Post Training Evaluation dated 19.10.

2023

APQP & PPAP

Training date: 18th & 19th Oct, 2023

Name of Organization:
Employee Name:
Function:

1. A project timing plan is required for APQP activities :

a. True
a. False

2. Expected benefits of APQP are :

a. A reduction in the complexity of product quality planning for the customer and suppliers
b. A means for suppliers to easily communicate product quality planning requirements to sub-
contractors
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

3. QFD stands for :

a. Quality for Design
b. Quality Function Development
c. Quality Function Deployment

4. A QFD translates Voice of the customer into :

a. Quality Requirements
b. Non – Technical Requirements
c. Technical Requirements
d. None of the above

5. The benefits of a control plan include :

a. improved quality by providing a comprehensive evaluation of product and process
b. improved customer satisfaction by focusing resources on processes and products related to
characteristics that are important to the customer
c. improved communication in the organisation by communicating changes to product/process
characteristics, control methods and characteristic measurement
d. replacement of operator instructions by having a living document for all requirements
e. all of the above
f. b and c only

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 Post Training Evaluation dated 19.10.2023

APQP & PPAP

Training date: 18th & 19th Oct, 2023

6. A pre launch control plan should be documented in which phase of APQP ?

a. phase 1
b. phase 2
c. phase 3
d. phase 4
e. phase 5

7. Reduced variation should be part of which phase of APQP ?

a. phase 1
b. phase 2
c. phase 3
d. phase 4
e. phase 5

8. Which of the following is an output of phase 2 of APQP ?

a. Production control plan
b. PPAP
c. Material specification
d. Pre-launch control plan
e. All of the above
f. None of these

9. When should a control plan be reviewed and updated ?

a. product or process change
b. process found to be unstable or non capable
c. inspection methods, frequency, etc is revised
d. all of the above
e. a and b only
f. None of the above

10. What is the definition of voice of the customer ?

a. Customer feedback positive
b. Customer feedback negative
c. problems and suggestions
d. All of the above
e. a & b only

11. A method to successful benchmarking includes :

a. Identify appropriate benchmarks
b. Understand the reasons for the gap between current status and benchmark
c. Develop a plan to either close, match or exceed the benchmark
d. All of the above
e. a & b only

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 Post Training Evaluation dated 19.10.2023

APQP & PPAP

Training date: 18th & 19th Oct, 2023

12. When should the APQP Team report to management ?

a. At the start of the project
b. At the conclusion of the project
c. At the conclusion of every APQP phase
d. At the teams request
e. c & d only

13. Should APQP management updates be formal ?

a. Yes
b. No

14. Does an APQP team have to include members from the supplier’s management?
a. Yes
b. No

15. A Cause and effect analysis can also be referred to as :

a. Fishbone analysis
b. Scatter diagram
c. Ishikawa diagram
d. All of the above
e. a & c only

16. A pre-launch control plan should include additional product/process controls to be implemented
until the production process is validated :
a. True
b. False

17. The purpose of PPAP is :

a) To determine if all customer engineering design record and specification requirements are
properly understood by the supplier
b) To determine that the process has the potential to produce product consistently meeting these
requirements
c) To demonstrate to the customer that the supplier’s controls comply with APQP requirements
d) All of the above
e) a and b only
f) None of the above

18. PPAP Validation is required from a “Significant Production Run”. What constitutes a “Significant
Production Run” ?
a) Minimum 100 consecutive Parts
b) Minimum 300 consecutive Parts
c) Minimum 500 consecutive Parts
d) None of the above

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 Post Training Evaluation dated 19.10.2023

APQP & PPAP

Training date: 18th & 19th Oct, 2023

19. What is the general default level for PPAP submission ?

a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c) Level 3
d) Level 4
e) Level 5

20. ………….. approval permits shipment of material for production requirements on a limited time or
piece quantity basis :
a) Full
b) Interim
c) Part
d) None of these

21. What documents have to be up-dated in the Suppliers PPAP file if level 1 submission is requested
?
a) Warrant, Appearance Approval Report (if applicable)
b) Warrant, Appearance Approval Report (if applicable), Control Plan, FMEA’s, Process Flow,
Dimensional,
c) All relevant items detailed as requirements for PPAP

22. A supplier is asked to submit a PPAP at Level 1 by a particular customer location. The supplier
should use this level of submission for all subsequent submissions for this part number to all other
customer locations :
a) True
b) False

23. If components are produced from a multiple cavity tool, dimensional evaluation is required on :
a) A representative sample of parts
b) One part
c) One part from each cavity
d) Parts from 50% of the cavities

24. Does the supplier’s PPAP file have to be updated following re-release, after tooling has been
inactive for 12 months or more ?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes unless waived by the customer

25. If a customer approves PPAP & waives the requirement for submission does the supplier have to
maintain a PPAP file ?
a) No
b) Yes

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 Post Training Evaluation dated 19.10.2023

APQP & PPAP

Training date: 18th & 19th Oct, 2023

26. The Control Plan required as part of PPAP is a :

a) Prototype Control Plan
b) Prelaunch Control Plan
c) Production Control Plan

27. Of the samples selected, the master sample should be supplied to the customer :
a) True
b) False

28. Within PPAP process studies, Cpk can only be used for stable processes :
a) True
b) False

29. As AIAG PPAP, what Index value is associated with “The process is currently acceptable but may
require some improvement” ?
a) Index value >1.67
b) 1.33 <= Index value <= 1.67
c) Index value < 1.33
d) All of the above

30. Production part approval records shall be kept for :

a. 12 months
b. 3 years
c. Time that the part is active
d. Time that the part is active plus 1 year
e. As defined by the supplier

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