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SC Date: 21-06-20
Time: 3HRS Max. Marks: 264
Name of the Student: ___________________ H.T. NO:
PHYSICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 1 – 8) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 8 32
Sec – II(Q.N : 9 – 18) Questions with Multiple Correct Choice 4 -2 10 40
Matrix Matching
Sec – III(Q.N : 19 – 20) 8 -4 2 16
(+2/-1 for every match)
Total 20 88
CHEMISTRY:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 21 – 28) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 8 32
Sec – II(Q.N : 29 – 38) Questions with Multiple Correct Choice 4 -2 10 40
Matrix Matching
Sec – III(Q.N : 39 – 40) 8 -4 2 16
(+2/-1 for every match)
Total 20 88
MATHEMATICS:
+Ve - Ve No.of Total
Section Question Type
Marks Marks Qs marks
Sec – I(Q.N : 41 – 48) Questions with Integer Answer Type 4 0 8 32
Sec – II(Q.N : 49 – 58) Questions with Multiple Correct Choice 4 -2 10 40
Matrix Matching
Sec – III(Q.N : 59 – 60) 8 -4 2 16
(+2/-1 for every match)
Total 20 88
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 2
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 88
SECTION – I
(SINGLE INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 8 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
1. A parallel beam of uniform, monochromatic light of wavelength 2640A0 has an intensity
of 200W/m2. The number of photons in 1mm3 of this radiation is 100x, find the nearest
integer of x.
2. The surface of cesium is illuminated with monochromatic light of various wavelengths
and the stopping potentials for the wavelengths are measured. The results of this
experiment are plotted as shown in the figure. Estimate the value of work function of the
cesium in eV
Where E is in V/m and t in sec, falls on a metal surface having work function 2.0 eV.
The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron is ____eV. [Take h = Planck's
constant = 6.4 × 10–34 J-s]
4. When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube increases from V1 = 10 kV to V2 = 20 kV,
the wavelength interval between K line and cut-off wavelength of continuous spectrum
increase by a factor of 3. Atomic number of the metallic target is (20+x) where x is an
integer. Find x.
5. The wavelength of the K line for an element of atomic number 57 is . The
wavelength of the K line for the element of atomic number 29 is then given by n .Find
n.
6. An X-ray tube is working at potential of 20 kV. The potential difference is decreased to
10 kV. It is found that the difference of the wavelength of K X-ray and the most
energetic continuous X-ray becomes 4 times the difference before the change of voltage.
The atomic number of the target element is expressed as (50+x), where x is an integer.
1
Take b = 1and 0.54 . Find x.
3.4
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7. The potential difference across the Coolidge tube is 20 kV and10 mA current flows
through the voltage supply. Only 0.5% of the energy carried by the electrons striking the
target is converted into X-rays. Find the power carried by the X-ray beam in SI units.
4 1
8. The wavelengths of K X-rays of two metals ‘A’ and ‘B’ are and
1875R 675R
respectively, where ‘R’ is Rydberg constant. Find the number of elements lying between
‘A’ and ‘B’ according to their atomic number.
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all other cases.
9. X rays from a tube with a target A of atomic number Z show strong K lines for target A
and weak K lines for impurities. The wavelength of K lines is z for target A and
z 1
1 and 2 for two impurities 4 and z . Screening constant of K lines to be unity.
1 2 4
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 4
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
12. A rectangular plate of mass m and area A is placed vertically on a smooth horizontal
surface and connected to an ideal spring of stiffness constant k in relaxed position as
shown. A parallel beam of light of intensity I is incident at an angle to the normal to
the plate. Then choose the correct statement (s) (the plate is completely reflecting, and it
does not rotate)
m
A) Plate oscillates with time period, T 2
k
2 IA cos 2
B) Force on the plate due to beam of light, F
c2
2IA
C) Force on the plate due to beam of light, F
c
2 IA cos 2
D) Amplitude of SHM, A0
kc
13. Light from a discharge tube containing hydrogen atoms falls on the surface of a piece of
sodium. The K.E. of the fastest photoelectrons emitted from sodium is 0.73 eV. The
work function of sodium is 1.82 eV then,
A) the energy of the photons causing the photoelectric emission is 2.55 eV
B) The quantum numbers of the two levels involved in the emission of these photons are
1 and 4
h
C) The change in the angular momentum of the electron in the hydrogen atom is (in
2
the above transition)
D) assuming it to be at rest before transition, the recoil speed of the emitting hydrogen
atom of mass is 0.85 m/s
14. Choose the correct statement(s) ?
A) The density of nuclear matter is independent of the size of the nucleus
B) The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei of middle mass numbers (close to Fe), is
about 8 MeV
C) A free neutron is unstable
D) A free proton is stable
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 5
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
15. Mark the correct statement about nuclear force.
A) The short range of nuclear force limits its size.
B) Weak nuclear force causes a neutron to decay into a proton and an electron.
C) In large nuclei number of neutrons N exceeds the number of protons Z so that effect
of strong nuclear force overcomes increased electrical repulsion.
D) Nuclear force acts between all the nucleons equally irrespective of separation
between them.
16. Which of the following statements about X - rays is/are true ?
A) EK EL EK EM EK (E indicates the energy of photon)
B) For the harder X-rays, the intensity is always higher than soft X-rays
C) The continuous and characteristic X-rays differ in the method of creation
D) The cut-off wavelength min , depends only on the accelerating voltage applied
between the target and the filament.
17. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by
E ,0 x 1
Vx = 0
0 ,x >1
λ1 and λ 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0 x 1 and x >1
respectively. If the total energy of particle is 2E0 , then λ1 / λ 2 is
A) 2 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4
18. In a photo electric experiment I (current)-V (voltage) graph is as shown. Curves a, b and
c correspond to three different metal surfaces irradiated with monochromatic light of
same frequency. Assuming the ratio of number of electrons emitted per second to the
number of photons incident per second is the same for all the three surfaces, choose the
INCORRECT statement(s):
I
a
b
c
V
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 6
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
SECTION - III
(MATRIX MATCHINGANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (P, Q, R
and S) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in Q and R, then for the particular question
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the OMR sheet. For each correct matching will be awarded +2 marks ONLY and
0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
19. In the experimental setup shown S is a point source of monochromatic light placed at a
distance ‘d’ from a photocell. The potential difference across the photocell ‘V’ is
sufficient to attract all the photoelectrons emitted by the cathode. Under initial
conditions photoelectrons are emitted. Match the changes given in Column – I with the
results given in Colum - II
Column I Column II
(A) The distance ‘d’ is decreased (P) The photoelectric current
increases
(B) The frequency of the source is (Q) The photoelectric current may
decreased (but is non-zero) keeping become zero
intensity constant
(C) The intensity of the source is (R) The kinetic energy of fastest
decreased (but is non-zero) keeping electron decreases
frequency constant
(D) The work function of the photo metal (S) The stopping potential does not
in the cathode is increased change
(T) Nothing can be concluded
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20. In column I some events related to Photoelectric effect are mentioned. In column II,
some outcomes are mentioned. Match the events with their relevant outcomes.
Column I Column II
(a) In photoelectric experiment, (p) Stopping potential increases
work function is decreased
keeping frequency and intensity
constant.
(b) In photoelectric experiment, (q) Stopping potential remains
frequency is increased keeping same.
intensity and work function
constant.
(c) If distance between anode and (r) Saturation photo current
cathode is increased in Increases
photoelectric experiment.
(d) If intensity is increased keeping (s) Saturation photo current
frequency and work function decreases
constant.
(t) Maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons increases.
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 8
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 88
SECTION – I
(SINGLE INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 8 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
21. For the octahedral complexes of Fe3+ in SCN– (thiocyanato-S) and in CN– ligand
environments, the difference between the spin-only magnetic moments in Bohr
magnetons (when approximated to the nearest integer) is [Atomic number of Fe = 26]
22. Total number of cis N-Mn-Cl bond angles (that is, Mn-N and Mn-Cl bonds in cis
positions) present in a molecule of cis-[Mn(en)2Cl2] complex is ________
(en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)
23. The number of possible isomers for [Pt(py)(NH3)BrCl] is (py is pyridine)
24. A complex of composition CrCl3.5NH3 is known to contain six-coordinated chromium
calculate the volume (mL) of 0.1N solution of AgNO3 required to precipitate instantly
the chloride ions from 20 mL of 0.01M solution of the complex salt is
4
25. Find the number of optically active isomers for Pd en 2 NH 3 H 2O cation.
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 9
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all other cases.
3
29. The correct option(s) regarding to the complex Co en NH 3 3 H 2O
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 10
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
33. Heme is a versatile molecule present in a large number of metalloproteins and enzymes.
The absorption spectrum of heme is characterized by sharp band at near
400 nm and weaker bands at 520-550 nm. The origin of these absorption bands are:
A) MLCT transitions B) LMCT transitions
C) d-d transitions D) pi-pi* transitions
34. IrCl CO P C6 H 5 3 (trans-chlorocarbonylbis (triphenylphosphine) iridium(I))
2
also known as Vaska's complex can undergo oxidative addition with dihydrogen. Which
of the following structures is/are not correct depiction of the geometry and oxidation
state of the ensuing product?
A) B)
C) D)
35. The incorrect order of (the octahedral crystal field splitting of d orbitals) values for the
following anionic metal complexes is
3 3
A) Ir CN 6 Rh CN 6 RhI 6 CoI 6
3 3
3 3
B) CoI6 RhI6 Rh CN 6 Ir CN 6
3 3
3 3
C) CoI6 Rh CN 6 RhI 6 Ir CN 6
3 3
3 3
D) Ir CN 6 CoI6 Rh CN 6 RhI 6
3 3
36. Among the following metal carbonyl species, the one with the high metal-carbon back
bonding is
2
A) Ti CO 6 B) V CO 6 C) Cr CO 6 D) Mn CO 6
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Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
37. The correct order of wavelength of absorption max of the Cr-complexes is/are
(en = ethylenedimine)
3 3 3
A) CrF6 Cr H 2O 6 Cr en 3 Cr CN 6
3
3 3 3
B) Cr H 2O 6 CrF6 Cr en 3 Cr CN 6
3
3 3 3
C) Cr CN 6 Cr en 3 Cr H 2O 6 CrF6
3
3 3 3
D) Cr en 3 Cr CN 6 Cr H 2O 6 CrF6
3
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 12
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 88
SECTION – I
(SINGLE INTEGER ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 8 questions. The answer is a single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9 (both inclusive).
Marking scheme +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and 0 in all other cases.
41. Words of length 10 are formed using the letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J. Let x be the
number of such words where no letter is repeated; and let y be the number of such words
y
where exactly one letter is repeated twice and no other letter is repeated. Then, =
9x
42. The number of 5 digit numbers which are divisible by 4, with digits from the set {1, 2, 3,
43. The number of order triplets (a, b, c) such that LCM (a, b) = 1000, LCM (b, c) = 2000
and LCM (c, a) = 2000 is AB (Here AB is two digit number) then A + B = _____
between the roots of f(x) = 0, then find the smallest positive integral value of k.
46. Nine hundred distinct n – digit numbers are to be formed using only the 3 digits 2, 5, 7.
47. If the letters of the word are arranged as in a dictionary m and n are the rank of the
48. Let N be the number of triplets (a, b, c) where a, b, c {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} such that
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 13
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
SECTION – II
(ONE OR MORE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE than ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and -2 in all other cases.
49. Consider all possible permutations of the letters of the word ENDEANOEL.
B) The number of permutations in which the letter E occurs in the first and the last
positions is 2! 5!
C) The number of permutations in which none of the letters D, L, N occurs in the last
five positions is 2 5!
D) The number of permutations in which the letters A, E, O occur only in odd positions
is 2 5!.
1 1 1
50. Let S(n) denotes the number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying , x, y, n N
x y n
51. If r, s, t are prime numbers and p, q are the positive integers such that LCM of p, q is
r 2 t 4s 2 , then the number of ordered pair (p, q) is
is/are correct
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 14
Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
53. Which of the following correct ?
A) Nine boys and 3 girls are to be seated in 2 vans, each having numbered seats, 3 in the
front and 4 at the back. The number of ways of seating arrangements, if the girls should
sit together in a back row on adjacent seats, is 12!
B) The number of 9-digit numbers formed using the digits 223355888, such that odd
digits occupy even places, is 60
C) The number of ways of arranging six ‘+’ signs and four ‘-‘ signs in a row, so that no
two ‘-‘ signs occur together, is 35
D) The number of arrangements of the letters of the word BANANA, in which the two
N’s do not appear adjacently, is 40
n4
P4 143
54. The negative terms of the sequence x n are
Pn 2 4.n Pn
63 23 63 27
A) B) C) D)
4 8 2 8
A) 2q = p
B) pqrs = 64
403
D) sum of reciprocals of divisors (including 1 and X) of X =
144
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57. The sum of all three digited numbers that can be formed from the digits 1 to 9 and when
the middle digit is perfect square is
SECTION - III
(MATRIX MATCHINGANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and four statements (P, Q, R
and S) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE or MORE statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in Q and R, then for the particular question
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the OMR sheet. For each correct matching will be awarded +2 marks ONLY and
0 if not attempted and -1 in all other cases.
59. Match the following
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
A i j
10
Ci 10 C j P
220 20 C10
2
B
0 i j n
10
Ci10 C j Q 220 20 C10
C
0 i j n
10
Ci10 C j R 220
10 10
220 20 C10
D
i 0 j 0
10
Ci 10 C j S
2
T 220 20 C10
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Narayana IIT Academy 21-06-20_Incoming.Sr.IIT_CO SC_JEE-Adv_WAT-49_Q’P
60. Consider the letters of the word ‘MATHEMATICS’. Set of repeating letters = {M, A, T}.
Set of non-repeating letters = {H, E, I, C, S}. Match the number of words formed in
column II with condition given in column I
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
The number of words taking all
A elements at a line such that atleast one P 28 . 7!
repeating letter is at odd position is
The number of words formed in which (11)!
B Q (2!)3
no vowel is together
The number of words formed taking all
letters at a time such that in each word
C both M’s are together and both T’s are R 210 (7!)
together but both A’s are not together
is
The number of words formed taking all
letters at a time such that relative order 4!7!
D S (2!)3
of vowels and consonants does not
change is
T 5(7!)
Jr-IIT_SC-60 Page 17
Sec: Incoming.SR WTA-49 Date: 21-06-20
Time: 3hrs 2015-P1 Max.Marks: 264
KEY SHEET
PHYSICS
1 7 2 1 3 2 4 9 5 4
6 5 7 1 8 4 9 AC 10 ACD
11 AC 12 AD 13 AD 14 ABCD 15 ABC
A-PS A-PT
16 ACD 17 B 18 D 19 B-PQ 20 B-PT
C-S C-Q
D-R D-QR
CHEMISTRY
21 4 22 6 23 3 24 4 25 2
26 1 27 3 28 3 29 ABD 30 A
A-T, A- RS,
36 A 37 A 38 BC 39 B- S, B-Q,
40
C-P, C-S,
D- QR D-QRS
MATHS
41 5 42 5 43 7 44 9 45 5
46 7 47 3 48 7 49 ABCD 50 ABC
51 C 52 ABC 53 ABCD 54 AB 55 BCD
A-Q A-Q
56 ABCD 57 AD 58 ABCD 59 B-S B-R
60
C-P C-P
D-R D-S
Page 1
SOLUTIONS
CHEMSITRY
21. SCN- is weak ligand and CN- is strong ligand.
22. Consider the cis isomer.
29. Primary valencies for the above complex is
30. The colour of the compound is blue.
31. IUPAC name is diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
32. X is [Co(H2O)6]Cl2 , Y is [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, Z is [Co(Cl)4]–2
33. Sharp band is LMCT and weaker band is d-d transitions (take the assistance of selection rules)
34. Three membered TS is formed before addition of hydrogen.
MATHEMATICS
10!
41. x 10! and y 10 C1 50 9!
2!
y 50 9!
5
9x 10!
42. The last 2 digits, in 5-digit number divisible by 4, can be 12, 24, 32, 44 or 52.
Also each of the first three digits can be any of {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Hence 5 options for each of the first three digits and total 5 options for last 2-digits
Required number of 5 digit numbers are = 5 5 5 6 625
43. a b c
23 20 , 21 , 22 , 23 24
20 , 21 , 22 23 24
53 50 ,51 ,52 53
Page 2
53 53 50 ,51 ,52 ,53
50 ,51 ,52 53 53
Number of ways = 7 10 70
f n n C0 a n 1 n C1a n 2 n C 2 a n 3 .... 1
n 1n
44. C n 1a 0
a
C0 a n n C1 a n 1 n C2 a n 2 .... 1 n 1Cn 1 a r
1 n
1
a
a 1 1 n Cn
n n
1 1 n
223 1
a 3
n
3 223 1
n
f x
223
1
3 1
2007
3 223 1
f 2007 1
3 223 1
2008
3 223 1
f 2008 1
3 223 1
2007 2008
3 223 3 223
f 2007 f 2008 1
3 223 1
223
1
9
1
1 3
39 3 9
223
39
3
223
1 1
3 223 1 1 3
39 3k then k = 9
We have 1 3r . 10 C r r . 10 C r
10
45.
r 1
10 10
1 3r . 10 C r 10 9 C r 1
r 1 r 1
1 410 1 10 29
410 5 210 210 44 5
210 .45 ,
so 1 and 5
Page 3
f(x)
1 5
x
f (1) 0 k 3 0 k 0
and f(5) < 0
16 k 2 0
or k 3 16 0
k , 4 4,
46. Conceptual
47. Conceptual
If a 1, 2n 4 1 1 4 3 1 4
b c b
48.
b is even
No. of triplets = 1 2 5 10
If a 1, 2a 3b 5c 4 1 1
b
b is odd
number of triplets = 4 3 5 60
N = 10 + 60 = 70
49. Conceptual
1 1 1
50. x n y n n 2
x y n
n2
x n , y n
Where, is divisor of n 2 .
The number of integral solutions (x, y) is equal to the number of divisors of n 2 .
If n 3, n 2 9 32 , then the equation has 3 solutions.
(x, y) = (4, 12), (6, 6), (12, 4)
102 22 .52
S 10 3 3 9
62 22 .32
Page 4
S 6 3 3 9 and 7 2 S 7 3
S 6 S 7 12
Also 82 26
S 8 7 and 92 34 S 9 5
S 8 S 9 12
S 6 S 7 S 8 S 9 12
12 Sk 1 1, 22 S 2 3,32 S 3 3,
42 24 S 4 5, 52 S 5 3, S 6 9
S 7 3,S 8 7, S 9 5 and S 10 9 (from above)
10
S r S 1 S 2 S 3 S 4 S 5 S 6 S 7 S 8 S 9 S 10
r 1
= 1 + 3 + 3 + 5 + 3 + 9 + 3 + 7 + 5 + 9 = 48
51. Conceptual
30 30 r
Cr 2r 1 30 30 r Cr 30 r 1
52. S 1
r 1
30
Cr 30 r r 1 30 Cr 30 r
30
30 r Cr 30 r
Cr 30 r 1
30 .
r 1 Cr 30
Cr 30 r
30 r . 29 r C
30 30 r C r 1 31 r
30 r r .
r 1 Cr 30
Cr 30 r
30
30 r C Cr 1
29 r
n Cr n r 1
30 r 30 n
r 1 Cr Cr 1 Cr 1 r
31 r 30
For n = 30 . Cr 30 Cr 1
4
30 30 29 1
C30 C0 60
30
30
C30 1
C30 C0
Cr 60 C30 and G 1 r Cr
30 2 60 2
30 r 60
K=
r 0 r 0
n 60 is even
G S 60 C30 60 C30 1 1
SK – SG = S(K – G) = S(G – G) = 0 K G
K+G=2 60
C30 2 S 1 2S 2
Page 5
53. Conceptual
54. We have,
n4
P4 143
xn
Pn 2 4Pn
xn
n 4 n 3 n 2 n 1 143
n 2 ! 4n!
n 4 n 3 n 2 n 1 143
n 2 n 1 n! 4n!
n 4 n 3 143 4n 28n 95
2
n! 4n! 4n!
x n is negative
4n 2
28n 95
0
4n!
Which is true for n = 1, 2
63 23
Hence, x1 and x 2 are two negative terms
4 8
10 10 10
55. Exponent of 2 is 2 3 5 2 1 8
2 2 2
10 10
Exponent of 3 is 2 3 1 4
3 3
10
Exponent of 5 is 2
5
10
Exponent of 7 is 1
7
The number of divisors of 10! Is (8 + 1) (4 + 1) (2 + 1) (1 + 1) = 270. The number of ways of putting
270
N as a product of two natural numbers is 135 .
2
56. 144 = 24 . 32
A) no. of divisors (4+1). (2+1) = 15
B) Sum of divisors (1+2+22+23+24) (1+3+32) = 403
15
C) Product of divisors (144) 2 = (12)15
sum of divisiors 403
D) Sum of reciprocals of divisors = =
144 144
57. When repetitions are not allowed
7
p1 101 9 1 8 p2 10 + 7 p1 101 9 4 8 p2 40 + 7 p1 101 9 9 8 p2 90 = 93,387
Page 6
58. A) a11 a22 a33 0 remaining ‘6’ elements can be filled in 76 ways
D) a 11 , a22 , a33 filled in 7 ways, also a12 filled in 7 ways then a21 filled in one way and so on
6 elements can be filled 76 ways
10 10 10
59. A) i j
10
Ci 10 C j =
i 0 j 0
10
Ci 10 C j 10 Ci2 220 20 C10
i 0
10 10 10
10
Ci 10 C j 10 Ci2
220 20 C10
B)
0 i j n
10
Ci10 C j = i 0 j 0
2
i 0
2
10 10 10
10
Ci 10 C j 10 Ci2
220 20 C10
C)
0 i j n
10
Ci10 C j = i 0 j 0
2
i 0
2
10 10 10 10
D)
i 0 j 0
10
Ci 10 C j = i 0
10
Ci 10 Ci 220
j 0
60. (A) It is not possible to arrange all repeated letters at even places.
(11)!
Required number of ways = .
(2!)3
7! 8 4!
(B) Required number of ways = 3
C4 = 210 (7!).
(2!) 2!
(C) Required number of ways = (Total number of ways in which both M’s and both T’s are together)
– (total number of ways in which both M’s and both T’s and both A’s are together)
9!
= – 8! = 28 . 7!
2!
4!7!
(D) Required number of ways =
(2!)3
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