Aircraft General Knowledge

CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY
ATPL QUESTION BANK
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
169) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
A high pressure and small flow.
B small pressure and large flow.
C small pressure and small flow.
D high pressure and large flow.
177) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an
emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats

on duty must have access to a minimum amount of
oxygen in:
1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight
time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
13000 ft.
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight
time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to
fly up to 25000 ft.
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly
at over 25000 ft.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A 1, 2, 3 et 4.
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 4.
D 1,4.
176) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one
manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located
containing :
A powder.
B water.
C special fluids.
D halon.
175) Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually
operate with a system pressure of approximately:
A 1000 psi
B 3000 psi
C 4000 psi
D 2000 psi
174) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
A leading edge flaps close to the wing root
B trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
C trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
D leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
173) The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following
wavelengths:
A metric.
B centimetric.
C myriametric.
D decimetric.
172) Under normal running conditions a magneto draws
primary current :
A from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.
B from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
C from the booster coil.
D directly from the aircraft batteries.
197) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps
of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the
following type:
A 115 V AC
B 28 V AC
C 28 V DC
D 115 V DC
170) The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an
aircraft is to :
A isolate all components electrically and thus make the static

potential constant.
B provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
C provide a single earth for electrical devices.
D prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of
similar metals.
180) The purpose of a ditching control is to:
A close the outflow valve(s).
B achieve rapid depressurisation.
C open the outflow valve(s).
D direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.
168) In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the
hydraulic system is used :
A for pressure storage.
B as a pressure relief valve.
C for damping pressure surges in the system.
D for fluid storage.
167) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is
controlled by regulating the:
A Bleed air valve.
B Airflow leaving the cabin.
C Airflow entering the cabin.
D RPM of the engine.
166) In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:
A key board
B screen unit
C hard disk drive
D printer
165) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to
provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also

supplies both in the air (subject to certification
limitations) and on the ground :
A either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at
the same time.
B air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground)
electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).
C air conditioning and electrical services.
D air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
164) In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power
supply, DC power is obtained from a :
A rotary converter.
B Transformer Rectifier Unit.
C static inverter.
D 3 phase current transformer unit.
163) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at
over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing
units and supply terminals must be at least greater than
the number of:
A seats by 30 %.
B passengers by 30%.
C seats by 10 %.
D passengers by 10 %.
162) The maximum horsepower output which can be
obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified
rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as
safe for continuous operation is termed :
A critical power.
B rated power.
C maximum power.
D take-off power.
171) In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
A drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the
exhaust gases
B clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the
thrust
C compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the
combustion chamber
D drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.
187) If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen
system is exceeded the:
A oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.
B oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
C passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
D oxygen bottles will explode.
297) The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine
produces:
A the greater part of the thrust.
B half the thrust.
C the lesser part of the thrust.
D none of the thrust.
195) In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear
operating system is usually:
A Electrically driven.
B Hydraulically driven.
C Mechanically driven.
D Pneumatically driven.
194) In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating
system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank

indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise
increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel
weight would :
A increase by 5 %.
B decrease by 5 %.
C increase by 10 %.
D remain the same.
193) The indication of the fire detection systems is performed
by a:
A warning light.
B gear warning.
C warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
D warning bell.
192) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for
passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:
A 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
B 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
C 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
D 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
191) A turbocharger consists of a :
A compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
B compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
C compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
D turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.
190) A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
A equal AC voltage from all generators.
B that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
C that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not
withstanding the acceleration of the engine.

D that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding
the generator RPM
178) Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically
associated with :
A Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
B Mass ratio of 1/15.
C Cruising mixture setting.
D Full rich setting.
188) Fuses are rated to a value by :
A the number of amperes they will carry.
B the number of volts they will pass.
C their wattage.
D their resistance measured in ohms.
179) For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the
A volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
B mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
C mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
D volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
186) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers
in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen
supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure
altitudes greater than:
A 10000 ft.
B 14000 ft.
C 15000 ft.
D 13000 ft.
185) Hydraulic fluids :

A Do not require special care.
B Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
C Are irritating to eyes and skin.
D Cause high fire risk.
184) The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :
A induction, power, compression, exhaust.
B compression induction, power, exhaust.
C induction, compression, expansion, power.
D induction, compression, power, exhaust.
183) When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the
air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen
system regulator:
A increases when the altitude increases.
B decreases when the altitude increases.
C is constant whatever the altitude.
D is 100 %.
182) A passenger emergency mask is a :
A continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in
the cabin.
B mask with flow on request and can be used if there is
smoke.
C continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke
in the cabin.
D mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is
smoke in the cabin.
181) The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied
by:
A main engine compressors.
B piston compressors.
C roots type compressors.
D single radial compressors.
159) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of
the fuel system are:
A Piston pumps.
B Diaphragm pumps.
C Centrifugal pumps.
D Gear type pumps.
189) The power of a piston engine decreases during climb
with a constant power lever setting, because of the
decreasing :
A engine temperature.
B humidity.
C temperature.
D air density.
131) In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are
not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is
stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is
running due to :
A blade creep.
B the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
C oil pressure.
D thermal expansion.
161) Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
A red.
B purple.
C pink.
D blue.
139) The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps

(BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following
range:
A 5 to 10 psi
B 3000 to 5000 psi
C 300 to 500 psi
D 20 to 50 psi
138) On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies,
the batteries are charged in flight from :
A a DC transformer and rectifier.
B the AC bus via current limiters.
C a Transformer Rectifier Unit.
D a static inverter.
137) One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :
A it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.
B it has a better propulsive efficiency.
C there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
D there is no danger of knocking.
136) The power output of a piston engine can be calculated
by :
A Force times distance.
B Pressure times arm.
C Torque times RPM.
D Work times velocity.
135) The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :
A switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger
oxygen ON.
B switching the passenger oxygen ON.
C switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
D opening the oxygen-bottle valves.

134) The operations of an airline plan the operation of a
pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole
route with 150 passengers on board.
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:
1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting
inhaler device.
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system
indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for
the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole
flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual
depressurization.
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for
the supply of two passengers during the whole flight
time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.
is:
A 2,3
B 1,2,3,4
C2
D 3,4
141) In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary
supplied by
A ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
B the APU.
C bleed air from the engines.
D turbo compressors.
132) In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system
by :
A pulling the power levers backwards.
B pulling the RPM lever backwards.
C pushing the RPM lever forward.
D pushing the power lever forward.
142) The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleopneumatic
strut are :
A the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies
the damping function.
B the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the
nitrogen supplies the damping function.
C the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the
nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function.
D the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen
supplies the spring function
130) The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane :
A has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential
pressure at all flight altitudes.
B has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all
flight altitudes.
C has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than
ambient pressure.
D is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
129) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
A carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at
any one time.
B monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
C automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor
via the CSD unit.
D controlling the generator field current.

128) In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:
A automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent
icing in fuel filter.
B jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel
flowing from tanks.
C fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to
unprime nozzles.
D fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is
detected.
127) The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :
A dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding
radio interference as a result of static electricity.
B dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
C provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
D be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
126) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of
the:
A weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
B volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre
to that with the piston at top dead centre.
C diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
D area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
125) On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is
vented through:
A A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
B Bleed air from the engines.
C The return lines of the fuel pumps.
D Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
124) "Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system

means the generator :
A output frequency is too low.
B output frequency varies with engine speed.
C output frequency is too high.
D voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
133) A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its
function is to :
A make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned
through more than 20°.
B prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage
shock absorber.
C create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
D transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals
into the rotational movement of the nosewheel.
150) The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
A mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during
coupling.
B take part in the voltage regulation.
C maintain a constant frequency.
D take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
198) The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit
results in:
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the
aircraft AC busbar
2. opening of generator field current relay
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two
generators
5. lighting of an indicator lamp

The combination of correct statements is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 5
158) During a power change on an engine equipped with a
constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of
manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one
simultaneously selects a ...
A low manifold pressure and low RPM.
B high manifold pressure and low RPM.
C low manifold pressure and high RPM.
D high manifold pressure and high RPM.
157) A diluter demand oxygen regulator :
A mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
B delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
C delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
D is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
156) On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure
elements which take up the vertical bending moments
Mx are:
A the spars.
B the ribs.
C the webs.
D the skin.
155) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the
required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude is maintained:
A the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage
reduces the pressure.
B the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
C a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
D the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
154) The reason for the trim switch on a control column to
consist of two separate switches is
A To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at
high speed and high trim rate at low speed
B To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
C To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
D Because there are two trim motors.
153) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with
the jettisoning system is:
A All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.
B All up to a defined reserve quantity.
C 15 tons.
D All fuel.
140) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be
equipped with at least:
A 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
passenger compartment.
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
C 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
151) In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
A Only induced current.
B DC.
C AC.
D Three-phase AC.
160) A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system
during :
A Landing.
B Take-off and landing.
C Cruise.
D Take-off.
149) A radio signal looses strength as range from the
transmitter increases, this is called :
A ducting
B attenuation
C refraction
D propagation
148) The crank assembly consists of
A crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
B propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
C Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
D crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.
147) Which statement is true concerning the effect of the
application of carburettor heat?
A it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus
leaning the fuel/air mixture
B it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus
enriching the fuel/air mixture
C it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus

enriching the fuel/air mixture
D it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus
leaning the fuel/air mixture
146) The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the
vertical stabilizer is :
A to a have greater effectiveness at high speed
B that it does not require a de-icing system
C to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy
situation
D to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence
145) Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during
taxiing when:
1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on
the ground
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions
This effect is overcome by means of:
3. the torque link
4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder
A 1, 3.
B 1, 4.
C 2, 4.
D 2, 3.
144) The cross-feed fuel system is used to :
A allow the unusable fuel elimination.
B automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.
C feed every engine from any fuel tank.
D allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of
emergency
143) On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system
includes :
A a single warning light and a single alarm bell
B both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine
C a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell
common to all engines
D a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each
engine
152) The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a
piston engine have which of the following relations?
A compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
B the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible
compression ratio is
C the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible
compression ratio is
D the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible
compression ratio is.
244) The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel
tank is to:
A Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
B Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
C Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during
abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).
D Prevent overpressure in the tank.
252) The cabin rate of descent is:
A a cabin pressure decrease.
B is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.
C a cabin pressure increase.
D always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.

251) The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent
at:
A high airspeeds with low power setting.
B high airspeeds with high power setting.
C low airspeeds with low power setting.
D low airspeeds with high power setting.
250) In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are
not paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows :
A connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main
busbar.
B power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
C connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
D connection of the ground power truck to its distribution
busbar.
249) Hydraulic power is a function of :
A System pressure and volume flow.
B Pump RPM only.
C System pressure and tank capacity.
D Pump size and volume flow.
248) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its
cruise level.
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure
controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of
climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
Given that :
DELTA P: Differential pressure
Zc: Cabin altitude
A The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to
reduce Zc to its initial value.

B The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in
order to maintain a zero Zc.
C DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the
safety relief valves to open.
D A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks
dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
247) A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight,
which takes it further than 340 NM away from an
aerodrome where an emergency landing could be
performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine
out airspeed is 155 kt.
A Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
B Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
C The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be
taken on board in this particular case.
D Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
196) If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for
example, are set on fire; the following extinguisher types
should be used for fire fighting:
A BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
B Water type extinguishers
C Dry and water type extinguishers
D CO2 and water type extinguishers
245) The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium
fire on the ground is :
A carbon dioxide.
B freon.
C sand.
D water.
255) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally
shows the ratio of:
A jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
B jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
C combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
D compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
243) Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.
During deceleration :
A when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and
absorbs engine power.
B at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine
power absorbed is nil.
C when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs
no engine power.
D with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the
propeller supplies engine power.
242) The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft
is obtained from :
A hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
B hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
C a fuel heater system.
D an electrical heater system.
241) The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
A propellers.
B engine intakes.
C wings.
D pitot tubes.
240) As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC
generator, it can be said that:

1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent
indication to record the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel
are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the
excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts
up
is :
A 3, 4
B 2, 4
C 1, 3
D 2, 3
239) The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :
A parallel with the shunt field coil.
B parallel with the armature.
C series with the shunt field coil.
D series with the armature.
238) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for
passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with:
A three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only.
B two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fireextinguishers
in the passenger cabin.
C one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fireextinguishers
D one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fireextinguishers
237) During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

A absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall
in pressure outside the aircraft
B cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric
pressure
C the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of
10 000 feet is reached
D the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
246) The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
A trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
B lower manoeuvring control forces.
C reduce or to cancel control forces.
D trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
262) Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate,
it is often referred to as the :
A "state indicator" gate.
B "all or nothing" gate.
C "any or all" gate.
D "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
271) In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are
NiCd because...
A they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.
B their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries.
C their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
D they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.
270) A static inverter is a:
A transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
B device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
C static discharger.
D filter against radio interference.

269) The "cabin differential pressure" is:
A approximately 5 psi at maximum.
B approximately 15 psi at maximum.
C the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving
the cabin.
D cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
268) Specific fuel consumption is defined as the :
A quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at
maximum operating conditions.
B maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
C mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
D designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.
267) In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic)
oxygen is designed to:
A give medical assistance to passengers with pathological
respiratory disorders.
B protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes
and noxious gases.
C protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental
depressurisation.
D protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for
these people.
266) The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :
1. Simple and reliable system
2. Profiles maintained
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor
4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without
substantial reduction in engine thrust

A 1,3
B 2,4
C 1,2
D 3,4
265) Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices,
the only true statement is:
A on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices
are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.
B on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices
are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports,
windshield...
C on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices
are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static,
windshield...).
D on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being
available in excess, this system is very often used for large
surfaces de-icing.
253) On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios
are obtained by the adjustment of :
A fuel flow and air flow.
B fuel flow, air flow and temperature.
C fuel flow.
D air flow.
263) A smoke mask is a :
A continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the
mouth.
B mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
C continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.

D mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the
mouth.
254) The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose
maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is
201, is :
A1
B3
C4
D2
261) Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is
controlled by :
A engine rpm.
B inward relief valve(s).
C regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
D pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
260) Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the
following type :
A electrical
B magnetic
C optical or ionization
D chemical
259) Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse
effect on the efficiency of the:
A carburettor.
B oil pump.
C fuel filter.
D sparking plugs.
258) In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor
rpm is :
A independent of turbine rpm.
B greater than turbine rpm.
C less than turbine rpm.
D the same as turbine rpm.
257) Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other
electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a
high charge rate to the battery :
A would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high
charge rate persists.
B indicates a battery failure since there should be no
immediate charge.
C indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be
shut down immediately.
D indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
256) An exit is considered to be out of service when the
following elements are inoperative the:
1. external door opening mechanism
2. internal door opening mechanism
3. door opening aid device
4. open door locking system
5. auxiliary means of evacuation
6. emergency lighting
is:
A 2, 3, 4, 6
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D 1, 2, 5, 6
234) In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the
number of poles required in an AC generator running at
6000 rpm is:
A8
B4
C 24
D 12
264) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen
regulator in normal mode, operates when the :
A user breathes in
B diluter control is in normal position
C user requires 100 percent oxygen
D pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi
206) The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by
passengers, is mostly :
A a continuous flow system
B a pressure demand system
C portable equipment only
D an air recycle system
236) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines
located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing
root to the wing tip, to operate in:
A compression, then in tension.
B tension, then in compression.
C tension.
D compression.
214) Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen
to the :
A cockpit only.
B toilets only.
C cabin only.
D cockpit and the cabin.
213) The true statement among the following in relation to
the application of Ohm's law is :
A The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the
resistance of the circuit.
B power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of
the current.
C current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the
electromotive force.
D Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied
electromotive force.
212) A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than
the recommended:
A provided that the grade is lower
B never
C provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
D provided that the grade is higher
211) To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when
altitude increases, means to:
A decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the
decreasing air density.
B decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to
compensate for the increasing air density.
C increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for
the decreasing air pressure and density.
D increase the mixture ratio.

210) The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
A Cabin inlet airflow valve.
B Outflow valve.
C Air cycle machine.
D Air conditioning pack.
209) To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators
operating in parallel :
A both real an reactive loads must be matched.
B the matching of loads is unimportant.
C only reactive loads need to be matched.
D only real loads need to be matched.
216) The vapor lock is :
A The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater
gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
B A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor
bubble.
C The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine
overheating.
D The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction
manifold caused by the condensation
207) The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch
propeller:
A is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the
propeller in case of engine problems.
B is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the
propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative.
C is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during
flight in order to obtain a constant speed.
D controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.

217) A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when:
A the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
B it is in the down position.
C the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
D the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.
205) Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The
purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of
demand and altitude) is to:
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the
bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000
ft cabin altitude
is:
A 3, 4, 5, 6
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3, 4, 6
D 2, 3, 4, 5
204) For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
A outside pressure.
B oil pressure.
C quantity of oil.
D oil temperature.
203) A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL
390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the

passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks
must be automatically released before the cabin
pressure altitude exceeds:
A 12000 ft.
B 14000 ft.
C 15000 ft.
D 13000 ft.
202) (For this question use annex 021-6716A)
In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what
balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side
? (The diagram is not to scale)
A 20 N.
B 1 N.
C 100 N.
D 1000 N.
201) An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds
above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls
are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
A centrifugal force
B engine oil pressure
C a coil spring
D electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
200) If two constant frequency AC generators are operating
independently, then the phase relationship of each
generator:
A must be synchronised.
B must be 120° out of phase.
C must be 240° out of phase.
D is unimportant.
199) A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection
device which :
A will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a
fault in the circuit.
B will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current
fault exists in the circuit.
C is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
D can be reset at any time.
208) The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder
engine displacement is :
A cylinder length * cylinder diameter
B piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders
C piston area * piston stroke
D cylinder volume * number of cylinders
225) Cabin pressure is controlled by :
A the cabin air re-circulation system.
B the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
C delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin
and controlling the outflow.
D controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant
outflow.
121) In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture
control is to :
A weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust
back pressure at altitude.
B enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at
altitude.
C correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air
density at altitude.
D prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at
altitude.
233) The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :
A propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
B propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the
propeller.
C propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.
D reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
232) In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat
exchangers is to:
A cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
B allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from
various air conditioning groups in operation.
C cool bleed air.
D allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
231) In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in
order to:
A seal the system
B keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
C reduce fluid combustibility
D prevent pump cavitation
230) The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to
indicate your position to the emergency teams are a
flare:
A and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.
B which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in
the daytime.
C and a smoke device which are only used at night.
D which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used

at night.
229) The most common extinguishing agent used in gas
turbine engine fire protection system is:
A Water.
B CO2.
C Powder.
D Freon.
228) In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport
aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure
regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
A fan bleed air valve
B intermediate pressure check-valve
C low pressure bleed air valve
D high pressure bleed air valve
215) In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally
made by controlling the amount of:
A air entering the compressor and fuel entering the
combustion chambers.
B fuel supplied.
C air entering the compressor.
D air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of
bleed valves.
226) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates
that the landing gear is :
A locked-down and its door is locked.
B not in the required position.
C locked-down.
D in the required position.
235) The type of windings commonly used in DC starter

motors are :
A compound wound.
B series wound.
C shunt wound.
D series shunt wound.
224) On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be
substituted for the:
A ground power unit, the starting system.
B ground power unit.
C ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning
unit.
D ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
223) The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :
A provide a richer mixture at high altitudes
B maintain power at altitude
C increase quantity of fuel at metering jet
D provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft
222) Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for
maximum efficiency at :
A cruising speed
B idling
C full throttle
D take-off
221) An impulse magneto coupling
A gives an automatic spark increase during high speed
operation.
B gives a retarded spark at starting
C reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
D advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting

220) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:
A the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet
pressure.
B the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet
pressure.
C the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor
outlet pressure.
D the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet
pressure.
219) When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on
only one AC generator, the protection device opens the :
A tie breaker.
B generator breaker and tie breaker.
C exciter breaker and generator breaker.
D exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
218) With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which
afford protection against the formation of ice, the only
correct statement is:
A The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern
aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain.
B The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an
anti-icing device.
C The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical
device are arranged perpendicular to the leading edges.
D The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a deicing
device.
227) In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit
is stored in the following state:
A gaseous.
B liquid.
C chemical.
D chemical or gaseous.
18) Turbine blade stages may be classed as either
"impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section :
A the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide
vanes and rises constant across the rotor blades .
B the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and
remains constant across the rotor blades .
C the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and
remains constant across the rotor blades .
D the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide
vanes and drops across the rotor blades .
26) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to
JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue
would be especially difficult, without survival equipment
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an
emergency landing at a distance greater than :
A 60 minutes at cruising speed.
B 30 minutes at cruising speed.
C 120 minutes at cruising speed.
D 90 minutes at cruising speed.
25) An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists
..
A If there is an unbalanced propeller.
B Only for counterrotating propeller
C Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.
D If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.
24) When the door operation of a transport airplane

equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the
outside, the slide:
A is disarmed automatically.
B unfolds and becomes inflated.
C unfolds but does not become inflated.
D becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its
unfolding.
23) "Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as :
A the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended
prior to landing.
B the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before
steering takes effect.
C aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension
of the gear.
D a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when
moving on the ground.
22) The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to
A trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
B distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
C ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
D increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
21) What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen
mask?
A Cabin air and oxygen.
B 100% oxygen.
C Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
D A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
123) Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear
shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?

A Springs.
B Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
C Nitrogen.
D Oxygen.
19) The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the
automatic mode, is to perform the following functions:
1. control of cabin altitude,
2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout
all the flight phases.
is :
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 6, 4
C 5, 6, 1
D 4, 5, 3
29) (For this question use appendix )
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered
diagrams :
A 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
B 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels
C 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
D 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
17) The operating principle of float-type carburettors is
based on the:
A measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

B difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
C automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains
altitude
D increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an
increase in air pressure
16) The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following
wavelengths:
A centimetric.
B metric.
C hectometric.
D decimetric.
15) The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :
A 1,2 volts.
B 2,2 volts.
C 1,4 volts.
D 1,8 volts.
14) Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :
A an increased fluid pressure.
B an increased fluid temperature.
C fluid loss.
D a decreased fluid temperature.
13) A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :
A air tapped from the low pressure compressor.
B air via a ram air intake.
C water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning
system.
D a fan located before the generator.
12) The chemical oxygen generator is a system:
1. which is inexpensive
2. requiring no external input
3. which is lightweight
4. requiring no maintenance
5. with adjustable flow rate
6. which is unsafe
is:
A 1, 3, 4
B 2, 3, 6
C 1, 4, 6
D 2, 4, 5
11) A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..
A When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
B Only at take-off and during approach.
C When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
D When entering areas with icing conditions.
20) The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :
A 400 Hz.
B 200 Hz.
C 50 Hz.
D 60 Hz.
36) With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher
discharge:
A is the pilot's task
B is automatic and immediate
C is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
D does not need the engine to be stopped
45) The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine
increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold

Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
A lower losses during the gas change.
B lower friction losses.
C leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
D lower back pressure.
44) The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators
is such that:
1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used
2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow"
passenger masks, no crew action is required
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system
assembly
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with
non freezable or graphite grease
The combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is :
A2-4
B1-3
C1-4
D2-3
43) In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the
flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:
A reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
B maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
C maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
D reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
42) Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and
pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken
from the:
A by-pass ducting.
B compressor section.
C fan section.
D turbine section.
41) During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever
setting (mixture being constant) the :
A RPM increases.
B Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.
C RPM decreases.
D Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
40) Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
A has no influence on aircraft performance
B increases aircraft performance
C is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
D decreases aircraft performance
39) Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen
mask at all times during commercial flight.
A 490.
B 410.
C 300.
D 250.
27) Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a
constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases,
the voltage regulator will :
A maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
B decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
C increase the intensity of the excitation current.
D change the direction of the excitation current.
37) The function of a fusible plug is to

A protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive
temperature.
B protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive
temperature.
C function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
D protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic
system.
28) In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for
the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with
turbo-jet units is:
A Electrical (electrical resistances).
B Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the
profiles of the leading edge).
C Thermal (use of hot air).
D Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).
35) In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first
compressed in the cold air unit to:
A maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
B ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across
the cooling turbine.
C increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge
pressure is too low.
D ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler
heat exchanger.
34) The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
A stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached
inside the tank.
B cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
C stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.

D stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
33) The purpose of an ignition switch is to :
A connect the battery to the magneto
B connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with
the primary coil
C control the primary circuit of the magneto
D connect the secondary coil to the distributor
32) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit
windshields is that :
A the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also
suitable for rain protection
B rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield
unless the rainfall is very heavy
C wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide
adequate view through the cockpit windows.
D the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also
suitable for rain protection
31) A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120
passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the
expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The
first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall
provide breathing supply for at least:
A no first aid required.
B 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization
at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
C 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin
depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000
ft.
D 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization

at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.
30) The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit
breaker is:
A (1)not resettable, (2)resettable.
B (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high
currents.fuse circuit breaker
C (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high
currents.fuse circuit breaker
D (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable.
8) Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the
landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic
system failure.
A By hydraulic accumulators.
B Mechanically
C Electrically.
D Pneumatically.
38) The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its
control by:
A altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
B varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.
C varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.
D moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the
main throttle control.
305) The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators
and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:
A alternators supply all of the output current through the
commutators and brush assemblies.
B The alternators generate much less power than DC
generators.
C induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed
(stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.
D induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and
the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.
10) An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
A increase pressure surges within the system.
B reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
C reduce fluid temperature only.
D store fluid under pressure.
313) When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a
tendency for the :
A electrolyte to "boil".
B voltage to decrease under load.
C voltage to increase due to the current available.
D current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
312) An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :
A a long purple flame from exhaust.
B black smoke from exhaust.
C high cylinder head temperatures
D white smoke from exhaust.
311) For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :
1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.
2 No routine check is necessary.
3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated
life cycle.
4 Certain components may not be accessible.
5 The principle is the redundancy of components
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared
between the other system components.

is :
A 1,3,4
B 2,5,6
C 1,5,6
D 2,3,4
310) Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor
diffuser is a device in which the:
A pressure rises at a constant velocity.
B velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
C velocity rises and pressure falls.
D pressure rises and velocity falls.
309) An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :
A requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
B requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage
under load.
C does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure
constant voltage.
D does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator
voltage cannot alter under load.
308) Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture.
The most practical way to minimize this when an aircraft
is used every day or so is to :
A keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
B keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
C drain tanks at end of each day's flight
D use only high octane gasoline
315) The safety precautions to be taken whenever using

oxygen are:
1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes.
2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.
4. Avoid greasy matter.
is :
A 1, 3, 4.
B 1, 2, 3.
C 2, 3, 4.
D 1, 2, 4.
306) The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency
121.95 MHz is:
A 2.46 m
B 24.60 cm
C 2.46 cm
D 24.60 m
316) The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths:
A hectometric.
B decimetric.
C centimetric.
D metric.
304) When air is compressed for pressurization purposes,
the percentage oxygen content is:
A unaffected.
B decreased.
C increased.
D dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
303) The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :

A ampere-hours.
B volts.
C watts.
D internal resistance.
The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments
is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.
They are associated with the logic circuit as described
in the annex.
The repeating bell is activated when:
A the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
B only one sensor detects smoke.
C the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
D the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
301) The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air
conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:
A cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
B source of the charge air.
C means by which pressurisation is controlled.
D charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
300) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most
likely occur?
A main air bleed and main discharge nozzle
B venturi and the throttle valve
C float chamber and fuel inlet filter
D accelerator pump and main metering jet
299) The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an
alarm if :
A the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.

B there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
C the pump power accumulator is deflated.
D the pump output pressure is insufficient.
298) The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:
A Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.
B Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.
C Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.
D Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system
pressure.
307) Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of
climb indicator should indicate :
A a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
B zero.
C a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential
pressure.
D a rate of climb.
324) A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be
positioned :
A between the needle valve and the metering jet.
B between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
C downstream of th discharge nozzle.
D upstream of the needle valve.
48) When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC
generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the
protection device opens the:
A exciter breaker.
B exciter breaker and generator breaker.
C exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
D generator breaker.
7) At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off
for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine
temperature:
A will rise.
B will be unchanged.
C may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor
is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the
moment of selection.
D will fall.
6) The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the
aircraft structure are:
1. Weight saving
2. Easy fault detection
3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
5. Circuits are not single-wired lines
is :
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 2, 3, 5
5) There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a
turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along
the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45
min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing.
The minimum equipment complying with regulations is :
A 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats
B 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats

C 60 life jackets
D One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
4) Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the
water separation unit is placed:
A after the cooling turbine.
B before the heat exchangers.
C before the cooling turbine.
D just after the heat exchangers.
3) The fuel temperature, at which, under standard
conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame
and extinguishs immediately, is the:
A combustion point
B fire point
C self ignition point
D flash point
2) The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :
A check valve.
B flow control valve.
C distribution valve.
D shutoff valve.
314) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the
cockpit seats on duty in a non-pressurized airplane
must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight
time at pressure altitudes greater than:
A 14000 ft.
B 10000 ft.
C 12500 ft.
D 13000 ft.
325) In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled

downwards, the passenger breathes :
A cabin air under pressure.
B a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
C pure oxygen under pressure.
D pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
9) The output of a generator is controlled by :
A varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
B the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
C varying the field strength.
D varying the speed of the engine.
323) In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary
power units (APUs) have automatic controls for stating,
stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits.
These controls provide correct sequencing of the
starting cycle as well as protection against :
A high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.
B overspeed and high oil temperature only.
C high TGT only.
D high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil
pressure and high oil temperature.
322) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to
1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500
psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
A 2500 psi.
B 1000 psi.
C 500 psi.
D 1500 psi.
321) When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine
RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller :

A increases.
B stays constant.
C stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
D reduces.
320) The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the
passenger cabin are :
1. reduced weight and volume,
2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
6. no maintenance.
is:
A 1, 2, 4, 6
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C 2, 3, 5
D 1, 3, 4, 5
319) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:
1 Is a limitation set by regulation.
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
4 Requires to empty external tanks first.
5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.
The correct combination of true statements is :
A 2,5
B 2,4
C 1,3,5
D 1,2,3
318) The part of a piston engine that transforms
reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed
the :
A reduction gear
B crankshaft
C piston
D camshaft
317) The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of
stringers whose purpose is to:
A assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal tractioncompression
stresses.
B withstand the shear stresses.
C provide sound and thermal isolation.
D integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin
is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.
1) Main cabin temperature is:
A controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
B controlled by individual passenger.
C not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
D Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
93) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :
A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
B number of individual poles and the field strength.
C field strength and the speed of the moving part.
D number of individual poles only.
85) (Use the appendix to answer this question)
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:
A free turbine and centrifugal compressor
B free turbine and axial compressor

C single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor
D single shaft turbine and axial compressor
101) The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:
A serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor
stage.
B provide the engine with additional air at high power settings
and low air speeds.
C provide the engine with additional air at high power settings
at cruising speed.
D feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
100) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon
the :
A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
B number of individual poles and the field strength.
C field strength and the speed of the rotor.
D number of individual poles only.
99) A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb
segments. This results in a
A higher torque.
B lower cylinder head temperature.
C higher efficiency.
D slight loss of power.
98) The measured output power components of a constant
frequency AC system are :
A amperes and kilowatts.
B kVA and kVAR.
C volts and amperes.
D volts and kilowatts.
97) In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers

A the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of
the right engine.
B the right engine is the critical motor.
C the left engine is the critical motor.
D the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right
engine fails than vice versa.
96) In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a
bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:
A compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat
exchanger inlet.
B secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the
cold air unit.
C secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of
the cold air unit.
D turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat
exchanger inlet.
103) When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the
reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
A torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
B energizing current.
C frequency.
D voltage.
94) The emergency lighting system must be able to function
and supply a certain level of lighting after the main
electric power system has been cut off for at least:
A 90 seconds
B 5 minutes
C 30 minutes
D 10 minutes
104) When a wire type fire system is tested:
A Only the warning function is tested.
B a part of the wire is totally heated.
C the wire is totally heated.
D the wiring and the warning are tested.
92) In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of
FADING is particularly found :
A at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
B by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
C at night and when raining.
D by day and when raining.
91) Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of
devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it
can be said that the:
A exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie
breaker open.
B exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
C exciter control relay opens.
D generator breaker opens.
seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped
with at least:
89) The function of the selector valve is to:
A select the system to which the hydraulic pump should
supply pressure.
B automatically activate the hydraulic system.
C discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too
high.
D communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
88) When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the
propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is
said to be...
A windmilling.
B transparent.
C at zero drag.
D feathered.
87) In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant
speed propeller'
A the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller
pitch angle.
B the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards
higher pitch angle.
C the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller
pitch angle.
D the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher
pitch angle.
46) The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at
the:
A accessory gear box.

B camshaft.
C gear box which is located between the engine and the
propeller.
D propeller blades.
95) An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel
when:
A the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
B the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
C the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
D there is a trimmable stabilizer.
112) As regards three-phase AC generators, the following
conditions must be met for paralleling AC generators:
1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies
4. Same phase rotation
5. Voltages of same phase
is :
A 1, 4, 5
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 5
274) The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller
A increases with increasing true air speed.
B only varies with engine RPM.
C decreases with increasing true air speed.
D is independent of the true air speed.
120) For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is

preferable to C Band because:
A It allows greater scanning rates.
B It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the
same transmission power.
C Its penetration power is higher.
D It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
119) With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the
carburettor :
A may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
B will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
C will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the
freezing point of water.
D will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
118) Shuttle valves will automatically:
A Guard systems against overpressure.
B Reduce pump loads.
C Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate
pressure supply.
D Shut down systems which are overloaded.
117) Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an
excessively :
A rich mixture.
B low barometric pressure.
C high barometric pressure.
D weak mixture.
116) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are
protected against icing by :
A Vinyl coating.
B Anti-icing fluid.
C Rain repellent system.
D Electric heating.
115) If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than
the outside ambient air pressure the :
A outflow valve open completely.
B air cycle machine will stop.
C negative pressure relief valve will open.
D negative pressure relief valve will close
102) When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise
fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause :
A high engine rpm
B low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
C high manifold pressure
D high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
113) In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception
of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life
jacket per person on board is compulsory when the
airplane is :
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it
would not be able to return in the case of an engine
failure.
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off
shore.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water
and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a
problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM
off shore.

is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 2
C 3, 4
D 2, 3
84) A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used
to :
A limit the current in the field circuit.
B instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
C limit the current in the armature.
D allow a short term overload before rupturing.
111) The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :
A use the cooling effect created by the venturi during
discharge.
B are electrical conductors.
C are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
D act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
110) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a
piston engine is used to :
A assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
B control the cylinder head temperature.
C control the carburator inlet air flow.
D control the fuel temperature.
109) On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no
commutator rings, the generator is activated by:
A the auxiliary winding.
B a set of permanent magnets.
C the main field winding.
D the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.

108) The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen
masks for the passengers is :
1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.
is:
A 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 2
D 1, 3
107) Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the
Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the
altitude increases
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the
Mach number
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR
setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear
due to ageing.
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure
difference between the turbine outlet and the
compressor inlet
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the
crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR
is :
A 1, 5.
B 1, 3.
C 2, 3, 4.
D 3, 4, 5.
106) The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air
conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the :
A source of the charge air.
B means by which pressurisation is controlled.
C charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
D cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
105) "Conditioned" air is air that has :
A been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
B had any moisture removed from it.
C had the oxygen content increased.
D had the oxygen content reduced.
114) In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be
treated for:
A purity.
B pressure.
C temperature.
D humidity.
55) When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF"
position, the piston engine continues to run normally.
The most probable cause of this failure is that:
A There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
B A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of
the engine.
C There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to
overheating of the cylinder heads).

D On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
86) The pack cooling fan provides:
A cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger
during cruise.
B cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger
during slow flight and ground operation.
C cooling air to the pre-cooler.
D air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit
(PSU).
63) If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the
battery:
A has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
B has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
C has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
D is unserviceable.
62) What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air
conditioning system?
A Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow
flights and ground operation.
B Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise
flight.
C Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
D Cooling of the APU compartment.
61) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the
shell structures efficiently transmit the:
1. normal bending stresses
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment
4. shear stresses
is :
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 3, 4
60) What can be the consequence during a descent with a
fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized ?
A The turbine blades will separate.
B The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the
maximum allowed value.
C The power of the motor will decrease.
D The turbine shaft will break.
seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be
58) (For this question use annex 021- 6660A)
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive
logic) :
A a NAND gate.
B a NOR gate.
C an EXCLUSIVE gate.
D an INVERT or NOT gate.
65) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum
requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply
100 % of the passengers during and following an
emergency descend is:
A 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure
altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
B 30 minutes.
C the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is
above 13000 ft.
D the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is
above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
56) The fuel system boost pumps are used to :
A avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel
for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
B avoid the bubbles accumulation.
C feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a
positive pressure.
D feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel
into the engine.
When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff
handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is
discharged. This results in :
A the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lamp
B the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on both engines

C the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine no. and
DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1
D the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination
of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine n°1 and
agent n°2 on engine n°2
54) A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
A keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
B avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
C decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to
the tip.
D allow a higher mechanical stress.
53) The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator
diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change
lines
A 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.
B 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
C 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
D 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
52) The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil
cooler that is fitted :
A in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed
through the scavenge pump
B between the oil tank and the pressure pump
C after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through
the engine
D after the oil has passed through the engine and before it
enters the sump
51) The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following

wavelengths:
A hectometric.
B myriametric.
C decimetric.
D metric.
50) In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
A an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the
event of a hydraulic failure.
B a damping type accumulator designed to take up the
pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.
C designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the antiskid
system in order to prevent wheel blocking.
D a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the
hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
49) On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
A lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always
asymmetrical.
B upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical
or asymmetrical.
C lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or
asymmetrical.
D upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always
asymmetrical.
122) Static dischargers :
1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the
same electrical potential
2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical
discharge
3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the

aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence
with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a
minimum
5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between
the aircraft and the electrified clouds
is :
A 1,2,5.
B 1,3,4.
C 3,4,5.
D 2,4,5.
57) The survival oxygen is:
A a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain
passengers.
B the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of
accidental depressurization.
C the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for
pathological reasons.
D the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon
dioxide.
74) A Yaw Damper is :
A An elevator augmentor.
B An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at
speeds greater than M=0.8.
C A roll trim tab.
D A rudder damper designed to avoid the "Dutch roll".
83) The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for
the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is :

A Electrical heating.
B Thermal anti-icing.
C Fluid de-icing.
D Pneumatic boots.
82) Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate,
it is often referred to as the :
A "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
B "all or nothing" gate.
C "any or all" gate.
D "state indicator" gate.
81) On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
A will wear at the shoulders
B it's tread will deteriorate faster
C will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
D will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
80) If the ground wire between the magnetos and the
ignition switch becomes disconnected the most
noticeable result will be that:
A a still operating engine will run down
B the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the
"ON" position
C the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
D the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition
switch to the "OFF" position
79) "Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which:
A burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust
manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the
exhaust.
B heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.

C water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line
following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have
not been drained for sometime.
D abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture
following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.
78) The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is
..
A To avoid a short circuit.
B To change DC into AC.
C To change the DC voltage.
D To change AC into DC.
77) A thermal circuit breaker:
A forbids any overcurrent.
B can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.
C protects the system in the event of overheating, even without
exceeding the maximum permissible current.
D is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about
one hundredth of a second.
64) The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel
controller is to:
A increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
B maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.
C maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude
increases.
D reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
75) The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be
installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS
depends on the number of :
A seats in the cabin.

B seat rows in the cabin.
C passengers in the cabin.
D emergency exits in the cabin.
47) The compressor surge effect during acceleration is
prevented by the :
A Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
B inlet guide vanes.
C surge bleed valves.
D variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.
73) Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped
with :
A two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the
cabin.
B only portable oxygen bottles.
C two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit,
the other the cabin.
D only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
72) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the
differential pressure:
A decreases
B increases
C remains constant
D may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless
immediate preventative action is taken.
71) The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :
A to offset for the starting of some devices.
B in emergency cases.
C to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
D to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

70) A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to
FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made
up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle).
The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this
aeroplane must be:
A 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
B 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
C 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
D 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
69) The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is
slightly pressurised to :
A prevent overheating of the pump.
B prevent vapour locking.
C prevent cavitation in the pump
D ensure sufficient pump output
68) The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when
the voltage of the :
A alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open
when the opposite is true
B battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open
C generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when
the opposite is true
D battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open
67) With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised,
you:
A Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture
B Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture

C Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture
D Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
76) A turbocharger system is normally driven by:
A an hydraulic motor.
B an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
C the exhaust system.
D an electric motor.
499) The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to
distribute:
A primary current to the condenser.
B secondary current to the condenser.
C primary current to the sparking plugs.
D secondary current to the sparking plugs.
507) The function of an air cycle machine is to :
A pump the conditioned air into the cabin.
B cool the bleed air.
C decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
D remove the water from the bleed air.
506) In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :
A allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
B is a self-lapping non-return valve.
C allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
D regulates pump delivery pressure.
505) If a current is passed through a conductor which is
positioned in a magnetic field :
A a force will be exerted on the conductor.
B the current will increase.
C there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
D the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

504) Fuel dump systems are required:
A on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-
Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the Maximum
Landing Weight (MLW).
B on all transport category aircraft.
C on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
D on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW)
higher than 5.7 tons.
503) In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous
components (with no fault protection), if the line is
accidently grounded:
A the fire alarm is triggered.
B the power supply is cut off automatically.
C there will be no effect on the system
D the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.
502) The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a
frequency of 300 kHz is:
A 1000 metres.
B 100 metres.
C 10 metres.
D 1 metre.
453) The maximum differential pressure of a transonic
transport category airplane is approximately:
A 15.5 psi
B 9.0 psi
C 3.5 psi
D 13.5 psi
500) When carrying out battery condition check using the
aircraft's voltmeter :
A a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a
better indication of condition.
B no load should be applied to the battery because it would
depress the voltage.
C the battery should be isolated.
D the load condition is unimportant.
510) Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing
system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are :
1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the
engine concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent
is:
A 2,3,4,5
B 1,3,4
C 1,3,4,5
D 1,2,5,6
498) Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :
A reset at any time.
B used in AC and DC circuits.
C used only in AC circuits.
D used only in DC circuits.
497) A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
A intensify current in secondary winding
B permit arcing across points

C assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
D assist in collapse of secondary winding.
496) During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will
switch off the fuel supply system when:
A the surge vent tank is filled.
B there is fire.
C the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
D fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
495) The 'constant speed propeller' has
A its best efficiency during climb.
B only above and below the design point a better efficiency
than the fixed propeller with the same design speed.
C in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.
D only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed
propeller.
494) The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on
the torsion link in a bogie gear is
A Touch down with crosswind
B Gear down selection
C Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.
D Taxiing with a small turning radius.
493) The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:
A tank drains.
B top off unit.
C dump system.
D vent system.
492) The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine
2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
statements is :
A3
B2-3-4
C1
D3-4-5-6
501) The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:
A difference between the pressure pump pressure and the
scavenge pump pressure.
B pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
C pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
D pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
517) The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a
pressurization system is to :
A regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure
differential.
B Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate
the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.
C regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
D discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises
above the selected altitude.
526) The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke
engine (TDC = Top Dead Center)
A behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
B behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

C before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
D before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
525) The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a
frequency of 400 Hertz is:
A 800 revolutions per minute.
B 1600 revolutions per minute.
C 12000 revolutions per minute.
D 6000 revolutions per minute.
524) The main purpose of the mixture control is to:
A decrease the air supplied to the engine
B increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
C decrease oxygen supplied to the engine
D adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
523) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen
system is to :
A deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
B deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.
C is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
D mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
522) For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed
relates to the speed at which the engine :
A operates most efficiently in the cruise..
B will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
C will run without any external assistance.
D is designed to idle after starting.
521) In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is
subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending
moment which is:
A lowest at the wing root

B highest at the wing root
C equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
D equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi
span
520) The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the
primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:
A contact breaker points closing.
B rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the
armature.
C contact breaker points opening.
D distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension
segments.
508) Vapour lock is :
A vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
B the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor
C vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
D the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
518) The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the
output voltage of the :
A generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying
loads.
B output of the TRU.
C generator at varying loads and speeds.
D batteries at varying loads.
509) If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is
limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to
the maximum:
A Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
B Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating

ceiling.
C Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating
ceiling.
D Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin
altitude.
516) In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system,
reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved
by:
A a condenser.
B an evaporator.
C an expansion turbine.
D a compressor.
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft,
a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce
the differential pressure to 5 psi.
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the
same cabin altitude is:
A FL 230
B FL 340
C FL 280
D FL 180
514) Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a
value approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication
systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential

is:
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 3, 4
D 2, 4
513) The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is
accomplished by:
- a propeller control lever used to select:
1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature
3 - turbine RPM
- a fuel control lever used to select:
4 - propeller RPM
5 - torque
6 - turbine temperature
statements is :
A1-5-6
B1-3-5
C3-4-6
D2-4-5
512) Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices
so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the
ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground
greater than:
A 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear
collapse.
B 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear

collapse.
C 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
D 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
511) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction
factor is equal to:
A0
B1
C 0.1
D 0.5
489) To allow for failure of the normal method of system
pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates
A a high pressure relief valve.
B a stand-by hydraulic pump.
C an accumulator.
D auxiliary hydraulic motors.
519) On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and
ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:
A overall efficiency
B compression ratio
C piston displacement
D engine r.p.m.
461) In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
A The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3
decibels.
B The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
C The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less
20 decibels.
D The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain,

increased by 10 kHz at each end.
491) The type of brake unit found on most transport
aeroplanes is a:
A Drum type brake.
B Single disk brake.
C Belt brake.
D Multiple disk brake.
469) The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
A increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
B drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure
increase in the conditioning air.
C drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature
drop in the conditioning air.
D drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.
468) A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
A Carbon dioxide warning system
B Fire fighting system
C Fire detection system
D Smoke detection system
467) The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger
centrifugal compressor :
A enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
B enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.
C enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the
periphery.
D enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the
optimum angle of attack.
466) The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure
into a linear motion is called ...

A An accumulator.
B A Pressure regulator.
C An actuator or jack.
D A hydraulic pump.
465) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers
in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen
supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin
altitude pressure is greater than:
A 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
B 13000 ft.
C 10000 ft.
D 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
464) Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized
airplanes in :
1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.
2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
passenger.
3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.
is:
A 2, 3
B 1,4
C 1, 2, 4
D3
471) The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic
systems is:
A mineral oil
B synthetic oil
C vegetable oil
D mixture of mineral oil and alcohol
462) When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must
be of the same:
A amperage and kVAR.
B voltage and amperage.
C frequency and amperage.
D voltage and frequency.
472) On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :
A Located on the engines.
B Installed in each tank.
C Installed only in the center tank.
D not necessary at all.
460) Cabin altitude means the:
A flight level the aircraft is flying at.
B flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
C cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
D difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
459) A tubeless tyre has :
1- a built-in-air tube.
2- no built-in-air tube.
3- a crossed side casing.
4- a radial side casing.
A 2, 4.
B 1, 4.
C 2, 3.
D 1,3.
458) A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is :

A a thermistor.
B an inverter.
C an AC generator.
D a transformer rectifier unit.
457) The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...
A Through the refueling cap of every tank
B By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
C By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique
point (an underwing refueling center).
D Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
456) Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning
packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result
would be that:
A the air supply would automatically be stopped
B the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
C the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
D the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient
outside air pressure
455) In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the
low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally
the result of:
A freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
B compression of air at the carburettor venturi
C low volatility of aviation fuel
D vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
272) Smoke detector systems are installed in the
A engine nacelles.
B fuel tanks.
C upper cargo compartments (class E).

D wheel wells.
463) It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly
bonded if :
A static noises can be heard on the radio.
B a circuit breaker pops out.
C there is interference on the VOR receiver.
D there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
480) A tubeless tyre is a tyre:
1. which requires solid or branched wheels
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange
and tire removing device
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube
and the tire
is :
A 1, 5, 6.
B 3, 4, 5.
C 1, 2, 5.
D 2, 3, 6.
529) Thermal plugs are installed in:
A cabin windows.
B cargo compartments.
C wheel rims.
D fire warning systems.
488) The power of a piston engine which will be measured by
using a friction brake is :

A Heat loss power.
B Indicated horse power.
C Brake horse power.
D Friction horse power.
487) The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The
value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is
given by the following formula:
A Req = R1 x R2
B 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
C 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
D Req = R1 + R2
486) Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in
certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm
that :
1 - They prevent ice formation.
2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has
become visible.
3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.
The combination which regroups all the correct
statements is :
A1-4
B2-3
C2-4
D1-3
485) An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to
MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following
characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by

the certificate of airworthiness= 230
Number of seats on board= 200
Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in
the aircraft cabin should be:
A 220.
B 230.
C 200.
D 180.
484) In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as
possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest
risk compartments. Theses compartments are :
1. the main landing gear wheel wells
2. the fuel tanks
3. the oil tanks
4. the auxiliary power unit
5. around the engines
is:
A 1,4,5
B 2,3
C 2,5
D 1,2,3,4,5
483) A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a
flux unbalance between the:
A shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
B voltage coil and the series winding turn.
C voltage coil and the series winding.

D generator and the series winding turn.
470) The fuel crossfeed system:
A allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
B is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite
wing.
C is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to
another.
D is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to
another.
481) When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :
A pressure drops.
B pressure rises.
C velocity decreases.
D temperature increases.
490) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :
A passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the
heat exchanger.
B used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the
charge pressure is too low.
C compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger,
and then across an expansion turbine.
D passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and
passed through a secondary heat exchanger.
479) DURALUMIN alloys :
1 have an aluminium-copper base.
2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3 are easy to weld.
4 are difficult to weld.
5 have a good thermal conductivity.

6 have a poor air corrosion resistance
is :
A 1,3,6
B 2,3,6
C 1,4,5
D 2,4,5
478) In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature
is attained:
A in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
B at the entry to the exhaust unit.
C within the combustion chamber.
D across the turbine.
477) For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
A external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
B internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
C internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
D fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
476) Batteries are rated in :
A Amperes.hours.
B Amperes/volts.
C Watts.
D Ohms.
475) Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
A Fin leading edges.
B Pitot tubes.
C Elevator leading edges.
D Slat leading edges.

473) When changing power on engines equipped with
constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by
A adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
B reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
C increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.
D increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
482) The ice protection system currently used for the most
modern jet aeroplanes is the
A Electrical de-icing system.
B Hot air system.
C Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
D Liquid de-icing system.
574) An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston
engine is for
A advancing ignition timing
B quick removal and installation
C absorbing starting loads
D providing a retarded spark for engine starting.

566) If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition
switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable
result will be that the engine
A will not operate at the right magneto
B cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
C cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF
position.
D will not operate at the left magneto
582) Load shedding means ..
A Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load
relief value
B A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick
forces
C Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric
users to avoid overload of electric generators
D To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves
outside limits
581) In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective
breathing equipment:
A protects the members of the crew against the effects of
accidental depressurization.
B protects the members of the crew against fumes and
noxious gases.
C gives medical assistance to certain passengers with
respiratory disorders.
D protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental
depressurization.
580) The conditions which can cause knocking are :
A High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.

B High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
C Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
D Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
579) The kind of compressor normally used as a
supercharger is :
A a hybrid compressor.
B a piston compressor.
C a radial compressor.
D an axial compressor.
578) The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the
fuel quantity by measuring the:
A dielectric change between fuel and air.
B density variation of the fuel.
C resistivity variation of the fuel.
D electrical resistance change.
577) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the
1. a flow which cannot be modulated,
2. a heavy and bulky system,
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion,
5. poor autonomy.
is:
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 4
D 1, 2, 3, 5
584) A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or

on parts of an oxygen installation is :
A Grease
B Water
C Halon
D Nitrogen
575) The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel
heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to:
A maintain and improve fuel heating power.
B ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
C prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low
temperatures at high altitude.
D prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation
from water contained in the fuel.
585) From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if
the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the
fuel flow should:
A increase
B decrease
C remain the same
D increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
573) On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed
pitch propeller :
A in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when
the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.
B in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will
always remain constant.
C manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed
throttle setting.
D the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

572) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is
that they :
A prevent the brakes from overheating.
B prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
C release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
D release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
571) If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF
position, the cause may be :
A defective condenser
B fouled spark plugs
C excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
D switch wire grounded
570) With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power
output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller?
A RPM and EGT indicator.
B RPM indicator.
C RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
D RPM and MAP indicator.
569) "Conditioned" air is air that has:
A oxygen content increased.
B oxygen content reduced.
C been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
D oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
568) The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the
following wavelengths:
A decimetric.
B centimetric.
C hectometric.
D myriametric.
527) In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
A The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the
right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.
B The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the
right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.
C The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the
right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
D The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the
right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
576) When altitude increases without adjustment of the
mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected
because of a :
A decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.
B decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.
C constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.
D increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
593) The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit
of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is :
A Chemical compound.
B Liquid.
C Gaseous or chemical compound..
D Gaseous.
602) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.
Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the
outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication
Zc: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure
This will result in a:

A VZc decrease
Zc increase
DELTA P decrease
B VZc increase
Zc increase
DELTA P increase
C VZc decrease
Zc decrease
DELTA P increase
D VZc increase
Zc increase
DELTA P decrease
601) In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
A hard disk drive
B diskette drive
C keyboard
D screen unit
600) In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted
of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and
effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with :
A 1 megaphone.
B 2 megaphones.
C 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on
board.
D no megaphone.
599) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the
main source of power is derived from :
A the brake actuators.
B the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

C the master cylinders.
D pressure to the rudder pedals.
598) An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion
takes place:
A in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.
B fully in the stator.
C fully in the rotor.
D in the stator and in the rotor.
597) When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
A only able to transmit.
B not able to do any radio communication.
C able to radiotelephone.
D only able to receive.
596) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of
a computer whose input data is:
1. idle wheel speed (measured)
2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate
5. tire pressure
is :
A 1, 2, 4.
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C 2, 4.
D 1, 3.
583) The conditions under which you obtain the highest
engine power are :
A cold and humid air at high pressure.

B warm and dry air at high pressure.
C cold and dry air at high pressure.
D warm and humid air at low pressure.
594) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for
long distances cannot simply be used for short haul
flights at higher frequencies is that
A the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on
a determined load spectrum
B the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will
take too much time
C these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul
flights.
D in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole
flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an
unacceptable way
565) When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant
speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved) :
A reduces.
B first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous
value.
C stays constant.
D increases.
592) The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for
about :
A 15 minutes.
B 30 minutes.
C 2 hours.
D 5 minutes.
591) Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators

be installed?
A At the pumps.
B In the reservoirs.
C At actuators.
D At the coolers.
590) Tyre "creep" may be described as the :
A the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient
temperature.
B the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient
temperature.
C gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
D circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel
flange.
589) In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke
engines. This permits a :
A lower fuel consumption.
B better piston cooling.
C cheaper construction
D lighter construction.
588) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the
effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the
exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that :
A EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
B EPR remains constant and EGT increases.
C EPR decreases and EGT increases.
D both EPR and EGT decrease.
587) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the
A decimetric.
B centimetric.
C metric.
D hectometric.
586) When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston
engine towards a lean position the :
A amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.
B volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.
C amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is
increased.
D volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
595) The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
A vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC
loads.
B directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of
engine and generator.
C drive the generator at a constant speed.
D vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various
AC loads.
seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped
with at least:
A 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the
567) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid
the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the
ground. It consists of :
A An aural warning horn.
B A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On
Wheels) sensor system.
C A bolt.
D A latch located in the landing gear lever.
544) When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply
system, the :
A load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
B loss of continuity will prevent its working components from
functioning.
C fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current
drawn.
D component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
543) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
A monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
B adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD
unit.
C carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any
one time.
D controlling the generator field current.
542) A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The
total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in
the cabin must be at least the same as the total number
of :
A passengers.
B passengers exceeded by 10%.

C seats exceeded by 10%.
D seats.
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel
system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :
A in the fuel control unit (item 3).
B after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).
C after low pressure valve (item 1).
D after high pressure valve (item 4).
540) Which of the following factors would be likely to
increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a
piston engine ?
A using an engine with a low compression ratio
B slightly retarding the ignition timing
C using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio
D the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to
the use of one with a low octane rating
539) In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be
monitored by :
A both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
B both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.
C a manifold pressure gauge only.
D a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold
pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.
546) In order that DC generators will achieve equal load
sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to
ensure that :
A their voltages are almost equal.
B the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar

system.
C equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before
paralleling.
D adequate voltage differences exists.
The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and
selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming
hydraulic pressure throughout :
A the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting
on differential areas.
B a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the
jack will take place.
C since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in
response to external forces.
D the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on
differential areas.
547) Which of the following qualitative statements about a
fixed propeller optimized for cruise condition, is true for
the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
A blade is relatively high.
B blade is relatively small.
C airfoil section is negative.
D blades reduces to zero.
535) For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch
(1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is :
A (1) low (2) forward.
B (1) low (2) aft.
C (1) high (2) aft.
D (1) high (2) forward.

534) The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the
A metric.
B hectometric.
C myriametric.
D centimetric.
533) Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :
A a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.
B the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.
C a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
D pressurized air from the air conditioning system.
532) In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be
inflated :
A immediately on the opening of the exits.
B immediately on ditching.
C once the passengers are in the water.
D when leaving the airplane.
531) A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive
cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude:
A 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
B 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
C 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
D 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
530) The cross-feed fuel system enables:
A the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any
fuel tank within that wing.
B the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard
fuel tank.
C only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing
tanks.
D the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
452) The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours
batteries, will create a unit with the following
characteristics;
A 24 volt / 80 amp hours
B 24 volt / 40 amp hours
C 12 volt / 80 amp hours
D 12 volt / 40 amp hours
seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be
A 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
B 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher.
C 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
D 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
555) The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after
landing ..
A by pilot action
B automatically
C at a certain low speed
D the system is always armed
564) A circuit breaker :
A may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
B is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.
C can only be reset after major maintenance.
D can be reset on the ground only.
563) In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by

expansion:
A of Freon in a heat exchanger.
B of Freon in the turbine.
C in the turbine.
D in a pressure relief valve.
562) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose
maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose
maximum approved passenger seating configuration is
greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be
equipped with a:
A crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger
compartment.
B crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger
compartment.
C crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.
D crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
561) Landing gear torque links are used to:
A prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
B maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and takeoff.
C prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
D take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
560) The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
A create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture
enters the induction system.
B create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow
through the carburettor jets.
C prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity
through the carburettor.
D ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the

induction system.
559) To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :
A gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
B use the electric unfeathering pump.
C manually release the blade latch.
D gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
558) A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating
configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fireextinguishers
including:
A 1 halon fire-extinguisher.
B 3 halon fire-extinguishers.
C no halon fire-extinguisher.
D 2 halon fire-extinguishers.
545) The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil
cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:
A cool both the oil and the fuel.
B heat the fuel only.
C cool the oil and heat the fuel.
D cool the oil only.
556) On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance
variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is
initiated by a temperature increase detected:
A on at least one loop
B at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the
loops
C only at an isolated point of the loops
D only in a uniform way along the loops
528) In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of

change is normally controlled by :
A a rate of change selector.
B the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin
pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude.
C the difference between the barometric pressure selected on
the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric
pressure.
D the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin
differential pressure.
554) The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel
..
A To prime the pumps.
B Because their efficiency is greater.
C To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
D To cool the pumps.
553) The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft
consists of several components: these include two heat
exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the
secondary exchanger (S).
The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
A P: pre-cools the engine bleed air
S: increases the temperature of the air used for airconditioning
of cargo compartment (animals).
B P: precools the engine bleed air
S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary
exchanger or from the pack's compressor.
C P: warms up engine bleed air
S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
D P: warms up engine bleed air

S: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack.
552) What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a
"constant speed propeller" if the manifold pressure is
increased ?
A It will decrease so that the engine can increase
B It will remain the same
C It will increase
D It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
551) The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
A Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird
strike.
B Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
C Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice
formation.
D Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal
gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the
components.
550) The portable emergency beacons which are used after
an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of :
A 72 h
B 48 h
C 24 h
D 12 h
549) Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a
A too large oil pump
B restricted oil passage
C too small scavenger pump.
D worn oil pump

548) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
A passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the
heat exchanger.
B compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine
through a heat exchanger.
C compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and
across an expansion turbine.
D passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and
passed through a heat exchanger.
557) An aircraft magneto is switched off by
A opening the primary circuit
B opening the secondary circuit
C grounding the secondary circuit.
D grounding the primary circuit
348) Ignition systems of piston engines are :
A dependant on the battery.
B dependant on the DC-Generator.
C dependant on the AC-Generator.
D independant from the electrical system of the aircraft.
356) As regards passengers oxygen in public transport
aircraft, information must be given to passengers
through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at
Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be
completed before :
A the aircraft reaches FL 140.
B the aircraft reaches FL 250.
C take-off.
D the aircraft reaches FL 100.
355) A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:

A activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay
for ground crew.
B inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected
to ground.
C activate the fire detection system when the detection line is
connected to ground.
D automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher
striker activation in the event of fire.
354) Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the
principle that an increase in temperature produces :
A an increase in resistance
B a decrease in the reference current
C a decrease in pressure
D a decrease in resistance
353) A bus-bar is :
A a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
B a distribution point for electrical power.
C a device permitting operation of two or more switches
together.
D the stator of a moving coil instrument.
352) The oxygen masks have dropped down from the
passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts :
A After the system has been switched on by a crew member
B after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
C immediately
D only above FL200
351) The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :
A quantity of heat generated by its combustion
B fuel electrical conductivity

C the anti-knock capability
D fuel volatility
454) In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature
indicator is in the red arc the:
A pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for
the rest of flight.
B pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
C pilot has to throttle back.
D pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
349) When applying carburettor heating :
A the mixture becomes leaner.
B no change occurs in the mixture ratio.
C the mixture becomes richer.
D a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
359) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen
regulator must be set to:
A 100%
B normal.
C emergency.
D on demand.
347) On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:
A trailing edge flap
B leading edge flap close to the wing root
C leading edge flap close to the wing tip
D leading edge flap
346) The purpose of the proximity of the emergency
evacuation path marking system is to :
A mark only the exits at the floor level.
B to be used only at night.

C replace the overhead emergency lighting during an
emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.
D replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
345) The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred
to as the :
A oscillator.
B slip ring.
C rotor.
D stator.
344) Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a
hydraulic reservoir will :
A always remain the same.
B initially increase with system pressurisation.
C increase as ambient temperature decreases.
D fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
343) The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the
passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum
approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
A1
B3
C0
D2
342) A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings
spaced at :
A 60°.
B 45°.
C 90°.
D 120°.
341) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as

compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a :
A lower propeller blade stress.
B higher efficiency in cruising range.
C higher efficiency in all operating ranges.
D constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
350) On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally
provided with means of monitoring the:
A oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
B oil temperature and synchronous speed.
C output speed and oil pressure.
D low oil temperature and low oil quantity.
366) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be
equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency
exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of
an emergency when the sill height of the passenger
emergency exit is higher than:
A 1,86 m.
B 1,89 m.
C 1,83 m.
D 1,80 m.
375) When two DC generators are operating in parallel,
control of load sharing is achieved by :
A the synchronous bus-bar.
B an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage
regulators, varies the field excitation current of the
generators.
C an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the
generators.
D carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.

374) The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
A volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
B volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.
C real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
D mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
373) A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
A decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte
temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
B cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature
drop in the charge air.
C not affect the charge air pressure.
D increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature
to drop in the heat exchanger.
372) In a free turbine engine:
A its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or
another turbine.
B the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
C the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically
connected.
D there is no mechanical connection between the compressor
and the power output shaft.

370) When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the
phase relationship of each generator:
A must be 90° out of synchronisation.
B is unimportant.
C must be synchronous.
D must be in opposition.
369) The passenger oxygen mask will supply :
A a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
B a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
C a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
D 100 % oxygen.
357) Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity
batteries in series will result in a total voltage and
capacity respectively of :
A 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
B 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
C 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
D 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
367) A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :
A automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a
given value.
B automatically resets at engine shut-down.
C may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
D may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
358) A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid
battery would involve :

A comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.
B checking the level of the electrolyte.
C checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".
D checking the battery voltage "off-load".
365) In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static
pressure Ps vary as follows:
A V decreases, Ps decreases.
B V increases, Ps decreases.
C V decreases, Ps increases.
D V increases, Ps increases.
364) In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category
aircraft the fluids used are:
A Vegetable oil.
B Water and glycol.
C Synthetic oil.
D Mineral oil.
363) In computer technology, an EPROM is:
1. a read-only memory
2. a write memory
3. erases its content when power supply is cut off
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off
is:
A 1,3
B 2,3
C 2,4
D 1,4
362) In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be
found. Their function is :

A To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject
to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.
B To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic
line.
C To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the
primary brake system.
D To isolate a part of the system and protect it against
accidental pollution.
361) The global output of a piston engine is of:
(global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the
available shaft/power over the total thermal energy
produced).
A 0.30
B 0.50
C 0.75
D 0.90
360) The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:
A kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the
case of energy failure.
B automatically connected to the battery if generators have
failed.
C providing an alternative current.
D directly connected to the battery.
338) A relay is :
A A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
B An electrical energy conversion unit.
C An electromagnetically operated switch.
D An electrical security switch.
368) For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture

corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight
ratio of:
A 1/9 th
B 1/10th
C 1/12th
D 1/15 th
281) In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure
that :
A generator voltages are almost equal before the generators
are paralleled.
B only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
C generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
D one generator comes "on-line" before the other.
340) The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
A by an auxiliary system.
B by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
C in flight only.
D by the air conditioning system.
289) A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:
A the high pressure turbine.
B airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.
C the low pressure turbine.
D the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
288) The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop
aeroplanes works
A pneumatically.
B with hot air.
C with anti-icing fluid.
D electrically.
287) Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be
said that :
A with setting on "NORMAL", the crew breathes a mixture of
oxygen / cabin air.
B the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.
C the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
D the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated
oxygen.
286) The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:
A is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
B has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential
pressure.
C has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all
flight altitudes.
D has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher
level than the ambient pressure.
On the attached diagram showing the power output of a
piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best
economy is at the point marked:
A3
B4
C1
D2
284) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear
to :
A absorb the spring tension.
B control the wheels.
C lock the landing gear.

D avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
291) In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system,
AC for instrument operation may be obtained from :
A a contactor.
B a TRU.
C an inverter.
D a rectifier.
282) Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems
protection. They detect :
A smoke.
B overtemperature.
C fire.
D overtemperature and fire.
292) The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to :
A ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input
signal.
B invert the input signal such that the output is always of the
opposite state.
C ensure the input signal is AC only.
D ensure the input signal is DC only.
280) The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC
generator which:
A supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.
B is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive
(CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.
C is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as
the APU starts up.
D must have the same characteristics as the main AC
generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.

279) A manual inflation handle:
A serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation
fails
B serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation
function fails
C operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
D is generally not applied on slides.
278) The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of
a turbo-jet engine are the :
1. tacho-generator N1
2. tacho-generator N2
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
7. high pressure fuel pumps
is :
A 2, 4, 5, 6.
B 4, 5, 6, 7.
C 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
D 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
277) Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless
tyre presents the following characteristics :
1 - high heating
2 - valve fragility
3 - lower risk of bursting
4 - better adjustment to wheels
The combination containing all the correct statements is:

A2-3
B2-4
C1-2-3-4
D3-4
276) Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
A mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor
B mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
C volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
D volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
275) The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes
A must be in accordance with the number of passengers on
board.
B must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew
members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50
% of the available emergency exits.
C must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to
leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes.
D depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement
with the operator.
603) To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional
to the volume of air flowing through the choke, thus
preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as
engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :
A an accelerator pump
B a mixture control
C a diffuser
D a power jet
283) The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport
aircraft are:
A Cell tanks.
B Combined fuel tanks.
C Fixed built-in tanks.
D Integral tanks.
329) The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on
the temperature of gas flow is to :
A ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the
combustion chamber is not exceeded.
B ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the
turbine blades is not exceeded.
C prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
D prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle
guide vanes.
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system
shown in annex.
In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a
fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity
in tank 2).
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
A possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps
"OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".
B impossible without causing the APU stop.
C possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps
"OFF".
D impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.
337) On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC
generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the onboard
protection device opens:

A the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
B The generator breaker and tie breaker.
C The generator breaker.
D the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
336) The services connected to a supply bus-bar are
normally in:
A parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the busbar
current consumption.
B series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar
current consumption.
C parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar
voltage.
D series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar
voltage.
335) Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:
1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion
5. high compressibility
6. high volatility
7. high viscosity
is :
A 1, 2, 5, 7
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 3, 4
334) For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct

statement is :
A the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures
which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²).
B the regulation system deals only with emergency operation
and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those
considered as essential.
C the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid
maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure
(air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure
reserve.
D the security components comprise the filters, the pressure
relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.
333) The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by :
A The cabin outflow valve.
B The cabin inlet airflow.
C The engine's RPM.
D The engine's bleed valves.
332) From which flight level do the regulations require a
quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a
pressurized aircraft ?
A FL 390.
B FL 100.
C FL 250.
D FL 300.
290) Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with
air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then
pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the
indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be :
A 4000 psi.
B 3000 psi.
C 2000 psi.
D 1000 psi.
330) The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is
located at the cooling unit :
A inlet and uses an evaporation process.
B outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
C inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
D outlet and uses an evaporation process.
339) When a continuous element of a fire detection system is
heated:
1. its resistance decreases.
2. its resistance increases.
3. the leakage current increases.
4. the leakage current decreases.
is :
A 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 2, 4
D 1, 3
328) The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to
isolate the battery:
1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed
satisfactory
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit

statements is :
A 1 - 2 - 3 -4
B1
C 1 - 2 -3
D1-2
327) A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It
undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure
in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure
value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?
A the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew
members
B if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the
oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes
C manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger
oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
D the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew
members and passengers
326) Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern
airliners are:
A Mineral base fluids.
B Phosphate ester base fluids.
C Water base fluids.
D Vegetable base fluids.
296) Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:
A the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure
compressor if necessary.
B the second fan stage.
C the low pressure compressor.

D the high pressure compressor.
295) The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted
to passenger aircraft. Its function is to :
A obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general
purpose tool during evacuation.
B free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
C activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red
coloured top
D settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers,
who threaten flight safety.
294) When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :
A there will be no effect on the conductor.
B the field will collapse.
C current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.
D an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.
293) The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be
kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:
A these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the
presence of a spark.
B these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
C these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence
of oxygen under pressure.
D the oxygen system would be contaminated.
331) Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multiengine
aircraft are:
A high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
B centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
C low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
D centrifugal high pressure pumps.

423) In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is
precharged to 1200 psi.
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and
provides a system pressure of 3000 psi.
The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the
gas section of the accumulator, reads:
A 1200 psi
B 4200 psi
C 1800 psi
D 3000 psi
415) The frequency of the current provided by an alternator
depends on...
A its rotation speed
B the strength of the excitation current
C its load
D its phase balance
431) The operating principle of an anti skid system is as
follows : the brake pressure will be :
A Increased on the slower turning wheels.
B Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
C Increased on the faster turning wheels.
D Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
430) During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude
(which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the
cabin outflow valves are:
A fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
B At the pre-set position for take-off.
C Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
D Partially open.
429) During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect
A the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
B slats and the leading edge flaps only.
C leading edges only.
D leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
428) In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):
1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft.
2- may be disconnected from the generator.
3- is a hydro-mechanical system.
4- is an electronic system.
5- may not be disconnected in flight.
6- may be disconnected in flight.
is :
A 1, 2, 5
B 2, 3, 4
C 1, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 6
427) A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight.
The primary reason(s) for disconnection are :
A illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
B slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
C low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator
drive.
D excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
426) An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :
- a power lever : ON/OFF
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100%
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF

Among the following statements, the correct proposition
is :
A with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency
situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe.
B the power lever on ON, and, the "O2" lever on NORMAL
allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables
breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
C the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure
oxygen at ambient pressure.
D the "O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the overpressure
oxygen at a constant flow rate.
433) The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial
flow compressors is to :
A enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for
engine starting.
B reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
C control the acceleration time of the engine.
D spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus
controlling the speed.
424) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the
1. a greater autonomy,
2. no risk of explosion,
3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
5. possibility to regulate flow.
is :
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 4, 5
D 2, 3, 4
434) The trim tab :
A reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
B reduces hinge moment and increases control surface
efficiency.
C increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
D increases hinge moment and reduces control surface
efficiency.
422) The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared
to centrifugal flow compressors are :
1 - expensive to manufacture
2 - limited airflow
3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4 - limited compression ratio
The combination of correct answers is :
A2-4
B1-3
C1-2
D2-3
420) The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high
pressure oxygen system is to :
A act as a manual shut-off valve
B maximize the charging pressure of the system
C relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve
malfunctions
D reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable
manifold pressure for the regulator
419) The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency
hydraulic power for :
A undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
B flap extension only.
C flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic
power.
D nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
418) The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest
resistance against cavitation is :
A Water and glycol based fluid.
B Synthetic fluid.
C Mineral oil based fluid.
D Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
417) Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks
in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by
A firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has
opened.
B activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
C firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is
stowed.
D pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.
376) A stage in an axial compressor:
A has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
B is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
C has a compression ration in the order of 0.8
D is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
425) A relay is :
A another name for a solenoid valve.
B a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat
energy.
C a device which is used to increase electrical power.
D a magnetically operated switch.
442) Skip distance is the:
A range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
B highest critical frequency distance
C wavelength distance of a certain frequency
D thickness of the ionosphere
451) Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :
A the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
B the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.
C power is increased too abruptly.
D the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous
power for too long.
450) Cabin differential pressure means the pressure
difference between:
A actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

B cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
C cockpit and passenger cabin.
D cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
449) The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:
A supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.
B provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after
depressurization.
C provide some passengers with additional respiratory
assistance after an emergency descent following a
depressurization.
D provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
448) On-board electrical systems are protected against faults
of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency
6. undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is :
A 1,2,4,6
B 1,3,5,6
C 2,3,4,5,6
D 1,2,4,5
447) Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall
warning computers?
A Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
B Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.
C Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.

D Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
446) A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to
its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:
A failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the
engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the
starter.
B an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been
accelerated sufficiently by the starter.
C compressor surging.
D the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before
the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
445) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst
from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking
during an aborted take-off, there is:
A the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system
which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.
B water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to
lower tyre temperature.
C a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given
temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
D a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
432) The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:
A hectometric.
B myriametric.
C metric.
D centimetric.
443) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is
approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be :
A weak
B too weak to support combustion
C normal
D rich
414) The minimum airborne equipment required for operation
of a the VHF direction finder is a:
A VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136
MHz range.
B VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
C VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
D cathode-ray tube.
441) Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :
A All bonding and earthing connections between ground
equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps
are removed.
B Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
C Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone)
providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.
D Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF
radio equipment under test.
440) The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel
tanks is to :
A close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
B prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.
C prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
D damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.
439) A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested
by
A checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
B checking the sensor with pressurized gas.

C heating up the sensor with test power connection.
D checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.
438) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the
required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude is maintained :
A the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage
reduces the pressure.
B the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
C the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.
D a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
437) For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially
dependent on:
A the circulation of lubricating oil
B a rich fuel/air mixture
C a properly functioning thermostat
D a lean fuel/air mixture
436) On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly
Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high
rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during
charging.
The combination of correct statement is:
A 3, 4, 5, 6
B 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
C 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D 3, 4, 6, 7
435) The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the
following change in circumstance occurs :
A Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting
ionospheric layer
B Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting
ionospheric layer
C Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting
ionospheric layer
D Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting
ionospheric layer
444) The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end
of the power stroke are :
A both valves closed.
B exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.
C intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
D both valves open.
385) The airborne weather radar uses the following
wavelengths:
A myriametric.
B centimetric.
C metric.
D hectometric.
416) If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre
are worn, the tyre can be:
A Repaired several times.
B repaired once.
C Never repaired.
D Used on the nose wheel only.
393) On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged),
the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...
A a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on
the ground.
B a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is
running.
C a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine
is running.
D zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
392) If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive
circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit will
A decrease.
B remain the same.
C increase.
D be zero.
391) In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a
slightly higher than normal oil pressure.
This higher pressure :
A requires an oil change.
B is normal, if it decreases after startup.
C is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
D is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
390) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC
generating system is to :
A drive the generator at a constant speed.
B vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC

loads.
C directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of
an engine and a generator.
D vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various
AC loads.
389) During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP)
and RPM indication and constant mixture setting, the
power output of a piston engine :
A stays constant.
B increases.
C decreases.
D only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed
forward.
388) Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when :
A a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
B the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
C the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the
cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug
D the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead
centre.
395) In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the
spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating
principle of magnetos consists in :
A accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the
battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment
the spark is generated.
B creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be
sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.
C breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp

high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs.
D obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the
spark.
386) A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :
A total volume to the swept volume.
B swept volume to the clearance volume.
C total volume to the clearance volume.
D clearance volume to the swept volume.
396) The elements specifically protected against icing on
transport aircraft are:
1) engine air intake and pod.
2) front glass shield.
3) radome.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing.
6) cabin windows.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment.
is :
A 1, 2, 5, 6
B 1, 2, 3, 8
C 1, 2, 4, 5
D 1, 4, 5, 7
384) A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck
instrument panel illuminates when:
A the reverser doors are locked.
B reverse has been selected but the doors have remained
locked.
C the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.
D the reverser doors are unlocked.
383) In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
A rotor - rotor - stator
B stator - stator - rotor
C rotor - stator
D stator - rotor
382) In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke
is :
A compression
B exhaust
C firing-expansion
D intake
380) In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are
installed in the:
A cabin.
B fuel tanks.
C tyres.
D landing gear bays / wheel wells.
379) The advantages of alternating current on board an
aircraft are:
1. simple connection
2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
C 1, 4, 6
D 3, 4, 5, 6
273) In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the
constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane,
not fitted with feathering system
A move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical
force.
B move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
C move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the
windmilling propeller.
D move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling
RPM.
387) The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:
1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required
to operate the control surfaces
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through

simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight
envelope
is :
A 1 and 5
B 2 and 3
C 3 and 5
D 1 and 2
404) The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :
1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and
the exhaust gas velocity
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the
ambient air
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the
aeroplane is not moving
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature
statements is :
A1-3
B1-2
C2-3
D4
413) Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be
disconnected :
A on the ground only.
B during engine operation only.
C at flight idle engine rpm.

D in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC
generator.
412) The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the
A hectometric.
B metric.
C centimetric.
D decimetric.
411) A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
A can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
B is a system with a slow response time.
C a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
D permits an overcurrent limited in time.
410) When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC
generator connected to the mains with another AC
generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
A the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
B the generator breaker.
C the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
D the tie breaker.
409) The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following
wavelengths:
A decimetric.
B centimetric.
C hectometric or kilometric.
D metric.
408) In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive
priming should be avoided because :
A the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

B it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
C it fouls the spark plugs
D it drains the carburettor float chamber
407) On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the
maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:
A 13 - 15 psi
B 22 psi
C 7 - 9 psi
D 3 - 5 psi
394) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers
phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
A UHF
B VLF
C HF
D VHF
405) Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure
altitude is not allowed to exceed:
A 6000 ft
B 10000 ft
C 8000 ft
D 4000 ft
377) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of
the fuel system are:
A mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
B removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.
C centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
D electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated
pressure.
403) In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:

A keyboard
B hard disk drive
C diskette drive
D screen unit
402) An artificial feel unit system:
A is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.
B is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
C must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control
unit.
D must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control
unit.
401) 'Fail safe construction' is :
A A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
B A type of construction in which the load is carried by other
components if a part of the structure fails.
C A simple and cheap type of construction.
D A type of construction for small aircraft only.
400) Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that
the:
A faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
B faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
C slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
D faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark
occurs
399) An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft
structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as a
A semi-negative system.
B single pole circuit.
C complete negative system.

D double pole circuit.
398) A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin
altitude by regulating the :
A position of the outflow valve(s).
B mass air flow into the cabin.
C position of the inward relief valve.
D position of the duct relief valve(s).
397) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the
number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must
allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
A in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
B plus 10 %.
C plus 30 %.
D in the case of a loss of two rafts.
406) When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire
detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The
purpose of this delay is to:
A delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase
their efficiency
B wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in
order to confirm the fire
C avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
D allow temperatures to equalise
103) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard
atmosphere is:
A 644 kt.
B 332 kt.
C 661 kt.
D 1059 kt.
68) The purpose of Auto Throttle is:
A automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature
B to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to
Auto Pilot
C to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"
D to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed
93) When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising
and approach, the system is considered:
A "fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.
B "fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
C "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always
ensured.
D "fail safe" with failure effect without disconnection.
94) In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) will give information such as :
A turn left/turn right
B too low terrain
C glide slope
D climb/descent
95) The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially
with the:
A mach number of the aircraft.
B aircraft altitude.
C static temperature.
D time passed at a given altitude.
96) The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure :
A quantity.
B a flow rate.
C pressure.
D temperature.
97) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading
with 20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on to an approximate heading of :
A 010°
B 330°
C 350°
D 030°
98) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation
of the static pressure near the source is known as:
A position pressure error.
B barometric error.
C instrument error.
D hysteresis effect.
99) Torque can be determined by measuring the :
A quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a
transmission shaft.
B oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of
the main engine gearbox.
C phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached
to a transmission shaft.
D frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a
transmission shaft.
100) On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator
indicates :
A needle in the middle, ball to the left
B needle to the left, ball to the right

C needle to the left, ball to the left
D needle in the middle, ball to the right
91) In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of
the two autopilots, the system is considered:
A "fail soft" with minimized failure effect.
C "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always
ensured.
D "fail hard" or without failure effect and disconnection.
102) The autothrottle :
1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM
2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM
3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated
airspeed (IAS)
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
the autopilot
is:
A 1 and 4
B 1, 3 and 4
C 1 and 3
D 2 and 3
90) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator
is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is :
A turning left with not enough bank
B turning left with too much bank
C turning right with not enough bank
D turning right with too much bank
104) The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with

information regarding the:
A yaw damper action only on the ground
B rudder position
C yaw damper action on the rudder
D rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
105) The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when
an aircraft:
A descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
B passes over the ILS inner marker.
C descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
D passes over the outer marker.
106) The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity
Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are,
depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :
1- turboprop-powered
2- piston-powered
3- jet-powered
is :
A 1, 3
B1
C 1, 2, 3
D3
107) The computers of the electrical flight controls system
comply with programs defined by attitude control laws
such as :
1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the
load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control
data sources
2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability
3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes
depending on the speed
4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope
is:
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 3
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 4
108) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is:
A an artificial horizon
B a turn indicator
C a fluxgate compass
D a directional gyro
109) A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the
following functions :
1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations
monitoring)
2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers
is:
A 1, 3, 5
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 2, 4, 5
110) In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect
the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet.
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm.
The required margin related to the stall speed is:
A 3%
B 7%
C 5%
D 10%
111) To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas
turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on
the following principle:
A liquid expansion
B gas pressure
C thermocouple
D bi-metallic strip
112) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a
system working according to a height span ranging
from :
A the ground to 500 ft
B 50 ft to 2 500 ft
C the ground to 1 000 ft
D 30 ft to 5 000 ft
101) During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the
resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the
horizon bar indicating a :
A nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
B nose-up attitude
C nose-down attitude
D constant attitude
80) In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic
centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a
circuit, the centralized flight management system:
1- releases an aural warning
2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the
overhead panel
3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display
4- processes the failure automatically
is:
A 1, 2, 3.
B 1, 3, 4.
C 3, 4.
D 1, 2.
160) The two main sources of information used to calculate
turbojet thrust are the:
A fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low
pressure turbine outlet.
B fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure
Ratio).
C high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine
Pressure Ratio).
D fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high
pressure compressor outlet.
After having programmed your flight director, you see
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director
indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the

appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars
indicate that you must :
A increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left
until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
B increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the
right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
aeroplane.
C decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left
until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
D decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the
right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
aeroplane.
71) A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to
correct errors on :
A an artificial horizon
B a directional gyro unit
C a turn indicator
D a gyromagnetic indicator
72) The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:
1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses
3. non ferrous metal masses
4. electrical currents
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 2, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 2, 3, 4
73) A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:

A 0 degree of freedom.
B 1 degree of freedom.
C 3 degrees of freedom.
D 2 degrees of freedom.
74) The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a
visual and aural warning to the pilot when the:
A airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
B airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
C proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.
D altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the
transition altitude.
75) Among the flight control instruments, the artificial
horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with
Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro
are determined by the number of gimbal rings it
comprises.
A two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and
continously maintained to local vertical by an automatic
erecting system.
B two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis
corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
C one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained
in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
D one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the
direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in
this direction by an automatic erecting system
76) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked

during a descent the instrument will:
A continue to display the reading at which the blockage
occured
B gradually indicate zero
C under-read
D indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar
subscale
77) For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs
during approach the ..
A Height indication is removed
B DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds
C DH lamp flashes red
D Audio warning signal sounds
92) All the anemometers are calibrated according to:
A Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air
compressibility.
B St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an
uncompressible fluid.
C Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an
uncompressible fluid.
D St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air
compressibility.
79) If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is
compensated for position error and another altimeter
which is not ; and all other factors being equal...
A At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a
lower altitude
B There will be no difference between them if the air data
computer (ADC) is functioning normally

C ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR
D At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a
higher altitude
115) A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an
assembly which always consists of :
1- a directional gyro
2- a vertical axis gyro
3- an earth's magnetic field detector
4- an azimuth control
5- a synchronising control
A 1,3,5
B 2,3,5
C 1,4
D 2,5
81) The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :
1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack
is :
A 2,3,4,6
B 1,2,4,5
C 1,3,4,5,6
D 1,2,5,6
82) In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is:

A inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
B proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
C independent to the aircraft true airspeed
D proportional to the aircraft weight
83) Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours.
Those requiring action but not immediately, are
signalled by the colour:
A red
B green
C flashing red
D amber
84) In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best
efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the
mass :
A on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.
B close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
C on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
D close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
85) In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required
to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is
necessary to:
A Determine magnetic or true heading.
B Re-erect laser gyros.
C Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth.
D Check operation of laser gyros.
86) The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer
are:
1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance
2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power

supply
3- the measurement is independent of temperature
variations
4- the option to use without restriction several
indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitter
is:
A 1, 3, 4.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
C 2, 3, 4.
D 1, 2, 4.
87) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic
compass will indicate :
A no apparent turn.
B a heading fluctuating about 270°.
C an apparent turn to the North.
D an apparent turn to the South.
88) The static pressure error of the static vent on which the
altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:
A Mach number of the aircraft
B deformation of the aneroid capsule
C aircraft altitude
D static temperature
89) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If
the total temperature increases, the Mach number :
A decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the
standard temperature, increases if lower.

B remains constant.
C increases.
D decreases.
78) A stall warning system is based on a measure of :
A airspeed.
B attitude.
C groundspeed.
D aerodynamic incidence.
150) The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a
low pressure fuel pump is:
A a differential capsule.
B an aneroid capsule.
C a bellows sensor.
D a Bourdon tube.
139) In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet
any vibration produced by the engine is :
A directly proportional to engine speed.
B fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or
filtering.
C amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit
indicator.
D inversely proportional to engine speed.
140) In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static
pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate
emergency means for restoring a practically correct
static pressure intake :
A breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window
B slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in
the cabin
C descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure
as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible
D calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the
altitude and QNH and adjusting the instruments
141) The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true
airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3
degrees, indicates :
A - 250 ft/min
B - 500 ft/min.
C - 300 ft/min
D - 150 ft/min
142) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI)
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will:
A continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time
of the blockage
B under-read
C over-read
D read zero
143) When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
classic artificial horizon :
A too much nose-up and bank too high.
B too much nose-up and bank too low.
C attitude and bank correct.
D too much nose-up and bank correct.
144) A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by a :
A red full circle.
B red full square.
C blue or white full lozenge.
D blue or white empty lozenge.
145) The operating principle of the "induction" type of
tachometer is to measure the:
A magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
B rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an
alternator.
C electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an
alternator.
D frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched
wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
146) Given :
- Ts the static temperature (SAT)
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)
- Kr the recovery coefficient
- M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately
by the formula :
A Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
B Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
C Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
D Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²)
147) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball
indicator are on the right, the aircraft is :
A turning left with too much bank
B turning left with not enough bank
C turning right with too much bank

D turning right with not enough bank
113) In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are
used, the system is considered:
A "fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.
C "fail hard" or with failure effect and disconnection.
D "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always
ensured.
149) The mach number is the:
A corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of
sound
B indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound
C equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of
sound
D true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
136) When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet
transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and autothrottle
(ATS) systems the:
A indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autothrottle
system.
B indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the
autopilot by means of elevator.
C true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot
by means of elevator.
D true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autothrottle
system.
151) A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal
from :
A the flux valve.

B the air-data-computer.
C a direct reading magnetic compass.
D the flight director.
152) Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :
1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director
Bars.
2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary
Flight Display).
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.
is :
A 1, 4.
B 1, 2.
C 2, 3.
D 3, 4.
153) The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control
channel may be defined as the relationship between the
A crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses
(returned to the airplane).
B computer input deviation data and the output control
deflection signals.
C computer input deviation data and the signals received by
the servoactuators.
D input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively
control deviation data and control deflection signals.
154) The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator
(VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change

of:
A Total pressure
B Kinetic pressure
C Static pressure
D Dynamic pressure
155) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance
Systems) is based on the use of :
A air traffic control radar systems
B transponders fitted in the aircraft
C airborne weather radar system
D F.M.S. (Flight Management System)
156) Given :
M is the Mach number
Ts is the static temperature
Tt is the total temperature
A Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)
B Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)
C Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
D Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)
The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10"
atmosphere is:
A 1 013.25 hPa.
B 644.41 hPa.
C 781.85 hPa.
D 942.13 hPa.
158) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder
air, the altimeter will :
A underread.
B be just as correct as before.
C show the actual height above ground.
D overread.
1) Machmeter readings are subject to:
A setting error.
B position pressure error
C density error.
D temperature error.
148) A landing will be considered to be performed in the
AUTOMATIC mode when:
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
until the flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically.
is:
A 1 and 2.
B 2, 3 and 5.
C 1 and 4.
D 3, 4 and 5.
126) On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is

engaged:
A by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles.
B by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer
control panel.
C automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
D if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the
radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selected.
67) The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning
System), are:
1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical
Speed)
2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)
The combination of correct statement is:
A 1,2,5,6,7
B 1,2,5,6,7
C 1,2,3,5,7
D 2,3,4,5,7
116) An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and
heading mode is compulsory:
A for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
B on multipilot airplanes.
C for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
D on airplanes over 5.7 t.
117) (Use the appendix to answer this question)

The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose
down attitude is n°
A4
B1
C2
D3
118) An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in
order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank
the aircraft at an angle of:
A 30°.
B 18°.
C 12°.
D 36°.
119) The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding :
A in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this
point
B in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
C in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
D in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this
point
120) The Altitude Select System:
A Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
B Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
C Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is
approaching selected altitude
D Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained
121) On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator
indicates :
A needle to the right, ball to left
B needle to the right, ball to right
C needle in the middle, ball to right
D needle in the middle, ball to left
122) Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass
flux gate is transmitted to the :
A erecting system.
B heading indicator.
C amplifier.
D error detector.
123) A directional gyro is:
1- a gyroscope free around two axis
2- a gyroscope free around one axis
3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied
direction
4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied
direction
statements is:
A2-4
B2-3
C1-3
D1-4
138) From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance"
functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in:
A monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the
three dimensions of space (path).
B stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre
of gravity.
C monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the
three dimensions of space (path).
D stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the
aerodynamic centre.
125) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter
the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
A height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
B altitude of the aircraft.
C height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any
time.
D height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
137) The stall warning system receives information about the
1- airplane angle of attack
2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 5
D 1, 4
127) VLO is the maximum :
A flight speed with landing gear down.
B speed with flaps extended in a given position.
C cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with
caution.
D speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full
safety.
128) The purpose of the automatic trim is to:
1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control
surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator
2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the
autopilot is disengaged
3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off
within the whole flight envelope
is:
A 1, 2.
B 1, 3.
C 2, 3.
D 1, 2, 3.
129) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed:
A decreases.
B decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if higher.
C remains constant.
D increases.
130) Which one of the following statements is true with
regard to the operation of a Mach trim system :
A It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward
movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic
airspeeds.
B It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.

C It operates over the full aircraft speed range.
D It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.
131) Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only
depends on :
A pressure.
B density.
C temperature.
D temperature and the pressure.
132) The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:
1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply
2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off
3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit
is:
A 1, 3, 4.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
C 1, 2, 4.
D 2, 3, 4.
133) The stick shaker calculator receives the following
informations :
1- mass of the airplane
2- angle of attack
3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude
is:
A 2, 3, 5
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
D 2, 3
134) A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:
A two metal conductors of the same type connected at two
points.
B a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
C a single-wire metal winding.
D two metal conductors of different type connected at one
point.
135) If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers
atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably;
A too high float level.
B fuel of too low volatility.
C ice in induction system.
D leak in pressure gauge line.
114) The altimeter is fed by :
A static pressure
B dynamic pressure
C total pressure
D differential pressure
124) The Mach number is :
A the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at
the altitude considered
B a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the
square root of the absolute temperature
C the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the
altitude considered
D the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic
velocity at the altitude considered
207) The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the
computation of the ratio :
A (Pt + Ps) to Ps
B (Pt - Ps) to Ps
C Pt to Ps
D (Pt - Ps) to Pt
69) The principle of capacitor gauges is based on:
A the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement
exercised on the sensor
B the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line
C the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the
dielectric
D the current variation in a Wheastone bridge
26) The yellow sector of the temperature gauge
corresponds to:
A a forbidden operating range.
B an exceptional operating range.
C a normal operating range.
D a frequent operating range.
27) VLE is the maximum :
A speed authorized in flight
B flight speed with landing gear down
C speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full
safety
D speed with flaps extended in a given position
28) The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head
temperature) probe is the :

A temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its
position in the engine block.
B average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
C temperature of the exhaust gases.
D temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the
outside air temperature is between -5°C and 10°C.
29) The flight data recorder must start data recording
automatically:
A when lining up.
B before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
C when taking-off.
D when the landing gear is retracted.
201) All the last generation aircraft use flight control
systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the
most advanced system ; it can be defined as a:
A global 2-D Flight Management System
B global 3-D Flight Management System
C management system optimized in the vertical plane
D management system optimized in the horizontal plane
202) An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by displaying :
A a yellow full circle.
B a blue or white empty lozenge.
C a blue or white full lozenge.
D a red full square.
203) A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain
hole with the static port open causes the airspeed

indicator to :
A freeze at zero.
B react like an altimeter.
C read a little high.
D read a little low.
204) In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in
addition to the mode display devices, the following
fundamental elements :
1- Airflow valve
2- Sensors
3- Comparators
4- Computers
5- Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators
is:
A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 6
A too much nose-up and bank correct
B too much nose-up and bank too high
C attitude and bank correct
D too much nose-up and bank too low
206) Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro :
A is influenced by temperature
B has a fairly long starting cycle
C consumes a lot of power
D has a longer life cycle
23) The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance
System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general.
TCAS uses for its operation :
A the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
B the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
C the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially
installed on board
D both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and
the ground-based radar echoes
208) The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision
approaches:
1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
2 are of the pulsed type.
3 are of the frequency modulation type.
4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.
The combination of the correct statements is :
A 3, 5
B 3, 4
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 5
209) The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information
dedicated to:
A systems.
B piloting.
C weather situation.
D engines and alarms.
210) The basis properties of a gyroscope are :
1. The gyro's weight.
2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession
A 3,4
B 2,5
C 2,3,5
D 1,3,5
211) The flight director indicates the :
A optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.
B optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a
selected radial.
C path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.
D path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum
distance.
212) An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total
temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
A decreases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature.
B increases.
C decreases.
D remains constant.

An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR
radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in
the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the
aircraft is :
A located to the leftside of the selected radial.
B located to the rightside of the selected radial.
C experiencing rightside wind.
D experiencing a leftside wind.
214) The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a
pitot tube is the :
A total pressure plus static pressure.
B dynamic pressure.
C total pressure.
D static pressure.
215) A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a
Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This
system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one
shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
is :
A 1,3,4
B 2,5
C 2,3,4,5
D2
216) The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to
coincide the indications of:
A compass north and true north.
B true north and magnetic north.
C compass north and the lubber line.
D compass north and magnetic north.
205) The rate-of-turn is the:
A aircraft speed in a turn
B pitch rate in a turn
C change-of-heading rate of the aircraft
D yaw rate in a turn
13) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the
magnetic compass will indicate :
A a heading fluctuating about 090°.
B an apparent turn to the North.
C an apparent turn to the South.
D no apparent turn.
2) The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are :
A VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
B VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
C VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
D VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
3) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
computer receives information :
1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S
transponder
2- from the radio-altimeter
3- specific to the airplane configuration

4- from the inertial units
is:
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 2
4) The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of
a modern transport airplane receives information about
the:
1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M.
3- configuration
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip
is:
A 1, 2, 3 and 4.
B 1 and 3.
C 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
D 1 and 5.
5) The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic
compass resetting device originates from the:
A directional gyro erection device.
B error detector.
C flux valve.
D directional gyro unit.
6) Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the
following frequency band:

A VLF (Very Low Frequency).
B HF (High Frequency).
C UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
D SHF (Super High Frequency).
7) The magnetic heading can be derived from the true
heading by means of a :
A compass swinging curve
B map showing the isogonal lines
C map showing the isoclinic lines
D deviation correction curve
8) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic
Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
B "traffic advisory" only.
C "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
9) In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the
system which ensures synchronisation :
A intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
B prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the
automatic pilot is disengaged.
C is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
D can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from
being engaged.
10) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-
phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is :
A an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM;
the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which

are then counted
B an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies
the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
C a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the
RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a
magnetic tachometer
D a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain
voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
25) The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel
in a transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges
is that the:
A electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of
the dielectric in which it is immersed.
B capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the
dielectric in which it is immersed.
C internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of
the dielectric in which it is immersed.
D capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its
plates.
12) The autopilot basic modes include, among other things,
the following functions :
1- pitch attitude hold
2- pressure altitude hold
3- horizontal wing hold
4- heading hold
is :
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 3
D 1, 2, 3, 4
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is :
A a turn indicator
B a flux gate compass
C a directional gyro
D an artificial horizon
14) The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of :
A the differential pressure measurement
B the outside temperature
C the static pressure
D the total pressure
15) An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic
pilot :
A and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
up to flare-out
B and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power
C and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
up to ground roll
D ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll
while the human pilot controls the power
16) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those
related to the airplane stabilization are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding

5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding
is:
A 2, 4, and 5.
B 1, 2 and 5.
C 1, 2, 3 and 6.
D 3, 4, 5 and 6.
17) A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a nonpressurized
aircraft to an airspeed indicator would
cause it to:
A under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
B under-read.
C over-read.
D over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
18) An automatic landing system which can keep on
operating without deterioration of its performances
following the failure of one of the autopilots is called
"FAIL...:
A "PASSIVE"
B "SAFE"
C "REDUNDANT"
D "OPERATIONAL"
19) The QNH is by definition the value of the:
A altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the
aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided.
B atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by
the aircraft.
C altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate

the altitude of the location for which it is given.
D atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for
which it is given.
20) At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach
number :
A remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
B remains unchanged when the outside temperature
decreases
C increases when the altitude increases
D decreases when the altitude increases
21) On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a
corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution
advisory":
A asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
B asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
C asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his
aircraft.
D which does not require any action from the pilot but on the
contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed
rate.
22) When being engaged, and without selecting a particular
mode, an automatic pilot enables :
A aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.
B a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
C all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except
maintaining radio-navigation course lines.
D aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining
vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.
11) A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the

horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5
Hz)
3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass
or a directional gyro
4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft
three inertial axis
5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field
indication is less than 0,5%
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
A1-3-4-5
B3-5
C1-4-5
D2-3-5
57) The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow
meters," the most commonly used at the present time, is
to measure across their system the :
A pressure and temperature of the fuel
B volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuel
C volume and viscosity of the fuel
D quantity of fuel movement
46) The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a
gyro stabilised compass system are :
A two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical
to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting
system.
B one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained

in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
C one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the
real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by
an automatic erecting system.
D two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis
corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
47) Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as
much as possible :
A variation.
B regulation.
C acceleration.
D deviation.
48) Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is
in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable
gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis
2. The bank of the aircraft
3. The direction of the aircraft turn
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real
vertical
A 3,4.
B 2,4.
C 1,3.
D 1,2.
49) An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the
crew :
1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude
2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the preselected
altitude (at least by an aural warning)
4- in case of excessive vertical speed
5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted
is :
A 1, 3, 4
B 1, 3
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 2, 4, 5
50) The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a
capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in
weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
A twice that of air and varies inversely with density.
B the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.
C twice that of air and varies directly with density.
D the same as that of air and varies directly with density.
51) A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air
inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :
A airspeed indicator only.
B altimeter only.
C vertical speed indicator only.
D airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
52) During a Category II automatic approach, the height
information is supplied by the :
A encoding altimeter.
B altimeter.
C radio altimeter.
D GPS (Global Positioning System).
53) An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of
045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°.
The compass deviation is O°.
On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error:
A is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably
above 045°.
B will be nul if the wings are kept level.
C will be nul
D is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably
below 045°.
54) With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the
aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :
A decreasing speed.
B constant speed.
C increasing speed.
D fluctuating speed.
217) In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are
engaged, the crew will check the :
A ND (Navigation Display).
B TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
C throttles position.
D PFD (Primary Flight Display)
56) A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on
A a directional gyro.
B a turn indicator.
C a gyromagnetic compass.
D an artificial horizon.
43) The static air temperature (SAT) is :
A a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin
B an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius
C a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin
D a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius
58) A synchroscope is used on aircraft to:
A reduce the vibration of each engine.
B reduce the rpm of each engine.
C achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
D set several engines to the same speed.
The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient
rudder is:
A1
B2
C3
D4
60) A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display
device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance
System) by :
A a blue or white full lozenge.
B a red full square.
C a blue or white empty lozenge.
D an orange full circle.
61) VNE is the maximum speed :
A with flaps extended in landing position
B which must never be exceeded
C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

D at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
62) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those
related to the airplane guidance are:
1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
6- yaw damping
is:
A 1, 2, 3 and 6.
B 1, 3, 4 and 5.
C 3, 4 and 5.
D 1, 2, and 6.
63) A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot
and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the
final approach :
A during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft
comes to a complete stop.
B until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is
automatically disconnected.
C until the flare.
D until reaching decision height.
64) Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means:
A Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning
disappears
B System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will
occur upon capturing center line

C Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
D Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to
capture the centerline
65) The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides :
1- traffic information
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning
is:
A1
B 1, 2
C 1, 2, 3
D 1, 2, 3, 4
66) If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System)
activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning
"DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because :
A during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft
has started to loose altitude.
B the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the
terrain, with landing gear retracted.
C at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of
descent.
D the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain,
without landing-flap selected.
55) A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides:
A a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

B the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and
horizontal planes.
C the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane
only.
D the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
33) Different pressure sensors are used according to the
intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or
high)
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing
pressure for which they are suitable :
1- bellows type
2- Bourdon tube type
3- aneroid capsule type
A 1,2,3
B 3,2,1
C 2,1,3
D 3,1,2
161) Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given
by a gyro at :
A 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis
B 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
C l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
D 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
220) When an automatic landing is interrupted by a goaround
1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot

action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in
order to recover the maximum thrust
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of
the airplane
3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces
the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag
4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the
airplane
5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap
deflection in order to reduce the drag
is:
A 1, 2 and 5.
B 1, 4 and 5.
C 1, 3 and 4.
D 1, 2 and 3.
221) Among the following engine instruments, the one
operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the :
A fuel pressure gauge.
B oil thermometer.
C manifold pressure gauge.
D oil pressure gauge.
222) The indications on a directional gyroscope or
gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:
1- rotation of Earth.
2- aeroplane motion on Earth.
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4- north change.
5- mechanical defects.
Chose the combination with true statements only:
A 1,2,4,5.
B 2,3,5.
C 1,2,3,5.
D 3,4,5.
223) The total air temperature (TAT) is always :
A lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the
altitude.
B higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the
Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
C higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending
on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS).
D higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the
altitude.
224) The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is
to measure the:
A magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
B frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched
wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
C electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an
alternator.
D rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an
alternator.
225) The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by :
A total pressure
B differential pressure
C static pressure
D dynamic pressure
226) For this question use annex (022-10179A)

Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented
in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the
optimal interception path calculated by a flight director
is number :
A4
B3
C2
D1
30) The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator
tachometer are:
1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C.
generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value
3- the independence of the information in relation to the
airborne electrical power supply
4- the ease of transmission of the information
is:
A 1, 3.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
C 2, 3, 4.
D 2, 4.
45) A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer
indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is :
A 135°.
B Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
C 315°.
D 225°.
32) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)
generates the following sound signal or signals when
the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
A WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
B DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL
UP
C DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if
the sink rate overshoots a second level
D DON'T SINK repetitive only
44) Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:
A of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose
B in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading
C due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly
headings
D due to Schüler type oscillations
34) The response time of a vertical speed detector may be
increased by adding a:
A bimettalic strip
B return spring
C second calibrated port
D correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
35) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If
the total temperature decreases, the Mach number :
A remains constant.
B increases.
C decreases.
D increases if the outside temperature is higher than the
standard temperature, decreases if lower.

36) The command bars of a flight director are generally
represented on an:
A RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
B ILS (Instrument Landing System)
C ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)
D HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
37) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading
with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of :
A 170°
B 190°
C 210°
D 150°
38) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft,
having been granted an airworthiness certificate after
1st April 1998, shall start recording :
A Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the
moment when the wheels touch the ground again.
B From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until
radio shutdown after the flight.
C When the pilot selects the "CVR: ON" during engine start
until the pilot selects the "CVR: OFF" during the engine shut
down.
D Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own
power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer
able to move under its own power.
39) The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted

altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure
altimeter is the use of:
A a sub-scale logarithmic function
B an induction pick-off device
C more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
D combination of counters/pointers
40) In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data
recorder is to be located in the aircraft :
A as near to the landing gear as practicable
B at the right or left wing tip
C as far to the rear as practicable
D as far forward as practicable
41) Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-
Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and
instrumental) error :
A The true airspeed
B The airspeed, whatever the altitude
C The equivalent airspeed, in all cases
D The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases
42) The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board
instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The
causes of this inaccuracy are :
1. The earth's rotation
2. The longitudinal acceleration
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro
5. The gyro's weight
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings

A 1,3,4
B 1,2,3,4,5,6
C 2,5,6
D 1,3,4,6
218) The flight data recorder must automatically stop data
recording when the:
A landing gear is extended and locked.
B airplane clears the runway.
C airplane cannot any longer move by its own power.
D main gear shock strut compresses when touching the
runway.
31) The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft
comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue
line corresponds to the :
A optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy
B speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
C minimum control speed, or VMC
D maximum speed in operations, or VMO
315) On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:
A density altitude
B temperature altitude
C standard altitude
D pressure altitude
280) The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:
A a circular magnet with four poles.
B the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.
C the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.
D a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
305) If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the

capacitor gauges indicate:
A a mass equal to zero.
B a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.
C a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.
D the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.
306) The float type fuel gauges provide information on:
A volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel.
B volume whose indication is independent of the temperature
of the fuel.
C mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel.
D mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of
the fuel.
307) When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a
magnetic compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning
onto a southerly heading it tends to "overshoot":
1)these compass indications are less reliable in the
northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.
2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are
not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.
3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction
of the compass.
4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung
compass.
The correct statements are :
A 1 and 3.
B 2 and 3.
C 1, 2, and 4.
D 2, 3, and 4.
308) The pendulum type detector system of the directional
gyro feeds :
A 2 torque motors arranged horizontally
B a levelling erection torque motor
C a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring
D a torque motor on the sensitive axis
309) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to
the indicated airspeed (IAS) :
A a compressibility and density correction.
B an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
C an antenna and compressibility correction.
D and instrument and density correction.
310) The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are :
1- the design is complex
2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude
variations
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
4- the indications are influenced by temperature
variations
5- that an alternative current supply is necessary
is :
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C1
D 2, 3, 4
311) The advantages of an electric float gauge are:
1- ease of manufacture
2- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a ratiometer
3- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a galvanometer
4- independence of the indication relative to temperature
variations
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4
B 1, 3, 4
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 4
312) The position of a Flight Director command bars:
A enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
B only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
C indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain
a flight situation.
D repeats the ADI and HSI information
303) During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
A no apparent turn.
B an apparent turn to the East.
C an apparent turn to the West.
D a heading fluctuating about 180°.
314) On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the
preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution
advisory":
A asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
B that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the
current vertical rate but does not require any change to be
made to that rate.
C asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his
aircraft.
D asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
302) The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :
A stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane
centre of gravity.
B monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.
C guiding the airplane path.
D stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane
aerodynamic centre.
316) The stall warning system of a large transport airplane
includes:
1- an angle of attack sensor
2- a computer
3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system
is:
A 1, 2, 4, 5.
B 1, 2, 5.
C 1, 2, 4.
D 1, 4.
317) The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric
signal varying with:

1- the angular position of a wind vane
2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and
the path calculated by the inertial unit
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the
variation of the angle of attack
is:
A 1.
B 2 and 3.
C 1 and 3.
D 1, 2 and 3.
318) When descending through an isothermal layer at a
constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed
(TAS) will:
A increase at a linear rate
B remain constant
C increase at an exponential rate
D decrease
319) The essential components of a flight director are :
1- a computer
2- an automatic pilot
3- an autothrottle
4- command bars
A 1,2
B 2,4
C 2,3
D 1,4
320) For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic

heading, the flight director computer takes into account:
1- track deviation
2- rate of track closure
3- rate of change of track closure
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit
is :
A 1,3,4
B 1,2,3
C 1,2,4
D 2,3,4
321) Indication of Mach number is obtained from:
A A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with
indicated speed
B Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS)
from the air data computer
C Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator
equipped with an altimeter type aneroid
D An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers
instead of knots
322) The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to :
A tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required
B trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation
C control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load
D help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence
323) The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a
moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer
indicates the:
A maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude

B maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature
C speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus
temperature
D speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus
altitude
324) A vibration indicator receives a signal from different
sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the :
A vibration frequency expressed in Hz
B vibration period expressed in seconds
C vibration amplitude at a given frequency
D acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g
313) On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed
propeller, the RPM indicator enables :
A selection of engine RPM.
B on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine
synchronisation.
C control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller
RPM.
D control of power.
292) An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with
crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode
(heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the
vertical trend bar :
A deviates to the right and remains in that position until the
aircraft has reached heading 360°.
B disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the
HDG mode.
C deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more
than 10° off the new selected heading.

D deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll
the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.
159) A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm
connected to :
A a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor
subjected to a static pressure.
B a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure
and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.
C a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic
pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static
pressure.
D a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor
subjected to dynamic pressure.
282) In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic
compass on the northern hemisphere is:
A none on a 090° heading in a right turn.
B equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.
C equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.
D none on a 270° heading in a left turn.
283) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a
proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when
the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :
A DME system
B serviceable SSR transponder
C serviceable weather radar
D SELCAL system
284) The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears
in the form of:
A a bell type warning.

B control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.
C an orange light on the warning display.
D a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated
buffeting.
285) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active
for a height range from:
A 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
B 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
C 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
D 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
286) In order to measure temperature the cylinder head
temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a :
A ratiometer circuit.
B bourdon tube.
C thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.
D wheatstone bridge circuit.
287) Landing shall be considered as having been carried out
automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of
an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew :
A at the decision height.
B at the outer marker.
C during ground roll.
D during the flare.
288) In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a
bank attitude input :
A proportional to the deviation between the selected heading
and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.
B of a fixed value equal to 27°.
C of a fixed value equal to 20°.

D proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a
given value.
289) In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot,
automatic trimming is normally effected about the :
A roll and yaw axes only.
B pitch roll and yaw axes.
C pitch and roll axes only.
D pitch axis only.
304) With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield
altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same :
A equivalent airspeed.
B calibrated airspeed.
C ground speed.
D true airspeed.
291) A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of
turn.
Rate of turn depends upon :
1 : bank angle
2 : aeroplane speed
3 : aeroplane weight
The combination regrouping the correct statements is :
A 2 and 3.
B 1, 2, and 3.
C 1 and 2.
D 1 and 3.
327) During deceleration following a landing in Northerly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
A an apparent turn to the West.
B a heading fluctuating about 360°.

C no apparent turn.
D an apparent turn to the East.
293) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball
indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:
A turning left with too much bank
C turning right with too much bank
294) An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold,"
the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the subscale
of his altimeter the:
A aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes
its pressure information from the static source
B aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes
its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to
standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa
C aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the
autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter
D mode altitude hold will disengage
295) The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator
tachometer are:
1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C.
generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer
information
is:
A 2.
B 1, 2, 3.
C 1, 2.
D 1, 3.
296) The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro
assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
A 1C, 2B, 3A
B 1B, 2A, 3C
C 1A, 2B, 3C
D 1B, 2C, 3A
297) In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer
indicator :
1- the transmitter is a direct current generator
2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive
speed
4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous
motor driving a magnetic tachometer
is:
A 2, 5
B 1, 4
C 3, 5
D 1, 2
298) A landing will be considered to be performed in the
SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
until the flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically.
is:
A 1 and 2.
B 3, 4 and 5.
C 1 and 4.
D 2, 3 and 5.
299) The aim of the flight director is to provide information to
the pilot:
A about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.
B allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45°
intercept angle.
C allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30°
intercept angle.
D allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.

300) An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total
temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
A decreases.
B increases.
C remains constant.
D increases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, decreases if higher.
301) The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is
subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement
of the aircraft.
This error...
A is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional
track
B shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of
the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15° per hour to the
right in the northern hemisphere
C is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true
track and the average latitude of the flight
D is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected
290) The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by
capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle
of these sensors is to measure the :
A height of the fuel
B volume of the fuel
C charge of condensors
D di-electric resistivity of the fuel
362) The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local
vertical when it is located :

A on the equator
B in the latitude 30°
C in the latitude 45°
D on the North pole
351) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System)
releases a warning in the following cases :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 3, 4, 5, 6
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 2, 4, 5, 6
352) When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the
automatic trim is to:
A react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
B synchronize the longitudinal loop
C relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at
A.P. disconnect
D relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the
aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
353) The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the
pilot, while still looking outside, to have:
A a flying and flight path control aid.

B a monitoring of engine data.
C a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches.
D a synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
354) The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a
transport airplane has the following mode(s) :
1- capture and holding of speeds
2- capture and holding of Mach number
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power
Ratio)
5- capture and holding of flight paths
is :
A 1, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 5
D 2, 4
355) In an average or heavy weight transport airplane,
generally, the fuel quantity is measured by "capacitor"
gauges because these give :
1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature
variations
2- indications almost independent of the airplane's
attitude and accelerations
3- indications expressed in density
is:
A 1, 2, 3
B2
C 1, 3
D 1, 2
356) An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the
functions of:
A navigation.
B piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the
human pilot.
C piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and
vertical planes.
D piloting only.
357) The gyromagnetic compass torque motor :
A causes the heading indicator to precess
B feeds the error detector system
C is fed by the flux valve
D causes the directional gyro unit to precess
358) The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio
altimeter is:
A 5 GHz.
B 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
C 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
D 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
359) At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in
feet from indicated must not exceed :
A +/-70 feet
B +/-60 feet
C +/-75 feet
D +/-30 feet
325) The advantages provided by an air data computer to
indicate the altitude are :

1. Position/pressure error correction
2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in
the event of a failure
A 1,2,3,4
B 2,3,4
C 1,2,3
D 1,3,4
361) The command functions of an autopilot include, among
others, the holding of :
1- vertical speed
2- altitude
3- attitude
4- bank
5- heading
statements is :
A3-5
B2-3-4
C1-2-5
D1-2-3-5
348) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the
calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
A independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
B higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
C lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
D equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

363) A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude
warning device. This system will warn the crew about :
1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both
climb and descent.
2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb
only.
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed
approach.
4 - a wrong landing configuration.
5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
A2
B 1,3,4
C 1,5
D 3,4
364) A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
A Only works of there is a complete electrical failure
B Contains its own separate gyro
C Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the
alternator fails
D Is fully independent of external energy resources in an
emergency situation
365) During a climb after take-off from a contaminated
runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed
indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated
airspeed :
A increases steadily
B increases abruptly towards VNE
C decreases stadily
D decreases abruptly towards zero
366) The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring
system is based on the use of:
A 2 high and low frequency filters.
B a frequency converter.
C 2 accelerometers.
D 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
367) The correction of the control surface deflection made by
the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude
will be all the more significant when the :
1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the
given or reference altitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high.
2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude
necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous
attitude is high.
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
instantaneous altitude is high.
4 - variation speed of the difference between the
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.
A 1, 2 and 3.
B 1, 2, 3 and 4.
C 1 and 2.
D 3 and 4.
368) The capacity fuel gauges provide information:
A which is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
B which varies with the temperature of the fuel.
C on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature

of the fuel.
D on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel.
369) When climbing at a constant Mach number below the
tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed
(CAS) will:
A increase at an exponential rate
B decrease
C increase at a linear rate
D remain constant
370) An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
A decreases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if above.
B increases.
C decreases.
D remains constant.
371) Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude
and bank, the artificial horizon indicates :
A too high pitch up and too high banking
B too high pitch-up and too low banking
C too high pitch-up and correct banking
D attitude and banking correct
360) The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to
trim out the hinge moment of the :
A elevator(s)
B rudder(s)
C elevator(s) and rudder(s)

D elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
338) An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed :
A remains constant.
B decreases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if higher.
C decreases.
D increases.
279) At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed
(CAS) :
A decreases when the altitude increases
B increases when the altitude increases
C remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
D remains unchanged when the outside temperature
decreases
328) A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:
A smoke detectors
B turbine temperature probes
C pressure sensors
D vibration detectors
329) The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical
by 15°/hour :
A in the latitude 30°
B in the latitude 45°
C on the equator
D on the North pole
330) The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator
are :
A VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
B VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
C VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
D VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
331) The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot
takes place :
A according to an interception versus range and angular
B at a constant heading
C at a constant magnetic course
D according to an interception versus radio deviation law
332) The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning
System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height
into account as well as :
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm
A 2,3
B 1,3
C 1,2,4
D 2,4
333) The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:
1 - with one degree of freedom.
2 - with two degrees of freedom
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return
springs.
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
pitch axis.
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
yawing axis.
6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.
is:
A 1-3-4
B 2-5
C 1-6
D 1-3
334) A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :
1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew
2. the conversations between the crew members and
voice communications transmitted from or received on
the flight deck by radio
3. the announcements made via the public address even
if it has not been selected
4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit
5. the captain conversations only
is :
A 2, 4
B 3, 4
C 1, 2
D 1, 5
335) In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally
measured with :
1- resistance thermometers
2- thermocouple thermometers
3- reactance thermometers
4- capacitance thermometers
5- mercury thermometers
is :
A 1, 2
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 3
350) A radio altimeter can be defined as a :
A self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true
altitude of the aircraft
B ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the
aircraft
C ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the
aircraft
D self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height
of the aircraft
337) A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates
automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with
aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope
is:
A 1,2 and 4.
B 3, 4, 5 and 6.
C 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
D 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
349) In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the
magnetic compass will indicate :
A an apparent turn to the South.
C a constant heading.
339) The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:
1- easy transmission of the information.
2- independence of the information relative to the
airborne electrical power supply.
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the
commutator.
is:
A 1, 3.
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 2, 3.
340) A thermocouple can be made of:
A a three wire coil.
B a single wire coil.
C two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two
points.
D two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at
two points.
341) The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are
A VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
B VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
C VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
D VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
342) The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:
1- a specific dedicated screen
2- a screen combined with the weather radar
3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen
which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)
4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen
is:
A 3 and 4.
B 1 and 3.
C 1, 2, 3 and 4.
D 1, 2 and 3.
343) In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement
(above the ground) is based upon:
A a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission
and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.
B a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by
DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.
C a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which
modulation phase shift between transmitted and received
waves after ground reflection is measured.
D a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency

variation between the transmitted wave and the received
wave after ground reflection is measured.
344) The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures
the :
A "static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in
order to obtain the total temperature.
B "total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order
to obtain the static temperature.
C "static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order
to obtain the total temperature.
D "total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order
to obtain the static temperature.
345) For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the
005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the
directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:
A +5°/hour
B -5°/hour
C depends only on the aircraft's ground speed
D 0°/hour
346) The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :
1- aircraft attitude
2- accelerations
3- atmospheric pressure
4- temperature
A4
B 1,2
C 1,2,4
D 1,2,3,4
347) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator
is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is:
A turning right with too much bank
C turning left with too much bank
326) The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator
is equipped with a gyro with :
A 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis
B 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
C 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
D 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
336) The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following
modes :
1- excessive descent rate
2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
4- too high descent attitude
5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
7- excessive glidepath deviation
is:
A 2,3,5,7
B 1,2,5,6,7
C 1,2,4,6,7
D 3,4,5,6
196) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the

total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
A remains constant.
B increases.
C decreases.
D increases if the static temperature is higher than the
standard temperature, decreases if lower.
281) The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure
sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:
A the dynamic pressure
B the total pressure
C the static pressure
D the total pressure and the static pressure
186) The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature
indicator is that it:
A carries out an independent measurement of the supply
voltage.
B is simple.
C can operate without an electrical power supply.
D is very accurate.
187) A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures :
A absolute airpressure entering the carburettor.
B fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.
C vacuum in the carburettor.
D absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.
188) Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :
A the effects of temperature variation during a climb or
descent at constant Mach
B weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the
cruise
C backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by
moving the elevator to nose-up
D the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the
tank located in the horizontal tail
189) On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are
displayed on the:
A upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C
Management).
B control panel of the flight director only.
C upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
D upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
190) Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data,
cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be
recorded during at least:
A 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and
warnings horns.
B 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and
warnings horns.
C 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and
warnings horns
D 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and
warnings horns.
191) If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked
during a climb, the instrument will:
A gradually return to zero
B continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage
occured
C under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the
time that the instrument became blocked

D over-read
A too much nose-up and bank too high
B too much nose-up and bank too low
C attitude and bank correct
D too much nose-up and bank correct
193) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
transponder without altitude reporting capability, the
TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :
A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
B "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
C "traffic advisory" only.
D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
184) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives
avoidance resolutions :
A only in the horizontal plane
B in horizontal and vertical planes
C based on speed control
D only in the vertical plane
degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a :
A turn indicator
B gyromagnetic compass
C fluxgate compass
D directional gyro
183) A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself
automatically:
A at approximately 100 ft.
B at the decision height.
C on ground.
D when going around.
197) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft
having been granted the airworthiness certificate after
1st April 1998 will record:
1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or
received by the cockpit crew
2- the audio environment of the cockpit
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via
the interphone
4- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the interphone
5- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the public address system
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or
approach aids
A 1,3,4,5
B 1,2,4,5,6
C 1,2,3,4,5,6
D1
198) The correction of the control surface deflection made by
the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the
longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as
the :
1- difference between the reference attitude and the

instantaneous attitude is high.
2- rate of change of the difference between the reference
attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
3- temperature is low.
4- pressure altitude is high.
is:
A 1,2.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 2, 3, 4.
199) Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer
is presented in the form of command bars on the
following instrument:
A BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
B RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
C HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
D ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
200) A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in
1. An inertial attitude unit
2. An automatic pilot
3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
5. A rate-of-turn indicator
A 2,3,4.
B 1,4.
C 1,2,3,4,5.
D 2,3,5.
227) In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn
consists for :
A low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate
B high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rate
C high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate
D low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate
After having programmed your flight director, you see
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director
Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the
appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars
indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :
A increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the symbolic airplane.
B decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the symbolic airplane.
C increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the horizon.
D decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the horizon.
229) VNO is the maximum speed :
A at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
B with flaps extended in landing position.
C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
D which must never be exceeded.
230) Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro",
the error due to the earth rotation make the north
reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude
of 45°N, this reference turns by...

A 15°/hour to the right.
B 7.5°/hour to the right.
C 7.5°/hour to the left.
D 10.5°/hour to the right.
231) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a
magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is :
A a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the
indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic
tachometer
B a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple
voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
C an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies
the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
D an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM;
the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which
are then counted
194) An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
A Measures position error in the static system and transmits
this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting
B Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses
driving servo motors in instruments
C Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in
the event that the static source is blocked
D Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the
ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed
information
173) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an
atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the
aircraft are warm is:

A equal to the standard altitude.
B higher than the real altitude.
C the same as the real altitude.
D lower than the real altitude.
162) While inertial platform system is operating on board an
aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following
characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a
pendulous system:
A with damping and a period of 84 seconds
B with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
C without damping and a period of about 84 minutes
D without damping and a period of about 84 seconds
163) The voice recorder records on four different channels
the following information:
1- aural warnings
2- radio communications
3- conversations between the crew members through
the cockpit interphone
4- announcements to the passengers
is:
A 1, 4.
B 1, 2, 3.
C 1, 2, 3, 4.
D 1, 3.
164) The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft
is based on:
A frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
B amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

C pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
D a combination of frequency modulation and pulse
modulation.
165) The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed
expressed in :
A calibrated airspeed (CAS).
B equivalent airspeed (EAS).
C true airspeed (TAS).
D computed airspeed (COAS).
166) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with
10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading
compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of :
A 030°
B 355°
C 330°
D 015°
167) The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase
voltage
A 1,2,3
B 1,2,3,4
C 2,3,4
D 1,4
168) A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a

conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in
roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot
will :
A maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that
moment.
B restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the
autopilot control display unit.
C maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
D roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that
moment.
169) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with
20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading
compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of :
A 200°
B 170°
C 190°
D 160°
170) A laser gyro consists of :
A 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)
B a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
C two moving cavities provided with mirrors
D a laser generating two light waves
185) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud
which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the
airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
A increases abruptly towards VNE
B increases steadily
C decreases abruptly towards zero
D decreases steadily
172) During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains
a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) :
A The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS)
is constant.
B The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS)
decreases.
C The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS)
increases.
D The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is
constant.
234) The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:
A current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.
B capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried
out on the sensor.
C flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.
D capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of
dielectric.
174) The flight data recorders must preserve the
conversation and aural warnings of the last :
A 25 hours of operation
B flight
C 48 hours of operation
D 30 minutes of operation
175) The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a
gas turbine engined powerplant is:
A a differential capsule.
B a Bourdon tube.
C a bellows sensor.
D an aneroid capsule.
176) The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:
A controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
B controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical
axis as the input signal.
C controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical
axis as the input signal.
D controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
177) A closed loop control system in which a small power
input controls a much larger power output in a strictly
proportionate manner is known as :
A a servomechanism.
B an amplifier.
C a feedback control circuit.
D an autopilot.
178) The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides :
1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4- ground proximity warning
is:
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 3
D 1, 2
179) The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is

due to the action of :
A the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the
hard iron pieces
B the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field
C the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces
D the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field
180) The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not
modified if one or several intermediate metals are
inserted in the circuit provided that:
A contact points are maintained at equal temperature between
these different metals.
B these metals are not the same as those constituting the
thermocouple.
C these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than
that of the cold source.
D these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than
that of the cold source.
181) The data supplied by a radio altimeter:
A concerns only the decision height.
B is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
C is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
D indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
182) The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:
1. a microphone
2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire
resistance standards
3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder

is:
A 1, 2
B 1, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 4
171) For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level
flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a:
A lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
B lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
C higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
D higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
269) The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the :
A influence of temperature on the indication.
B high influence of line resistance on the indication.
C necessity of providing a power supply source.
D generation of spurious signals at the commutator.
258) An automatic landing system necessitating that the
landing be continued manually in the case of a system
failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
A "PASSIVE"
B "OPERATIONAL"
C "SAFE"
D "REDUNDANT"
259) Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance
System) :
A No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a
serviceable SSR transponder
B In one of the system modes, the warning : "TOO LOW
TERRAIN" is generated
C In one of the system modes, the warning : "PULL UP" is
generated
D Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without
obtaining clearance from ATC
260) The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the
deviation of a magnetic compass :
A on a given heading
B at any latitude
C at a given latitude
D on any heading
261) In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when
main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it
is necessary to:
A compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above
the ground and coaxial cables length.
B account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a
correction factor to the reading.
C place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
D change the display scale in short final, in order to have a
precise readout.
262) The heading information originating from the
gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the:
A erector system.
B heading indicator.
C amplifier.
D error detector.
263) Considering the maximum operational Mach number
(MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the
captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from

a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of
arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at
any time of the descent. He will be limited :
A initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight
level
B by the MMO
C by the VMO in still air
D initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight
level
264) In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static
pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:
A overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and
displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
B overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and
displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
C keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations
D underreads the altitude.
265) A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when
mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all
cases generate :
A a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be
B at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be
added
C a sound alarm or a visual alarm
D a sound and visual alarm
266) The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the
effect of :
A the aircraft's track over the earth
B a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft

C an apparent weight and an apparent vertical
D too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring
232) VFE is the maximum speed :
A with the flaps extended in take-off position.
B with the flaps extended in a given position.
C with the flaps extended in landing position.
D at which the flaps can be operated.
268) The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are :
1- easy construction
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane
attitude
3- independence of indications with regard to the
accelerations
4- independence of indications with regard to
temperature variations
5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D1
255) The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch
channel. Its function is to:
A automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an
excessive pitch up.
B transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot
disengagement.
C reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).

D set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging
the autopilot.
270) The synchronization of the autopilot control channel
system :
1- enables the prevention of jerks during
disengagement
2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes
is:
A 2, 3
B 3, 4
C 2, 4
D 1, 4
271) When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch
channel automatic trim is to:
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator
2- ease as much as possible the load of the servoactuator
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane
during the autopilot disengagement
is:
A 1 and 2.
B 1, 2 and 3.
C 3.
D 1 and 3.
272) The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic
heading by reference to a:
A map showing the isogonic lines
B compass swinging curve
C map showing the isoclinic lines
D deviation correction curve
273) The heading reference unit of a three-axis data
generator is equipped with a gyro with:
A 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
B 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis
C 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
D 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
274) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is
carried out by:
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a
constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant
calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path
holding mode
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding
mode
is:
A 1 and 4.
B 2 and 4.
C 1 and 3.
D 2 and 3.
275) If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear
retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground
Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is

detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of
descent, the system provides the following aural
warning signals :
A "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"
B "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP
PULL UP" (twice)
C "TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW
GEAR" (twice)
D "SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP
PULL UP" (twice)
276) The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator
System are :
1- Mach Meter indication
2- Angle of Attack
3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)
is :
A 2,3
B 1,4
C 1,2
D 2,4
277) The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency
of 4400 MHz is the :
A primary radar.
B radio altimeter.
C high altitude radio altimeter.
D weather radar.
278) The density altitude is :

A the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density
prevailing at this point
B the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this
point
C the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density
is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere
D the temperature altitude corrected for the difference
between the real temperature and the standard temperature
267) The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators:
A shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.
B moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and
remains positioned at the maximum value that has been
reached.
C shows the limit value not to be exceeded.
D allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted
during take-off.
245) If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the
local speed of sound is :
A 247 kt.
B 307 kt.
C 686 kt.
D 596 kt.
372) A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light
twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of
the automatic pilot is at least to hold the:
A heading and to hold the altitude
B heading
C altitude
D heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking
function
235) Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate
of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data
recording system must be able to store the recorded
data for a minimum of the last :
A 30 minutes.
B 60 minutes.
C 25 hours.
D 10 hours.
236) The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
A reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
B inform the crew of a failure of the instrument
C allow damping of the measurement in the unit
D reduce the hysteresis effect
The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex.
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the
piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of
the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA
c) and the:
A offset EPSILON at the computer input.
B pilot command E.
C aircraft response S.
D real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface
feedback).
238) The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth
rotation is:
A 15°/hour
B 90°/hour
C 180°/hour
D 5°/hour
239) When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode,
approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station,
the roll channel of the autopilot :
A remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.
B is temporarily disconnected.
C temporarily switches over to the heading mode.
D is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.
240) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an
atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the
aircraft are cold is :
A lower than the real altitude.
B the same as the real altitude.
C higher than the real altitude.
D equal to the standard altitude.
241) In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is
calculated from:
A Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)
B Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted
to the ground surface and back
C Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static
source on the fuselage
D The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at
the fuselage
242) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine
can include a small red arc within the arc normally used
(green arc)
In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the
A propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
B rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode
C rating is the minimum usable in cruise
D propeller efficency is minimum at this rating
257) At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn
actually consists in measuring the :
A pitch rate of the aircraft
B roll rate of the aircraft
C angular velocity of the aircraft
D yaw rate of the aircraft
244) The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is
corrected by using :
A pairs of permanent magnets
B magnetized needles
C soft iron pieces
D hard iron pieces
256) A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas
turbine engine initially measures:
A volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses
B mass flow by a tally of the impulses
C volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the
rotational speed
D mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the
rotational speed
246) The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid
capsules located in a sealed casing.
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii)

are respectively :
A (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t
B (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure
C (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure
D (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
247) The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight
director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft
holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD:
A is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°
B cannot be centered
C is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading
180°
D is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°
248) A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force
between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a
thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature
values provided that the temperature of the:
A cold junction is maintained constant.
B hot junction is maintained constant.
C cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.
D hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.
249) The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas
temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are:
A based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is
measured.
B based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases
linearly with temperature.
C capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with
temperature.
D thermocouples.
250) The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the
forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal
indicating:
1- the angular position of a wind vane
2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the angle of attack
3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the speed
is:
A 1, 3.
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 2, 3.
251) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by :
A dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine
discharge pressure.
B multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge
pressure.
C multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet
pressure.
D dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet
pressure.
252) The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the :
A high pressure turbine outlet.
B combustion chamber outlet.
C combustion chamber intake.

D high pressure chamber intake.
253) During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft
the:
A Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the
airplane carries on its descent until landing.
B autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio
altimeter height.
C glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues
its descent until landing.
D autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the
radio altimeter height.
254) When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the
mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel :
A pressure.
B dielectrical constant.
C density.
D temperature.
233) The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge
corresponds to:
A a special operating range.
B a normal operating range.
C an exceptional operating range.
D a forbidden operating range.
243) In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic
compass will indicate :
A an apparent turn to the South.
C no apparent turn.

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CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

ATPL QUESTION BANK

AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

169) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

A high pressure and small flow.

B small pressure and large flow.

C small pressure and small flow.

D high pressure and large flow.

177) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an

emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats

1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight

time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than

2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight

time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than

10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.

3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to

fly up to 25000 ft.

4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly

at over 25000 ft.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements

176) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one

manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located

175) Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually

operate with a system pressure of approximately:

174) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A leading edge flaps close to the wing root

B trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

C trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip

D leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

173) The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following

172) Under normal running conditions a magneto draws

A from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

B from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.

C from the booster coil.

D directly from the aircraft batteries.

197) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps

of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the

170) The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an

A isolate all components electrically and thus make the static

B provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.

C provide a single earth for electrical devices.

D prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of

180) The purpose of a ditching control is to:

A close the outflow valve(s).

B achieve rapid depressurisation.

C open the outflow valve(s).

D direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

168) In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the

hydraulic system is used :

A for pressure storage.

B as a pressure relief valve.

C for damping pressure surges in the system.

D for fluid storage.

167) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is

controlled by regulating the:

A Bleed air valve.

B Airflow leaving the cabin.

C Airflow entering the cabin.

D RPM of the engine.

166) In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:

C hard disk drive

165) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to

provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also

limitations) and on the ground :