CHAMP-2024

Question Practice Session

CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 01
Syllabus : Mole Concept

1. Calculate the temporary and permanent hardness of water sample having the following constituents per
litre:
Ca(HCO3)2 = 162 mg, MgCl2 = 95mg, NaCl = 585mg, Mg(HCO3)2 = 73mg, CaSO4 = 136mg
(A) 200 ppm, 150 ppm (B) 100 ppm, 150 ppm
(C) 150 ppm, 200 ppm (D) 150 ppm, 150 ppm
2. Which of the following can be used as a secondary titrant?
(A) sodium carbonate (B) sodium tetraborate
(C) potassium hydrogenphthalate (D) potassium permanganate
3. A sample of pure KHC2O4 .H2C2O4 .2H2O requires 30 mol of NaOH for titration. How many moles of

KMnO4 will the same sample react with, in acid medium?

4. How many of the following are temperature independent terms.
Density, Normality %w/v, Molarity, mass, volume, molality, mole fraction, vapour density of a gas.
W
5. A solution of glucose in water is labelled as 10 percent . If the density of the solution is 1.2gmL1 , if
W
the molarity of the solution is X then 3X is:

6. The number of moles of Cr2O7 2 needed to oxidise 0.136 equivalent of N2H5 through the reaction:

N2H5  Cr2O72 
N2  Cr 3  H2O is:
(A) 0.0226 (B) 0.087 (C) 0.136 (D) 0.488
7. An unknown oxide of manganese is reacted with carbon to form manganess metal and CO 2. Exactly
31.6g of the oxide, MnxOy, yielded 13.2g of CO2. The simplest formula of the oxide is (Mn = 55) :
(A) MnO (B) MnO2 (C) Mn2O3 (D) Mn3O4
8. Which of the following reaction is non-redox?

(A) 2NaNO3 
 2NaNO2  O2

(B) KCl  NaNO3 

KNO3  NaCl

(C) Fe  H2SO4 
 FeSO4  H2


 4 Ag  CN2  4OH
(D) 4Ag  8CN  O2  H2O  
9. The ratio of coefficient of HNO3 , Fe(NO3 )2 and NH4NO3 in the following redox reaction

 Fe NO3 2  NH4NO3  H2O

Fe  HNO3 

are respectively
(A) 10 : 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 10 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 : 10 (D) 10 : 4 : 1

PAGE # 1
10. A person needs on average of 2.0 mg of riboflavin (vitamin B2) per day. How many grams of butter
should be taken by the person per day if it is the only source of riboflavin? Butter contains 5.5 g
riboflavin per g.
(A) 363.6g (B) 2.75 mg (C) 11 g (D) 19.8 g
11. A quantity of 0.2 g of an organic compound containing, C, H and O, on combustion yielded 0.147 g CO 2
and 0.12 g water. The percentage of oxygen in it is:
(A) 73.29% (B) 78.45% (C) 83.23% (D) 89.50%
12. What is the percentage of ‘free SO3’ in a sample of oleum labelled as ‘104.5%’?
(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 80%
13. Which of the following have been arranged in order of decreasing oxidation number of sulphur?

(A) H2S2O7  Na2S4O6  Na2S2O3  S8 (B) SO2  SO24  SO32  HSO4

(C) H2SO5  H2SO3  SCl2  H2S (D) H2SO4  SO2  H2S  H2S2O8

14. Equivalent weight of K2CrO4 , when it reacts with AgNO3 to give Ag2CrO4 , is

M M
(A) infinite (B) M (C) (D)
2 3
15. H2O2 disproportionates into H2O and O2. The equivalent weight of H2O2 in this reaction is:

(A) 34 (B) 17 (C) 68 (D) 8.5

16. Equal volumes of 10% (w/v) H2SO4 solution and 10% (w/v) NaOH solution are mixed. The nature of

resulting solution will be

(A) neutral (B) acidic (C) basic (D) unpredictable
17. What volume of gaseous NH3 at 0ºC and 1 atm will be required to be passed into 30 ml of N–H2SO4

solution to bring down the acid strength of this solution to 0.2 N?

(A) 537.6 ml (B) 268.8 ml (C) 1075.2 ml (D) 371.3 ml
18. Molecular masses of NH3 and N2 are x1 and x2, respectively. In the reaction:
N2  3H2  2NH3 ,
their equivalent weight are y1 and y2.
Then  y1  y2  is

 2x1  x 2 
(A)   (B) (x1  x2 ) (C) (3 x1  x2 ) (D) (x1  3 x2 )
 6 
19. The number of significant digits in 1559.00 is _________

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (8) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (A) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (6)

PAGE # 2
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 02
Syllabus : Periodic Table & Gaseous State

1. A gas is heated in such a way that its pressure and volume both become double. Now by
decreasing temperature, some of air molecules were introduced into the container to maintain
the increased volume and pressure. Assuming 1/4th of the initial number of moles has been
given for this purpose. By what fraction of temperature has been raised finally of initial
absolute temperature.
4 16 16 8
(A) times (B) times (C) times (D) times
5 7 5 5
2. Consider the following sequence of reaction:

If electronic configuration of element X is Ne 3s1 , then which of the following order is incorrect

regarding given enthalpies?

(A) H4  H5 (B) H2  H1 (C) H2  H3 (D) H1  H6

3. The electro negativity of H, X and O are 2.1, 0.8 and 3.5 respectively on Pauling scale. The
nature of compound HOX is:
(A) acidic (B) basic (C) neutral (D) amphoteric

4. The critical constants PC & TC for methane are 45 atm and 189 K. The correct statement is -

(A) VC = 2.4 L (B) b = 0.04 L/mol (C) VC = 0.8 L (D) b = 0.8 L/mol

5. The electron affinity of F < Cl and ionization energy of F > Cl then which of the compound is

possible?

   
(A) F  Cl (B) CIF (C) F – Cl (D) Cl – F2

6. In a glass tube of 1m length and uniform cross section, NH3(g) from one end and BF3(g) from

the other end are sent at a time. The distance from the ammonia end where the addition

compound, BF3  NH3 will first form is (B = 11; F = 19)

(A) 66.67 cm (B) 33.33 cm (C) 50.00 cm (D) 60.00 cm

7. The ground state electronic configurations of the elements, U, V, W, X and Y (these symbols

do not have any chemical significance) are as follows:

U : 1s2 2s2 2p3

V : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

W : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2

X : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s2

Y : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10 4s2 4p6

Determine which sequence of elements satisfy the following statements:

(i) Element forms a carbonate which is not decomposed by heating.
(ii) Element is most likely to form coloured ionic compounds.
(iii) Element has largest atomic radius.
(iv) Element forms only acidic oxide.
(A) V W Y U (B) V X Y W (C) V W Y X (D) V X W U
8. A P-V curve at constant temperature is shown below. T1 and T2 in kelvin are-

T2
V (lit.)

T1
P (atm.)

(A) 500, 250 (B) 250, 500 (C) 300, 150 (D) 300, 300
9.

(A) FTFF (B) FTFT (C) FFTF (D) FFFF

10. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals increase from Be to Ba?
(i) Atomic radius
(ii) Ionisation energy
(iii) Nuclear charge
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

11.

12. The ionization energy of sodium is 495 kJ mol-1. How much energy is needed to convert
atoms present in 2.3 mg of sodium into sodium ions?
(A) 4.95 J (B) 49.5 J (C) 495 J (D) 0.495 J
13. The lattice energy of the lithium halides is in the following order -
(A) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > Li (B) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > Li
(C) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > Li (D) Li > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

14.

15. Which of the following have no unit?

(A) Electronegativity (B) Electron gain enthalpy
(C) Ionisation enthalpy (D) Atomic radius
16. An element belongs to 3rd period and group-13 of the periodic table. Which of the following
properties will be shown by the element?
(A) Bad conductor of electricity (B) Liquid, Metallic
(C) Solid, Metallic (D) Solid, Non metallic
17. How many of the following are isoelectronic species
O2 , Na  , Mg2+, Al, Cl, F , Ne, Ar, Cl , Li+
18. Total number of element (s) which have only single oxidation state (other than zero) in their
corresponding stable compounds : Ca, Ba, F, Zn, Be, Al, Sr, Ga, Pb
19. The IE values of Al(g) Al+ +e is 577.5kJmol–1 and H for Al(g) Al+3(g)+3e is 5140 kJ mol–1. If
second and third IE values are in the ratio 2 : 3. Calculate IE2 and IE3.
20. Correct order of size is :
(A) O2  S2  Cl  F (B) F  O2  Cl  S2
(C) O2  S2  F  Cl (D) S2  O2  Cl  F
21. What mass of O2 can be filled in 1 litre vessel at 1 atm and 300k if compressibility factor of gas
 1 
in given condition is 0.8. R  latm mol1k 1 
 12 
22. At a given temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and Kr are found to deviate from ideal gas
behaviour. Their equation of state is given as
RT
P at T.
V b
Here, b is the van der Waal’s constant. Which gas will exhibit steepest increase in the plot of Z
(compression factor) vs P?
(1) Kr (2) Ar (3) Xe (4) Ne

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. [A] 14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (5) 18. (7)
19. [IE2 = 1825 kJ / mole, IE3 = 2737.5 kJ / mole] 20. (B) 21. (1.6g) 22. (3)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 03
Syllabus : IUPAC & Isomerism

1. Correct IUPAC name of the given following compounds

(i)

(ii)

(iii).

CH3  CH  C  COOH
(iv). | ||
CH3 O

O
||
(v) CH2  CH  C  CH2  CH3
| |
Br CONH2

(vi)
Br SO3H

(vii) Cl

(viii)
OH
(ix)

CH2–CH3

PAGE # 1
 O
(x)

2. Which of the following is enantiomer of

(A) (B) (C) (D)

3. The following pair is related as

(A) Same compound (B) Diastereomers

(C) Enantiomers (D) Structural isomers
4. and CH3–CH–CH2–C=O are :-

H H
(A) Functional isomers (B) Position isomers
(C) Metamers (D) Tautomers
5. Which are pair of chain isomers :-

O O
and O
(A) (B) and
NC Cl

Me

and
(C) (D)
Et
6. How many aldehyde & ketone are possible from C5H10O :-

(A) 3 Aldehyde and 3 ketone

(B) 4 Aldehyde and 3 ketone

(C) 5 Aldehyde and 3 ketone

(D) 5 Aldehyde and 4 ketone

7. The number of optically active isomers possible for -

CH3–CH–CH–CH–CH2OH is -
OH OH OH

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

PAGE # 2
8. Which of the following compounds has no geometrical isomer -

(A) 1-Phenylpropene (B) 1, 2-Diphenylethene

(C) 1, 2-Diphenylpropene (4) 1,1-Diphenylpropene

9. Structural isomers possible for C4H8Br2 are -

(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6

10. The total number of secondary alcohols (including stereoisomers) possible having the molecular

formula C5H12O is -

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

11. How many stereoisomers are possible for 1-Bromo-2,3-dichlorocyclobutane ?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

12. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

13. CH3CONH2 & HCONHCH3 are called

(A) Position (B) Chain (C) Tautomers (D) Functional

ANSWER KEY

(i) (4-cyano-2-fluoro-3-oxobutanoic acid) (ii) 3,4 – Dimethylphenol

(iii) 3-Bromocyclohexene (iv) 3-Methyl-2-oxobutanoic acid
(v) 2-(Bromomethyl)-3-oxopentanamide (vi) 5-ethyl-1-methylcyclohexene
(vii) 3-bromo-5-chlorobenzene sulphonic acid (viii) 1, 3–dimethylcyclohexene
(ix) 4-Ethyl-2-cyclobuten-1-ol (x) 2-ethyl-5-methyl cyclohexa-2,5-diene-1,4-dione
2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (D)
9. (A) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D)

PAGE # 3
z`1zz`z`z`z

CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 04
Syllabus : Chemical Bonding

1. In PO34 , total number of bond pairs of electrons and lone pairs of e– are :
(A) 5, 0 (B) 5, 11 (C) 4, 0 (D) 4, 11
2. In which of the following substances will hydrogen bond be strongest?
(A) HCl (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) H2S
3. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) NaCl being an ionic compound is a good conductor of electricity in the solid state
(B) In canonical structures there is difference in the arrangement of atoms
(C) Hybrid orbitals form stronger bonds than pure orbitals.
(D) VBT can explain square planar geometry of XeF4
4. Correct order of dipole moment :
(A) NH3  NF3 (B) NF3  NH3 (C) H2O  OF2 (D) BF3  BCl3 -

5. Which of the following orbitals has maximum no. of nodal planes.

(A)  *1s (B) *2px (C) 2px (D) *2py

6. In which of the following molecules, 2pz molecular orbital is filled after 2px and 2py

molecular orbitals?
(A) O2 (B) Ne2 (C) N2 (D) F2
7. Which of the following pair is expected to have same bond order?
(A) O2, N2 (B) O2 , N2 (C) O2 , N2 (D) O2 , N2
8. Which of the following species are incorrectly matched with their shape?
(A) CIF3 = trigonal planar (B) SF4 = see - saw
(C)  XeF5  = pentagonal planar
–
(D) I2Cl6 = rectangular planar

9. In which of the following species p –d bond is present but p – p bond is absent?
(A) SO3 (B) SO2 (C) CS2 (D) SO2Cl2
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the structure of B2H6 is
(A) It has four 2C – 2e– bond and two 3C – 2e– bond
(B) The hybridization of each boron atom is sp3.
(C) All hydrogens in B2H6 lie in the same plane.
(D) Terminal bonds B–H are shorter than bridged B–H bonds.

Page No. :1:

11. Which plot best represent the potential energy (E) of two hydrogen atoms as they approach
one another to form a hydrogen molecule?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
12. The bond angle of Cl2O is:
(A) Smaller than that of F2O
(B) Greater than that of H2O
(C) Smaller than that of H2O
(D) Same as that of F2O
13. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
Hybridisation Geometry Orbitals use
(A) sp3d Trigonal bipyramidal s  px + py  pz + dz 2

(B) sp3d3 Pentagonal bipyramidal s  px + py  pz + dx2  y2  dz2  dxy

(C) sp3d2 square pyramidal s  px + py  pz + dx2  y2  dz2

(D) sp3 Tetrahedral s  px + py  pz

14. Species having minimum ‘Cl–O’ bond length is:

(A) ClO3 (B) ClO3 (C) ClO2 (D) ClO2

15. Which of the following species contains minimum number of atoms in ‘XY’ plane?
(A) XeF5 (B) SF6 (C) IF7 (D) All

16. Which of the following statement is correct about I3 and I3 molecular ions?

(A) Number of lone pairs at central atoms are same in both molecular ions
(B) Hybridization of central atoms in both ions are same
(C) Both are polar species
(D) Both are planar species
17. Select pair of compounds in which both have different hybridization but have same molecular
geometry:

O
(A) BF3, BrF3 (B) ICl2 ,BeCl2 (C) BCl3, PCl3 (D) PCl3, NCl3

Page No. :2:

18. Which of the following fact is directly explained by the statement ‘oxygen is a smaller atom
than sulphur’?
(A) H2O boils at a much higher temperature than H2S
(B) H2O undergoes intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(C) H2O is liquid and H2S is gas at room temperature
(D) S–H bond is longer than O–H bond
19. Assuming the bond direction to the z-axis, which of the overlapping of atomic orbitals of two
atom (A) and (B) will result in bonding?
(I) s-orbital of A and px orbital of B (II) s-orbital of A and pz orbital of B
(III) py-orbital of A and pz orbital of B (IV) s-orbitals of both (A) and (B)
(A) I and IV (B) I and II (C) III and IV (D) II and IV
20. For the following molecules:
ab
PCl5, BrF3, ICl, ICl2 , Xe, NO, XeO2F2, PCl4 , CH3 Calculate the value of .
c
a = Number of species having sp3d–hybridisation
b = Number of species which are planar
c = Number of species which are non-planar
21. Which of the following is the correct prediction about observed B – F bond length in BF3
molecule?
(A) B – F bond length in BF3 is found to be less than theoretical value because the
electronegativity values of B(2.04) and F(4.0) suggest the bond length to be ionic and
hence, the attraction between oppositely charged ions must decrease the bond length.
(B) BF3 and [BF4]– have equal B – F bond length.
(C) The decrease in the B – F bond length in BF3 is due to delocalised p– p bonding
between vacant 2p orbital of B and filled 2p orbital of F
(D) The correct B –X bond length order is B–F>B–Cl>B–Br>B–I
22. Which compounds exhibits maximum dipole moment among the following?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

23. Assuming 2s– 2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is
(A) Be2 (B) B2 (C) C2 (D) N2

24. Which one of the following statements about water is FALSE ?

(A) Water can act both as an acid and as a base.
(B) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase.
(C) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water.
(D) Water is oxidized to oxygen during photosynthesis.

Page No. :3:

25. The predominant intermolecular forces present in ethyl acetate, a liquid, are
(A) Dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
(B) London dispersion and dipole-dipole
(C) Hydrogen bonding and London dispersion
(D) London dispersion, dipole-dipole and hydrogen bonding
26. Stability of the species Li2, Li2– and Li2 increases in the order of :

(A) Li2 < Li2 < Li2– (B) Li2– < Li2 < Li2

(C) Li2 < Li2– < Li2 (D) Li2– < Li2 < Li2

27. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic?

(A) CO (B) O2 (C) B2 (D) NO

28. The intermolecular interaction that is inversely proportional to r6 (r=distance between the
molecules) is:
(A) ion-ion interaction (B) dipole -dipole interaction
(C) London force (D) hydrogen bond
29. Weakest metallic bond is present in
(A) Cr (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Co
30. Best thermal conductor is :
(A) Graphite (B) Diamond (C) C60 (D) C80

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B)
10
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. 21. (C)
3
22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (C) 30. (B)

Page No. :4:

 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 05
Syllabus: Chemical Equilibrium & Surface Chemistry

1. Which plot is the adsorption isobar for physisorption?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. 2.5 mL of [AgI] Ag sol is coagulated by 15 mL of 0.001 M KI. What is flocculation value of KI ?
3. I, II and II are three adsorption isotherm a three temperatures T1 T2, T3

where, x is the amount of adsorbate adsorbed on m g of the adsorbent.

Temperatures T1, T2, T3 and are in the order
(A) T1 = T2 = T3 (B) T1 < T2 < T3 (C) T3 < T2 < T1 (D) No specific order
4. One gram of charcoal absorbs 100 ml of 0.5 M CH3COOH to form a mono-layer and thereby the
molarity of acetic acid is reduced to 0.49 M. What will be the area of the charcoal absorbed by
each molecule of acetic acid?
[given – surface area of charcoal = 3.01 × 102 m2/gm]
(A) 5  10 19 m2 (B) 5  10 20 m2 (C) 5  1021m2 (D) 5  10 23 m2
5. Micelles are formed only
(A) Above CMC and above Krafft temperature
(B) Below CMC and below Krafft temperature
(C) Above CMC and below Krafft temperature
(D) Below CMC and above Krafft temperature

Page No. :1:

6. 20% surface sites have adsorbed N2 On heating N2 gas evolved from sites and were collected
at 0.001 atm and 298 K in a container of volume is 2.46cm3. Density of surface sites is
6.023×1014/cm2  and surface area is 1000 cm2, find out the number of surface sites occupied
per molecule of N2.
7. Following are the applications of adsorption. Select the correct ones.
I. For producing high vacuum II. In gas masks
III. Separation of inert gases IV. In froth floatation process
V. In adsorption indicators VI. In curing diseases
(A) All of these (B) All except V
(C) All except IV and V (D) All except I and IV
8. Most suitable salt which can be used for efficient clotting of blood will be :-
(1) NaHCO3 (2) FeSO4 (3) Mg(HCO3)2 (4) FeCl3
9. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is indicated by
(A) Brownian movement (B) electrophoresis
(C) ultra microscope (D) molecular sieves
10. The most adsorbed gas on activated charcoal is:
(A) N2 (B) H2 (C) CO2 (D) CH4
11. Coagulation is not done by
(A) Persistant dialysis (B) Boiling (C) Electrophoresis (D) Peptisation
12. In the Haber process of synthesis of NH3
(A) Mo acts as a catalyst and Fe as a promoter
(B) Fe acts as a catalyst and Mo as a promoter
(C) Fe acts as inhibitor and Mo as a catalyst
(D) Fe acts as promoter and Mo as auto-catalyst
13. Butter is a colloid formed when
(A) liquid fat is dispersed in liquid fat
(B) liquid fat is dispersed in water
(C) water is dispersed in liquid fat
(D) solid fat is dispersed in water
14. When pressure is applied to equilibrium system:

Ice Water
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) More amount of ice will form
(B) Melting point of ice decreases
(C) Equilibrium will not disturb
(D) Both (A) and (B)
15. For a gaseous equilibrium: 2A(g) 2B(g)  C(g),Kp has a value 1.8 at 700K. The value of KC

for the equilibrium: 2B(g)  C(g) 2A(g) at that temperature is about:

(A) 0.031 (B) 32 (C) 57.4 (D) 103.3

Page No. :2:

16. The reaction: MgCO3 (s) MgO(s)  CO2 (g) is in progress. If number of moles of MgO in the

vessel is doubled at an instance

(A) the reaction quotient, Q is halved
(B) the reaction quotient, Q is doubled
(C) the moles of CO2 present at equilibrium is halved
(D) the partial pressure of CO2 in the vessel remains unchanged
17. For the reaction: N2 O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) , the relation between the degree of dissociation, , of

N2 O4 (g) at pressure, P, with its equilibrium constant KP is :

1/2
KP / P KP  KP / P 
(A)   (B)   (C)     (D)
4  KP / P 4  KP  4  KP / P 
1/2
 KP 
 
 4  KP 
18. The progress of the reaction A nB , with time is represented by the graph given below.
The value of n is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

19. The equilibrium constant for the reaction: N2 (g)  O2 (g) 2NO(g) is K1 and the equilibrium

constant for the reaction:

1 1
NO(g) N2 (g)  O2 (g) is K2, both at the same temperature. K1 and K2 are related as
2 2
2 2
 1   1
(A) K1    (B) K1  K 22 (C) K 2    (D) K 2  K12
 K2   K1 
20. In equilibrium:
SCN (aq)  Fe 3 (aq) Fe(SCN)2  (aq)
colourless yellow deepred
If thiocyanate ions are added in equilibrium mixture:
(A) The solution becomes colourless
(B) The yellow colour of solution deepens
(C) The red colour of the solution deepens
2
(D) Concentration of Fe  SCN  ion will decrease

Page No. :3:

 2
21. For the equilibrium, PCl5 PCl3  Cl2 , K c 
(1  )V
temperature remaining constant.
(A) Kc may increase or decrease with the change in volume depending upon its numerical value
(B) Kc will increase with the increase in volume
(C) Kc will increase with the decrease in volume
(D) Kc will not change with the change in volume

22. The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction P4 (g) 2P2 (g) is 1.4 at 400°C. Suppose that 3
moles of P4 (g) and 2 moles of P2 (g) are mixed in 2 litre container at 400°C. What is the value
of reaction quotient (Q)?
(A) 3/2 (B) 2/3 (C) 1 (D) None of these
23. In which of the following reactions, increase in the volume at constant temperature does not
affect the number of moles at equilibrium?
(A) 2NH3 N2 + 3H2
(B) C(g) + (1/2)O2(g)  CO(g)
(C) H2(g) + O2(g)  H2O2(g)
(D) None of these
24. For the equilibrium A B, the variation of the rate of the forward (a) and reverse (b) reaction
with time is given by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

25. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is given below

Cu(NH3 )
2
Cu2  NH3
K1

Cu(NH3 ) Cu(NH3 )2 
2 K2 2
 NH3

Cu(NH3 )2  Cu(NH3 )3 
2 K3 2
 NH3

Cu(NH3 )3  Cu(NH3 )4 
2 K4 2
 NH3

The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and K4 are 104, 1.58 × 103, 5 × 102 and 102
respectively. The overall equilibrium constants for dissociation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x × 10–12.

The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Page No. :4:

26. For the reaction, N2O4(g) 2NO2(g); if percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 25%, 50%, 75%

and 100% , then the sequence of observed vapour densities will be :

(A) d1 > d2 > d3 > d4 (B) d4 > d3 > d2 > d1
(C) d1 = d2 = d3 = d4 (D) (d1 = d2) > (d3 = d4)
27. For the reaction: 2NO(g)Cl2 (g) 2NOCl(g) , NO and Cl2 are initially taken in mole ratio

2 : 1. The total pressure at equilibrium is found to be 1 atm. If mole of NOCl are one fourth of
that of Cl2 at equilibrium, Kp for the reaction is:
(A) 13/36 (B) 13/256 (C) 13/512 (D) 13/128

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (6) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (2) 7. (A)
8. (4) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (C) 21. (D)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (1) 26. (A) 27. (D)

Page No. :5:

 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 06
Syllabus: Structural Identification & POC

1. In the dichlorination reaction of propane, a mixture of various products are obtained. How many
isomers does the mixture contain?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
2. Match the following :
Test/Method Reagent
(i) Lucas Test (a) C6H5SO2Cl/aq. KOH
(ii) Dumas method (b) HNO3/AgNO3
(iii) Kjeldahl’s method (c) CuO/CO2
(iv) Hinsberg test (d) Conc. HCl and ZnCl2
(e) H2SO4
(A) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a) (B) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)
(C) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d) (D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e)
3. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of an organic compound was digested by Kjeldahl method
M
and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 60 mL of sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid
10
M
required 20 mL of sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen
10
in the compound is :
(A) 6% (B) 10% (C) 3% (D) 5%

4.

A can be :

(A) (B)

(C) Both correct (D) None is correct

5. Liebermann’s test is used for which class of compounds -
(A) Alcohols (B) Phenols (C) Aldehydes (D) Ketones
6. Which is useful for separating benzoic acid from a mixture of benzoic acid and methyl benzoate-
(A) Aq. NaHCO3 (B) Dil.HCI (C) Dil.H2 SO4 (D) Dil. HNO3

Page No. :1:

7. Which of the following compounds will give silver mirror test-
(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOH (C) CH3CO.COOH (D) None
8. Kjeldahl’s method cannot be used for the estimation of nitrogen in :
(A) Pyridine (B) Nitrocompounds (C) Azo compounds (D) All

9. Which of the following will perform iodoform reaction with I2/OH– ?

(A) CH3COCH2CH3 (B) CH3CONH2 (C) C6H5COCH3 (D) CH3CHO
10. Compound giving offensive smell on heating with chloroform and alkali
NH2

(A) CH3–NH2 (B) (C) CH3–NO2 (D) Ph–CH2–NH2

11. How many compounds will give positive iodoform test but negative Tollen’s test ?
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3  C CH3 (c) CH3  CH  CH2  CH3
|| |
O OH
O
O O O

(d) H (e) CH3 (f) H3C

CHO
O

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (D) 9. (ACD) 10. (ABD) 11. (3)

Page No. :2:

 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 07
Syllabus: Ionic Equilibrium
1. A saturated solution of CaF2 is found to contain 2 × 10–4 M of F– ions. Ksp of CaF2 is:
(A) 8 ×10–12 (B) 4 × 10–12 (C) 2 × 10–12 (D) 10–12
2. Calculate the degree of ionisation of 0.04 M HOCI solution having ionisation constant 1.25×10 –4
?
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.055
3. What will be solubility of A2X3 is its solubility product (Ksp) is equal to 1.08 × 10–23 ?
(A) 10–5 mol/L (B) 3.7 × 10–4 mol/L
(C) 1.2 × 10–3 mol/L (D) 7.5 × 10–4 mol/L
4. What is the pH of a neutral solution at 37ºC, where Kw equals 2.5 × 10–14 ? (log 2 = 0.3)
(A) 7.0 (B) 13.6 (C) 6.8 (D) 6.6
5. Three solutions of strong electrolytes, 25 ml of 0.1 M – HX, 25 ml of 0.1 M – H2Y and 50 ml of
0.1 N– Z (OH)2 are mixed. pOH of the resulting solution is
(A) 1.6 (B) 7.0 (C) 12.4 (D) 11.6
6. pH of 0.01 M – (NH4)2SO4 and 0.02 M – NH4OH buffer (pKa of NH4+ = 9.26) is
(A) 9.26 + log 2 (B) 9.26 – log 2 (C) 4.74 + log 2 (D) 9.26
7. Separate solutions of NaW, NaX, NaY and NaZ, each of concentrations 0.1 M, has pH 7.0, 9.0,
10.0 and 11.0, respectively, at 25ºC. The strongest acid among these is
(A) HW (B) HX (C) HY (D) HZ
8. The correct order of increasing [OH–] in the following aqueous solution is
(A) 0.01 M – NaHCO3< 0.01 M – NaCN < 0.01 M – KCl
(B) 0.01 M – KCl < 0.01 M – NaCN < 0.01 M – NaHCO3
(C) 0.01 M – KCl – 0.01 M – NaHCO3 < 0.01 M – NaCN
(D) 0.01 M – NaCN < 0.01 M – KCl < 0.01 M – NaHCO3
9. Solubility product constant (Ksp) of salts of types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature, T are 4.0 ×
10–8, 3.2 × 10–14 and 2.7 × 10–15, respectively. Solubilities (in M) of the salts at temperature, T,
are in the order
(A) MX > MX2 > M3X (B) M3X > MX2 > MX
(C) MX2 > M3X > MX (D) MX > M3X > MX2
10. The addition of solid ammonium chloride to acetic acid solution will cause
(A) increases in its pH values (B) decrease in its pH values
(C) no change in pH value (D) change in pH which cannot be predicted
11. The base imidazole has a Kb of 1.0 × 10–7 at 25ºC. In what volumes should 0.02 M –HCl and
0.02 M imidazole be mixed to make 120 ml of a buffer at pH = 7?
(A) 60 ml, 60 ml (B) 40 ml, 80 ml
(C) 30 ml, 90 ml (A) 20 ml, 100 ml
12. How much water in ml must be added to 300 ml of 0.2 M solution of CH3COOH (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5)
for the degree of ionisation () of the acid to double
13. Which of the following is not correct –

(A) [H+] = [OH–] = K w for a neutral solution at all temperature

(B) [H+] = [OH–] = 10–7 for a neutral solution at all temperature

–
(C) [H+] > K w and [OH ] < K w for an acidic solution

–
(D) H+ < K w and [OH ] > K w for an alkaline solution

14. The pH of neutral water at 25°C is 7.0. As the temperature increases, ionisation of water
increases, however, the concentration of H+ ions and OH– ions are equal. What will be the pH of
pure water at 60°C?
(A) Equal to 7.0 (B) Greater than 7.0
(C) Less than 7.0 (D) Equal to zero
15. The ionisation constant of an acid, Ka, is the measure of strength of an acid. The Ka values of
acetic acid, hypochlorous acid and formic acid are 1.74 × 10–5, 3.0 × 10–8 and 1.8 × 10–4
respectively. Which of the following orders of pH of 0.1 mol dm–3 solutions of these acids is
correct?
(A) acetic acid > hypochlorous acid > formic acid
(B) hypochlorous acid > acetic acid > formic acid
(C) formic acid > hypochlorous acid > acetic acid
(D) formic acid > acetic acid > hypochlorous acid
16. In which of the following solvents is silver chloride most soluble?
(A) 0.1 mol dm–3 AgNO3 solution (B) 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl solution
(C) H2O (D) Aqueous ammonia
17. Calculate the pH of a solution formed by mixing equal volumes of two solutions A and B of a strong acid
having pH = 6 and pH = 4 respectively.
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 5.5 (D) 4.3
18. Which of the following aqueous solutions acts as buffer?
(A) 100 ml each of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 0.2 M NaOH
(B) 100 ml each of 0.1 M HCl and 0.2 M CH3COONa
(C) NH4Cl solution
(D) None of these
19. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is
H3PO4 , H2SO4 , H3PO3 , H2CO3 , H2S2O7 , H3BO3
H3PO2 , H2CrO4 , H2SO3
20. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is
Assertion (A) : When Cu (II) and sulphide ions are mixed, they react together extremely quickly
to give a solid.

Reason (R) : The equilibrium constant of Cu2+(aq) + S2–(aq) CuS(s) is high because the
solubility product is low.
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the explanation for (A).
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the explanation for (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
21. The solubility product of X(OH)3 at 298 K is 6.0 × 10–20. The concentration of hydroxide ions in a
saturated solution of Cr(OH)3 will be :

(A) (2.22 × 10–20)1/4 (B) (18 × 10–20)1/2 (C) (18 × 10–20)1/4 (D) (4.86 × 10–29)1/4

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. [900] 13. [B] 14. (C)
15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (6) 20. (C) 21. (C)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 08
Syllabus: Coordination Compound
1. A complex whose IUPAC name is not correctly written is :
Complex Name
(A) Fe(C6H5 )2 Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron (0)
(B) Cr(C6H6)2 Bis (benzene) chromium (0)
(C) [CoCl2(H2O)4]Cl.2H2O Tetraaquadichlorocobalt(III)chloride-2-water
(D) [Zn(NCS)4]2– Tetrathiocynato-N-zincate(II) ion

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I (Ion involved) List-II (Agent)
3
(i) [FeF6 ] (A) 1.73 BM
(ii) [Ti(H2O)6 ]3 (B) 5.93 BM
(iii) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3 (C) 0 BM
2
(iv) [Ni(H2O)6 ] (D) 2.83 BM
(v) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 (E) 3.88 BM
(A) (i)B; (ii)A; (iii)C ; (iv)D; (v)E
(B) (i)B; (ii)A; (iii)E ; (iv)D; (v)C
(C) (i)B; (ii)C; (iii)D ; (iv)E; (v)A
(D) (i)D; (ii)E; (iii)A ; (iv)B; (v)C
3. In which of the following complexes of Co, the magnitude of CFSE (0) is maximum ?
(A) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (B) [CoCl6]3–
(C) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (D) [Co(CN)6]3–
4. The correct order of matching of complex compound in column I with the properties in column II:
Column I Column II
(A) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (P) Tetrahedral and paramagnetic
(B) [Co(CN)6]3– (Q) Octahedral and diamagnetic
(C) [Ni(CN)4]2– (R) Octahedral and paramagnetic
(D) [Ni(Cl)4]2– (S) Square planar and diamagnetic

(A) AR, BQ, CP, DS (B) AQ, BR, CP, DS
(C) AR, BQ, CS, DP (D) AQ, BR, CS, DP
5. [Co(NH3)4 (NO2)2] Cl exhibits
(A) linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.
(B) linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and optical isomerism.
(C) linkage isomerism, ionisation isomerism and geometrical isomerism.
(D) ionisation isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical isomerism.
6. Column-I and Column-II contains four entries each. Entries of Column-I are to be matched with
some entries of Column-II. One or more than one entries of Column-I may have the matching
with the same entries of Column-II.
Column I Column II
(Molar conductance at infinite dilution) (Complex compound)
(A) 229 (P) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3
(B) 0 (Q) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
(C) 404 (R) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(D) 523 (S) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4

(A) AR; BQ; CS; DP (B) AQ; BR; CS; DP
(C) AR; BQ; CP; DS (D) AS; BP; CR; DQ
7. The type of isomerism exhibited by pentaamminenitrito-N-chromium(III) chloride is
(A) Polymerization (B) Geometrical (C) Optical (D) Linkage
8. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr's magneton units) of [Cr(CO) 6] is:
9. How many of the following complexes
K3[Fe(CN)6] .........................(K)
[Co(NH3)6] Cl3..................... (L)
Na3[Co(ox)3]........................(M)
[Ni(H2O)6]CI2.......................(N)
K2[Pt(CN)4] .........................(O)
and [Zn(H2O)6] (NO3)2...............(P)
Number of diamagnetic complexes are
10. An excess solution of silver nitrate is added to 100 mL of 0.01 M pentaaquachlorochromium (III)
chloride solution. The mass of silver chloride acquired in grams is [Atomic mass of silver is 108].
(A) 287 × 10–3 (B) 143.5 × 10–3 (C) 143.5 × 10–2 (D) 287 × 10–2
11. Arrange the following order in increasing order of spin magnetic moment
(A) [Mn(CN)6]3– < [Fe(CN)6]3– < [Fe(CN)6]4–
(B) [Fe(CN)6]3– < [Fe(CN)6]4– < [Mn(CN)6]3–
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4– < [Fe(CN)6]3– < [Mn(CN)6 ]3–
(D) [Fe(CN)6]4– < [Mn(CN)6]3– < [Fe(CN)6]3–
12. The colour of the coordination compounds depends on the crystal field splitting. What will be the
correct order of absorption of wavelength of light in the visible region, for the complexes,
[Co(NH3)6]3+ , [Co(CN)6]3–, [Co(H2O)6 ]3+
(A) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+
(B) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3–
(C) [Co(H2O)6]3+ > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(CN)6]3–
(D) [Co(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Co(H2O)6]3+
13. The stabilisation of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the chelate effect. Which
of the following is the most stable complex species?
(i) [Fe(CO)5] (B) [Fe(CN)6]3– (C) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (D) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
14. IUPAC name of [Pt (NH3)2 Cl(NO2)] is :
(A) Platinum diaminechloronitrite (B) Chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum(II)
(C) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum(II) (D) Diamminechloronitrito-N-platinate(II)
15. Which of the following options are correct for [Fe(CN)6]3– complex?
(A) d2sp3 hybridisation (B) sp3d2 hybridisation
(C)  = 2.83 B.M. (D) diamagnetic
16. An aqueous pink solution of cobalt(II) chloride changes to deep blue on addition of excess of
HCl. This is because____________.
(A) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl6]4–
(B) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into [CoCl4]2–
(C) tetrahedral complexes have larger crystal field splitting than octahedral complex.
(D) None of these
17. Identify the optically active compounds from the following :
(A) [Co(en)3]3+ (B) trans–[Co(en)2Cl2]+
(C) cis– [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (D) [Cr (NH3)5 Cl]

The correct order of energies of d-orbitals of metal ion in a Ni(CN)4  is :

2
18.
(A) dxy  dyz  dzx  dx2  y2  dz2 (B) dx2  y2  dz2  dxy  dyz  dzx 
(C) dx2  y2  dz2  dxy  dyz  dzx (D) dx2  y2  dxy  dz2  dyz  dzx

19. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar [Pt (Cl) (py) (NH 3) (NH2OH)]+
is (py = pyridine ) :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
20. The oxidation states of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3, [Cr(C6H6)2], and K2[Cr(CN)2(O)2(O2)(NH3)]
respectively are :
(A) +3, 0 and +6 (B) +3, 0 and +4 (C) +3, +4 and +6 (D) +3, +2 and +4
21. Consider the following reaction and statements:
[Co(NH3)4Br2]+ + Br¯  [Co(NH3)3Br3] + NH3

(I) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer.
(II) Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer.
(III) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer.
(IV) Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer.
The correct statements are:
(A) (III) and (IV) (B) (II) and (IV) (C) (I) and (II) (D) (I) and (III)
22. The oxidation state of Mo in its oxido-complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2(H2O)2]2– is

(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +4 (D) +5

23. Co-ordination number of platinum in [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]2+ ion is:

(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 6

24. The crystal field-splitting for Cr3+ ion in octahedral field increases for ligands I–, H2O, NH3 , CN–
and the order is :
(A) I– < H2O < NH3 < CN– (B) CN– < I– < H2O < NH3

(C) CN– < NH3 < H2O < I– (D) NH3 < H2O < I– < CN–

25. The EAN of metal atoms in [Fe(CO)2(NO+)2] and Co2(CO)8 respectively are :

(A) 34, 35 (B) 34, 36 (C) 36, 36 (D) 36, 35

26. The total number of coordination sites in ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA4–) is ____.

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (0) 9. (4) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (D)
22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (C) 26. (6)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 09
Syllabus: General Organic Chemistry
1. In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and hyperconjugation
operate ?

(1) Cl (2) Cl (3) C–CH3 (4)

CH3 CH3

2. C1 — C2 bond is shortest in :

2 2
1
CCH 1
CH=CH2

(1) (2)

2 2
1
CH2–CH3 1 CCH
(3) (4)

3. The decreasing order of stability of following cation is :

   
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2

OH CH3 Cl
(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) P > Q > R > S (2) P > R > Q > S (3) Q > P > S > R (4) Q > P > R > S

4. The decreasing order stability of following anions is :

  
 CH2 CH2 CH2
CH2

NO2 CN CH3
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) S > R > Q > P (2) P > Q > R > S (3) Q > P > R > S (4) P> Q > S > R
5. Write the order of basic strength :
O

N N N
N
H
H
(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) Q > R> S > P (2) P > R > Q > S (3) R > P > S > Q (4) P > Q > R > S
6. Which of the following is correct order of stability of alkene ?

(1) CH3—CH = CH2< < <

(2) CH3—CH = CH2< < <

(3) < < < CH3—CH = CH2

(4) < CH3—CH = CH2< <

7. Tautomerism is not exhibited by :

(1) CH = CH–OH (2) O O (3) O (4) O

8. Which among the given acids has lowest pKa value :-

(1) Chloroacetic acid (2) Bromoacetic acid (3) Nitroacetic acid (4) Cyanoacetic acid

9. Rearrangement not possible in



(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3
OCH3

CH3 CH3 
CH2–CH2
(3) (4)


10. Which of the following, cation will not show resonance ?


CH2


(1) (2) CH2=CH–CH=CH– CH2


NH3


(3) (4)

11. Correct order of stability of the following species is :

 
 
O O
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) II > IV > I > III (2) I > III > II > IV (3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > I > IV > III
12. Identify benzene ring which has maximum electron density ?
O O
O
(1) (2) (3) (4)
O O
O O
13. Correct order of Acidic strength :
COOH
COOH COOH COOH
NO2

NO2 NO2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I > III > II > IV (2) I > II > III > IV (3) II > IV > I > III (4) IV > I > II > III
14. Which of the following compound has two different C–C bond lengths



(1) (2) (3) (4) CH2  CH – CH2

15. Cl–CH2–CH2OH is stronger acid than CH3–CH2–OH because of :

(1) – I effect of Cl increases negative charge on O atom of alcohol
(2) – I effect of Cl disperses negative charge on O atom to produce more stable cation
(3) – I effect of Cl disperses negative charge on O atom to produce more stable anion
(4) None of these

ANSWER KEY
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2)

15. (3)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 10
Syllabus: Electrochemistry

1. The position of some metals in the electrochemical series in decreasing electropositive character is
given as : Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. What will happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution of
aluminium nitrate?
(A) The spoon will get coated with aluminium.
(B) An alloy of of copper and aluminium is formed.
(C) The solution becomes blue.
(D) No chemical change will take place.
2. Some standard electrode potentials are given :
Fe2  2e  Fe; Eº  0.440 V
Fe3  3e  Fe; Eº  0.036 V
The standard electrode potential for :
Fe3  e  Fe2 , is
(A) –0.476 V (B) –0.404 V (C) +0.988 V (D) +0.772 V
3. The conductivity of saturated solution of Ba3(PO4)2 is 1.2 × 10–5 –1cm–1. The limiting equivalent
conductivities of BaCl2, K3PO4 and KCl are 160, 140 and 100–1cm2eq–1, respectively. The
solubility product of Ba3(PO4)2 is
(A) 10–5 (B) 1.08 × 10–23 (C) 1.08 × 10–25 (D) 1.08 × 10–27
4. Which is correct about fuel cells ?
(A) Cell continuously run as longs as fuels are supplied.
(B) These are more efficient and free from pollution.
(C) These are used to provide power and drinking water to astronauts in space
(D) All of these
5. Using same quantity of current, which among Na, Mg and Al is deposited more (by mass) during
electrolysis of their molten salts ?
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Al (D) All in same
6. A certain current liberated 0.50 g of hydrogen in 2 h. How many grams of copper can be liberated
by the same current flowing for the same time in a copper sulphate solution ? (Cu = 63.5)
(A) 12.7 g (B) 15.88 g (C) 31.75 g (D) 63.5 g
7. Calculate the ionic product of water at 25ºC from the following data :
Conductivity of water = 5.5 × 10–6  m–1
ºH+ = 0.035  m2 mol–1
ºOH– = 0.020  m2 mol–1
(A) 2 × 10–14 M2 (B) 1 × 10–7 M2 (C) 1 × 10–8 M2 (D) 1 × 10–14 M2
8. For the cell : Ni | Ni2+ || Cu2+ | Cu; Eº = 0.77 V. By which of the following activity, Ecell will increase ?
(A) On decreasing [Ni+2] (B) On decreasing [Cu+2]
(C) On increasing mass of Ni electrode (D) On increasing mass of Cu electrode
9. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half reactions are given against each
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e Zn (s) – 0.762
Cr3+ (aq) + 3e Cr (s) –0.740
2H+ (aq) + 2e H2 (g) 0.000
Fe3+ (aq) + e Fe2+ (aq) 0.770
Which is the strongest reducing agent?
(A) Fe2+ (aq) (B) H2(g) (C) Cr(s) (D) Zn(s)
10. The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M solution of an electrolyte is found to be 138.9 S cm 2 mol–1.
Calculate the conductivity of the solution.
(A) 1.023S cm–1 (B) 0.026 S cm–1 (C) 0.208 S cm–1 (D) 0.325 S cm–1
11. How much chlorine will be liberated on passing one ampere current for 30 minutes through NaCl
solution?
(A) 0.66 mole (B) 0.33 mole (C) 0.66 g (D) 0.33 g
12. Given
(i) MnO4  8H  5e  Mn2  4H2O E0  x1V

(ii) MnO2  4H  2e  Mn2  2H2O E0  x 2 V

Find E0 for the following reaction:
MnO4  4H  3e  MnO2  2H2O

5x1  2x 2 2x1  5x 2
(A) x2 – x1 (B) x1 – x2 (C) (D)
3 3
13. The solubility of Co NH3 4 Cl2  ClO4 _____ if the  Co(NH ) Cl  50,  ClO4  70 and the measured
3 4 2

resistance was 33.5  in a cell with cell constant of 0.20 is_______. (All data in CGS units )
(A) 59.75 m mol/L (B) 49.75 m mol/L (C) 39.75 m mol/L (D) 29.75 m mol/L

14. Given : E0Cr3  /Cr = –0.74 V ; EMnO

0

/Mn2  /Pt
= 1.51 V
4

E0Cr O2  /Cr 3  /Pt = 1.33 V ; E0Cl /Cl = 1.36 V

2 7 2 /Pt

Based on the data given above, strongest oxidising agent will be :

(A) Cl (B) Cr3+ (C) Mn2+ (D) MnO4–

15. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are C and ,

respectively. The correct relationship between C and  is given as : (where the constant B is
positive)
(A) C =  + (B)C (B) C =  – (B)C

(C) C =  – (B) C (D) C =  + (B) C

16. Galvanization is applying a coating of :

(A) Cr (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Pb
17. The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in kJ mol–1 at 298 K is

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s),

º
Ecell = 2 V at 298 K

(Faraday’s constant, F = 96000 C mol–1)

(A) 192 (B) 384 (C) –384 (D) –192
18. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Ecell and rG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
(B) Ecell and rG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
(C) Ecell is an intensive property while rG of cell reaction is an extensive property.
(D) Ecell is an extensive property while rG of cell reaction is an intensive property.
19. º
Ecell 1.1V for Daniel cell. Which of the following expressions are correct description of state of

equilibrium in this cell?

2.303RT
(A) 1.1 = KC (B) logK C  1.1
F
2.2
(C) logK C  (D) logK C  1.1
0.059
20. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) The metallic conduction is due to the movement of electrons in the metal
(B) The electrolytic conduction is due to the movement of ions in the solution
(C) The current carrying ions are not necessarily discharged at the electrodes
(D) The metallic conduction increases with the increase in temperature, whereas that of electrolytic
conduction decreases with temperature.
21. What is the equilibrium constant for reaction
Fe+2 + Ce+4 Fe+3 + Ce+3

Given EºCe+4/Ce+3 = 1.44V

E 0Fe3 / Fe2 = 0.68V

(A) KC = 1.3 x 1010 (B) KC = 3.2 x1010 (C) KC = 7.6 x 1012 (D) KC = 7.6 x 105
22. Molar conductance of 0.1 M acetic acid is 7 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1 . If the molar conductance of acetic
acid at infinite dilution is 380.8 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1, the value of dissociation constant will
be -
(A) 226 × 10–5 mol dm–3 (B) 1.66 × 10–3 mol dm–1
(C) 1.66 × 10–2 mol dm–3 (D) 3.442 × 10–5 mol dm–3

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 11
Syllabus: Hydrocarbon

1.
The structures of (X) and (Y) respectively are:

2. (E)-3-bromo-3-hexene when treated with CH3O– in CH3OH gives :

(A) 3-hexyne (B) 2-hexyne (C) 2,3-hexadiene (D) 2,4-hexadiene
3. Which alkene on heating with alkaline KMnO4 solution gives acetone and a gas, which turns lime
water milky:
(A) 2–Methyl–2–butene (B) Isobutylene (C) 1–Butene (D) 2–Butene
4. Which of the following will give same product with HBr in presence or absence of peroxide.
(A) Cyclohexene (B) 1-methylcyclohexene
(C) 1,2-dimethylcyclohexene (D) 1-butene
5. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their boiling points.
(i) n–butane (ii) 2–methylbutane (iii) n-pentane (iv) 2,2–dimethylpropane
(A) i > ii > iii > iv (B) ii > iii > iv > i (C) iv > iii > ii > i (D) iii > ii > iv > i
6. The increasing order of reduction of alkyl halides with zinc and dilute HCl is
(A) R–Cl < R–I < R–Br (B) R–Cl < R–Br < R–I
(C) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl (D) R–Br < R–I < R–Cl
7. Arrange the following alkyl halides in decreasing order of the rate of – elimination reaction with
alcoholic KOH.

(i) (ii) CH3—CH2—Br (iii) CH3—CH2—CH2—Br

(A) i > ii > iii (B) iii > ii > i (C) ii > iii > i (D) i > iii > ii
8. Which sodium salt will be heated with sodalime to obtain propane -
(A) CH3 – CH2 – C – O–Na+ (B) CH3 – CH2 –CH2 – C – O–Na+
|| ||
O O
(C) (CH3)2 – CH – C – O–Na+ (D) B & C both
||
O
9. Propene react with Cl2 at 500ºC the product is formed -
(A) 1-chloro propene-1 (B) 2-chloro propene-1
(C) 1,2-dichloro propane (D) 3-chloro propene-1
10. When 1-alkyne is treated with Na + Liq. NH3 and product is reacted with methyl chloride, the end
product of the reaction will be -
(A) Lower alkyne having two carbon less then 1-alkyne
(B) Lower alkyne having one carbon less then 1-alkyne
(C) Higher alkyne having one carbon more then 1-alkyne
(D) Higher alkyne having two carbon more then 1-alkyne
11. Acetylene may be prepared using Kolbe's electrolytic method employing -
(A) Pot. acetate (B) Pot. succinate (C) Pot. fumarate (D) Pot propanoate
12. CH3CH = CH2 
BD3
–
product X.
H 2 O 2 / OH

X is -
(A) CH3 – CH – CH2D (B) CH3 – CH – CH2OH
OH D
(C) CH3– CH – CH3 (D) None is correct
OD
CH3
 2 
 A. A is -
(1) Hg ( OAc ) / H O / THF
13. 2

( 2) NaBH 4 / NaOH / H 2 O

OH
OH
CH3 CH3 CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
OH

NBS Na / ether
14.   'X', x is -
CCl 4

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
15. Which hydrocarbon is formed when aluminium carbide is reacted with water or dilute HCl –
(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Acetylene (D) Ethylene
16. In the chlorination of (CH3)2 CH – CH2 – CH3 the substitution at :
(A) 1º carbon would be fastest
(B) 2ºcarbon would be fastest
(C) 3º carbon would be fastest
(D) 1º , 2º, 3º carbon atoms all will occur at the same rate
17. Direct iodination of methane is not practicable because -
(A) Iodine–iodine bond is easily broken
(B) HI formed in the reaction reduces CH3 to CH4
(C) CH3I is unstable
(D) CH3 is formed with difficulty

 
AlCl HCl
3

18. 25C A, A is -

(A) (B) (C) (D)

CCH
19. The compound X in the following reaction Dil. H2SO4/HgSO4 is -
X

CH2CHO COCH3 CH–CH3 COCHO

(A) (B) (C) OH (D)

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (AC) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C) 11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 12
Syllabus: p-Block Elements (15 – 18)
1. On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, white phosphorus gives a gas.
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
(A) It is highly poisonous and has smell like rotten fish.
(B) It’s solution in water decomposes in the presence of light.
(C) It is more basic than NH3.
(D) It is less basic than NH3.
2. Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Bismuth (C) Antimony (D) Arsenic
3. Which of the following statements is wrong?
(A) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond.
(B) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of coordination compound with transition elements.
(C) NO2 is paramagnetic in nature.
(D) Covalency of nitrogen in N2O5 is four.
4. On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get
(A) N2 in both cases
(B) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide
(C) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with barium azide
(D) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium azide
5. Which of the following options are in accordance with the property mentioned against them?
(A) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidising power.
(B) MI > MBr > MCl > MF : Ionic character of metal halide.
(C) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation enthalpy.
(D) HI > HBr > HCl > HF : Hydrogen-halogen bond strength.
6. Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 gas?
(A) It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.
(B) It’s molecule has linear geometry.
(C) It has two p – p bond.
(D) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H2SO4 with metal sulphide.
7. Which of the following orders are correct as per the properties mentioned against each?
(A) As2O3 < SiO2 < P2O3 < SO2 : Acid strength.
(B) AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 : Enthalpy of vapourisation.
(C) S < O < Cl < F : More negative electron gain enthalpy.
(D) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2 : Te Thermal stability.
8. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) S–S bond is present in H2S2O8.
(B) In peroxosulphuric acid (H2SO5) sulphur is in +6 oxidation state.
(C) Iron powder along with Al2O3 and K2O is used as a catalyst in the preparation of NH3 by Haber’s process.
(D) Change in enthalpy is positive for the preparation of SO3 by catalytic oxidation of SO2.
9. In which of the following reactions conc. H2SO4 is used as an oxidising reagent?
(A) CaF2 + H2SO4 CaSO4 + 2HF (B) 2HI + H2SO4 I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
(C) 2NaOH + H2SO4  Na2SO4 + 2H2O (D) NaCl + H2SO4 NaHSO4 + HCl
10. Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon.
(B) Hydrolysis of XeF6 is a redox reaction.
(C) Xenon fluorides are not reactive.
(D) XeO3 is a planar molecule

11.

12. Which gas produces brown colouration when passed in aq. solution of FeSO4 ?
(A) NO (B) CO (C) NH3 (D) H2S

13. Select CORRECT order of dissociation constant Ka in aqueous solution at 298 K:

(A) H2O H2S H2Se H2Te (B) H2Te H2Se H2S H2O
(C) H2Te H2O H2Se H2S (D) H2O H2Te H2Se H2S
14. Select CORRECT order of oxidizing strength.
(A) Conc. H2SO4 Cl2 Br2 I2 (B) Cl2 conc.H2SO4 Br2 I2
(C) Cl2 Br2 conc.H2SO4 I2 (D) Cl2 Br2 I2 conc.H2SO4
15. Which of the following diagram is CORRECT of the change of Sulphur compounds?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

16. Mixture of gold and platinum when reacts with aqua regia it does not produces:
 (A) AuCl4   (B) PtCl26 (C) N2O (D) NO

17. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, respectively, produces
(A) NO2 and N2O (B) N2O and NO2 (C) NO2 and NO (D) NO and N2O
18. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction ?
(A) XeF2 + PF5  [XeF]+ PF6¯ (B) XeF6 + H2O  XeOF4 + 2HF

(C) XeF6 + 2H2O  XeO2F2 + 4HF (D) XeF4 + O2F2  XeF6 + O2

19. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the thermal decomposition is :
(A) NH4NO2 (B) (NH4)2SO4 (C) Ba(N3)2 (D) NH4 ClO4
20. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the underlined atom is affected is :
(A) XeF4  SbF5  (B) H2 SO4  NaCl 
420 K


(C) H3 PO2 
Disproportionation
 (D) NH3 
H

21. From the following statements regarding H2O2, choose the incorrect statement :
(A) It can act only as an oxidizing agent
(B) It decomposed on exposure to light
(C) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark
(D) It has to be kept away from dust
22. Assertion : Nitrogen and Oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not
react to form oxides of nitrogen.
Reason : The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature.
(A) Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion
(B) Both assertion and reason are correct, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion
(C) The assertion is incorrect, but the reason is correct
(D) Both are assertion and reason are incorrect
23. Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II).
Column I (Catalyst) Column II (Product)
(A) V2O5 (i) Polyethylene
(B) TiCl4/Al(Me)3 (ii) Ethanal
(C) PdCl2 (iii) H2SO4
(D) Iron Oxide (iv) NH3
(A) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i) (B) (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
(C) (A)-(iii); (B)-(i); (C)-(ii); (D)-(iv) (D) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(iv)
24. Among statements (a)-(d) the correct ones are:
(a) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives dioxygen.
(b) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as KCIO3, Pb(NO3)2 and NaNO3 when heated
liberate dioxygen.
(c) 2-Ethylanthraquinol is useful for the industrial preparation of hydrogen peroxide.
(d) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture of sodium perborate.
(A) (a) and (c) only (B) (a), (b) and (c) only
(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (D) (a), (c) and (d) only
25. Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given
acids?
(A) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl (B) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(C) HOClO3 < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2 (D) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
26. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives
(A) Xe (B) XeO2 (C) XeO3 (D) XeO2F2
27. Form of sulphur which shows paramagnetic behaviour
(A) S8 – Rhombic (B) S8 – Monoclinic (C) S2 in vapour state (D) Not possible
28. Which has bleaching action due to reduction and it is temporary?
(A) H2O2 (B) O3 (C) SO2 (D) Cl2
29. When Cu is reacted with hot concentrated solution of H2SO4 then the gas obtained is
(A) O2 (B) H2 (C) SO2 (D) SO3
30. Deacon’s process of manufacture of chlorine is represented by the equation
(A) MnO2 + HCl  MnCl2 + Cl2 + H2O
(B) KMnO4 + HCl  KCl + MnCl2 + H2O + Cl2
(C) HCl  O2 
CuCl2
 Cl2  H2O
(D) NaCl + MnO2 + H2SO4  Cl2 + MnCl2 + NaHSO4 + H2O
31. Dioxygen can be prepared by
(A) heating KClO3
(B) Thermal decomposition of oxides like Ag2O, Pb3O4 etc
(C) Electrolysis of water
(D) All of these

Answer Key
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (C) 27. (C) 28. (C)
29. (C) 30. (C) 31. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 13
Syllabus: Liquid Solutions

1. Colligative properties depend on ____________.

(A) the nature of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
(B) the number of solute particles in solution.
(C) the physical properties of the solute particles dissolved in solution.
(D) All of the above
2. Which of the following statements is false?
(i) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same
depression in freezing point.
(ii) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation = CRT
(where C is the molarity of the solution).
(iii) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solutions of barium chloride, potassium
chloride, acetic acid and sucrose is BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > sucrose.
(iv) According to Raoult’s law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
3. Consider the Fig. and mark the correct option.
Piston (X) Piston (Y)
SPM

Concentrated
Fresh water sodium
(A) chloride
solution in
water (B)

(A) water will move from side (X) to side (Y) if a pressure lower than osmotic pressure is applied on piston (Y).
(B) water will move from side (Y) to side (X) if a pressure greater than osmotic pressure is applied on piston
(Y).
(C) water will move from side (Y) to side (X) if a pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (Y).
(D) water will move from side (X) to side (Y) if pressure equal to osmotic pressure is applied on piston (X).

4. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.

 Information:
(A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A–A and B–B type are nearly
same as A–B type interactions.
(B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A–B type
interactions.
(C) In chloroform and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A–B type
interactions.
(A) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult’s law.
(B) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.
(C) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
(D) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
5. KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO (g) and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83×10–5 and 0.413 respectively.
Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
(A) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar (B) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(C) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO (D) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO

6. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20ºC is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was
dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20ºC, its vapour pressure was 183 torr. The molar mass
(g mol–1) of the substance is:
(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 128 (D) 488
7. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45°C when 0.2 g of acetic acid is added to 20 g of
benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage association of acetic
acid in benzene will be : (Kf for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol–1)

(A) 80.4% (B) 74.6% (C) 94.6% (D) 64.6%

8. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, which one will show the highest
freezing point?
(A) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (B) [Co(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O

(C) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (D) [Co(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O

9. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry's law is not correct?
(A) Different gases have different KH (Henry's law constant) values at the same temperature

(B) The value of KH increases with increase of temperature and KH is function of the nature of the
gas
(C) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas
in the solution
(D) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids.
10. At 35°C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg and that of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution
of CS2 in acetone has a total vapour pressure of 520 mm Hg. The false statement amongst the
following is
(A) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system
(B) A mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone has a volume < 200 mL

(C) Heat must be absorbed in order to produce the solution at 35°C

(D) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other than to themselves

11. When 9.45 g of ClCH2COOH is added to 500 mL of water, its freezing point drops by 0.5ºC. The
dissociation constant of ClCH2COOH is x × 10–3. The value of x is ____.

(Rounded off to the nearest integer)

K f (H O)  1.86K kg mol1 
 2 

12. How many m moles of sucrose should be dissolved in 500 grams of water so as to get a solution which has
a difference of 103.57°C between boiling point and freezing point ?

K f  1.86K Kgmol1, K b  0.52K Kgmol1 

(A) 500 m moles (B) 900 m moles (C) 750 m moles (D) 650 m. moles
13. Which of the following has been arranged in order of decreasing freezing point ?
(A) 0.05M KNO3 0.04M CaCl2 0.140M sugar 0.075M CuSO4
(B) 0.04M BaCl2 0.04M sucrose 0.04M BaCl2 0.05M KNO3
(C) 0.075M CuSO4 0.140M sucrose 0.04M BaCl2 0.05M KNO3

(D) 0.075M CuSO4 0.05M NaNO3 0.140M sucrose 0.04M BaCl2

14. Consider the following statements and arrange in the order of true/false as given in the codes.
S1 : Vapour pressure is a colligative property
S2 : Freezing point of a solution is always lower than that of the pure solvent.
S3 : Acetic acid undergoes association in benzene. The molar mass of acetic acid, determined by elevation
of boiling point is always higher than its normal molar mass.
S4 : Osmotic pressure measurements can be used for determination of molar mass of polymers.
(A) FFFF (B) FTTT (C) TTTT (D) TFTF
15. For an ideal binary liquid solution, which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The plot of temperature versus XA (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) is linear.
1
(B) The plot of versus YA (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is non-linear.
PTotal

(C) The plot of temperature versus YA is linear.

(D) The plot of Ptotal versus XA is linear
16. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the vant Hoff factor be the same?
(A) 0.05 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4
(B) 0.10 M K4 [Fe(CN)6] and 0.10 M FeSO4 (NH4)2 SO4.6H2O
(C) 0.20 M NaCl and 0.10 M BaCl2
(D) 0.05 M FeSO4 . (NH4)2 SO4.6H2O and 0.02 M MgCO3
17. Which of the following is not correct for ideal solution -
(A) Raoult's law is obeyed for entire concentration range and temperatures
(B) Smix = 0

(C) Vmix = 0

(D) Hmix = 0

18. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators of cars during winters. It
results in-
(A) Lowering in boiling point (B) Reducing viscosity
(C) Reducing specific heat (D) Lowering in freezing point
19. Azeotropic mixture of water and HCl boils at 381.5 K. By distilling the mixture it is possible to
obtain-
(A) Pure HCl only (B) Pure water only
(C) Neither HCl nor water (D) Both water and HCl in pure state
20. Which of the following concentration factor is affected by change in temperature ?
(A) Molarity (B) Molality (C) Mol fraction (D) Weight fraction
21. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because –
(A) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
(B) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature
(C) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(D) Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
22. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the -
(A) freezing point is raised (B) freezing point is lowered
(C) freezing point does not change (D) boiling point does not change
23. The vapour pressure of solution containing 5 g of non-electrolyte in 90g of water at a particular
temperature is 2985 Nm–2. The vapour pressure of pure water at that temperature is
3000 Nm–2. The molecular weight of the solute is nearly–
(A) 180 (B) 90 (C) 270 (D) 200

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (36) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (D)
22. (A) 23. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 14
Syllabus: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

1. Alkyl halides undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction because -

(A) Alkyl groups are electron repelling groups
(B) Halide ion is a weak nucleophile and therefore displaced by stronger nucleophiles.
(C) Halogen shows a - I effect
(D) they have a dipole moment
2. Which will give white ppt. with AgNO3 ?
(A) Cl (B) Cl (C) CH2Cl (D) Both A & C

3. Finkelstein reaction is -
(A) 2CH3CH2Cl+ Ag2O (dry)  CH3CH2OCH2CH3+ 2AgCl

(B) CH3CH2Br + NaI Acetone

  CH3CH2I+ NaBr

(C) CH3CH2Br + Ag2O (moist)  CH3CH2OH + AgBr

(D) CH3CH2Cl + NaOCH3  CH3 CH2OCH3 + NaCl

/ h
4. (A) Cl
2 (B) aq
.KOH

 (C) [

O]
CH3CHO, Identify A, B & C -
(A) Ethylalcohol, Ethyl chloride & Ethane
(B) Ethane, Ethylchloride & CH3 – CH2 – OH
(C) Propane Propylchloride & CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
(D) All the above
5. What are A & B in the following reaction?
Cl

Br (  A 3 B

i ) Mg / Et 2O (ii) CH CHO
(iii) aq . NH 4Cl

MgCl CHOHCH3 Cl Cl

(A) & (B) &

Br Br MgBr CHOHCH3

MgCl MgCl

(C) & (D) None of these

Br CHOHCH3
6. Among the bromides I–III given below, the order of reactivity in SN1 reaction is:

(I) (II) (III)

(A) III > I > II (B) III > II > I (C) II > III > I (D) II > I > III

SOCl
7. 2  (A)

Major product (A) is:

(A) (B) (C) H2C = CH2 (D)

8. Which of the following alcohols will yield the corresponding alkyl chloride on reaction with
concentrated HCl at room temperature?
(A) CH3CH2 — CH2 — OH (B) CH3CH2  CH  OH
|
CH3

CH3
|
(C) CH3 CH2  CH  CH2OH (D) CH3 CH2  C  OH
| |
CH3 CH3

9. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points.

(A) (b) < (a) < (c) (B) (a) < (b) < (c)
(C) (c) < (a) < (b) (D) (c) < (b) < (a)
10. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
11. Consider thiol anion (RS) and alkoxy anion (RO). Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) RS is less basic but more nucleophilic than RO.
(B) RS is more basic and more nucleophilic than RO.
(C) RS is more basic but less nucleophilic than RO.
(D) RS is less basic and less nucleophilic than RO.
12. The structure of the major product formed in the following reaction is :

NaCN

DMF

CH2Cl CH2Cl CH2CN CH2CN

CN
(A)  (B) CN (C)  (D) CN
13. Among the following compound which can be dehydrated very easily is :
H3C H3C

(A) OH (B) H3C OH

CH3
OH

H3C OH CH3 H3C CH3

(C) (D)
14. 2, 2–dimethyl–1–chloropropane undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction to produce an optically
inactive product which of the following is correct regarding the product ?
(i) Formation of product takes place through SN1 reaction.
(ii) The product is optically inactive due to internal compensation.
(iii) The product is optically inactive due to external compensation.
(iv) The carbocation is not an intermediate in the given reaction.
Choose the correct option.
(A) Only (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) (D) All of these
15. The major product of the following reaction is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. Of the five isomeric hexanes, the isomer which can give only two monochlorinated compounds is
(excluding stereoisomers)
(A) 2–methylpentane (B)2, 2–dimethylbutane
(C) 2, 3–dimethylbutane (D) n–hexane
17. What is the substitution product of the following reaction ?

(A) (B)

(C) Both and (D) Neither nor

18. What do you expect to be the main product when tert–butyl bromide reacts in the following
manner?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

19. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to -
(A) Ethane (B) Propane (C) n-Butane (D) n-pentane
20. A vicinal dihalide is not formed in the reaction-
PBr3 Br2
(A) HOCH2–CH2OH   (B) CH3–CH = CH2 

 
HBr

(C) CH  CH 
 ? 
 ?
HBr HBr
(D) CH3–CH = CHBr Peroxide

21. In the reaction

the major product formed is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

22. What is the final product of the given reaction :
Na CH3 CH2 I
CH3 – C  CH    Product
(A) CH2=CH–CH2–CH3 (B) CH3–CH2–CC–CH2–CH3
(C) CH  C – CH2  CH2  CH3 (D) CH3  C  C  CH2  CH3

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (A)
22. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 15
Syllabus: Alcohol, Phenol & Ether

MgBr CH2CH2OH
1. forms

on reaction with –

(A) CH3 – CHO (B) CH2 – CH2 (C) CH3 – CH2 – CHO (D)
O
O
2. Alcohols have higher boiling points than parent hydrocarbons because of –
(A) Higher molecular masses (B) Presence of hydrogen bonding
(C) Presence of carbon chain (D) None of these
3. Dehydration of the alcohols

OH
OH OH OH

     V

will be in order
(A) >V > (B) V (C) V> (D) V
4. 1-propanol & 2-propanal can be best distinguished by -
(A) Oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(B) Oxidation with acedic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(C) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(D) Oxidation with cocentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling
5. The product of reaction :
H SO 4 NBS alc.KOH
OH 2  A  B 
 is -
NBS
C  D
alc. KOH

E

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. Action of nitrous acid on ethyl amine gives -

(A) C2H6 (B) C2H5OH (C) NH3 (D) Nitromethane
 – 
OH + C2H5I  
C2H5O Na
7.
C2H5OH (anhydrous)

(A) OC2H5 (B) I (C) C6H5OC6H5 (D) C2H5OC2H5

OH
CH3
Br
8. 'A' 2
Br
H 2O

2
'B', 'A' & 'B' respectively are –
CS2

OH OH
CH3 Br CH3
(A) Both are (B) Both are

Br Br
OH OH OH OH
Br CH3 CH3 CH3 Br CH3
(C) & (D) &

Br Br Br Br

9. The yield of chlorobenzene obtained by reaction of phenols with PCl5 is less due to formation of
(A) o-Chlorophenol (B) p-Chlorophenol
(C) phosphorus oxychloride (D) Triphenylphosphate.
10. Which of the following epoxide(s) can react with aq OH– to result into CH3–CH–CH–CH2–OH
O

CH3

(i) CH3–CH–CH–Br (ii) CH3–CH–CH–CH2–Br

O O

Br
(iii) CH3–CH–CH–CH2 (iv) CH3–CH2–C–CH2
Br O O

(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii) (C) (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (iv)

11. The ether O CH2 when treated with HI produces

(A) CH2I (B) CH2OH (C) I (D) CH2I


2  NaBH
   A, A, is :
Hg ( OAc )
12. 4

CH3OH

(A) OH (B) (C) OCH3 (D) 

OH OCH3

13. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of anisole ?

OH + (CH3)2SO4 
NaOH
(A) (B) ONa + CH3I

(C) OH + CH2N2 (D) OH + CH3MgI

14. In the reaction

CH3CH = CH2 NBS

 A C  B
2 H 5ONa
CCl4

the product (B) is -

CH3

(A) CH3–CH–OC2H5
(B) CH2=CHCH2OC2H5
(C) CH3CH2CH2OC2H5
(D) C2H5CH2OCH=CH2
15. Which one among the following reactions is an example of Williamson synthesis -


(A) CH3COCH3 Zn  CH3CH2CH3
Hg
Conc.HCl, heat

(B) CH3CHO 1    CH3CH=CHCHO

.dilNaOH, heat

2.H3O , heat

(C) C2H5I + C2H5ONa heat

 C2H5OC2H5


(D) HCHO+NaOH   HCOONa +CH3OH
heat

16. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence of NaOH followed by acidification produces
compound X as the major product. X on treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of catalytic
amount of H2SO4 produces:
O O CH3
C O
CO2H
OH
(A) (B)
CO2H
O CH3
O
O
O
O CH3
O CH3
(C) (D)
CO 2H
CO2H

17. Ethanol is heated with concentrated H2SO4. The product formed is

(A) CH3 — C — O — C2H5 (B) C2H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2

O
18. Which of the following compounds on reaction with ethylmagnesium bromide (one mole)

and subsequent hydrolysis will form 2-methyl-2-butanol ?

(A) CH3COCH3 (B) CH3COOCH3 (C) CH3CH2CHO (D) CH3CH2COCH3

19. 3-Methyl-2-butanol on reaction with HCl gives predominantly -

(A) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane (B) 2-chloro-3-methylbutane

(C) 2-methyl-2-butene (D) 3-methyl-1-butene

20. The compound A, B and C in the reaction sequence :

PBr3
CH3–CH2OH   A 
alc. KOH Br2
B   C are given by the set :

(A) Ethyl bromide, CH3CH2OH, CH3CHBr2

(B) C2H5Br, CHCH, CH2=CHBr

(C) C2H5Br, CH2=CH2, CH2Br–CH2Br

(D) C2H5Br, CH3CH2OH, BrCH2–CH2Br

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 16
Syllabus: Chemical Kinetics

1. For the equilibrium, A(g) B(g), H is –40 kJ/mol. If the ratio of the activation energies of
2
the forward (Ef) and reverse (Eb) reactions is then :
3
(A) Ef = 80 kJ/mol; Eb = 120 kJ/mol (B) Ef = 60 kJ/mol; Eb = 100 kJ/mol
(C) Ef = 30 kJ/mol; Eb = 70 kJ/mol (D) Ef = 70 kJ/mol; Eb = 30 kJ/mol
2. Consider the following reactions
A  P1 ; B  P2 ; C  P3 ; D  P4,
The order of the above reactions are a, b, c, and d, respectively. The following graph is
obtained when log[rate] vs. log[conc.] are plotted

Among the following, the correct sequence for the order of the reactions is
(A) d > b > a > c (B) d > a > b > c (C) a > b > c > d (D) c > a > b > d
3. Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate law
with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25°C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The value of
1
log10   is _____ × 10–2. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)
 f 

[Assume : ln 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]

4. A particular reaction increases its rate by a factor of 2 when the temperature is increased from 27°C to
37°C. Hence activation energy of the reaction is :
(A) 12.9 kcal (B) 0.14 kcal (C) 1.1 kcal (D) none of these
5. 50% of the amount of a radioactive substance decomposes in 5 years. The time required for the
decomposition of 99.9% of the substance will be :
(A) 10 years (B) between 10 and 50 years
(C) less than 10 years (D) between 49 and 50 years
1 1
6. Reaction A  B 
 C  D follow's following rate law : rate  k  [A] 2 [B] 2 . Starting with initial
conc. of one mole of A and B each, what is the time taken for amount of A to become 0.25 mole.
Given k = 2.31 × 10–3 sec–1
(A) 300 sec. (B) 600 sec. (C) 900 sec. (D) none of these
7. Consider the Arrhenius equation given below and mark the correct option.

k  AeEa /RT
(A) Rate constant increases exponentially with increasing activation energy and decreasing temperature.
(B) Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and Increasing temperature.
(C) Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and decreasing temperature.
(D) Rate constant increases exponentially with decreasing activation energy and increasing temperature.
8. Which of the following expressions is correct for the rate of reaction given below?
5Br  (aq)  BrO3 (aq)  6H (aq) 
 3Br2 (aq)  3H2 O(I)
d[Br  ] d[H ] d[Br  ] 6 d[H ]
(A) 5 (B) 
dt dt dt 5 dt
d[Br  ] 5 d[H ] d[Br  ] d[H ]
(C)  (D) 6
dt 6 dt dt dt
9. Rate law for the reaction A + 2B C is found to be
Rate = k [A][B]
Concentration of reactant ‘B’ is doubled, keeping the concentration of ‘A’
constant, the value of rate constant will be______.
(A) the same (B) doubled (C) quadrupled (D) halved
10. Which of the following statement is not correct for the catalyst?
(A) It catalyses the forward and backward reaction to the same extent.
(B) It alters G of the reaction.
(C) It is a substance that does not change the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
(D) It provides an alternate mechanism by reducing activation energy between reactants and products.
11. The activation energies of two reactions are E a1 and E a 2 with E a1  E a 2 If the temperature of

the reacting systems is increased from T to T´, which of the following is correct ?

K 1' K' K 1' K' K 1' K' K 1' K'

(A) = 2 (B) <2 2 (C) > 2 (D) < 2
K1 K2 K1 K2 K1 K2 K1 K2

12. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to :

(A) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species
(B) increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved
(C) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions
(D) loss of active species on collision
1
13. The reaction, N2O5 (g) 2 NO2 (g) + O2 (g), is started with initial pressure of N2O5 (g)
2

equal to 600 torr. What fraction of N2O5 (g) decomposed when total pressure of the system is
960 torr ?
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4
14. For a first order reaction, the plot of 't' against log C gives a straight line with slope equal to –
(A) (k/2.303) (B) (–k/2.303) (C) (ln k/2.303) (D) none of these
15. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction–
A + B  C
 Expt. No. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate
1. 0.012 0.035 0.10
2. 0.024 0.070 0.80
3. 0.024 0.035 0.10
4. 0.012 0.070 0.80
(A) Rate = k[B]3 (B) Rate = k [B]4 (C) Rate = k [A][B]3 (D) Rate = k [A]2[B]2
16. Which of the following statement is wrong about order of reaction ?
(A) Order is experimentally determined
(B) Order is independent on the stoichiometry of reaction
(C) Order can not be fractional
(D) Order is the sum of the power to which the concentration terms are raised to express the
rate of reaction
17. The rate constant of the reaction
2H2O2 (aq)  2H2O () + O2 (g) is 3 × 10–3 min–1

At what concentration of H2O2, the rate of the reaction will be 2 × 10–4 Ms–1 ?
(A) 6.67 × 10–3M (B) 2 M (C) 4 M (D) 0.08 M
18. At 80% of a radioactive element undergoing decay is left over after a certain period of time t from pure
start, how many such periods should elapse from the start for just over 50% of the element to be left
over.
19. A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both compounds decompose by first-order kinetics.
The half-lives are 54.0 min for A and 18.0 min for B. If the concentrations of A and B are equal initially,
how long (in minute) will it take for the concentration of A to be four times that of B ?

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (81) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. 3 19. 54
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 17
Syllabus: Metallurgy, d & f block

1. Which one contains both Ca and Mg ?

(A) Limestone (B) Dolomite (C) Chalk (D) Feldspar
2. The ore which is concentrated by wetting oil is :
(A) oxide ore (B) sulphate ore (C) carbonate ore (D) sulphide ore
3. Lead is mainly extracted by :
(A) Aluminium reduction method
(B) Self-reduction method
(C) Electrolytic reduction
(D) Leaching with aqueous solution of NaCN followed by reduction
4. In the electrolytic refining of copper, Ag and Au are found:
(A) on anode (B) in electrolyte solution
(C) in anode mud (D) in cathode mud
5. Choose the correct code regarding Roasting process :
(I) It is the process of heating ore in air to obtain the oxide
(II) It is an exothermic process
(III) It is used for hydrated oxide and oxysalt ore
(IV) It is used after the concentration of ore
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, III and IV (D) I, II, in and IV
6. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of Al2O3 because :
(A) it is non-metal
(B) the heat of formation of CO2 is more than that of Al2O3
(C) pure carbon is not easily available
(D) the heat of formation of Al2O3 is too high
7. Consider the following metallurgical processes :
(I) Heating impure metal with CO and distilling the resulting volatile carbonyl (b.p. 43°C) and finally
decomposition at 150C 200C to get the pure metal
(II) Heating the sulphide ore in air until a part is converted to oxide and then further heating in the
absence of air to let the oxide react with unchanged metal sulphide
(III) Electrolysis of the molten electrolyte containing approximately equal amounts of the metal
chloride and NaCl to obtained the metal
The processes used for obtaining magnesium, nickel and copper are respectively:
(A) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (II), (III) and (I)
(C) (III), (I) and (II) (D) (II), (I) and (III)
8. When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because :
(A) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS

(B) ZnS forms soluble complex Na2 Zn(CN)4 

(C) PbS forms soluble complex Na2 Pb(CN)4 

(D) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN

9. Blister copper is refined by stirring molten impure metal with green logs of wood because such a
wood liberates hydrocarbon gases (like CH4 ) . This process X is called ........ and the metal contains
impurities of Y is :
(A) X = cupellation, Y CuO2 (B) X = polling, Y Cu2O
(C) X = polling, Y CuO (D) X = cupellation, Y CuO
10. In the extraction of aluminium
Process X : employed for red bauxite to remove iron oxide (main impurity)
Process Y (Serpeck’s process) : used for white bauxite to remove Z (main impurity) then,
Select correct option for the process X and impurity Z.
(A) X = Hall and Heroult’s process and Z SiO2
(B) X = Bayer’s process and Z SiO2
(C) X = Serpeck’s process and Y = iron oxide
(D) X= Bayer’s process and Y = iron oxide
11. The plot shows the variation of –ln Kp versus temperature for the two reactions.
1 1
M(s) + O (g)  MO(s) and C(s) + O2(g)  CO(g)
2 2 2

M  MO

–l n Kp
C  CO
20

0 1200 T (K)
Identify the correct statement:
(A) At T > 1200 K, carbon will reduce MO(s) to M(s).
(B) At T < 1200 K, oxidation of carbon is unfavourable.
(C) Oxidation of carbon is favourable at all temperatures.
(D) At T < 1200 K, the reaction MO(s) + C(s)  M(s) + CO(g) is spontaneous.
12. The correct statement is :
(A) Zincite is a carbonate ore.
(B) Zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium.
(C) Aniline is a froth stabilizer used in froth floatation method.
(D) Sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver.
13. Match the refining methods (Column I) with metals (Column II).
Column I Column II
(Refining methods) (Metals)
(I) Liquation (a) Zr
(II) Zone Refining (b) Ni
(III) Mond Process (c) Sn
(IV)Van Arkel Method (d) Ga
(A) (I)-(c); (II)-(a); (III)-(b); (IV)-(d) (B) (I)-(b); (II)-(d); (III)-(a); (IV)-(c)
(C) (I)-(c); (II)-(d); (III)-(b); (IV)-(a) (D) (I)-(b); (II)-(c); (III)-(d); (IV)-(a)
14. Al2O3 was leached with alkali to get X. The solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z. X, Y
and Z respectively are :
(a) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3 (B) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O
(C) X = Al(OH)3, Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3 (D) X = Al(OH)3, Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O
Org. solvent
15. Acidified chromic acid + H2O2   X+Y, X and Y are :

(A) CrO5 and H2O (B) Cr2O3 and H2O

(C) CrO2 and H2O (D) CrO and H2O
16. (NH4 )2Cr2O7 (Ammonium dichromate) is used in fire works. The green coloured powder blown in air
is:
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO2 (C) Cr2O4 (D) CrO3
17. Coinage metals show the properties of :
(A) typical elements (B) normal elements
(C) inner-transition elements (D) transition element
18. The aqueous solution of CuCrO4 is green because it contains
(A) green Cu2 ions (B) green CrO24 ions

(C) blue Cu2 ions and green CrO24 ions (D) blue Cu2 ions and yellow CrO24 ions

19. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with atomic
0
numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest EM3+/M2+ value ?

(A) Cr(Z = 24) (B) Mn(Z = 25) (C) Fe(Z = 26) (D) Co(Z = 27)
20. Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical relations related to iron and its
compound ?

(A) Fe 
dil H SO2
 FeSO4 
4 H SO ,O
 Fe2(SO4)3 
 2 4 2 heat
 Fe

(B) Fe 
O ,heat
2
 FeO 
dil H SO
 FeSO4 
2 4 heat
 Fe

(C) Fe 
Cl ,heat
2
 FeCl3 
heat,air
 FeCl2 
Zn
Fe

(D) Fe 
O ,heat
2
 Fe3O4 
CO, 600ºC
 FeO 
CO, 700ºC
 Fe

21. The colour of KMnO4 is due to :

(A) M  L charge transfer transition (B) d – d transition

(C) L  M charge transfer transition (D)  – * transition

22. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively acting as a/an :
(a) ZnO + Na2O  Na2ZnO2 (b) ZnO + CO2  ZnCO3

(A) base and base (B) acid and acid (C) acid and base (D) base and acid
23. The highest value of the calculated spin–only magnetic moment (in BM) among all the
transition metal complexes is :
(A) 4.90 (B) 6.93 (C) 3.87 (D) 5.92
24. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation, is :
(A) V (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Cu

A   2B + 2H O
4KOH, O2
25. 2

(Green)

3 B  2C + MnO2 + 2H2O

4HCl

(Purple)

2 C  2A + 2 KOH + D
H2O, KI

In the above sequence of reactions,

A and D, respectively, are :
(A) KIO3 and MnO2 (B) MnO2 and KIO3 (C) KI and K2MnO4 (D) KI and KMnO4
26. The correct order of atomic radii is :
(A) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (B) N > Ce > Eu > Ho
(C) Ce > Eu > Ho > N (D) Ho > N > Eu > Ce
27. Which of following statement is not correct?
(A) La(OH)2 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(B) In Lanthanide series ionic radius of Lu3+ ion decreases
(C) La is actually on element of transition series rather lanthanides.
(D) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are nearly same because of Lanthanide contraction.
28. Which of following Lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic?
(Atomic nos. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70)
(A) Sm2+ (B) Eu2+ (C) Yb2+ (D) Ce2+
29. Electronic configuration of Eu (Atomic no.= 63), Gd (Atomic no.=64) and Tb (Atomic no.=65)
are :
(A) [Xe]4f 7 6s2 ,[Xe]4f 7 5d1 6s2 and [Xe]4 f 9 6s2 (B) [Xe]4f 7 6s 2,[Xe]4f 8 6s 2 and [Xe]4f 8 5d16s2

(C) [Xe]4f 6 5d1 6s2 ,[Xe]4f 7 5d1 and [Xe]4 f 9 6s2 (D) [Xe]4f 6 5d16s 2,[Xe]4f 7 5d16s 2 and [Xe]4f 8 5d16s2

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C)
29. (A)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 18
Syllabus: Aldehyde, Ketone & Carboxylic Acid

1. Consider the following reactions :

OH
(1) CH3MgBr + CH3COCH2COCH3 (CH3)2CCH2COCH3
O
CH3 OH

(2) CH3MgBr + 

OH
(3) CH3MgBr + CH3COCH2CH2CH3 (CH3)2CCH2CH2CH3
(4) CH3MgBr + CH2 – CH2  CH3CH2CH2OH
O
Which of the above products would be obtained after hydrolysis ?
(A) (1), (4) (B) (2), (3), (4) (C) (2), (3) (D) none of these
2. The best method for the conversion of ethanol to ethanal is-
(A) By passing ethanol vapours over Cu at 578
(B) By oxidation with acidic potassium dichromate
(C) By oxidation with mangenese dioxide at 300ºC
(D) By oxidation with acidic KMnO4
3. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives:
(A) n-Propyl alcohol (B) Ethanal (C) Propanal (D) Isopropyl alcohol `
4. The general order of reactivity of carbonyl compounds for nucleophilic addition reactions is -
(A) H2C = O > RCHO > ArCHO > R2C = O > Ar2C =O
(B) ArCHO > Ar2C = O > RCHO > R2C = O > H2C = O
(C) Ar2C = O > R2C =O >ArCHO > RCHO > H2C = O
(D) H2C = O > R2C = O > Ar2C =O > RCHO > ArCHO
5. Aldol condensation between the following compounds followed by dehydration gives methyl vinyl
ketone-
(A) HCHO and CH3COCH3 (B) HCHO and CH3CHO
(C) Two molecules of CH3CHO (D) Two molecules of CH3COCH3
6. Dry distillation of calcium formate and subsequent treatment with dilute KOH gives the mixture of:
(A) CH3OH, HCOOK (B) CH3CHO, HCOOK
(C) HCHO, HCOOK (D) None of the above
 CH3
7. The compounds A, B and C in the reaction sequence CO 
I2 A 
Ag B H2SO
4  C are

CH3 Alkali  Hg  2

given by the set –

(A) Iodoform, ethylene, ethyl alcohol. (B) Iodoform, acetylene, acetaldehyde.
(C) Iodoform, propyne, acetone. (D) Iodoform, 2-propanol, propanone.
8. Cannizzaro reaction does not take place with -

(A) (CH3)3CCHO (B) CHO (C) CHO (D) CH3CHO

O
9. Which of the following compounds does not react with NaHSO3 ?
(A) C6H5CHO (B) C6H5COCH3 (C) CH3COCH3 (D) C2H5COC2H5
10. Which of the following geminal diols is the most unstable ?
F3C OH Cl3C OH OH CH3 OH
(A) C (B) C (C) (D) C
F3C OH H OH OH CH3 OH
11. Which of the following products is formed when adipic acid is heated -
CH2– CH2 CH2– CH2
(A) O (B) C=O
CH2– CH2 CH2– CH2
CH2– CH2CO CH2– CH2COOH
(C) O (D)
CH2– CH2CO CH2– CH2COOH
12. The acid D obtained through the following sequence of reactions is -

 C 3 
H O
C2H5Br Alc
.  A 
 B KCN
KOH Br2
CCl4 ( excess )

(A) Succinic acid (B) Malonic acid (C) Maleic acid (D) Oxalic acid
13. Identify Z in the following reaction sequence CH3I Mg
 X Dry

 Y Cl

2 Z -
Ether ice Re d P

(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3MgI (C) CH3COCl (D) ClCH2COOH

14. Kolbe’s electrolysis of aqueous potassium ethanoate leads to the formation of -
(A) Ethene (B) Methane (C) Ethane (D) Ethyne
15. In the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of CH3CH2COONa, anion goes to anode the possibility of
formation of following compounds takes place -
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (B) CH2 = CH2, CH3 – CH3
(C) CH3CH2COOC2H5 (D) All the above

CH3CH2COOH 
 a Alc
Cl2
16. .  b
KOH
red P

The compound b is -
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3CH2COCl
(C) CH2 = CHCOOH (D) CH3 – CHCl – COOH
17. The major product of the following reaction is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 19
Syllabus: Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry

1. 5 moles of an ideal gas expand isothermally and irreversibly from a pressure of 10 atm to 1 atm
against a constant external pressure of 1 atm. Work done at 300 K is:
(A) –15.921 kJ (B) –11.224 kJ (C) –110.83 kJ (D) None of these
2. Given the following data :

Determine at what temperature the following reaction is spontaneous?

FeO(s) + C(Graphite)  Fe(s) + CO(g)
(A) 298K
(B) 668 K
(C) 966 K
(D) ΔG° is positive, hence the reaction will never be spontaneous
3. Select the correct statement :
(A) All adiabatic processes are isoentropic process.
(B) Gibb’s function is an intensive property
(C) Ssys can be negative in any adiabatic process in a closed system.
(D) U = 0 for the combustion of C6H6 (g) in sealed rigid adiabatic container.
4. The lattice enthalpy of solid NaCl is 772 kJmol–1 and enthalpy of solution is 2kJmol–1. If the hydration
enthalpy of Na+ & Cl– ions are in the ratio of 3:2.5, what is the enthalpy of hydration of chloride ion ?
(A) –620kJ /mol for Na+ (B) –351.81kJ /mol for Na+
(C) –350kJ /mol for Cl– (D) –140kJ /mol for Cl–
5. Which of the following represent H formation of the product at 25ºC ?
2
(A) C (diamond) + O2 (g)  CO2(g) (B) O3 (g) 
 O2 (g)
3

(C) NH4 (g)  Cl (g) 

NH4Cl(s) (D) P4 (white)  5O2 (g) 
P4O10 (s)

6. (HU) for the formation of carbon monoxide (CO) from its elements at 298 K is
(R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1) 
(A) 1238.78 J mol–1 (B) -2477.57 J mol–1 (C) 2477.57 J mol–1 (D) –1238.78 J mol–1
7. Given
C(graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g) ; rHº = – 393.5 kJ mol–1

1
H2(g) + O (g)  H2O(l) ; rHº = –285.8 kJ mol–1 ;
2 2

CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)  CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ; rHº = +890.3 kJ mol–1

Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of rHº at 298 K for the reaction

C(graphite) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g) will be :

(A) +144.0 kJ mol–1 (B) –74.8 kJ mol–1 (C) –144.0 kJ mol–1 (D) +74.8 kJ mol–1
8. For silver, Cp(JK–1 mol–1) = 23 + 0.01T. If the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300
K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of H will be close to
(A) 21 kJ (B) 13 kJ (C) 62 kJ (D) 16 kJ
9. The following reaction is performed at 298 K
2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)
The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free
energy of formation of NO2(g) at 298 K ? (KP = 1.6 × 1012)
(A) R(298) in (1.6 × 1012) – 86600 (B) 86600 + R(298) ln (1.6 x 1012)

(C) 86600 –

ln 1.6  1012  (D) 0.5 [2 × 86,600 – R (298) ln (1.6 × 1012)]
R  298 

10. U is equal to-

(A) Isobaric work (B) Adiabatic work (C) Isothermal work (D) Isochoric work
11. The combination of plots which does not represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is

P P PVm U

O 1/Vm O Vm O P O Vm
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(A) (A) and (C) (B) (A) and (D) (C) (B) and (C) (D) (B) and (D)
12. The process with negative entropy change is :
(A) Sublimation of dry ice (B) Dissociation of CaSO4(s) to CaO(s) and SO3(g)
(C) Synthesis of ammonia from N2 and H2 (D) Dissolution of iodine in water
13. Five moles of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 298 K is expanded into vacuum to double the volume. The
work done is
(A) Zero (B) – RT ln V2/V1 (C) CV (T2 – T1) (D) – RT (V2 – V1)
14. Select the correct order in the following :
(A) 1 erg > 1 joule > 1 cal (B) 1 cal > 1 joule > 1 erg
(C) 1 erg > 1 cal > 1 joule (D) 1 joule > 1 cal > 1 erg
15. A gas is allowed to expand at constant pressure from a volume of 1.0 litre to 10.0 litre against an
external pressure of 0.50 atm. If the gas absorbs 250 J of heat from the surroundings, what are the
values of q, w and E? (Given 1 L atm = 101 J)
q w E
(A) 250 J – 455 J – 205 J
(B) –250 J – 455 J – 710 J
(C) 250 J 455 J 710 J
(D) –250 J 455 J 205 J
16. In a change from state A to state B -
(A) 'q' depends only on the initial and final state
(B) 'w' depends only on the initial and final state
(C) E depends only on the initial and final state
(D) E depends upon the path adopted by A to change into B
17. Ammonium nitrate can decompose with explosion by the following reaction.
NH4NO3 (s)  N2O (g) + 2H2O 

  H = –37.0 KJ/mol
Calculate the heat produced when 2.50g of NH4NO3 decomposes -
(A) 1.06 KJ (B) 0.96KJ (C) 1.16 KJ (D) 1.26 KJ
18. If the enthalpy of vapourisation of water is 186.5 J mol–1, the entropy of its vaporisation will be -
(A) 0.5 JK–1 mol–1 (B) 1.0 JK–1 mol–1 (C) 1.5 JK–1 mol–1 (D) 2.0 JK–1 mol–1
19. For the reaction,
H
H
+ H — H  H
H
H H
bond energies are given as under –
(i) C—C, 346 kJ/mol
(ii) C—H, 413 kJ/mol
(iii) H—H, 437 kJ/mol and
(iv) C = C, 611 kJ/mol
What will be the value of H at 25ºC for the above reaction?
(A) –289 kJ mol–1 (B) – 124 kJ mol–1
(C) + 124 kJ mol–1 (D) +289 kJ mol–1
20. The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system goes
from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be the net
change in internal energy
(A) < 40 kJ (B) Zero (C) 40 kJ (D) > 40 kJ
21. The magnitude of work done by a gas that undergoes reversible expansion along the path ABC shown
in the figure is _____________.

22. The true statement amongst the following is

(A) S is not a function of temperature but S is a function of temperature
(B) S is a function of temperature but S is not a function of temperature
(C) Both S and S are functions of temperature
(D) Both S and S are not functions of temperature

Answer Key
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (48)
22. (C)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 20
Syllabus: Atomic Structure

1. Which of the following graphs correspond to one node?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. Hydrogen  H , deuterium  H , singly ionized helium 

1
1
2
1
4
2 He  and doubly ionized lithium  6
3 Li2  all
have one electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If the
wavelengths of emitted radiation are 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively. Then approximately which one of
the following is correct?
(A) 1= 2 = 43 = 94 (B) 1= 22 = 33 = 44
(C) 41= 22 = 23 = 4 (D) 1= 22 = 23 = 4
3. Plots for 2s orbital are:

X, Y and Z are respectively:

(A) R, R2 and 4r2R2 (B) R2, R and 4r2R2
(C) 4r2R2, R2 and R (D) R2, 4r2R2 and R
1/2
1  1  r  r /2a
4. The wave function () of 2s is given by: 2s    2   e 0
2 2  a0   a 0 

At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus for 2s, r0 in terms of a0 is:

(A) r0 = a0 (B) r0 = 2a0 (C) r0 = a0 / 2 (D) r0 = 4a0
5. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is :
1 1 1 1
(A) 5, 0, 0, + (B) 5, 1, 0, + (C) 5,1, 1, + (D) 5, 0, 1, +
2 2 2 2
6. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen
(A) +13.6 eV (B) –6.8 eV (C) –3.4 eV (D) +6.8 eV
 1 
7. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number against  2 
n 
will be (The Rydberg constant, RH is in wave number unit)
(A) Linear with slope RH (B) Linear with intercept –RH
(C) Non-linear (D) Linear with slope –RH
8. Which one of the following about an electron occupying the 1s orbital in a hydrogen atom is
incorrect? (The Bohr radius is represented by a0)
(A) The probability density of finding the electron is maximum at the nucleus
(B) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0 from the nucleus
(C) The magnitude of the potential energy is double that of its kinetic energy on an average
(D) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus
9. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th Bohr orbit is
(A) 4a0 (B) 6a0 (C) 8a0 (D) 2a0
10. The work function of sodium metal is 4.41 × 10–19 J. If photons of wavelength 300 nm are incident on
the metal, the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons will be (h = 6.63 × 10 –34 J s; c = 3 × 108 m/s)
________ × 10–21 J.
11. According to Bohr’s atomic theory :-
Z2
(1) Kinetic energy of electron is  .
n2
(2) The product of velocity (v) of electron and principal quantum number (n), ‘vn’  Z2.
Z3
(3) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit is  .
n3
Z3
(4) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron is  .
n4
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) (3) Only (B) (1) Only
(C) (1), (3) and (4) only (D) (1) and (4) only
12. Which of the following statements are not true for anode ray ?
(A) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(B) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in discharge tube used to produce anode rays
(C) The e/m ratio of anode rays is constant.
(D) They are produced by ionization of the gas in discharge tube.
13. Rutherford -particle scattering experiment led to conclusion that -
(A) mass and energy are related
(B) The mass and the positive charge of an atom are concentrated in nucleus.
(C) Neutrons are present in nucleus.
(D) atoms are electrically neutral
14. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave associated
with it would become
1 1
(A) 3 times (B) 9 times (C) times (D) times.
3 9
15. The wave number of the limiting line in Lyman series of hydrogen is 109678 cm–1. The wave number
of the limiting line in Balmer series of He+ would be -
(A) 54839 cm–1 (B) 219356 cm–1 (C) 109678 cm–1 (D) 438712 cm–1
16. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of H- atom is – 13.6 eV. The possible energy values of the
excited state for electron in Bohr orbits of Li2+ ions is/are -
(A) –3.4 eV (B) –30.6 eV (C) –13.6 eV (D) All of the above
17. The frequency of first line of Balmer series in hydrogen atom is 0. The frequency of corresponding

line emitted by singly ionised helium atom is

(A) 2v0 (B) 4v0 (C) v0/2 (D) v0/4

18. If threshold wavelength () for ejection of electron from metal is 330 nm, then work function for the
photoelectric emission is -
(A) 1.2 × 10–18 J (B) 1.2 × 10–20 J (C) 6 × 10–19 J (D) 6 × 10–12 J
19. Which one of the following represents an impossible arrangement ?
n  m s
(A) 3 2 –2 ½
(B) 4 0 0 ½
(C) 3 2 –3 ½
(D) 5 3 0 ½
20. The uncertainly in momentum of an e– is 1 × 10–5 Kg m/s. The uncertainly in its position will be

h  6.62  10 34
Kgm2 / s 
(A) 5.27  1030 m (B) 1.05  1026 m (C) 1.05  1028 m (D) 5.25  1028 m
21. The maximum number of electrons in an atom which can have n = 4 is
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (222) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (D)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 21
Syllabus: Nitrogen Containing Compounds

1. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B. On heating B gives C. C in presence of
KOH reacts with Br2 to given CH3CH2NH2. A is:
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(C) CH3 CH COOH (D) CH3CH2COOH
CH3
2. In the reaction
NH2


NaNO2 /HCl
0–5ºC
 D 
CuCN/KCN

 E + N2

CH3

the product E is :
COOH CN CH3

(A) (B) H3C CH3 (C) (D)

CH3 CH3

3. What is the correct sequence of reagents used for converting nitrobenzene into m-dibromobenzene ?


(A) 
NaNO2

 / 
HCl
 / 
KBr
 / 
H

(B) 
Br2 /Fe
 / 
Sn/HCl
 / 
NaNO2 /HCl
 / 
CuBr /HBr


(C) 
Sn/ HCl
 / 
KBr
 / 
Br2

 / 
H

(D) 
Sn/HCl
 / 
Br2

 / 
NaNO2

 / 
NaBr

4. Which of the following does not gives Friedel-Crafts reaction?

(p) (q) (r) (s)

(A) only p (B) only q and r (C) only p,q and r (D) only q, r and s
5. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown in the following equation :
C6H5CH2NH2 + R—X  C6H5CH2NHR
Which of the following alkylhalides is best suited for this reaction through SN1 mechanism?
(A) CH3Br (B) C6H5Br (C) C6H5CH2Br (D) C2H5 Br
6. Which of the following reagents would not be a good choice for reducing an aryl nitro compound to
an amine?
(A) H2 (excess)/Pt (B) LiAlH4 in ether (C) Fe and HCl (D) Sn and HCl
7. In order to prepare a 1° amine from an alkyl halide with simultaneous addition of one CH2 group in
the carbon chain, the reagent used as source of nitrogen is ___________.
(A) Sodium amide, NaNH2 (B) Sodium azide, NaN3
(C) Potassium cyanide, KCN (D) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+
8. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of amines is _____________.
(A) Sodium azide, NaN3 (B) Sodium nitrite, NaNO2
(C) Potassium cyanide, KCN (D) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N–K+
9. Amongst the given set of reactants, the most appropriate for preparing 2° amine is _____.
(A) 2° R—Br + NH3
(B) 2° R—Br + NaCN followed by H2/Pt
(C) 1° R—NH2 + RCHO followed by H2/Pt
(D) 1° R—Br (2 mol) + potassium phthalimide followed by H3O+/heat
10. Hoffmann Bromamide Degradation reaction is shown by __________.
(A) ArNH2 (B) ArCONH2 (C) ArNO2 (D) ArCH2NH
11. Reduction of aromatic nitro compounds using Fe and HCl gives __________.
(A) aromatic oxime (B) aromatic hydrocarbon
(C) aromatic primary amine (D) aromatic amide
12. Which of the following compound will not undergo azo coupling reaction with benzene diazonium
chloride.
(A) Aniline (B) Phenol (C) Anisole (D) Nitrobenzene
13. Which of the following methods of preparation of amines will give same number of carbon atoms in
the chain of amines as in the reactant?
(A) Reaction of nitrite with LiAlH4.
(B) Reaction of amide with LiAlH4 followed by treatment with water.
(C) Heating alkylhalide with potassium salt of phthalimide followed by hydrolysis.
(D) Treatment of amide with bromine in aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide.
14. Which of the following is obtained by reducing methyl cyanide with Na + C2H5OH -
(A) Methyl alcohol (B) Acetic acid (C) Ethyl amine (D) Methane
15. Identify the product C in the given reaction.
Cu / 300C
CH3 – C N 25
Na / C H OH HNO 2
 A  B    C
(A) CH3 – COOH (B) CH3 – CH2 – NH – OH
(C) CH3 – CONH2 (D) CH3 – CH = O
16.

The correct statement is -

NO2 NO2

(A) Y = (B) Z =
NH2 Ph
Cl Br
NO2

(C) P = (D) None of these

O2N Ph
Br

17. Identify the end product 'C'

CH3I(excess) moist Ag2O 

A B C
N
|
H

(A) (B) (C) (D)

+
N

18. A positive carbylamine test is given by

(A) N, N-Dimethylaniline (B) 2,4 -Dimethylaniline
(C) N- Methyl-o-methylaniline (D) o-Methylbenzylamine
19. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines ?
(A) Hofmann method (B) Hinsberg method
(C) Curtius reaction (D) Wurtz reaction
20. R–Cl + NH3 (excess)  (X) (major product), the major product (X) is a :
(A) 1° amine (B) 2° amine (C) 3° amine (D) 4° ammonium salt
21. (A) H2 /
Pt
 1° Amine

(B) H2 /
Pt
 2° Amine:
(A) and (B) respectively are :
(A) RNC, RNC (B) RCN, RCN (C) RCN, RNC (D) RNC, RCN

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (A) 21. (C)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 23
Syllabus: s-block & p-block (group 13&14)
1. On heating baking soda the compounds formed are :
(A) Na2CO3 (B) CO2 (C) Na2CO3, CO (D) Na2CO3, CO2, H2O
2. Which of the following do not convert into oxide on heating?
(A) Li2CO3 (B) K2CO3 (C) CaCO3 (D) MgCO3
3. Correct statement about Na2CO3 .10H2O is :
(A) It contains dative, covalent and ionic bonds
(B) It removes only permanent hardness of water
(C) It does not give pink colour with phenolphthalein
(D) All are false
4. A solution of sodium in liquid ammonia serves as a good reducing agent due to the
reaction/presence of :
(A) 2Na + 2NH3  2NaNH2 + H2 (B) NaNH2 + NO2  NaN3 + H2O
(C) 2Na + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2 (D) Solvated electron
5. The order of decreasing hydration energy of alkali metal ions is :
(A) Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Cs+ (B) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+
(C) Li+ < Na+ > K+ > Cs+ (D) Li+ > Na+ < K+ > Cs+
6. Mg 
air
X  Y 
H2O
heat
 Z 
CuSO4 (sol)
(A) Blue coloured solution. Substances X, Y, Z and
colourlessgas

A are respectively:
(A) Mg3N2, MgO, NH3, CuSO4. 5H2O (B) Mg(NO3) 3, MgO, H2, CuSO4. 5H2O
(C) MgO, Mg3N2, NH3, [Cu(NH3)4].SO4 (D) Mg(NO3)2 , MgO2, H2O2, CuSO4.5H2O
7. The Name and the formula of a compound of Ca, C and N used as a fertilizer is :
(A) Calcium cyanide, Ca(CN)2
(B) Calcium carbonate, CaCO3
(C) Calcium cyanide having carbon particles, (Ca(CN)2 + C)
(D) Calcium cyanamide and carbon (nitrolim), (CaCN2 + C)
8. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium. Which of the following similarity is
incorrect?
(A) Be2C like Al4C3 yields methane on hydrolysis
(B) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO3
(C) Be (OH)2 like Al(OH)3 is base
(D) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
9. Select the correct statement :
(A) peroxides (M2O2) of alkali metals are diamagnetic and colourless
(B) superoxides (MO2) of alkali metals are paramagnetic
(C) Li and Na do not form stable superoxides
(D) all are correct.
10. The elements whose difference in oxidation number in the products on reaction with caustic
soda is 4 is :
(A) Cl2 (B) P4 (C) S (D) B
11. Which of the following does not produce any gaseous product when reacts with water ?
(A) Ca3N2 (B) CaC2 (C) CaO (D) Ca3P2
12. Which of the following is the correct statement ?
(A) Ba(OH) 2 > Ca(OH) 2 > Mg(OH) 2 > Be(OH) 2 [Thermal stability]
(B) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 [Solubility in water]
(C) CaF2 > MgF2 > BaF2 > BeF2 [Solubility in water]
(D) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 [Thermal stability]
13. Borax bead test is used to identify the :
(A) Anion in coloured salt (B) Cation in coloured salt
(C) Anion in white salt (D) Cation in white salt
14. Which of the following reactions does not liberates gaseous product ?
(A) AlCl3 + NaOH  (B) NaOH + P4 (white) + H2O 
 
(C) Al + NaOH  (D) Zn + NaOH  
15. BCl3 does not exists as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer because
(A) Cl is more electropositive than H
(B) There is p – p back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not contain such multiple bonding
(C) Large size chlorine atoms do not fit in between small size boron atoms where as small
sized hydrogen atoms get fitted in between boron atoms.
(D) Both (B) and (C)
16. B3N3H6 + solution of hydrochloric acid  ?
Select correct statement about above reaction
(A) No reaction
(B) B3N3H6 show substitution reaction and produces B3N3Cl6
(C) B3N3H6 show addition reaction and produces B3N3H9Cl3 in which Cl is bonded to Boron
(D) B3N3H6 show addition reaction and produce B3N3H9Cl3 in which Cl is bonded to nitrogen
17. Which of the following is correct about silicones?
(A) Silicones are organo silicon compounds containing Si = O = Si linkage
(B) R3SiCl on hydrolysis and on subsequent polymerization gives linear silicones
(C) When water is eliminated from the terminals – OH groups of linear silicones, cross linked
silicones are formed
(D) RSiCl3 on hydrolysis and on subsequent polymerization gives cross linked silicones.
 
18. Pb(NO3 )2   X 
O2

 Y 
HNO3
 Z
(yellow) (Re d) (dark Brown)

X, Y and Z are respectively :

(A) Pb3O4, PbO2, PbO (B) PbO, PbO2, Pb3O4
(C) PbO, Pb3O4, PbO2 (D) PbO2, Pb3, PbO
19. When gypsum is heated to 393 K, it forms
(A) Anhydrous CaSO4 (B) Dead burnt plaster
(C) CaSO4 × 5H2O (D) CaSO4 × 0.5H2O
20. Match the following compounds (Column-I) with their uses (Column-II)

(A) (I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A) (B) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C)
(C) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (D) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B)
21. The INCORRECT statement is :
(A) Lithium is least reactive with water among the alkali metals.
(B) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO2 and O2.
(C) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals.
(D) LiCl crystallises from aqueous solution as LiCl.2H2O.
22. Which is/are incorrect statements ?
(A) diamond is unaffected by conc. acids but graphite reacts with hot conc. HNO3 forming
C6(COOH)6
(B) CO is toxic because it forms a complex with haemoglobin in the blood
(C) C3O2, carbon suboxide, is a foul-smelling gas
(D) COCl2 is called phosphine gas
23. AlCl3 can be dimerised whereas BCl3 cannot be dimerised because -
(A) backbonding is stronger in the case of boron halides
(B) size of boron is quite smaller
(C) size of Al is larger
(D) AlCl3 has incomplete octet
24. Which of the following statement is/are true -
(I) borazine is aromatic
(II) there are four isotopic disubstituted borazine molecules B3N3H4X2
(III) borazine is more reactive towards addition reactions than benzene
(IV) banana bonds in B2H6 are longer but stronger than normal B-H bonds
(A) I, II and III (B) I, II and IV (C) I, II, III and IV (D) Only II
25. A blue coloured solution of sodium in liquid NH3 acts strong reducing agent, because of -
(A) ammoniated sodium (B) Ammonia dissociates
(C) Sodium nitride is formed (D) ammoniated electron
26. Match list I with list II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below -
List I List II
(1) NaNO3 (a) Baking soda
(2) Na2B4O7.10H2O (b) Chile salt peter
(3) NaHCO3 (c) Borax
(4) Na2CO3.10H2O (d) Washing soda
Code is -
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(A) a b c d (B) b c a d
(C) c a b d (D) d a b c
27. The raw material used in the Solvay process for the manufacture of sodium carbonate
comprises -
(A) Sodium chloride and carbon dioxide
(B) Ammonia and carbon dioxide
(C) Sodium chloride, limestone and ammonia
(D) Sodium chloride, limestone and carbon dioxide
28. The solubilities of sulphates of alkaline earth metals decrease from Be to Ba because -
(A) Their lattice energies decrease in this order
(B) Their covalent character increase in this order
(C) Lattice energies are about the same
(D) Hydration energies of Be2+ to Ba2+ cations decrease in this order
29. In B2H6 -
(A) There is a direct boron-boron bond
(B) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges
(C) The structure is similar to C2H6
(D) All the atoms are in one plane
30. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because -
(A) Washing soda is expensive
(B) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(C) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(D) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide.
31. The power of halides of Boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order -
(A) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (B) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(C) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 (D) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3

Answer Key
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A)
15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (B)
22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (D) 26. (B) 27. (C) 28. (D)
29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (B)
 CHAMP-2024
Question Practice Session
CHEMISTRY
TARGET : JEE (Main) 2024
NO. 24
Syllabus: Biomolecules
1. Which of the following pair is epimer?
(A) glucose-fructose (B) -D glucose &-D-glucose
(C) glucose-Mannose (D) glucose & sorbitol
2. What is the number of asymmetric carbon atoms present in -D-glucopyranose molecule ?
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
3. Identify the unknown products (A) and (B) in the given reaction :
H / 
Glucose + 3 C6H5NH–NH2   Osazone + (A) + (B) + 2H2O
(A) C6H5NH2 and NH3 (B) C6H5NH2 and NH2OH
(C) C6H5NH—NHOH and NH3 (D) NH2OH and H2O
4. Alanine forms Zwitter ion which exists as :

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None of these

5. Glucose reacts with methanol in presence of dry HCl gas to form :

(A) pentamethyl derivative (B) tetramethyl derivative
(C) -methyl glucoside (D) None of these
6. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(A) Except glycine all -amino acids are optically active.
(B) All -amino acids have primary structure
(C) At isoelectric point -amino acid mostly exist in zwitterionic form
(D) Reactions of amino acids are similar to primary amines and carboxylic acids
7. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
(A) The phenomenon of mutarotation refers to the change in specific rotation of either of the two
anomers in solution with time and attains a constant equilibrium value.
(B) -D-glucose or -D-glucose are epimers.
(C) Ring structures of sugars can be broken by Iodous acid.
(D) -D glucose in water attains a constant specific rotation of 112.2º.
8. Which of the following gives identical osazones.
(i) Glucose (ii) mannose (iii) fructose (iv) Galactose
(v) Sucrose (vi) Maltose
9. Which of the following compounds will behave as a reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH solution?
HOH2C O CH2OH HOH2C O CH2OH
(A) HO (B) HO
OCH3
OH OH

HOH2C
O CH2OCH3 HOH2C O CH2OH
(C) OH (D) HO
OH OCOCH3
OH OH
10. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI gives:
(A) Hexanoic acid (B) 6-iodohexanal (C) n-Hexane (D) 1-Hexene
11. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by:
(A) Fehling’s test (B) Seliwanoff’s test
(C) Barfoed’s test (D) Benedict’s test
12. Amylopectin is composed of
(A) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C2 — C6 linkages
(B) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C2 — C6 linkages
(C) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C1 — C6 linkages
(D) -D-glucose, C1 — C4 and C1 — C6 linkages
13. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
(B) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/ hemiacetal) structure
(C) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product of glucose
(D) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of glucose with HNO3

14. The number of groups present in a tripeptide Asp – Glu – Lys is ______.

15. Which of the following is not a essential amino acid -

(A) cysteine (B) methionine (C) phenylalamine (D) tryptophan
16. An amino acid for which isoelectric point lies in acidic medium when kept in alkaline medium in
electric field will show migration towards -
(A) Cathode (B) Anode (C) Either Cathode/Anode (D) No migration
17. Which of the following will reduce Tollen's reagent ?

(A) (B)

(C) Both of them are correct (D) None of these

18. Glucose on reaction with Fehling solution gives
(A) Cupric oxide
(B) Cuprous oxide
(C) Saccharic acid
(D) Both Cuprous oxide and Saccharic acid
19. Which one of the following statements is incorrect for the Sucrose?
(A) It is not reducing sugar
(B) It is obtained from cane sugar
(C) It gives aspartame when it is heated at 210°C
(D) On hydrolysis, it give equal quantities of D- glucose and D-fructose
20. Invert sugar on hydrolysis forms equimolar mixture of
(A) D-(+) glucose and D-(–) fructose. (B) L-(+) glucose and D-(–) fructose.
(C) D-(+) glucose and L-(–) fructose. (D) D-(–) glucose and L-(–) fructose.
21. Amino acids are classified as acidic, basic, or neutral depending upon the relative number of amino
and carboxyl acid groups in their molecule. Which among the following are acidic?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(A) a and b but not c and d (B) b and c but not a and d
(C) b and d but not a and c (D) a and d but not b and c
22. D–glucose reacts with phenylhydrazine to make osazone. How many moles of phenylhydrazine is
used for this reaction per molecule of D–glucose?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 7
23. The corresponding order of names of four aldoses with configuration given below, respectively is:

(A) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose.

(B) D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose.
(C) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose.
(D) D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose, D -erythrose.
24. A disaccharide consisting of two  – D–glucose units in which C1 of one glucose is linked to C4 of
another glucose unit is
(A) Maltose. (B) Sucrose. (C) Lactose (D) Cellulose.

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (5)
15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (C)
22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (A)