Medical 25

IIT-JEE/MEDICAL- UNIT
PHYSICS PAPER
SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE
This section contains 45 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be correct.
1. Convert 225° in radian.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. If , then find the value of tan .
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. If perpendicular of a right-angled triangle is th of its hypotenuse, then find ratio of base to the
hypotenuse.
(a) (b) 4B = H (c) (d) None of
these
4. Distance between two points (8, 4) and (2, a) is 10 unit. Find positive value of a.
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
5. Which of the following match is correct?
(i) (A) y = x2
(ii) (B) y = –x2
(iii) (C) x = y2
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(iv) (D) x = –y2

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) A B C D
(b) A C B D
(c) D C B A
(d) C A D B
6. If y = sin2 x + cos2 x, then is
(a) 4 sin cos x (b) 2 sin x + 2 cos x (c) zero (d) 1
7. Rate of change of y with respect to x will be, if y = x4 + 2x3 + 2

(a) 4x3 + 6x2 (b) 4x4 + 5x2 (c) 4x3 + 5x2 (d) 4x3 + 6x2
+2
8. If y = 5x3 – 4x2 + 2, then value of at x = 1 is
(a) 22 (b) 7 (c) 24 (d) 3
9. If y = 4x2 + 2x, then slope of y-x graph at x = 1 is

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 12
10. If y = 2x2 – 8x + 5, then minimum value of y is

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) –3 (d) –5
11. =
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) (d)
12. The value of dx is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
13. Find dx
(a) 2 (b) –2 (c) 1 (d) –1
14. Value of dx is:
(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) None of

these
15. + cos x) dx is
(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
16. The equation of state for n moles of an ideal gas is pV = nRT, where R is constant. The SI unit
for R is
(a) JK–1 per molecule (b) JK–1 mol–1
(c) J kg–1 K–1 (d) JK–1 g–1
17. The quantities A and B are related by the relation m = A/B, where m is the linear mass density,
A is the force. The dimensions of B are of
(a) pressure (b) work (c) latent heat (d) None of
these
18. If sin t, then find dimensions of . (Here, F = force, v = velocity, t = time)
(a) [ML–1T–1] (b) [M–1LT] (c) [ML–1T] (d) [M–1L–1T–

1
]
19. The velocity v (in cm/s) of a particle is given in terms of time t (in second) by the equation
. The dimensions of a, b and c are
a b c
(a) [L2] [T] [LT2]
(b) [LT2] [LT] [L]
(c) [LT–2] [L] [T]
(d) [L] [LT] [T2]
20. A force F is given by: F = at + bt2, where t represents time. What are dimensions of a and b?
(a) [MLT–3] and [ML2T4] (b) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4]
(c) [MLT–1] and [MLT0] (d) [MLT–4] and [MLT1]
21. The expression for centripetal force (F) depends upon mass of body (m), speed (v) of the body
and the radius (r) of circular path with will be expression for centripetal force
(a) (b) (c) (d)
22. The standard method of expressing 256.00 in terms of four significant figures is
(a) 2560.0 × 10–1 (b) 0.2560 × 103 (c) 25.60 × 101 (d) 2.560 ×
102
23. The numbers 3.845 and 3.385 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give
(a) 3.85 and 3.84 (b) 3.84 and 3.83 (c) 3.85 and 3.83 (d) 3.84 and
3.84
24. Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is A = 2.5
m/s ± 0.5 m/s, B = 0.10 s ± 0.01 s. The value of AB will be
(a) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (b) (0.25 ± 0.5) m (c) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (d) (0.25 ±
0.135) m
25. The radius of bass is [5.4 ± 0.2] cm. The percentage error in the volume of the ball is
(a) 11% (b) 4% (c) 7% (d) 9%
26. According to Joule’s law of heating, heat produced H = I 2Rt, where I is current, R is resistance
and t is time. If the errors in the measurement of I, R and t are 3%, 4% and 6% respectively,
then error in the measurement of H is
(a) ±17% (b) ±16% (c) ±19% (d) ±25%
27. In an experiment, the value of two resistances were measured to be R 1 = (5.0 ± 0.2) and R2 =
(10.0 ± 0.1) . Then, their combined resistance in series will be
(a) (15 ± 0.1) (b) (15 + 0.2) (c) (15 ± 2%) (d) (15 ± 3%)
28. If the error in the measurement of radius of circle is 3% then calculate the error in measurement
of area of circle.
(a) 5% (b) 8% (c) 3% (d) 6%
29. A vernier caliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 divisions on the
main scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. the value of one division on main scale
is
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 0.1 mm
30. Distance moved by a screw in 5 rotation is 5 mm and total number of circular divisions is 100.
The least count of the screw gauge is
(a) 1 mm (b) 0.001 cm (c) 0.0001 cm (d) 0.001 mm
31. Six vectors, a to f have the magnitudes and directions indicated in the figures. Which of the
following statement is true?
(a) (b) (c) (d)

32. In the following figure, equals
(a) (b) (c) (d)
33. A particle is being acted upon by four forces of 30 N due East, 20 N due North, 50 N due West
and 40 N due South. The resultant force will be
(a) 20 , 60° South to West (b) 20 , 45° South to West
(c) 20 , 45° North to East (d) 20 , 45° South to East
34. Find the magnitude of the resultant of shown forces.
(a) N (b) N (c) (d) N
35. At what angle should the two force vectors 2F and act, so that the resultant force is F?
(a) 45° (b) 60° (c) 120° (d) 90°
36. The angles which a vector makes with X, Y and Z-axes respectively are
(a) 60°, 60°, 60° (b) 45°, 45°, 45° (c) 60°, 60°, 45° (d) 45°, 45°,
60°
37. If direction cosines of a vector are and respectively, then write the vector in the form
of and . Magnitude of vector is 9.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
38. If = and = , then projection of on will be
(a) (b) (c) (d)
39. The scalar product of two vectors is and the magnitude of their vector product is 2. The
angle between them is
(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90°
40. Maximum and minimum value of two given vectors are 17 and 7, respectively. If these vectors
acts perpendicular to each other, then magnitude of resultant will be
(a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 13
41. If A = and = , then which of the following is not true?
(a) × =0 (b) (c) . = 48 (d) A=5
42. What is the angle between A and B, if A and B are the adjacent sides of a parallelogram drawn
from a common point and the area of the parallelogram is ?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
43. and are two vectors and is the angle between them. If | × |= ( . ), then the
value of is
(a) 60° (b) 45° (c) 30° (d) 90°
44. If a vector is perpendicular to the vector then the value of is
(a) –1 (b) (c) – (d) 1
45. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Torque (d)

Displacement
CHEMISTRY PAPER
46. Consider a graph is plotted against p versus as shown
The correct order of temperature T1, T2, T3 will be

(a) T3 > T2 > T1 (b) T1 > T2 > T3 (c) T1 = T2 = T3 (d) T1 > T2 = T3
47. A gas is heated from 273 K to 373 K at 1 atm pressure. If the initial volume of the gas is 10 L, its
final volume would be
(a) 20 dm3 (b) 13.66 dm3 (c) 10 dm3 (d) 7.32 dm3
48. What will be the minimum pressure required to compress 2 L of gas at 1 bar to 1 L at 25° C?
(a) 1 bar (b) 2 bar (c) 4 bar (d) 6 bar
49. A balloon is filled with hydrogen at room temperature. It will burst, if pressure exceeds 0.2 bar.
If at 1 bar pressure the gas occupied 2.27 L volume, up to what volume can the balloon be
expanded?
(a) 6.25 L (b) 11.35 L (c) 835 L (d) 10.50 L
50. If 40 L of a gas is stored under a pressure of 150 atm at 300 K. How many moles of the gas are
present in the cylinder?
(a) 264 mol (b) 244 mol (c) 225 mol (d) 2.5 mol
51. Equal masses of H2, O2 and methane have been taken in a container of volume (V) at
temperature 27°C in identical conditions. The ratio of the volumes of gases H 2 : O2 : CH4 would
be
(a) 8 : 16 : 1 (b) 16 : 8 : 1 (c) 16 : 1 : 2 (d) 8:1:2
52. 1000 mL of a gas collected at STP which occupies the volume at 2 bar pressure and 127°C. The
volume of gas at STP is
(a) (b) (c) (d)400 × 2 × 273 L
53. There is 15 L of a gas at STP. At what other condition volume of gas remains the same?
(a) 546°C and 0.5 atm (b) 273°C and 2 atm
(c) 273 K and 2 atm (d) 0°C and 0 atm
54. Dominance of strong repulsive forces among the molecules of the

(a) depends on Z and indicated by Z = 1
(b) depends on Z and indicated by Z > 1
(c) depends on Z and indicated by Z < 1
(d) is independent of Z
55. Consider the following figure
Which of the following gases show negative as well as positive deviation from the ideal gas
behaviour?
(a) H2 and CH4 (b) CO and He (c) CO and CH4 (d) H2, He and CH4
56. Boyle's law is valid, when a graph plotted against p versus is
(a) straight line passing through origin

(b) straight line passing through some intercept
(c) parabola passing through x-axis
(d) curved line passing through origin
57. At 25°C and 760 mm of Hg pressure a gas occupies 600 mL volume. What will be its pressure at
a height where temperature is 10°C and volume of the gas 640 mL?
(a) 677 mm Hg (b) 600 mm Hg (c) 700 mm Hg (d) 752 mm Hg
58. Four 10 L flasks are separately filled with the gases CH 4, CO2, H2 and O2 under the same
conditions. The ratio of number of molecules in these gases respectively are
(a) 2:1:4:2 (b) 8 : 22 : 1 (c) 1:2:3:4 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
59. Two gases A and B having the molar mass 60 and 45 g mol –l, respectively are enclosed in a
vessel. The weight of A is 0.5 g and that of B is 0.2 g. The total pressure of the mixture is 750
mm. The partial pressure of gas A and B respectively are
(a) 260 mm, 490 mm (b) 190 mm, 560 ram
(c) 490 mm, 260 mm (d) 520 mm, 290 mm
60. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal moles of CO and N 2. If the total pressure of the
mixture was found 1 atm, the partial pressure of the nitrogen (N2) in the mixture is
(a) 1 atm (b) 0.5 atm (c) 0.8 atm (d) 0.9 atm
61. A closed vessel contains equal number of nitrogen and oxygen molecules at a pressure of p mm.
If nitrogen is removed from the system then the pressure will be
(a) p (b) 2p (c) p2 (d) p/2
62. A bubble of volume V1 is present in the bottom of a pond at 15°C and 1.5 atm pressure when it
comes at
it observes a pressure of 1 atm at 25°C and has volume V2. The value of is
(a) 15.5 (b) 0.155 (c) 155.0 (d) 1.55
63. In atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty
with which the position of the electron can be located is (h = 6.6 × 10 –34 kg m2s–1, mass of
electron,
em = 6.6 × 10–31 kg)
(a) 1.52 × 10–4 m (b) 5.10 × 10–3 m (c) 1.92 × 10–3 m (d) 3.84 × 10–3 m
64. If EA, EB and EC represent kinetic energies of an electron, alpha particle and proton respectively
and each moving with same de-Broglie wavelength, then choose the correct increasing
representation,
(a) EA = EB = EC (b) EA > EB > EC (c) EB > EC > EA (d) EA < EC < EB
65. Zeeman effect is due to

(a) splitting up the lines in an emission spectrum in the presence of an external electrostatic
field
(b) random scattering of light by colloidal particles
(c) splitting up of the lines in an emission spectrum in a magnetic field
(d) emission of electrons from metals when light falls upon them
66. The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is significant

(a) only for motion of microscopic objects (b) negligible for that of macroscopic
objects
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
67. The energy required to break one mole of Cl – Cl bonds in Cl 2 is 243 kJ mol–l. The largest
wavelength of light capable of breaking a single Cl – Cl bond is
(a) 700 nm (b) 494 nm (c) 596 nm (d) 640 nm
68. Minimum frequency, v0 below which photoelectric effect is not observed is called
(a) threshold frequency (b) highest frequency
(c) lowest frequency (d) None of the above
69. Increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m for electron (e), proton (p), neutron (n) an
-particles is
(a) e, p, n, (b) n, , p, e (c) n, p, e, (d) n, p, ,e
70. Cathode rays have same charge to mass ratio as

(a) -rays (b) -rays (c) anode rays (d) None of these
71. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations are 25 eV, and 50 eV, respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths, i.e. and will be
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. Kinetic energy of the ejected electron is

(a) equal to the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation
(b) proportional to the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation
(c) more than the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation
(d) inversely proportional to the frequency of the electromagnetic radiation
73. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm (Planck’s constant, h =
6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light, c = 3 × 108 nm s–1).
(a) 6.67 × 1015 (b) 6.67 × 1011 (c) 4.42 × 1015 (d) 4.42 × 10–18
74. Energy of an electron is given by
E = –2.178 × 10–18 J
Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2

will be (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × l08 ms–1)
(a) 1.214 × 10–7 m (b) 2.816 × 10–7 m (c) 6.500 × 10–7 m (d)8.500 × 10–7 m
75. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a 0 is Bohr
radius]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
76. The only series of lines appear in the visible region the electromagnetic spectrum of hydrogen is
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Pfund
series
77. The value 109677 cm–1 is called

(a) Pfund constant (b) Balmer constant (c) Rydberg constant (d) Lyman
constant
78. The only series of lines appear in the visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum of hydrogen
is
(a) Lyman Series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen Series (d) Pfund series
79. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen?
(a) +13.6 eV (b) –6.8 eV (c) – 3.4 eV (d) + 6.8 eV
80. The wavelength of a spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom in the Lyman series is cm.
Calculate the value of n2. (R = Rydberg constant)

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
81. The series of lines appearing in UV region of electromagnetic spectrum of hydrogen is called
(a) Bracket series (b) Pfund series (c) Lyman series (d) Paschen series
82. The phenomenon of splitting of spectral lines under the influence of the electric field is called
(a) Stark effect (b) photoelectric effect
(c) Zeeman effect (d) electromagnetic effect
83. Limitations of Bohr’s model is/are

(a) it fails to account for the finer details of the hydrogen atom spectrum observed by using
sophisticated spectroscopic techniques
(b) it is unable to explain the spectrum of atoms other than hydrogen
(c) it is unable to explain the ability of atoms to molecules by chemical bonds
(d) All of the above
84. The correct mathematical expression of Heisenberg' s uncertainty principle is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
85. The mass of an electron is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and its velocity is 812 ms–1. Calculate its wavelength
(a) 89.67 nm (b) 8.967 nm (c) 896.7 nm (d) 0.8967 m
86. An electron is moving in Bohr's fourth orbit. Its de-Broglie wavelength is . Calculate the
circumference of the fourth orbit.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) (d)
87. Calculate the wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a proton moving at 1.0 × 10 3 ms–1 (Mass
of proton = 1.67 × 10–27 kg and A = 6.63 × 10–34 Js)
(a) 0.032 nm (b) 0.40 nm (c) 2.5 nm (d) 14.0 nm
88. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding Bohr's model of hydrogen atom?
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantized
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit cannot be determined
simultaneously
89. Thomson determined the value of e/me as

(a) 1.758820 × 1010 C kg–1 (b) 17.58820 × 1012 C kg–1
(c) 1.758820 × 109 C kg–1 (d) 1.758820 × 1011 C kg–1
90. Which of the following substances, shows the properties of phosphorescent?

(a) Zinc sulphide (b) Zinc sulphate (c) Zinc nitrate (d) Zinc chloride
BIOLOGY PAPER
91. Man grouped in which order?
(a) Sapiens (b) Primata (c) Homo (d) Hominidae
92. Which of the following are characteristics of Manuals?

(a) Contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area
(b) Provide the index to the plant species found in a particular area
(c) Providing information for identification of names of species found in an area
(d) All of the above
93. Which of the following is odd one with respect to taxonomic rank?
(a) Mangifera (b) Carnivora (c) Diptera (d) Primata
94. Number of organism/taxa representing lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is:

Insecta, Sapiens, Panthera, Tigris, Indica, Felis, Homa, Triticum, Poales, Dicots
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
95. Identify the true statements from below:

(i) Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals are twin characteristics of growth.
(ii) A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
(iii) In plants growth occurs by cell division which seen only up to a certain age.
(iv) In animals, growth occurs continuously throughout their life span and cell division occurs
in all tissues to replace lost cells.
(v) Unicellular organisms multiply by cell division
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
96. Which characters for metabolism are not correct?

(i) Metabolic reactions cannot be demonstrated outside the body in cell-free systems
(ii) An isolated metabolic reaction(s) outside the body of an organism, performed in a test
tube is neither living nor non-living
(iii) Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organism without exception
(iv) Isolated metabolic reactions in vitro are living things but surely non living reactions
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
97. Choose the correct one from given statements:

(i) Plants not respond to external factors
(ii) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders
(iii) All organisms are ‘aware’ of their surroundings
(iv) Human being is the only organism who is aware of himself
(v) Living organisms are self-replicating, evolving and self-regulating interactive systems
capable of responding to external stimuli
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) (i) and (iv)
98. Select the wrong statement for binomial nomenclature:

(i) This naming system was given by Carolus Linnaeus
(ii) Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics
(iii) The first word represents the species while the second component denotes the genus
(iv) When name is handwritten then should be not underlined, or printed in latin
(v) Genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet usually starts with a small
letter
(vi) Name of the author appears after the genus epithet and is written in an abbreviated form
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi) (d) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
99. Which of the following statements about classification is true?

(i) Members of a family are less similar than members of an included genus
(ii) An order has more members than the number of members is as included genus
(iii) Families have more members than phyla
(iv) Members of a family share a common ancestor in the more distant past than members of
an included genus
(v) The number of species in a taxon depends on their relative degree of similiarity
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) All of these
100. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for units of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
category of ‘family’?
(a) Ales (b) Onae (c) Aceae (d) Ae
101. Match the following and choose the correct option:

(A) Family (i) Tuberosum
(B) Kingdom (ii) Polymoniales
(C) Order (iii) Solanum
(D) Species (iv) Plantae
(E) Genus (v) Solanacea
(a) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i), E – (iii) (b) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (ii), E
– (i)
(c) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (i), E – (ii) (d)A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (v), E – (i)
102. Assertion: Reproduction also cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living

organisms.
Reason: Many living organisms do not reproduce.
103. Assertion: Families are characterized on the basis of both vegetative and reproductive features of
plant species.
Reason: Three different genera Solanum, Petunia and Datura are placed in the family
Solanaceae.
104. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to
the rules of nomenclature?
(a) Biological names can be written in any language
(b) The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a
specific epithet
(c) The names are written in Latin and are italicized
(d) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
105. Study the four statements (A – D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
(A) Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr
(B) Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants
(C) Binomial nomenclature system was given by R.H. Whittaker
(D) In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth
The two correct statements are:
(a) A and D (b) A and B (c) B and C (d) C and D
106. Cell aggregates body planning found in:

(a) Cnidaria (b) Porifera (c) Platyhelminthes (d)Both (a) and (b)
107. Symmetry in which any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism
into two identical haves is found in:
(a) Coelenterates (b) Ctenophores (c) Echinoderms (d) All of these
108. Animals in which body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, the mesoderm is present as scattered
pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm are called:
(a) Acoelomates (b) Pseudocoelomates (c) Coelomates (d) All of these
109. Select the wrong statement of phylum porifera:

(a) They are marine and mostly asymmetrical animals
(b) They have water vascular system with canal system
(c) They have only canal system
(d) The skeleton is made-up of spicules or sponging fibres
110. Given are the four matches of phyla with their characteristic cells:
(A) Coelenterata – Nematocytes (B) Porifera – Choanocytes
(C) Ctenophora – Solenocytes (D) Platyhelminthes – Nephrocytes
Mark the option that has both correct matches:
(a) (A), (B) (b) (B), (C) (c) (C), (D) (d) (B), (D)
111. Gastro-vascular cavity found in:

(a) Ctenophora (b) Porifera (c) Coelenterata (d) Platyhelminthes
112. Hypostome is Characteristics of:

(a) Physalia (b) Adamsia (c) Pennatula (d) All of these
113. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular found in:

(a) Ctenoplana (b) Meandrina
(c) Snail (d) More than one are correct
114. Which of the following is not correct for platyhelminthes?

(a) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and excretion
(b) Sexes are not separate
(c) Fertilisation is internal and development is through many larval stages
(d) Some members like Taenia posses high regeneration capacity
115. One of the following organisms can be traced in lymph nodes:

(a) Taenia (b) Wuchereia (c) Plasmodium (d)
Diplococcus
116. Alimentary canal is complete with a well developed muscular phaynx in:
(a) Ascaris (b) Wuchereria (c) Ancylostoma (d) All of
these
117. Which of the following is wrong for nature of Annelids?

(a) They may be aquatic (b) They may be terrestrial
(c) They may be free-living (d) Exclusively parasitic
118. Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral appendages _____ which help in swimming?
(a) Parapodia (b) Seta (c) Nephridia (d) Muscles
119. Statocysts or balance organs are present in:

(a) Coelenterata (b) Ctenophora (c) Arthropoda (d) Annelida
120. Excretion takes place through malpighian tubules in:

(a) Anopheles, Culex, Aedes (b) Pila, Pinctada, Sepia
(c) Asterias, Echinus, Antedon (d) All of these
121. Which of the following is commonly called ‘Pearl oyster’?

(a) Limulus (b) Pinctada (c) Dentalium d) Chaetopleura
122. What is the function of radula found in molluscans?

(a) Respiration (b) Excretion (c) Feeding (d) Both (a)
and (b)
123. Absence of excretory organs, great power of regeneration and exclusively marine animals belong
to the phylum:
(a) Mollusca (b) Echinodermata (c) Fishes (d)
Arthropoda
124. Calcareous ossicles (spin) of echinodermates is:

(a) Exoskeleton (b) Endoskeleton
(c) Both endoskeleton and exoskeleton (d) Endoskeleton or exoskeleton
125. Which of the following is the exclusive feature of the birds?

(a) 4-chambered heart (b) Homoeothermic
(c) Fore limbs modified into wings (d) Presence of feathers
126. In which one of the following feature crocodile and penguin are similar to whale and dogfish?
(a) Possess a solid single central nervous system
(b) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
(c) Possess bony skeleton
(d) Have gill slits at some stages
127. Which one of the following sets of animals belongs to the same class of a phylum?
(a) Hydra, jelly fish, cray fish (b) Bat, pigeon, whale
(c) Spider, scorpion, centipede (d) Whale, otter, kangaroo
128. Which of the following feature of bony fish is missing in cartilaginous fishes?
(a) Operculum (b) Placoid scales (c) Poikilothermic (d) Paired
fins
129. Sharks do not have:

(a) Teeth (b) Claspers (c) Air bladder (d) Ventral
mouth
130. Which of the following bony fish found in marine water?

(a) Labeo (b) Exocoetus (c) Catla (d) Clarias
131. Skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail is a character of?
(a) Amphibia (b) Aves (c) Reptiles (d) Fish
132. The most unique mammalian characteristic is the present of _____.

(a) Mammary glands (b) Hair
(c) External ears or pinnae (d) All of these
133. Choose wrong statement for symmetry of animals.

(i) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical
(ii) When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into
two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
(iii) Coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms have bilateral symmetry.
(iv) Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc., have radial symmetry.
(v) The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane, exhibit
bilateral symmetry.
(a) (iii), (iv) and (v) (b) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
134. Which of the following statements about Ctenophores is true?

(i) Ctenophores, commonly known as sea walnuts or comb jellies
(ii) Ctenophores are exclusively marine
(iii) The body bears six external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion
(iv) Bioluminescence is well-marked in ctenophores.
(v) Sexes are separate and fertilization is external
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (d) (iii) and (v)
135. Choose the wrong statement for annelida.

(i) They are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and coelomate animals.
(ii) They possess longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion.
(iii) Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral appendages, parapodia, which help in
swimming.
(iv) Nereis, an aquatic form, is monoecious.
(v) Earthworms and leeches are dioecious.
(a) (i) (ii) and (v) (b) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv) and (v)
136. How many characters for mollusca are correct from given characters?
(i) Body have distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.
(ii) A soft and spongy layer of skin forms a mantle over the visceral hump.
(iii) The space between the head and the mantle is called the mantle cavity.
(iv) Mantle cavity have feather like gills which related with respiratory and excretory
functions.
(v) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula.
(vi) They are usually monoecious and oviparous with indirect development.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (b) (ii), (iii) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
137. Choose the correct one for Hemichordata from given statements.
(i) The body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar and a long
trunk.
(ii) Circulatory system is of open type.
(iii) Respiration takes place through gills.
(iv) Excretory organ is proboscis gland.

(v) They are dioecious, fertilization is external and development is indirect.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v) (d) All of these
138. Choose the incorrect statement for cartilaginous fish from given statements.
(i) Petromyzon and Myxine are cartilaginous fish.
(ii) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(iii) Gill slits are separate and without operculum.
(iv) The skin is tough, containing minute cycloid/ctenoid scales.
(v) Due to the air bladder, they have to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
(vi) They have internal fertilization and many of them are viviparous.
(a) (iv), (v) and (vi) (b) All except (iii) and (v)
(c) All except (ii), (iii) and (vi) (d) All of these
139. Identify the true statements for amphibian:

(i) Exocetus, Hippocampus, Pterophyllum and Betta and marine amphibian.
(ii) Body is divisible into head and trunk and tail may be present in some.
(iii) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called
cloaca.
(iv) The heart is two chambered (one auricles and one ventricle)
(v) Sexes are separate, fertilization is external, oviparous and development is indirect.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
140. Match the entities in Column I with their character in Column II.
Column I Column II
(A) Operculum (i) Ctenophora
(B) Parapodia (ii) Mollusca
(C) Scales (iii) Reptilia
(D) Comb plates (iv) Osteichthyes
(E) Radula (v) Annelida
(a) A – (iv), B – (v), C – (iii), D – (ii), E – (i) (b) A – (iv), B – (v), C – (iii), D – (i), E
– (ii)
(c) A – (iv), B – (v), C – (i), D – (iii), E – (ii) (d) A–(iii), B – (v), C – (i), D – (iv), E – (ii)
141. Which of the following responsible for death of large numbers of marine animals such as fishes?
(a) Most of the chrysophytes (b) Slime moulds
(c) Red dinoflagellates (Gonyaulax) (d) Protozoans
142. The Puccinia are heterotrophic and absorb soluble organic mater from plant and hence are called
….
(a) Parasites (b) Saprophytes (c) Svambiont (d)Mycorrhiza
143. …. are found in aquatic habitats and on decaying wood in moist and damp places or as obligate
parasites on plants.
(a) Ascomycetes (b) Phycomycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
144. Which statement is correct for lichens?

(a) Algal component is known as mycobiont and fungal component as phycobiont
(b) Fungi prepare food for algae
(c) Algae provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner.
(d) All are incorrect
145. Choose wrong statement for bacteria:

(i) Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cows and
buffaloes
(ii) Some of the bacteria are autotrophic
(iii) They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic
(iv) The vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs.
(v) Eubacteria is halophiles, thermoacidophiles and methanogens.
(vi) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell membrane structure
(a) (iv), (v) and (vi) (b) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (v) and (vi)
146. How many statements are wrong for cyanobacteria?

(i) They are multicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater/marine or terrestrial algae
(ii) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
(iii) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
(iv) Some of these organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called
heterocysts.
(v) They have chlorophyll ‘a’ which is not similar to green plants and are photosynthetic
autotrophs.
(vi) Nostoc and Anabaena included in this group.
147. How many statements are correct for dineflagellates from given sentences?
(i) These organisms are mostly marine and chemosynthetic.
(ii) They appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red.
(iii) The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface.
(iv) Most of them have two flagella both lies longitudinally.
(v) Blue dinoflagellates undergo such rapid multiplication that they make the sea appear
bleu.
(vi) Toxins released by such large numbers may even kill other marine animals such as
fishes.
148. Choose the wrong statement for fungi.

(i) They prefer to grow in warm and humid places.
(ii) Their bodies consists of long, slender thread-like structures called hyphae.
(iii) The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin.
(iv) The spores are produced in distinct structures called fruiting bodies.
(v) Fusion of protoplasm of two gametes called karyogamy.
(vi) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (iii) (d) (v) and
(vi)
149. How many characters for lichens are correct from given characters?
(i) Lichens are symbiotic associations.
(ii) It is a associations between algae and fungi.
(iii) The algal component is known as mycobiont.
(iv) Fungal component as phycobiont.
(v) Lichens are very good pollution indicators.
150. Match the entities in column I with their character in column II:
Column I Column II
(A) Monera (I) Heterotrophic (holozoic/parasitic)

(B) Protista (II) Heterotrophic (saprophytic/parasitic)
(C) Fungi (III) Cell wall of cellulose
(D) Plantae (IV) Autotrophic (photosynthetic) and heterotrophic
(E) Animalia (V) Autotrophic (chemosynthetic and photosynthetic) and
heterotrophic
(saprophytic/parasitic)
(a) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – I, E – II (b) A – V, B – IV, C – III, D – I, E – II
(c) A – V, B – IV, C – II, D – III, E – I (d) A – I, B – II, C – IV, D – III, E – V
Column I Column II
(A) Protozoans (I) Diatons and golden algae
(B) Slime Moulds (II) Gonyaulax
(C) Euglenoids (III) Trypanosoma
(D) Chrysophytes (IV) Saprophytic protists
(E) Dinoflagellates (V) Euglena
(a) A – III, B – IV, C – V, D – II, E – I (b) A – III, B – IV, C – V, D – I, E – II
(c) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II, E – I (d) A – IV, B – V, C – II, D – III, E – I
Column I Column II
(A) Protozoans (I) Instead of a cell wall, they have pellicle
(B) Slime moulds (II) Marine forms have silica shells on their surface
(C) Euglenoids (III) The spores possess true walls.
(D) Chrysophytes (IV) The cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface
(E) Dinoflagellates (V) Walls are embedded with silica
(a) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV, E – V (b) A – II, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – IV
(c) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV (d) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – V, E – IV
Column I Column II
(A) Protozoans (I) Red tides
(B) Slime moulds (II) Diatomaceous earth
(C) Euglenoids (III) They are believed to be primitive relatives of animals
(D) Chrysophytes (IV) Pigments are identical to those present in higher plants
(E) Dinoflagellates (V) Spores are dispersed by air currents
(a) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – I, E – II (b) A – II, B – III, C – V, D – I, E – IV
(c) A – III, B – V, C – IV, D – II, E – I (d) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – IV, E – II
154. Which statement is wrong for viruses:

(a) They have ability to synthesise nucleic acids and proteins
(b) Antibiotics have no effect on them
(c) All are parasites
(d) All of them have helical symmetry
155. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on:
(a) Mode of nutrition
(b) Complexity of body organization
(c) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
(d) Mode of reproduction
156. Viruses have:

(a) Single chromosome (b) Both DNA and RNA
(c) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (d) Prokaryotic nucleus
157. Which one of the following matches is correct?

(a) Alternaria, Sexual reproduction absent, Deuteromycetes
(b) Mucor, Reproduction by conjugation, Ascomycetes
(c) Agaricus, Parasitic fungus, Basidiomycetes
(d) Phytophthora, Aseptate mycelium, Basidiomycetes
158. Select the wrong statement:

(a) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human being are caused by viruses
(b) The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowski
(c) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized
(d) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum was coined by M.W. Beijerinek
159. Methanogens belong to:

(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Slime moulds (c) Eubacteria (d)Archaebacteria
160. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
(a) They are heterotrophic

(b) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(c) They are eukaryotic
(d) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
161. Which among the following is not a prokaryote?

(a) Saccharomyces (b) Mycobacterium
(c) Nostoc (d) Oscillatoria
162. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in:

(a) Using flagella for locomotion
(b) Having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water
(c) Using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(d) Having two types of nuclei
163. Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong?
(A) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(B) Salvinia is heterosporous
(C) The life-cycle in all seed bearing plants is diplontic
(D) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees.
The two wrong statements together are:
(a) Statements (B) and (C) (b) Statements (A) and (B)
(c) Statements (A) and (C) (d) Statements (A) and (D)
164. Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step toward evolution of seed
habit because:
(a) Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo surrounded by seed coat
(b) Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is retained on parent sporophyte
(c) Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like seeds
(d) Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
165. Which one of the following is common to multicelluar fungi, flamentous algae and protonema of
mosses?
(a) Mode of nutrition (b) Multiplication by fragmentation
(c) Diplontic life cycle (d) Members of kingdom Plantae
166. Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them:
(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent
(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum.
(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(E) The spores of slime moulds lack cell walls.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) One (d) Two
167. Read the following statements (A – E) and answer the question which follows them:
(A) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living
(B) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
(C) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
(D) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious.
How many of the above statements are correct?
168. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements:
(A) Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
(B) Selaginela is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is
sporophytic
(E) In gymmosperms, male and female gametophytes are present with sporangia located on
sporophyte.
(a) (B), (C) and (E) (b) (A), (C) and (D) (c) (B), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (D)
and (E)
169. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(a) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae
(b) Algin and carrageen are products of algae
(c) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(d) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
170. Which one is a wrong statement?

(a) Brown algae have chlorophyll-a and c and fucoxanthin
(b) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms

(c) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
(d) Haploid endosperms is typical feature of gymnosperms
171. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

(a) Wind (b) Insects (c) Birds (d) Water
172. Select the mismatch:

(a) Pinus-Dioecious (b) Cycas-Dioecious
(c) Salvinia-Heterosporous (d) Equisetum-Homosporous
173. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Ovule are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms
(b) Seleginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous
(c) Horstails are gymnosperms
(d) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus
174. Select the wrong statements:

(a) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and plantae
(b) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes
(c) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans
(d) Mitochondria are the power house of the cell in all kingdoms except monera
175. Match the following column I with column II and choose correct option for given match.
Column I Column II
(A) Chlamydomonas (i) Moss
(B) Cycas (ii) Pteridophyta
(C) Selaginella (iii) Algae
(D) Sphagnum (iv) Gymnosperm
(a) A – (v), B – (iv), C – (iii), D – (i) (b) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i)
(c) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii) (d) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
Column I Column II
(A) Chlorophyceae (i) Algin
(B) Phaeophyceae (ii) Chara

(C) Rhodophyceae (iii) Ectocarpus
(D) Brown algae (iv) Porphyra
(E) Red algae (v) Carrageen
(a) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (iv) (b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i), E
– (v)
177. Choose the correct option for given blanks.
The strobili bearing (i) _____ and (ii) ____ are called male strobili. The reduced male
gametophyte is called a (iii) _____. The cones bearing (iv) ____ with ovules is called female
strobili.
(a) (i) Microsporangia (ii) Microsporophyll (iii) Pollen grain (iv) Megasporophyll
(b) (i) Microsporangia (ii) Megasporophyll (iii) Pollen grain (iv) Megasporophyll
(c) (i) Megasporophyll (ii) Pollen grain (iii) Microsporangia (iv) Megasporophyll
(d) (i) Megasporophyll (ii) Megasporangia (iii) Pollen grain (iv) Microsporangia
The embryo sac formation is produced by (i) ____ each cell of embryo sac is (ii) _____ and each
embryo sac has a three celled egg apparatus one (iii) _____ and two (iv) _____. Three (v) ____
and two (vi) ____.
(a) (i) Meiosis (ii) Haploid (iii) Synergids (iv) Egg cell (v) Polar nuclei (vi) Antipodal
(b) (i) Haploid (ii) Meiosis (iii) Synergids (iv) Polar nuclei (v) Egg cell (vi) Antipodal
(c) (i) Meiosis (ii) Haploid (iii) Egg cell (iv) Synergids (v) Antipodal (vi) Polar nuclei
(d) (i) Haploid (ii) Meiosis (iii) Egg cell (iv) Synergids (v) Antipodal (vi) Polar nuclei
The pollen tube enter the (i) ____ and two male gametes are discharged. One of the male
gamete fuses with (ii) ____ and form zygote. The other male gamete fuses with (iii) ____ to
produce the triploid (iv) _____ nucleus and this event is termed as (v) ____.
(a) (i) Gynoecium (ii) Egg cell (iii) Primary nucleus (iv) Secondary endosperms (v) Single
fertilization
(b) (i) Androecium (ii) Egg cell (iii) Secondary nucleus (iv) Secondary endosperm (v) Triple
fertilization
(c) (i) Embryo sac (ii) Egg cell (iii) Diploid secondary nucleus (iv) Primary endosperm (v)
Double fertilization
(d) (i) Embryo sac (ii) Antipodal cell (iii) Secondary nucleus (iv) Tertiary endosperm (v)
Triple fertilization
180. Choose wrong statement for diplontic life cycle.

(i) Diploid sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant.
(ii) The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few-celled haploid gametophyte.
(iii) All seed bearing plants, i.e. gymnosperms and angiosperms, follow this pattern.
(iv) Bryophytes and pteridophytes, interestingly, follow this pattern.
(v) A dominant, independent, photosynthetic, thalloid or erect phase is represented by a
haploid gametophyte.
(vi) Gametophyte is alternates with the short lived multicellular sporophyte.
(a) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) (b) (ii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (iv), (v) and (vi)
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IIT-JEE/MEDICAL- UNIT

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. If , then find the value of tan .

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. Which of the following match is correct?

(ii) (B) y = –x2

(iv) (D) x = –y2

6. If y = sin2 x + cos2 x, then is

(a) 4 sin cos x (b) 2 sin x + 2 cos x (c) zero (d) 1

7. Rate of change of y with respect to x will be, if y = x4 + 2x3 + 2

8. If y = 5x3 – 4x2 + 2, then value of at x = 1 is

(a) 22 (b) 7 (c) 24 (d) 3

9. If y = 4x2 + 2x, then slope of y-x graph at x = 1 is

10. If y = 2x2 – 8x + 5, then minimum value of y is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) (d)

12. The value of dx is

(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2

(a) 2 (b) –2 (c) 1 (d) –1

14. Value of dx is:

(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 9 (d) None of

(a) –2 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

18. If sin t, then find dimensions of . (Here, F = force, v = velocity, t = time)

(a) [ML–1T–1] (b) [M–1LT] (c) [ML–1T] (d) [M–1L–1T–

(c) [MLT–1] and [MLT0] (d) [MLT–4] and [MLT1]

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) 0.5 mm (b) 2 mm (c) 1 mm (d) 0.1 mm

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

34. Find the magnitude of the resultant of shown forces.

(a) N (b) N (c) (d) N

of and . Magnitude of vector is 9.

38. If = and = , then projection of on will be

(a) (b) (c) (d)

41. If A = and = , then which of the following is not true?

(a) × =0 (b) (c) . = 48 (d) A=5

(a) (b) (c) (d)

44. If a vector is perpendicular to the vector then the value of is

(a) –1 (b) (c) – (d) 1

45. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Torque (d)

46. Consider a graph is plotted against p versus as shown

The correct order of temperature T1, T2, T3 will be

(a) (b) (c) (d)400 × 2 × 273 L

54. Dominance of strong repulsive forces among the molecules of the

55. Consider the following figure

56. Boyle's law is valid, when a graph plotted against p versus is

(a) straight line passing through origin

(d) curved line passing through origin

(a) 15.5 (b) 0.155 (c) 155.0 (d) 1.55

65. Zeeman effect is due to

66. The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty principle is significant

70. Cathode rays have same charge to mass ratio as

(a) (b) (c) (d)

72. Kinetic energy of the ejected electron is

74. Energy of an electron is given by

Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1 to n = 2

(a) (b) (c) (d)

77. The value 109677 cm–1 is called

Calculate the value of n2. (R = Rydberg constant)

(c) Zeeman effect (d) electromagnetic effect

83. Limitations of Bohr’s model is/are

84. The correct mathematical expression of Heisenberg' s uncertainty principle is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) (d)