DIET Hassan Science EM QB 2023-24

Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education and Literacy
District Institute of Education and training

Hassan
Hema Deevige
Series-2
Science 10th Standard

2023-24
Objective type Questions &
Answers Bank
SSLC Science Question Paper Pattern
Marks distribution for themes the units covered under themes
Sl
Theme Units Marks
No
 Chemical reactions and Equations.
 Acids, Bases and Salts
Materials in
1  Metals and Non-Metals 25
Daily Life
 Carbon and Its Compounds
 Periodic Classification of Elements
 Life Processes
 Control and Coordination
2 World of Living 22
 How do Organisms Reproduce?
 Heredity and Evolution
3 Natural  Light: Reflection and Refraction 12

Phenomena  Human Eye and Colourful World
4 How do Things  Electricity 13

Work  Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
 Sources of Energy
Natural
5  Our Environment 08
Resources
 Management of Natural Resources
Objective Weightage Weightage to type of questions
Sl Sl Type of No of Total
Objective Marks % Mark
No No Question question marks
1 Remembering 16 20% 1 MCQ 1 08 08
2 Understanding 32 40% 2 Very short answer 1 08 08
3 Applying 16 20% 3 Short answer 2 08 16
Skill 4 Long answer 3 09 27

• Drawing skill
4 12 20% 5 Long answer 4 04 16
• Higher Order
Thinking Skill 4 6 Long answer 5 01 05
Total 80 100% Total 38 80
Weightage to difficulty level Internal Choice
Sl No Difficulty level Marks % Sl No Marks distribution Total marks
1 Easy 24 30% 1 2x2 04

2 Average 40 50% 2 3x4 12
3 Difficult 16 20% 3 4x1 04
Total 80 100% Total 20
Government of Karnataka
Department of School Education and Literacy
Hema Deevige
Series-2
Objective type Questions &
Answers Bank
Science
English Medium
10th Standard
2023-24
District Institute of Education and training

Hassan
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Concept and Organisation
Mrs. Pushpalatha H K
Principal and DDPI (Development)
DIET, Hassan
Concept and Guidance
Mrs. Vedavathi
Senior Lecturer,
DIET, Hassan
Guidance and Coordination
Mr. Girish K R Mr. Shekhar Y M

Lecturer, Lecturer,
DIET, Hassan DIET, Hassan
Resource Team
Mr. Kumar K B Mr. Anjanappa K R
GHS, Agalahally, GHS, Murundi,
Hassan Tq. Arsikere Tq.
Mr. Satheesha B K Mrs. Harini

GPUC, Shravanabelagola, GHS, Yalleshapura,
Chennarayapatna Tq. Holenarasipura Tq.
Mr. Jayanth R Mr. Dharmendra Y N

GHS, Banukuppe, GPUC, Balenahally,
Holenarasipura Tq. Arsikere Tq.
Mr. R M Patil Mr. Mohankumar S

GHS, Anughatta, GHS, Belagodu,
Belur Tq. Sakaleshapura Tq.
Mrs. Saraswathi B Mrs. Thoyajakshi

GHS, Hadavanahally, GHS, Santheparur,
Chennarayapatna Tq. Arkalgud Tq.
Mr. Harish G R
GHS, Kenkere,
Arsikere Tq.
Content
Sl No Chapter No Chapter Name Page No
1 Chapter-1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1-3
2 Chapter-2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4-6
3 Chapter-3 Metals and Non-metals 7-8
4 Chapter-4 Carbon and its Compounds 9-11
5 Chapter-5 Periodic Classification of Elements 12-14
6 Chapter-6 Life Processes 15-17
7 Chapter-7 Control and Coordination 18-19
8 Chapter-8 How do Organisms Reproduce? 20-21
9 Chapter-9 Heredity and Evolution 22-26
10 Chapter-10 Light – Reflection and Refraction 27-28
The Human Eye and the Colourful

11 Chapter-11 29-30
World
12 Chapter-12 Electricity 31-33
13 Chapter-13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 34-35
14 Chapter-14 Sources of Energy 36-37
15 Chapter-15 Our Environment 38-40
Sustainable Management of Natural

16 Chapter-16 41-42
Resources
Chapter
Chemical Reactions and Equations
1
1. Sodium and chlorine are reacted, and as a B) iii and iv
result, sodium chloride is formed, which is C) i, ii and iv
also called table salt. What option gives the D) ii and iv
reactants and products of the reaction?
A) Reactants – sodium; products – chlorine 7. When Ag is exposed to air it gets a black
B) Reactants – sodium and table salt; coating of
products – chlorine A) AgNO3
C) Reactants – tables salt; products – sodium B) Ag2S
and chlorine C) Ag2O
D) Reactants – sodium and chlorine; products D) Ag2CO3
– sodium chloride
8. MnO2 + 4HCl →MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
2. Identify x and y in the following reaction: Identify the substance oxidized in the above
Cu + xHNO3 → Cu (NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O equation.
A) 4 and 2 A) MnCl2
B) 3 and 5 B) HCl
C) 2 and 3 C) H2O
D) 4 and 4 D) MnO2
3. The carbonate of lead is a white solid. It 9. Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to form
decomposes when heated to form carbon which compounds?
dioxide and a yellow solid oxide ‘X’. What A) Zn (NO3)2 + Ag
is X? B) ZnNO3 + Ag
A) Zinc oxide C) AgNO3 + Zn (NO3)2
B) Lead oxide D) Ag + Zn (NO3)3
C) Silver oxide
D) Magnesium oxide 10. In the double displacement reaction
between aqueous potassium iodide and
4. Which of the following can be decomposed aqueous lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of
by the action of sunlight? lead iodide is formed. While performing the
A) Potassium bromide activity if lead nitrate is not available,
B) Silver bromide which of the following can be used in place
C) Magnesium oxide of lead nitrate?
D) Sodium chloride A) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
B) Lead acetate
5. Identify the endothermic process from the C) Ammonium nitrate
following? D) Potassium sulphate
A) H2O(l) → H2O(g)
B) CaO (s) + H2O (l) → Ca (OH)2 (aq) 11. The brown gas evolved on heating of copper
C) Combustion of methane nitrate is
D) Addition of conc. HCl to water A) O2
B) NO2
6. Which of the following statements about C) N2
the given reaction are correct? D) NO
2Fe (s) + 4H2O (l) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
i. Iron metal is getting oxidized. 12. Electrolysis of water is a decomposition
ii. Water is getting reduced. reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and
iii. Water is acting as reducing agent. oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis
iv. Water is acting as oxidizing agent. of water is:
A) i, ii and iii A) 1 : 1
HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

1
B) 2 : 1
C) 4 : 1 18. One of the following processes does not
D) 1 : 2 involve a chemical reaction, that is:
13. A substance ‘X’ is used in white-washing A) Melting of candle wax when heated
and is obtained by heating limestone in the B) Burning of candle wax when heated
absence of air. Identify ‘X’. C) Digestion of food in your stomach
A) CaOCl2 D) Ripening of banana
B) Ca (OH)2
C) CaO 19. Which of the following shows an oxidation
D) CaCO3 reaction?
A) Gain of oxygen
14. 2HNO3 + Ca (OH)2 → Ca (NO3)2 + 2H2O; B) Loss of oxygen
is an example of C) Gain of hydrogen
(i) displacement reaction D) None of the above
(ii) double displacement reaction
(iii)neutralisation reaction 20. Substance added to food containing fats
(iv) combination reaction. and oils is called:
A) (i) and (ii) A) Oxidant
B) (ii) and (iii) B) Rancid
C) (iii) and (iv) C) Coolant
D) (i) and (iv) D) Antioxidant
15. A substance X which is a group 2 element is 21. Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu

used intensively in the cement industry. The above reaction is an example of:
This element is present in bones also. On A) Combination
treatment with water, it forms a solution B) double displacement
which turns red litmus blue. Element X is C) decomposition
A) Cu D) displacement
B) Ca
C) Na 22. When green coloured ferrous sulphate
D) Al crystals are heated, the colour of the crystal
changes because,
16. You are given the following chemical A) it is decomposed to ferric oxide
reaction: B) it loses water of crystallisation
C) it forms SO2
This reaction represents: D) it forms SO3
A) Combination reaction as well as double
displacement reaction 23. Which one is not formed in the thermal
B) Redox reaction as well as displacement decomposition of lead nitrate-
reaction A) PbO
C) Double displacement reaction as well as B) NO₂
redox reaction C) N₂
D) Decomposition reaction as well as D) O₂
displacement reaction
24. 2Cu+0₂ → 2CuO – The substances that are
17. A student adds barium hydroxide to oxidised and reduced in the above reaction-
hydrochloric acid to form a white-coloured A) CuO, O₂
barium chloride. Which of the following B) Cu, O₂
option gives the balanced chemical C) O₂, CuO
equation of the reaction? D) Cu, CuO
A) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH
B) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH 25. The basis of balancing a skeletal equation
C) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2 is-
D) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O2 A) Law of conservation of energy.
2
B) Law of constant proportion. 10 B 11 B 12 B
C) Law of conservation of mass. 13 A 14 B 15 B
D) None of above. 16 B 17 B 18 A
Answers: 19 A 20 D 21 D
1 D 2 A 3 B 22 B 23 B 24 B
4 B 5 A 6 C 25 C
7 B 8 D 9 A

3
Chapter
Acids, Bases and Salts
1.
2
Which of the following acids is present in B) ii and iii
sour milk? C) i and iv
A) Glycolic acid D) ii and iv
B) Oxalic acid
C) Lactic acid 7. The chemical formula of washing soda is …
D) Citric acid A) NaHCO3
B) Na2CO3.10H2O
2. Which of the following statements is not C) CaOCl2
correct? D) NaOH
A) All metal carbonates react with acid to
give a salt, water and carbon dioxide 8. Baking soda is a mixture of
B) All metal oxides react with water to give A) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
salt and acid B) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
C) Some metal react with acids to give salt C) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric
and hydrogen acid
D) Some non-metal oxides react with water D) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic
to form an acid acid
3. Which of the following statements is 9. What happens, when a solution of an acid

incorrect about bases? is mixed with a solution of a base in a test
A) Bases are bitter in taste tube?
B) They are soapy to touch (i) The temperature of the solution
C) They are corrosive in nature increases.
D) All bases are alkali (ii) The temperature of the solution
decreases.
4. Mixing of acid or base with water results in (iii)The temperature of the solution
…… in the concentration of ions per unit remains the same.
volume. (iv) Salt formation takes place.
A) Decreases A) Only (i)
B) Increases B) (i) and (iii)
C) No change C) (ii) and (iii)
D) Reverse change D) (i) and (iv)
5. What is pH? 10. Which of the following salts does not

A) The positive logarithm of the hydroxide contain water of crystallization?
ion concentration A) Blue vitriol
B) The positive logarithm of the hydrogen B) Baking soda
ion concentration C) Washing soda
C) The negative logarithm of the hydroxide D) Gypsum
ion concentration
D) The negative logarithm of the hydrogen 11. When a base reacts with a metal, it forms a
ion concentration salt, and hydrogen gas is released. By what
method can the presence of hydrogen be
6. Which of the following statements is correct detected?
about an aqueous solution of an acid and a A) by water
base? B) by litmus paper
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid. C) by methyl orange
(ii) 2. Higher the pH, weaker the acid. D) by a burning candle
(iii) 3. Lower the pH, stronger the base.
(iv) 4. Lower the pH, weaker the base. 12. When hydrogen chloride gas is prepared on
A) i and iii a humid day, the gas is usually passed
4
through the guard tube containing calcium (i) Acid reacts with metallic oxide.
chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken (ii) Salt and Water are produced.
in the guard tube is to (iii)Acid and base nullify each other’s
A) absorb the evolved gas effect.
B) moisten the gas (iv) Salt and H₂ are produced.
C) absorb moisture from the gas Correct statement/statements are:
D) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas A) (i) and (ii)
B) (i) and (iii)
13. In terms of acidic strength, which one of the C) only (ii)
following is in the correct increasing order? D) (i) and (iv)
A) Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
B) Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid 20. Heating sodium hydrogen carbonate gives-
C) Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid (i) Sodium carbonate.
D) Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid (ii) (Carbon dioxide.
(iii)Sodium salt of acid.
14. What is formed when zinc reacts with (iv) Water.
sodium hydroxide? Correct option is-
A) Zinc hydroxide and sodium A) (i), (iii)
B) Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas B) (i), (iii)
C) Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas C) (ii), (iii), (iv)
D) Sodium zincate and water D) (i), (ii), (iv)
15. Brine is an 21. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be

A) aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given
B) aqueous solution of sodium carbonate solution of HCI. If we take 20 mL of the
C) aqueous solution of sodium chloride same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl
D) aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate solution (the same solution as before)
required to neutralise it will be-
16. Alkalis are A) 4ml
A) acids, which are soluble in water B) 8ml
B) acids, which are insoluble in water C) 12ml
C) bases, which are insoluble in water D) 16ml
D) bases, which are soluble in water
22. At what temperature is gypsum heated to form
Plaster of Paris?
17. Which of the following statements is correct
A) 90°C
about an aqueous solution of an acid and of
B) 100°C
a base?
C) 110°C
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
D) 120°C
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
23. Farmers neutralise the effect of Acidity on
(iii)Lower the pH, stronger the base
the soil by adding –
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
A) Slaked lime
A) (i) and (iii)
B) Gypsum
B) (ii) and (iii)
C) Caustic soda
C) (i) and (iv)
D) Baking soda
D) (ii) and (iv)
18. Gas produced when an acid reacts with 24. Which of the following are present in a
metal carbonate hydrogen carbonate- dilute Aqueous solution of hydrochloric
A) Hydrogen. acid?
B) Nitrogen. A) H3O + Cl–
C) Carbon dioxide. B) H3O + OH–
D) Sulphur dioxide. C) Cl– + OH–
D) Unionized HCl
19. In a neutralisation reaction-

5
25. In which pH range does our body work to Answers:
survive in the atmosphere? 1 C 2 B 3 D
A) 5.5 to 8.5 4 A 5 D 6 D
B) 7.0 to 7.8 7 B 8 C 9 D
C) 2.3 to 7.0 10 B 11 D 12 C
D) 7.5 to 12.5 13 A 14 B 15 C
16 D 17 D 18 C
19 B 20 D 21 D
22 B 23 A 24 A
25 B

6
Chapter
Metals and Non-metals
1.
3
Gold is used for making jewellery. What C) Phosphorous
are the properties of gold make it a suitable D) Bromine
metal for making jewellery?
A) Ductility 8. The combination of carbon monoxide and
B) Malleability hydrogen is known as
C) Lustrous A) Carbon gas
D) All of these B) Coal gas
C) Carbonic gas
2. Aluminium is used for making cooking D) Water gas
utensils. What are the following properties
of Aluminium are responsible for the same? 9. Which of the following are not ionic
(i) Good thermal conductivity compounds?
(ii) Good electrical conductivity (i) KCl
(iii) Ductility (ii) HCl
(iv) High melting point (iii)CCl4
A) (i) and (ii) (iv) NaCl
B) (i) and (iii) A) (i) and (ii)
C) (ii) and (iii) B) (ii) and (iii)
D) (i) and (iv) C) (iii) and (iv)
D) (i) and (iii)
3. Which of the following oxide of iron would
be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron 10. Which one of the following properties is not
with steam? generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
A) Fe O A) Solubility in water
B) Fe2O3 B) Electrical conductivity in solid state
C) Fe3O4 C) High melting and boiling points
D) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4 D) Electrical conductivity in molten state
4. The correct order of increasing chemical 11. Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O

reactivity A) Al(OH)3
A) Fe < Zn < Mg < K B) Na2O
B) Zn < Fe < Mg < K C) NaAlO2
C) Fe < Mg < Zn < K D) AlNaO2
D) Zn < Fe < K < Mg 12. Which of the following pairs will give dis-
5. Which of the following metal will not give placement reactions?
H2 (g) with H2O? A) FeSO4 solution and Copper metal
A) Na (s) + 2H2O → B) AgNO3 solution and Copper metal
B) Mg (s) + H2O → C) CuSO4 solution and Silver metal
C) Zn (s) + 2H2O → D) NaCl solution and Copper metal
D) Cu (s) + 2H2O → 13. Non-metals form covalent chlorides
6. Few particles of Zn are dropped in the because,
CuSO4 solution, the correct observation is A) they can give electrons to chlorine
A) Blue colour of CuSO4 solution fades B) they can share electrons with chlorine
B) Solution changes to red colour C) they can give electrons to chlorine atoms
C) Solution becomes black to form chloride ions
D) Solution becomes silvery white D) they cannot share electrons with chlorine
atoms
7. Which of the following non-metal is liquid
at room temperature? 14. The electronic configuration of three
A) Mercury elements X, Y and Z are as follows:
B) Carbon X = 2, 4, Y = 2, 7, Z = 2,1 Which two
7
elements will combine to form an ionic 21. Copper objects lose their shine and form
compound and write the correct formula, green coating of
A) X2Y A) Copper oxide
B) YZ B) Copper hydroxide and Copper oxide
C) XZ3 C) Basic Copper carbonate
D) Y2Z D) Copper carbonate
15. The highly reactive metals like Sodium, 22. Which of the statements about the
Potassium, Magnesium, etc. are extracted reaction,
by the ZnO + CO → Zn + CO2 is correct?
A) electrolysis of their molten chloride A) ZnO is being oxidised
B) electrolysis of their molten oxides B) CO is being reduced
C) reduction by aluminium C) CO2 is being oxidised
D) reduction by carbon D) ZnO is being reduced
16. The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 12. 23. Cu2S + 3Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2 The above
Which inert gas is nearest to X? process is
A) He A) auto-reduction
B) Ne B) chemical reduction
C) Ar C) electrolytic reduction
D) Kr D) None of these
17. Oxides of moderately reactive metals like 24. An element ‘X’ is yellow coloured solid,
Zinc, Iron, Nickel, Tin, Copper etc. are insoluble in water but soluble in carbon
reduced by using disulphide. It has low melting point
A) Aluminium as reducing agent 114.5°C. It boils at 445°C and it bums with
B) Sodium as reducing agent pale blue flame forming pungent smelling
C) Carbon as reducing agent gas ‘Y’ which turns moist blue litmus red
D) Calcium as reducing agent and finally colourless. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are
A) C, CO2
18. Galvanisation is a method of protecting
B) N, NO2
iron from rusting by coating with a thin
C) S, SO2
layer of
D) I2, I2O5
A) Gallium
B) Aluminium 25. Generally, metals react with acids to give
C) Zinc salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the
D) Silver following acids does not give hydrogen gas
19. Reaction between X and Y forms on reacting with metals (except Mn and
compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains Mg)
electron. Which of the following properties A) H2SO4
is not shown by Z? B) HCl
A) Has high melting point C) HNO3
B) Has low melting point D) All of these
C) Conducts electricity in molten state
D) Occurs as solid Answers:
1 D 2 D 3 C
20. The electronic configurations of three 4 A 5 D 6 A
elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8; Y — 2, 7 D 8 D 9 B
8, 7 and Z — 2, 8, 2. Which of the following
10 B 11 C 12 B
is correct?
13 B 14 B 15 A
A) X is a metal
16 B 17 C 18 C
B) Y is a metal
C) Z is a non-metal 19 C 20 C 21 C
D) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal 22 D 23 A 24 C
25 C

8
Chapter
Carbon and its Compounds
1.
4
Ethane, with the molecular formula C H 2 6 6. A student studies that vinegar, which is a
has diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes
A) 6 covalent bonds. during winter. What does this suggest
B) 7 covalent bonds. about the physical properties of pure
C) 8 covalent bonds. ethanoic acid?
D) 9 covalent bonds. A) It has a low boiling point.
B) It has a low melting point.
2. While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is C) It has a very high boiling point.
getting blackened on the outside, it means D) It has a very high melting point.
that,
A) The food is not cooked completely. 7. A student studies that a soap molecule has
B) The fuel is not burning completely. two ends, one of which is an ionic end, and
C) The fuel is wet. the other is the carbonic chain. Which
D) The fuel is burning completely. option explains the interaction of a soap
molecule with oil?
3. The chemical reaction shows the addition A) Ionic end of the soap interacts with the oil.
of chlorine to methane in the presence of B) The closest end of the soap interacts with
sunlight. the oil.
CH4 + Cl4 → X C) Carbonic chain end of the soap interacts
What is likely to be the product of the with the oil.
reaction represented by “X”? D) Ends of the soap randomly interact with
A) CH4+ H2SO4 the oil.
B) CH3Cl + HCl
C) CHCl3 + HCl 8. Methane, ethane and propane are said to
D) CH3Cl + H2SO4 form a homologous series because all are-
A) Hydrocarbons
4. When ethanol is oxidized using potassium B) Saturated compounds
dichromate and Sulphuric acid. Which C) Aliphatic compounds
option represents the product “X”? D) Differ from each other by a CH2 group.
9. Following is (are) the property (ies) of ionic

compounds.
A) CH2O A) They have high melting and boiling
B) CH3CH points.
C) CH3H2O B) They conduct electricity in solution or in
D) CH3COOH molten state.
C) Both (a) and (b)
5. The chemical reaction shows the addition D) None of the above
of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in the
presence of sunlight. 10. The following image represents a carbon
CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl compound.
How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon
compound in the presence of sunlight?
A) It adds hydrogen into the compound.
B) It adds an oxygen atom into the
compound. Which functional group is present in the
C) It substitutes hydrogen atom from the compound?
compound. A) Alcohol
D) It breaks double and triple bonds into a B) Aldehyde
single bond. C) Carboxylic acid
D) Ketone
9
the following
11. The following represents the formulae of a A) Subjected to substitution reaction
few hydrocarbon compounds. B) Subjected to addition reaction
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4 (c) C2H6 (d) C3H4 C) Burn with smokeless flame
Which of these compounds can be classified D) Less reactive than saturated hydrocarbons.
as alkynes?
A) Only (a) 19. The following chemical reaction shows the
B) Only (b) addition of chlorine gas to hydrocarbon in
C) Both (a) and (d) the presence of sunlight.
D) Both (b) and (c) CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl
How does chlorine react to a hydrocarbon
12. Which of the following is the molecular compound in the presence of sunlight?
formula of cyclobutane? A) It adds hydrogen to the compound
A) C4H10 B) It adds an oxygen atom to the compound
B) C4H6 C) It substitutes hydrogen atom from the
C) C4H8 compound
D) C4H4 D) It breaks double and triple bonds into a
single bond
13. The correct electron dot structure of a
water molecule is, 20. The reaction in which alcohol converts to
A) carboxylic acid by reacting with alkaline
potassium permanganate or acidified
B) potassium dichromate is an example of
which of the following reactions?
C) A) Substitution.
B) Addition.
D) C) Oxidation.
D) Reduction.
14. Name of the organic compound having
molecular formula CH3CH2Br is 21. The reaction in which vanaspati ghee is
A) Bromoethane produced from vegetable oils using nickel
B) Bromomethane catalyst is an example of which of the
C) Bromopropane following reactions-
D) Ethanone A) Esterification.
B) Saponification.
15. Correct group of saturated hydrocarbons is C) Substitution.
A) CH4, C2H4, C3H4 D) Hydrogenation.
B) C2H6, C3H8, C4H10
C) C2H2, C2H6, CH4 22. The gas which is produced during the
D) C2H2, C3H6, C4H6 reaction between sodium and ethanol is-
A) CO₂
16. The first member of alkene series is B) H₂
A) Benzene C) O₂
B) Propene D) Cl₂
C) Ethene 23. Which one of the following is used as a
D) Methene dehydrating agent to produce unsaturated
hydrocarbon, ethene from ethanol-
17. The ionic end of soap molecule reacts with A) Dilute HCl.
A) Oil B) Concentrated HCl.
B) Mud C) Concentrated H₂SO₄
C) Water D) Dilute H₂SO₄
D) Colour
24. Reason for the formation of a large variety
18. Property of unsaturated hydrocarbons in of compounds by carbon is-
10
(i) Catenation. B) Reducing agent.
(ii) Small size of carbon atom. C) Catalyst.
(iii)Tetravalency of carbon. D) Dehydrating agent.
(iv) Strong bond formation by carbon.
Correct option is – Answers:
A) (i), (ii) 1 C 2 B 3 B
B) (ii), (iii) 4 D 5 C 6 B
C) (i), (iv) 7 C 8 D 9 C
D) (i) (iii) 10 D 11 C 12 C
13 C 14 A 15 B
25. In the reaction of ethanol with excess 16 C 17 C 18 B
concentrated sulphuric acid to produce 19 C 20 C 21 D
ethene concentrated sulphuric acid acts as
22 B 23 C 24 D
which of the following?
25 D
A) Oxidizing agent.

11
Chapter
Periodic Classification of Elements
5
1. Which of the following pairs of elements C) MCl, NCl
have similar properties among Na, Mg, Al, D) MCl2, NCl2
Si, P, S, K, Cl.
A) P & Cl 8. The electronic configuration of atoms A
B) Al & Si and B are (2, 8, 8, 1) and (2, 7) respectively.
C) Na & K The periods of these elements are,
D) S & Mg A) 1st and 7th period
B) 2nd and 4th period
2. The element with the highest non-metallic C) 4th and 2nd period
properties among the following. D) 2nd and 7th period
A) Fluorine
B) Oxygen 9. Which of the following elements is the most
C) Hydrogen electro positive character? Li, F, Na, Al, Cl,
D) Chlorine K, Ca.
A) Li
3. Write the following elements in ascending B) The
order of their metallic properties. (Mg, Ca, C) Cl
K, Ge, Ga) D) K
A) Ca<Mg<Ge<Ga<K
B) Ge<K<Ga<Mg<Ca 10. The atomic numbers of elements A, B and
C) Ge<Ga<K<Ca<Mg C are 9, 12 and 17 respectively. Which of
D) Ge<Ga<Mg<Ca<K these three elements belongs to the same
group?
4. What is the formula of the compound A) A & C
formed when element "X" is placed in B) B & C
group 14? C) A & B
A) XCl2 D) B & A
B) XCl3
C) XCl 11. Name the element having electron
D) XCl4 configuration 2, 8, 6?
A) Helium
5. If the electron distribution of an element is B) Carbon
2, 8, 3 what is its atomic number? C) Oxygen
A) 13 D) Sulphur
B) 10
C) 8 12. Element "X" belongs to the 15th group and
D) 3 the 3rd period. Write its electronic
configuration.
6. An element belongs to 3rd period and 2nd A) 2, 8, 5
group of the periodic table. Then the B) 2, 8, 6
number of valence electrons in it C) 2, 8, 7
A) 3 D) 2, 8, 8
B) 4
C) 2 13. Given below is the atomic number of the
D) 1 four elements. Write them in descending
order of atomic size.
7. Elements M and N belong to the same Element Atomic number
period and belong to group 1 and 2 A 19
respectively. The chemical molecular B 11
formula of their chlorides is respectively. C 03
A) MCl2, NCl D 14
B) MCl, NCl2 A) A>D>B>C
12
B) A>B>D>C 20. Group and Period of element sodium (11Na)
C) D>B>C>A respectively
D) B>C>D>A A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4
14. Write the correct atomic symbols of the C) 1, 2
given elements. Potassium, sodium, gold, D) 1, 4
silver.
A) Po, So, Ga, Si 21. The atomic number of element "X" is 11
B) P, N, Ga, At and that of element "Y" is 17. Then the type
C) K, Na, Au, Ag of bond formed between these elements.
D) Kr, Ne, Au, Ag A) Hydrogen bond
B) Covalent bond
15. Elements A, B, and C are Dobereiner's C) Ionic bond
triplets. The atomic masses of elements A D) Metallic bond
and C are 6.9 and 39.1 respectively.
Calculate atomic mass of element B. 22. If the atomic number of an element is 20,
A) 25 then the periodic number of this element in
B) 46 the modern periodic table.
C) 23 A) 4
D) 28 B) 8
C) 2
16. Element “X" forms chloride containing D) 3
formula "XCl2". It is a solid with a high 23. The atomic size of the elements as we move
melting point. This element belongs to the below a group in the modern periodic table
second group. Identify the element "X". is,
A) Na A) Decreases
B) Mg B) Does not change
C) Al C) Increases
D) Si D) First increases then decreases.
17. Which of these groups of atomic numbers 24. The number of periods and groups in the
represents the same group of elements? modern periodic table respectively
A) 11,19 A) 7 and 18
B) 6,12 B) 7 and 9
C) 4,12 C) 18 and 7
D) 8,17 D) 9 and 7
18. 4Be, 9F, 11Na, 14Si, 19K, & 20Ca are some of the 25. Eka-aluminium in Mendeleev periodic
elements of modern periodic table. Which table is the this element
of these elements has one electron in the A) Silicon
outermost shell? B) Scandium
A) 4Be & 14Si C) Germanium
B) 11Na & 19K D) Gallium
C) 9F & 20Ca
26. "Properties of elements are periodic
D) 4Be & 20Ca
functions of their atomic number". This
rule was proposed by,
19. The correct ascending order of the atomic
A) Dobereiner
radius of the elements of the 2nd period.
B) Mendeleev
A) B<Be<O<N<Li<C
C) Newlands
B) C<Li<N<O<Be<B
D) Henry Moseley
C) O<N<C<B<Be<Li
D) C<Li<O<N<Be<B 27. Which of the following elements has octet
electron configuration?
A) Sodium (11Na)
13
B) Argon (18Ar) 30. Consider this as part of the modern
C) Calcium (20Ca) periodic table, which element has the lowest
D) Lithium (3Li) atomic radius/size.
W X
28. The elements X, Y & Z are arranged in Y
sequence of atomic mass. The formula is Z
written by applying the triple law with A) W
respect to these B) X
A) X= Y+Z C) Y
B) Y= X+Z D) Z
C) X= (Y+Z)/2
D) Y= (X+Z)/2
Answers:
29. The reason why elements of class 18 are
called elements of zero group is 1 C 2 A 3 D
A) The outer shell of these elements has an 4 D 5 A 6 C
octet structure. 7 B 8 C 9 D
B) These elements do not react with other 10 A 11 D 12 A
elements. 13 B 14 C 15 C
C) The outer shell of these elements is filled 16 B 17 A 18 B
with maximum number of electrons. 19 C 20 A 21 C
D) All of the above is correct. 22 A 23 C 24 A
25 D 26 D 27 B
28 D 29 B 30 D

14
Chapter
Life Processes
6
1. Which of the following statements about 7. Which is the correct sequence of parts in
the autotrophs is incorrect? human alimentary canal?
A) They synthesis carbohydrates from carbon A) Mouth → Stomach → small intestine →
di oxide and water in the presence of Oesophagus → large intestine
sunlight and chlorophyll. B) Mouth→ oesophagus → Stomach →
B) They store carbohydrates in the form of Large intestine → small intestine
starch. C) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus →
C) They convert carbon di oxide and water small intestine → large intestine
into carbohydrates in the absence of D) Mouth →Oesophagus → stomach →
sunlight. small intestine → large intestine
D) They constitute the first trophic level in
food chains. 8. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva,
which of the following events in the mouth
2. In which of the following groups of cavity will be affected?
organisms, food material is broken down A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids.
outside the body and then absorbed. B) Starch breaking down into sugars.
A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba. C) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and
B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould glycerol.
C) Paramecium, Amoeba, cuscuta D) Absorption of vitamins
D) Cuscuta, lice, tape worm.
9. The inner lining of stomach is protected by
3. The correct pair that represents the one of the following from hydrochloric acid.
autotrophs among the following is _______ Choose the correct one.
A) Plants and fungi A) Pepsin
B) Plants and animals B) Mucus
C) Animals and Fungi C) Salivary amylase
D) Birds and insects D) Bile
4. Part of the food consumed by animals is 10. Which part of the alimentary canal receives
stored in the form of _____ bile from the liver?
A) Starch A) Stomach
B) Glucose B) small intestine
C) Glycogen C) large intestine
D) Cellulose D) oesophagus
5. 6CO2 + 12H2O → _______ + 6CO2 + 6H2O 11. Herbivores have long small intestine to help
A) C6H6O6 to digest _____
B) C12H12O6 A) Cellulose
C) C6H12O12 B) Sucrose
D) C6H12O6 C) Glucose
D) Starch
6. Which of the following statement is false
regarding the stomata? 12. The part of the digestive system where the
A) They help to absorb carbon di oxide and absorption of nutrients takes place in
release oxygen. human beings is ____
B) They absorb moisture from the A) Stomach
atmosphere. B) Liver
C) They release excess amount of water from C) Large intestine
the plant body to the atmosphere. D) small intestine
D) They perform the function of opening and
closing.
15
13. When air is blown from mouth into a test A) Pisces and Amphibians
tube containing lime water, the lime water B) Amphibians and reptiles
turns milky due to the presence of ______ C) Amphibians
A) Oxygen D) Pisces
B) Carbon di oxide
C) Nitrogen 20. Which of the following statements is false
D) water vapour relating to lymph?
A) It is a colourless fluid similar to blood.
14. In the first step of all types of respiration six B) It flows through the lymph nodes.
molecular Glucose gets converted into ____ C) It transports the digested fats absorbed by
A) Pyruvate small intestine.
B) Ethanol D) It has a greater number of red blood cells
C) Carbon dioxide in it.
D) Lactic acid
21. The function of xylem in plants is _______
15. The correct reason for the cramps A) transportation of oxygen
occurring in our muscles is _____ B) transportation of amino acids
A) Consumption of more water C) transportation of water
B) production of lactic acid in the muscles D) transportation of food
due to lack of oxygen
C) Production of oxygen in the muscles due 22. In which of the following parts do plants do
to lack of lactic acid. snot store their food prepared
D) lack of glucose A) Flower
B) root
16. The reason for the rapid rate of respiration C) stem
in aquatic animals than terrestrial animals D) seed
is ____
A) They are more active. 23. The structural and functional unit of
B) They consume more complex food. kidney is _______
C) They respire through the process of A) Neuron
osmosis. B) Nephron
D) The rate of oxygen dissolved in water is C) Nylon
less than the amount present in air. D) Neon
17. The respiratory pigment present in human 24. The correct path of urine production in our
blood that is responsible for gaseous body is ______
exchange is ____ A) Kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary
A) Melanin bladder
B) Insulin B) Kidney → ureter → urinary bladder →
C) Haemoglobin urethra
D) Pectin C) Kidney → urethra → ureter → urinary
bladder
18. Which of the following statements D) Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra →
regarding Heart is false ____ ureter
A) Heart purifies blood.
B) Arteries are bigger than ventricles. 25. The part of the cell where Plants store their
C) The valves prevent the backward flow of waste materials is ______
blood. A) Nucleus
D) Blood passes through the heart twice B) Lysosome
C) Vacuole
19. In which of the following vertebrate D) Mitochondria
group/groups, heart does not pump
oxygenated blood to different parts of the
body.
16
26. The reason for the opening and closing of C) Diaphragm
the structure in the following diagram is D) Ribs
________
29. The structure that separates oxygenated
and de oxygenated blood in human heart is
_____
A) Oxygen
B) temperature
C) the quantity of water in the guard cells
D) carbon di oxide
27. The site of digestion of fats in the following

diagram is _______
A) Septum
B) Aorta
C) Pulmonary arteries
D) Right atrium
30. In which part of the figure 1 do the

structure in the figure 2 appears _______
A) Oesophagus
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Small intestine A) Kidney
B) Ureter
28. The site in the Human respiratory system C) Urinary blader
where exchange of gases takes place is D) Urethra
______
Answers:
1 C 2 B 3 A 4 C
5 D 6 B 7 D 8 B
9 B 10 B 11 A 12 D
13 B 14 A 15 D 16 B
17 C 18 A 19 D 20 D
21 C 22 A 23 B 24 B
25 C 26 C 27 D 28 B
A) Trachea 29 A 30 A
B) Alveoli

17
Chapter
Control and Coordination
7
1. Iodized salt usage is to overcome this
8. The information is transmitted to a next
problem
neuron from a preceding neuron in the
A) Problem in Genitals
form of –
B) Thyroid problem
A) Electrical impulse.
C) Adrenal problem
B) Magnetic impulse.
D) Pancreatic problem
C) Heat energy.
2. Voluntary activities are controlled by this D) Chemicals.
part of the brain
9. The electrical impulse is converted into a
A) Hindbrain
chemical signal for onward transmission in
B) Hypothalamus
the part of the neuron called-
C) Cerebellum
A) Axon.
D) Spinal Cord
B) Cell body.
3. The mismatched pair among the following C) Dendrite.
is D) Myelin sheath.
A) Adrenaline-Pituitary gland
10. The sudden action of our body in response
B) Testosterone-Testis
to a change in our surrounding is called-
C) Insulin-Pancreas
A) Voluntary action.
D) Thyroxin –Thyroid gland
B) Involuntary action.
4. Parts of reflex arc in order is C) Reflex action.
A) Receptor-Sensory neuron –Relay neuron- D) Spontaneous action.
Motor neuron-Effector
11. Watering of our mouth when we feel
B) Sensory neuron- Receptor- –Relay
hungry is an example of-
neuron-Motor neuron-Effector
A) Voluntary action.
C) Sensory neuron –Relay neuron-Motor
B) Reflex action.
neuron-Effector- Receptor
C) Involuntary action.
D) Sensory neuron –Relay neuron- Receptor-
D) Cardiac action.
Motor neuron-Effector
12. The connections between the input nerve
5. One person is having slow recovery from
and output nerve formed in the spinal cord
wounds because of more sugar level in
facilitating our sudden actions are known
blood, the hormone responsible for this
as-
problem is secreted by
A) Nervous system.
A) Thyroid
B) Peripheral nervous system.
B) Adrenal
C) Reflex action.
C) Pancreas
D) Reflex arc.
D) Pituitary
13. The part of our brain that controls the
6. Movement of the plant not showing growth
involuntary actions like blood pressure and
is
vomiting-
A) Ridge Gourds Tendril growth
A) Forebrain.
B) Touch me not plant leaves drooping
B) Midbrain.
C) Areca nut tree growth towards sun
C) Medulla.
D) Coconut tree Root growth towards soil
D) Cerebellum.
7. All the information from our environment
14. The part of our brain that provides us with
is detected by which of the following part of
precision in activities like riding a bicycle or
a neuron-
walking in a rope-
A) Axon.
A) Medulla.
B) Dendrite.
B) Cerebellum.
C) Myelin sheath.
C) Cerebrum.
D) Cell body.
18
D) Midbrain. 21. Organisms depend on hormones as well as
electric impulses for the transmission of
15. Plant cells change shape by which of the
signals from the brain to the rest of the
following means-
body. What can be a likely advantage of
A) By rearranging some special proteins.
hormones over electric impulses?
B) By bringing in more oxygen.
A) It is secreted by all types of cells present
C) By evaporation of water.
in the body.
D) By changing the amount of water in them.
B) It is secreted by stimulated cells and
16. Which of the following is not a phenomenon reaches all cells of the body.
that indicates movement due to growth in C) It is relayed to the target organ faster than
plants- electric impulses.
A) Hydrotropism. D) It does not depend on an external stimulus
B) Chemotropism. to be generated in the cells.
C) Movement of sunflowers in response to
22. Which one of the following is not a disease
day or night.
caused by deficiency of hormone?
D) Geotropism.
A) Goiter.
17. Chemical communications in multicellular B) Diabetes.
organisms involve- C) Dwarfism.
A) Hormones. D) High blood pressure.
B) Electrical impulse.
23. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted
C) Magnetic signal.
from
D) light energy.
A) dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end
18. Which one of the following is an animal of another neuron
hormone that helps in making our body B) axon to cell body of the same neuron
ready to face a scary situation- C) cell body to axonal end of the same neuron
A) Adrenaline. D) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end
B) Growth hormone. of another neuron
C) Thyroxine.
24. In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by
D) Insulin.
A) Muscles - receptor – brain
19. Which of the following option shows the B) Muscles - effector – brain
order of events correctly when a bright C) Receptor - spinal cord – muscles
light is focused on our eyes? D) Spinal cord - receptor – muscles
A) Bright light → receptors in eyes →
25. Choose the incorrect statement about
sensory neuron → spinal cord → motor
insulin,
neurons → eyelid closes
A) It is produced from pancreas
B) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal
B) It regulates growth and development of
cord → sensory neuron → motor neurons
the body
→ eyelid closes
C) It regulates blood sugar level
C) Bright light → receptors in eyes →
D) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause
sensory neuron → motor neurons →
diabetes
spinal cord → eyelid closes
D) Bright light → receptors in eyes → spinal
cord → motor neurons → sensory neuron Answers:
→ eyelid closes
20. Which parts of the brain control blood 1 B 2 C 3 A 4 A
pressure? 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 D
A) Spinal cord, skull, hypothalamus 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 D
B) Cord, skull, cerebrum 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C
C) Pons, medulla, cerebellum 17 A 18 A 19 A 20 C
D) Pons, medulla, pituitary 21 B 22 D 23 D 24 C
25 B

19
Chapter
How do Organisms Reproduce?
8
1. A group of organisms that reproduce only C) Ovary
by fission D) Ovum
A) Amoeba, Hydra, Spirogyra
B) Leishmania, Amoeba, Yeast 9. Testicles performs the following functions,
C) Amoeba, Plasmodium, Planaria A) Production of testosterone
D) Plasmodium, Amoeba, Leishmania B) Excretion of sperms and urine
2. Which is the unicellular organism C) Production of male gametes and hormones
responsible for Kala Azar disease? D) Production of sperm
A) Amoeba
B) Leishmania 10. Planaria undergoes ________ method of
C) Plasmodium reproduction.
D) Yeast A) Budding
B) Fission
3. Which is the single-celled organism that C) Vegetative propagation
causes malaria? D) Regeneration
A) Amoeba
B) Leishmania 11. The use of condom is one of the following
C) Planaria methods of preventing pregnancy,
D) Plasmodium A) Surgical method
4. An organism that reproduces asexually B) Mechanical method
through budding is C) Hormonal method
A) Amoeba D) Chemical method
B) Yeast
C) Plasmodium 12. The common route for both sperm and
D) Leishmania urine in male reproductive system is,
A) Ureter
5. Which of the following is not a part of the B) Seminal vesicle
female reproductive system in humans? C) Vas deference
A) Ovaries D) Urine excretion tube
B) Uterus
C) Scrotum 13. The foetus transfers the waste material to
D) fallopian tube the mother's blood through,
6. The anther have the following A) Uterus
A) Petals B) Uterus neck
B) Ovum C) Placenta
C) Pistil D) Fallopian tube
D) Pollen grains
14. A special action that is responsible for the
7. The part of the female reproductive system similarity between the mother organism
where fertilisation takes place and the baby organism is
A) Uterus A) Variation
B) Fallopian tube B) Speciation
C) Ovary C) DNA Replication
D) Vagina D) Mutation
8. The part of the flower that ripens and
becomes fruit 15. A factor that helps in the survival of species
A) Female gamete A) Variation
B) Pistil B) Speciation
20
C) DNA Replication A) Placenta
D) Mutation B) Ovary
C) Foetus
16. Which part identified in the figure will
D) Seed
form the future stem?
A) A only 20. The testes are located in the testicular sacs
B) B only outside the abdomen, because,
C) Both A and B A) The production of sperm requires a
D) None of these temperature lower than the body
temperature.
17. The part of the flower that grows as a fruit
B) The production of sperm requires a higher
and the part of the seed that grows as the
temperature than the body temperature.
root of the plant respectively,
C) The production of sperms does not take
A) Ovary and plumule
place inside the body.
B) Plumule and radicle
D) The production of sperm is not dependent
C) Ovary and radicle
on body temperature.
D) Ovary and ovum
18. After fertilization, these parts will modify Answers:

into seed and fruit respectively.
A) Ovum and ovary 1 D 2 B 3 D 4 B
5 C 6 D 7 B 8 C
B) Ovary and seminal vesicle
9 D 10 D 11 B 12 C
C) Ovum and sperm
13 C 14 C 15 C 16 A
D) Ovary and ovum
17 C 18 A 19 D 20 A
19. This will form by the division of the zygote
several times after pollination.

21
Chapter
Heredity and Evolution
9
1. Mendel conducted his famous breeding a new combination of characters. Choose
experiments by working on the following: the new combinations from the following:
A) Drosophila (i) Round, yellow
B) Escherichia Coli (ii) Round, green
C) Pisum Sativum (iii) Wrinkled, yellow
D) All of these (iv) Wrinkled, green
A) (i) and (ii)
2. Which section of DNA provides B) (i) and (iv)
information for one protein? C) (ii) and (iii)
A) Nucleus D) (i) and (iii)
B) Chromosome
C) Trait 7. Miller and Urey performed an experiment
D) Gene to prove the origin of life from organic
compounds. The gases they took were:
3. Which of the following is an example of A) methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapour
genetic variation? B) methane, ethane, hydrogen, ammonia
A) One person has a scar, but his friend C) ammonia, water vapour, butane, hydrogen
doesn’t. D) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water
B) One person is older than the other. vapour
C) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a
vegetarian. 8. Which of the following is a pair of
D) Two children have different eye colour. analogous organs?
A) Wings of a pigeon and a bat
4. In peas, a pure tall (TT) is crossed with a B) Forelimbs of a frog and a bird
pure short plant(tt). The ratio of pure tall C) Forelimbs of a rabbit and a lizard
plants to pure short plants in the F2 D) Leaves of a pitcher plant and a Venus fly
generation is: trap
A) 1:3
B) 3:1 9. A zygote which has an X chromosome
C) 1:1 inherited from the father will develop into
D) 2:1 a:
A) boy
5. Humans have two different sex B) girl
chromosomes, X and Y. Based on Mendel’s C) X chromosome does not determine the sex
laws, a male offspring will inherit which of a child
combination of chromosomes? D) either boy or girl
A) Both the X chromosomes from one of its
parents 10. From the list given below, select the
B) Both the Y chromosomes from one of its character which can be acquired but not
parents inherited.
C) A combination of X chromosomes from A) Colour of eyes
either of its parents B) Colour of skin
D) A combination of X and Y chromosomes C) Texture of hair
from either of its parents D) Size of body
6. Two pea plants, one with round green seeds 11. In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and
(RR yy) and another with wrinkled yellow gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the
(rrYY) seeds, produce F1 progeny that have colour of the eyes of the person having
round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants combination (i) Bb (ii) BB:
are self-pollinated, the F2 progeny will have A) (i) Brown (ii) Brown
B) (i) Blue (ii) Blue
22
C) (i) Blue (ii) Brown D) Budding
D) (i) Brown (ii) Blue
18. The process where characteristics are
12. What is the probability that the male transmitted from parent to offsprings is
progeny will be a boy? called:
A) 50 % A) Variation
B) 56 % B) Heredity
C) 47.43 % C) Gene
D) it varies D) Allele
13. Which of the following does Darwin’s 19. The phenomenon where individuals of a
theory not include? species exhibit differences in characteristics
A) Natural Selection are called:
B) Survival of the fittest A) Adaptation
C) Evolution Through Inheritance B) Evolution
D) Struggle for the existence of life C) Variation
D) All of the above
14. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
green seeds. If a heterozygous yellow- 20. Which of the following statements is
seeded plant is crossed with a green-seeded Incorrect?
plant, what ratio of yellow and green- A) Gene is a sequence of nucleotides.
seeded plants would you expect in the B) During the process of gene expression,
F1 generation? DNA is first copied into RNA.
A) 9:1 C) Genes can acquire mutations in their
B) 3:1 sequence.
C) 1:3 D) Genes cannot acquire mutations in their
D) 50:50 sequence.
15. Which of the following statements is not 21. _______ is the observable set of
true with respect to variation? characteristics of an organism.
A) All variations in a species have equal A) Phenotype
chances of survival. B) Genes
B) Change in genetic composition results in C) DNA
variation. D) All of the above
C) Selection of variants by environmental
factors forms the basis of evolutionary 22. When a new plant is formed as a result of
processes. cross-pollination from different varieties of
D) Variation is minimum in asexual a plant, the newly formed plant is called:
reproduction. A) Dominant plant
B) Mutant plant
16. The two versions of a trait (character) C) Hybrid plant
which are brought in by the male and D) None of the above
female gametes are situated on:
A) Copies of the same (homologous) 23. Who proposed the theory of evolution?
chromosomes A) Charles Darwin
B) Two different chromosomes B) Stanely Miller
C) Sex chromosomes C) Harold Urey
D) Any Chromosomes D) Aristotle
17. Exchange of genetic material takes place 24. Homologous organs are organs that have:
in: A) Different function with a different
A) Vegetative reproduction structure
B) Asexual reproduction B) Same function with the same structure
C) Sexual reproduction
23
C) Same function but with a different A) Tallness is dominant character
structure B) Shortness is dominant character
D) Different function but the same structure C) Tallness is recessive trait
D) Height of pea plant is not governed by
25. Which part of the DNA provides gene T or t
information for a protein?
A) Chromosome 32. Select the correct statement.
B) Mitochondria A) Tendril of pea plant and phylloclade of
C) RNA opuntia are homologous.
D) Gene B) Tendril of pea plant and phylloclade of
opuntia are analogous.
26. Which of the following is not controlled by C) wings of birds and limbs of lizards are
genes? analogous.
A) Eye colour D) wings of birds and wings of bat are
B) Height homologous.
C) Hair colour
D) None of the above 33. New species may be formed if ______.
A) DNA do not undergo significant changes
27. Which of the following can be inherited in germ cells.
from parents to offspring? B) Chromosomes number changes in
A) Swimming technique gametes
B) Big nose C) There is no change in genetic material.
C) Sculpted body D) Mating does not take place.
D) All of the above
34. The number of sex chromosomes in zygote
28. A Mendelian experiment consisted of of humans is_______.
breeding of tall pea plants bearing violet A) 1
flowers with short pea plants bearing white B) 2
flowers. The progeny all bore violet flowers C) 3
but almost half of it were short. This D) 4
suggests that the genetic makeup of tall
parent can be depicted as: 35. Select the group which shares the
A) TTWW maximum number of common characters?
B) TTww A) Two individuals of a species
C) TtWW B) Two species of genus
D) TtWw C) Two genera of a family
D) Two genera of two families
29. The two versions of trait which are brought
in by female and male gametes are situated 36. In human males all the chromosomes are
at: paired perfectly except one. These unpaired
A) Copies of same chromosomes chromosomes are _______.
B) Two different chromosomes A) large chromosomes
C) Sex chromosomes B) small chromosome
D) Any chromosomes C) Y chromosomes
D) Z chromosomes
30. From below, select the character that is
acquired not inherited? 37. If the fossil of an organism is found in the
A) Colour of eye deeper layers of earth, then we can predict
B) Colour of skin that __________.
C) Size of body A) The extinction of organism has occurred
D) Nature of hair recently.
31. A cross between tall plant (TT) and short B) The extinction of organism has occurred
pea plant (tt) is inherited in progeny that years ago.
were all tall plants because:
24
C) The fossil position in the layer’s pf earth is A) All variations in a species have equal
not related to its time of extinction. chance of survival.
D) Time of extinction cannot be determined. B) Change in genetic composition results in
variation.
38. An example of homologous organs is C) Selection of variants by environmental
___________ factors forms the basis of evolutionary
A) Our arm and dog s foreleg processes.
B) Our teeth and elephants’ tusks D) Variation is minimum in asexual
C) Potato and runners of grass reproduction.
D) All
45. A trait in an organism is influenced
39. According to evolutionary theory, by__________.
formation of a new species is generally due A) paternal DNA
to ________ B) Maternal DNA
A) Sudden creation of nature C) Both paternal and maternal DNA
B) Accumulation of variations over several D) None
generations
C) Clones formed during sexual reproduction 46. According to the evolutionary theory,
D) Movement of individuals from one habitat formation of a new species is generally due
to another to _____.
A) sudden creation by nature.
40. Which of the following is totally impossible
B) accumulation of variations over several
outcome of Mendel’s Experiment?
generations.
A) 3 tall 1 short
C) clones formed during asexual
B) 24 tall 8 short
reproduction.
C) 8 tall 0 short
D) movement of individuals from one habitat
D) 4 tall 1 medium height
to another.
41. Which of the following is not a direct
conclusion that can be drawn from 47. Which one is possible progeny in F2
Mendel’s Experiment? generation of pure breed tall with round
A) Only one parental trait is expressed. seed and short plant with wrinkled seed?
B) Two copies of each trait are inherited in A) Tall plant with round seed
sexually transmitted organism. B) Tall plant with wrinkled seed
C) For recessive trait to be expressed, both C) short plant with round seed
copies should be identical. D) all
D) Natural selection can alter frequency of
inherited trait. 48. Homologous organs have ______
A) same structure same function
42. Who have a perfect pair of sex B) different structure different function
chromosomes? C) same structure different function
A) Girls D) different structure same function
B) Boys
C) Both 49. The rule of _____determines the process by
D) It depends upon many factors. which traits and characteristics are reliably
inherited.
43. Which of the following can be called a A) Heredity
characteristic? B) Reproduction
A) plants can photosynthesis C) Generation
B) we have two eyes. D) None
C) Mango tree is multicellular.
D) All 50. DNA is the information source for making
___ in cells.
44. Which of the following statements is not A) fats
true with respect to variation? B) vitamins
25
C) proteins
D) all 58. Following have four limbs________.
A) Mammals
51. Each cell has two copies of each B) Amphibians
chromosome _______ C) Reptiles
A) one each from male and female parents D) All
B) from male parent
C) from female parent 59. ___is used for studying human evolution.
D) any of above A) Excavating
B) Time dating
52. In few reptiles, the ___ at which fertilized C) Determining DNA sequence
eggs are kept determines the sex of D) All
offspring.
A) Temperature 60. The maleness of a child is determined by
B) Pressure ___.
C) Place A) X chromosome in zygote
D) All of the above B) Y chromosome in zygote
C) The cytoplasm of germ cells which
53. Men have a ___ pair of sex chromosomes. determines the sex.
A) perfect D) Sex is determined by chance.
B) matched
C) mismatched Answers:
D) any of above
1 C 2 D 3 D 4 C
54. The basket of vegetables contains carrots,
potato, radish, and tomato. Which of them 5 D 6 B 7 D 8 A
represents the correct homologous
structures? 9 B 10 D 11 A 12 A
A) carrot and Potato
B) Carrot and Tomato 13 C 14 D 15 A 16 A
C) Radish and carrot
D) Radish and potato 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 D
55. A character which is expressed in hybrid is 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 D

always ________.
A) Dominant 25 D 26 D 27 B 28 C
B) Recessive
C) Co-dominant 29 A 30 C 31 A 32 B
D) Epistatic
33 B 34 C 35 A 36 C
56. The frequency of certain genes in a
population changed over generations. This 37 A 38 D 39 B 40 D
is the essence of the idea of ___
A) Revolution 41 D 42 A 43 D 44 A
B) Evolution
C) Reproduction 45 C 46 A 47 D 48 C
D) Production
49 A 50 C 51 A 52 A
57. The preserved traces of living organisms
are called ________.
53 C 54 C 55 A 56 B
A) Fossils
B) Species
57 C 58 A 59 D 60 B
C) Non-living materials
D) None
26
Chapter
Light – Reflection and Refraction
10
1. The suitable focal length of the convex lens 8. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 means,
used as magnifying lens to read “Hallmark A) The ratio of the speed of light in water and
916” written on ornament is: the speed of light in glass equal to 1.5.
A) 12cm B) The product of the speed of light in water
B) 60cm and the speed of light in glass equal to 1.5.
C) 100cm C) The product of the speed of light in air and
D) 120cm the speed of light in glass equal to 1.5.
D) The ratio of the speed of light in air and
2. If the radius of curvature of a lens is 30cm, the speed of light in glass equal to 1.5.
then its focal length will be
A) 60cm 9. A concave lens of focal length 15cm forms
B) 30cm an image 10cm from the lens. The nature of
C) 15cm the image is,
D) 120cm A) Real and erect
B) Virtual and erect
3. Refraction of light takes place, when the C) Virtual and inverted
A) Angle of incidence is more than 900 D) Real and inverted
B) Angle of incidence is less than 900
C) Angle of incidence is 00 10. A doctor prescribes a corrective lens of
D) Mediums having same refractive index power -0.5D to a person. The focal length of
the lens and type is
4. The focal length of a convex lens is 100cm A) -2m and concave lens
then its power will be B) +2 m and convex lens
A) +1D C) +2m and concave lens
B) -1D D) -2m and convex lens
C) +0.01D
D) -0.01D 11. The nature and the size of the image formed
when the object is kept between the
5. An object is kept at a distance of 30cm from principal focus F1 and optical centre ‘O’ of
a diverging lens of focal length 15cm, then a convex lens is,
the image distance and its magnification A) Virtual, erect and enlarged
will be respectively B) Real, inverted and small size
A) -10 cm and 3 C) Virtual, inverted and small size
B) +10 cm and 3 D) Real, inverted and enlarged
C) +10 cm and 0.33
D) -10 cm and 0.33 12. The diameter of the circular outline of a
spherical lens is,
6. Concave lens always produces A) Optical centre
A) erect, diminished and real image B) Centre of curvature
B) inverted, diminished and real image C) Aperture
C) erect, enlarged and virtual image D) Principal axis
D) erect, diminished and virtual image
13. Object distance and image distance of a
7. From the ray diagram given below identify lens are -60cm and -20cm respectively, then
the position and nature of the image the magnification of the lens will be
A) Between F2 and 2F2, virtual and inverted A) -0.33
B) Between F2 and 2F2, real and inverted B) +3.0
C) Beyond 2F2, real and inverted C) +0.33
D) Beyond 2F2, virtual and erect D) +4.0

27
14. Which one of the following materials 21. The lens formula is expressed as
cannot be used to make a lens? 1 1 1
A) − =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
A) Water
B) Glass B)
1 1
−𝑣 =𝑓
1
C) Plastic 𝑢
D) Clay C)
1 1
+𝑢=𝑓
1
𝑣
15. Where should an object be placed in front 1 1 1
of a convex lens to get a real image of the D) −𝑢=𝑓
ℎ
size of the object?
A) At the principal focus of the lens 22. Light rays from the sun light falling on a
B) At twice the focal length convex lens will converge at a point on
C) At infinity principal axis called,
D) Between the optical centre of the lens and A) Radius of curvature
its principal focus B) Centre of curvature
C) Optic centre
16. Which of the following lenses would you D) Principal focus
prefer to use while reading small letters
found in a dictionary? 23. A highly enlarged and real image is formed
A) A convex lens of focal length 50cm by a convex lens when an object is placed
B) A concave lens of focal length 50cm A) between F1 and O
C) A convex lens of focal length 5cm B) at 2F1
D) A concave lens of focal length 5cm C) at F1
D) between F2 and 2F2
17. The centre point of a lens is called as
A) Optical centre 24. A Ray of light is travelling from a rarer
B) Centre of curvature medium to a denser medium. While
C) Focal point entering the denser medium at the point of
D) Aperture incidence, it
A) Goes straight into the second medium
18. A Ray of light passing through a principal B) Bends towards the normal
focus, after refraction from a convex lens C) Bends away from the normal
will emerge D) Does not enter at all
A) Through the principal focus on the same
side of the lens. 25. A student studies that a convex lens always
B) Through the principal focus on the other forms a virtual image irrespective of its
side of the lens. position. What causes the convex mirror to
C) Parallel to the principal axis always form a virtual image?
D) Without deviation A) Because the reflected ray never intersects
B) Because the reflected ray converges at a
19. 1 dioptre is a power of a lens whose focal single point
length is, C) Because the incident ray traces its path
A) 1cm back along the principal axis
B) 50cm D) Because the incident ray of a convex
C) 1m mirror gets absorbed in the mirror
D) 50m
Answers:
20. The positive sign in the value of
1 A 2 C 3 B 4 A
magnification of a lens shows that the
5 D 6 D 7 B 8 D
image is
9 B 10 A 11 A 12 C
A) erect and real
B) erect and virtual
13 C 14 D 15 B 16 C
C) inverted and real 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 B
D) inverted and virtual 21 A 22 D 23 C 24 B
25 A

28
Chapter
The Human Eye and the Colourful World
11
1. The near point of an adult's human eye is 8. The phenomenon of light that causes the
____ rainbow is _______________
A) 25 cm A) Refraction
B) 25 m B) Reflection
C) 30 cm C) Dispersion of light
D) 30 m D) Scattering of light
2. A lens used to correct near-sightedness 9. A star appears slightly higher than its
(myopia) is _________________ actual position on the horizon. This is due
A) Convex lens to ________
B) Concave lens A) Refraction
C) Convex mirror B) Reflection
D) Concave mirror C) Dispersion of light
D) Scattering of light
3. A biconvex lens is used to correct which
defect? 10. The phenomenon of light that causes the
A) Far-sightedness horizon to appear red during sunset is ____
B) Near-sightedness A) Refraction
C) Night-sightedness B) Reflection
D) Presbyopia C) Dispersion of light
D) Scattering of light
4. Where does object reflection occur in
myopia? 11. The reason why hazard lights are red is ___
A) In front of the retina A) Minimum dispersion
B) Behind the retina B) Maximum dispersion
C) Above the retina C) Minimum reflection
D) Near the lens D) Maximum reflection
5. Where does object reflection occur in 12. The least bending colour in the light
hypermetropia? spectrum is ____
A) In front of the retina A) Blue
B) Behind the retina B) Red
C) Above the retina C) Yellow
D) Near the lens D) Orange
6. The angle between two lateral faces of a 13. The colour of maximum bending in the
prism is called _____________. spectrum of light is ____
A) Angle of refraction A) Blue
B) Angle of the prism B) Red
C) Angle of deflection C) Yellow
D) Angle of plate D) Orange
7. The peculiar shape of the prism makes the 14. Which part of the eye controls the amount
emergent ray bend at an angle to the of light entering the eye?
direction of the incident ray. This angle is A) pupil
called ____________. B) Iris
A) Angle of refraction C) Cornea
B) Angle of departure D) Retina
C) Angle of deviation
D) Angle of prism
29
15. The phenomenon of light that causes early Answers:
sunrise and delayed sunset is
A) Reflection 1 A 2 B 3 D 4 A
B) Colour separation of light 5 B 6 B 7 C 8 C
C) Scattering of light 9 A 10 D 11 A 12 B
D) Refraction 13 A 14 A 15 D

30
Chapter
Electricity
12
1. Advice used to change the resistance in an B) Electric current
electric circuit is C) Resistance
A) Ammeter D) Ampere
B) Rheostat
C) Galvanometer 8. The formula of joules law of heating
D) Voltmeter is_____
A) V=RI
2. The potential difference between the B) H=IRT
terminals of electric heater is 60V, when it C) H=I2R2T
draws a current of 4A from the source. The D) H=I2RT
resistance of electric heater coil is,
A) 15 Ω 9. How much work is done in moving a charge
B) 240 Ω of 2C across two points having a potential
C) 24 Ω difference 12V
D) 64 Ω A) 24 Joule
B) 6 Joule
3. The resistance of a conductor does NOT C) 14 Joule
depend on D) 10 Joule
A) Length of conductor
B) Area of cross section of conductor 10. A piece of wire of resistance Ris cut in to
C) Magnetic nature five equal parts these parts are then
D) Nature of the material connected in parallel if the equivalent
resistance of this combination is R’ then the
4. ‘WATT’ is an SI unit of ratio R/R’ is-
A) Electric current A) 1/25
B) Electric charge B) 1/5
C) Electric potential difference C) 5
D) Electric power D) 25
5. Observe the following table 11. Which of the following terms does not
Material Resistivity(Ωm) represent electrical power in a circuit?
K 6.84X10-8 A) I2R
L 1.62 X 10-8 B) VQ/t
M 5.20 X 10-8 C) VI
N 2.63 X 10-8 D) V2R
Good conductor of electricity among these
material is 12. The correct way of using electrical
A) K appliances in domestic electric circuit is
B) L A) Connecting electrical appliances in series
C) M B) Using an electrical appliance of 880 W
D) N power in 5A electric circuit
6. S I Unit of electric charge is______ C) Connecting main fuse to electrical
A) Joule appliances in parallel
B) Volt D) Using an electrical appliance of 2 KW
C) Coulomb power in 5A electric circuit
D) Ampere
13. Two conducting wires of same material and
7. The opposition to flow of electric current is of equal lengths and equal diameters are
called_____ first connected in series and then parallel in
A) Volt a circuit across the same potential
31
difference. The ratio of heat produced in D) Electric distribution.
series and parallel combinations would be –
A) 1:2 19. An electric bulb is connected to a 220 V
B) 2:1 generator. The current flowing in the bulb
C) 1:4 is 0.50A Then the power of the bulb
D) 4:1 is_________
A) 1100W
14. Tungsten is used almost exclusively for B) 44W
filament of electric lamps because it has— C) 110W
A) High resistivity and high melting point D) 100W
B) High resistivity and low melting point
C) Low resistivity and high melting point 20. The amount of current will an electric
D) Low resistivity and low melting point heater coil draw from a 220 V source, if the
resistance of the heater coil is 100 ohm
15. The conductors of electric heating devices ________
such as bread toasters and electric irons, A) 220A
made of an alloy rather than a pure metal B) 22 A
because It has _________ C) 2.2 A
A) Less resistivity and less melting point D) 220V
B) High resistivity and low melting point
C) High resistivity and high melting point 21. Precautionary measures taken to prevent
D) Low resistivity and low melting point overload in a circuit is _________
A) Many appliances are connected to a single
16. Copper and Aluminium wires usually socket
employed for electricity transmission B) Many appliances are connected to a
because copper and aluminium wires are different socket.
having – C) Many appliances are not used at a time
A) Low resistivity and bad conductors of D) Both B and C are correct
electricity
B) High resistivity and bad conductors of 22. The work done to move a unit charge from
electricity one point to other is________
C) High resistivity and good conductors of A) Electric current
electricity B) Potential difference
D) Low resistivity and good conductors of C) Electric power
electricity D) Electric resistance
17. In an electric circuit these symbols are 23. The resistance of a conductor is 27 ohm, if
represents ______ it is cut in to three equal parts and
connected it in parallel. Then the resultant
resistance will be __________
A) Ammeter, voltmeter, switch closed,
A) 1 ohm
switch open
B) 3 ohm
B) Voltmeter, ammeter, switch closed, switch
C) 9 ohm
open
D) 12 ohm
C) Switch open, ammeter, voltmeter, switch
closed
24. The work done in moving a charge of 2C
D) D. Switch closed, ammeter, voltmeter,
across two points at potential difference
switch open
12V ______
A) 24J
18. A continuous and closed path of an electric
B) 6J
current is called______
C) 14J
A) Electric circuit
D) 10J
B) Electric connection
C) Electric power

32
25. The resistance of a uniform metallic Answers:
conductor is _______ 1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D
A) Directly proportion to its length 5 B 6 C 7 C 8 D
B) Inversely proportional to its length 9 A 10 D 11 D 12 B
C) Equal to its length 13 D 14 A 15 C 16 D
D) Multiple of its length 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 C
21 D 22 B 23 B 24 A
25 A

33
Chapter
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
13
1. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid A) Reverses the direction of current
are in the form of a parallel Straight lines. B) Converts electric energy into mechanical
The reason for this is the magnetic field energy
inside the solenoid is: C) Detects presence of electric current in the
A) Very high circuit
B) Uniform D) Converts mechanical energy into
C) Zero electrical energy
D) Produced by electricity
8. The principle on which an electric
2. Which of the following is not a property of generator works
magnetic lines? A) Electrochemical effect
A) Magnetic field lines dense near polis B) Electromagnetic effect
B) Magnetic field lines are closed loops. C) Electromagnetic Induction
C) Magnetic field lines intersect each other D) Electro heating effect
D) Magnetic field lines emerge from North
Pole and merge at South Pole 9. In faraday’s coil and magnet experiment
when coil and magnet are both stationary
3. The correct way of using electrical A) Coil producers more electricity
appliances in domestic electric circuit is B) Coil produces electricity
A) Connecting electrical appliances in series C) Electricity continuously changes in the
B) Using an electrical appliance off eat 880 coil
W power in 5A electric circuit D) There is no flow of electricity in the coil.
C) Connecting main fuse to electrical
appliances in parallel 10. The device used to detect the flow of electric
D) Using an electrical appliance of 2KW current in faraday's coil and magnet
power in 5A electric circuit experiment
A) Voltameter
4. A convenient way of finding the direction of B) Ammeter
magnetic field associated with the current C) Galvanometer
carrying straight conductor is given by D) Tester
A) Right hand thumb rule
B) Fleming’s right hand rule 11. Which of the following correctly describes
C) Fleming’s left hand roll the magnetic field near a long straight
D) Jules law conductor?
A) The field consists of straight lines
5. The working principle of an electric motor perpendicular to the wire.
A) A current carrying conductor when placed B) The field consists of straight lines parallel
in a magnetic field experiences a force to the wire.
B) Electrochemical effect C) The field consists of radial lines
C) Electromagnetic effect originating from the wire.
D) Electromagnetic induction D) The field consists of concentric circles
centred on the wire.
6. In Fleming’s left hand rule middle finger
indicates the direction of the 12. The phenomenon of electromagnetic
A) Magnetic field induction is
B) Electric current induced in conductor A) The process of charging a body.
C) Electric current B) The process of generating magnetic field
D) Movement of the conductor due to current passing through coil.
7. The function of electric generator is, it

34
C) Producing induced current in a coil due to D) 50V
relative motion between a magnet and the
coil. 20. To get maximum mechanical force in an
D) The process of rotating a coil of an electric electric motor the angle between direction
motor of current and the direction of magnetic
field should be
13. A device that reverses the direction of flow A) 0 degree
of current through a circuit is called a B) 45 degree
A) Split ring C) 90 degree
B) Commutator D) 180 degree
C) Slip ring
D) Brushes 21. In domestic electric circuits the colour of
live wire is
14. During short circuit current in the circuit A) Green
A) Reduces substantially B) Blue
B) Does not change C) Red
C) Increases heavily D) Black
D) Vary continuously 22. The first scientist to show that the magnetic
15. State a false statement among the following field can create the flow of electric current
A) An electric motor converts mechanical A) Ohm
energy into electrical energy B) Michael Faraday
B) An electric motor converts electric energy C) Oersted
into mechanical energy. D) Isaac Newton
C) When current carrying conductor is placed 23. Magnetic field has
in magnetic it experiences mechanical A) It doesn’t have direction and magnitude
force B) It has no direction but magnitude is
D) Electric motor is used in appliances like present
fan mixer etc. C) It has both direction and magnitude
16. The device used to get electrical energy D) It doesn’t have direction and magnitude
from mechanical energy 24. In Fleming’s right hand rule middle finger
A) Dynamo
indicates the direction of the
B) Galvanometer
A) Magnetic field
C) Ammeter
B) Electric current induced in conductor
D) Volta meter
C) Electric current
17. The frequency of alternating current D) Movement of the conductor
produced in India is
A) 100 Hertz
25. Which of the following property can
B) 220 Hertz
change while it moves freely in a magnetic
C) 110 Hertz
field?
A) Velocity
D) 50 Hertz
B) Momentum
18. The safety device used to protect electrical C) Mass
appliances in a domestic circuit during D) A & B
overloading of the circuits
A) Fuse Answers:
B) Voltmeter 1 B 2 C 3 B 4 A
C) Ammeter 5 A 6 C 7 D 8 C
D) Tester 9 D 10 C 11 D 12 C
19. In India the potential difference between 13 B 14 C 15 A 16 A
live wire and neutral wire is 17 D 18 A 19 A 20 C
A) 220V 21 C 22 B 23 C 24 B
B) 100V 25 D
C) 110V

35
Chapter
Sources of Energy
14
1. In a Power station coal is burnt to heat following is not ultimately derived from the
water to produce steam which further runs Sun’s energy?
the turbine to generate electricity. This A) Geothermal energy
power station is______ B) Wind energy
A) Thermal Power Plant because coal is burnt C) Nuclear energy
B) Hydro power plant because water is heated D) Biomass
C) Nuclear Power plant because turbine runs 8. Hot Springs are related to _______
D) Biogas power plant because coal is used A) Geothermal energy
B) Nuclear energy
2. Identify the correct statement in relation to C) Tidal energy
energy sources_______ D) Wind energy
(i) Efficiency should be high
(ii) Should produce high smoke 9. The common fuel used in Thermal power
(iii) Should be easily available plant is _______
(iv) Should be rarely available A) Methane
A) (i) and (ii) B) Hydrogen
B) (i) and (iii) C) Coal
C) (ii) and (iv) D) Kerosene
D) (iii) and (iv)
10. The oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur
3. Which of the following energy sources is that are released on burning fossil fuels are,
affected by moon’s gravity? A) Basic oxides
A) Solar energy B) Amphoteric oxides
B) Fossil fuels C) Acidic Oxides
C) Tidal energy D) Neutral oxides
D) Biomass
11. The vegetation which is submerged rots
4. The energy possessed by huge waves under anaerobic conditions and give rise to
needed to generate electricity is _______ large amounts of methane. This problem is
A) Solar energy associated with _______
B) Kinetic energy A) By constructing Thermal power plant
C) Potential energy B) By constructing Dams for Hydro Power
D) Heat energy Plants
C) By constructing nuclear power plants
5. Which of the following is not a fossil fuel? D) While setting windmills to harness wind
A) LPG energy
B) Natural gas
C) Biogas 12. The power (electricity) produced by a
D) CNG typical solar cell when exposed to the sun
A) 1 watt
6. A solar water heater cannot be used to get B) 0.5 watt
hot water on _______ C) 0.7 watt
A) A sunny day D) 0.9 watt
B) A cloudy day
C) A hot day 13. The element used for making solar cells is _
D) A windy day A) Sulphur
B) Phosphorous
7. Most of the stored sources of energy we use C) Zirconium
represent stored solar energy. Which of the D) Silicon

36
14. The voltage produced by a typical solar cell 21. Silver is used for interconnection of cells in
when exposed to the sun____ the solar panel because____
A) 1.5V – 2V A) It is costly & Shining
B) 2V- 2.5V B) It is a good conductor of electricity and
C) 0.5V-1V non rusting
D) 1V-1.5V C) It is of low cost &non-rusting
D) It is a bad conductor of electricity
15. The best suited mirror to use in solar
cooker is ________ 22. The difference in the temperature of the
A) Concave water at the surface of the sea and in the
B) Convex deeper sections of sea is exploited to
C) Plain obtain_____
D) Spherical A) Geothermal energy
B) Tidal energy
16. Which one of the following is used as a C) Ocean thermal energy
rocket fuel _____ D) Thermal energy
A) CNG
B) Petrol 23. The principle of nuclear bomb is ______
C) Hydrogen A) Uncontrolled Nuclear fission
D) Natural Gas B) Controlled nuclear fission
C) Nuclear fusion
17. The following is not used as a fuel in D) Thermo-nuclear fusion
nuclear reactor ______
A) Uranium 24. The principle of solar cell is______
B) Barium A) Light energy is converted to heat energy
C) Plutonium B) Heat energy is converted into light energy
D) Thorium C) Light energy is converted into electricity
D) Light energy is converted into Chemical
18. The Main component of bio gas is ______ energy
A) Propane
B) Butane 25. The principle of solar cooker is _______
C) Ethane A) Light energy is converted into Heat energy
D) Methane B) Heat energy is converted into Light
energy.
19. The minimum wind speed required to C) Heat energy is converted into Chemical
maintain the speed of the turbine of wind energy
mill is _______ D) Light energy is converted into Mechanical
A) Above 10km/h energy.
B) Above 12 km/h
C) Above 13 km/h
D) Above 15 km/h Answers:
1 A 2 B 3 C 4 B
20. The slurry left behind after the production 5 C 6 B 7 C 8 A
of biogas is an excellent manure 9 C 10 C 11 B 12 C
because____ 13 D 14 C 15 A 16 C
A) It is rich in Nitrogen & Phosphorous 17 B 18 D 19 D 20 A
B) It is rich in Carbon & Sulphur 21 B 22 C 23 A 24 C
C) It is rich in Fluorine & Chlorine 25 A
D) It is rich in Carbon & Oxygen

37
Chapter
Our Environment
15
1. In the following groups of materials which 6. If 100 J energy is available at the producer
group contain only non-biodegradable level in a food chain, then the energy
items available to the secondary consumer will
I. wood, paper, leather be.
II. polythene, detergent, PVC A) 10 J
III. Plastic, detergent, grass B) 1 J
IV. plastic, Bakelite, DDT C) 0.1 J
A) III D) 0.01 J
B) IV
C) I and III 7. Which of the following groups of organisms
D) II and IV are not included in ecological food chain
A) carnivores
2. The maximum number of levels in a food B) saprophytes
chain can C) herbivores
A) 7-8 D) predators
B) 3-4
C) 5-6 8. In an ecosystem the 10% of energy
D) 1-3 available for transfer from one trophic
level to next is in the form of
3. The direction of energy flow in an A) heat energy
ecosystem is B) light energy
A) Unidirectional C) mechanical energy
B) unidirectional from lower trophic level D) chemical energy
towards the higher trophic level
C) bidirectional 9. In the given food chain suppose the amount
D) bidirectional from lower trophic level to of energy at fourth trophic level is 5KJ
higher trophic level what will be the energy available at the
producer level
4. Which of the following sets represents the Grass→grasshopper →Frog→Snake→hawk
substances required for the formation of A) 5 KJ
ozone? B) 50 KJ
A) oxygen and UV radiations C) 5000 KJ
B) oxygen and IR radiations D) 500 KJ
C) oxygen and radiations of longer
wavelength 10. Which of the following constitute a food
D) carbon dioxide, water vapour and UV chain
radiations. A) grass, wheat and mango
B) grass, goat and human
5. Which of the two sets belong to the same C) goat, cow, and elephant
trophic level. D) grass, fish and goat
A) Frog – Lizard
B) Rabbit – Tiger 11. The combination of two or more food
C) Vulture – Crow chains forms a
D) Deer – Hawk A) food web
B) ecosystem
C) environment pyramid
38
D) food chain 18. Which of the following are environment
friendly practices?
12. Which of the following statements is correct A) carrying cloth bags to put purchases in
A) all plants and bacteria are producers. while shopping.
B) all green plants and certain bacteria are B) switching off unnecessary lights and fans
producers. C) walking to school instead of getting your
C) only some species of green plants and all mother to drop you on her scooter.
bacteria are producers. D) all of the above
D) only green plants are producers.
19. Excessive exposure of humans to UV rays
13. The % of solar radiation absorbed by all results in
green plants for the process of I. Damage to immune system
photosynthesis is about, II. damage to lungs
A) 1% III. skin cancer
B) 8% IV. peptic ulcers
C) 5% A) I and II
D) 10% B) II and IV
C) I and III
14. Lakes and ponds do not require cleaning, D) III and IV
but an aquarium does because,
A) an aquarium is an artificial and a complete 20. Green plants Rabbit Snake Eagle
ecosystem. In the given food chain what is represented
B) Lakes and ponds are natural and complete by eagle at block 3
ecosystem. A) decomposers
C) an aquarium has a pool of decomposers. B) secondary consumers
D) Lake do not possess any decomposers and C) tertiary consumers
these BOD always remains low. D) predators
15. The substance caused for depletion of 21. Which one of the below given reason holds
ozone. good for increase in the amount of waste
A) Chloro-fluoro-carbon generated by humans
B) Hydro-chloro-fluoro-carbon A) religious practices
C) carbon tetra chloride B) change in packing style and products.
D) none of the above C) home cooking
D) use of plant-based products.
16. At which trophic level maximum energy
available in the given figure for the various 22. an environment enthusiast would certainly
trophic levels in a food chain? not choose one of these for a tea party at her
A) T4 home.
B) T2 A) paper cups
C) T1 B) thermocol cups
D) T3 C) steel cups
D) earthen cups
17. In a food chain harmful chemicals are
stored in a large density this is known as 23. Regarding to biodegradable substances
A) biological depletion which one is correct statement.
B) biological magnification A) they stay for long time in environment.
C) biological energy B) it harms most animals in ecosystem.
D) none of the above
39
C) it increases the density of harmful A) food web
chemicals in the different trophic levels. B) form of energy
D) it can be easily recycled in environment. C) trophic level
D) none of the above
24. Molecular formulae of ozone is
A) O3 29. The major source of energy flowing in any
B) O2 food web is the
C) O A) Animals
D) none of the above B) Primary producers
C) consumer
25. Producers in an aquatic ecosystem D) sun
A) algae
B) Small Fishes 30. In which of the following countries ozone
C) larva hole has appeared?
D) Protozoan A) Africa
B) Japan
26. Ozone is a C) North America
A) Vital air D) Antarctica
B) Deadly poisonous
C) Combustion friendly Answers:
D) both a and c
1 D 2 B 3 B 4 A
27. Example for man-made / artificial 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 D
ecosystem 9 C 10 B 11 A 12 B
A) garden and crop field
13 A 14 B 15 A 16 C
B) forest, pond, lake
C) both a and b are true 17 B 18 D 19 C 20 C
D) none of the above 21 B 22 B 23 D 24 A
25 A 26 B 27 A 28 C
28. Every step or a level of a food chain
comprises, 29 D 30 D

40
Chapter
Sustainable Management of Natural Resources
16
1. Water harvesting is a method which __ 9. Tehri dam is built on the river
A) Increase ground water level A) Yamuna
B) Not practiced in modern days B) Ganga
C) Has no relation with the groundwater C) Satlej
D) Decrease groundwater level D) Beas
2. The practice of using used materials 10. Following is a greenhouse gas

without changing their shape and form is _ A) Nitrogen oxide
A) Reuse B) Sulphur dioxide
B) Recycling C) Carbon dioxide
C) Repurpose D) Carbon monoxide
D) Reduce
11. If you paint old chair to make a new, you
3. Kulha is a type of __ are
A) Dam A) Recycling
B) Lake B) Reusing
C) Canal C) Recovering
D) Well D) Reducing
4. Floods can be prevented by 12. Amrutha Devi Bishnoi sacrifice her life to
A) Afforestation protect the
B) Removing of top soil A) Palm Trees B.
C) Deforestation B) Khejri trees
D) Agriculture C) Sal trees
D) Teak wood trees
5. Coliform is a
A) Group of bacteria 13. The main causes for abundant coliform
B) Group of virus bacteria in the river Ganga is
C) Group of fungi A) Disposal of human excreta directly
D) Group of protozoa B) Discharge of effluents from electroplating
industries
6. The name given for replenishment of forest C) Agricultural wastes
A) Afforestation D) Immersion of ashes
B) Silviculture
C) Deforestation 14. The Indira Gandhi canal has brought
D) Siri culture. greenery to considerable areas of
A) Gujarat
7. Khadins, Bundhis, Ahars and Katta's are B) Rajasthan
ancient structures used for C) Bihar
A) Grain storage D) Madhya Pradesh
B) Wood storage
C) Water harvesting 15. The natural resources is defined as
D) Soil Conservation A) Found on land
B) Man made substances
8. Arbari forest of Bengal is dominated by C) Forest products
A) Teak D) A gift of nature very useful to mankind
B) Sal
C) Bamboo 16. The following community in Rajasthan has
D) Mangroves a religious tenet of conservation of forest
and wildlife __
41
A) Munda C) Kanheri
B) Jaishwal D) None of the above
C) Bishal
D) Bishnoi 25. A student studies that the construction of a
water harvesting system in a region can
17. Ground water will not be depleted due to help conserve water. How can the
A) Afforestation construction of this system help a region?
B) Thermal Power plants A) It will reduce the occurrence of droughts
C) Loss of forest and decreased rain fall B) It will reduce the percolation of rainwater
D) Cropping of high water demanding crops C) It will replenish surface water like rivers
D) It will increase the speed of flow of surface
18. Primary source of water is runoff
A) Rivers
B) Ground water 26. The pH range most conducive for the life of
C) Lakes freshwater plants and animals is:
D) Rain water A) 6.5 to 7.5
B) 2.0 to 3.5
19. The biodiversity hot spot is found in C) 3.5 to 5.0
A) Rivers D) 9.0 to 10.5
B) Forests
C) Deserts 27. Tropical rainforests grow well in areas
D) Oceans receiving rainfall
A) 200 cm
20. Canal system of Dams B) 150 cm
A) Transfer large amounts of water over great C) 100 cm
distance D) 70 cm
B) Appears good
C) Can decrease water pressure 28. Which of these is an example of sustainable
D) Can connect other dams. development in order to conserve natural
resources for future generations?
21. Which of these practices can be adopted to A) Cleaning water resources
save the environment? B) Finding alternate fuel reservoirs
A) Refuse the use of single-use plastic bags C) Clearing forests to set up new industries
B) Reduce the use of paper bags D) Planning for safe disposal of wastes after
C) Recycle single-use bags mining
D) Reuse waste food
22. The three Rs that will help us to conserve

natural resources for long-term use are: Answers:
A) Recycle, regenerate, reuse 1 A 2 C 3 B 4 A
B) Reduce, regenerate, reuse
C) Reduce, reuse, redistribute 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 B
D) Reduce, recycle, reuse
23. In which year was the Wildlife Protection 9 B 10 C 11 B 12 B
Act implemented in India?
A) 1952 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 D
B) 1962
C) 1972 17 A 18 D 19 B 20 A
D) 1982
21 A 22 D 23 C 24 B
24. Which one of the following is the Biosphere
Reserve of India? 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 D
A) Gir
B) Nilgiri
42

DIET Hassan Science EM QB 2023-24

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Government of Karnataka

Department of School Education and Literacy

District Institute of Education and training

Science 10th Standard

3 Natural  Light: Reflection and Refraction 12

4 How do Things  Electricity 13

Objective Weightage Weightage to type of questions

1 Remembering 16 20% 1 MCQ 1 08 08

2 Understanding 32 40% 2 Very short answer 1 08 08

3 Applying 16 20% 3 Short answer 2 08 16

Skill 4 Long answer 3 09 27

Weightage to difficulty level Internal Choice

Sl No Difficulty level Marks % Sl No Marks distribution Total marks

1 Easy 24 30% 1 2x2 04

Department of School Education and Literacy

District Institute of Education and training

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²æÃªÀÄw ¥ÀÄµÀà®vÁ ºÉZï PÉ

Concept and Guidance

Guidance and Coordination

Mr. Girish K R Mr. Shekhar Y M

Mr. Satheesha B K Mrs. Harini

Mr. Jayanth R Mr. Dharmendra Y N

Mr. R M Patil Mr. Mohankumar S

Mrs. Saraswathi B Mrs. Thoyajakshi

Sl No Chapter No Chapter Name Page No

1 Chapter-1 Chemical Reactions and Equations 1-3

2 Chapter-2 Acids, Bases and Salts 4-6

3 Chapter-3 Metals and Non-metals 7-8

4 Chapter-4 Carbon and its Compounds 9-11

5 Chapter-5 Periodic Classification of Elements 12-14

6 Chapter-6 Life Processes 15-17

7 Chapter-7 Control and Coordination 18-19

8 Chapter-8 How do Organisms Reproduce? 20-21

9 Chapter-9 Heredity and Evolution 22-26

10 Chapter-10 Light – Reflection and Refraction 27-28

The Human Eye and the Colourful

12 Chapter-12 Electricity 31-33

13 Chapter-13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 34-35

14 Chapter-14 Sources of Energy 36-37

15 Chapter-15 Our Environment 38-40

Sustainable Management of Natural

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

15. A substance X which is a group 2 element is 21. Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

3. Which of the following statements is 9. What happens, when a solution of an acid

5. What is pH? 10. Which of the following salts does not

15. Brine is an 21. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

4. The correct order of increasing chemical 11. Al2O3 + 2NaOH → …… + H2O

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

9. Following is (are) the property (ies) of ionic

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

27. The site of digestion of fats in the following

30. In which part of the figure 1 do the

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

18. After fertilization, these parts will modify Answers:

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

55. A character which is expressed in hybrid is 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 D

HemaDeevige-2 (Science-83-E) DIET, Hassan

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