Professional Documents
Culture Documents
®
(3)
(4)
Ans. (4)
62. Highest enol content will be shown by :
Sol.
:
1
66. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen? 68. Consider the following complex ions
P = [FeF6]3–
(1) Q = [V(H2O) 6]2+
R = [Fe(H2O)6] 2+
The correct order of the complex ions, according to
(2)
their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is :
(1) R < Q < P (2) R < P< Q
(3) (3) Q < R < P (4) Q < P < R
Ans. (3)
Sol. [FeF6]3– : Fe+3 : [Ar] 3d5
®
Ans. (4) = 5(5 2)
O O
C C
= 35 BM
H3C CH2 CH2 CH3 [V(H2O)6]+2 : V+2 : 3d3
Sol.
Active
methylene
gro up
2
70. Given below are two statements : 72. The ascending order of acidity of –OH group in the
Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f - series of elements following compounds is :
(A) Bu – OH
are placed separately in the Periodic table to
preserve the principle of classification. (B)
Statement (II) :S-block elements can be found in
pure form in nature. In the light of the above (C)
statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below : (D)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (E)
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. (3) below :
®
Sol. s-block elements are highly reactive and found in (1) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(2) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)
combined state.
(3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)
(4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
71. Given below are two statements : Ans. (4)
Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than
m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Sol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate
turbidity with Lucas reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : 73. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron (2453 K)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
is unusually high in group 13 elements.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true crystalline lattice.
Ans. (1) In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. Acidic strength most appropriate answer from the options given
below ;
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Ethanol give lucas test after long time (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (2)
Statement (I)correct Sol. Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice so
Statement (II) incorrect its melting point unusually high in group 13
elements
3
77. IUPAC name of following compound (P) is :
74. Cyclohexene is _________ type of an
organic compound.
(1) Benzenoid aromatic
(2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
(3) Acyclic
(4) Alicyclic (1) l-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
Ans. (4) (2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) l-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
Sol. is Alicyclic (4) l,l-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
Ans. (2)
75. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved
on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product
of lead formed is a : Sol.
(1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination
number six
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(2) Neutral complex with coordination number 3-ethy 1, 1 -dimethylcyclohexane
four
(3) Dianionic complex with coordination number 78. NaCl reacts with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 to give
six reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are ;
four (1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 (2) Na2CrO4, CrO2Cl2
Ans. (4) (3) CrO2Cl2, KHSO4 (4) CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7
Sol. PbCrO4 + NaOH (hot excess) [Pb(OH)4]-2 + Ans. (1)
Na2CrO4 Sol. NaCl + conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7
Dianionic complex with coordination number four CrO2Cl2 + KHSO4 + NaHSO4 +H2O
76. Given below are two statements : (B)
Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium Reddish brown
carbonate is basic.
CrO2Cl2 + NaOH Na2CrO4 + NaCl +H2O
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt solution
(C)
of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Ka
Yellow colour
and Kb value of acid and the base forming it.
79. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is ;
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Retention occurs in SNl reaction and inversion
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
occurs in SN2 reaction.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Racemisation occurs in SNl reaction and
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are retention occurs in SN2 reaction.
incorrect (3) Racemisation occurs in both SN1 and SN2
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is reactions.
correct (4) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and
Ans. (1) inversion occurs in SN2 reaction.
Sol. Aqueous solution of (NH4)2CO3is Basic Ans. (4)
pH of salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Sol. SN1 – Racemisation
Ka and Kb value of acid and the base forming it SN2 – Inversion
4
80. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is: 83. Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO2
[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60] after complete combustion is ______g.
(1)[Xe] 4f4 6s2 (2) [Xe] 5f47s2 (Given Molar mass in g mol–1 C = 12.0
(3) [Xe] 4f6 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f15d16s2
H = 1.0
Ans. (1)
Sol. Electronic configuration of Nd(Z = 60) is; O = 16.0)
[Xe] 4f4 6s2 Ans. (8)
SECTION-B Sol. CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
–1
81. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol ) 22
Moles of CO2 = 0.5
displaced by a quantity of electricity which 44
displaces 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be _____ g. So, required moles of CH4 = 0.5
Ans. 107 gm or 108
Mass = 0.5 × 16 = 8gm
Sol. Eq. of Ag = Eq. of O2
84. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand
®
Let x gm silver displaced,
x 1 5.6 isotherrnally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a
4
108 22.7 constant opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the
(Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 lit) amount of heat transferred is_______ J.
x = 106.57 gm
Ans. (1200)
Ans. 107
OR, Sol. Using, first law of thermodynamics,
as per old STP data, molar volume=22.4 lit U = Q + W,
x 1 5.6 U = 0 : Process is isothermal
4 , x= 108 gm.
108 22.4
Q=–W
Ans. 108
W = – PextV : Irreversible
82. Consider the following data for the given reaction
= -80 × 103 ( 45 – 30) × 10-3
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
= –1200 J
1 2 3
85. 3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in
HI (mol L–1) 0.005 0.01 0.02
presence of peroxide forms an addition product
Rate (mol L–1s–1) 7.5 × 10–4 3.0 ×10–3 1.2×10–2 (A). The number of possible stereoisomers for 'A'
The order of the reaction is _________. is_________.
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
Sol. Let, R = k[HI]n Br
using any two of given data,
Sol. HBr
3 n
3 10 0.01 Peroxide
4
7.5 10 0.005
2chiral centres
n=2
No. of stereoisomers = 4
5
86. Among the given organic compounds, the total 88. The number of electrons present in all the
number of aromatic compounds is 1
completely filled subshells having n=4 and s
2
is ______.
(A)
(Where n = principal quantum number and
s = spin quantum number)
(B)
Ans. (16)
Sol. n = 4 can have,
(C) 4s 4p 4d 4f
-
Total e 2 6 10 14
1
Total e- with S = + 1 3 5 7
(D) 2
So, Ans.16
Ans. (3)
89. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is _____.
®
Sol. B,C and D are Aromatic Ans. (6)
Sol. CO CO : BO = 3
87. Among the following, total number of meta NO+ N O+ : BO = 3
directing functional groups is (Integer based)
90. From the given list, the number of compounds with
– OCH3, –NO2, –CN, –CH3 –NHCOCH3,
+ 4 oxidation state of Sulphur ________.
– COR, –OH, – COOH, –Cl SO3, H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4, BaSO4, H2S2O7
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
Sol.
Sol. –NO2, – C N, –COR, –COOH
are meta directing. Compounds SO3 H2SO3 SOCl2 SF4 BaSO4 H2S2O7
O.S.of Sulphur: +6 +4 +4 +4 +6 +6
6
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
®
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. (1)
below:
Sol. As tin coating is peeled off, then iron is exposed to
(1) I > II > III atmosphere.
(2) II > I > III 64. Given below are two statements:
(3) I = II = III Statement (I) : In the Lanthanoids, the formation
of Ce+4 is favoured by its noble gas configuration.
(4) III > II > I
Statement (II) : Ce+4 is a strong oxidant reverting
Ans. (1) to the common +3 state.
Sol. I > II > III, since neutral resonating structures are In the light of the above statements, choose the
more stable than charged resonating structure. II > III, most appropriate answer from the options given
since stability of structure with –ve charge on more below:
electronegative atom is higher. (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
62. Which among the following halide/s will not show (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
SN1 reaction: (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(A) H2C = CH – CH2Cl (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans. (2)
(B) CH3 – CH = CH – Cl
Sol. Statement (1) is true, Ce+4 has noble gas electronic
CH 2–Cl configuration.
(C) Statement (2) is also true due to high reduction
CH3 potential for Ce4+/Ce3+ (+1.74V), and stability of
CH – Cl Ce3+, Ce4+ acts as strong oxidizing agent.
(D) H 3C 65. Choose the correct option having all the elements
Choose the most appropriate answer from the with d10 electronic configuration from the following:
options given below: (1) 27Co, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(2) 29Cu, 30Zn, 48Cd, 47Ag
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) 46Pd, 28Ni, 26Fe, 24Cr
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (C) only (4) 28Ni, 24Cr, 26Fe, 29Cu
(4) (B) only Ans. (2)
Sol. [Cr] = [Ar]4s1 3d5
Ans. (4)
[Cd] = [Kr]5s24d10
Sol. Since CH3 CH CH is very unstable, CH3–CH = [Cu] = [Ar]4s13d10
[Ag] = [Kr]5s14d10
CH – Cl cannot give S N1 reaction.
[Zn] = [Ar]4s23d10
1
–
66. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive: PhCH = CH 2
B2H6/H2 O2,OH
(1) Phthalein dye test Sol. PhCH2CH2OH
(2) Lucas test
(3) Tollen’s test PhCH2CH2 OH + HBr (S 2N) GP )
PhCH2CH2Br + H2 O (SN
(4) Carbylamine test O
Mg/dry ether
Ans. (1) (I) H – C – H
PhCH2CH2CH2OH PhCH2CH2MgBr
Sol. Carbylamine Test-Identification of primary amines (II) H3O+
Lucas Test - Differentiation between 1°, 2° and 3°
alcohols 70. Match List-I with List-II.
Tollen's Test - Identification of Aldehydes List – I List – II
Phthalein Dye Test - Identification of phenols (Reaction) (Reagent(s))
67. The molecular formula of second homologue in the OH OH
COOH
homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is (A) (I) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4
_________. OH OH
CHO
(1) C3H6O2
(2) C2H4O2 (B) (II) (i) NaOH (ii) CH3Cl
®
OH O
(3) CH2O
(4) C2H2O2
Ans. (2) (C) O (III) (i) NaOH, CHCl3
Sol. HCOOH, CH3COOH (ii) NaOH (iii) HCl
OH
OCH3
Second homologue (D) (IV) (i) NaOH (ii) CO2
68. The technique used for purification of steam (iii) HCl
volatile water immiscible substance is: Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Fractional distillation below:
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(3) Distillation (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) Steam distillation (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (4) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Sol. Steam distillation is used for those liquids which Ans. (4)
are insoluble in water, containing non-volatile Sol. (A) Kolbe Schmidt Reaction
impurities and are steam volatile. (B) Reimer Tiemann Reaction
69. The final product A, formed in the following (C) Oxidation of phenol to p-benzoquinone
reaction sequence is: (D) PhOH + NaOH H2O + PhO–
(i) BH 3 –
PhO + CH 3 – Cl
(ii) H 2O 2, OH PhOCH3 + Cl–
Ph–CH=CH2 OH A 71. Major product formed in the following reaction is a
(iii) HBr
(iv) Mg, ether, then HCHO/H3 O
+ mixture of:
CH3
(1) Ph CH2 CH2 CH3 O C CH3 HI Major product
(2) Ph CH CH3 CH3
| I I
CH3
(1) and (CH3)3CI (2) and (CH 3)3COH
(3) Ph CH CH3
| OH
OH CH 3
CH 2OH
(3) and (CH 3)3COH (4) and CH3–C–I
(4) Ph CH2 CH2 CH2 OH CH 3
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
2
Sol. 74. Identify from the following species in which d2sp3
H
+O
hybridization is shown by central atom:
O
+H–I +I
–
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) BrF5
(3) [Pt(Cl)4]2–
OH
+
+ I–
I
(4) SF6
Ans. (1)
72. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
H Sol. [Co(NH3)6]+3 – d2sp3 hybridization
C CN BrF5 – sp3d2 hybridization
(1) HO CN [PtCl4]-2 – dsp2 hybridization
C N
SF6 – sp3d2 hybridization
HO CH
(2) C N 75. Identify B formed in the reaction.
CN
HO CH
Cl (CH2 )4 Cl
excess NH3
A
NaOH
(3) B H2O NaCl
®
CN
OH
NH
(4) CN CN (1)
Ans. (4) (2) H 2 N CH 2 4 NH 2
OH
OH
CH (3) Cl N H3 (CH2 )4 N H3Cl
3
77. Which structure of protein remains intact after Sol. Noble gas configuration = ns2 np6
coagulation of egg white on boiling? [Sr2+] = [Kr]
(1) Primary [Cs+] = [Xe]
(2) Tertiary [Yb2+] = [Kr] 4d10 4f14 5s2 5p6
(3) Secondary [La2+] = [Xe] 5d1
(4) Quaternary [Pb2+] = [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2
Ans. (1) [Fe2+] = [Ar] 3d6
Sol. Boiling an egg causes denaturation of its protein 82. The number of non-polar molecules from the
resulting in loss of its quarternary, tertiary and following is ___________
secondary structures. HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCl, CHCl3, BF3
78. Which of the following cannot function as an Ans. (4)
oxidising agent? Sol. The non-polar molecules are CO2, H2, CH4 and
(1) N3– BF3
(2) SO24 83. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First
(3) BrO3 order reaction is ________ times of half life (t1/2)
®
of the reaction.
(4) MnO4
Ans. (10)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
Sol. In N3– ion 'N' is present in its lowest possible
2.303 a 100
oxidation state, hence it cannot be reduced further log
t 99.9% k ax 100 99.9 log10 3 3
because of which it cannot act as an oxidizing 10
t1/2 2.303 log 2 log 2 0.3
log 2
agent. k
79. The incorrect statement regarding conformations 84. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square
of ethane is: planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is
(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations ________ B.M. (Nearest integer)
(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is (Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
60° Ans. (0)
(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable Sol. Pt2+ (d8)
conformation.
(4) The conformations of ethane are inter-
convertible to one-another.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eclipsed conformation is the least stable
conformation of ethane.
80. Identity the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Photography - AgBr
Pt 2 dsp2 hybridization and have no unpaired e–s.
(2) Polythene preparation – TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
(3) Haber process - Iron Magnetic moment = 0
(4) Wacker process – Pt Cl2 85. For a certain thermochemical reaction M N at
Ans. (4) T = 400 K, H 77.2 kJ mol–1, S = 122 JK–1,
Sol. The catalyst used in Wacker's process is PdCl2 log equilibrium constant (logK) is –______ × 10–1.
SECTION-B Ans. (37)
81. Total number of ions from the following with Sol. G H TS
noble gas configuration is _________. 77.2 103 400 122 28400 J
Sr2+ (Z = 38), Cs+ (Z = 55), La2+ (Z = 57) Pb2+ G 2.303RTlogK
(Z = 82), Yb2+ (Z = 70) and Fe2+ (Z = 26) 28400 2.303 8.314 400 logK
Ans. (3) logK 3.708 37.08 10 1
4
86. Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1) O O
which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is || ||
Sol. C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3 C O C CH 3
________ × 10–1 dm3.
AnilineMM 93
Ans. (7)
n NaOH 84 / 40 V 0.7L 7 10 1 L O
Sol. M 3 ||
Vsol (in L) V C 6 H 5 NH C CH 3 CH 3COOH
Ace tan ilide MM 135
87. 1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3 to
get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = __________ n Ace tan ilide n Aniline
Ans. (8) m 9.3
Sol. PbS + 4O3PbSO4 + 4O2 135 93
x = 4, y = 4 m 13.5g
88. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of 90. Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon
pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will atoms from following is ________.
be –________ × 10–2 V. O
O O
2.303RT
®
0.059V
F
Ans. (18) CH3 CH2 CH(NO2 ) COOH
Sol. 2Haq. 2e H2 (g) CH3 CH2 CHBr CH2 CH3
0.059 PH2 CH3 CH(I) CH2 NO2
E cell E 0cell
log
2 H
2
CH3 CH2 CH(OH) CH2OH
= 0- 0.059 × 3 = - 0.177 volts. = -17.7 × 10-2 V. CH3 CH CH(I) C2 H5
|
89. 9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess I
of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The
mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is Ans. (5)
100% completed is _________ × 10–1 g. Sol. Chiral carbons are marked by.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C :
O I I
12, H : 1) *
* CH3 CH2 –CH–COOH , * NO2 , * ,
Ans. (135) , * * OH
NO2 OH
I
5
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
®
Sol. Cl K Cr O H SO CrO Cl CrO2 Cl
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Basic medium
2 2 7 2 4 2 2 4
yellow solution
explanation of A 1.Acidification
(2) A is true but R is false CrO24
2. Amyl alcohol
3. 10% H2 O2
CrO5
yellow solution blue compound
(3) A is false but R is true –2
O
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the –1
O +6 O– 1
Cr
correct explanation of A –1
O O– 1
Ans. (3) 64. The difference in energy between the actual
Sol. First ionisation energy increases along the period. structure and the lowest energy resonance structure
Along the period Z increases which outweighs the for the given compound is
shielding effect (1) electromeric energy
62. Match List I with List II (2) resonance energy
LIST-I LIST-II (3) ionization energy
(Substances) (Element Present) (4) hyperconjugation energy
A.Ziegler catalyst I.Rhodium Ans. (2)
B.Blood Pigment II. Cobalt Sol. The difference in energy between the actual structure
C.Wilkinson catalyst III.Iron and the lowest energy resonance structure for the
given compound is known as resonance energy.
D.Vitamin B12 IV.Titanium
65. Given below are two statements :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement I : The electronegativity of group 14
below:
elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Statement II : Group 14 contains non-metallic,
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II most appropriate from the options given below :
Ans. (4) (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Sol. Ziegler catalyst Titanium (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Blood pigment Iron (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Wilkinson catalyst Rhodium (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Vitamin B12Cobalt Ans. (1)
1
Sol. Gr-14 EN OCH2 CH3
Sol. C o n c H B r (ex ces s)
C 2.5 (P )
Si 1.8 C H = CH 2
Ge 1.8
Sn 1.8
Pb 1.9
The electronegativity values for elements from Si
to Pb are almost same. So Statement I is false.
66. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
68. The arenium ion which is not involved in the
1 1
(1) 5, 0, 0, (2) 5, 0,1, bromination of Aniline is .
2 2
®
1 1
(3) 5,1, 0, (4) 5,1,1,
2 2 (1) (2)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Rb = [Kr]5s1
n=5
(3) (4)
l=0
m=0 Ans. (3)
s = +½ or –½
Sol. Since N H 2 group is o/p directing hence arenium
67. The major product(P) in the following reaction is ion will not be formed by attack at meta position
i.e.
NH 2
H
Br
Hence Answer is (3)
69. Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of
(1) (2) the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound
with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4
indicates the presence of element/s
(1) Br (2) N
(3) N and S (4) S
Ans. (3)
(3) (4) Sol. Fe2 H
Fe3
Conc.H 2SO4
2
70. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Cl
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : hv (Formed by free radical mechanism)
Assertion A : Aryl halides cannot be prepared by
replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by Cl
Sol. +Cl 2 (product A )
halogen atom. Cl
CCl
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
4
(Formed by electrophilic
Cl addition reaction on alkene)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(Product B)
most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the Hence correct Ans. (4)
correct explanation of A
72. Identify the incorrect pair from the following :
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false (1) Fluorspar- BF3
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A (2) Cryolite-Na3AlF6
Ans. (3) (3) Fluoroapatite-3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2
Sol. Assertion (A): Given statement is correct because
®
in phenol hydroxyl group cannot be replaced by (4) Carnallite-KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
halogen atom.
Ans. (1)
Reason (R) :
OH Sol. (1) Fluorspar is CaF2
HX
N o R eac tio n
73. The interaction between bond and lone pair of
3
75. In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO 77. The final product A formed in the following
multistep reaction sequence is
forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Co2(CO)8] (2) [Mn2(CO)10]
®
OC CO
CO CO (4)
OC CO
OC Os CO Ans. (1)
(3) OC CO Sol.
Os Os
OC CO
OC CO
CO CO
OC CO
OC Ru CO
(4) OC CO 78. Which of the following is not correct?
Ru Ru
CO (1) G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
OC
OC CO (2) G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(3) G is zero for a reversible reaction
76. Type of amino acids obtained by hydrolysis of
(4) G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction
proteins is :
Ans. (2)
(1) (2) Sol. (G)P,T ve for non-spontaneous process
(3) (4) 79. Chlorine undergoes disproportionation in alkaline
medium as shown below :
Ans. (2)
a Cl2(g) + b OH–(aq) c ClO–(aq) + d Cl–(aq)
Sol. Proteins are natural polymers composed of -amino + e H2O(l)
acids which are connected by peptide linkages. The values of a, b, c and d in a balanced redox
reaction are respectively :
Hence proteins upon acidic hydrolysis produce
(1) 1, 2, 1 and 1 (2) 2, 2, 1 and 3
-amino acids. (3) 3, 4, 4 and 2 (4) 2, 4, 1 and 3
Ans. (1)
4
Sol. 83. For a reaction taking place in three steps at same
+e K1K 2
temperature, overall rate constant K . If
0 1 +1 K3
Cl2 Cl + ClO
e
Ea1, Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/mol
respectively, the overall Ea is____kJ/mol.
Cl ClO H 2O
Cl2 2OH Ans. (30)
In alkaline medium. MnO 4 oxidises I– to
Ea Ea Ea
80. K1 K 2 A1 A 2 1 RT2 3
Sol. K e
(1) IO 4 (2)IO– K3 A3
E a E a 2 E a3
(3) I2 (4) IO 3 AA 1
A e Ea /RT 1 2 e RT
A3
Ans. (4)
E a E a1 E a 2 E a3 40 50 60 30 kJ / mole.
Sol. 2MnO4 H 2O I
alkaline medium
2MnO 2 2OH IO3
84. For the reaction N 2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) ,
SECTION-B
Kp= 0.492 atm at 300K. Kc for the reaction at same
®
81. Number of compounds with one lone pair of temperature is___ × 10–2 .
electrons on central atom amongst following is _ (Given : R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)
Ans. (2)
O3, H2O, SF4, ClF3, NH3, BrF5, XeF4
Sol. K P KC RT
n g
5
87. Number of compounds among the following which 89. From the compounds given below, number of
contain sulphur as heteroatom is____.
compounds which give positive Fehling's test is____.
Furan,Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine,
Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone,
Tyrosine
Ans. (2) Acetophenone,Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde,
SH
Sol. cyclohexane carbaldehyde.
, OH
H2N
S
Ans. (3)
Thiophene O
Cysteine Sol. Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO),Methanal(HCHO), and
88. The number of species from the following which
CHO
are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one cyclohexane carbaldehyde .
is____.
®
90. C=C (i) O 3
(P)
Ans. (1) H CH3 (ii) Zn/H2O
Sol. Magnetic behaviour Bond order Consider the given reaction. The total number of
H2 Diamagnetic 1
oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product
He 2 Paramagnetic 0.5
(P) is____.
O 2 Paramagnetic 2.5
Ans. (1)
N 22 Paramagnetic 2 CH3 H CH3
Sol. C=C (i) O 3
2 C=O
O22 Diamagnetic 1 H CH3 (ii) Zn/H2O H
6
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM
®
(3) A < B < D < C below :-
(4) D < C < B < A (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Ans. (1) (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
CH3 (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sol. CH C > CH 2 CH > H3C – CH 2 > CH3 C (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CH3
Ans. (4)
Stability of conjugate base acidic strength Sol. Ethanol 15.9
C<D<B<A Phenol 10
M-Nitrophenol 8.3
62. Match List I with List II P-Nitrophenol 7.1
List I (Bio Polymer) List II (Monomer)
A. Starch I. nucleotide 64. Which of the following reaction is correct ?
(1) CH3CH2CH2 NH2
HNO ,0ºC
CH3CH2OH N2 HCl
B. Cellulose II. -glucose
2
HO 2
1
65. According to IUPAC system, the compound 69. Match List I with List II
OH List I List II
is named as (Spectral Series (Spectral Region/Higher
for Hydrogen) Energy State)
(1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol (2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
A. Lyman I. Infrared region
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
B. Balmer II. UV region
Ans. (4)
Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol C. Paschen III. Infrared region
D. Pfund IV. Visible region
66. The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI) below :-
(2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI) (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII) (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI) (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
®
Ans. (2) (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Sol. K2MnO4
Ans. (3)
2+x–8=0
Sol. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
x = +6
Fact based.
O.S. of Mn = +6
IUPAC Name =
Potassium tetraoxidomanganate(VI) 70. On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s reagent, a
brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is
67. A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with (1) H2S (2) CO2
Nickel ions in basic medium is (3) NH3 (4) Cl2
(1) sodium nitroprusside Ans. (3)
(2) neutral FeCl3 Sol. Nessler’s Reagent Reaction :
(3) meta-dinitrobenzene 2K 2HgI4 NH3 3KOH HgO. Hg NH2 I 7KI 2H2O
(4) dimethyl glyoxime
Nessler 's Reagent
Iodine of Millon 's base
Brown precipitate
Ans. (4) 71. The product A formed in the following reaction is:
Sol. Ni2+ + 2dmg– [Ni(dmg)2] NH2
NaNO2, HCl, 0ºC
Rosy red/Bright Red precipitate A
then Cu2Cl2
+ –
68. Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of NH2 NH 3Cl
sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolysed in (1) (2)
presence of an acid results Cl
(1) Salicyclic acid Cl Cl
(2) Benzene-1,2-diol (3) (4)
(3) Benzene-1, 3-diol Cl
(4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde Ans. (3)
+
Ans. (4)
–
N2Cl Cl
OH OH NH2
Sol. + CHCl3 + NaOH CHO Sol. NaNO2 HCl Cu2Cl2
0° C
-hydroxy-benzaldehyde
It is Reimer Tiemann Reaction
2
72. Identify the reagents used for the following conversion 75. Which of the following statements are correct
O CH3
CHO
about Zn, Cd and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as
CHO
O A B
CHO
OH OH OH
CHO
C
the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation
state while Hg shows +I and +II.
(1) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH2–NH2/KOH, C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are
ethylene glycol paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
(2) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(alc), C =Zn/HCl
Choose the most appropriate from the options
(3) A = DIBAL-H, B= NaOH(aq), given below:
C = NH2–NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol (1) B, D only (2) B, C only
(4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl (3) A, D only (4) C, D only
Ans. (4) Sol. Ans. (1)
Sol. (A) Zn, Cd, Hg exhibit lowest enthalpy of
atomization in respective transition series.
®
OCH3
CHO
O CHO
(C) Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are diamagnetic
(A) DIBAL–H HO
HO
{Selective
in nature.
CHO
reduction (B)
NaOH
76. The element having the highest first ionization
of ester}
(alc.) enthalpy is
Intramolecular
Aldol
(1) Si (2) Al
(3) N (4) C
CHO
Ans. (3)
(C) Zn/HCl Sol. Al < Si < C < N ; IE1 order.
(Clemmensen
reduction) OH
77. Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by
73. Which of the following acts as a strong reducing
reaction with
agent? (Atomic number : Ce = 58, Eu = 63,
(1) NaCN (2) NH4CN
Gd = 64, Lu = 71) (3) KCN (4) AgCN
(1) Lu3+ (2) Gd3+ Ans. (4)
(3) Eu2+ (4) Ce4+ Sol. Covalent character of AgCN.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eu+2 Eu+3 + 1e– 78. Which one of the following will show geometrical
isomerism?
[Xe]4f76s0 [Xe] 4f66s0
CHBr
CH 2
74. Chromatographic technique/s based on the
principle of differential adsorption is/are (1) (2)
A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography Br Br
C. Paper chromatography CH 2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the CHBr
options given below:
(3) (4)
(1) B only (2) A only
(3) A & B only (4) C only
Ans. (3) Br Br
Ans. (3)
Sol. Memory Based
Sol. Due to unsymmetrical.
3
79. Given below are two statements: M 1000
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative electron Sol. m
dsol 1000 M Molar masssolute
gain enthalpy in its group.
815 × 10–3 m
Statement II: Oxygen has least negative electron
gain enthalpy in its group. 85. If 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is required to
In the light of the above statements, choose the neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of
most appropriate from the options given below. NaOH in 50 mL of given NaOH solution is
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true _____g.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Ans. (4)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Sol. Equivalent of Oxalic acid = Equivalents of NaOH
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 50 × 0.5 × 2 = 25 × M × 1
Ans. (4) MNaOH = 2M
Sol. Statement-1 is false because chlorine has most WNaOH in 50ml = 2 × 50 × 40 × 10–3 g = 4g
negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
80. Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its 86. The total number of ‘Sigma’ and Pi bonds in 2-
(1) Large size and high electronegativity formylhex-4-enoic acid is ____.
(2) Small size and low electronegativity Ans. (22)
®
H H H O
(3) Small size and high electronegativity
(4) Large size and low electronegativity Sol. H C C C C C C O H
Ans. (3)
H H H H C H
Sol. Fact Based.
SECTION-B O
81. The total number of anti bonding molecular 22 bonds
orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a 87. The half-life of radioisotopic bromine - 82 is 36
diatomic molecule is _____________. hours. The fraction which remains after one day is
Ans. (4) ___________ ×10–2.
Sol. Antibonding molecular orbital from 2s = 1 (Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)
Antibonding molecular orbital from 2p = 3 Ans. (63)
Total = 4 Sol. Half life of bromine – 82 = 36 hours
82. The oxidation number of iron in the compound 0.693
t1/2
formed during brown ring test for NO3 ion is _____. K
Ans. (1) 0.693
Sol. [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+, K = 0.01925 hr–1
36
Oxidation no. of Fe = +1 1st order rxn kinetic equation
83. The following concentrations were observed at 2.303 a
500 K for the formation of NH3 from N2 and H2. At t log
equilibrium :[N2] = 2 × 10–2 M, [H2] = 3 ×10–2 M and K ax
[NH3] = 1.5 ×10–2M. Equilibrium constant for the a tK
log (t = 1day = 24hr)
reaction is _______. a x 2.303
Ans. (417) a 24hr 0.01925hr 1
log
NH3 ax
2
2.303
Sol. KC
N2 H2 a
3
log 0.2006
ax
KC
1.5 10
2 2
a
anti log 0.2006
2 10 3 10
2 2 3 ax
a
KC = 417 1.587
ax
If a = 1
84. Molality of 0.8 M H2SO4 solution (density 1.06 g cm–3) 1
is _____×10–3 m. 1.587 1 – x = 0.6301 = Fraction remain
Ans. (815) 1 x
after one day
4
88. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for CCl4 is 89. A constant current was passed through a solution
–1
30.5 kJ mol . Heat required for vapourisation of of AuCl 4 ion between gold electrodes. After a
period of 10.0 minutes, the increase in mass of
284g of CCl4 at constant temperature is ____kJ. cathode was 1.314 g. The total charge passed
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 ; C = 12, Cl = 35.5) through the solution is _________ × 10-2 F.
(Given atomic mass of Au = 197)
Ans. (56)
Ans. (2)
Sol. H 0vap CCl4 30.5 kJ / mol W ch arg e
Sol.
Mass of CCl4 = 284 gm E 1F
®
Hvapº for 1.844 mol = 30.5 × 1.844 moment among CH4, BF3, H2O, HF, NH3, CO2 and
SO2 is _________.
= 56.242 kJ
Ans. (3)
Sol. Molecules with zero dipole moment = CO2, CH4,
BF3
5
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
®
most appropriate answer from the options given
solution
below:
64. Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. covalent radius from N to P. However from As to
Ans. (3)
Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is
Sol. Na2S + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + H2S
observed.
(CH3COO)2Pb + H2S PbS + 2CH3COOH
Black lead Reason (R): covalent and ionic radii in a particular
sulphide oxidation state increases down the group.
O
In the light of the above statement, choose the
C CHO most appropriate answer from the options given
Cl H2
below:
62. Pd-BaSO4
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
This reduction reaction is known as:
(1) Rosenmund reduction (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) Wolff-Kishner reduction correct explanation of (A)
(3) Stephen reduction (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Etard reduction (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Ans. (1)
explanation of (A)
Sol.
O
O Ans. (2)
CHO
Cl
H2
Sol. According to NCERT,
Pd-B aS O 4 Statement-I : Factual data,
Statement-II is true.
It is known as rosenmund reduction that is the
partial reduction of acid chloride to aldehyde But correct explanation is presence of completely
filled d and f-orbitals of heavier members
1
65. Which of the following molecule/species is most 69. Example of vinylic halide is
stable? CH2 X
X
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
X
X
(3) (4) (3) (4)
®
(1) Nd3+ and Eu3+ (2) La3+ and Ce4+
3+ 4+ While is aryl halide
(3) Nd and Ce (4) Lu3+ and Eu3+
Ans. (2)
X
Sol. Ce : [Xe] 4f15d16s2 ; Ce4+ diamagnetic CH 2 -X
La : [Xe] 4f05d16s2 ; La3+ diamagnetic
and are allyl halide
67. Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution
forms an ion having geometry
(1) Octahedral 70. Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is
(2) Square Planar
CH3 O
(3) Tetrahedral | ||
(4) Trigonal bipyramidal (1) H 2 C C C CH 2 C H
Ans. (1) | |
H H
Sol. AlCl3 in acidified aqueous solution forms
O
octahedral geometry [Al(H2O)6]3+ ||
(2) CH3 CH 2 C CH C H
68. Given below are two statements: |
CH 3
Statement-I: The orbitals having same energy are
called as degenerate orbitals. O
||
Statement-II: In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d (3) CH3 CH 2 CH C C H
orbitals are not degenerate orbitals. |
In the light of the above statements, choose the CH 3
most appropriate answer from the options given O
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false ||
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. (4) CH3 CH CH CH C H
|
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false CH3
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
Sol. For single electron species the energy depends upon O
5 4
principal quantum number „n‟ only. So, statement II Sol. CH3 - CH - CH = CH - C - H
3 2 1
is false. CH 3
Statement I is correct definition of degenerate orbitals. 4-methylpent-2-enal
M
2
71. Match List-I with List-II Ans. (2)
List-I List-II Sol.
Molecule Shape O
Br MgBr C–OMgBr
(A) BrF5 (I) T-shape Mg, ether O= C= O
®
CH 3
“A” + (CH3 CO)2 O
F [Intermediate]
273-283K H3 O+
F F
CHO
“B” + CS2
Sol. BrF5 Br Square pyramidal [Intermediate]
H3O +
F F
(1) A-CrO3 B-CrO3
O
(2) A-CrO3 B-CrO2Cl2
H2O H H Bent
F (3) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO2Cl2
..
ClF3 F Cl T-shape (4) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO3
..
F Ans. (2)
F Sol.
F
SF4, S See-saw CH 3 CH(OCOCH 3)2
F CrO3/(CH3CO)2O
F
72. The final product A, formed in the following CrO2 Cl2 H3 O+
Etard reaction CS2
multistep reaction sequence is: CHO
CH[OCrCl 2 (OH)]2 H3 O+
(i) Mg, ether
Br then CO,2 H+
(ii) NH3 ,
A
(iii) Br2, NaOH
74. Given below are two statement one is labeled as
O
NH2 Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
(1) NH2 (2) Assertion (A): CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl is an
example of allyl halide
O O
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in
(3) Br (4) OH
which the halogen atom is attached to sp2
hybridised carbon atom.
3
In the light of the two above statements, choose the Sol. 24Cr [Ar] 3d54s1; Cr2+ [Ar] 3d4
most appropriate answer from the options given 25Mn [Ar] 3d54s2; Mn+ [Ar] 3d54s1
below:
28Ni [Ar] 3d84s2; Ni2+ [Ar] 3d8
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
23V [Ar] 3d34s2; V+ [Ar] 3d34s1
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
77. Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct with B gives the product C. Find out A and B.
B
explanation of (A) CH3 C CH Na A
CH3 C C CH 2 CH 2 NaBr
(C) |
Ans. (1) CH3
Sol. CH 2 CH CH 2 Cl (1) A=CH3 –C CN a , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(2) A=CH3–CH= CH2, B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
®
3
It is allyl carbon and sp hybridized (3) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH3, B = CH3 – C CH
(4) A = CH3 – C CNa , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH3
75. What happens to freezing point of benzene when
small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene? Ans. (1)
4
®
83. 86. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic
compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent
B
V 30 moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the
(dm3 ) organic compound is _____ × 10-1
20
C Ans. (07)
10 A
Distance travelled by
0 10 20 30 sample/organiccompound
Sol. Retardation factor =
P(kPa) Distance travelled by solvent
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation 3.5
7 101
starting from the point A and coming back to the 5
same point by tracing the path A B C A 87. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal
as shown in the diagram. The total work done in with semicarbazide contains _____number of
®
the process is _____ J. nitrogen atoms.
6
89. 2MnO4 bI cH2O x I2 yMnO2 zOH 90. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required
If the above equation is balanced with integer to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is
coefficients, the value of z is _______ ______ g. (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g mol-1)
Sol. Reduction Half Oxidation Half Sol. Moles = Molarity × Volume in litres
®
z=8
Ans 8
7
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
®
in funnel. (Theory based).
OH O
62. Salicylaldehyde is synthesized from phenol, when CH C
reacted with (1)
O
Cl Cl
OH OH
63. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I: High concentration of strong COO CH2OH
nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides
(4) +
which do not have bulky substituents will follow
SN2 mechanism.
OH OH
Statement – II: A secondary alkyl halide when
treated with a large excess of ethanol follows SN1 Ans. (2)
mechanism. Sol. Meta–chlorobenzaldehyde will undergo
In the the light of the above statements, choose the Cannizzaro reaction with 50% KOH to give m–
most appropriate from the questions given below:
chlorobenzoate ion and m–chlorobenzyl alcohol.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
CHO
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. COO
50% KOH CH2OH
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are false. 2 +
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Cl
Ans. (4) OH OH
1
65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 67. IUPAC name of following compound is
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. CH3—CH—CH2—CN
Assertion A : H2Te is more acidic than H2S. NH2
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te is (1) 2–Aminopentanenitrile
lower than H2S. (2) 2–Aminobutanenitrile
In the light of the above statements. Choose the (3) 3–Aminobutanenitrile
most appropriate from the options given below. (4) 3–Aminopropanenitrile
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct Ans. (3)
explanation of A. Sol. 4 3 2 1
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct CH3—CH—CH2—CN
explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true. NH2
(4) A is true but R is false. 3–Aminobutanenitrile
Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to lower Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te it 68. The products A and B formed in the following
®
ionizes to give H+ more easily than H2S. reaction scheme are respectively
(i) conc.HNO3/conc.H2SO4
323–333 K (i) NaNO2, HCl, 273–278 K
66. Product A and B formed in the following set of (ii) Sn/HCl (ii) Phenol
reactions are: A B
B 2H6 CH3 H+/H2O
B A
H2O2,NaOH(aq.)
Cl NO2 HO
(1) , NO2
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) A= B=
NH2 NH2
OH
CH3 CH3 ,
(2)
(2) A= OH B=
OH OH
CH2OH CH3 NH2
(3) A= B= (3) , HO N N
OH
CH3 CH3 NH2
(4) A= B= OH , N N
(4)
OH
OH
Ans. (2)
CH3 B2H6 CH3
Sol. Ans. (3)
H2O2,NaOH NO2 NH2
OH
conc.HNO3 Sn/HCl
(B)
H+/H2O conc.H2SO4
NaNO2+HCl
Sol. 0–5ºC
CH3 OH
+
OH NNCl–
HO N N
(A)
2
69. The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is: 72. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a mixture
(1) [Ni(CN)4]
2–
(2) PCl5 of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective number of
(3) BrF5 (4) PF5 moles as nA, nB and nC, mole fraction of C in the
solution is:
Ans. (3)
nC nC
Sol. BrF5 (1) (2)
n A nB nC n A nB nC
F nC nB
(3) (4)
n A – nB – nC n A nB
F F
Br Ans. (2)
F F nC
Sol. Mole fraction of C =
n A nB nC
Square Pyramidal.
73. Given below are two statements:
70. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and purple colour of Statement – I: Along the period, the chemical
®
KMnO4 is due to reactivity of the element gradually increases from
group 1 to group 18.
(1) Charge transfer transition in both.
Statement – II: The nature of oxides formed by
(2) dd transition in KMnO4 and charge transfer group 1 element is basic while that of group 17
transitions in K2Cr2O7. elements is acidic.
(3) dd transition in K2Cr2O7 and charge transfer In the the light above statements, choose the most
transitions in KMnO4. appropriate from the questions given below:
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) dd transition in both.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is False.
Ans. (1) (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
K 2Cr2O7 Cr 6 No d d transition (4) Both Statement I and Statement II is false.
Sol. Charge transfer
7
KMnO4 Mn No d d transition
Ans. (3)
Sol. Chemical reactivity of elements decreases along
the period therefore statement – I is false.
71. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 gives “A” Group – 1 elements from basic nature oxides
which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution while group – 17 elements form acidic oxides
produces B. A and B respectively are: therefore statement – II is true.
–
(1) Mn2O7 and MnO4
(2) MnO42– and MnO4– 74. The coordination geometry around the manganese
in decacarbonyldimanganese(0)
(3) Mn2O3 and MnO42–
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) MnO42– and Mn2O7 (3) Square pyramidal (4) Square planar
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
Sol. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2: Sol. Mn2(CO)10
CO CO CO CO
2MnO2 4OH– O2 2MnO42 2H2O
MnO42 MnO4 e CO
CO CO CO
Octahedral around Mn
3
75. Given below are two statements: Ans. (1)
Statement-I: Since fluorine is more electronegative Sol. Tf is maximum when i × m is maximum.
than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF3 is greater 180
1) m 1 3, i = 1 +
than NH3. 60
Statement-II: In NH3, the orbital dipole due to Hence
Tf (1 ) k f 3 1.86 5.58 C ( 1)
lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are
180 3
in opposite direction, but in NF3 the orbital dipole 2) m 2 3, i 0.5, Tf k f ' 7.68C
60 2
due to lone pair and dipole moments of N-F bonds
180 1.48
are in same direction. 3) m 3 1.48, i 0.5, Tf k f ' 3.8C
122 2
In the light of the above statements. Choose the 180
most appropriate from the options given below. 4) m 4 1, i 1, Tf 1 k f ' 1.86C
180
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. As per NCERT, k f ' (H2 O) 1.86 k kg mol 1
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. k f ' (Benzene) 5.12 k kg mol 1
®
(3) Both statement I and Statement II is are true.
78. A and B formed in the following reactions are:
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is are true. CrO 2 Cl 2 4NaOH A 2NaCl 2H 2O
Ans. (2) A 2HCl 2H 2 O 2 B 3H 2 O
(1) A = Na2CrO4, B = CrO5
N N (2) A = Na2Cr2O4, B = CrO4
(3) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO3
Sol. F F F H H H (4) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO5
Ans. (1)
76. The correct stability order of carbocations is Sol. CrO2Cl 2 4NaOH Na 2CrO4 2NaCl 2H 2O
(A)
Na 2CrO4 2H 2O2 2HCl CrO5 3H 2O
(1) (CH3 )3 C CH3 C H 2 (CH3 )2 C H C H 3 2NaCl
Missing from
(B)
balanced eqaution
(2) C H3 (CH3 )2 C H CH 3 C H 2 (CH 3 )3 C 79. Choose the correct statements about the hydrides
of group 15 elements.
(3) (CH3 )3 C (CH3 )2 C H CH3 C H 2 C H 3 A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the
order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4)
B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases
C H3 CH3 C H 2 CH3 C H (CH 3 )C
| in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
CH3 C. Among the hydrides, NH3 is strong reducing
agent while BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
Ans. (3) D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the
order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
Sol. More no. of hyperconjugable Hydrogens, more
Choose the most appropriate from the option given
stable is the carbocations. below:
(1) B and C only (2) C and D only
77. The solution from the following with highest (3) A and B only (4) A and D only
Ans. (3)
depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is
Sol. On moving down the group, bond strength of M–H
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water bond decreases, which reduces the thermal stability
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene but increases reducing nature of hydrides, hence A
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene and B are correct statements.
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
4
80. Reduction potential of ions are given below: 82. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by
decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 as by equation
ClO4 IO4 BrO4
2N 2O 5 g 4 NO 2(g) O 2(g)
E 1.19V E 1.65V E 1.74V
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3 mol L–1 and it
The correct order of their oxidising power is:
is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes.
(1) ClO4 IO4 BrO4 The rate of formation of NO2 is x × 10–3 mol L–1
min–1 , value of x is ________.
(2) BrO4 IO4 ClO4
Ans. (17)
(3) BrO4 ClO4 IO4 Sol. Rate of reaction (ROR)
1 [N 2O5 ] 1 [NO 2 ] [O 2 ]
(4) IO4 BrO4 ClO4
2 t 4 t t
Ans. (2) 1 [N 2O5 ] 1 ( 2.75 3)
ROR mol L–1 min –1
Sol. Higher the value of ve SRP (Std. reduction 2 t 2 30
1 ( 0.25)
ROR mol L–1 min –1
®
potential) more is tendency to undergo reduction,
2 30
so better is oxidising power of reactant. 1
ROR mol L–1 min –1
Hence, ox. Power:- BrO4 IO4 ClO4 240
[NO 2 ]
Rate of formation of NO2 4 ROR
t
SECTION-B 4
16.66 103 molL–1 min –1 17 10 3 .
81. Number of complexes which show optical 240
isomerism among the following is ________.
83. Two reactions are given below:
cis [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ]3– , [Co(en)3 ]3 , 3
2Fe s O 2(g) Fe 2O 3(s) , Hº –822 kJ / mol
cis [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ]2 , cis [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] , 2
1
trans [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 , trans [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ]3– Cs O 2(g) CO(g) , Hº –110 kJ / mol
2
Ans. (4) Then enthalpy change for following reaction
3C s Fe 2O 3(s) 2Fe(s) 3CO(g)
Sol. cis [Cr(ox)2 Cl 2 ]3– can show optical isomerism
Ans. (492)
(no POS & COS)
3
3 Sol. 2Fe s O 2(g) Fe 2O 3(s) , Hº –822 kJ / mol
[Co(en)3 ] can show (no POS & COS) 2
……(1)
cis [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 can show (no POS & COS)
1
C s O 2(g) CO(g) , Hº –110 kJ / mol
cis [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] can show (no POS & COS) 2
……(2)
trans [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 can’t show (contains POS
3C s Fe 2O 3(s) 2Fe(s) 3CO(g) , H3 ?
& COS) (3) = 3 × (2) – (1)
3–
trans [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ] can’t show (contains H3 = 3 ×H2 –H1
= 3(–110) + 822
POS & COS)
= 492 kJ/mole
5
84. The total number of correct statements, regarding 86. Number of geometrical isomers possible for the
the nucleic acids is_________.
given structure is/are ___________.
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic
information. D
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell
H H
division
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
D
D. The message for the synthesis of particular
proteins is present in DNA Ans. (4)
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to Sol. 3 stereocenteres, symmetrical
daughter cells.
Ans. (3) Total Geometrical isomers 4. EE, ZZ, EZ (two
Sol. A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic isomers)
information. (False)
D
®
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell
division. (True)
H * H
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell. (False)
*
D. The message for the synthesis of particular *
proteins is present in DNA. (True) D
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to
daughter cells. (True) 87. Total number of species from the following which
can undergo disproportionation reaction _______.
85. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1M
benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1M sodium benzoate H2O2 ,ClO3– , P4 ,Cl 2 ,Ag,Cu 1, F2 ,NO2 ,K
is 4.5. The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300
Ans. (6)
mL of this buffer solution is _______ mL.
Ans. (100) Sol. Intermediate oxidation state of element can undergo
Sol. disproportionation.
1M Benzoic acid 1M Sodium Benzoate
(Va ml) (Vs ml) H2O2 ,ClO3– , P4 ,Cl 2 ,Cu 1 ,NO2
Millimole Va 1 Vs 1
6
89. 2-chlorobutane + Cl2 C4H8Cl2(isomers) 90. Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra,
Total number of optically active isomers shown by when an electron makes transition from fifth
C4H8Cl2, obtained in the above reaction is_______.
excited state to first excited state will be
Ans. (6)
Sol. Ans. (10)
n = n1– n2 = 6 – 2 = 4
Maximum number of spectral lines
n( n 1) 4(4 1)
= 10
2 2
7
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
®
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Raoult’s Law
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 64. The compound that is white in color is
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (1) ammonium sulphide
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (2) lead sulphate
Ans. (4)
(3) lead iodide
Sol. Statement I and II are False
Noble gases have low boiling points (4) ammonium arsinomolybdate
Noble gases are held together by weak dispersion Ans. (2)
forces. Sol. Lead sulphate-white
62. For the given reaction, choose the correct Ammonium sulphide-soluble
expression of KC from the following :- Lead iodide-Bright yellow
FeSCN aq
2
Fe3(aq) SCNaq Ammonium arsinomolybdate-yellow
65. The metals that are employed in the battery
FeSCN 2 industries are
(1) K C
Fe3 SCN A. Fe
Fe SCN
3 B. Mn
(2) K C
FeSCN 2 C. Ni
D. Cr
FeSCN 2
(3) K C 2 2 E. Cd
Fe3 SCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given
2
FeSCN 2
below:
(4) K C 3
Fe SCN (1) B, C and E only
1
66. A species having carbon with sextet of electrons 69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
and can act as electrophile is called Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) carbon free radical Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles
(2) carbanion and electrophiles.
(3) carbocation Reason R: Alcohols react with active metals such
(4) pentavalent carbon as sodium, potassium and aluminum to yield
Ans. (3) corresponding alkoxides and liberate hydrogen.
®
explanation of A.
67. Identify the factor from the following that does not
affect electrolytic conductance of a solution. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(1) The nature of the electrolyte added.
Ans. (4)
(2) The nature of the electrode used.
(3) Concentration of the electrolyte. Sol. As per NCERT, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) is
correct but Reason (R) is not the correct
(4) The nature of solvent used.
explanation.
Ans. (2)
70. The correct sequence of electron gain enthalpy of
Sol. Conductivity of electrolytic cell is affected by
the elements listed below is
concentration of electrolyte, nature of electrolyte
and nature of solvent. A. Ar
2
71. Identify correct statements from below: Sol. A B + C
A. The chromate ion is square planar.
Pi 0 0
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from
chromates. Pi – x x x
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic. Pt = Pi + x
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in
a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate. Pi - x = Pi – Pt + Pi
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition = 2Pi – Pt
metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
2.303 Pi
Choose the correct answer from the options given K log
below: t 2Pi Pt
(1) B, C, D only 74. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
(2) A, D, E only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) A, B, C only Assertion A: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while
(4) B, D, E only that of ethanol is 15.9.
®
Ans. (4) Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol.
Sol. A. CrO42– is tetrahedral In the light of the above statements, choose the
+ +
B. 2Na2CrO4 + 2H Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na + H2O correct answer from the options given below:
C. As per NCERT, green manganate is (1) A is true but R is false.
paramagnetic with 1 unpaired electron.
(2) A is false but R is true.
D. Statement is correct
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
E. Statement is correct
explanation of A.
72. ‘Adsorption’ principle is used for which of the
following purification method? (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(1) Extraction
(2) Chromatography Ans. (1)
(3) Distillation Sol. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because
(4) Sublimation conjugate base of phenoxide is more stable than
ethoxide.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Principle used in chromotography is adsorption. 75. Given below are two statements:
73. Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas Statement I: IUPAC name of HO–CH2–(CH2)3–
phase reaction is given by (where Pi is initial CH2– COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
pressure and Pt is total pressure at time t) Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct
2.303 Pi IUPAC name for above compound.
(1) k log
t 2Pi Pt In the light of the above statements. choose the
2.303 2Pi most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) k log below:
t 2Pi Pt
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) k
2.303
log
2Pi Pt
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
t Pi
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.303 Pi
(4) k (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
t 2Pi Pt Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) Sol. 7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name
3
Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/31-01-2024/Morning Session
76. The correct statements from following are: 78. Match List I with List II
A. The strength of anionic ligands can be LIST-I LIST-II
explained by crystal field theory. A. Glucose/NaHCO3/D I. Gluconic acid
B. Glucose/HNO3 II. No reaction
B. Valence bond theory does not give a
C. Glucose/HI/ D III. n-hexane
quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of
D. Glucose/Bromine IV. Saccharic acid
coordination compounds. water]
C. The hybridization involved in formation of Choose the correct answer from the options given
[Ni(CN)4]2–complex is dsp2. below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
cis-[PtC12 (en)2]2+ is one (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
below: Ans. (2)
Sol. Glucose ¾¾¾¾
NaHCO3
® no reaction
®
D
(1) A, D only
Glucose ¾¾¾
HNO3
® saccharic acid
(2) A, C only D
Glucose ¾¾
HI
® n-hexane
(3) B, D only D
4
SECTION-B 84. The product of the following reaction is P.
81. Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO3, KI and CHO
CaF2 which does not evolve coloured vapours on
heating with concentrated H2SO4 is _____ g mol–1, (i) PhMgBr(1 equiv.)
(ii) aq. NH4Cl
(Molar mass in g mol–1 : Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39,
O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40 OH
Ans. (78) The number of hydroxyl groups present in the
Sol. CaF2 does not evolve any gas with concentrated product P is________.
H2SO4. Ans. (0)
NaBr evolve Br2 Sol. Product benzene has zero hydroxyl group
CHO CHO CHO
NaNO3 evolve NO2 PhMgBr aq. NH4Cl
+
(1 eq.)
KI evolve I2 Product
OH OMgBr OH
®
2+ Reactant
82. The 'Spin only’ Magnetic moment for [Ni(NH3)6]
is______× 10–1 BM. 85. The number of species from the following in which
the central atom uses sp3 hybrid orbitals in its
(given = Atomic number of Ni : 28)
bonding is__________.
Ans. (28)
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, CO2, H2O, CH4, BF3
Sol. NH3 act as WFL with Ni2+ Ans. (4)
2+ 8
Ni = 3d Sol. NH3 sp3
SO2 sp2
SiO2 sp3
No. of unpaired electron = 2
BeCl2 sp
n n 2 8 2.82 BM CO2 sp
H2O sp3
= 28.2 × 10–1 BM
CH4 sp3
x = 28
BF3 sp2
83. Number of moles of methane required to produce C2H5OH
22g CO2(g) after combustion is x × 10–2 moles. The Product A
value of x is 86. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H2O
Product B
Ans. (50) The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A
and product B is__________.
Sol. CH 4(g) 2O2(g) CO2(g) 2H2 O( )
Ans. (10)
22 C 2H 5OH
n CO2 0.5 moles CH2=CH2
44 Sol. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H 2O
CH3–CH2–OH
So moles of CH4 required = 0.5 moles Total number of hydrogen atom in A and B is 10
–2
i.e. 50 × 10 mole 87. Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a
x = 50 mixture of CH3COONa and C2H5COONa is_____.
Ans. (3)
5
89. The ionization energy of sodium in kJ mol–1. If
Sol. CH3COONa CH3
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is
C2 H5COONa C2 H5 just sufficient to ionize sodium atom is______.
2C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 Ans. (494)
1240
Sol. E eV
2CH3 CH3 CH3 nm
CH3 C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH3 1240
eV
242
88. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.
= 5.12 eV
3
O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. = 5.12 × 1.6 × 10–19
2
= 8.198 × 10–19 J/atom
r G for the reaction is _________ kJ. (Given R
®
= 494 kJ/mol
= 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
90. One Faraday of electricity liberates x × 10–1 gram
Ans. (163) atom of copper from copper sulphate, x is______.
3
Sol. O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. Ans. (5)
2
Sol. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu
r G = – RT ln KP
2 Faraday mol Cu
= – 8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × ln (2.47 × 10–29)
1 Faraday mol Cu deposit
= –8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × (–65.87)
0.5 mol = 0.5 g atom = 5 × 10–1
= 163.19 kJ
x=5
6
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
A. Cr H 2 O 6
3 I. t 2g 2 eg0 (2) 1.023 g CaCO3 1.023 g MgCO3
(3) 1.187 g CaCO3 1.187 g MgCO3
®
B. 3 II. (4) 1.023 g CaCO3 1.187 g MgCO3
Fe H 2 O 6 t 2g3 eg 0
Ans. (1)
Sol:- CaCO3 s
CaO s CO2 g
C. Ni H 2 O 6
2 III. t 2g3 eg 2
MgCO3 s
MgO s CO2 g
3 2.21 x
Fe H 2 O 6 Contains Fe3 : Ar 3d 5 : t 32g eg2 weight of MgO formed 40
84
2 2.21 x x
Ni H 2 O 6
Contains Ni 2 : Ar 3d8 : t 62g eg2 40 56 1.152
84 100
3 x 1.1886 g weight of CaCO3
V H 2 O 6
Contains V 3 : Ar 3d 2 : t 22g ego
& weight of MgCO3 1.0214 g
1
63. Identify A and B in the following reaction sequence. Sol:-
Br
S 1 : S 8 12 OH 4S 2 2S 2 O 32 6H 2 O
Conc. HNO 3 (i) NaOH
A B S2 : ClO4 cannot undergo disproportionation
(ii) HCl
reaction as chlorine is present in it’s highest
Br OH
oxidation state.
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
(1) A= , B= 65. Identify major product ‘P’ formed in the following
reaction.
NO2 NO2
Br Br O
OH Anhydrous
C ‘P’
(2) A= , B= Cl AlCl3
+ (Major Product)
NO2 NO2
Br Br O
NO2 OH
(1) O C
(3)
®
A= B=
, Cl
NO2 OH
NO2 NO2
(2) COCH 3
(4) A= , B=
OH
Ans. (1)
Br Br OH
NO2 NO2
Sol:- Con. HNO3 (i)NaOH
NO2 NO2 O
NO2 NO2
(3) C
H
(Acid base
NaOH reaction)
OH O Na
+ O
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
(ii) HCl
(4) C
NO2 NO2
64. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: S8 solid undergoes
disproportionation reaction under alkaline Ans. (4)
2
conditions to form S2 and S2 O3
Statement II: ClO4 can undergo ..
O
O
O
..
..
2
66. Major product of the following reaction is – Br
1
Sol:- 2
3
4 5
_
D Cl
? Br
®
paramagnetic
H Cl H CH 3 Ans. (4)
Sol:- Ni CO 4 diamagnetic, sp3 hybridisation,
Ans. (3 or 4)
number of unpaired electrons = 0
CH3
H
CH3
H Cl H H 3C number of unpaired electrons = 2
(±) (±) 69. The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reactions
is Sulphanilic acid NaNO2 CH3COOH X
67. Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.
Br Br X+ Y
1. NH 2
HSO 3 N=N
Br 1.
N=N SO 3H
2. HO3S N=N NH 2
Br
2.
Br HO3S N=N
HSO 3 N=N
3.
Br 3.
NH 2
Br
HSO 3 N=N NH 2
4.
4.
Br
3
O NH 2 NH3 HSO 4 NH2
||
Sol:- NH2 N N O C CH3 Conc. H 2SO 4 453-473K Lassaigne’s test 2
Fe SCN
Sol:-
Blood red colour
NaNO2 CH3COOH SO3H
C
71. A g B g g The correct relationship
SO3 H SO3 H 2
X
O
between KP , and equilibrium pressure P is
||
N N O C CH3 1 1
2 P 2
(1) K P
2
1
+ 2
3 1
2 P 2
SO3 H NH2
(2) K P
2 2 1
1
1 3
2 P 2
(3) K P
2
3
HO3S NN NH2 2
®
1 1
Y 2 P 2
Red azo-dye
(4) K P
2
3
2
Ans. (2)
This is known as Griess-Ilosvay test.
C
Sol:- A g
B g g
2
70. Given below are two statements :
t = teq 1
2
Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H2SO4
followed by heating at 453-473 K gives p- PB
. P, PA
1
. P , PC 2 .P
aminobenzene sulphonic acid, which gives blood 1 1 1
2 2 2
red colour in the 'Lassaigne's test'. 1
P .P 2
KP B C
Statement II: In Friedel - Craft's alkylation and PA
acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the 3 1
4
Sol:- (A) All group 16 elements form oxides of the Sol:- Steam distillation technique is applied to separate
EO2 and EO3 type where E S, Se, Te or Po . substances which are steam volatile and are
immiscible with water.
(B) SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising
76. Given below are two statements :
agent.
(C) The reducing property increases from H 2S to Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily
hydrolyzed by water due to their covalent nature.
H2Te down the group.
Statement II: AlCl3 upon hydrolysis in acidified
.. 3
O ..
have six lone pairs aqueous solution forms octahedral Al H 2 O 6
O
..
(D) O ..
..
..
ion.
73. Identify the name reaction.
CHO In the light of the above statements, choose the
CO, HCl correct answer from the options given below :
Anhyd. AlCl3/CuCl 1. Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Stephen reaction
®
2. Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Etard reaction
(3) Gatterman-koch reaction 3. Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Rosenmund reduction 4. Both statement I and statement II are true
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
Sol:-
CHO Sol:- In trivalent state most of the compounds being
CO, HCl covalent are hydrolysed in water. Trichlorides on
Anhyd. AlCl3/CuCl hydrolysis in water form tetrahedral M OH 4
Gatterman-Koch reaction species, the hybridisation state of element M is
74. Which of the following is least ionic ? sp3.
(1) BaCl2 (2) AgCl In case of aluminium, acidified aqueous solution
(3) KCl (4) CoCl2 3
forms octahedral Al H 2 O 6 ion.
Ans. (2)
77. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the
Sol:- AgCl CoCl2 BaCl2 KCl (ionic character)
outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
Reason : Ag has pseudo inert gas configuration. 1
(1) n 4, l = 2, m 1, s
75. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of 2
some steam volatile organic compounds called 1
(2) n 4, l = 0, m 0 , s
essential oils. These are generally insoluble in 2
water at room temperature but are miscible with 1
(3) n 3, l = 0, m 1 , s
water vapour in vapour phase. A suitable method 2
for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is - (4) n 2 , l = 0, m 0 , s
1
1. crystallisation 2
2. distillation under reduced pressure Ans. (2)
3. distillation Sol:- 19 K 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 4s1 .
4. steam distillation Outermost orbital of potassium is 4s orbital
Ans. (4) 1
n 4, l 0, ml 0, s .
2
5
78. Choose the correct statements from the following Sol:- CH3 shows M and I .
A. Mn 2O7 is an oil at room temperature Cl shows M and I but inductive effect
dominates.
B. V2O4 reacts with acid to give VO22 NO2 shows M and I .
1. A, B and D only
80. Consider the following elements.
2. A and C only A'B' Period
Group
®
3. A, B and C only C'D'
6
SECTION-B 84. Number of isomeric products formed by mono-
chlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of
81. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of
sunlight is _______.
1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1Å , then fractional
charge on each atom is ______ 101 esu . Ans. (6)
Sol:- 1.2 D q d * + Cl
1.2 1010 esu Å q 1Å Cl
q 1.2 1010 esu
®
decomposition of A is ______ minutes. 85. Number of moles of H ions required by 1 mole
of MnO 4 to oxidise oxalate ion to CO2 is ____.
Ans. (399)
Sol:- r k A Ans. (8)
84 Ans. (11)
Number of amino group in x 2
42
7
Sol:- Specific gravity (density) = 1.54 g/cc.
89. From the vitamins A, B1 , B6 , B12 , C, D, E and K,
Volume 1L 1000 ml
the number vitamins that can be stored in our body
Mass of solution 1.54 1000
is ______.
1540 g
% purity of H2SO4 is 70% Ans. (5)
So weight of H3PO4 0.7 1540 1078 g Sol:- Vitamins A, D, E, K and B12 are stored in liver
1078 and adipose tissue.
Mole of H3PO4 = 11
98 90. If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10 L to a
11 volume of 100 L at 300 K under isothermal and
Molarity 11
1L reversible condition then work, w, is x J. The
88. The values of conductivity of some materials at value of x is ______.
298.15 K in Sm1 are 2.1103 ,
(Given R 8.314 J K1mol1 )
1.0 1016 ,1.2 10, 3.91,1.5 102 ,
1107 ,1.0 103 . The number of conductors Ans. (28721)
among the materials is ______. Sol:- It is isothermal reversible expansion, so work done
®
Ans. (4) negative
Sol:-
Conductivity S m -1 V
W 2.303 nRT log 2
2.1 103 V1
1.2 10 conductors at 298.15K
3.91
1 103 100
2.303 5 8.314 300 log
1 1016 Insulator at 298.15 K 10
1 107
1.5 102 Semiconductor at 298.15 K 28720.713 J
8
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
NOON
CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 shows oxidising action
61. If one strand of a DNA has the sequence as represented in the half reaction
ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in Cr2 O27 XH Ye 2A ZH2 O
complementary strand is: X, Y, Z and A are respectively are:
(1) CATTAGCT (2) TACGAAGT (1) 8, 6, 4 and Cr2O3 (2) 14, 7, 6 and Cr3+
(3) GTACTTAC (4) ATGCGACT (3) 8, 4, 6 and Cr2O3 (4) 14, 6, 7 and Cr3+
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
Sol. Adenine base pairs with thymine with 2 hydrogen Sol. The balanced reaction is,
bonds and cytosine base pairs with guanine with 3 Cr2 O27 14H 6e 2Cr 3 7H 2 O
®
hydrogen bonds. X = 14
A T G C T T C A DNA strand Y=6
Hydrogen bonds A=7
T A C G A A G T Complementary strand
64. Which of the following reactions are
62. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as disproportionation reactions?
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (A) Cu+ Cu2+ + Cu
(R). (B) 3MnO24 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H2O
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to (C) 2KMnO4 K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with (D) 2MnO4 3Mn 2 2H2 O 5MnO2 4H
AgCN form isocyanide as the main product. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly below:
ionic compounds. (1) (A), (B) (2) (B), (C), (D)
In the light of the above statement, choose the most (3) (A), (B), (C) (4) (A), (D)
appropriate answer from the options given below: Ans. (1)
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Sol. When a particular oxidation state becomes less
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the stable relative to other oxidation state, one lower,
one higher, it is said to undergo disproportionation.
correct explanation of (A)
Cu+ Cu2+ + Cu
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
3MnO24 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H2O
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 65. In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne
correct explanation of (A) and Na+ is affected by:
Ans. (1) (1) Principal quantum number (n)
(2) None of the factors because their size is the
(i) KCN + R — X R—CN same
(Ionic) (Ma jor product) (3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
Sol. .. orbitals
(ii) AgCN + R — X R—NC
(Covalent) (Ma jor product) (4) Nuclear charge (z)
AgCN is mainly covalent in nature and nitrogen is Ans. (4)
Sol. In F–, Ne, Na+ all have 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 configuration.
available for attack, so alkyl isocyanide is formed They have different size due to the difference in
as main product. nuclear charge.
1
66. According to the wave-particle duality of matter by Sol. [Ni(H2O)6]+2 Green colour solution due to d-d
de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot transition.
presents most appropriate relationship between [Ni(CN)4]–2 is diamagnetic and it is colourless.
68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
wavelength of electron () and momentum of
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
electron (p)? Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are
p associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
(1) (2) molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
p most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (4)
®
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
1/p p (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
Sol. Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated
h 1 through hydrogen bonding in liquid state. That is
Sol.
p p why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.
p = h (constant) 69. Identify A and B in the following sequence of
reaction
So, the plot is a rectangular hyperbola. CH3
Cl2 / h
A
H2 O
373K
B
COCl CHO
(1) (A) = (B) =
p
67. Given below are two statements: CHCl2 CHO
Statement (I): A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green (2) (A) = (B) =
in colour.
Statement (II): A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is CH2 Cl CHO
colourless.
(3) (A) = (B) =
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given CHCl2 COOH
below: (4) (A) = (B) =
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Ans. (2)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Sol.
CH3 CHCl2 CHO
correct
Cl 2 /h
H2 O
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 373 K
2
70. Given below are two statements: 73. Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed
Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are through:
same organic compounds. (A) Homolytic bond cleavage
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are (B) Heterolytic bond cleavage
®
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
Sol. Aniline is also known as amino benzene. Sol. Heterolytic cleavage of Bond lead to formation of
71. Which of the following complex is homoleptic? ions.
(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– 74. Arrange the bonds in order of increasing ionic
(2) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] character in the molecules. LiF, K2O, N2, SO2 and
(3) [Fe(NH3)4Cl2]+ CIF3.
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (1) CIF3 < N2 < SO2 < K2O < LiF
(2) LiF < K2O < CIF3 < SO2 < N2
Ans. (1)
(3) N2 < SO2 < CIF3 < K2O < LiF
Sol. In Homoleptic complex all the ligand attached with
(4) N2 < CIF3 < SO2 < K2O < LiF
the central atom should be the same. Hence
Ans. (3)
[Ni(CN)4]2– is a homoleptic complex.
Sol. Increasing order of ionic character
72. Which of the following compound will most easily
N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O < LiF
be attacked by an electrophile? Ionic character depends upon difference of
CH3 electronegativity (bond polarity).
(1) (2) 75. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled
as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M,
Cl OH 0.01M & 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van
(3) (4) t’ Haft factor (i) for these solutions will be in the
order.
Ans. (4) (1) iA < iB < iC
Sol. Higher the electron density in the benzene ring (2) iA < iC < iB
more easily it will be attacked by an electrophile. (3) iA = iB = iC
(4) iA > iB > iC
Phenol has the highest electron density amongst all
Ans. (1)
the given compound.
3
Sol. Sol. DIBAL H, H2 O
CH3 (CH 2 )5 COOC 2 H 5 CH 3 (CH 2 ) 5 CHO
Salt Values of i (for different conc. of a Salt)
0.1 M 0.01 M 0.001 M C6 H5COC6 H5
Zn(Hg) & conc. HCl
C6 H5CH2 C6 H5
NaCl 1.87 1.94 1.94
C6 H5CHO
CH3MgBr
C6 H5CH OH CH3
i approach 2 as the solution become very dilute. H2 O
®
hydroxide solution. (4) q = 0, T = 0, w =0
Statement (II) : In this titration phenolphthalein Ans. (4)
can be used as indicator.
Sol. During free expansion of an ideal gas under
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: adiabatic condition q = 0, T = 0, w =0.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 80. Given below are two statements:
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Statement (I) : The NH2 group in Aniline is ortho
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect and para directing and a powerful activating group.
Ans. (1) Statement (II) : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-
Sol. Statement (I) : Potassium hydrogen phthalate is a Craft’s reaction (alkylation and acylation).
primary standard for standardisation of sodium
hydroxide solution as it is economical and its In the light of the above statements, choose the
concentration does not changes with time. most appropriate answer from the options given
Phenophthalin can acts as indicator in acid base below :
titration as it shows colour in pH range 8.3 to 10.1
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
78. Match List – I with List –II.
List – I (Reactions) List – II (Reagents) (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(A) CH3(CH2)5–C–OC2H5CH3(CH2)5CHO (I) CH3MgBr, H2O
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
O
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B) C6H5COC6H5C6H5CH2C6H5 (II) Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl
4
SECTION-B Sol. SrSO4 – white
®
[Fe(OH)2(CH3COO)] – Brown Red
and
14
82. The potential for the given half cell at 298K is C 1
84. The ratio of 12
in a piece of wood is part that
C 8
(-)………… × 10-2 V.
of atmosphere. If half life of 14C is 5730 years, the
2H+(aq) + 2e- H2 (g) age of wood sample is ….. years.
[H+] = 1M, PH 2 = 2 atm Ans. (17190)
5
86. Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic Sol. Acidic oxide: Cl2O7, SiO2, N2O5
electrophilic substitution reaction among the Neutral oxide: CO, NO, N2O
following is
Amphoteric oxide: Al2O3 , SnO2 , PbO2
O O
89. Consider the following reaction:
CH3,
OCH3, –N CH3 , –N –C N, –OCH3
3PbCl2 + 2(NH4)3PO4 Pb3(PO4)2 + 6NH4Cl
H H
If 72 mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50 mmol of
Ans. (2)
Sol. (NH4)3PO4 , then amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is
O O …… mmol. (nearest integer)
CH3,
–C N, –OCH3 Ans. (24)
OCH3, –N CH3 , –N
H H Sol. Limiting Reagent is PbCl2
(–M group) (+M group) (+M group) (–M group) (+M group)
mmol of Pb3(PO4)2 formed
87. Lowest Oxidation number of an atom in a
®
compound A2B is -2. The number of an electron in mmol of PbCl2 reacted
=
its valence shell is 3
Ans. (6) = 24 mmol
+ –2 -2
Sol. A2B 2A + B , B has complete octet in its di- 90. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10– 5 and Kb for NH4OH
anionic form, thus in its atomic state it has 6 is 1.8 × 10–5. The pH of ammonium acetate
electrons in its valence shell. As it has negative
solution will be
charge, it has acquired two electrons to complete
its octet. Ans. (7)
88. Among the following oxide of p - block elements, pK w pK a pK b
Sol. pH
number of oxides having amphoteric nature is 2
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, pKa = pKb
SnO2 pK w
Ans. (3) pH 7
2
6
Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/01-02-2024/Evening Session
+
(+) +
axis
(1) Cr (2) Mn –
– –
pu(p )
(3) V (4) Fe py py
y
+
(–)
V : 2833 KJ/mol – – – +
®
py py pg (p )
Cr : 2990 KJ/mol
*
Mn : 3260 KJ/mol 63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Fe : 2962 KJ/mol Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
alternative Assertion (A) : In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is
Mn : 3d5 4s2 reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
Fe : 3d6 4s2 Reason (R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic
5 1
Cr : 3d 4s configuration is observed than incompletely filled
V : 3d3 4s2 electronic configuration.
So Mn has highest 3rd IE among all the given In the light of the above statement, choose the most
elements due to d5 configuration. appropriate answer from the options given below:
62. Given below are two statements : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement (I) : A p bonding MO has lower electron correct explanation of (A)
density above and below the inter-nuclear asix. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
node between the nuclei. (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
1
64. Match List - I with List - II. Sol. I. In p-Block both metals and non metals are
List-I List-II
present but in d-Block only metals are present.
(Reactants) Products
(A) Phenol, Zn/ (I) Salicylaldehyde II. EN and IE of non metals are greater than that
(B) Phenol, CHCl3, NaOH, HCl (II) Salicylic acid of metals
(C) Phenol, CO2, NaOH, HCl (III) Benzene
(D) Phenol, Conc. HNO3 (IV) Picric acid I - False, II-True
Choose the correct answer from the options given 66. The strongest reducing agent amont the following
below.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B), (II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) is:
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (1) NH3 (2) SbH3
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) BiH3 (4) PH3
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
OH
Sol. Strongest reducing agent : BiH3 explained by its
®
Zn, low bond dissociation energy.
Sol.
67. Which of the following compounds show colour
OH OH
due to d-d transition?
CHO
CHCl 3 + NaOH (1) CuSO4.5H2O (2) K2Cr2O7
Salicylaldehyde
HCl
(3) K2CrO4 (4) KMnO4
OH OH
COOH Ans. (1)
CO2 + NaOH
Salicylic acid Sol. CuSO4.5H2O
HCl
OH OH Cu2+ : 3d9 4s0
NO2
NO2 unpaired electron present so it show colour due to
Con. HNO3
Picric Acid d-d transition.
68. The set of meta directing functional groups from
NO2
65. Given below are two statements : the following sets is:
Statement (I) : Both metal and non-metal exist in (1) –CN, –NH2, –NHR, –OCH3
p and d-block elements.
Statement (II) : Non-metals have higher (2) –NO2, –NH2, –COOH, –COOR
ionisation enthalpy and higher electronegativity (3) –NO2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COR
than the metals.
(4) –CN, –CHO, –NHCOCH3, –COOR
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the option given Ans. (3)
below: O O O O
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Sol.
N
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true O, C H, S OH , C R
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false O
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Ans. (2) All are –M, Hence meta directing groups.
2
69. Select the compound from the following that will CH3 C2H5
Pd/C
show intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Sol. H2 + CH3 – C C – C2H5 C C
(1) H2O 2-pentyne H H
CH3 H
(2) NH3 Na
CH3 – C C – CH3 + H2
(3) C2H5OH Liquid NH3 C C
H CH3
NO2
Trans-2-butene
(4) 73. The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:
OH
(1) 1 (2) 4
Ans. (4)
(3) 2 (4) 3
Sol. H2O, NH3, C2H5OH Intermolecular H-Bonding
O Ans. (1)
Sol. For 3p : n = 3, =1
N Number of radial node = n – – 1
O
Intramolecular =3–1–1=1
H H-Bonding
®
O 74. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
70. Lassaigne's test is used for detection of :
Compound Use
(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur only
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover
(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous Only
(B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only
(4) Nitrogen, Sulphur, phosphorous and halogens conditioners
Ans. (4) (C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher
Sol. Lassaigne's test is used for detection of all element (D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable
N, S, P, X. insecticide
71. Which among the following has highest boiling Choose the correct answer from the options given
point? below :
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (1) (A)-(I), (B), (II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-( II)
(3) CH3CH2CH2CHO (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) H5C2 – O – C2H5
(4) (A)-( II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to H-bonding boiling point of alcohol is High.
Sol. CCl4 used in fire extinguisher. CH2Cl2 used as
72. In the given reactions identify A and B. paint remover. Freons used in refrigerator and AC.
CH3 C2H5 DDT used as non Biodegradable insecticide.
Pd/C 75. The functional group that shows negative
H2 + A C C
resonance effect is:
H H
Na/LiquidNH3 (1) –NH2 (2) –OH
CH3 C C CH3 H2 "B"
(3) –COOH (4) –OR
(1) A : 2–Pentyne B : trans – 2 – butene
Ans. (3)
(2) A : n – Pentane B : trans – 2 – butene O
(3) A : 2 – Pentyne B : Cis – 2 – butene
(4) A : n – Pentane B : Cis – 2 – butene Sol. C OH shows –R effect, while rest 3 groups
Ans. (1) shows +R effect via lone pair.
3
76. [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are respectively known 78. C2H5Br
alc. KOH
A
Br 2
B
KCN
C
CCl 4 Excess H3O+
as: Excess
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex D
(2) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex Acid D formed in above reaction is :
(3) Outer orbital Complex, Inner orbital Complex (1) Gluconic acid
(4) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex (2) Succinic acid
Ans. (2) (3) Oxalic acid
Sol. [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) Malonic acid
3+
Co (strong field ligand) 3d 6
t 62g ,e0g , Ans. (2)
®
(B)
[CoF6]3– KCN
Excess
Co3+ (weak field ligand) 3d6 t 24g ,eg2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
Succinic H3O+
Hybridisation : sp3d2 Acid COOH COOH CN CN
(D) (C)
Outer orbital complex (spin free complex)
79. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M)
no pairing will take place
in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25° C. Its solubility
77. Given below are two statements :
product at 25°C will be approximately.
Statement (I) : SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while
3 5
SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature. W W
(1) 10 7 (2) 10 7
Statement (II) : Allotropic forms of carbon are M M
5 5
due to property of catenation and p-d bond W W
(3) 103 (4) 10 5
formation. M M
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (2)
most appropriate answer from the options given W 10
Sol. S
below: M
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ca 3 (PO 4 )2 (s) 3Ca 2 (aq.) 2PO 34 (aq.)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 3s 2s
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
W 1000 W 10
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true S
M 100 M
Ans. (3)
Ksp = (3s)3 (2s)2
Sol. SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic and SnO, PbO are
= 108 s5
amphoteric.
5
Carbon does not have d-orbitals so can not form W
108 10 5
p-d Bond with itself. Due to properties of M
5
catenation and p-p bond formation. carbon is W
1.08 107
able to show allotropic forms. M
4
80. Given below are two statements : Sol. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six- t=0 0.1
membered covalent chelate when treated with
t = 115 sec. 0.1 – x 2x x
NiCl2 solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains 0.1 + 2x = 0.28
iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In the 2x = 0.18
light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: x = 0.09
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 1 0.1
K n
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 115 0.1 0.09
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false = 0.0200 sec–1
Ans. (1) = 2 × 10–2 sec–1
Sol. Ni2+ + NH4OH + dmg 83. The number of tripeptides formed by three
O H O different amino acids using each amino acid once
CH3 C N N C CH3 is ______.
®
Ni2+ Ans. (6)
CH3 C N N C CH3 Sol. Let 3 different amino acid are A, B, C then
O H O following combination of tripeptides can be
formed-
2 Five member ring
ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA
III II 84. Number of compounds which give reaction with
Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
Hinsberg's reagent is_______.
Prussian Blue NH2
O
SECTION-B +
N2 Cl
–
NH
81. Total number of isomeric compounds (including
stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of
2-methylbutane is________.
Ans. (6) N NH2
NH N
* * NH2
Sol. Cl
Cl
Cl Cl (1)
(2) (1) (2)
O
NH2
H2N C NH2
82. The following data were obtained during the first N N
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant H
Ans. (5)
volume:
Sol.
A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) NH2
NH2
S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm) NH
H2N
1. 0 0.1
2. 115 0.28
5
85. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to Sol. 2H2O O2 + 4H+ + 4e–
18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at W Q
–24°C is________ kg (Molar mass in g mol –1
for E 96500
®
86. Following Kjeldahl's method, 1g of organic for the same reaction is –_______×10–1 kJ mol–1.
compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10 (Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
mL of 2M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in
Ans. (57)
the compound is _______%.
Sol. G° = –RT n K
Ans. (56)
= –8.314 × 300 n (10)
Sol. H2SO4 + 2NH3 (NH4)2 SO4
= 5744.14 J/mole
Millimole of H2SO4 10 × 2
= 57.44 × 10–1 kJ/mole
So Millimole of NH3 = 20 × 2 = 40
89. Consider the following redox reaction :
Organic NH3
40 below Ered
wt. of N = 14
1000
EMnO /Mn2 1.51V
% composition of N in organic compound 4
40 14 E CO2 / H2 C2 O4 0.49V
100
1000 1
= 56% If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is
87. The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for given as Keq = 10x, then the value of x = _______
6
Sol. Cell Rxn ; MnO4– + H2C2O4 Mn2+ + CO2 90. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion
®
x=4
0.059
2 logK 5y = 50
10
y = 10
logK = 338.98
C4H10