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Chemistry 8th Edition Zumdahl Test
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Chapter 10: Liquids and Solids
1. Order the intermolecular forces (dipole-dipole, London dispersion, ionic, and

hydrogen-bonding) from weakest to strongest .
A) dipole-dipole, London dispersion, ionic, and hydrogen-bonding
B) London dispersion, dipole-dipole, hydrogen-bonding, and ionic
C) hydrogen-bonding, dipole-dipole, London dispersion, and ionic
D) dipole-dipole, ionic, London dispersion, and hydrogen-bonding
E) London dispersion, ionic, dipole-dipole, and hydrogen-bonding
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | intermolecular forces
MSC: Conceptual
2. Hydrogen bonds account for which of the following observation?

A) Hydrogen naturally exists as a diatomic molecule.
B) Hydrogen is easily combustible with oxygen.
C) Water molecules are bent or "V-shaped."
D) Air is more dense than hydrogen gas.
E) For its molar mass, water has a high boiling point.
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | intermolecular forces | hydrogen
bonding MSC: Conceptual
3. Which of the following would you expect to have the highest boiling point?
A) F2
B) Cl2
C) Br2
D) I2
E) All of the above have the same boiling point.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1
MSC: Conceptual
4. Which of the following should have the lowest boiling point?

A) Na2S
B) HF
C) NH3
D) N2
E) H2O
MSC: Conceptual
5. Which of the species below would you expect to show the least hydrogen bonding?
A) NH3
B) H2O
C) HF
D) CH4
E) all the same
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.1
6. The molecules in a sample of solid SO2 are attracted to each other by a combination of
A) London forces and H-bonding
B) H-bonding and ionic bonding
C) covalent bonding and dipole-dipole interactions
D) London forces and dipole-dipole interactions
E) none of these
MSC: Conceptual
7. In which of the following groups of substances would dispersion forces be the only
significant factors in determining boiling points?
I. Cl2 II. HF III. Ne IV. KNO2 V. CCl4
A) I, III, V
B) I, II, III
C) II, IV
D) II, V
E) III, IV, V
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | intermolecular forces | London
forces
MSC: Conceptual
8. The elements of group 5A, the nitrogen family, form compounds with hydrogen having the
boiling points listed below:
SbH3 –17°C, AsH3 –55°C, PH3 –87°C, NH3 –33°C
The first three compounds illustrate a trend where the boiling point decreases as the mass
decreases; however, ammonia (NH3) does not follow the trend because of
A) dipole-dipole attraction
B) metallic bonding
C) hydrogen bonding
D) London dispersion forces
E) ionic bonding
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1
MSC: Conceptual
9. Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

A) NaCl(l)
B) HF(l)
C) N2(s)
D) H2O(l)
E) K(s)
forces
MSC: Conceptual
10. In general, the density of a compound as a gas is closer in value to that of the compound as a
liquid than the density of the compound as a liquid is in value to that of the compound as a
solid.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases MSC: Conceptual
11. Second row hydrides generally have higher than expected boiling points for their position
on the periodic table.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

MSC: Conceptual
12. The bonds between hydrogen and oxygen within a water molecule can be characterized as
__________.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) London dispersion forces
C) intermolecular forces
D) intramolecular forces
E) dispersion forces
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid MSC: Conceptual
13. When a water molecule forms a hydrogen bond with another water molecule, which atoms
are involved in the interaction?
A) a hydrogen from one molecule and a hydrogen from the other molecule
B) a hydrogen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule
C) an oxygen from one molecule and an oxygen from the other molecule
D) an oxygen and a hydrogen from the same molecule
E) two hydrogens from one molecule and one hydrogen from the other molecule
14. Which of the following is the correct order of boiling points for KNO3, CH3OH, C2H6, Ne?
A) Ne < CH3OH < C2H6 < KNO3
B) KNO3 < CH3OH < C2H6 < Ne
C) Ne < C2H6 < KNO3 < CH3OH
D) Ne < C2H6 < CH3OH < KNO3
E) C2H6 < Ne < CH3OH < KNO3
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid MSC: Conceptual
Consider the representations below to answer the next three questions.

(I)
(II)
(III)
15. How many of the following statements are correct concerning drawing I?
I. Each molecule induces a dipole onto the next molecule in close
proximity.
II. The phenomenon shown is relatively weak and short-lived.
III. C8H18 contains this type of interaction.
IV. The forces that exist in this example are London dispersion forces.
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.1
forces
MSC: Conceptual
16. Which drawing best represents the interactions in a sample of HF?

A) I
B) II
C) III
D) I, II
E) all of the above
17. Which of the following statements are incorrect concerning drawing III?
A) Electrostatic interactions exist between the molecules.
B) The molecules find the best compromise between attraction and repulsion.
C) These molecules exhibit ionic bonding.
D) OCS exhibits this type of interaction.
E) Two of the above statements are incorrect.
MSC: Conceptual
18. The freezing point of helium is –270°C. The freezing point of xenon is –112°C. Both of
these are in the noble gas family. Which of the following statements is supported by these
data?
A) Helium and xenon form highly polar molecules.
B) As the molecular weight of the noble gas increases, the freezing point decreases.
C) The London dispersion forces between the helium molecules are greater than the
London dispersion between the xenon molecules.
D) The London dispersion forces between the helium molecules are less than the
London dispersion forces between the xenon molecules.
E) None of these.
MSC: Conceptual
19. Which best explains the following trend?

Element b.p. (K)
He 4
Ne 25
Ar 95
Kr 125
Xe 170
A) London dispersion forces

B) dipole-dipole interaction
C) hydrogen bonding
D) Le Chatelier's principle
E) none of these
forces
MSC: Conceptual
20. Intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular bonds.

MSC: Conceptual
21. Hydrogen bonding is a type of London dispersion force.

22. Methane (CH4) exhibits stronger hydrogen bond interactions than ammonia (NH3).

23. Which of the following compounds has the lowest viscosity?

A) CCl4(l)
B) N2(g)
C) H2O(l)
D) CH3-(CH2)25-CH3(l)
E) HCl(g)
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | properties of liquids | viscosity
MSC: Conceptual
24. Which of the following statements about liquids is true?

A) Droplet formation occurs because of the higher stability associated with increased
surface area.
B) Substances that can form hydrogen bonds will display lower melting points than
predicted from periodic trends.
C) London dispersion forces arise from a distortion of the electron clouds within a
molecule or atom.
D) Liquid rise within a capillary tube because of the small size lowers the effective
atmospheric pressure over the surface of the liquid.
E) The boiling point of a solution is dependent solely on the atmospheric pressure
over the solution.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | properties of liquids
MSC: Conceptual
25. What is responsible for capillary action, a property of liquids?

A) surface tension
B) cohesive forces
C) adhesive forces
D) viscosity
E) two of these
MSC: Conceptual
26. When a nonpolar liquid displays a convex meniscus, which of the following explains this
behavior?
A) It has a low surface tension, and therefore clings to the glass.
B) The cohesive forces are stronger than the adhesive forces to the glass.
C) The adhesive forces to the glass are stronger than the cohesive forces.
D) The liquid's viscosity is low.
E) None of these.
MSC: Conceptual
27. Liquids with large intermolecular forces tend to have high surface tension.

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | properties of liquids | surface tension
MSC: Conceptual
28. The unit cell in this two-dimensional crystal contains __________ Xs and __________ Os.
X X X X
O O O O
X X X X
O O O O
X X X X
O O O O
A) 1,1
B) 2,1
C) 1,2
D) 4,1
E) 1,4
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | crystalline solids | crystal lattice
MSC: Conceptual
29. Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A) crystalline solids—highly regular arrangement of their components
B) amorphous solids—considerable disorder in their structures
C) unit cell—the smallest repeating unit of the lattice
D) gold metal—simple cubic unit cell
E) glass—amorphous solid
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | classification of solids
MSC: Conceptual
30. Table salt and table sugar are both crystalline solids.

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | crystalline solids
MSC: Conceptual
31. Atomic solids generally have low melting points.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.3

MSC: Conceptual
32. A crystal was analyzed with x-rays having 1.57 Å wavelength. A reflection was produced at
 = 21.9°. Assuming n = 1, what is the distance between the layers of atoms in the crystal?
A) 8.42 Å
B) 4.21 Å
C) 0.475 Å
D) 0.846 Å
E) 2.10 Å
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | x-ray diffraction
MSC: Quantitative
33. A crystal was analyzed with x-rays having 2.33 Å wavelength. The angle of first-order
diffraction (n = 1) was 19.2°. What would be the angle for second-order diffraction (n = 2)?
A) 38.4 Å
B) 41.1 Å
C) 9.46 Å
D) 14.2 Å
E) 4.72 Å
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: 10.3
MSC: Quantitative
The molar volume of a certain form of solid lead is 18 cm3/mol. Assuming cubic closest
packed structure, determine the following:
34. The number of Pb atoms per unit cell.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 10
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.4
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | calculations with unit cell dimensions
MSC: Quantitative
35. The volume of a single cell.

A) 1.20  102 pm3
B) 1.20  104 pm3
C) 1.20  106 pm3
D) 1.20  108 pm3
E) none of these
MSC: Quantitative
36. The radius of a Pb atom.

A) 1.74 pm
B) 17.4 pm
C) 174 pm
D) 1740 pm
E) none of these
MSC: Quantitative
37. Cubic closest packing is another name for _____________.

A) simple cubic packing
B) body-centered cubic packing
C) face-centered cubic packing
D) hexagonal closest packing
E) more than one of these
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | crystalline solids | cubic unit cell
MSC: Conceptual
38. Which one of the following statements about solid Cu (face-centered cubic unit cell) is
incorrect?
A) It will conduct electricity.
B) There are two atoms per unit cell.
C) The number of atoms surrounding each Cu atom is 12.
D) The solid has a cubic closest-packed structure.
E) The length of a face diagonal is four times the Cu radius.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.4
MSC: Conceptual
39. In any cubic lattice an atom lying at the corner of a unit cell is shared equally by how many
unit cells?
A) 1
B) 4
C) 8
D) 2
E) 6
MSC: Conceptual
40. Which of the following statements is (are) false?

I. The layering in a hexagonal closest-packed structure is aba.
II. A body-centered cubic unit cell has four atoms per unit cell.
III. For unit cells having the same edge length, a simple cubic structure would have
a smaller density than a body-centered cube.
IV. Atoms in a solid consisting of only one element would have six nearest
neighbors if the crystal structure were a simple cubic array.
A) I
B) II
C) II, III
D) I, IV
E) II, III, IV
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid MSC: Conceptual
41. Aluminum metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The relationship between
the radius of an Al atom (r) and the length of an edge of the unit cell (E) is:
A) r = E/2
B)
C)
D) r = 2E
E)

MSC: Conceptual
42. Chromium metal crystallizes as a body-centered cubic lattice. If the atomic radius of Cr is
1.25 angstroms, what is the density of Cr metal in g/cm3?
A) 5.52
B) 7.18
C) 14.4
D) 2.76
E) 3.59
MSC: Quantitative
43. You are given a small bar of an unknown metal, M. You find the density of the metal to be
10.5 g/cm3. An X-ray diffraction experiment measures the edge of the unit cell as 409 pm.
Assuming that the metal crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice, what is M most likely
to be?
A) Ag
B) Rh
C) Pt
D) Pb
E) none of these
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: 10.4
MSC: Quantitative
44. Silver chloride crystallizes with the sodium chloride (rock salt) structure. The length of a
unit cell edge is 555 pm. What is the density of AgCl?
A) 5.57 g/cm3
B) 4.19 g/cm3
C) 2.79 g/cm3
D) 2.10 g/cm3
E) 1.39 g/cm3
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.4
MSC: Quantitative
45. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered unit cell with an edge length of 2.00  102 pm.
Assume the atoms in the cell touch along the cube diagonal. The percentage of empty
volume in the unit cell will be:
A) 0%
B) 26.0%
C) 32.0%
D) 68.0%
E) none of these
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: 10.4
MSC: Quantitative
46. A metal crystallizes with a face-centered cubic lattice. The edge of the unit cell is 395 pm.
The diameter of the metal atom is:
A) 140 pm
B) 198 pm
C) 279 pm
D) 395 pm
E) none of these
MSC: Quantitative
47. If equal, rigid spheres are arranged in a simple cubic lattice in the usual way (i.e., in such a
way that they touch each other), what fraction of the corresponding solid will be empty
space? [The volume of a sphere is (4/3)r3, with  = 3.14.]
A) 0.52
B) 0.32
C) 0.68
D) 0.48
E) none of these
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: 10.4
MSC: Quantitative
48. Which substance can be described as cations bonded together by mobile electrons?
A) Ag(s)
B) S8(s)
C) Kr(l)
D) KCl(s)
E) HCl(l)
MSC: Conceptual
49. Steel is considered to be a(n) __________.

A) interstitial alloy
B) ionic solid
C) molecular solid
D) substitutional alloy
E) two of these
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | materials chemistry | metal
MSC: Conceptual
50. Which of the following statements about steel is false?

A) It contains carbon atoms in the holes of its iron crystals.
B) The presence of carbon-iron bonds in the alloy make steel harder and stronger than
pure iron.
C) Pure iron is relatively soft and ductile because it lacks directional bonding.
D) The amount of carbon directly affects the properties of steel.
E) All of these are true.
MSC: Conceptual
51. What is the simplest formula of a solid containing A, B, and C atoms in a cubic lattice in
which the A atoms occupy the corners, the B atoms the body-center position, and the C
atoms the faces of the unit cell?
A) ABC
B) ABC3
C) ABC6
D) A8BC6
E) A4BC3
MSC: Conceptual
52. A solid material consists of an array of A atoms with Z atoms located in the spaces in the
lattice. This solid would be classified as
A) an amalgam
B) an interstitial alloy
C) a substitutional alloy
D) a semiconductor
E) ceramic
MSC: Conceptual
53. The net number of spheres in the face-centered cubic unit cell is 4.

MSC: Conceptual
54. Steel is a substitutional alloy.

MSC: Conceptual
55. Which of the following statements is true about p-type silicon?

A) It is produced by doping Si with P or As.
B) Protons are the mobile charge carriers.
C) It does not conduct electricity as well as pure Si.
D) All are true.
E) None is true.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | materials chemistry | metal | semiconductor
MSC: Conceptual
56. Doping Se with B would produce a(n) __________ semiconductor with __________
conductivity compared to pure Se.
A) p-type, increased
B) n-type, decreased
C) n-type, increased
D) p-type, decreased
E) intrinsic, identical
MSC: Conceptual
57. A material is made from Al, Ga, and As. The mole fraction of each element is 0.25, 0.26,
and 0.49, respectively. This material would be
A) a metallic conductor because Al is present
B) an insulator
C) a p-type semiconductor
D) an n-type semiconductor
E) none of the above
MSC: Conceptual
58. Which of the compounds below is an example of a network solid?

A) S8(s)
B) SiO2(s)
C) MgO(s)
D) NaCl(s)
E) C25H52(s)
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | structures of crystalline solids |
covalent network solid MSC: Conceptual
59. Which of the compounds below is not an example of a molecular solid?

A) I2(s)
B) SiO2(s)
C) CO2(s)
D) H2O(s)
E) C25H52(s)
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | structures of crystalline solids |
molecular solid MSC: Conceptual
60. Ice is a molecular solid.

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | classification of solids | molecular
solid MSC: Conceptual
61. Which of these statements is incorrect?

A) Molecular solids have high melting points.
B) The binding forces in a molecular solid include London dispersion forces.
C) Ionic solids have high melting points.
D) Ionic solids are insulators.
E) All of the statements (A-D) are correct.
MSC: Conceptual
62. At room temperature, CsF is expected to be

A) a gas
B) a conducting solid
C) a liquid
D) a brittle solid
E) a soft solid
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | properties of solids
MSC: Conceptual
63. A solid crystal of NaCl is

A) soft, low melting, a good electrical conductor
B) hard, high melting, a good electrical conductor
C) soft, low melting, a poor electrical conductor
D) hard, high melting, a poor electrical conductor
E) soft, high melting, a poor electrical conductor
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | properties of solids
MSC: Conceptual
64. Solid MgO has the same crystal structure as NaCl. How many oxide ions surround each
Mg2+ ion as nearest neighbors in MgO?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
E) none of these
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | structures of crystalline solids | ionic
65. Which of the following has the highest melting temperature?
A) H2O
B) CO2
C) S8
D) MgF2
E) P4
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | properties of solids | melting point
MSC: Conceptual
66. A certain solid substance that is very hard, has a high melting point, and is nonconducting
unless melted is most likely to be:
A) I2
B) NaCl
C) CO2
D) H2O
E) Cu
MSC: Conceptual
67. Which of these statements is false?

A) Diamond is a covalent crystal.
B) The size of the unit cell of Li and Cs is the same.
C) Molecular crystals usually have low melting points.
D) Metallic crystals are usually good electrical conductors.
E) None of the statements is false.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid MSC: Conceptual
68. An ionic crystalline solid, MX2, has a cubic unit cell. Which of the following arrangements
of the ions is consistent with the stoichiometry of the compound?
A) M2+ ions at the corners and at each face, 8 X– ions at the tetrahedral centers
B) M2+ ions at each face, X– ions at the corners
C) M2+ ions at the corners, X– ions at the faces, and 2 X– ions at the tetrahedralcenters
D) 4 M2+ ions at the body centers, X– ions at the corners and at the faces
E) M2+ ions at the corners and at the faces, 4 X– ions at the octahedral centers
69. Lithium chloride crystallizes in a face-centered cubic structure. The unit cell length is
5.14  10–8 cm. The chloride ions are touching each other along the face diagonal of the unit
cell. The lithium ions fit into the holes between the chloride ions. What is the mass of LiCl
in a unit cell?
A) 7.04  10–23 g
B) 1.41  10–22 g
C) 2.82  10–22 g
D) 4.22  10–22 g
E) 5.63  10–22 g
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: 10.7
solid MSC: Quantitative
70. How would you expect the melting point of C[$X]4 to compare to that of [$I][$X]?
A) It should be lower because [$I][$X] forms an extended ionic crystal lattice,
whereas C[$X]4 is a covalently-bonded small molecule.
B) It should be similar since they are both ionic solids.
C) It should be higher because the bonds are stronger due to the higher charge on C
(+4).
D) It should be higher because C[$X]4 is larger than [$I][$X].
E) It is not possible to say anything about their melting points without more
information.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | properties of solids | melting point
MSC: Conceptual
71. In the unit cell of sphalerite, Zn2+ ions occupy half the tetrahedral holes in a face-centered
cubic lattice of S2– ions. The number of formula units of ZnS in the unit cell is:
A) 6
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
E) 1
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | solid | structures of crystalline solids
MSC: Conceptual
72. The unit cell in a certain lattice consists of a cube formed by an anion at each corner, an
anion in the center, and a cation at the center of each face. The unit cell contains a net:
A) 5 anions and 6 cations
B) 5 anions and 3 cations
C) 2 anions and 3 cations
D) 3 anions and 4 cations
E) 2 anions and 2 cations
MSC: Conceptual
73. Which of the following statements about the closest packing of spheres in binary ionic
solids is false?
A) The packing is done in a way that minimizes repulsions among ions with like
charges.
B) The packing arrangement maximizes electrostatic attractions among oppositely
charged ions.
C) For spheres of a given diameter, tetrahedral holes are larger than octahedral holes.
D) Trigonal holes are so small that they are never occupied.
E) None of these.
MSC: Conceptual
74. An atom in an octahedral hole is surrounded by ____ atoms.

A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
MSC: Conceptual
75. A salt, MY, crystallizes in a body-centered cubic structure with a Y– anion at each cube
corner and an M+ cation at the cube center. Assuming that the Y– anions touch each other
and the M+ cation at the center, and the radius of Y– is 1.50  102 pm, the radius of M+ is:
A) 62.0 pm
B) 110. pm
C) 124 pm
D) 220. pm
E) none of these
MSC: Quantitative
76. Sodium oxide (Na2O) crystallizes in a structure in which the O2– ions are in a face-centered
cubic lattice and the Na+ ions are in tetrahedral holes. The number of Na+ ions in the unit
cell is:
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) none of these
77. A certain metal fluoride crystallizes in such a way that the fluoride ions occupy simple cubic
lattice sites, while the metal atoms occupy the body centers of half the cubes. The formula
for the metal fluoride is:
A) MF2
B) M2 F
C) MF
D) MF8
E) none of these
78. Which of the following is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

A) Na2S
B) HF
C) NH3
D) N2
E) H2O
MSC: Conceptual
79. On the basis of your knowledge of bonding in liquids and solids, which of the following has
the lowest melting temperature?
A) NaCl
B) Na
C) Cl2
D) SiO2
E) More information is needed.
MSC: Conceptual
80. Which of the following substances would you expect to have the lowest boiling point?
A) diamond
B) methane, CH4
C) sodium nitrate, NaNO3
D) glycerine, C3H5(OH)3
E) copper
MSC: Conceptual
81. On a relative basis, the weaker the intermolecular forces in a substance,

A) the greater its heat of vaporization
B) the more it deviates from ideal gas behavior
C) the greater its vapor pressure at a particular temperature
D) the higher its melting point
E) none of these
MSC: Conceptual
82. At normal atmospheric pressure and a temperature of 0°C, which phase(s) of H2O can exist?
A) ice and water
B) ice and water vapor
C) water only
D) water vapor only
E) ice only
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | melting point
MSC: Conceptual
83. The process of condensation happens when which of the following occurs?
A) A solid becomes a liquid.
B) A liquid becomes a solid.
C) A gas becomes a liquid.
D) A liquid becomes a gas.
E) A gas becomes a solid.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions MSC: Conceptual
84. Which of the following processes must exist in equilibrium with the evaporation process
when a measurement of vapor pressure is made?
A) fusion
B) vaporization
C) sublimation
D) boiling
E) condensation
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | vapor pressure
MSC: Conceptual
85. Assume 12,500 J of energy is added to 2.0 moles (36 grams) of H2O as an ice sample
at 0°C. The molar heat of fusion is 6.02 kJ/mol. The specific heat of liquid water is
4.18 J/g °C. The molar heat of vaporization is 40.6 kJ/mol. The resulting sample contains
which of the following?
A) only ice
B) ice and water
C) only water
D) water and water vapor
E) only water vapor
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | Clausius-Clapeyron
equation MSC: Quantitative
86. You are given the following boiling point data. Which one of the liquids would you expect
to have the highest vapor pressure at room temperature?
A) water, H2O 100°C
B) methanol, CH3OH 64.96°C
C) ethanol, CH3CH2OH 78.5°C
D) diethyl ether, CH3OH2–O–CH2CH3 34.5°C
E) ethylene glycol, HO–CH2–CH2–OH 198°C
MSC: Conceptual
87. Given below are the temperatures at which two different liquid compounds with the same
empirical formula have a vapor pressure of 400 torr.
Compound T (°C)
dimethyl ether, CH3–O–CH3 –37.8
ethanol, CH3CH2OH 63.5
Which of the following statements (a–d) is false?
A) Increasing the temperature will increase the vapor pressure of both liquids.
B) Intermolecular attractive forces are stronger in (liquid) ethanol than in (liquid)
dimethyl ether.
C) The normal boiling point of dimethyl ether will be higher than the normal boiling
point of ethanol.
D) The reason that the temperature at which the vapor pressure is 400 torr is higher
for ethanol (than for dimethyl ether) is that there is strong hydrogen bonding in
ethanol.
E) None of these is false.
MSC: Conceptual
88. Given the graph below, what is the boiling point of chloroform at standard pressure?
A) 77°C
B) 34°C
C) 98°C
D) 60°C
E) The graph does not give that information.
MSC: Conceptual
89. A liquid placed in a closed container will evaporate until equilibrium is reached. At
equilibrium, which of the statements (A-D) is false?
A) The partial pressure exerted by the vapor molecules is called the vapor pressure of
the liquid.
B) Liquid molecules are still evaporating.
C) The number of vapor molecules remains essentially constant.
D) The boundary (meniscus) between liquid and vapor disappears.
E) All of these are true.
MSC: Conceptual
90. Which one of the following decreases as the strength of the attractive intermolecular forces
increases?
A) the heat of vaporization
B) the normal boiling temperature
C) the extent of deviations from the ideal gas law
D) the sublimation temperature of a solid
E) the vapor pressure of a liquid
MSC: Conceptual
91. Knowing that Hvap for water is 40.7 kJ/mol, calculate Pvap of water at 58°C.
A) 5.3 torr
B) 456 torr
C) 14.8 torr
D) 759 torr
E) 144 torr
92. Water sits in an open beaker. Assuming constant temperature and pressure, the rate of
evaporation decreases as the water evaporates.

93. Water sits in an open beaker. Assuming constant temperature and pressure, the vapor
pressure of the water decreases as the water evaporates.

MSC: Conceptual
94. Generally the vapor pressure of a liquid is related to:

I. the amount of liquid
II. atmospheric pressure
III. temperature
IV. intermolecular forces
A) I, III
B) II, III, IV
C) I, III, IV
D) III, IV
E) I, II, III, IV
MSC: Conceptual
95. In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

A) sublimation
B) crystallization
C) vaporization
D) melting
E) none of these
96. When one mole of benzene is vaporized at a constant pressure of 1.00 atm and at its boiling
point of 353.0 K, 30.56 kJ of energy (heat) is absorbed and the volume change is +28.90 L.
What is E for this process? (1 L·atm = 101.3 J)
A) 30.56 kJ
B) 59.46 kJ
C) 33.49 kJ
D) 1.66 kJ
E) 27.63 kJ
97. When one mole of benzene is vaporized at a constant pressure of 1.00 atm and at its boiling
point of 353.0 K, 30.53 kJ of energy (heat) is absorbed and the volume change is +28.90 L.
What is H for this process? (1 L·atm = 101.3 J)
A) 27.60 kJ
B) 33.46 kJ
C) 1.63 kJ
D) 30.53 kJ
E) 59.43 kJ
98. The normal boiling point of liquid X is less than that of Y, which is less than that of Z.
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing vapor pressure of the three liquids
at STP?
A) X, Y, Z
B) Z, Y, X
C) Y, X, Z
D) X, Z, Y
E) Y, Z, X
MSC: Conceptual
99. The vapor pressure of water at 100.0°C is

A) 85 torr
B) 760 torr
C) 175 torr
D) 1 torr
E) More information is needed.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phase | phase transitions | vapor pressure
MSC: Conceptual
100. How much energy is needed to convert 54.1 grams of ice at 0.00°C to water at 75.0°C?
specific heat (ice) = 2.10 J/g°C
specific heat (water) = 4.18 J/g°C
heat of fusion = 333 J/g
heat of vaporization = 2258 J/g
A) 17.0 kJ
B) 1.94 kJ
C) 26.5 kJ
D) 35.0 kJ
E) 139 kJ
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | phase transition enthalpy
change MSC: Quantitative
101. The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

A) 0.48 atm
B) 1.00 atm
C) 1.20 atm
D) 2.00 atm
E) 5.00 atm
MSC: Conceptual
102. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

A) chalk (calcium carbonate)
B) ice (water)
C) window cleaner (ammonia)
D) motor oil (hydrocarbon chains)
E) helium gas inside a party balloon
MSC: Conceptual
103. How many grams of ice would be melted by the energy obtained as 16.2 g of steam is
condensed at 100°C and cooled to 0°C?
A) 43.4 kg
B) 36.6 kg
C) 130 g
D) 6.77 kg
E) 20 g
104. The heat of combustion of bituminous coal is 2.50  104 J/g. What quantity of the coal is
required to produce the energy to convert 106.9 pounds of ice at 0.00°C to steam at 100.°C?
A) 5.84 kg
B) 0.646 kg
C) 0.811 kg
D) 4.38 kg
E) 1.46 kg
105. The process of changing from a vapor to a liquid is vaporization.

106. A certain substance, X, has a triple-point temperature of 20°C at a pressure of 2.0 atm.
Which one of the statements (A-D) cannot possibly be true?
A) X can exist as a liquid above 20°C.
B) X can exist as a solid above 20°C.
C) Liquid X can exist as a stable phase at 25°C, 1 atm.
D) Both liquid and solid X have the same vapor pressure at 20°C.
E) All of the statements (A-D) could be true.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | phase diagram | triple
point MSC: Conceptual
107. Which statement regarding water is true?

A) Energy must be given off in order to break down the crystal lattice of ice to a
liquid.
B) Hydrogen bonds are stronger than covalent bonds.
C) Liquid water is less dense than solid water.
D) Only covalent bonds are broken when ice melts.
E) All of the statements (A–D) are false.
108. The triple point of iodine is at 90 torr and 115°C. This means that liquid I2
A) is more dense than I2(s)
B) cannot exist above 115°C
C) cannot exist at 1 atmosphere pressure
D) cannot have a vapor pressure less than 90 torr
E) can exist at pressure of 10 torr
109. The triple point of CO2 is at 5.2 atm and –57°C. Under atmospheric conditions present in a
typical Boulder, Colorado, laboratory (P = 630 torr, T = 23°C), solid CO2 will:
A) remain solid
B) boil
C) melt
D) sublime
E) none of these
110. Choose the correct statement about the diagram below.

A) The diagram is qualitatively correct for water.
B) The diagram shows that the melting point of the solid increases with increasing
pressure.
C) The diagram shows the triple point above 1 atm pressure.
D) The diagram could represent the phase diagram of CO2.
E) None of the above statements is correct.
KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | phase transitions | phase diagram
MSC: Conceptual
111. Below is a phase diagram for compound Q. You wish to purify a sample of Q that was
collected at P = 1.0 atm and T = 100 K by subliming it. In order to sublime the sample, you
should:
A) Increase P to 1.5 atm and then increase T to 300 K.

B) Increase T to 300 K, keeping P = 1.0 atm.
C) Lower P to 0.5 atm and then increase T to 200 K.
D) Increase T to 300 K and then lower P to 0.5 atm.
E) Abandon the attempt to sublime Q.
MSC: Conceptual
112. Shown below is a phase diagram for compound Y. At 25°C and 1 atm Y will exist as a:
A) solid
B) liquid
C) gas
D) gas/liquid at equilibrium
E) gas/solid at equilibrium
MSC: Conceptual
113. Below is a phase diagram for compound Y. The normal boiling point of Y is most likely:
A) 21°C
B) 47°C
C) 63°C
D) 18°C
E) 0°C
MSC: Conceptual
114. Shown below is a phase diagram for compound Y.
How will the melting point of Y change with increased pressure?

A) increase
B) decrease
C) remain the same
D) not enough information given
E) increase and then decrease
MSC: Conceptual
115. Based on the phase diagram shown below, which of the following statements are correct?
I. Sublimation occurs at a point in the transformation that occurs along a straight line
from point A to point F.
II. C and E represent points where the gas and liquid phases are in equilibrium.
III. Hvap can be measured at point B.
IV. Molecules at point D have a greater average kinetic energy than those at point F.
V. The temperature at point E is called the critical temperature of the compound.
A) II, V
B) I, III, IV
C) I, II, III
D) II, IV, V
E) I, II, IV
MSC: Conceptual
116. A certain substance has the phase diagram shown below. At which of the following values
of T and P is the substance a pure liquid?
A) T = 8°C, P = 1 atm
B) T = 10°C, P = 0.5 atm
C) T = 70°C, P = 1.2 atm
D) T = 80°C, P = 1 atm
E) T = 10°C, P = 1 atm
MSC: Conceptual
117. A sample consisting of CO2(g) and CO2(s) at equilibrium at –78°C and 1 atm pressure is
heated to –30°C and the pressure is increased to 8 atm. Based on the phase diagram below,
what will happen?
A) At equilibrium, only CO2(g) will be present.

B) All of the CO2 will be converted to CO2(l).
C) At equilibrium, CO2(g) and CO2(l) will be present.
D) The melting point of the CO2(s) will decrease.
E) None of these.
MSC: Conceptual
118. Given the phase diagram below, which of the following statements (A–D) is false?
A) The solid has a higher density than the liquid.

B) At some (constant) temperature, the gaseous substance can be compressed into a
solid and then into a liquid in this order.
C) When phase A is compressed at constant temperature at point X, no change is
observed.
D) When heated at 1 atm, this substance will first melt, then boil.
E) None of the above statements is false.
MSC: Conceptual
119. The density of the solid phase of a substance is 0.90 g/cm3 and the density of the liquid
phase is 1.0 g/cm3. A large increase in pressure will
A) lower the freezing point
B) raise the freezing point
C) lower the boiling point
D) raise the triple point
E) lower the triple point
MSC: Conceptual
120. Make a sketch to show the hydrogen bonding between two acetic acid molecules
(HC2H3O2).
ANS:
See Sec. 10.1 of Zumdahl, Chemistry
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

121. If you have 10.0 moles of BH3 and 5.0 moles of HF, which amount exhibits the most
hydrogen bonding? Explain.
Check question
ANS:
HF; Hydrogen bonding only occurs between molecules where hydrogen is bonded to
nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine. Even though more BH3 is present, it does not exhibit any
hydrogen bonding at all.
See Sec. 10.1 of Zumdahl, Chemistry.

MSC: Conceptual
122. The particularly strong dipole-dipole interaction between hydrogen in one molecule and
nitrogen in another molecule is known as a __________.
ANS:
hydrogen bond

123. The relatively weak forces that exist among noble gas atoms are __________.
ANS:
London dispersion forces

forces
MSC: Conceptual
124. The meniscus of mercury curves downward at the edges. Explain using the concepts of
cohesion and adhesion.
ANS:
In mercury the cohesive forces within the liquid are stronger than the adhesive forces toward
glass.
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.2

MSC: Conceptual
125. The resistance of a liquid to an increase in its surface area is the __________ of the liquid.
ANS:
surface tension

KEY: Chemistry | general chemistry | phases | liquid | properties of liquids | surface tension
MSC: Conceptual
126. The structures of crystalline solids are most commonly determined by __________.
ANS:
x-ray diffraction

MSC: Conceptual
127. In a(n) __________ alloy some of the host metal atoms are replaced by other metal atoms of
similar size.
ANS:
substitutional

MSC: Conceptual
128. Iodine moves directly from solid to gas in a process called __________.
ANS:
sublimation

129. Explain why water boils at a lower temperature up in the mountains versus at sea level.
Include at least one microscopic drawing in your explanation.
ANS:
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is
exactly the same as the pressure of the atmosphere around it. Water boils at a lower
temperature up in the mountains because at high altitudes the atmospheric pressure is lower
(see pictures A and B). Boiling occurs when the water is hot enough to have the same vapor
pressure as the surrounding air pressure, so that it can form bubbles. Since the air pressure is
lower at high altitudes, the water does not have to get as hot for boiling to occur. It will take
more heat for water at sea level to attain the same pressure as the surrounding air since the
atmospheric pressure is higher (see picture B).
Picture A Picture B
(high altitudes) (low altitudes)

MSC: Conceptual
130. 100. g of ice at 0°C is added to 300.0 g of water at 60°C. Assuming no transfer of heat to the
surroundings, what is the temperature of the liquid water after all the ice has melted and
equilibrium is reached?
ANS:
25.0°C
100.g (333 J/g) + 100.g(Tf–0°C)(4.18 J/g°C) = –300.0g(Tf–60°C)(4.18 J/g°C)

33300 + 418Tf = –1254Tf + 75240 (using underline to track sig figs)
1672Tf = 41940; Tf = 25°C

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Belgium shall have stated its intentions as to the acceptation
of these dispositions, the sovereignty shall be exercised
collectively by the Council of three administrators of the
Free State and by the Governor-General."
----------CONGO FREE STATE: End--------
CONGRESS: Of the United States.

Reapportionment of Representatives.
See (in this volume)

UNITED STATES OF AMERICA: A. D. 1901 (JANUARY).
CONSTANTINOPLE: A. D. 1896.
Attack of Armenian revolutionists on the Ottoman Bank,
and subsequent Turkish massacre of Armenians.
See (in this volume)

TURKEY: A. D. 1896 (AUGUST).
----------CONSTITUTION OF AUSTRALIA.: Start--------
The following is the "Act to constitute the Commonwealth of

Australia," as passed by the Imperial Parliament, July 9, 1900
(63 & 64 Vict. ch. 12)—see (in this volume) AUSTRALIA: A. D.
1900. The text is from the official publication of the Act:
Whereas the people of New South Wales, Victoria, South

Australia, Queensland, and Tasmania, humbly relying on the
blessing of Almighty God, have agreed to unite in one
indissoluble Federal Commonwealth under the Crown of the
United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland, and under the
Constitution hereby established: And whereas it is expedient
to provide for the admission into the Commonwealth of other
Australasian Colonies and possessions of the Queen: Be it
therefore enacted by the Queen's most Excellent Majesty, by
and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and
Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled,
and by the authority of the same, as follows:-
1. This Act may be cited as the Commonwealth of Australia

Constitution Act.
2. The provisions of this Act referring to the Queen shall

extend to Her Majesty's heirs and successors in the
sovereignty of the United Kingdom.
3. It shall be lawful for the Queen, with the advice of the

Privy Council, to declare by proclamation that, on and after a
day therein appointed, not being later than one year after the
passing of this Act, the people of New South Wales, Victoria,
South Australia, Queensland, and Tasmania, and also, if Her
Majesty is satisfied that the people of Western Australia have
agreed thereto, of Western Australia, shall be united in a
Federal Commonwealth under the name of the Commonwealth of
Australia. But the Queen may, at any time after the
proclamation, appoint a Governor-General for the Commonwealth.
4. The Commonwealth shall be established, and the Constitution

of the Commonwealth shall take effect, on and after the day so
appointed. But the Parliaments of the several colonies may at
any time after the passing of this Act make any such laws, to
come into operation on the day so appointed, as they might
have made if the Constitution had taken effect at the passing
of this Act.
{155}
5. This Act, and all laws made by the Parliament of the

Commonwealth under the Constitution, shall be binding on the
courts, judges, and people of every State and of every part of
the Commonwealth, notwithstanding anything in the laws of any
State; and the laws of the Commonwealth shall be in force on
all British ships, the Queen's ships of war excepted, whose
first port of clearance and whose port of destination are in
the Commonwealth.
6. "The Commonwealth" shall mean the Commonwealth of Australia

as established under this Act. "The States" shall mean such of
the colonies of New South Wales, New Zealand, Queensland,
Tasmania, Victoria, Western Australia, and South Australia,
including the northern territory of South Australia, as for
the time being are parts of the Commonwealth, and such
colonies or territories as may be admitted into or established
by the Commonwealth as States; and each of such parts of the
Commonwealth shall be called "a State." "Original States"
shall mean such States as are parts of the Commonwealth at its
establishment.
7. The Federal Council of Australasia Act, 1885, is hereby

repealed, but so as not to affect any laws passed by the
Federal Council of Australasia and in force at the
establishment of the Commonwealth. Any such law may be
repealed as to any State by the Parliament of the
Commonwealth, or as to any colony not being a State by the
Parliament thereof.
8. After the passing of this Act the Colonial Boundaries Act,

1895, shall not apply to any colony which becomes a State of
the Commonwealth; but the Commonwealth shall be taken to be a
self-governing colony for the purposes of that Act.
9. The Constitution of the Commonwealth shall be as follows:
THE CONSTITUTION.
This Constitution is divided as follows:-
Chapter I.—The Parliament:

Part I.—General:
Part II.—The Senate:
Part III.—The House of Representatives:
Part IV.—Both Houses of the Parliament:
Part V.—Powers of the Parliament:
Chapter II.—The Executive Government:

Chapter III.—The Judicature:
Chapter IV.—Finance and Trade:
Chapter V.—The States:
Chapter VI.—New States:
Chapter VII.—Miscellaneous:
Chapter VIII.—Alteration of the Constitution.
The Schedule.
CHAPTER I. THE PARLIAMENT:

PART I.—GENERAL.
1. The legislative power of the Commonwealth shall be vested

in a Federal Parliament, which shall consist of the Queen, a
Senate, and a House of Representatives, and which is
herein-after called "The Parliament," or "The Parliament of
the Commonwealth."
2. A Governor-General appointed by the Queen shall be Her

Majesty's representative in the Commonwealth, and shall have
and may exercise in the Commonwealth during the Queen's
pleasure, but subject to this Constitution, such powers and
functions of the Queen as Her Majesty may be pleased to assign
to him.
3. There shall be payable to the Queen out of the Consolidated

Revenue fund of the Commonwealth, for the salary of the
Governor-General, an annual sum which, until the Parliament
otherwise provides, shall be ten thousand pounds. The salary
of a Governor-General shall not be altered during his
continuance in office.
4. The provisions of this Constitution relating to the

Governor-General extend and apply to the Governor-General for
the time being, or such person as the Queen may appoint to
administer the Government of the Commonwealth; but no such
person shall be entitled to receive any salary from the
Commonwealth in respect of any other office during his
administration of the Government of the Commonwealth.
5. The Governor-General may appoint such times for holding the

sessions of the Parliament as he thinks fit, and may also from
time to time, by Proclamation or otherwise, prorogue the
Parliament, and may in like manner dissolve the House of
Representatives. After any general election the Parliament
shall be summoned to meet not later than thirty days after the
day appointed for the return of the writs. The Parliament
shall be summoned to meet not later than six months after the
establishment of the Commonwealth.
6. There shall be a session of the Parliament once at least in

every year, so that twelve months shall not intervene between
the last sitting of the Parliament in one session and its
first sitting in the next session.
PART II.—THE SENATE.
7. The Senate shall be composed of senators for each State,

directly chosen by the people of the State, voting, until the
Parliament otherwise provides, as one electorate. But until
the Parliament of the Commonwealth otherwise provides, the
Parliament of the State of Queensland, if that State be an
Original State, may make laws dividing the State into
divisions and determining the number of senators to be chosen
for each division, and in the absence of such provision the
State shall be one electorate. Until the Parliament otherwise
provides there shall be six senators for each Original State.
The Parliament may make laws increasing or diminishing the
number of senators for each State, but so that equal
representation of the several Original States shall be
maintained and that no Original State shall have less than six
senators. The senators shall be chosen for a term of six
years, and the names of the senators chosen for each State
shall be certified by the Governor to the Governor-General.
8. The qualification of electors of senators shall be in each

State that which is prescribed by this Constitution, or by the
Parliament, as the qualification for electors of members of
the House of Representatives; but in the choosing of senators
each elector shall vote only once.
9. The Parliament of the Commonwealth may make laws

prescribing the method of choosing senators, but so that the
method shall be uniform for all the States. Subject to any
such law, the Parliament of each State may make laws
prescribing the method of choosing the senators for that
State. The Parliament of a State may make laws for determining
the times and places of elections of senators for the State.
{156}
10. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, but subject to

this Constitution, the laws in force in each State, for the
time being, relating to elections for the more numerous House
of the Parliament of the State shall, as nearly as
practicable, apply to elections of senators for the State.
11. The Senate may proceed to the despatch of business,

notwithstanding the failure of any State to provide for its
representation in the Senate.
12. The Governor of any State may cause writs to be issued for
elections of senators for the State. In case of the
dissolution of the Senate the writs shall be issued within ten
days from the proclamation of such dissolution.
13. As soon as may be after the Senate first meets, and after
each first meeting of the Senate following a dissolution
thereof, the Senate shall divide the senators chosen for each
State into two classes, as nearly equal in number as
practicable; and the places of the senators of the first class
shall become vacant at the expiration of the third year, and the
places of those of the second class at the expiration of the
sixth year, from the beginning of their term of service; and
afterwards the places of senators shall become vacant at the
expiration of six years from the beginning of their term of
service. The election to fill vacant places shall be made in
the year at the expiration of which the places are to become
vacant. For the purposes of this section the term of service
of a senator shall be taken to begin on the first day of
January following the day of his election, except in the cases
of the first election and of the election next after any
dissolution of the Senate, when it shall be taken to begin on
the first day of January preceding the day of his election.
14. Whenever the number of senators for a State is increased

or diminished, the Parliament of the Commonwealth may make
such provision for the vacating of the places of senators for
the State as it deems necessary to maintain regularity in the
rotation.
15. If the place of a senator becomes vacant before the

expiration of his term of service, the Houses of Parliament of
the State for which he was chosen shall, sitting and voting
together, choose a person to hold the place until the
expiration of the term, or until the election of a successor
as hereinafter provided, whichever first happens. But if the
Houses of Parliament of the State are not in session at the
time when the vacancy is notified, the Governor of the State,
with the advice of the Executive Council thereof, may appoint
a person to hold the place until the expiration of fourteen
days after the beginning of the next session of the Parliament
of the State, or until the election of a successor, whichever
first happens. At the next general election of members of the
House of Representatives, or at the next election of senators
for the State, whichever first happens, a successor shall, if
the term has not then expired, be chosen to hold the place
from the date of his election until the expiration of the
term. The name of any senator so chosen or appointed shall be
certified by the Governor of the State to the
Governor-General.
16. The qualifications of a senator shall be the same as those

of a member of the House of Representatives.
17. The Senate shall, before proceeding to the despatch of any

other business, choose a senator to be the President of the
Senate; and as often as the office of President becomes vacant
the Senate shall again choose a senator to be the President.
The President shall cease to hold his office if he ceases to
be a senator. He may be removed from office by a vote of the
Senate, or he may resign his office or his seat by writing
addressed to the Governor-General.
18. Before or during any absence of the President, the Senate

may choose a senator to perform his duties in his absence.
19. A Senator may, by writing addressed to the President, or

to the Governor-General if there is no President or if the
President is absent from the Commonwealth, resign his place,
which thereupon shall become vacant.
20. The place of a senator shall become vacant if for two

consecutive months of any session of the Parliament he,
without the permission of the Senate, fails to attend the
Senate.
21. Whenever a vacancy happens in the Senate, the President,

or if there is no President or if the President is absent from
the Commonwealth the Governor-General, shall notify the same
to the Governor of the State in the representation of which
the vacancy has happened.
22. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, the presence of

at least one-third of the whole number of the senators shall
be necessary to constitute a meeting of the Senate for the
exercise of its powers.
23. Questions arising in the Senate shall be determined by a

majority of votes, and each senator shall have one vote. The
President shall in all cases be entitled to a vote; and when
the votes are equal the question shall pass in the negative.
PART III.—THE HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES.
24. The House of Representatives shall be composed of members

directly chosen by the people of the Commonwealth, and the
number of such members shall be, as nearly as practicable,
twice the number of the senators. The number of members chosen
in the several States shall be in proportion to the respective
numbers of their people, and shall, until the Parliament
otherwise provides, be determined, whenever necessary, in the
following manner:—
(i.) A quota shall be ascertained by dividing the number of

the people of the Commonwealth, as shown by the latest
statistics of the Commonwealth, by twice the number of the
senators.
(ii.) The number of members to be chosen in each State

shall be determined by dividing the number of the people of
the State, as shown by the latest statistics of the
Commonwealth, by the quota; and if on such division there
is a remainder greater than one-half of the quota, one more
member shall be chosen in the State. But notwithstanding
anything in this section, five members at least shall be
chosen in each Original State.
25. For the purposes of the last section, if by the law of any
State all persons of any race are disqualified from voting at
elections for the more numerous House of the Parliament of the
State, then, in reckoning the number of the people of the
State or of the Commonwealth, persons of that race resident in
that State shall not be counted.
{157}
26. Notwithstanding anything in section twenty-four, the

number of members to be chosen in each State at the first
election shall be as follows:—
New South Wales, twenty-three;

Victoria, twenty;
Queensland, eight;
South Australia, six;
Tasmania, five;
provided that if Western Australia is an Original State, the

numbers shall be as follows:—
New South Wales, twenty-six;

Victoria, twenty-three;
Queensland, nine;
South Australia, seven;
Western Australia, five;
Tasmania, five.
27. Subject to this Constitution, the Parliament may make laws

for increasing or diminishing the number of the members of the
House of Representatives.
28. Every House of Representatives shall continue for three

years from the first meeting of the House, and no longer, but
may be sooner dissolved by the Governor-General.
29. Until the Parliament of the Commonwealth otherwise
provides, the Parliament of any State may make laws for
determining the divisions in each State for which members of
the House of Representatives may be chosen, and the number of
members to be chosen for each division. A division shall not
be formed out of parts of different States. In the absence of
other provision, each State shall be one electorate.
30. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, the qualification

of electors of members of the House of Representatives shall
be in each State that which is prescribed by the law of the
State as the qualification of electors of the more numerous
House of Parliament of the State; but in the choosing of
members each elector shall vote only once.
31. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, but subject to

this Constitution, the laws in force in each State for the
time being relating to elections for the more numerous House
of the Parliament of the State shall, as nearly as
practicable, apply to elections in the State of members of the
House of Representatives.
32. The Governor-General in Council may cause writs to be

issued for general elections of members of the House of
Representatives. After the first general election, the writs
shall be issued within ten days from the expiry of a House of
Representatives or from the proclamation of a dissolution
thereof.
33. Whenever a vacancy happens in the House of

Representatives, the Speaker shall issue his writ for the
election of a new member, or if there is no Speaker or if he
is absent from the Commonwealth the Governor-General in
Council may issue the writ.
34. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, the

qualifications of a member of the House of Representatives
shall be as follows:—
(i.) He must be of the full age of twenty-one years, and

must be an elector entitled to vote at the election of
members of the House of Representatives, or a person
qualified to become such elector, and must have been for
three years at the least a resident within the limits of
the Commonwealth as existing at the time when he is chosen:
(ii.) He must be a subject of the Queen, either

natural-born or for at least five years naturalized under a
law of the United Kingdom, or of a Colony which has become
or becomes a State, or of the Commonwealth, or of a State.
35. The House of Representatives shall, before proceeding to

the despatch of any other business, choose a member to be the
Speaker of the House, and as often as the office of Speaker
becomes vacant the House shall again choose a member to be the
Speaker. The Speaker shall cease to hold his office if he
ceases to be a member. He may be removed from office by a vote
of the House, or he may resign his office or his seat by
writing addressed to the Governor-General.
36. Before or during any absence of the Speaker, the House of

Representatives may choose a member to perform his duties in
his absence.
37. A member may by writing addressed to the Speaker, or to

the Governor-General if there is no Speaker or if the Speaker
is absent from the Commonwealth, resign his place, which
thereupon shall become vacant.
38. The place of a member shall become vacant if for two

consecutive months of any session of the Parliament he,
without the permission of the House, fails to attend the
House.
39. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, the presence of
at least one-third of the whole number of the members of the
House of Representatives shall be necessary to constitute a
meeting of the House for the exercise of its powers.
40. Questions arising in the House of Representatives shall be

determined by a majority of votes other than that of the
Speaker. The Speaker shall not vote unless the numbers are
equal, and then he shall have a casting vote.
PART IV.—BOTH HOUSES OF THE PARLIAMENT.
41. No adult person who has or acquires a right to vote at

elections for the more numerous House of the Parliament of a
State shall, while the right continues, be prevented by any
law of the Commonwealth from voting at elections for either
House of the Parliament of the Commonwealth.
42. Every senator and every member of the House of

Representatives shall before taking his seat make and
subscribe before the Governor-General, or some person
authorised by him, an oath or affirmation of allegiance in the
form set forth in the schedule to this Constitution.
43. A member of either House of the Parliament shall be

incapable of being chosen or of sitting as a member of the
other House.
44. Any person who—
(i.) Is under any acknowledgment of allegiance, obedience, or

adherence to a foreign power, or is a subject or a citizen or
entitled to the rights or privileges of a subject or a citizen
of a foreign power: or
(ii.) Is attainted of treason, or has been convicted and is
under sentence, or subject to be sentenced, for any offence
punishable under the law of the Commonwealth or of a State by
imprisonment for one year or longer: or
(iii.) Is an undischarged bankrupt or insolvent: or
(iv.) Holds any office of profit under the Crown, or any

pension payable during the pleasure of the Crown out of any of
the revenues of the Commonwealth: or
(v.) Has any direct or indirect pecuniary interest in any

agreement with the Public Service of the Commonwealth
otherwise than as a member and in common with the other
members of an incorporated company consisting of more than
twenty-five persons: shall be incapable of being chosen or of
sitting as a senator or a member of the House of
Representatives. But sub-section iv. does not apply to the
office of any of the Queen's Ministers of State for the
Commonwealth, or of any of the Queen's Ministers for a State,
or to the receipt of pay, half pay, or a pension by any person
as an officer or member of the Queen's navy or army, or to the
receipt of pay as an officer or member of the naval or
military forces of the Commonwealth by any person whose
services are not wholly employed by the Commonwealth.
{158}
45. If a senator or member of the House of Representatives—
(i.) Becomes subject to any of the disabilities mentioned in

the last preceding section: or
(ii.) Takes the benefit, whether by assignment, composition,

or otherwise, of any law relating to bankrupt or insolvent
debtors: or
(iii.) Directly or indirectly takes or agrees to take any fee
or honorarium for services rendered to the Commonwealth, or
for services rendered in the Parliament to any person or
State: his place shall thereupon become vacant.
46. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, any person

declared by this Constitution to be incapable of sitting as a
senator or as a member of the House of Representatives shall,
for every day on which he so sits, be liable to pay the sum of
one hundred pounds to any person who sues for it in any court
of competent jurisdiction.
47. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, any question

respecting the qualification of a senator or of a member of
the House of Representatives, or respecting a vacancy in
either House of the Parliament, and any question of a disputed
election to either House, shall be determined by the House in
which the question arises.
48. Until the Parliament otherwise provides, each senator and

each member of the House of Representatives shall receive an
allowance of four hundred pounds a year, to be reckoned from
the day on which he takes his seat.
49. The powers, privileges, and immunities of the Senate and

of the House of Representatives, and of the members and the
committees of each House, shall be such as are declared by the
Parliament, and until declared shall be those of the Commons
House of Parliament of the United Kingdom, and of its members
and committees, at the establishment of the Commonwealth.
50. Each House of the Parliament may make rules and orders
with respect to—
(i.) The mode in which its powers, privileges, and immunities

may be exercised and upheld:
(ii.) The order and conduct of its business and proceedings
either separately or jointly with the other House.
PART V.—POWERS OF THE PARLIAMENT.
51. The Parliament shall, subject to this Constitution, have

power to make laws for the peace, order, and good government
of the Commonwealth with respect to:—
(i.) Trade and commerce with other countries, and among the
States;
(ii.) Taxation; but so as not to discriminate between States

or parts of States:
(iii.) Bounties on the production or export of goods, but so

that such bounties shall be uniform throughout the
Commonwealth:
(iv.) Borrowing money on the public credit of the

Commonwealth:
(v.) Postal, telegraphic, telephonic, and other like services:
(vi.) The naval and military defence of the Commonwealth and

of the several States, and the control of the forces to
execute and maintain the laws of the Commonwealth:
(vii.) Lighthouses, lightships, beacons and buoys:
(viii.) Astronomical and meteorological observations:
(ix.) Quarantine:
(x.) Fisheries in Australian waters beyond territorial limits:

(xi.) Census and statistics:
(xii.) Currency, coinage, and legal tender:
(xiii.) Banking, other than State banking; also State banking

extending beyond the limits of the State concerned, the
incorporation of banks, and the issue of paper money:
(xiv.) Insurance, other than State insurance; also State

insurance extending beyond the limits of the State concerned:
(xv.) Weights and measures:
(xvi. ) Bills of exchange and promissory notes:
(xvii.) Bankruptcy and insolvency:
(xviii.) Copyrights, patents of inventions and designs, and

trade marks:
(xix.) Naturalization and aliens:
(xx.) Foreign corporations, and trading or financial

corporations formed within the limits of the Commonwealth:
(xxi.) Marriage:
(xxii.) Divorce and matrimonial causes; and in relation

thereto, parental rights, and the custody and guardianship of
infants:
(xxiii.) Invalid and old-age pensions:
(xxiv.) The service and execution throughout the Commonwealth

of the civil and criminal process and the judgments of the
courts of the States:
(xxv.) The recognition throughout the Commonwealth of the
laws, the public Acts and records, and the judicial
proceedings of the States:
(xxvi.) The people of any race, other than the aboriginal race
in any State, for whom it is deemed necessary to make special
laws:
(xxvii.) Immigration and emigration:
(xxviii.) The influx of criminals:
(xxix.) External affairs:
(xxx.) The relations of the Commonwealth with the islands of

the Pacific:
(xxxi.) The acquisition of property on just terms from any

State or person for any purpose in respect of which the
Parliament has power to make laws:
(xxxii.) The control of railways with respect to transport for

the naval and military purposes of the Commonwealth:
(xxxiii.) The acquisition, with the consent of a State, of any

railways of the State on terms arranged between the
Commonwealth and the State:
(xxxiv.) Railway construction and extension in any State with

the consent of that State:
(xxxv.) Conciliation and arbitration for the prevention and

settlement of industrial disputes extending beyond the limits
of any one State:
(xxxvi.) Matters in respect of which this Constitution makes

provision until the Parliament otherwise provides:
(xxxvii.) Matters referred to the Parliament of the
Commonwealth by the Parliament or Parliaments of any State or
States, but so that the law shall extend only to States by
whose Parliaments the matter is referred, or which afterwards
adopt the law:
(xxxviii.) The exercise within the Commonwealth, at the

request or with the concurrence of the Parliaments of all the
States directly concerned, of any power which can at the
establishment of this Constitution be exercised only by the
Parliament of the United Kingdom or by the Federal Council of
Australasia:
(xxxix.) Matters incidental to the execution of any power

vested by this Constitution in the Parliament or in either
House thereof, or in the Government of the Commonwealth, or in
the Federal Judicature, or in any department or officer of the
Commonwealth.
52. The Parliament shall, subject to this Constitution, have

exclusive power to make laws for the peace, order, and good
government of the Commonwealth with respect to—
(i.) The seat of government of the Commonwealth, and all

places acquired by the Commonwealth for public purposes:
(ii.) Matters relating to any department of the public service

the control of which is by this Constitution transferred to the
Executive Government of the Commonwealth:
(iii.) Other matters declared by this Constitution to be

within the exclusive power of the Parliament.
{159}
53. Proposed laws appropriating revenue or moneys, or imposing

taxation, shall not originate in the Senate. But a proposed
law shall not be taken to appropriate revenue or moneys, or to
impose taxation, by reason only of its containing provisions for
the imposition or appropriation of fines or other pecuniary
penalties, or for the demand or payment or appropriation of
fees for licences, or fees for services under the proposed
law. The Senate may not amend proposed laws imposing taxation,
or proposed laws appropriating revenue or moneys for the
ordinary annual services of the Government. The Senate may not
amend any proposed law so as to increase any proposed charge
or burden on the people. The Senate may at any stage return to
the House of Representatives any proposed law which the Senate
may not amend, requesting, by message, the omission or
amendment of any items or provisions therein. And the House of
Representatives may, if it thinks fit, make any of such
omissions or amendments, with or without modifications. Except
as provided in this section, the Senate shall have equal power
with the House of Representatives in respect of all proposed
laws.
54. The proposed law which appropriates revenue or moneys for

the ordinary annual services of the Government shall deal only
with such appropriation.
55. Laws imposing taxation shall deal only with the imposition
of taxation, and any provision therein dealing with any other
matter shall be of no effect. Laws imposing taxation, except
laws imposing duties of customs or of excise, shall deal with
one subject of taxation only; but laws imposing duties of
customs shall deal with duties of customs only, and laws
imposing duties of excise shall deal with duties of excise
only.
56. A vote, resolution, or proposed law for the appropriation

of revenue or moneys shall not be passed unless the purpose of
the appropriation has in the same session been recommended by
message of the Governor-General to the House in which the

Ebook Chemistry 8Th Edition Zumdahl Test Bank Full Chapter PDF

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Chemistry 8th Edition Zumdahl Test

1. Order the intermolecular forces (dipole-dipole, London dispersion, ionic, and

2. Hydrogen bonds account for which of the following observation?

4. Which of the following should have the lowest boiling point?

9. Which substance involves no bonding forces except London dispersion forces?

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

Consider the representations below to answer the next three questions.

16. Which drawing best represents the interactions in a sample of HF?

19. Which best explains the following trend?

A) London dispersion forces

20. Intermolecular forces are weaker than intramolecular bonds.

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

21. Hydrogen bonding is a type of London dispersion force.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

23. Which of the following compounds has the lowest viscosity?

24. Which of the following statements about liquids is true?

25. What is responsible for capillary action, a property of liquids?

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.2

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.3

31. Atomic solids generally have low melting points.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: 10.3

35. The volume of a single cell.

36. The radius of a Pb atom.

37. Cubic closest packing is another name for _____________.

40. Which of the following statements is (are) false?

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.4

49. Steel is considered to be a(n) __________.

50. Which of the following statements about steel is false?

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.4

54. Steel is a substitutional alloy.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.4

55. Which of the following statements is true about p-type silicon?

58. Which of the compounds below is an example of a network solid?

59. Which of the compounds below is not an example of a molecular solid?

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.6

61. Which of these statements is incorrect?

62. At room temperature, CsF is expected to be

63. A solid crystal of NaCl is

67. Which of these statements is false?

74. An atom in an octahedral hole is surrounded by ____ atoms.

78. Which of the following is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?

81. On a relative basis, the weaker the intermolecular forces in a substance,

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.8

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.8

94. Generally the vapor pressure of a liquid is related to:

95. In which of the following processes will energy be evolved as heat?

99. The vapor pressure of water at 100.0°C is

101. The vapor pressure of water at 80°C is

102. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

105. The process of changing from a vapor to a liquid is vaporization.

ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.8

107. Which statement regarding water is true?

110. Choose the correct statement about the diagram below.

A) Increase P to 1.5 atm and then increase T to 300 K.

114. Shown below is a phase diagram for compound Y.

How will the melting point of Y change with increased pressure?

A) At equilibrium, only CO2(g) will be present.

A) The solid has a higher density than the liquid.

See Sec. 10.1 of Zumdahl, Chemistry

PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: 10.1

See Sec. 10.1 of Zumdahl, Chemistry.