It is a way to share it.
Explanation
The main purpose to manage the team performance is to complete the project according to
the project management plan.

Session 30: Manage Changes
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are examples of inspection, which helps to validate the project scope.
Option D: is incorrect. Product analysis is a scope definition technique. Not scope validation
Explanation
Option A: Completeness of deliverable will be done during project and phase closure
Option B: Correctness of deliverable will be done during control quality
Option C: Accept of deliverable will be done during validate scope
Option D: Verification of deliverable will be done during control quality
Explanation
Option B, C, and D, are wrong statements
Option A is correct statement. Scope creep is uncontrollable changes in project scope.
Explanation
Changes are inevitable. Having a good change control process that addresses both project
and product scope will ensure manageability of the process.
Explanation
Option D: Flow chart shows a series of steps that lead to a defect. Not Cause and effect
diagrams. Cause and effect diagrams help to identify the main or root cause of the problem.
Explanation
Validate scope is concerned with the acceptance of deliverables, while control quality is
primarily concerned with the meeting the quality requirements. Both can also be done in
parallel.

Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are influencing skills.
Option D: Enforcing decision is an ability of power not an influencing skill.

Session 31: Plan Procurements
Explanation
Option A, and B are responsibilities of procurement manager
Option C mostly done by client or their technical team members
Option D Project manager actually monitors and control the performance of contractual
relationship
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are activities of plan procurement process
Option D: Public the request for proposal is an activity performed during conduct
procurement process
Question 167: Right Answer: Option E
Explanation
Option A, B, C, and D, are correct statements.
Option E: is an incorrect statement as SOW includes the description of products or services
needed in a project not Procurement strategy
Explanation
Option B: is incorrect. It’s buyer or client responsibility to develop the statement of work,
not the seller or contractor.
Explanation
Option C: is an incorrect statement. Request for quotation is used to inquire how much it
will cost. Not request for information

Explanation
Option B, C, and D, are source selection methods
Option D: Is incorrect statement.
Commonly used source selection methods are i) least cost ii) Qualifications only iii) Quality-
based/highest technical proposal score iv) quality and cost-based v) Sole source vi) fixed
budget.

Session 32: Conduct Procurements
Explanation
Terms and conditions should reflect the findings of a risk analysis. This means the
project manager has been assigned and has completed the risk management
process before the contract is drafted. Contracts are risk mitigation tools.
Question 172: Right Answer: Option
Explanation
Options A, B, and C, are correct statements
Option D: is incorrect statement. Time and material contracts can even be started without
statement of work
Explanation
Option D: is incorrect statement. Time and material contracts are easy to negotiate, not
Fixed price contracts
Explanation
Option C, is incorrect statement. Time and material contracts are good for staff
augmentations as it is short term and low in cost.
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct statements.
Option B: is incorrect statement. Negotiating the project proposal is not a benefit of bidder
conference. In this event, main target is to walkthrough the scope and answer the seller
questions.
Explanation
Sellers wants to negotiate output/result first, then they prefer to discuss the time it
will take to achieve that and finally the cost.

Session 33: Control Procurements
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are incorrect statements
Option C: is correct statement. A procurement audit identifies what went right and
wrong for the purposes of creating historical records and improving future
performance.
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are causes of contract changes
Option C: Independent estimates is not the cause of contract changes. Independent
estimates are being used to minimize the change
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are correct statements regarding contract change control system.
Option D: is incorrect statement. Both buyers and seller can request for changes in project
Explanation
Option A, B, and D are incorrect statements.
Option C: is a correct statement. Contract change control process requires more sign-offs
Explanation
As a project manager you best course of action is to close the procurement as per control
procurement process.
Explanation
Option C: is correct for claims, as claims are contested changed between buyer and seller.

Session 34: Report Project Performance
Explanation
Option D: is incorrect statement. Cost variance is an example of work performance
information, not work performance data.
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are examples of constraints
Option C: is correct statement. Schedule performance index is an example of KPI.
Explanation
Option A: CPI is 0.8 means project is over budget
Option B: critical resource is on leave can cause the project delay
Option C: SPI 1.1 means project is ahead of schedule. However, question is asking for reason
of project delay.
Option D: PM technical or non-technical expertise is not a reason for project delays.
Explanation
Option A: SPI 0.9 means project is behind schedule.
Option B: Increase in dollar value of critical resource can be a reason for -ve cost variance.
Option C: CPI 1.1 means project is under budget
Option D: PM technical or non-technical expertise is not a reason for negative cost variance.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C are correct formulas
Option D: is incorrect formula. The right formula is EV=SPI/PV not EV=SPI/AC
Explanation
Option A, C, and D, are correct depictions of earned values.
Option B: is incorrect depiction. SV = +ve means project is ahead of schedule not on
schedule. SV = 0 means project is on schedule.
Project manager technical expertise or non-technical expertise is not a reason for project
delays.

Session 35: Forecast Project Status
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are examples of lagging indicators.
Option C: is correct statement as Estimate at complete provides future value and is an
example of leading indicators.
Explanation
Option A: is a statement about variance analysis
Option B: is a statement about three-point estimates
Option C: is a statement about trend analysis
Option D: is a statement about To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
Explanation
Option A: is a formula to calculate new budget based on budgeted rate
Option B: is a formula to calculate new budget based on current rate or current
performance
Option C: is a formula to calculate new budget if both SPI and CPI influence the work
Option D: is a formula of TCPI not EAC
Explanation
Option A: is correct statement for Estimate to complete (ETC)
Option B, C, and D, are incorrect statements
Explanation
Option A: is a TCPI formula which will provide information to check if project can be
completed within planned budget.
Option B, and D, are formulas of TCPI which can be used if new budget is not applicable
Option C: is not a formula of TCPI. It is a formula of ETC. ETC = EAC - AC

Session 36: Close Project or Phase
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are correct statement regarding project closures.
Option C: is incorrect statement. Integration means project resources are being utilized in
other projects not project is merged into another project.
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, can be consider factors to perform project closure if project is
terminated abruptly. But all options are related to current state or current project.
Option D: is the best option as it will help the organization in future projects.
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are activities of close project or phase process.
Option C: is an activity of Validate scope process
Explanation
Option A, B, and D, are example of administrative closure activities
Option C: is an example of project closure activity
Explanation
Option A, B, and C, are contents of project report.
Option D: is incorrect content
Explanation
Option A, C, and D are examples of phase closure activities.
Option B: is incorrect statement. It is a project closure activity
Explanation
Work for each phase must be inspected and accepted before the phase can be closed out.

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PMP® Exam Knowledge Questions

PMP® Knowledge Questions

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 2

Asad Ullah Chaudhry

Asad possesses diversified experience in Strategic Management, Portfolio Management,

Asad is working with organizations to align strategies with initiatives, Portfolio

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 3

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 4

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 5

Session 1: Differentiate Project, Operations, and Program

A. Complete projects within time, cost and scope.

Question 2: Which of the following is an example of a project?

A. Running payroll application.

Question 3: Which of the following is not an example of operation?

A. Providing uninterrupted electricity.

Question 4: Which of the following is a correct definition of a program?

A. Managing multiple projects of a department.

Question 5: Which of the following is not an example of a program?

A. Construction a housing scheme.

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 6

Session 2: Align Strategy with Execution

A. Vision is your organization purpose.

Question 7: Which of the following is not a definition of strategy?

A. Strategy defines boundary in your organization.

Question 8: Which of the following is an example of strategic objective?

A. Achieve 70% revenue from online sales.

Question 9: Which of the following is not a function of portfolio management?

A. Maximum Business value.

Question 10: Which of the following is an example of portfolio?

A. Leading telecom sector projects to increase revenue.

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 7

Session 3: Design Project Life Cycle

Question 12: Which of the following statement is not correct?

A. Plan driven project management is also referred as waterfall model.

Question 13: Which of the following statement is correct?

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 8

Session 4: Understand Project Manager Competencies

A. Develop Project charter.

A. Keep the project on track in terms of schedule and budget.

A. Technical project management.

Question 20: Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Political Awareness concerns the recognition of power relationships.

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 9

Session 5: Evaluate Project Management Requirements in Organizations

A. It helps to elicit the project requirements.

Question 22: Which of the following is CORRECT for functional organization?

A. Project Manager controls the budget and resources in functional organization.

A. In weak matrix organization, project manager works as project coordinator.

A. You are responsible to realize project goals.

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 10

Session 6: Map PMO in your organization

A. Project Management Office.

A. Supportive PMO serves as project repository.

A. PMO manager may reports project manager.

Question 29: Which of the following is not a function of PMO?

A. Manage lesson learned database.

Question 30: Which of the following is not a function of project PMO?

A. Developing policies and procedures to lead the project.

Transforming Knowledge and Personality towards Strategic Project Management 11

Session 7: Authorize Projects

Question 31: Which of the following is not an activity of project initiation?

A. Nominating the project manager.