**Section 1: Process Calculations & Thermodynamics**

1. What is the ideal gas law equation?

a) PV = nRT

b) E = mc^2

c) F = ma

d) H = U + PV

2. In a process, if the heat added is 500 kJ and the work done is 200 kJ, what is the change in internal
energy?

a) 300 kJ

b) 200 kJ

c) 500 kJ

d) 700 kJ

3. What is the first law of thermodynamics also known as?

a) Law of Conservation of Energy

b) Law of Entropy

c) Law of Mass Conservation

d) Law of Thermodynamic Equilibrium

4. Which process is described by the equation ΔS = Q/T?

a) Adiabatic process

b) Isothermal process

c) Isobaric process

d) Isochoric process

5. Which thermodynamic property remains constant during an isentropic process?

a) Temperature
 b) Pressure

c) Enthalpy

d) Entropy

6. What is the principle behind the Clausius-Clapeyron equation?

a) Heat transfer in solids

b) Phase equilibrium

c) Fluid flow in pipes

d) Mass transfer in gases

7. A process that occurs at constant volume is called:

a) Isothermal process

b) Isobaric process

c) Isochoric process

d) Adiabatic process

8. What is the process of a gas changing directly from a solid to a gas without passing through the liquid
state called?

a) Sublimation

b) Evaporation

c) Condensation

d) Fusion

9. Which thermodynamic property is used to determine the maximum work obtainable from a system in
a reversible process?

a) Entropy

b) Enthalpy

c) Gibbs free energy

d) Internal energy
10. What does the Gibbs phase rule describe?

a) The number of phases in a chemical system at equilibrium

b) The change in Gibbs free energy during a chemical reaction

c) The phase transition temperature of a substance

d) The rate of reaction in a chemical system

11. The process of removing water vapor from a gas stream is known as:

a) Absorption

b) Distillation

c) Filtration

d) Drying

12. Which of the following is a state function?

a) Work

b) Heat

c) Pressure

d) Internal energy

13. What is the standard state condition for gases?

a) 0°C and 1 atm pressure

b) 25°C and 1 atm pressure

c) 100°C and 1 atm pressure

d) 0°C and 0.1 atm pressure

14. What is the unit of specific heat capacity?

a) J/mol

b) J/kg

c) J/mol·K
 d) J/K

15. Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted
from one form to another?

a) First Law

b) Second Law

c) Third Law

d) Zeroth Law

16. The process of heat transfer through a material without any movement of the material itself is
known as:

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

17. What is the term for the process of a gas turning into a liquid?

a) Sublimation

b) Evaporation

c) Condensation

d) Fusion

18. Which thermodynamic property is defined as the maximum reversible work that can be done by a
system at constant temperature and pressure?

a) Internal energy

b) Enthalpy

c) Entropy

d) Gibbs free energy

19. What is the formula for calculating the efficiency of a heat engine?
 a) Efficiency = (Work input / Heat input) × 100%

b) Efficiency = (Work output / Heat input) × 100%

c) Efficiency = (Heat output / Work input) × 100%

d) Efficiency = (Heat input / Work output) × 100%

20. Which thermodynamic process is characterized by constant entropy change?

a) Isentropic process

b) Isothermal process

c) Isobaric process

d) Isochoric process

**Section 2: Fluid Mechanics and Mechanical Operations**

1. What is the term for the resistance of a fluid to flow?

a) Viscosity

b) Density

c) Pressure

d) Surface tension

2. Which principle states that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the flow velocity increases?

a) Bernoulli's principle

b) Pascal's principle

c) Archimedes' principle

d) Newton's second law

3. In fluid dynamics, what is the Reynolds number used to predict?

a) Pressure drop in a pipe

b) Flow rate of a fluid

c) Turbulent flow transition

 d) Heat transfer rate

4. What type of fluid flow is characterized by smooth and orderly layers of fluid?

a) Laminar flow

b) Turbulent flow

c) Compressible flow

d) Viscous flow

5. Which device is used to measure fluid pressure in a pipeline?

a) Venturi meter

b) Rotameter

c) Manometer

d) Barometer

6. The phenomenon of a fluid flowing in a spiral or helical path is known as:

a) Turbulence

b) Vortex flow

c) Laminar flow

d) Streamline flow

7. What is the term for the force per unit area exerted by a fluid at rest in a container?

a) Pressure

b) Density

c) Viscosity

d) Surface tension

8. Which law states that the total pressure in a fluid at rest is constant at any point in a closed
container?

a) Bernoulli's law
 b) Pascal's law

c) Archimedes' law

d) Boyle's law

9. Which type of pump is typically used for high-pressure applications in chemical processes?

a) Centrifugal pump

b) Reciprocating pump

c) Diaphragm pump

d) Gear pump

10. What is the purpose of a filter in fluid mechanics?

a) To increase fluid velocity

b) To remove impurities from the fluid

c) To decrease fluid pressure

d) To control fluid viscosity

11. Which of the following is NOT a type of fluid flow measurement device?

a) Orifice plate

b) Rotameter

c) Venturi tube

d) Voltmeter

12. What is the equation for calculating the pressure drop in a pipeline due to friction?

a) Hagen-Poiseuille equation

b) Bernoulli's equation

c) Darcy-Weisbach equation

d) Boyle's equation

13. Which factor affects the capillary rise in a narrow tube?

 a) Viscosity of the liquid

b) Density of the liquid

c) Tube length

d) Tube diameter

14. What is the term for the force that opposes the relative motion of fluid layers?

a) Pressure

b) Viscosity

c) Density

d) Surface tension

15. Which type of flow occurs when the flow velocity exceeds the critical velocity?

a) Laminar flow

b) Turbulent flow

c) Compressible flow

d) Steady flow

16. What is the principle behind a hydraulic jack?

a) Pascal's principle

b) Archimedes' principle

c) Bernoulli's principle

d) Boyle's principle

17. In which fluid flow regime do Reynolds numbers typically range from 2000 to 4000?

a) Laminar flow

b) Turbulent flow

c) Compressible flow

d) Steady flow
18. What is the primary function of a nozzle in a fluid system?

a) To measure flow rate

b) To increase fluid pressure

c) To accelerate fluid flow

d) To reduce turbulence

19. Which factor does not affect the viscosity of a fluid?

a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Molecular size

d) Molecular shape

20. What is the term for the force exerted on a body immersed in a fluid due to the difference in
pressure between the top and bottom of the body?

a) Buoyancy

b) Surface tension

c) Viscosity

d) Capillarity

Certainly! Let's move on to the next section:

**Section 3: Heat Transfer**

1. Which mode of heat transfer does not require a medium for energy transfer?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection
2. What is the process of heat transfer through direct contact between particles of a solid?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

3. What is the term for the rate of heat transfer per unit area through a material?

a) Thermal conductivity

b) Thermal resistance

c) Heat flux

d) Heat capacity

4. Which law of thermodynamics states that heat flows from a higher temperature object to a lower
temperature object?

a) First Law

b) Second Law

c) Third Law

d) Zeroth Law

5. What is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in a vacuum?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

6. Which material typically has the highest thermal conductivity?

a) Wood

b) Rubber

c) Copper
 d) Glass

7. What is the term for the process of heat transfer in a fluid due to the movement of fluid particles?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

8. What is the unit of thermal conductivity?

a) Watts per meter-Kelvin (W/m·K)

b) Joules per kilogram-Kelvin (J/kg·K)

c) Watts per square meter (W/m^2)

d) Joules per second (J/s)

9. In a heat exchanger, what is the purpose of the fluid that receives heat from another fluid?

a) To maintain the temperature of the hot fluid

b) To increase the temperature of the hot fluid

c) To decrease the temperature of the hot fluid

d) To transfer heat to the surroundings

10. Which type of radiation has the longest wavelength?

a) Infrared

b) Ultraviolet

c) X-rays

d) Gamma rays

11. What is the term for a material that does not conduct heat effectively?

a) Insulator

b) Conductor
 c) Radiator

d) Transmitter

12. What is the formula for calculating the rate of heat transfer by conduction through a material?

a) Q = (k * A * ΔT) / L

b) Q = (ρ * V * c * ΔT)

c) Q = (m * c * ΔT)

d) Q = (P * ΔT)

13. What is the primary mode of heat transfer in the Earth's mantle?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

14. Which law of thermodynamics relates the efficiency of heat engines to temperature differences?

a) First Law

b) Second Law

c) Third Law

d) Zeroth Law

15. What is the term for the process of heat transfer in a fluid due to the rising of hot fluid and the
sinking of cold fluid?

a) Natural conduction

b) Forced conduction

c) Natural convection

d) Forced convection

16. What is the Stefan-Boltzmann law related to?

 a) Thermal conductivity

b) Heat exchangers

c) Blackbody radiation

d) Thermal expansion

17. Which of the following materials is a good insulator?

a) Aluminum

b) Silver

c) Styrofoam

d) Copper

18. What is the term for the process of heat transfer through electromagnetic waves?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection

19. Which of the following is an example of a radiative heat transfer surface?

a) Metal plate

b) Glass window

c) Sunlight

d) Air conditioner

20. What is the primary mechanism of heat transfer in a liquid metal-cooled nuclear reactor?

a) Conduction

b) Convection

c) Radiation

d) Advection
**Section 4: Mass Transfer**

1. What is the process of mass transfer due to the random motion of molecules called?

a) Diffusion

b) Convection

c) Advection

d) Osmosis

2. Which law describes Fick's first law of diffusion?

a) Rate of diffusion is directly proportional to concentration gradient

b) Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to temperature

c) Rate of diffusion is directly proportional to pressure

d) Rate of diffusion is inversely proportional to molecular weight

3. In mass transfer, what is the term for the ratio of the molar flow rate of one component to the total
molar flow rate of all components in a mixture?

a) Mole fraction

b) Mass fraction

c) Molar concentration

d) Molality

4. What is the unit of mass diffusivity?

a) m/s

b) kg/m^2

c) m^2/s

d) kg/s

5. Which factor affects the rate of diffusion of a gas through a porous medium?
 a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Molecular weight of the gas

d) Size of the pores

6. What is the term for the mass transfer process in which one component is selectively absorbed by a
solid surface?

a) Adsorption

b) Absorption

c) Desorption

d) Distillation

7. What is the unit of the Henry's law constant (H)?

a) mol/(L·atm)

b) mol/(m^3·Pa)

c) mol/(kg·K)

d) mol/(m^2·s)

8. Which mass transfer operation is commonly used for separating components in a liquid mixture based
on their volatility?

a) Absorption

b) Adsorption

c) Distillation

d) Filtration

9. What is the term for the process of mass transfer from a liquid phase to a gas phase?

a) Absorption

b) Adsorption

c) Desorption
 d) Evaporation

10. Which of the following is NOT a common method for enhancing mass transfer in a packed column?

a) Increasing column diameter

b) Increasing liquid flow rate

c) Using packing with high surface area

d) Providing efficient gas-liquid contact

11. In gas absorption, what is the purpose of the absorption factor (α)?

a) To calculate the rate of absorption

b) To estimate the size of the absorption tower

c) To account for the non-ideality of the system

d) To determine the vapor pressure of the solute

12. What is the term for the process of mass transfer in which a solute moves from a region of higher
concentration to a region of lower concentration through a semipermeable membrane?

a) Osmosis

b) Diffusion

c) Dialysis

d) Filtration

13. Which parameter is used to quantify the effectiveness of a mass transfer process in a gas-liquid
system?

a) Péclet number

b) Reynolds number

c) Schmidt number

d) Sherwood number

14. What is the term for the phenomenon in which a liquid rises or falls in a small-diameter tube due to
capillary action?
 a) Capillarity

b) Filtration

c) Osmosis

d) Evaporation

15. Which type of mass transfer equipment is commonly used for solvent recovery in chemical
processes?

a) Absorption column

b) Distillation column

c) Evaporator

d) Scrubber

16. Which equation is used to describe the steady-state diffusion of a gas through a solid barrier?

a) Graham's law

b) Fick's second law

c) Henry's law

d) Raoult's law

17. What is the term for the ratio of the molar flow rate of a component in the vapor phase to its molar
flow rate in the liquid phase in a binary system?

a) Vapor-liquid equilibrium ratio

b) Mass transfer coefficient

c) Equilibrium constant

d) Relative volatility

18. In mass transfer, what is the term for the phenomenon where a component in a mixture
preferentially moves to the surface of a solid?

a) Adsorption

b) Absorption

c) Desorption
 d) Diffusion

19. Which of the following is a common industrial application of mass transfer?

a) Water treatment

b) Electrical circuit design

c) Airplane wing design

d) Bridge construction

20. What is the primary driving force for mass transfer by diffusion?

a) Temperature difference

b) Pressure difference

c) Concentration difference

d) Velocity difference

**Section 5: Chemical Reaction Engineering**

1. What is the term for the study of the rates and mechanisms of chemical reactions?

a) Thermodynamics

b) Kinetics

c) Equilibrium

d) Stoichiometry

2. Which factor does NOT typically affect the rate of a chemical reaction?

a) Temperature

b) Concentration of reactants

c) Particle size of reactants

d) Pressure
3. What is the rate expression for a first-order reaction?

a) Rate = k[A]

b) Rate = k[A]^2

c) Rate = k

d) Rate = k[A]^3/2

4. Which type of reaction rate order is characterized by a reaction rate that is directly proportional to
the concentration of two reactants?

a) Zero-order

b) First-order

c) Second-order

d) Third-order

5. In a reversible chemical reaction, what does the equilibrium constant (Kc) express?

a) The rate of the forward reaction

b) The rate of the reverse reaction

c) The ratio of product concentrations to reactant concentrations at equilibrium

d) The ratio of reactant concentrations to product concentrations at equilibrium

6. What is the Arrhenius equation used to describe in chemical kinetics?

a) The relationship between rate constant and temperature

b) The relationship between equilibrium constant and temperature

c) The relationship between rate constant and pressure

d) The relationship between activation energy and pressure

7. Which type of reactor is commonly used for batch chemical reactions?

a) Plug flow reactor

b) Continuous stirred-tank reactor

c) Packed bed reactor

 d) Tubular reactor

8. What is the term for a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being
consumed in the reaction?

a) Catalyst

b) Reactant

c) Inhibitor

d) Product

9. Which type of reaction rate order is characterized by a reaction rate that is inversely proportional to
the concentration of a reactant?

a) Zero-order

b) First-order

c) Second-order

d) Third-order

10. What is the term for the minimum amount of energy required for a chemical reaction to occur?

a) Activation energy

b) Reaction order

c) Equilibrium constant

d) Rate constant

11. In the rate expression for a reaction, what does the rate constant (k) represent?

a) The order of the reaction

b) The initial concentration of the reactants

c) The rate of reaction at equilibrium

d) The proportionality constant between rate and concentration

12. Which factor does NOT affect the collision frequency in chemical reactions?
 a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Concentration of reactants

d) Catalyst presence

13. What is the term for a reaction in which the reactants are completely converted into products?

a) Irreversible reaction

b) Reversible reaction

c) Homogeneous reaction

d) Heterogeneous reaction

14. What is the rate expression for a second-order reaction?

a) Rate = k

b) Rate = k[A]

c) Rate = k[A]^2

d) Rate = k[A]^1/2

15. What does the rate law of a chemical reaction express?

a) The relationship between rate constant and temperature

b) The relationship between rate constant and pressure

c) The relationship between rate and concentration of reactants

d) The relationship between equilibrium constant and concentration

16. Which factor can be used to determine the overall order of a chemical reaction?

a) Activation energy

b) Concentration of reactants

c) Temperature

d) Rate constant
17. What is the term for a reaction in which the reactants and products are in different phases (e.g., gas-
liquid)?

a) Homogeneous reaction

b) Heterogeneous reaction

c) Irreversible reaction

d) Reversible reaction

18. What is the purpose of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

a) To slow down the reaction rate

b) To increase the activation energy

c) To shift the equilibrium position

d) To increase the reaction rate

19. What is the term for the point in a reaction where the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of
the reverse reaction?

a) Equilibrium

b) Steady state

c) Activation energy

d) Transition state

20. Which type of reactor is designed to maintain constant composition and is often used for large-scale
continuous chemical processes?

a) Batch reactor

b) Plug flow reactor

c) Continuous stirred-tank reactor

d) Packed bed reactor

**Section 6: Instrumentation & Process Control**

1. What is the primary purpose of a pressure gauge in a chemical process?

a) To measure temperature

b) To measure flow rate

c) To measure pressure

d) To measure concentration

2. Which type of control system continuously adjusts the process to maintain a desired setpoint?

a) Open-loop control

b) Closed-loop control

c) Manual control

d) On-off control

3. What is the term for a device that converts a physical quantity into an electrical signal?

a) Sensor

b) Actuator

c) Transmitter

d) Controller

4. In process control, what is the function of a feedback controller?

a) To initiate the process

b) To set the desired setpoint

c) To continuously monitor the process and adjust it to maintain the desired condition

d) To shut down the process in case of emergencies

5. Which type of control system uses a predetermined sequence of operations without feedback?

a) Open-loop control

b) Closed-loop control

c) Manual control

d) Adaptive control
6. What is the term for the process of converting a continuous signal into a digital signal?

a) Digitalization

b) Analogization

c) Sampling

d) Modulation

7. What type of valve is commonly used to control the flow of fluid in a chemical process?

a) Pressure relief valve

b) Check valve

c) Control valve

d) Globe valve

8. Which instrument is used to measure the level of a liquid in a tank or vessel?

a) Thermocouple

b) Pressure gauge

c) Float level sensor

d) pH meter

9. What is the term for the range of values within which a controlled variable is maintained in a closed-
loop control system?

a) Setpoint

b) Deadtime

c) Hysteresis

d) Control range

10. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used type of process control sensor?

a) Thermocouple

b) Pressure sensor
 c) Tachometer

d) pH sensor

11. What is the primary function of a PID controller?

a) To measure process variables

b) To convert analog signals to digital

c) To provide feedback control by adjusting a control output

d) To initiate emergency shutdowns

12. In a control loop, what does the term "deadtime" refer to?

a) The time it takes for the controller to respond to changes in the process

b) The time delay between a change in the control signal and the corresponding change in the
controlled variable

c) The time it takes for the process to reach steady-state after a disturbance

d) The time it takes for the process to reach the setpoint

13. What is the purpose of a process control system's Human-Machine Interface (HMI)?

a) To monitor process variables

b) To regulate the flow rate of reactants

c) To communicate with other machines

d) To perform mathematical calculations

14. Which control system strategy aims to maintain the process variable at a constant value?

a) Proportional control

b) Integral control

c) Derivative control

d) On-off control
15. Which of the following is a commonly used method for measuring temperature in a chemical
process?

a) Thermocouple

b) Manometer

c) Tachometer

d) Flowmeter

16. What is the term for a control system's ability to return to the setpoint after a disturbance?

a) Stability

b) Responsiveness

c) Hysteresis

d) Deadtime

17. Which control action reduces the deviation between the process variable and setpoint by adjusting
the control output in proportion to the error?

a) Proportional control

b) Integral control

c) Derivative control

d) On-off control

18. What is the primary function of a control valve in a chemical process?

a) To measure process variables

b) To convert analog signals to digital

c) To regulate the flow of fluid or gas

d) To provide feedback control

19. In a control system, what does the term "hysteresis" refer to?

a) The tendency of a system to oscillate

b) The difference in control output between ascending and descending setpoints

 c) The time delay in the control loop

d) The stability of the control system

20. Which of the following is NOT a common parameter to control in chemical processes?

a) Temperature

b) Pressure

c) Velocity

d) Volume

**Section 7: Plant Design and Economics**

1. What is the primary goal of plant design in the chemical industry?

a) Maximizing plant efficiency

b) Minimizing environmental impact

c) Ensuring worker safety

d) Meeting production capacity requirements

2. Which term describes the layout of equipment, buildings, and infrastructure within a chemical plant?

a) Process flow diagram

b) Piping and instrumentation diagram

c) Plant layout

d) Equipment specification

3. What is the term for the total capital investment required to build and start up a chemical plant?

a) Fixed capital cost

b) Operating cost

c) Total production cost

d) Variable capital cost

4. In plant design, what does the term "unit operation" refer to?

a) A single chemical reaction

b) A specific piece of equipment or process step

c) The entire plant

d) The safety protocols in place

5. What is the purpose of a hazard and operability (HAZOP) study in plant design?

a) To estimate the cost of the plant

b) To identify potential hazards and operability issues

c) To optimize the plant's production capacity

d) To design the plant's layout

6. Which economic evaluation method takes into account the time value of money and calculates the
net present value (NPV) of a project?

a) Payback period

b) Internal rate of return (IRR)

c) Return on investment (ROI)

d) Discounted cash flow (DCF)

7. What is the term for the process of determining the optimal size and operating conditions of a plant
to meet specified production goals?

a) Plant layout

b) Process design

c) Process simulation

d) Economic analysis

8. Which factor is NOT typically considered in the selection of plant location?

a) Proximity to raw materials

 b) Labor availability

c) Environmental regulations

d) Historical significance

9. What is the primary factor influencing the choice between batch and continuous manufacturing in
plant design?

a) Cost of equipment

b) Product demand and production rate

c) Plant layout

d) Environmental regulations

10. What is the term for the study of the behavior of a chemical process using mathematical models and
computer simulations?

a) Process design

b) Process simulation

c) Plant layout

d) Hazard analysis

11. What is the primary purpose of a process flow diagram (PFD) in plant design?

a) To show the physical layout of equipment

b) To illustrate the chemical reactions taking place

c) To depict the sequence of process steps

d) To calculate the operating cost of the plant

12. Which economic evaluation method measures the time it takes for an investment to generate cash
flows equal to its initial cost?

a) Payback period

b) Net present value (NPV)

c) Internal rate of return (IRR)

d) Return on investment (ROI)

13. What is the term for the total cost of producing a unit of product in a chemical plant, including both
fixed and variable costs?

a) Operating cost

b) Fixed capital cost

c) Total production cost

d) Variable capital cost

14. Which factor is NOT typically considered in the selection of the plant's production capacity?

a) Market demand

b) Equipment size and cost

c) Available workforce

d) Environmental regulations

15. What is the primary focus of process safety in plant design?

a) Maximizing plant efficiency

b) Minimizing production costs

c) Ensuring the safety of workers and the community

d) Meeting regulatory requirements

16. Which economic evaluation method calculates the ratio of the discounted cash inflows to the
discounted cash outflows over the project's life?

a) Payback period

b) Net present value (NPV)

c) Internal rate of return (IRR)

d) Return on investment (ROI)

17. What is the term for the amount of time it takes for an investment to recover its initial cost through
cash flows generated by the project?

a) Payback period
 b) Net present value (NPV)

c) Internal rate of return (IRR)

d) Return on investment (ROI)

18. Which document provides detailed information about the specifications and requirements for
equipment to be purchased for a chemical plant?

a) Process flow diagram (PFD)

b) Equipment specification

c) Piping and instrumentation diagram (P&ID)

d) Plant layout

19. What is the primary purpose of a feasibility study in plant design and economics?

a) To determine if a project is economically viable

b) To evaluate the environmental impact of a project

c) To calculate the payback period of a project

d) To design the plant's layout

20. Which economic evaluation method calculates the percentage return on the initial investment over
a specified period?

a) Payback period

b) Net present value (NPV)

c) Internal rate of return (IRR)

d) Return on investment (ROI)

**Section 8: Chemical Technology**

1. What is the primary function of a catalytic converter in an automobile?

a) To increase fuel efficiency

 b) To reduce engine noise

c) To convert harmful exhaust gases into less harmful substances

d) To increase engine power

2. Which chemical process is commonly used to produce hydrogen gas from natural gas?

a) Steam reforming

b) Combustion

c) Oxidation

d) Decomposition

3. What is the primary use of a desalination plant?

a) Production of freshwater from seawater

b) Extraction of minerals from seawater

c) Production of salt from freshwater

d) Generation of electricity from ocean currents

4. What is the term for the process of separating components of a mixture based on their boiling points?

a) Filtration

b) Distillation

c) Evaporation

d) Absorption

5. Which chemical process is used to convert crude oil into various petroleum products such as gasoline,
diesel, and jet fuel?

a) Polymerization

b) Cracking

c) Fermentation

d) Electrolysis
6. What is the primary purpose of a chemical reactor in a chemical plant?

a) To store raw materials

b) To separate components of a mixture

c) To convert reactants into products

d) To measure process variables

7. Which chemical process is used to produce ammonia, a key ingredient in fertilizers?

a) Polymerization

b) Oxidation

c) Haber-Bosch process

d) Electrolysis

8. What is the term for the process of converting solid coal into synthetic natural gas (SNG)?

a) Gasification

b) Cracking

c) Hydrogenation

d) Oxidation

9. Which chemical process is used to produce ethanol from agricultural crops such as corn or sugarcane?

a) Fermentation

b) Polymerization

c) Cracking

d) Hydrogenation

10. What is the primary purpose of a scrubber in an industrial setting?

a) To remove dust and particles from air or gas streams

b) To cool down industrial equipment

c) To increase the pressure of gas streams

d) To enhance the color of chemicals

11. Which chemical process is used to convert sugar into alcohol, primarily ethanol?

a) Polymerization

b) Fermentation

c) Cracking

d) Oxidation

12. What is the primary use of a distillation column in chemical processing?

a) To separate components of a mixture based on boiling points

b) To measure pressure in a process

c) To accelerate chemical reactions

d) To store raw materials

13. Which chemical process is used to produce chlorine gas and sodium hydroxide from salt (sodium
chloride)?

a) Electrolysis

b) Cracking

c) Hydrogenation

d) Fermentation

14. What is the term for the process of converting biomass into biofuels such as biodiesel or bioethanol?

a) Gasification

b) Fermentation

c) Cracking

d) Polymerization

15. Which chemical process is used to produce hydrogen gas from water using electricity?

a) Steam reforming

b) Combustion
 c) Electrolysis

d) Oxidation

16. What is the primary purpose of a polymerization reactor in the production of plastics?

a) To separate components of a mixture

b) To convert reactants into products

c) To measure process variables

d) To store raw materials

17. Which chemical process is used to produce sulfuric acid, a widely used industrial chemical?

a) Fermentation

b) Cracking

c) Oxidation

d) Contact process

18. What is the term for the process of converting coal into a gaseous fuel by reacting it with oxygen and
steam?

a) Gasification

b) Fermentation

c) Cracking

d) Polymerization

19. Which chemical process is commonly used to produce oxygen gas from air?

a) Steam reforming

b) Combustion

c) Oxidation

d) Cryogenic distillation

20. What is the primary purpose of a cryogenic distillation unit in the chemical industry?
a) To separate components of a mixture based on boiling points at very low temperatures

b) To convert reactants into products at high temperatures

c) To measure process variables accurately

d) To store volatile chemicals