CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS

A
1. According to the Chemical Data Guide, the flash point for the grade B flammable liquid piperylene is
__________. -20°F
2. According to the Chemical Data Guide, propylene oxide is assigned a health hazard rating of 3,2,2. The
last digit "2" of the rating means __________. the chemical poison presents some hazard if it enters the
body and typically has threshold limits of 100 to 500 ppm
3. A Cargo Ship Construction Certificate has a validity of: 5 years
4. As understood within the IMDG Code, what is an "article"? A device that contains a dangerous
substance or mixture of substances.
C
1. Cargoes referenced within the IMDG code may be anticipated to be: a spontaneous combustion
E
1. EmS in the dangerous goods Code stands for ________. Emergency schedule
F
1. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must have on board a:
Document of Compliance for carriage of dangerous goods.
G
1. Grade D liquids are those having flash points of __________.greater than 80°F and less than 150°F
2. Grade E combustible liquids are those having flash points of __________. 150°F or greater
H
1. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board? In a separate locker. The locker shall
be clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
I
1. If a cargo of kerosene were considered "too lean" to explode, then it must be __________. below the
"explosive range"
2. IMO recommendations on allowance for water absorption in timber deck cargoes on a General Cargo
Vessel state that: 15% additional weight should be used in stability calculation for the arrival
condition.
3. In conjunction with which two sets of international regulations should the IMDG Code be read for
security purposes? Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the ISPS Code.
4. In discussing segregation, the IMDG Code defines what it means by the term "separated from". Which
of the following is that definition? In different compartments or holds when stowed "under deck".
Provided an intervening deck is resistent to fire and liquid, a vertical separation may be accepted as
equivalent. For "on deck" stowage, this segregation means a distance of at least 6 metres.
N
1. Natural separation of cargo is achieved due to _____. the shape, size or packing of different cargo
loaded side by side
O
1. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships, reference must be made
to: The EmS Guide
2. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG Code it is not allowed to:
Pack and ship the cargo in bags
3. On a General Cargo ship which of the following statements is correct? Cold rolled steel coils must never
be loaded in rain
4. On General Cargo ships, cargoes such as logs, fish meal, scrap metal and bales of cotton commonly tend
to cause: Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
5. One particular group of hazardous goods is highlighted by the IMDG Code as potentially being the most
dangerous for carriage. Which of the following is it? Organic peroxides.
S
1. Steel coils when loaded on a General Cargo ship tend to be subjected to:Crushing and distortion.
2. Substances, materials and articles shall be stowed as indicated in the Dangerous Goods List of the
IMDG Code, in accordance with a series of stowage categories. How are those categories designated? 5
categories, labelled A-E.
T
1. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with:
Risk of explosion
 2. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous goods declaration on a
General Cargo Vessel should be: IMO Class, UN Number, Gross weight, number of units of cargo,
Proper Shipping Name
3. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General Cargo ship may be
obtained by referring to: The IMO International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code.
4. The ______ is responsible for marking, packing and other documents for loading dangerous goods.
Consigner
5. The first treatment given to a person overcome by benzene vapor should be to __________. remove
them to fresh air
6. The flash point of a product is 100°F. What can happen if it is heated above 110°F? It may burn and
explode if an ignition source is present.
7. The primary hazard of liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied natural gas is__________. Flammability
8. What best describes benzene? Clear colorless liquid with an aromatic odor
9. The carriage of bagged Ammonium Nitrate in cargo holds of a General Cargo vessel is associated with:
Risk of explosion
10. The carriage of logs on General Cargo vessels tends to cause: Oxygen depletion in the cargo holds.
11. The Classes drawn up by the UN Committee of Experts for the safe handling of hazardous substances,
as listed in the IMDG Code, are drawn up on the basis of which of the following criteria? The type of
hazard they present.
12. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under
which international guidelines? Protocol I of MARPOL
W
1. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4 (flammable solids) cargoes
loaded on a General Cargo vessel? The goods require protection against movement and can only be
loaded if a cargo declaration is supplied by the shipper
2. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded on a General cargo
vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and
preferably under deck if IMDG Code allows
3. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets? To provide all personnel including emergency
personnel with procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner
4. What is the procedure if a tank lorry containing dangerous goods is not clearly marked? Refuse to load
the vehicle
5. What type of cargo shall always be secured? Freight vehicles carrying dangerous goods and adjacent
vehicles should always be secured.
6. What is -toxicity- ? The amount of poisonous substances in a material.
7. Who is responsible for giving proper technical and physical characteristics of the cargo to the ship? The
shipper
8. When a charterer or cargo receiver does not issue any instructions regarding crude oil washing, then
_________. crude oil wash the tanks required for taking ballast and 25% of the tanks for sludge control
provide they have not been washed in the last four months
9. What is NOT classified as a flammable liquid? Mineral spirits
10. Which product is volatile? Benzene
11. What is an example of a grade B flammable liquid? Carbon disulfide
12. When hot rolled steel coils are loaded on General Cargo ships, it may be correct to state that: They must
not be exposed to salt water contamination.
13. Which of the following cargoes can normally be loaded next to each other in the same space of a
General Cargo vessel? Drums of cement and steel pipes
14. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to IMDG Class 4 (flammable solids) cargoes
loaded on a General Cargo vessel? The goods require protection against movement and can only be
loaded if a cargo declaration is supplied by the shipper
15. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to IMDG cargo, loaded on a General cargo
vessel, that is also classed as a Marine Pollutant Cargo must be loaded in a protected location and
preferably under deck if IMDG Code allows
16. Where should placards be located on a freight container? One on each end and one on each side.
17. Which of the following is a definition of the "Proper Shipping Name", as found in the IMDG Code? The
name to be used in any documentation relating to the transportation of the dangerous substance, material
or article, such as on forms, labels and placards.
 18. Which of these definitions is that of a "Marine Pollutant" under the IMDG Code? A substance which is
subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
19. Which of the following international regulations is normally used when handling dangerous goods?
IMDG code
Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew
1. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present
regulations? All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant
material
2. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances
correspond to present regulations? Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in
accordance with the regulations shall be provided
3. On-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts (including inflation and lowering whenever
practicable) must take place every 4 months
4. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated? Wearing and
fastening of lifejackets and associated equipment
5. The Master is responsible that all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If 25% of the crew - or
more - has not participated in such drill during the last month, what is the time limit to conduct such a
drill after the vessel has left a port? Within 24 hrs
6. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and
manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS? Every three months.
7. The emergency fire pump is in accordance with good seamanship and precautionary routines run and
tested weekly. Routine checks and maintenance are normally carried out by dedicated personnel. To
ensure safe and appropriate operation of the pump, would you consider it beneficial that the same
dedicated personnel operate the pump in emergencies? In case of accidents, it is important that a wide
range of personnel must be permitted and trained to operate the pump.
8. When should a crew member joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions in
the use of the ship's fire-fighting appliances ? As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he
joins the ship
9. Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill? All the items mentioned
10. What are the conditions that influence the efforts for organising the fire fighting? Where the fire breaks
out, how many fire teams are available, the strength of the fire, the ships mobility, what is burning and
communication
11. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the navigation bridge. What
type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be identified in the emergency plans? Fire, Damage to
ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts threatening the safety of the ship and the security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency assistance to other ships
12. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger cabins. Which
information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency instructions? The method of donning life-
jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
13. Here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for life-saving appliances?
Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
14. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for fire safety systems? Fire
Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
15. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board passenger ships? From the
navigation bridge and in at least one other location
16. What is a Declaration of Security? A checklist jointly completed by the ship and shore security
representatives
17. The first step in completing an SSA is to: Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against
your ship.
18. The Declaration of Security: Addresses the security requirements shared between ships or between a
port facility and a ship.
19. Which of following are security duties? All alternatives
20. Which two persons check the Declaration of Security? The Port Facility Security Officer and the Ship
Security Officer
21. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and at certain intervals.
Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships only? Periodical survey every 12 months
22. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with suitable Personal Protective
Equipment where it is needed? The Company/ employer
23. What information is required on passengers prior to departure? All persons on board shall be counted
and details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations
shall be recorded and communicated to the Master
24. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they can be part of the safe
manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What is minimum training requirement for all
personnel? Basic Safety Training Course and Crowd & Crisis Management Training Course
25. Which crew members are not permitted to work aloft ? Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year
experience
26. When can a work vest be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear? A
work vest may never be counted as a lifejacket.
27. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the log book, shall be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to: The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section
65
28. Studies of shipboard emergencies show that many passengers do not read or remember safety
information. As an officer, how can you best compensate for this fact? In an emergency, repeatedly tell
passengers what's happening, what's being done, and what they should do.
29. Which is the most important factor in the safety awareness of the ships crew? The level of emergency-
preparedness
30. *The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be spaced apart by a distance of: Equally spaced and
not less than 300 mm or more than 380 mm
31. As per SOLAS regulations, the general emergency alarm system must be tested: Every week
32. During test and/or maintenance work of the CO2 system affecting the release system, precautions to
ensure that the gas is not released into the engine room due to a mistake are to be ensured. What
precautions should be taken? The main supply line to be blanked off prior to the work.
33. Every inflatable liferaft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced: Every 12
months.
34. How often must the Emergency Steering Gear be tested, and how is this information recorded in the
OLB? Every three months. Details of test with signatures of Master and witness
35. How often should the lifeboat wire falls be turned and renewed? Turned at intervals of not more than 30
months and renewed every 5 years
36. On all UMS operated vessels and also on most other vessels the engine room is equipped with fire
detectors. What requirements of testing and checking of the detectors are to be observed? All the
mentioned alternatives.
37. The steps of the embarkation ladder used must be proportioned as it follows: length = 480 mm, breadth
= 115 mm, depth = 25 mm
38. Which of the following requirements regarding life-buoys correspond to present regulations? (SOLAS
III/7.1) Not less than half the total number of lifebuoys shall be provided with self-ignighting lights
39. Which one of the listed requirements regarding life-saving appliances corresponds to present
regulations? All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant
material
40. Which one of the listed requirements regarding service and maintenance of life-saving appliances
correspond to present regulations? Instructions for onboard maintenance of life-saving appliances in
accordance with the regulations shall be provided
41. *When reasonable and practicable, how often shall rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew
aboard and manoeuvred in the water? Every month
42. joining a ship for the first time be given some training and instructions in the use of the ship's fire-
fighting appliances ?As soon as possible but not later than 2 weeks after he joins the ship
43. *Where do you find minimum drill requirements? In the SOLAS convention and its annex
44. *Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill? instruction in the use of radio life-
saving appliances
45. *Which of the following items must be included in each fire drill?All the items mentioned
46. *Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to present SOLAS
regulation?Each lifeboat shall be launched, and manoeuvred in the water with its assigned crew at least
once every three months during an abandon ship drill
47. At least, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating crew aboard and
manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?Every three months.
48. During abandon ship exercise, what life-saving equipment must be demonstrated?Wearing and fastening
of lifejackets and associated equipment
49. How often are "abandon ship" drills required to be held on cargo vessels according to SOLAS?Once
every month.
50. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?Once every month
51. How often shall each member of the crew participate in an "abandon ship"-drill?Once every month
52. On board passenger ships an abandon ship drill must be performed: Every week
53. Referring to the SOLAS convention, how often should a crew member on a cargo ship participate in one
abandon ship drill and one fire drill?Monthly
54. Which of the following items shall be included in an "abandon ship"-drill?Checking that passengers and
crew are suitably dressed and lifejackets correctly donned
55. Which one of the following items has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS
regulations?Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.
56. Who is the leader of the lifeboat drill (abandon ship drill)?The appointed lifeboat commander.
57. "A contractor is hired to install new navigation equipment onboard your ship while it’s berthed. For a
period of time he’s left unsupervised and photographs schematics of the ship that he finds rolled up and
stored in the corner of a nearby office. Later, from home, he hacks into the network and prints off
information about the ship’s security procedures. Which of these information security measures would
have prevented his unauthorized access?" "Secure area, passwords, a firewall and a secure network."
58. "From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on entering an area
known for pirate activity?"To transit with maximum safe speed
59. "If drugs or suspected drugs are found onboard your ship, follow the five C’s. Confirm, Clear, Cordon,
Control and:"Check
60. "Part way through a profiling interview with a supplier, the package the individual is carrying arouses
your suspicion. What do you do?" Discreetly inform someone of your suspicions so he or she can get
assistance.
61. "Which of these precautionary measures can reduce the threat of piracy, if implemented?"Sail at full
speed.
62. "Your ship security plan must include procedures for responding to security threats, auditing security
activities and interfacing with the port facility."TRUE
63. A Ship Security Assessment is integral to the creation of your ship’s security plan.TRUE
64. Assign men to search men and women to search women unless a device such as a metal detector is
used.TRUE
65. Check the items that can be a possible threatAll alternatives
66. Eavesdropping and phone taps are examples of which threat to information security?Espionage
67. For a search to be effective it must be:Centrally controlled. .
68. If drugs are discovered onboard your ship….Ensure the witness to the discovery signs your incident
report.
69. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS?Your ship is conducting activities with a
port or ship that is not required to implement an approved security plan. .
70. Information about your ship’s security arrangements and procedures is stored electronically. Which of
these measures will help safeguard it from potential threats?Passwords
71. One of the categories of information that must be included in your SSP is:Security arrangements
72. Only search vehicle compartments where you suspect objects may be hidden.FALSE
73. Records relating to breaches of security and changes in security level must be secured against
unauthorized access and available for review by contracting governments.TRUE
74. Searches are often triggered by:An increase in security level by the Flag State.
75. The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:Determine your needs and do some
research.
76. The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to:"Seal spaces that are not in use while
in port, and perform a search of the ship before leaving."
77. The DoS addresses the responsibility for the security of the water around the ship and the verification of
increased threat levels.TRUE
78. The first step in completing an SSA is to:Create a list of potential motives for security incidents against
your ship.
 79. The International Maritime Bureau Piracy Reporting Centre attributes the increased numbers of
hijackings to:The greater involvement in piracy of well-organized and armed crime networks.
80. The most effective way to combat the threat of drug smuggling is to?"Combining routine, but irregular
searches of the ship with spontaneous targeted searches."

MONITOR AND CONTROLCOMPLIANCE WITH LEGISLATIVE

A
1. A cover note is a temporary certificate of insurance issued by the Insurer before the issuance of a policy.
The information that would not usually appear on a cover note is. Deductable
2. A subordinate who unlawfully brings intoxicating beverages on board shall be liable to:Fines or in
especially aggravating circumstances to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months.
3. Any master who makes or permits a false entry to be made in the logbook, shall be liable to fines or
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 1 year according to:The Ship Safety and Security Act, Section
65..
4. Any person serving on board who without the permission of the shipmaster leaves the ship in distress or
other danger while the master still on board shall be liable to Fines or imprisonment for a term not
exceeding 6 months.
5. A Cargo Ship Equipment Certificate will be issued for: 5 years with control every 12 months
B
1. Broker is Person who serves as a trusted agent that has legal expertise related to the coverage of insured
from the prospective assured. The fee of services by broker is paid by Insurer of the premium received
from the assured
C
1. Cover Note is a temporary coverage of Insurance, which then by the insurer will be issued a policy. The
policy is:The insurance agreement signed by the assured only ..
2. Correctly identify the answer that lists three categories of highly migratory species listed in Annex 1 of
UNCLOS Swordfish, mackerel, pomfrets
D
1. Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another State? When
the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is to give other State access
to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States
F
1. For which of the following ships, is the MARPOL convention applicable?For all listed vessels.
2. For which ships is the SOLAS convention applicable?For all vessels.
3. From the list below, which is among the recommended actions for a vessel to take, on entering an area
known for pirate activity?"To transit with maximum safe speed
H
1. How many nautical miles out are considered “teritorial water” ?12 nautical miles from the baseline
2. How frequent should reports from protection and environmental work be send to shore based
management?Annually.
3. How many annexes do we find in MARPOL and what is the content of annex 1?We find 6 annexes in
MARPOL and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
I
1. In case any accident occurs, the cause in known as Marine peril
2. In Marine Insurance Policy Insurable interest must exist at the time of...At the time of claim
3. In the case of responsibility of cargo where the carrier is responsible for carriage, the cargo owner shall
take action...except Make a note of protest if the carrier rejects the receipt is clean.
4. If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?Report to relevant authorities.
5. In which of these circumstances can your ship request a DoS? Your ship is conducting activities with a
port or ship that is not required to implement an approved security plan.
M
1. MARPOL - Annex IV. Prevention of Pollution by Sewage from ships. What do you understand by the
word "Sewage"? Drainage/waste from toilets/urinals.
2. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was
previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:15 ppm
 3. Noxious Liquid Substances which, if discharged into the sea from tank cleaning or deballasting
operations , are deemed to present a hazard to either marine resources or human health or cause harm to
amenities or other legitimate uses of the sea and therefore justify a limitation on the quality and quantity
of the discharge into the marine environment". Such substances are: category "Y" substance as
identified in MARPOL Annex II.
O
1. One of the basic principles of insurance that is not written in the policy but must be obeyed by the
insured (assured) is the Principle of Indemnity. The purpose of the Principle of Indemnity is. The
Assured is not permitted to make a profit on the Insurance
P
1. Peril on The Sea is a marine perils, that a ship may be damaged or destroyed becase of Pirates in the
ocean who can harm the people and all the things of a ship
T
2. The goods which can be coverage by marine insurance are.....except The cost to deal with marine
pollution from ship
3. The fee charged by the insurer on account of providing services is called Premium
4. The first effort at codifying the Law of the sea, 1930 Hague Codification Conference, focused on what
issued The breadth and nature of the teritorial sea regime
5. The assured (insured) must have an insurable interest in the policy whena loss occurs.
6. To achieve safe maritime operation, the Indonesian Sea Transportation and Communication Directorate
works in compliance with:The International Maritime Organization (IMO)
7. The reporting of incidents involving harmful substances and / or marine pollutants is regulated under
which international guidelines? Protocol I of MARPOL.
U
1. Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the party possessing Feasible Interest is: Shipper in
the form of goods rejected by the buyer due to damage or delay
2. .Under the terms of the Marine Insurance Act 1906 the party possessing Contingent Interest is:
Consignee which is a loss due to ship delay or damaged goods.
W
1. What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation?It is the end result that all
delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should achieve, after, however, drawing a
provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant circumstances and the
proportionality test
2. What kind of passage does qualify as ‘innocent passage’ ?A vessel’s passage is considered ‘innocent’
where it is not prejudical to the peace, good order or security of the coastal state
3. What is the commonly used English term for “the seabed and ocean floor and suboil thereof, beyond the
limits of national jurisdiction” ?The “Area”
4. What rules and regulations are regulating the watch keeping routines in the engine room?Both STCW
and Class rules
5. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection, certificates were invalid or
missingRectification would be required before sailing
6. What is the maximum oil content in the sludge/ bilge water allowed to be pumped over board during a
voyage?30 litres per nautical mile
7. What is the status of the rules of the SOLAS convention?Mandatory.
8. What must be done if the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) should fail during a ballast
voyage? All of the mentioned must be performed
9. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea?It is the SOLAS conventions that take care
of the human safety at sea
10. What is a "passenger" according to SOLAS regulations? Every person other than the Captain and the
members of the crew or other persons employed or engaged onboard the ship in the business of that
ship.
11. What does the abbreviation SOLAS mean? International Convention for the Safety of Lives at Sea
12. What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?The International Convention on Standards of Training,
Certification and Watchkeeping of Seafarers
13. What does the term OIL mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?All of the mentioned
 14. What does STCW deal with?STCW deals with minimum recommendation of education for seafarers
and minimum standards for training centre and schools
15. What are the functions of a flag state administration? have responsibility for setting, monitoring and
enforcing standards of safety and pollution prevention on vessels flying the countries flag
16. What would happen if, when a ship is under-going a Port State Inspection, certificates were invalid or
missingRectification would be required before sailing
17. What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea? The determination of baselines is
instrumental to the establishment of all maritime zones, since they constitute the starting point for
measuring the breadth of each zone
18. What is the function of the contiguous zone? The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is
permitted to prevent and punish infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws
19. What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf?The coastal State enjoy ipso
facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose of exploring it and
exploiting its natural resources
20. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?Any one involved in the
operatio
21. When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy?When it is not
committed against another vessel and when it is not committed for 'private ends'
22. When did the third UN Convention on the Law of the Sea Conference (UNCLOS III) take place
?Between 1973 and 1982
23. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea on a Bulk Carrier, what
is the most careful consideration? Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management
System (SMS) for guidance
24. Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas?exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels
on the high seas, with the exception of specific cases, such as piracy
25. Which of the UN member states below has signed UNCLOS III ?Guyana
26. Which is ‘rock’ under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) ?Rocks are the islands
which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their own
27. Which of the folowing is NOT one of the freedoms of the highseas set out in Article 87 of
UNCLOSTesting nuclear weapons
28. Which of the following is not true of the Nyon Agreement (1937)It related to aerial attacks on neutral
merchant vessels
29. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue
of Safety Certificates?Government Authorities of the Flag State
30. Which is the following principle in general insurance that not written in policy but must be obeyed by
the Insured (Assured) ? Principle of legality
31. Which principle suggests that insured (assured) should try to minimize the loss of his property even if it
is insured? Principle of indemnity
32. Which IMO convention takes care of the human safety at sea ?The SOLAS convention
33. Which international convention deals with fire-fighting equipment etc.SOLAS
34. Which international convention deals with pollution prevention?MARPOL.
35. Which international organization is preparing conventions and rules for seafaring nations? International
Maritime Organization (IMO)
36. Which organization or administration is responsible for surveys and inspections of ships, and the issue
of Safety Certificates?Government Authorities of the Flag State
37. Who are responsible for safe working conditions onboard?Master, Chief Engineer & Chief Officer.
38. Who is responsible for keeping the required official publications onboard?The master.
39. Who is responsible for the vessel's radio station and mandatory radio routines?The master.
40. Who is responsible that regulatory working hours are not exceeded?The master and department heads.
Y
1. Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be
called to handle pollution claims and damages?The P & I Club's nearest representative.

CONTROL TRIM, STABILITY AND STRESS

1. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have.. A fast roll period and
large righting levers (GZ Levers)
2. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be maintained
within "x" length amidships.. 0.4 Length
3. A bulk freighter 270.26 M. in length, 18.3 M. beam, with a waterplane coefficient of 0.84, is floating in salt
water at a draft of 6.4 M. How many tons would it take to increase the mean draft by 1 cm . 81.6 tons
4. A vessel carries three slack tanks of gasoline (SG .68). The vessel's displacement is 8,000 tons. Each tank is
15.24 M. long and 6.096 M. wide. What is the reduction in GM due to free surface with the vessel floating
in sea water (SG 1.026)? .0.610 M
5. A ship is inclined by moving a weight of 30 tons a distance of 9.144 M. from the centerline. A 8.53 M.
pendulum shows a deflection of 0.305 M. Displacement including weight moved is 4,000 tons. KM is 8.425
M.. What is the KG.. 6.5 M
6. A cargo of 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 12.192 M. from the ship's centerline. The ship's
displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 0.61 M. with cargo suspended.
What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended.. . 5.7°
7. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore
concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced.. The vessel will normally have a
large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll period
8. A vessel with a GM of 1.22 M. is inclined to 10°. What is the value of the righting arm?.. . 0.21 M
9. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the
jetty. You should immediately.. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small
ballast tank on low side of vessel.
10. A vessel's mean draft is 29'-07". At this draft, the TPI is 152. The mean draft after loading 1360 tons will
be.. . 30'-04"
11. A Bulk Vessel is to load a cargo of grain; pre loading calculations show that IMO stability criteria cannot
be achieved; the vessel should do which of the following.. The grain surfaces in some or all of the cargo
spaces must be secured
12. A loaded bulk carrier experiences heavy ice accretion on deck forward, what are the major concerns of the
changes in stability.. Reduction of metacentric height (GM) and loss of freeboard forward
13. After discharging a high density cargo a serious crack is found in an upper ballast tank amidships of a Bulk
Carrier; what must the Master do.. Inform Designated Person Ashore (DPA) and call in Classification
Society
14. A chemical tanker intended to transport products with appreciably severe environmental and safety hazards
which require significant preventative measures to preclude escape of such cargo, usually of double-hull
construction, with a variety of tank sizes / capacities is rated as.. A type II chemical tanker, as per the IBC
Code
15. A cofferdam, a pumproom or an empty tank, located between cargo tanks containing cargoes or cargo
residues which might react with each other in a hazardous manner, are all acceptable methods of
segregation in chemical tanker stowage according to the IBC Code. For this purpose, it may also be
acceptable to have. An intervening cargo tank containing a mutually compatible cargo or cargo residues
16. As per IBC Code, the information contained in the loading and stability information booklet, which must be
supplied to the master of a chemical tanker, shall include.. Details of typical service and ballast conditions,
provisions for evaluating other conditions of loading and a summary of the ship's survival capabilities,
together with sufficient information to enable the master to load and operate the ship in a safe and
seaworthy manner
17. As per the IBC Code, an independent tank on a chemical tanker is defined as.. One which is not contiguous
with, or part of the hull structure
18. A General Cargo vessel develops an angle of loll while loading a heavy item of deck cargo alongside the
jetty. You should immediately.. Stop cargo, reduce FSE in tanks, lower weights within vessel and fill small
ballast tank on low side of vessel
19. A General Cargo vessel is deemed to be cargo worthy when.. The hatch covers and/or hatch pontoons are
weather tight
20. A general cargo vessel is loading to its Summer Marks. Upon completion of loading, the final level of the
water would be at.. The top of the summer load line mark
21. A general cargo with a large metacentric height (GM) would be expected to have.. A fast roll period and
large righting levers (GZ Levers)
22. An Oil tanker experiences large bending moments and therefore the deck scantlings must be maintained
within "x" length amidships.. 0.4 Length
23. As per MARPOL, the formula for calculating the minimum draft amidships for crude tankers in ballast
condition is.. 2.0 + 0.02L
24. Achieving a good air flow through the various cargo compartment of a reefer vessel is a principal design
aim of a Naval Architect. Which of the options given represents the optimum cargo space shape.. A square
space as would be found in a midships lower deck
25. A long oblong space as would be found in an after upper deck. Conventional reefer vessels are usually
designed with fine lines and large flared bows. Consequently, in adverse weather conditions, especially
from forward of the beam, the navigating officers need to be mainly aware of which of the given options..
This type of vessel is prone to large hull deflections which may result in structural damage
26. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo such as iron ore
concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions produced.. The vessel will normally have a
large intact metacentric height (GM) and have a fast roll perio
27. Every oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 shall comply
with intact stability whereby it must have a minimum GM (metacentric height) in port of.. Not less than
0.15 m
28. Earlier cellular reefer vessels were constructed with a 'porthole system' for supplying refrigerated air via
ducting to containers. Modern vessels are designed to supply only electrical power to integral containers.
Select the main reason for this change in design to the vessels and containers from the options given.. The
'porthole' system design was extremely complex and construction costs were high
29. Earlier reefer vessels designed and built for liner trade usually had two or three tween decks approximately
2 to 2.5 metres in height and deep lower holds approximately 4 to 5 metres deep. Modern designs usually
incorporate more decks each approximately 2.3 metres in height. What is the main reason for this
fundamental design change .There is an almost universal use of standard height pallets
30. For a container stowed in a position equidistant from the roll and pitch axes of a ship, what will quarter the
acceleration forces acting on it . Doubling the roll period
31. How is the size of a reefer vessel normally referenced. By the cubic foot capacity
32. How are ship's stability characteristics affected by Parametric Rolling.. By the constant change of
underwater hull geometry as waves travel past the ship
33. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 155m in length constructed in 2000 and carrying cargo of density 1010
kg/cu.m., which cargo hold should be able to withstand flooding.. Any cargo hold
34. In a single side skin bulk carrier of 180m in length constructed in 2001 and carrying cargo of density 1,780
kg/m3, or above, which cargo hold is strengthened to withstand flooding.. The foremost cargo hold
35. If a load is suspended from the hook of a crane. What effect does that have on a vessel’s stability.. . The
weight acts upon the vessel from the head of the crane
36. In some reefer trades cargoes of chilled horse meat carcasses are stowed hanging from deckhead rails in
refrigerated locker spaces. What position should the centre of gravity be assumed to be at when carrying out
the stability calculations for a vessel with such a stow.. At the deckhead of the lockers
37. If properly secured what benefits do high sided car carriers have over other ship types regarding
seaworthiness.. They can roll to very large angles without taking in water
38. Large bulk carriers are more likely to suffer from cracks in structure in which of the following parts of the
vessel Around hatch corners and upper ballast tanks amidships
39. Not counting actual capacity or structural and cargo specific limitations, the IBC Code states that for a
single tank on a type 3 chemical tanker There is no applicable filling restriction
40. On a hold inspection of a Bulk Carrier it is noted that a number of transverse frame beam knees are slightly
distorted; what is the significance of this. This indicates the vessel is suffering racking stress and is
potentially serious
41. On a RoRo vessel, in addition to longitudinal, transverse and vertical accelerations what else must be taken
into account when calculating the external forces acting on a cargo unit Longitudinal and transverse forces
by wind pressure
42. On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 12.192 M. long and 6.096 M. wide. The reduction in
metacentric height is0.03 M
43. On a vessel of 8,000 tons displacement, compute the reduction in metacentric height due to free surface in a
hold having free water in the tank tops. The hold is 12.192 M. long and 6.096 M. wide. The
reduction in metacentric height is .. 0.03M.
44. Prior to loading heavy lift cargoes on a General Cargo Vessel, it must be ensured that There are minimum
free surface moments in tanks
45. Since 1st January 2007, as per changes introduced by amendment to MARPOL and IBC Code, it has
become mandatory for vegetable oils to be carried in Double hull tankers
46. Select from the options given the one which best completes the following statement. "Reefer vessels, loaded
with a homogenous cargo, usually operate with a small GM due to the fact that …they are designed with
fine lines and the biggest cargo spaces are at the top of the holds
47. The scantling draft of an oil tanker fitted with segregated ballast tanks is. The draught for which the
structural strength of the ship has been designed
48. Two conventional reefer vessels are being considered for a charter that involves the transhipment at sea, or
at anchor, of a cargo of frozen squid, as weather permits. Both vessels have 4 holds, vessel A has high
speed, 10 tonne deck cranes and vessel B has 5 tonne, union purchase derricks. Which of the vessels, if any,
would be best suited to this type of operation Vessel B would be more suitable as the derricks will give
more control of the operation at sea or at anchor
49. The design pressure for a cargo compartment on a chemical tanker to meet the definition and requirements
of a “pressure tank” must be Greater than 0.7 bar gauge
50. The value of GZ is no longer able to be calculated using GM Sine Angle of Heel formula at Larger angles
of heel
51. The vessel is instructed to load alternate holds when chartered to carry a high density cargo. What reasons
could be given by the master to refuse to do this IMO do not recommend alternate loading of cargo holds
with high density cargoes
52. To check stability, a weight of 35 tons is lifted with the jumbo boom, whose head is 10.668 M. from the
ship's centerline. The clinometer shows a list of 7° with the weight suspended. Displacement including the
weight is 14,000 tons. The GM in this condition is0.22 M
53. The disadvantages of large double bottom tanks on a double hull oil tanker are.. Increased free surface
effect and reduced transverse metacentric height
54. The DEEP DRILLER is loaded as shown in the Sample Load Form #1 (Transit). Weather conditions
require ballasting to survival draft. Assume that 3707.66 tons of ballast are added at an average VCG of
2.536 M. What would be the value of uncorrected KG15.743 M
55. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 1 chemical tanker as per
the IBC Code is1250 cubic metres
56. The maximum quantity of cargo permitted to be carried in a single tank on a type 2 chemical tanker as per
the IBC Code is3000 cubic metres
57. The minimum permissible distance measured horizontally between the ship's shell plating and the outer side
bulkhead of the first cargo compartment on a type II chemical tanker is Not less than 760 mm
58. The IMO Convention that is not applicable to a general cargo vessel when it is carrying timber deck cargoes
is The International Tonnage Convention
59. The value of the GZ lever at small angles of heel on a General Cargo Vessel can be denoted by the
formula.KM - KG x Sin angle of heel
60. What would a cracked cross-deck plating found during a loaded passage on a bulk carrier indicate That
shear forces have been exceeded
61. When displacement increases, the free surface corrections for slack tanks decrease
62. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships The
International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
63. What is the result of a large metacentric height The ship will roll violently
64. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged
condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before15
degrees
65. Why is it important in a RoRo vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way To prevent high sheer
forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading / discharge operations
66. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their stability is
concerned Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
67. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged It is unchanged
68. What does heaving result in Vertical accelerations acting along container corner posts
69. What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction Enhanced vibration in HTS
areas
70. What is the primary cause of fatigue damage to the hull girder The number of repeated stress cycles
71. What roll amplitude is generally used by classification societies in calculating rolling forces 24 - 30 degrees
72. What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling When the wave encounter period approaches the
natural roll period of the ship
73. When do vertical accelerations acting on containers reach their maximum values When a ship changes
direction at its extreme angle of pitch
74. When does wind force cause heeling moments on a container ship When the on-deck containers present a
certain profile to the wind direction
75. Why would a very large container vessel pitch more than a feeder vessel Because pitching varies with
ship’s length
76. What is the purpose of girders in the tank They support the stiffeners and also take up some of the sea
forces
77. What are the main elements in a damage control plan Boundaries of the watertight compartments for decks
and holds. Position of controls for opening and closing of watertight compartments. Arrangement for
correction of list due to flooding
78. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in damaged
condition Cross flooding arrangement
79. What is the full name of the International Convention dealing with stability of passenger ships The
International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea
80. What is the result of a large metacentric height The ship will roll violently
81. What measures regarding ship stability should be taken in order to make passenger ships able to withstand
critical damage Maintain sufficient intact stability
82. When cross-flooding arrangements to correct unsymmetrical flooding and excessive heel angels in damaged
condition are installed in passenger ships, what is the maximum angle of heel after flooding but before
equalization 15 degrees
83. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength The Master
84. What special design feature is attributed to RoRo vessels which are only car carriers A very large windage
area
85. When will a ro-ro vessel pitch heavily When wave lengths are equal to the ship's length
86. Why are pure RoRo car carriers considered as being high risk design vessels where their stability is
concerned Because they can easily capsize if there is ingress of water or ballast operations are not handled
correctly
87. Why is it important in a RoRo vessel to ensure that cargo is loaded in a uniform way To prevent high sheer
forces and bending moments on the vessel during the loading / discharge operation
88. What is the result of a "high metacentric height The vessel will roll violently
89. What is usually the effect on G when the ship is damaged It is unchanged
90. What type of dynamic forces may cause indent in plating on forecastle deck and main deck in way of pillars
inside forecastle Pressure forces caused by green water on deck
91. Which of the following requirements regarding on board stability data corresponds to present regulations?
(NSCL 4/12.1. A calculation example showing the use of "KG" limitation curves
92. Which of the following requirements to ships stability for normal operation corresponds to present
regulations? (NSCL 4/12.2) The ship is loaded in such a manner that adequate stability is achieved in all
loading conditio
93. Who is responsible for maintaining the vessel's structural strength The master.
94. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk carriers of 150m or more in
length The shear forces exerted on the hull structure associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
95. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers At the after end of each
cargo hold
96. You are at sea on a vessel whose beam is 12.192 M. and the full rolling period is 20 seconds. What is the
estimated metacentric height of the vessel 0.243 M
97. Your vessel's draft is 16'-00" fwd. and 18'-00" aft. The MT1 is 500 ft-tons. How many tons of water must be
shifted from the after peak to the forepeak, a distance of 250 feet, to bring her to an even draft forward and
aft48 tons
98. Your vessel is damaged, listing to port and on occasion flopping to the same angle to starboard. It has a
long, slow, sluggish roll around the angle of list. There is excessive trim by the stern with little freeboard
aft. What action should you take FIRST to correct this situation Press up any slack double-bottom tanks
forward of the tipping center, then fill the forepeak if empty
99.Your vessel is damaged and is listing to port. The rolling period is short. There is sufficient freeboard so
that deck edge submersion is not a problem. What corrective action should be taken FIRST in regard to the
vessel's stability Shift any off-center weights from port to starboard
100. Your vessel is damaged with no list, but down by the stern. There is progressive flooding and trim by
the stern is increasing. What is the effect on transverse stability after the deck edge at the stern is submerged
BM decreases from loss of water plane and greater volume