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Edge Academy

MHTCET: | Biology -

Date: 17/03/2024 Duration: 60 mins Max Marks: 100

Test Instructions :
1. Read the questions carefully before submitting the answer.
2.The clock has been set at the serer and the countdown timer at the top of your screen will
display the time remaining for you to complete the test.
3. When the clock runs out, the test ends by default. Check if there are negative marking.
4. No marks will be awarded/deducted if the question is not attempted.

Biology-Objective Marks
1. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete and independent. His [1]
proposition was based on the

(A) results of F generation of a cross


3

(B) observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having two contrasting characters
shows only one character without any blending
(C) self pollination of F offsprings
1

(D) cross pollination of F! generation with recessive parent.

2. Condoms- [1]
(A) Increase sperm phagocytosis
(B) Decrease sperm motility
(C) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female reproductive tract
(D) Inhibit ovulation

3. Reproduction is an essential process as [1]


(A) Leads to continuation of species
(B) Maintain continuity of life
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) None of these
4. Which of the following fruit is produced by parthenocarpy? [1]
(A) Brinjal
(B) Apple
(C) Banana
(D) Jackfruit

5. After delivery, mammary gland start producing milk. In milk which necessary substance is present for [1]
immunity?

(A) Lactose
(B) Protein
(C) Fat
(D) Antibodies

6. Temperature of the scrotum which is necessary for the functioning of testis is always ___________ around [1]
below body temperature.

(A) 2 ∘
C

(B) 4∘
C

(C) 6∘
C

(D) 8 ∘
C

7. [1]

8. [1]
9. [1]

10. Parental combinations occur more due to [1]


(A) Linkage
(B) Crossing over
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) None of these

11. The goal of reproduction in every living organism is [1]


(A) To increase population
(B) To create similar looking organism
(C) Both (a) & (b)
(D) To create offspring for the next generation

12. [1]
13. [1]

14. There is an abundant occurrence of fossilised pollen grains since it is resistant due to- [1]
(A) Lignocellulose
(B) Sporopollenin
(C) Pectocellulose
(D) Pectolignin

15. Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of over population? [1]
(A) It increases the poverty of a country.
(B) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(C) It results in unemployment
(D) All of these

16. Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is [1]


(A) Chemotropic
(B) Thigmotaxis
(C) Geotropic
(D) None of these

17. The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one linkage group to another is called [1]
(A) Inversion
(B) Duplication
(C) Translocation
(D) Crossing-over
18. Structure connecting the fetus to placenta is [1]
(A) umbilical cord
(B) amnion
(C) yolk sac
(D) chorion.

19. The distance between the genes is measured by [1]


(A) Angstrom
(B) Map unit
(C) Dobson unit
(D) Millimetre

20. Prostate glands are located below [1]


(A) gubernaculum
(B) seminal vesicles
(C) epididymis
(D) bulbourethral glands

21. Cause of infertility could be [1]


(A) Psychological
(B) Physical
(C) Immunological
(D) All of these

22. Accumulation of which of the following in the brain leads to phenylketonuria [1]
(A) Phenyl pyruvic acid
(B) Pyruvic acids
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Phenylalanine

23. In albuminous seeds the food is stored in [1]


(A) Cotyledons
(B) Endosperm
(C) Plumule
(D) Testa
24. [1]

25. [1]

26. [1]

27. Flowers with both androecium and gynoecium are called [1]
(A) Bisexual flowers
(B) Anther
(C) Stamens
(D) Unisexual flowers
28. [1]

29. When 'Aa' is crossed with 'aa', (A is dominant over a) [1]


(A) All the offspring will have dominant phenotype.
(B) All the offspring will have recessive phenotype.
(C) 50% of offspring will have dominant phenotype and 50% will have recessive phenotype.
(D) 75% of offspring will have dominant phenotype and 50% will have recessive phenotype.

30. Part of sperm involved in penetrating egg membrane is [1]


(A) Tail
(B) Acrosome
(C) Allosome
(D) Autosome

31. [1]
32. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is [1]

(A) 7 - celled

(B) 8 - celled

(C) 6 - celled

(D) 5 - celled

33. Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a human female is [1]


(A) 22 autosomes
(B) 22 pairs
(C) 23 autosomes
(D) 23 pairs

34. Sugar fructose is present in the secretion of [1]


(A) Seminal vesicle
(B) Perineal gland
(C) Cowper's gland
(D) Bartholin's gland

35. The expulsion of completely developed foetus from the uterus is known as [1]
(A) Ovulation
(B) Oviposition
(C) Gestation
(D) Parturation

36. In between spermatogonia ____________ are found [1]


(A) Germinal cells
(B) Sertoli cells
(C) Epithelial cells
(D) Lymph space

37. A pleiotropic gene [1]


(A) Is expressed only in primitive plants
(B) Is a gene evolved during Pliocene
(C) Controls a trait only in combination 'Nith' another gene
(D) Control multiple traits in an individual
38. Match column I with column II Column I Column II [1]

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

39. Part of the gynoecium which receives the pollen is called [1]
(A) Style
(B) Stigma
(C) Ovule
(D) Ovary

40. [1]
41. Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms from [1]
(A) Seminiferous tubules
(B) Vas deferens
(C) Epididymis
(D) Prostate gland

42. [1]

43. Progesterone is secreted by :- [1]


(A) Corpus aorta
(B) Corpus albicans
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Corpus callosum

44. [1]

45. Choose the correct option from A, B and C [1]

(A) A-Condoms, B-Copper-T, C-Implants


(B) A-Tubectomy, BImplants, C-Copper-T
(C) A-Vasectomy, B-Condoms, C-Copper-T
(D) A-Copper-T, B-Condoms, CImplants
46. Phenylanine and its derivatives are accumulated in [1]
(A) CSF
(B) MOP
(C) SF
(D) PPF

47. World AIDS day is [1]


(A) December 21
(B) December 1
(C) November 1
(D) June 11

48. In bisexual flowers when the gynocium matures earlier than the androecium, it is called [1]
(A) Protandry
(B) Protogyny
(C) Dichogamy
(D) Autogamy

49. What is the function of the filiform apparatus? [1]


(A) Guide the entry of pollen tube
(B) Recognize the suitable pollen at the stigma
(C) Produce nectar
(D) Stimulate division of the generative cell

50. The part where fertilization of ovum occurs in placental mammals is : [1]
(A) Ovary
(B) Uterus
(C) Vagina
(D) Fallopian tube

51. Which genotype characterises an organism that is heterozygous for two genes? [1]
(A) RRYy
(B) RrYY
(C) RRYY
(D) RrYy
52. Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called [1]
(A) Parturition
(B) Oviposition
(C) Abortion
(D) Ovulation.

53. STDs caused by bacteria is/are [1]


(A) Syphilis
(B) Gonorrhea
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) None of the above

54. Feathery stigma occurs in [1]


(A) Pea
(B) Wheat
(C) Datura
(D) Caesalpinia

55. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are [1]


(A) Are non-usable
(B) For female use only
(C) For male use only
(D) None of these

56. Polyembryo was first noticed in the seeds of [1]


(A) Brassica
(B) Citrus genus
(C) Mangifera indica
(D) Citrus maxima
57. [1]

58. Present increase in India's population has not been due to decline in [1]
(A) Infant mort ty rate
(B) Number of people reaching reproductive
(C) Death rate
(D) Maternal mort ty rate

59. [1]

60. The outermost and innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are respectively [1]
(A) Endothecium and tapetum
(B) Epidermis and endodermis
(C) Epidermis and middle layer
(D) Epidermis and tapetum.

61. Urine test during pregnancy determines the presence of [1]


(A) Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
(B) Estrogen
(C) Progesterone
(D) Iuteinising hormone.
62. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ? [1]
(A) User-friendly
(B) Irreversible
(C) Easily available
(D) Least side-effects

63. Why is haemophilia a disease that is more commonly seen in males? [1]
(A) Both (2) and (3)
(B) The disease is Y-linked
(C) The disease is X-linked
(D) None of the above

64. [1]

65. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by :- [1]


(A) Androgen
(B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen
(D) Testosterone

66. The chromosomal theory of inheritance is given by [1]


(A) Mendel
(B) Theodor Boveri
(C) Walter Sutton
(D) Sutton & Boveri
67. Menopause is the stage in human female when [1]
(A) Mensturation starts
(B) Mensturation stoped and reproductive capacity is arrested
(C) Puberty begins
(D) None of he above

68. Linked genes separate due to [1]


(A) Crossing over
(B) Mutation
(C) Recombination
(D) Nutation

69. Vasa-efferentia connect the [1]


(A) Testes with epididymis
(B) Kidneys with cloaca
(C) Testes with urinogenital duct
(D) None

70. [1]

71. A cross of F1 progeny with homozygous recessive parents is called [1]


(A) Back cross
(B) Test cross
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of these
72. [1]

73. Which of the following is diploid :- [1]


(A) Secondary spermatocytes
(B) Spermatozoa & ova
(C) Spermatogonia, Oogonia, Primary spermatocyte
(D) Secondary oocytes

74. [1]

75. What is lactation [1]


(A) The mammary glands of the female start producing milk at the end of pregnancy
(B) After the delivery of the baby placenta seperates from uterus
(C) The uterine and abdominal expulsion becomes stronger
(D) None of these
76. How many pollen mother cells will form 1000 pollen grains- [1]
(A) 200
(B) 250
(C) 300
(D) 100

77. Identify A to G in the following figure and answer accordingly. [1]

(A) A-ovary, B-filament, C-sepal, D-Petal, E-Anther, F-Stigma, G-Anther


(B) A-sepal, B-ovary, C-petal, D-filament, E-Anther, F-stigma, G-style
(C) A-ovary, B-sepal, C-filament, D-petal, E-anther, F-stigma, G-style
(D) A-petal, B-anther, C-stigma, D-style, E-filament, F-sepal, G-ovary

78. After ovulation, Graafian follicle forms [1]


(A) Corpus luteum
(B) Corpus albicans
(C) Corpus atresia
(D) Corpus callosum

79. Lower narrow end of uterus is called [1]


(A) urethra
(B) cervix
(C) clitoris
(D) vulva.

80. [1]
81. [1]

82. [1]

83. Alleles are [1]


(A) Different phenotype
(B) True breeding homozygotes
(C) Different molecular forms of a gene
(D) Heterozygotes

84. During oogenis, the small structure separated from egg is : [1]
(A) Polar bodies
(B) Secondary endosperm
(C) Herring bodies
(D) Hela cells
85. [1]

86. In Mirabilis jalapa when homozygous red flower and white flower plants are crossed, all the F1 plants have [1]
pink coloured flowers. In F2 produced by selfing of F1 plants, red, pink, white flowered plants would
appear respectively in ratio of

(A) 1:1:2
(B) 2:1:1
(C) 1:0:1
(D) 1:2:1

87. [1]

88. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in [1]


(A) Endothecium
(B) Microspore mother cells
(C) Microsporetetrads
(D) Pollen grains

89. How many meiotic divisions are required for the formation of 100 pollen grains? [1]
(A) 100
(B) 50
(C) 25
(D) 26
90. [1]

91. [1]

92. Entry of pollen tube in the ovule through integument is called [1]
(A) Chalazogamy
(B) Basigamy
(C) Mesogamy
(D) Porogamy

93. Filiform apparatus is the feature of- [1]


(A) Egg
(B) Synergids
(C) Antipodal
(D) None of these
94. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the correct [1]
set of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D.

(A) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland


(B) A-Vas deferens, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Bulbourethral gland, D-Prostate
(C) A-Ureter, B-Seminal vesicle, C-Prostate, D-Bulbourethral gland
(D) A-Ureter, B-Prostate, C-Seminal vesicle,D-Bulbourethral gland

95. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into [1]


(A) Corpus atresia
(B) Corpus callosum
(C) Corpus luteum
(D) Corpus albicans

96. [1]

97. Pollination is best defined as [1]


(A) Transference of pollens from anther to stigma
(B) The germination of pollen grains
(C) Visiting of flowers by ants
(D) The growth of pollen tube in the ovule
98. [1]

99. Which of the following statements is correct? [1]


(A) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(B) The hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(C) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(D) Microspores are produced by endothecium

100. [1]

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