SSC JE CIVIL PAPERS SOLUTION

By Civil Ki Goli

Pre+ Mains
2023 Papers
Solution

SSC JE Civil Pre+ Mains

2023 All Shift Papers
Detailed Solution

S .SOROUT
ANUP SINGH SCAN QR CODE
ASHISH JORWAL TO WATCH VIDEO SOLUTION
 INDEX

Paper Page No.

1.SSC JE PRE 9 OCTOBER 2023 3-42

2. SSC JE PRE 10 OCTOBER 2023 Morning 43-80

3. SSC JE PRE 10 OCTOBER 2023 Evening 81-119

4. SSC JE PRE 11OCTOBER 2023 120-165

5. SSC JE Mains 4 December 2023 166-202

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Civil Ki Goli 9255624029

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SSC JE PRE CIVIL 10 October Static head:
2023 Morning Shift The addition of the suction head and the
Q.01. The total head that must be produced by delivery head is known as a static head.
the pump to satisfy the specific external
requirements is called the?
(a) manometric head (b) static head
(c) suction head (d) dynamic head
Ans: (a) :

Different types of the head in centrifugal pump:

Manometric Head
‘Manometric head’ of a pump is the total head
produced by the pump to satisfy specific
external requirements. If there are no energy
losses in the impeller and casing of the pump
(valid in an ideal or theoretical situation only),
the manometric head will be equal to the
energy given to the liquid by the impeller.
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Q.02. A centrifugal pump with the impeller
diameter of 125 mm delivers a power of 10 hp.
If the impeller diameter is changed to 250 mm,
what will be the power delivered by the pump
if other parameters are kept constant?
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(a) 100 hp (b) 80 hp
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(c) 40 hp (d) 120 hp

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Ans: (c) :
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(1) Delivers power ( P1 ) = 10 hp

Suction Head:
Impeller diameter ( d1 ) = 125 mm
• A suction head is a measure of the pressure (2) Delivers power ( P2 ) = ?
experienced by a fluid on the suction side of a If Impeller diameter ( d2 ) = 250 mm
centrifugal pump. It is used to avoid running a So –
pump under conditions that favor cavitation. 𝟐
𝑷𝟐 𝑫𝟐
• The suction head refers to the difference in = ( 𝟏)
𝑷𝟏 𝑫
level between the water in the sump to the
centerline of the pump. 𝑷𝟐 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝟐
= ( )
Delivery head: 𝟏𝟎 𝟏𝟐𝟓
The total delivery head is defined as the work 𝑷𝟐
= 𝟒
that needs to be performed by the pump to 𝟏𝟎
pump the medium with reference to a defined
P2 = 40 hp
unit of weight.
Q.03. The coefficient of the volume change mv
• The delivery head is the difference in level
is given by ______.
from the water level in the tank to the
centerline of the pump.

Ans: (d) :
Coefficient of the volume change (mv) – The
coefficient of volume change or the coefficient
of volume compressibility mv, is defined as the
volumetric strain per unit increase in applied
pressure, Thus
Q.04. In case of a remote sensing system, which
of the following factors does NOT affect the
property of a reflected incident radiation?
(a) Angle of incident radiation
(b) Roughness of the surface
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(c) Wavelength of radiation
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(d) Type of electromagnetic radiation
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Ans: (d)
The following factors are affect the property of
a reflected incident radiation:-
(1) Angle of incident radiation
(2) Roughness of the surface
(3) Wavelength of radiation
(1) Angle of incident radiation
The angle of incident radiation is the angle
between the incoming radiation and the normal
to the surface. The angle of incident radiation
affects the reflection of the radiation, as it
determines the amount of energy that is
incident on a unit area of the surface. The
smaller the angle, the more energy is incident
on the surface, and vice versa.
(2) Roughness of the surface
The roughness of the surface is the degree of
variation of the surface features, such as
bumps, cracks, texture, etc. The roughness of
the surface affects the reflection of the
radiation, as it determines the mode of
reflection, which can be either specular or
diffuse. Specular reflection occurs when the
surface is smooth and the radiation is reflected
in a single direction, like a mirror. Diffuse
reflection occurs when the surface is rough and
the radiation is reflected in multiple direction.
(3) Wavelength of radiation
The wavelength of radiation is the distance
between two successive crests or troughs of the
electromagnetic wave. The wavelength of
radiation affects the reflection of the radiation,
as it determines the degree of interaction with
the surface features, such as absorption,
transmission, and reflection. Different
wavelengths of radiation have different levels of
penetration and sensitivity to the surface
properties, such as colour, temperature,
moisture, etc.
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Note: The property of a reflected incident
radiation depends on the wavelength of the
radiation, not the type. The type of
electromagnetic radiation refers to the
classification of the radiation based on its
wavelength and frequency, such as visible,
infrared, microwave, etc.
Q.05. Select the anthropogenic source of air
pollution from the given options.
(a) Burning of fossil fuels (b) Dust storms
(c) Volcanoes (d) Forest fires
Ans: (a)
Pollution enters the Earth's atmosphere in
many different ways. Most air pollution is
created by people, taking the form of emissions
from factories, cars, planes, or aerosol
cans. Second-hand cigarette smoke is also
considered air pollution. These man-made
sources of pollution are called anthropogenic
sources.

Q.06. The optimum water content (OWC) is the
moisture content at which the soil attains
______.
(a) maximum dry density
(b) maximum water content
(c) minimum dry density
(d) fully saturated density
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Ans: (a)
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Compaction Curve of Soil
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• The compaction curve is the curve drawn
between the water content (X-axis) and the
Respective dry density (Y-axis). The observation
will be Initially an Increased dry density with an
increase in the water content. Once it reaches a
particular point a decrease in dry density is
observed.
• The maximum peak point of the soil
compaction curve obtained is called the
Maximum Dry density value. The water content
corresponds to this point is called the Optimum
water content (O.W.C) or Optimum Moisture
Content (O.M.C) .
Q.07. Pycnometer, wire mesh bucket and water
are used to calculate which characteristic
property of the coarse aggregate?
(a) Crushing strength (b) Attrition
(c) Impact value (d) Specific gravity
Ans: (d)
Pycnometer method:-
• Pycnometer method is used to determine
specific gravity and water content both. This
method is suitable for cohesionless soils.
• Pycnometer is a glass jar of 1-liter capacity
that is fitted at its top by a conical cap made of
brass. It has a screw type cover and there is a
small hole at its apex of 6 mm diameter.
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W1 = Mass of empty volume of pycnometer
W₂ = Mass of pycnometer + Mass of moist
sample
W3 = Mass of pycnometer + soil + water
W4 = Mass of pycnometer full of water
G = Specific gravity of soil solids
Water content of the soil sample is given by
Q.08. A trapezoidal section is of depth ‘y’, base
‘B’ and side slope ‘Z’. Find the wetted perimeter
of the trapezoidal section.
(a) B + 2y(1 + Z2)1/2 (b) 2y(1 + Z2)1/2
(c) B + y(1 + Z2)1/2 (d) y(1 + Z2)1/2
Ans: (a)
 compact section while the beam is laterally
supported.
(a) 0.45 (b) 0.66
(c) 0.75 (d) 0.60
Ans: (b)
According to IS : 800 - 2007, permissible stresses
in steel beams :
Side slope = 1: Z (Z = horizontal and 1 = vertical)
Type of Force Permissible
Area of flow = A = (B + ZY) Y Stress
Axial tension and 0.60 (fy)
Hydraulic radius = R = Y/2 compression
Bending 0.66 (fy)
Wetted perimeter = P = B + 2Y ( √𝟏 + 𝒁𝟐 ) Bearing 0.75 (fy)

Average shear 0.40 (fy)

Q.09. If tensile stress develops at the base of a
full dam, it will be first observed at the: Maximum shear 0.45 (fy)

(a) mid-point of the base width (b) heel

Q.11. Side face reinforcement is PROVIDED in a
(c) gallery (d) toe
beam when the depth of the web exceeds _____
Ans: (b) mm.
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(a) 250 (b) 150

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(c) 750 (d) 300

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Ans: (c)
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Side face reinforcement:

Side face reinforcement are longitudinal
reinforcement which are provided to prevent
buckling of shear reinforcement

Reservoir Full Condition

• For reservoir full condition maximum Tensile

stress will be at the HEEL of the dam.
• For reservoir empty condition maximum
Tensile stress will be at the TOE of the dam.
• For reservoir empty condition maximum
compressive stress will be at the heel.
• For reservoir full condition maximum
compressive stress will be at the toe of the dam.
Q.10. As per IS 800: 2007, in case of design of
steel beams, the permissible bending stress in
tension and the permissible bending stress in
compression should NOT exceed ____ times of
the yield stress (fy) of steel in a plastic and
Side face reinforcement shall be provided as per
Cl. 26.5.1.3 and 26.5.17(6) of IS 456:2000
Beam depth > 450 mm (if beam subjected to
torsion)
Beam depth > 750 mm (if beam not subjected to
torsion)
Provide @ 0.1% of web area and distribute it
equally on both side faces
Q.12. The captain in a vessel 0.016 km above the Aggregate
sea level observes a 0.144 km tall lighthouse on Test Characteristics
a port just above the horizon. The distance of Measures resistance to crushing under
the vessel from the port, considering both gradually applied compressive load.
curvature of the Earth and refraction, is Aggregate crushing value should not
_________. Crushing exceed: 30% for surface course 45% for
(a) 161.68 km (b) 116.68 km Test base course
Measures resistance to sudden load
(c) 61.68 km (d) 16.68 km
impact.
Ans: (c) Aggregate impact value should not
where, exceed 30% for surface course 35% for
C being in meters Impact Test base course
d1 = 3.8553√𝑪𝟏 Measures resistance to wear.
Abrasion value should not exceed35%
d1 = 3.8553√𝟏𝟔
Abrasion for bituminous concrete 50% for base
d1 = 15.4212 km - (i)
Test course
d2 = 3.8553√𝑪𝟐
Measures resistance to weathering
d2 = 3.8553√𝟏𝟒𝟒 action.
d2 = 46.2636 km - (ii) Soundness loss in weight should not exceed 12% for
From equation (i) and (ii) Test Na2SO4 and 15% for MgSO4
d = d1 + d2 Q.15. After compacting the subgrade, by
d = 15.4212 + 46.2636 = 61.6848 km suitable methods, the tests to ensure that the
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desired compaction has been achieved is/are:

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Q.13. Which of the following options is NOT (a) direct shear test
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considered as a component of the 3R principles (b) compaction test and triaxial shear test
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of municipal solid waste management?

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(c) consolidation test

(a) Recover (b) Reuse
(d) moisture content and field density
(c) Reduce (d) Recycle
determination test
Ans: (a)
Ans: (d)
Waste minimization can be achieved in an
After compacting the subgrade, testing the
efficient way by focusing primarily on the first of
moisture content and field density is essential
the 3Rs, "reduce," followed by "reuse" and then
to ensure the desired compaction has been
"recycle."
achieved. Moisture content indicates the
amount of water present, affecting soil density.
Field density measurement assesses the
compactness of the soil in its actual location.
These tests collectively provide a
Q.14. As per IS:2386 (Part IV)-1963, the comprehensive evaluation of the compaction
aggregate crushing value shall NOT exceed process and its effectiveness.
________ for concrete for wearing surfaces, Q.16. Which of the following types of cement
such as runways, roads and pavements. gives 1-day strength that is equal to the 3-day
(a) 10% (b) 20% strength of OPC with the same water content?
(c) 30% (d) 40% (a) Rapid hardening Portland cement
Ans: (c) (b) Portland pozzolana cement
(c) Ordinary Portland cement
(d) Portland slag cement
Ans: (a)
Rapid hardening portland cement (IS:8041 -
1990)
• Also known as high early strength cement
• It is finer than ordinary portland cement
• It contains more C3S and less C2S than OPC.
• 1 Day strength of Rapid hardening cement
(RHC) = 3 Day strength of OPC with same w/c
ratio
•The final setting time of RHC is < 600 min = 10
Hours .
• It hardens fast but has the same setting time
as OPC.
• It is useful in cold weather concreting.
• Not used for a massive concrete structure.
Portland pozzolana cement: (IS 1489-1991)
• The cement is prepared by inter-grinding
cement clinkers with 10 to 15% pozzolanic
material.
• Pozzolanic material is essentially siliceous or
• Based on strength requirement, the type of
OPC can be chosen, viz, OPC 33 (compressive
strength of 53 N/mm2, OPC 43 (compressive
strength of 43 N/mm2, and OPC 53
(compressive strength of 53 N/mm2.
• It can be used on pavements, sidewalks,
bridges, and railways.
• OPC has a high development of compressive
strength in earlier phases.
• OPC 53 is used for pre-stressed concrete
structures wherein high strength of concrete is
a necessary prerequisite.
Q.17. During construction, light weight aerated
concrete blocks are mostly used for.
(a) foundation (b) shear walls
(c) load bearing walls (d) partition walls
Ans: (d)
Light weight aerated concrete blocks
• Lightweight blocks are produced in greater
volume but are less strong than dense concrete
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aluminous compound which in itself do not blocks.

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possess any cementitious properties but when • Lightweight concrete blocks are used in both
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finely grinded in the presence of water reacts internal and external walls where loading is
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with Ca(OH)2 released during the hydration of slightly more restricted, or as infill blocks in
the cement and leads to the formation of a beam and block flooring .
cementitious compound. • It can also use in partition wall.
Portland Slag Cement (PSC) (IS 455 -1976)
• This cement is manufactured by mixing
portland cement clinker with blast furnace slag,
a waste product.
• The percentage of slag added to cement is
between 25% to 65% by mass.
• This cement has a low heat of hydration and
has more durability.
Low Heat Cement (IS 12600 - 1989)
• It comprises lesser quantities of C3S and C3A.
Due to a reduced proportion of these
constituents, this cement attains strength at a
Q.18. 2 litres of an oil weigh 16 N. Calculate the
low rate.
specific gravity of the oil. Consider the density
• Its heat of hydration is 314 KJ/kg at 28 days. of water to be 998 kg/m3.
• It is useful for mass concreting works.
Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) (a) 0.816 (b) 0.846
• It is the most sought-after cement used in (c) 0.786 (d) 0856
modern-day RCC construction works. Ans: (a)
Voil = 2 litres Hence, Total Station can directly be used to
Woil = 16 N calculate - Horizontal angles, Vertical angles,
𝝆water = 998 kg/m3 and Sloping distances
𝑴 𝒘 𝟏𝟔×𝟏𝟎𝟑
𝝆= = = kg/m3 = 815.494 Q.20. Under properly controlled combustion
𝑽 𝒈×𝑽 𝟗.𝟖𝟏×𝟐
𝝆𝒐𝒊𝒍 𝟖𝟏𝟓.𝟒𝟗𝟒 and temperature, what is the percentage of
Specific gravity of oil (S.Goil) = = silica content that can be obtained from rice
𝝆𝒘𝒂𝒕𝒆𝒓 𝟗𝟗𝟖
husk ash?
= 0.817 (a) 57% – 60% (b) 85% – 95%
Q.19. ____________ is a parameter that a total (c) 40% – 50% (d) 60% – 70%
station usually does NOT measure. Ans: (b)
(a) Horizontal angle (b) Horizontal distance RICE HUSK ASH(RHA)
(c) Slope distance (d) Slope distance • Rice husk ash (RHA) is one of the abundantly
Ans: (b) available materials in rice grown countries
• Its high surface area, which comes from the
Total Station:
microporous structure of the ash particles, and
• A total station is an electronic/optical
the existence of this type of silica are what are
instrument used in modern surveying and
responsible for its reactivity.
building construction that uses electronic
• When obtained from controlled combustion
transit theodolite in conjunction with an
the average composition of well-burnt RHA is
electronic distance meter (EDM).
90% amorphous silica, 5% carbon, and 2% K2O.
• Rice husk ash must be burnt at between 550ºC
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and 800ºC to achieve that state.

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• The combustion process creates a secondary

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Calcium-Silicate-Hydrate (C--S--H) gel which

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determines the pozzolanic activity of the RHA

Q.21. Which of the following types of signs are

used for place identification and route marking?
(a) Informatory signs (b) Warning signs
(c) Regulatory signs (d) Prohibitory signs
Ans: (a)
Classification of traffic signs
1. Regulatory Signs:
Function: These signs inform drivers of
mandatory rules and regulations they must
• It is also integrated with a microprocessor,
obey.
electronic data collector, and storage system.
Shape: Typically circular with a red border and
• It is a combination of an electronic theodolite
black symbol or white background with black
for measuring horizontal and vertical angles, an
legend.
electromagnetic distance measurement (EDM)
Examples: Stop signs, speed limit signs, no
device for measurement of slop distances, and
parking signs, yield signs, one-way signs, etc.
onboard software to convert the raw observed
data to three-dimensional coordinates.
2. Warning Signs:
Function: Alert drivers and pedestrians to
potential hazards or dangers ahead, prompting
them to take necessary precautions. Warning
signs are also known as cautionary signs.
Shape: Triangular with a red border and yellow
background, featuring black symbols or text.
Examples: Intersection warning signs, Curve
ahead signs, falling rocks signs, slippery road
signs, pedestrian crossing signs, etc.
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3. Informative Signs:
Function: Provide helpful information to
drivers, including route guidance, directions,
location services, and other relevant details.
Shape: Usually rectangular with a blue
background and white symbols or text.
Examples: Town name signs, Exit signs,
directional arrows, distance markers, rest area
signs, etc.
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Q.22. There are numerous benefits of irrigation
like increase in food production, development
of the area and social upliftment of the people.
One of the harmful effects of irrigation is _____
(a) Control of floods
(b) mosquito breading and incidence of malaria
(c) protection from famine
(d) ruralisation
Ans: (b)
ILL-EFFECTS OF IRRIGATION
Excess irrigation and unscientific use of
irrigation water may give rise to the following
ill-effects :
Breeding Places for Mosquitoes : Due to excess
application of water, and due to leakage of
water, ponds and depressions get filled up with
water and create breeding places for
mosquitoes. Also, if the canal is leaky,
mosquitoes breed all along the canal and
spread malarial conditions.
Water-Logging : If the water table is near the
ground surface, over-irrigation may raise the
water table. This saturates the crop root-zone
completely, causes efflorescence and the whole a1v1 = a2v2
𝝅 𝝅
area becomes waterlogged. ×d2 × V = (0.5d)2 ×V2
𝟒 𝟒
Damp Climate : The areas which are already V2 = 4v
damp and cold, become damper and colder due
Q.25. Find the support reaction acting in the
to irrigation.
given simply support beam of length 6 m, which
is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of
Q.23. If a person studies about a fluid which is intensity 20 kN/m on the left half span as shown
at rest, the study is called. in the diagram.
(a) fluid kinematics (b) fluid mechanics
(c) fluid dynamics (d) fluid statics
Ans: (d)

(a) 30 kN (left), 30 kN (right)

Fluid mechanics:
Fluid mechanics is that branch of science that (b) −20 kN (left), 80 kN (right)
deals with the behavior of the fluids (liquids or (c) 45 kN (left), 15 kN (right)
gases) at rest as well as in motion. (d) 15 kN (left), 45 kN (right)
Thus this branch of science deals with the static, Ans: (c)
kinematics and dynamic aspects of fluids.
Fluid statics:
The study of fluids at rest is called fluid statics.
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Fluid kinematics:
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The study of fluids in motion, where pressure

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• Σfy = 0
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forces are not considered, is called fluid

RA + RB = 20 × 3
kinematics.
RA + RB = 60 kN ...
Fluid dynamics:
If the pressure forces are also considered for the
(i) • ΣMA = 0
fluids in motion, that branch of science is called 𝟑
fluid dynamics. 20 × 3 × = RB × 6
𝟐
RB = 15 kN (right support)
Q.24. If a liquid enters a pipe of diameter ‘d’ RA = 45 kN (left support)
with velocity ‘v’, then what will be its velocity at
the exit if the diameter of the pipe reduces to Q.26. _____________ is a type of scale on which
0.5d ? three successive dimensions can be measured.
(a) v (b) 0.5v (a) Engineer’s scale (b) Scale of chords
(c) 2v (d) 4v (c) Diagonal scale (d) Vernier scale
Ans: (d) Ans: (c)
Pipe diameter at entry (d1) = d Classification of scales:
Velocity (v1) = v 1. Plain Scales
Exit 2. Diagonal Scales
Diameter (d2) = 0.5d 3. Comparative Scales
Velocity (V2) = ? 4. Vernier Scales
Due to continuity equation 5. Chord Scales
1. Plain Scales
Plain Scale is used to measure up to two
consecutive units, i.e. a unit and its immediate
sub division. For example (a) meter and
decimeter (b) kilometer and hectometer (c) feet
and inches etc.
2. Diagonal Scales
Diagonal Scale is used to represent three
consecutive units i.e. a unit and its immediate
two sub divisions. For example (a) meter, deci-
meter and centimeter (b) kilometer, hectometer
and decameter (c) yards, feet and inches etc. A
diagonal scale can measure more accurately
than a plain scale.
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Comparative Scale
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A comparison scale is a pair of scales with the
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same representative fraction but graduated to
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read measurements in several unit systems.
Depending on the situation, comparative scales
can be built as plain or diagonal scales.
Vernier Scale-
An engineering drawing scale, the vernier scale
is a metric scale that measures three successive
units. As a result, the vernier scale’s
measurement accuracy is equivalent to the
diagonal scale.
In engineering drawings, vernier scales are used
to show distances inside a unit and its two
significant subdivisions.
The scale of chords-
In the case of a lack of a protractor, a chord scale
can be used to determine or establish the
required angle. The structure is based on chord
lengths of angles measured over an identical
arc.
Q.27. Which of the following is an adsorption
unit used for controlling gaseous pollutants in
industries?
(a) Venturi scrubber (b) Spray tower
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(c) Activated carbon unit (d) Plate tower
Ans: (c)
Activated carbon, also known as activated
charcoal, is a form of carbon processed to have
small, low-volume pores that increase the
surface area available for adsorption.
Note :-
Venturi scrubber, spray tower, and plate tower
are not adsorption units.
Venturi scrubber is a type of wet scrubber that
uses a high-velocity stream of water to remove
pollutants from a gas stream.
Spray tower is another type of wet scrubber
that uses water sprays to remove pollutants
from a gas stream.
Plate tower is a type of distillation column used
in chemical engineering for separating liquid
mixtures.
Q.28. As per IS 456:2000, in the case of columns
of minimum dimension of 200 mm or under,
whose reinforcing bars do NOT exceed 12 mm,
the nominal cover used is ……….. ?
(a) 20 mm (b) 50 mm
(c) 25 mm (d) 40 mm
Ans: (c)
The design parameters for an RCC column as per
IS 456:2000, provisions are specified below:
1. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column
nominal cover shall in any case not be less than
40 mm, or less than the diameter of such bar.
2. In the case of columns of the minimum
dimension of 200 mm or under, whose
reinforcing bars do not exceed 12 mm, a
nominal cover of 25 mm may be used.
3. The cross-sectional area of longitudinal
reinforcement shall be not less than 0.8 percent
nor more than 6 percent of the gross cross
sectional area of the column. However, where
bars from the columns below have to be lapped
with those in the column under consideration,
the percentage of steel shall usually not exceed
4 percent.
4. The minimum number of longitudinal bars
provided in a column shall be four in rectangular
columns and six in circular columns.
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5. The bars shall not be less than 12 mm in
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diameter,
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6. A reinforced concrete column having helical
C
reinforcement shall have at least six bars of
longitudinal reinforcement within the helical
reinforcement.
7. In a helically reinforced column, the
longitudinal bars shall be in contact with the
helical reinforcement and equidistant around
its inner circumference.
8. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along
the periphery of the column shall not exceed
300 mm.
Q.29. High water hammer pressure can cause
breakage and damage to a pipeline. The
property a fluid which is accountable for the
problem of water hammer is _______.
(a) density (b) fluidity
(c) surface tension (d) viscosity
Ans: (a)
Water Hammer:
When a liquid flow in a long pipeline is reduced
suddenly, due to the compressibility of the
liquid, the sudden change in momentum would
cause a pressure surge to develop. This pressure
moves through the pipe at high speed and
undergoes reflection at the ends and the
phenomenon is known as water hammer.
The pressure rise due to water hammer
depends upon the following factors:
• The velocity of flow of water in the pipe.
• The length of the pipe.
• Time is taken to close the valve or the closure
of the valve.
• Elastic properties of the material of the pipe.
• The density of fluid.
Q.30. The value of average bond stress τbd
depends on_________.
(a) Steel strength and Area of bar
(b) Concrete strength and Area of bar
(c) Concrete strength and Steel strength
(d) Concrete strength and type of bar
Ans: (d)
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• 'Bond' in reinforced concrete is the adhesion
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(adhesive force) between the reinforcing steel
bar and the surrounding concrete.
• The average bond stress depends on concrete
strength and type of bar.
• Due to this bond, it is possible to transfer the
axial force from the reinforcing steel to the
surrounding concrete thereby introducing strain
compatibility and composite/combined action
of steel and concrete which avoids slippage of
reinforced bars from within the concrete.
As per IS 456:2000
The values of bond stress is for plain bar in
tension
Grade of
Concrete M15 M20 M25 M30 M35 M40*
WSM 0.6 0.8 0.9 1 1.1 1.2
LSM - 1.2 1.4 1.5 1.7 1.9
• For deformed bar the above values should be
increased by 60%.
• For bar in compression the above value should
be increased by 25%.

Q.31. If detailed drawings are not available, the
steel reinforcement may be calculated
approximately on the percentage basis
of___________?
(a) concrete (b) brickwork
(c) size of bending (d) height of building
Ans: (a)
If detailed drawings are not available, the steel
reinforcement may be calculated approximately
on the percentage basis of concrete.
(i) For raft footing – 0.5% to 0.8%
(ii) For slab/lintel 0.7% to 1%
(iii) For beams 1% to 2% (iv) For columns 1% to
5%
Q.32. According to IS 456:2000, for a cantilever
beam the effective length of the cantilever shall
be taken as.
(a) clear span of the beam + half the effective
depth
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(b) clear span of the beam + half the width of
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the support
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(c) clear span of the beam + width of the =
C
(d) clear span of the beam + effective depth
Ans: (a)
Effective span for Simply supported beam
The effective span of a simply supported beam
is taken as the least of the following:
a) Clear span + the effective depth of beam.
b) Center to center ( c/c ) distance between
supports.
Cantilever beam
The effective length of a cantilever beam is
taken as its length to the face of the supports +
half the effective depth except where it forms
the end of a continuous beam.
Q.33. Which of the following methods is used
for measuring earthwork?
(a) Area and volume shall be nearest worked
out 0.01 m2 and 0.01 m3
(b) Volume shall be worked out to nearest to
0.02 m3
(c) Area and volume shall be worked out to
nearest to 0.03 m and 0.03 m
(d) The area shall be worked out to nearest to
0.02 m2
Ans: (a)
Degree of accuracy (As per IS : 1200)
• Dimension shall be measured upto 0.01 m . (If
it is more than 25 m it is measured upto 0.1 m)
• Area shall be measured upto 0.01 m2
• Volume shall be measured upto 0.01 m3
• Mass shall be measured upto 1 kg.
• Wood work shall be measured upto 0.002m3
• R/F shall be measured upto 0.005m
• Thickness of slab projected outside the beam
or column shall be measured upto 0.005 m
Q.34. The length of a long wall in the long and
short wall method of estimation is centre to
centre distance between the walls
and_________?
(a) one-fourth width of wall on each side
i
(b) half of its width on each side
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(c) width of the wall
(d) one-third width of wall on each side
Ans: (b)
Long wall-short wall method/PWD method
𝑾 𝑾
Length of long wall = LX + + = LX + W
𝟐 𝟐
𝑾 𝑾
Length of short wall = LY - − = LY + W
𝟐 𝟐
Q.35. Which of the following is a rain gauge
adopted as the standard recording type rain
gauge in India? Its details are described in IS:
5253- 1969.
(a) Tipping-bucket type rain gauge
(b) Natural siphon of Float type rain gauge Priming
(c) Tipping & weighing rain gauge • It is an operation in which the suction pipe,
(d) Weighing-bucket type rain gauge casing of the pump, and a portion of the
delivery pipe are completely filled up by an
Ans: (b)
water from an outside source before starting
Recording rain gauge Non-Recording Rain
gauge the pump.
Natural syphon type Symon's type • In other words, priming is the process in which
• Gives a mass curve of Most widely adopted in the impeller of a centrifugal pump will get
rainfall. India as nonrecording submerged in liquid without any air trap inside.
•Standard rain gauge type. It is always advisable to start pump only after
adopted in India. • Do not record the rain
priming.
Tipping Bucket type but only collect the rain.
• Installed in hilly or • Priming is an operation that generally
inaccessible areas. Gives depth of rainfall in happens in the centrifugal pump. Priming is
• Gives data on the cm required in order to drive out the air voids
intensity of rainfall. present, which otherwise would make the
Weighing Bucket type operation of the pump ineffective.
• Gives mass curve of
rainfall
Q.38. The vertical distance between the centre
Q.36. A semicircular lamina has radius R and line of a pump and the point of delivery is
diameter D. Determine the moment of inertia known as ______________.
about the diametrical axis as shown below? (a) delivery head (b) Total head
i
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(c) suction head (d) dynamic head

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Ans: (a)
il K

Different types of the head in centrifugal pump:

iv
C

Manometric Head
𝟒 𝟒 ‘Manometric head’ of a pump is the total head
(a) 𝛑𝐃
𝟑𝟐
(b) 𝛑𝐑
𝟏𝟔 produced by the pump to satisfy specific
𝟒 𝟒
(c) 𝛑𝐃
𝟔𝟒
(d) 𝛑𝐑𝟖 external requirements. If there are no energy
losses in the impeller and casing of the pump
Ans: (d)
(valid in an ideal or theoretical situation only),
the manometric head will be equal to the
energy given to the liquid by the impeller.

Suction Head:
Moment of inertia about diametrical axis–
𝛑𝐑𝟒 • A suction head is a measure of the pressure
IAB =
𝟖 experienced by a fluid on the suction side of a
centrifugal pump. It is used to avoid running a
Q.37. To avoid gas bounding, the pump is. pump under conditions that favor cavitation.
(a) elevated (b) charged
(c) primed (d) heated
Ans: (c)
• The suction head refers to the difference in
level between the water in the sump to the
centerline of the pump.
Delivery head:
The total delivery head is defined as the work
that needs to be performed by the pump to
pump the medium with reference to a defined
unit of weight.
• The delivery head is the difference in level
from the water level in the tank to the
centerline of the pump.
Static head:
The addition of the suction head and the
delivery head is known as a static head.
Q.39. Select the correct option for the given
statements.
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Statement 1: The placing of veneers normal to
il K
each other increases the longitudinal and
iv
C
transverse strength of plywood.
Statement 2: Plywood possesses uniform
tensile strength in all directions.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 and false
(c) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
Ans: (a)
Plywood
• Plywood is a hygroscopic material and has
ability to exchange its moisture content with air.
Many mechanical properties are affected by
changes in moisture content.
• The exchange of moisture depends upon the
relative humidity and temperature of air and on
the amount of water present in the wood. This
relation has great influence on the properties
and quality of manufactured plywood.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
recommends a moisture content of 5%-15% by
weight for plywood. Moisture content above or
below this range can have adverse effects on the
manufactured products and the environment.
• The plywood boards are prepared from thin
layers of wood or veneers. So Plywood is
specified by the number of layers.
• The three or more veneers in odd numbers are
placed one above the other with the direction
of grains of successive layers at right angles to
each other.
• They are held in position by application of
suitable adhesives. The placing of veneers
normal to each other increases the longitudinal
and transverse strengths of plywood.
• The tensile strength and compressive strength
along(parallel) the grain shall be greater than
that across(normal) the grain.
Q.40. Which of the given option is NOT
recommended as a desirable property of the
transporting truck used for collection of
municipal solid waste?
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(a) Strength and durability
(b) Water-tightness
(c) Sharp corners and edges
(d) Made of stainless steel
Ans: (c)
The desirable property of the transporting truck
used for collection of municipal solid waste:
(1) Strength and durability
(2) Water - tightness
(3) Made of stainless steel etc.
Strength and durability: These are essential for
a truck that carries heavy loads and operates in
different conditions.
Water-tightness: Prevents leaks and helps
maintain hygiene by containing the waste and
preventing odours.
Made of stainless steel: This material is resistant
to corrosion and easier to clean, promoting
better sanitation.
Note
Sharp corners and edges can cause injuries to Nagpur 159-386 10-12
workers during loading and unloading of waste.
They can also damage containers and collection
points. Therefore, smooth surfaces and Q.42. Experimental water absorption tests are
rounded edges are preferred for safety and done on fine aggregates to find the:
efficiency. (i) Water holding capacity
(ii) Strength of material
(iii) Quality of material
(iv) Shape of aggregates
(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (i) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (*) For this question, discrepancy is found
in question/answer.
Water absorption gives an idea of strength of
aggregate. Aggregates having more water
absorption are more porous in nature and are
Q.41. Soon before the passing of the Air generally considered unsuitable unless they are
Pollution Control Act, 1981 in India, an institute found to be acceptable based on strength,
called NEERI had conducted a survey of the impact and hardness tests.
prevailing air quality in 9 major cities of India. Limits: The water absorption of aggregates
Which of the following cities had SO2
i
ranges from 0.1 to 2.0%.
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concentration exceeding the maximum

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Q.43. For a closed traverse, the sum of latitudes

tolerable value of 80μg/m3?
il K

is 4 m and the sum of departures is 3 m. The

(a) Hyderabad (b) New Delhi
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closing error for the traverse would be.

C

(c) Kolkata (d) Ahmadabad (a) 3 m (b) 7 m

Ans: (c) (c) 5 m (d) 4 m
Air pollution control Act, 1981 in India– Ans: (c)
Ambient air quality monitoring was initiated in Given,
9 cities where zonal laboratories are located. Sum of latitude (ΣL) = 4m
suspended particulate matter (SPM), sulphur Sum of departures (ΣD) = 3 m
dioxide (SO2), sulphation rate (SR), oxidation of
𝒄𝒍𝒐𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒆𝒓𝒓𝒐𝒓 (𝒆) = √∑𝑳𝟐 + ∑𝑫𝟐
nitrogen (NOx) and dust fall (DF) were selected.
= √𝟒𝟐 + 𝟑𝟐 =
Annual Summary of air quality for 1979
E=5m
City SPM (µg/m³) SO2 (µg/m³)
Q.44. Calculate the capital value of a building
Mumbai 197-285 20-83 whose rent is ₹ 10,000 per annum, inclusive of
all taxes. Outgoings are 18% of the gross rent,
Kolkata 413-5172 28-85
and the expected rate of return is 9% with a 60
Delhi 296-481 Trace-39 year life of the building.
Hyderabad 255-295 26-27 (a) 81,000 (b) 91,111
Jaipur 222-379 Trace-17 (c) 75,000 (d) 1,01,000
Ans: (b)
Kanpur 206-344 10-25
Given,
Madras 106-169 10-25 Total income by rent = 10,000 Rs.
Outgoing = 18% gross rent known reduced level as on the benchmark or a
𝟏𝟖 change point.
Net income by rent = 10,000 – 10000 ×
𝟏𝟎𝟎 Fore sight (FS):
= Rs. 8200
The last staff reading taken before changing the
Rate of return r% = 9%
instrument to the other position. It is the staff
Cv × r% ×1 = Net income
𝟗 reading taken on point whose RL is to
CV × × 𝟏 = 8200 determined. This sight is considered as negative
𝟏𝟎𝟎
CV = 91111.11 Rs and deduced from Height of Instrument to
Q.45. The rainfall observed for five successive determine RL of the point.
days in a catchment is 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 cm. Intermediate sight (IS):
Compute the direct runoff the catchment due to All readings taken between back sight and fore
this rainfall. The φ index for the rainfall is sight.
assumed to debt be 2 cm/day. These are the points whose RL is determined by
the method already mentioned above in FS.
(a) 16 cm (b) 10 cm
In levelling
(c) 12 cm (d) 8 cm (a) If backsight is less than foresight (BS < FS),
Ans: (b) then backsight station is at higher point than
foresight station.
Time (b) If backsight is more than foresight (BS > FS),
Rainfall period -index Runoff then backsight station is at lower point than
(cm) (hrs) (cm/day) (cm) Remark foresight station
2 1 2 0 P=φ So in question
i
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During a levelling survey, the backsight of A was

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3 1 2 1 P>φ
found greater than the foresight reading at
il K

4 1 2 2 P>φ
point B. So like this elevation of B is more than
iv

5 1 2 3 P> φ
C

that of A.
6 1 2 4 P>φ

Total runoff = 0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 10 cm in a period

of 5 hours.

Q.46. During a leveling survey, the backsight of

A was found greater than the foresight reading
at point B. which of the following is correct?
(a) Height of instrument is required to know
which point is higher. Q.47. The dry density decreases in cohesion less
(b) Elevation of B is more than that of A. soil with an increase in water content due to
(c) Elevation of A is more than that of B. which of the following reasons?
(d) Either A or can have higher elevation. (a) Capillary rise (b) Bulking of sand
Ans: (b) (c) Seepage (d) Specific gravity
Back sight (BS): Ans: (b)
The first staff reading taken by the surveyor The dry density of cohesionless soils such as
after the levelling instrument is set up and sand decreases with a rise in water content
levelled. B.S is generally taken on the point of mainly because of the phenomenon known as
"bulking of sand."
When water is added to sand, a film of water
forms around the sand particles leading to the
increase in volume or "bulking." This thin film of
water pushes the sand particles apart, which
leads to an increase in the volume of the sand,
consequently .
Q.48. Rubbish in solid waste management is a
_______.
(a) putrescible solid waste
(b) Nuclear solid waste
(c) biodegradable solid waste
(d) non-putrescible solid waste
Ans: (d)
Rubbish: Rubbish is a general term applied to
solid wastes originating in households,
commercial establishments and institutions,
excluding garbage and ashes.
Rubbish in solid waste management is a non-
putrescible solid waste.
The density of rubbish usually varies between
i
50 to 400 kg/m³.
ol
Maximum
slenderness
Type of member ratio
A member carrying compressive loads
resulting from the dead load and the
imposed load 180
A tension member in which a reversal of
direct stress occurs due to loads other
than wind and seismic forces 180
A member subjected to compression
force resulting only from combination
with wind/earthquake actions, provided
the deformation of such members does
not adversely affect the stress in any part
of the structure 250
Compression flange of a beam against
lateral torsional buckling 300
A member normally acting as a tie in a
roof truss or a bracing system not
considered effective when subjected to a
possible reversal of stress into
compression resulting from the action of
wind earthquake forces. 350
Member always under tension (other

than pre-tensioned members) 400

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Q.49. As per IS 800: 2007, which of the following

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statements is correct regarding the maximum

iv

slenderness ratio? Q.50. Consider width of road 7.2 m and

C

(a) The maximum slenderness ratio of a pedestrian speed of 1.2 m/s, find green time for
member carrying compressive loads resulting pedestrian. Consider initial walk time as 7 s.
from dead load and imposed loads should not (a) 14 s (b) 26 s
exceed 350. (c) 6 s (d) 13 s
(b) The maximum slenderness ratio of a Ans: (d)
member carrying compressive loads resulting
Given,
from dead load and imposed loads should not
Width (W) = 7.2 m
exceed 250.
Pedestrian speed (Sp) = 1.2 m/s
(c) The maximum slenderness ratio of a Initial walk time = 7s
member carry compressive loads resulting from For Green time
dead load and imposed loads should not exceed 𝟏
180. (G) = Initial walk time +
𝒑𝒆𝒅𝒆𝒔𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒊𝒏 𝒔𝒑𝒆𝒆𝒅
(d) The maximum slenderness ratio of a
member carry compressive loads resulting from 𝟕.𝟐
=7+ = 7 + 6 = 13s
dead load and imposed loads should no exceed 𝟏.𝟐
200.
Q.51. Shear resistance of soil can be attributed
Ans: (c)
to.
(a) only friction
(b) cohesion and plasticity
(c) cohesion and friction
(d) cohesion and pore pressure
Ans: (c)
Shear strength of soil is capacity of soil to resist
shearing stresses. It can be defined as maximum
value of shear stress that can be mobilized
within a soil mass. If this value exceed by the
shear stress on any plane or a surface at a point,
failure will occur in soil because of movement of
a portion of soil mass along that particular
plane. The soil is then said to be fail in shear.
Therefore, shear strength generally represented
strength of soil.
As per Mohr- Coulomb criteria, Shear strength
of soil is given as:
𝝉 = C + σ tanφ
Where,
C is the Cohesion
σ is normal stress
φ is the friction angle
From above, it can be concluded that
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a. It increases with an increase in the normal
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stress.
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b. It is proportional to the cohesion of the soil
C
i.e. increases with increase in cohesion.
c. it increases with increases in friction angle.
Q.52. Allowance for contingencies can be
expressed as a percentage of _______.
(a) total cost
(b) supervision charges
(c) establishment charges
(d) rate of each item
Ans: (a)
Contingencies:
• It is an amount of money set aside to cover
any unexpected costs that can arise throughout
a construction project.
• It can be expressed as a percentage of total
cost of project.
• This money is on reserve and is not allocated
to any specific area of work.
For making any estimate workable, additional
expenses are to be added.
The followings are the additional expenses that
are to be considered during estimates:
a. Extra Expenses (contingencies) - 3 to 5%
b. Contract work establishments 1.5 to 2%
c. Tools and Machinery 1 to 1.5%
d. Contractor's profit - 10%
e. Departmental Profit - 10 to 15%
Q.53. Which of the following problems are
observed during the pouring of freshly prepared
concrete in hot weather?
(i) Rapid rate of hydration of cement
(ii) Quick setting and early stiffening
(iii) Greater plastic shrinkage
(iv) More finishing times
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (d)
Hot weather concreting
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Hot weather concreting is defined by ACI as
"one or a combination of the following
conditions that tend to impair the quality of
freshly mixed or hardened concrete by
accelerating the rate of moisture loss and rate
of cement hydration, or otherwise causing
detrimental results
1. High ambient temperature (more than 35°C)
2. High concrete temperature
3. Low relative humidity
4. High wind speed
Hot weather effect on concreting
• Increased water demand for required
consistency.
• Rapid evaporation of mixing water.
• Rapid slump loss.
• Increased plastic shrinkage.
• Difficulty in control of entrained air.
• Possible "Cold joints".
Q.54. In soil mechanics, the number and
disposition of bore holes are varied, depending
upon the__________________.
(a) earth surface
(b) atmosphere
(c) subsoil condition
(d) underground water
Ans: (c)
subsoil conditions that influence borehole
number and disposition:
• Soil type and stratification: Different soil
types, such as clay, sand, and rock, have varying
properties like strength, compressibility, and
permeability. Knowing the distribution of these
soil layers is crucial for foundation design and
other geotechnical applications.
• Presence of weak zones: Areas with soft
soil, cavities, or other weaknesses need to be
identified and investigated thoroughly. This
might require more boreholes in these areas
compared to stable ground.
• Depth of bedrock: Understanding the depth
and characteristics of the underlying bedrock is
essential for projects involving deep
foundations or excavation.
• Slope stability: For projects on slopes, the
number and location of boreholes will depend
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on the risk of landslides and the need to assess
il K
soil strength and drainage.
iv
Therefore, the number and disposition of
C
boreholes are primarily determined by the need
to obtain comprehensive information about the
subsoil conditions at the specific site. This
information is then used for various purposes,
including:
1. Foundation design
2. Slope stability analysis
3. Excavation planning
4. Groundwater management
5. Earthwork design
By understanding the subsoil conditions,
engineers can make informed decisions about
the design and construction of safe and stable
structures.
Q.55. In general shear failure, continuous failure
is developed between _____.
(a) ground surface and the footing
(b) soil and failure surface
(c) edge of the footing and ground surface
(d) foundation and ground surface.
Ans: (c)
Depending on the stiffness of the foundation
soil and the depth of the foundation, the
following are the modes of shear failure
experienced by the foundation soil:
General Shear Failure
This type of failure is seen in dense and stiff soil.
The following are some characteristics of
general shear failure.
1. Continuous, well-defined, and distinct failure
surface develops between the edge of the
footing and the ground surface.
2. Dense or stiff soil that undergoes low
compressibility experiences this failure.
3. Continuous bulging of shear mass adjacent to
footing is visible.
4. Failure is accompanied by tilting of footing.
Local Shear Failure
This type of failure is seen in relatively loose and
soft soil. The following are some characteristics
of general shear failure.
1. Significant compression of soil below the
i
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footing and partial development of plastic
equilibrium is observed.
2. Failure is not sudden and there is no tilting of
footing.
3. The failure surface does not reach the ground
surface and a slight bulging of soil around the
footing is observed.
4. The failure surface is not well defined.
5. Failure is characterized by considerable
settlement.
Punching Shear Failure of foundation soils
This type of failure is seen in loose and soft soil
and at deeper elevations. The following are
some characteristics of general shear failure.
1. This type of failure occurs in soil of very high
compressibility.
2. A failure pattern is not observed.
3. Bulging of soil around the footing is absent.
4. Failure is characterized by a very large
settlement
 shift in the transition curve? Take the radius of
the curve as 200 m.
(a) 0.42 m (b) 0.48 m
(c) 0.33 m (d) 3.68 m
Ans: (b)
Given,
Length of transition curve (L) = 48 m Radius of
the curve (R) = 200 m
For, shift in the transition curve
𝑳𝟐 𝟒𝟖𝟐
(S) = = = 0.48
𝟐𝟒𝑹 𝟐𝟒×𝟐𝟎𝟎

Q.58. In the relation ∆ = 8.64 B/D, if D is the duty

in hectare/cumec and B is the number of days
Q.56. The formula for specific gravity of fine of base period, then ∆ is the _______________?
aggregates as per IS 2386 (part 3) 1963, using (a) depth of water in m
the pycnometer is by the following: Specific
(b) duty in m
𝑾𝟐 −𝑾𝟏
gravity = (𝑾 (c) rotation period
𝟐 −𝑾𝟏 )−(𝑾𝟑 −𝑾𝟒 )

Where - (d) depth of water in cm

w1 = Empty weight of pycnometer Ans: (a)
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w2 = Weight of pycnometer + sample Duty:

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w3 = Weight of pycnometer + sample water It is the number of hectares of land irrigated for
il K

full growth of a given crop by a supply of 1

w4 = Weight of pycnometer + water
iv

cumec of water continuously during the entire

C

(a) Correct (b) Partially incorrect base period of that crop.

(c) Partially correct (d) Incorrect Delta:
Ans: (a) The total water depth required by a crop to
According to IS 2386 (Part 3) 1963, find out the attain its full maturity in its base period.
specific gravity by the pycnometer: Base Period:
The time period that elapsed from the instant of
Specific gravity = (𝑾
𝑾𝟐 −𝑾𝟏 the showing of the crop to the instant of its
𝟐 −𝑾𝟏 )−(𝑾𝟑 −𝑾𝟒 ) harvesting is called the base period or crop
period.
Where, The relation between Duty (D), Delta (A), and
w1 = Empty weight of pycnometer Base period (B) is given as:
w2 = Weight of pycnometer + sample
w3 = Weight of pycnometer + sample water 𝟖.𝟔𝟒𝑩
w4 = Weight of pycnometer + sample water
𝜟=
𝑫

Q.57. The length of the horizontal transition

where,
curve based on the allowable rate change of
D is the duty in hectare/cumec.
centrifugal acceleration is 48 m, and based on
B is the base period in number of days.
the rate of introduction of super-elevation is 40
∆ is the depth of water in meter.
m, and based on the empirical formula,
recommended by IRC is 45 m. What will be the
Q.59. As per IS 456:2000, the design bond stress Q.61. During the construction of sloped timber
τbd in limit state method for bars is tension for roof truss, for protection of timber, which of the
M40 grade of concrete is _____. following is essential?
(a) 1.2 N/mm2 (b) 1.7 N/mm2 (a) One coat of primer
(c) 1.5 N/mm2 (d) 1.9 N/mm2 (b) Two coats of paint over primer
Ans: (d) (c) One coat of paint
As per IS 456:2000 (d) Non Priming and no painting
The values of bond stress is for plain bar in Ans: (b)
tension
• To completely seal and prime new timber we
would recommend that you use at least two
Grade of coats.
Concrete M15 M20 M25 M30 M35 M40* The first coat is there to seal the timber and will
WSM 0.6 0.8 0.9 1 1.1 1.2 mostly be absorbed into the wood.
LSM - 1.2 1.4 1.5 1.7 1.9 • The second coat then rejuvenates the previous
coat and gives you a smooth and
complete finish.
Note– Q.62. A road has a design speed of 20 m/s and
• For deformed bars, these value shall be the radius of the horizontal curve is equal to 250
increase by 60%. m. Design the super-elevation that is needed on
• For bars in compression, these value of bond this road, with lateral friction coefficient value
stress for bars in tension shall be increased by of 0.15. (Take g = 10 m/s2.)
i
25%.
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(a) 0.09 (b) 0.22

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(c) 0.16 (d) 0.07

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Q.60. Find the discharge of water flowing over a

Ans: (d)
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rectangular notch of length 1m when the

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constant head over the notch in is 100 mm. Given,

Design speed (V) = 20 m/s = 72 km/h
Take CD = 0.60. Given √𝟐𝒈 = 𝟒. 𝟒𝟑 .
Radius of horizontal curve (R) = 250 m
(a) 56.8 litres/sec (b) 52.8 litres/sec Friction coefficient (f) = 0.15
(c) 48.5 litres/sec (d) 62 litres/sec g = 10 m/s2
Ans: (a) Step-1–
Given that, 𝒗𝟐 𝟕𝟐𝟐
eequilibrium = = = 0.092
Rectangular notch length (L) = 1 m 𝟐𝟐𝟓𝑹 𝟐𝟐𝟓×𝟐𝟓𝟎
Constant head over the notch (H) = 100 mm or e equilibrium > emax (0.07), then go for step 2.
0.100 m Step-2–
𝒗𝟐
CD = 0.60 𝒆+𝒇=
𝟏𝟐𝟕𝑹
√𝟐𝒈 = 𝟒 ⋅ 𝟒𝟑 𝒗𝟐
f= - emax
𝟏𝟐𝟕𝑹
𝟐 𝟕𝟐𝟐
For, Q = 𝑪𝑫 × 𝑳 × √𝟐𝒈 × 𝑯𝟑∕𝟐 f=
𝟏𝟐𝟕×𝟐𝟓𝟎
− 𝟎. 𝟎𝟕 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟗𝟑
𝟑
Here, f < 0.15, then provide, e = emax = 0.07.
𝟐 So, rate of super elevation is provide 0.07.
Q = × 𝟎. 𝟔𝟎 × 𝟏 × 𝟒. 𝟒𝟑 × 𝟎 ⋅ 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟑∕𝟐
𝟑
Q = 56.035 = 56.8 litres/sec Q.63. Allowable bearing capacity is defined as.
(a) net ultimate bearing capacity/FOS
(b) net safe bearing capacity + 𝜸Df
(c) net loading intensity at which soil just fails in Stress in slab base 185
shear
(d) net loading intensity at which neither shear Q.65. Calculate the total charge given to three
failure nor settlement failure occurs in soil. laborers for their earthwork excavation, with
Ans: (d) them working from 9 a.m. to 6 p.m. with an
Ultimate bearing capacity: hourly working charge of ₹ 50.
It is the minimum pressure at the base of the (a) ₹ 1,350 (b) ₹ 450
foundation soil fails in shear. (c) ₹ 350 (d) ₹ 500
Safe bearing capacity: It is the maximum
Ans: (a)
pressure at which soil can carry without shear
failure. Given,
Net load intensity: It is the minimum net load at Labours = 3
which shear failure of soil can occur. Working time = 9 am to 6 pm
Allowable bearing capacity: The net intensity of Total hours = 9 hours Hourly
loading which the foundation will carry without working charge = 50 Rupees
undergoing settlement in excess or the Charges of work, per labour in total working
permissible value for the structure under hours = 9 × 50 = 450 Rs.
consideration but not exceeding net safe Total charges by three labour = 1350 Rs.
bearing capacity is termed as allowable bearing
capacity. Q.66. Which of the following assumptions is
NOT valid in case of design of axially loaded
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compression members in the steel design?

Q.64. The design criterion for laterally
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supported steel beams with respect to crippling (a) The modulus of elasticity is assumed to be
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recommends that the maximum permissible constant in a built-up column.

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(b) The ideal column is assumed to be

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bearing stress should NOT exceed ______ times

of the yield stress of steel (fy). absolutely straight with no crookedness.
(a) 0.66 (b) 0.80 (c) The modulus of elasticity is assumed to vary
(c) 0.40 (d) 0.75 in a built-up column.
Ans: (d) (d) Secondary stresses are neglected.
Ans: (c)
As per IS 800: 2000, permissible stresses in steel Compression member:
structures members: • A compression member is a structural
Permissible Factors of member which is straight and subjected to two
Types of stress stress (MPa) safety equal and opposite compressive forces applied
Axial tensile stress 0.60 fy 1.67 at its ends.
Assumptions made while designing a
Max. axial compression member (or column):
compression stress 0.60 fy 1.67 • The ideal column is assumed to be absolutely
Bending tensile and straight having no crookedness, which never
compressive stress 0.66 fy 1.515 occurs in practice.
Average shear stress 0.40 fy 2.5 • The modulus of elasticity is assumed to be
Maximum shear constant in a built-up column.
stress 0.45 fy 2.22 • Secondary stresses(which may be of the order
of even 25%-40% of primary stresses) are
Bearing stress 0.75 fy 1.33
neglected.
Q.67. ………….. is the correct formula to
determine the elevation difference (dZ)
between two points on the ground using a total
station.
(VD = Vertical difference, HI = Instrument
height and HR = Reflector height)
(a) dz = VD – (HI + HR) (b) dz = VD (HI + HR)
(c) dz = VD (HI – HR) (d) dz = VD + (HI – HR)
Ans: (d)
Total Station
A total station is an electronic theodolite and an
electronic distance meter ( EDM ). This
combination makes it possible to determine the
coordinates of a reflector by aligning the
instrument’s cross hairs on the reflector and
simultaneously measuring the vertical and
horizontal angles and slope distances.
Total Stations only measure three parameters :
Horizontal Angle
Vertical Angle
Slope Distance
Horizontal Distance
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Hd = Sd cos ( 90* – Za ) = Sd sin Za
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where Sd is the slope distance and Za is the
zenith angle. The horizontal distance will be use
in the coordinate calculations.
Vertical Distance
dZ = Vd + ( HI – HR )
Vertical difference between two points = VD
Instrument height = HI
Reflector height = HR
Elevation difference (dz)
The quantities HI and HR are measure and
recorded in the field. The vertical difference Vd
is calculate from the vertical angle and the slope
distance
Vd = Sd sin ( 90* – dz ) = Sd cos dz
Q.68. A revised estimate is prepared.
(a) when the sanctioned estimate is likely to
exceed more than 5%, without structural
alteration
(b) when there is material deviation of
structured nature
(c) when the sanctioned estimate is likely to
exceed more than 5%, with important structural
alterations
(d) when the expenditure of the work exceeds
20% of the administrative approval
Ans: (a)
Revised estimate
The revised estimate is a detailed estimate for
revised quantities and the rate of items of works
originally provided in the estimate without
material deviation of a structural nature from
the design originally approved for a project.
It is required to be prepared for the following
reasons:
i) When a sanctioned estimate is likely to exceed
by more than 5% either from the rates being
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found insufficient or from cause whatsoever
except important structural alteration.
ii) When the expenditure of works exceeds or is
likely to exceed by more than 10% of the
administrative approval (for work more than 5
lakhs/-)
iii) When there are material deviations from the
original proposal but not due to the material
deviation of structural nature.
iv) When it is found that the sanctioned
estimate is more than the actual requirement.
Q.69. Among the following, the correct
sequence of WBM construction will be:
i. Preparation of subgrade
ii. Spreading of Coarse aggregates
iii. Application of binding material
iv. Application of screenings
v. Provision of lateral confinement
(a) i, iv, ii, iii, v (b) i, ii, iv, iii, v
(c) ii, i, iv, v, iii (d) i, v, ii, iv, iii
Ans: (d)
Water bound macadam roads:
In this method, the broken stones of the base
course and surface course, if any, are bound by
the stone dust in presence of moisture.
The roads whose wearing course consist of
clean crushed aggregates, mechanically
interlocked by rolling and bound together with
filler material and water and laid on a well
compacted base course, is called water bound
macadam road.
The Process of WBM is
(1) Preparation of subgrade
(2) Provision of lateral confinement
(3) Spreading of coarse aggregate
(4) Application of screenings
(5) Application of binding material
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Q.70. An isolated footing of RCC is supporting a
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pedestal. The critical section for the bending
moment should be chosen at.
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(a) at the face of the column
(b) halfway between the centre line and the
edge
(c) a distance equal to half the depth of the
column from the face of the column
(d) a distance equal to the depth of the column
from the face of the column
Ans: (a)
(1) CI. 34.2.3.1 of IS 456:2000, The bending
moment at any section shall be determined by
passing through the section a vertical plane
which extends completely across the footing
and computing the moment of the forces acting
over the entire area of the footing on one side
of the said plane.
(ii) CI. 34.2.3.2 of IS 456:2000, The greatest
bending moment to be used in the design of an
isolated concrete footing which supports a
column. pedestal or wall shall be the moment
computed in the manner prescribed in 34.2.3.1
at sections located as follows:
• At the face of the column, pedestal, or wall,
for footings supporting a concrete column,
pedestal, or wall;
• Halfway between the center-line and the edge
of the wall, for footings under masonry walls;
• Halfway between the face of the column or
pedestal and the edge of the gusseted base, for
footings under gusseted bases.
Q.71. Which of the following is an INCORRECT
statement related to the height of the
instrument (HI) used in leveling?
(a) The value of HI never changes while
recording fore sights.
(b) The value of HI generally changes before
recording back sights.
(c) The value of HI never changes while
recording intermediate sights.
(d) The value of HI never changes after recording
back sights.
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Ans: (d)
Height of instrument
It is the elevation or reduced level of the line of
sight with respect to the datum.
HI = Backsight + Elevation of Bench Mark
Backsight (BS):
• It is the staff reading taken on the point of the
known elevation as on a benchmark (BM) or
change point. The backsight reading is the first
staff reading taken after the level is set up and
leveled at the point. It is also known as Plus
sight.
• The value of HI generally changes before
recording back sights.
• e.g. If the elevation of any point (P) is known
then the staff reading on station P is known as a
Back sight-reading.
Foresight (FS):
• It is a staff reading taken on a point whose
elevation has to be determined through the
leveling process. It is also known as minus sight.
The foresight is also taken towards a change
point. It is the last reading taken before the
instrument is shifted.
• The value of HI never changes while recording
fore sights.
• e.g. If the elevation of station Q is to be
determined, then the staff reading taken on
station Q is called Foresight.
Intermediate sight:
• It is the staff readings taken on staff held at
other points whose elevations are to be
determined before the foresight is taken.
Intermediate sights are all staff readings
between the BS and FS.
• The value of HI never changes while recording
intermediate sights.
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Q.72. The lining like cement concrete, pre-cast
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cement concrete, etc. gives a smooth surface to
the canal. Smoothness of the canal bed and the
sides ______the discharge of the canal and the
duty of water.
(a) reduces
(b) neither reduces nor enhances
(c) doesn’t affect
(d) enhances
Ans: (d)
Canal lining : It is process of covering or lining
the earthen surfaces of a canal with stable, non-
erodible lining surface such as concrete, tiles,
asphalt etc. Lining gives a smooth surface to the
canal.
• The smoothness of the canal bed and sides
increases the velocity of flow which further
increases the discharge of the canal.
• Due to the increased discharge, the duty of
water will be more. So, to increase the duty, the
canal surface should be made smooth.
• The lining like cement concrete, pre-cast
cement concrete etc gives smooth surface to the
canal.
Advantages of lining a canal are the following.
Seepage Control: As the earthen surfaces are
lined, so the seepage loss in the lined canal
reduces considerably and stops the
uncontrolled seepage which takes place in an
unlined canal. This in turn saves huge amount of
water which can be used for irrigation purposes.
Constant(flatter) hydraulic gradient(i) : Because
of minimal seepage and infiltration head loss is
i
almost constant along the length.
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Prevention of Water Logging: In case of unlined
canals, due to uncontrolled seepage water table
often can rise to ground level leading to water
logging. By lining canals water logging and
subsequent increment in salinity can be
prevented.
Increased canal capacity(Q): As the surfaces are
lined and smooth, so the frictional resistance is
considerably less in case of lined canals. Less
frictional resistance results in increased flow of
water per unit time which leads to more canal
capacity.
Reduction in maintenance cost: Lining of canal
may incur huge capital cost but the
maintenance cost reduces substantially. The
maintenance cost due to periodic silt removal,
periodic removal of weeds and water plants and
maintenance cost for minor repairs are
substantially reduced by lining canals
Q.73. If a curve setup on a highway has a
deflection angle of 120° between its tangents
and a versine distance of 225 m, then the
sharpness of the curve subtended by an arc of
length 30 m will
be __________. Increased agricultural productivity: Farmers can
(a) 5° (b) 3° grow more crops and have higher
(c) 4° (d) 6° yields, leading to greater income and improved
food security.
Ans: (c)
Diversification of crops: With stable water
Given, supply, farmers can experiment with new crops
Deflection angle (D) = 120º and agricultural practices, potentially increasing
Versine distance (M) = 225 m income and resilience.
Arc length = 30 m Improved employment opportunities: Irrigation
𝜟
Mid-ordinate (M) = R (𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔 ) can create jobs in various sectors like
𝟐
𝜟 𝜟 construction, maintenance of irrigation
Versine = (𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔 )
𝟐 𝟐 infrastructure, and processing of agricultural
produce.
The mid-ordinate of the curve is also known as So irrigation provide source of income , that can
the versine of the curve. provide social upliftment of the people in rural
𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎
𝟐𝟐𝟓 = 𝑹 (𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔 ) areas can be achieved by implementing proper
𝟐
𝟐𝟐𝟓 = 𝑹(𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟔𝟎𝟎 ) irrigation practices.
R = 450 m Q.75. In case of welded connection in steel
𝟏𝟕𝟐𝟎
𝑹= structures, during welding, a defect is caused by
𝑫
𝟏𝟕𝟐𝟎 coating of the parent metal with a foreign
𝑫= matter and because the groove is not kept clean
𝑹
𝟏𝟕𝟐𝟎
i
𝑫= This defect is known as
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𝟒𝟓𝟎
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= 𝟑 ⋅ 𝟖𝟎 = 𝟒𝟎 (a) lack of fusion (b) overlap

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Q.74. Select the option that is appropriate (c) incomplete penetration (d) slag inclusion
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Ans: (a)
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regarding the following two statements labeled

Assertion and Reason.
Assertion: Social upliftment of the people in
rural areas can be achieved by implementing
proper irrigation practices.
Reason: Irrigation will create a lot of
employment opportunities for rural people.
(a) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason is false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Ans: (c)
Proper irrigation practices can indeed
contribute to the social upliftment of people in
rural areas. This is because reliable access to
water for agriculture leads to several positive
outcomes:
Types of defects in Welding
Incomplete Penetration
• When butt welding, incomplete penetration
typically happens because the joint thickness
doesn't entirely fill the space between the
metals.
• This indicates that the joint is not fused on one
side in the root.
Lack of fusion-
• Lack of fusion results from foreign debris
coating the parent metal and from improper
cleaning of the groove.
• These are typically found in welds where the
welding operator has improperly manipulated
the electrode or employed incorrect welding (a) discharge will be high and the pressure will
variables. be low.
• Lack of fusion problems can also result from (b) discharge will be low the pressure will be
improper joint fit and design. constant
(c) discharge will be constant and the pressure
will be low
(d) discharge will be constant and the pressure
will be high.
Ans: (d)
(1) Pipe is connected in series–
• Pipes in series is defined of different lengths
and different diameters connected end to end.
Slag Inclusions
• In connection, discharge will be constant and
An inclusion is a solid foreign matter that is
the pressure will be high.
entrapped during welding.
It can be a metallic inclusion such as tungsten,
Q1 = Q2 =Q3 = constant
copper or other metal or a slag inclusion which
may be linear, isolated or grouped. 𝟒𝒇𝟏 𝑳𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟏 𝟒𝒇𝟐 𝑳𝟐 𝒗𝟐𝟐
• It can also be a non-metallic inclusion such as 𝑯= + + ⋯+ 𝒏
𝟐𝒈 × 𝒅𝟏 𝟐𝒈 × 𝒅𝟐
sulphide and oxide which are a product of
chemical reactions, physical effects and
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contamination which occurs during welding.

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(2) Pipe connected in parallel–

A main pipe which divides into two or more
branches and again join together downstream
Over-roll/Overlap
to form a single pipe, then the branch pipes are
• The weld metal that covers the parent metal
said to connected in parallel.
surface at the weld's toe but hasn't fused to it is
The rate of flow in the main pipe is equal to the
this. Usually brought on by an incorrect torch
sum of rate of flow through branch pipe
angle and a slow travel speed.
Q = Q1 + Q2
In this arrangement, the loss of head for each
branch pipe is same.

𝟒𝒇𝟏 𝑳𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟏 𝟒𝒇𝟐 𝑳𝟐 𝒗𝟐𝟐

=
𝟐𝒈×𝒅𝟏 𝟐𝒈×𝒅𝟐

Q.76. If the pipes are connected in series, then

the.
Q.77. Which of the following methods of
quarrying is suitable for quarrying small, thin
and regular blocks of stones from rocks such as
granite and gneiss?
(a) Blasting (b) Wedging
(c) Excavating (d) Heating
Ans: (d)
The methods of quarrying the stone are as
follows:
(A) Blasting:
• in this method, explosives are used to convert
rocks into small pieces of stones.
• This method is used when the stone to be
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excavated is of very hard variety and has no
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cracks or fissures.
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• Moreover, if a stone is to be excavated on a
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very large scale, the blasting method will have
to be adopted.
• After blasting, the excavated stone is sorted
out into different sizes and categories.
• Explosives such as blasting powder, blasting
cotton, dynamite, and cordite are used.
(B) Digging or Excavating:
• Stones buried in the earth or under loose
overburden are excavated with pickaxes,
crowbars, chisels, hammers, etc.
(C) Heating:
• Heating is most suitable for quarrying small,
thin, and regular blocks of stones from rocks,
such as granite and gneiss.
• A heap of fuel is piled and Fred on the surface
of the rock in a small area.
• The two consecutive lavers of the rocks
separate because of the uneven expansion of
the two layers.
• The loosened rock portions arc broken into
pieces of the desired size and are removed with
the help of pick-axes and crowbars.
• Stone blocks so obtained are very suitable for
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coarse rubble masonry.
(D) Wedging:
• This method is mainly used for the rock of
sedimentary type, which is comparatively soft,
such as sandstone, limestone, marble, slate,
laterite.
• In this method, first of all naturally occurring
cracks or fissures are located in the rocks, to be
excavated.
• The steel wedges or points are then driven
with the help of a hammer, in hammer fissures
or cracks and stones are detached.
• The split-out blocks of stone can be converted
into marketable forms and supplied to users.

(E) Channeling Machines:
• In this method, the channeling machines are
driven by steam, compressed air, or electricity
are used to make vertical or oblique grooves or
channels on the rock mass and make rapidly the
grooves. • This process of separation of stone
from the rock mass is almost
invariably employed in the case of limestones,
marbles, and other soft
sandstones.
• It is possible to separate very large blocks of
stones from the rocks by the application of this
method.
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Q.78. The Department of Environment (DOE)
method is basically used for which of the
following purposes?
(i) Concrete mix design
(ii) Road mix design
(iii) Mix Design with pulverized fuel ash
(iv) Mix Design with GGBFS
(a) Both (iii) and (iv) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) (d) Only (i), (ii), (iv)
Ans: (c)
The Department of Environment’s Design
Method (DOE Method):
The DOE method of mix design is an
improvement over Road Note No. 4 method.
This method of concrete mix design or
proportioning mainly is based on the extensive
field and laboratory experiments carried out by
Road Research laboratory U.K.
The Department of Environment (DOE) method
is used for
• Concrete mix design
• Concrete Pavement mix design
• Concrete Mix Design with pulverized fuel ash
• Concrete Mix Design with GGBFS
Q.79. Bamboo is commonly used in the
construction of scaffoldings, bridges and
structures due to its:
i. Strong fibre content
ii. Elasticity
iii. Tensile strength
(a) All of (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(b) Only (i) is correct.
(c) Only (ii) is correct.
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct.
Ans: (a)
Bamboo as a building material has high
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compressive strength and low weight has been
one of the most used building material as
support for concrete, especially in those
locations where it is found in abundance.
Bamboo as a building material is used for the
construction of scaffolding, bridges and
structures, houses.
Advantages of Bamboo as a Building Material
The various advantages of bamboo are as
mentioned below:
1. Tensile strength: Bamboo has higher tensile
strength than steel because its fibers run axially.
2. Fire Resistance: Capability of bamboo to
resist fire is very high and it can withstand
temperature up to 4000 C. This is due to the
presence of high value of silicate acid and water.
3. Elasticity: Bamboo is widely preferred in
earthquake prone regions due to its elastic
features.
4. Weight of bamboo: Bamboos due to their low
weight are easily displaced or installed making
it very easier for transportation and
construction.
5. Unlike other building materials like cement
and asbestos, bamboo poses no danger to
health.
6. They are cost effective and easy to use.
7. They are especially in great demand in
earthquake prone areas.

Disadvantages of Bamboo
Bamboos come with their own set of drawbacks
such as:
1. They require preservation
2. Shrinkage: Bamboo shrinks much greater
than any other type of timber especially when
it loses water. Q.81. The angle of intersection of two straights
3. Durability: Bamboo should be sufficiently is 120°. Find the ratio of the length of long chord
treated against insect or fungus attack before to the tangent length.
being utilized for building purposes.
(a) √𝟑 (b) 1
4. Jointing: Despite prevalence of various
techniques of jointing, structural reliability of (c) 1 √𝟑 (d) 0.866
bamboo is questionable. Ans: (a)
Q.80. While using grading limits of the Zone- IV : Given,
Angle of intersection = 120º
i
sand for mortars, what is the percentage of sand
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that should pass through a 600 µ IS sieve? Deflection angle (∆)

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(a) 40% – 100% (b) 70% – 100% =180º – angle of intersection

(∆) = 180º – 120º = 60º
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(c) 80% – 100% (d) 0% – 15%

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Ans: (c) 𝑳𝒆𝒏𝒈𝒕𝒉 𝒐𝒇 𝒍𝒐𝒏𝒈 𝒄𝒉𝒐𝒓𝒅 (𝑳)

As per IS:383, recommends the following Ratio =
𝑻𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝒍𝒆𝒏𝒈𝒕𝒉(𝑻)
𝜟
grading limit for fine aggregates: 𝟐𝑹 𝒔𝒊𝒏
𝟐 𝜟
= 𝜟 = 𝟐𝒄𝒐𝒔
𝑹𝑻𝒂𝒏 𝟐
𝟐
Sieve Size 𝟔𝟎𝟎
(mm or Grading Grading Grading Grading = 𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔 = 𝟐 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟑𝟎𝟎
𝟐
micron) Zone-I Zone-II Zone-III Zone-IV √𝟑
=𝟐× = √𝟑
10 mm 100 100 100 100 𝟐

4.75 mm 90-100 90-100 90-100 95-100

Q.82. In plane surveying, level lines are
2.36 mm 60-95 75-100 85-100 95-100 considered as_______ and plumb lines are
1.18 mm 30-70 55-90 75-100 90-100 considered as_____.
600 (a) parallel; straight (b) straight; straight
micron 15-34 35-59 60-79 80-100
(c) parallel; parallel (d) straight; parallel
300
Ans: (d)
micron 5-20 8-30 12-40 15-50
classified broadly into two main categories:
150
micron 0-10 0-10 0-10 0-15 1. Plane surveying
2. Geodetic surveying

Plane Surveying
• In this type of surveying, the mean surface of 𝛑𝐑𝟒 𝛑𝐑𝟒
(c) (d)
the earth is considered as a plane, and the 𝟒 𝟏𝟔

spheroidal shape is neglected. Ans: (c)

• All triangles formed by survey lines are • Polar Moment of Inertia is a measure of an
considered plane triangles. object's capacity to oppose or resist torsion
• The level line is taken as straight, and all when some amount of torque is applied to it on
plumb lines are considered to be parallel. a specified axis.
• Plane surveying is done for smaller areas in • Polar Moment of inertia also known as the
consideration i.e Areas <195km² second polar moment of area is a quantity used
Geodetic surveying to describe resistance to torsional deformation.
This is a type of surveying in which the shape of • It is denoted as I, or J.
the earth is taken into account. • All lines are
taken as curved lines and triangles as spherical
triangles.
• Geodetic survey includes work of larger
magnitude and high degree of accuracy.
• The purpose of geodetic survey is to
determine the precise position on the surface of
earth, of a system of widely distant points which
form control stations to which surveys of less
precision may be referred.
Geodetic surveys are employed for an area
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larger than 195 km2

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Q.83. For an RCC beam of width 230 mm and

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effective 300 mm subjected to a shear force of

69 kN due to loads what will be the nominal
Q.85. Select the correct option for the given
shear stress in the beam?
statements.
(a) 10 N/mm2 (b) 1 N/mm2
Statement 1 : Laminates are the production
(c) 0.01 N/mm2 (d) 0.1 N/mm2 made by bonding together two or more layers
Ans: (b) of materials.
Given, Statement 2: High-pressure decorative
Width of beam (B) = 230 mm laminates are pasted on plywood sheets, which
Effective depth of beam (d) = 300 mm are used for large areas like cabinets, wide door
Shear force (V) = 69 kN = 69 × 103 N shutters, tables, etc.
Nominal shear stress (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false
𝒗
(τ)= (b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
𝑩𝒅
𝟔𝟗×𝟏𝟎𝟑
= (c) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
𝟐𝟑𝟎×𝟑𝟎𝟎
= 𝟏𝑵 𝑰𝒎 𝒎𝟐 (d) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
Q.84. Polar moment of inertia about central axis Ans: (b)
of a semi-circular lamina with radius R is given Laminates
as____. Laminates are constructed by bonding together
𝛑𝐑𝟒 𝛑𝐑𝟒 multiple layers of different materials. They offer
(a) (b) several advantages like increased
𝟐 𝟖
strength, flexibility, and resistance to heat and Fixed time signal
wear. • The timing of each phase of the cycle is fixed
based on the traffic studies.
• Signals time cycle does not change with
respect to the change in traffic flow at the
intersection.
Q.87. Calculate the charges for a truck (diesel)
to transport material for 8 hours in a day with a
rate of ₹ 200/hour.
(a) ₹ 1,000 (b) ₹ 1,500
High-pressure decorative laminates are (c) ₹ 1,600 (d) ₹ 2,000
commonly used for surfaces on Ans: (c)
furniture, walls, and other interior design Given,
elements. Plywood sheets typically serve as the Charges of truck per hour = Rs. 200
substrate for these laminates in larger Work in a day = 8 hours
applications like cabinets, doors, and tables. Total charges per day =
Total hours × charge of truck per hour
= 200 × 8 = Rs. 1600
Q.86. Which of the following is/are NOT the
characteristic of traffic actuated signals? Q.88. A rectangular shape of stress distribution
i
diagram at the base of a circular chimney is
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i. It is costly.
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shown in figure. By referring to it, it may be

ii. The cycle time changes as per traffic demand.
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concluded that _________?

iii. The cycle time changes as per the time of the
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day.
iv. Computers and detectors are used to operate
this signal.
(a) The chimney is subjected to bending stress
(a) Both ii and iv (b) Both iii and iv
only
(c) Only iii (d) Only ii
(b) the chimney is subjected to both bending as
Ans: (c)
well as direct compressive stress
Actuated signals.
(c) The chimney is subjected to direct
• In this type of signal system, signal timings are
compressive stress only
completely influenced by the traffic volume as
detected on all approach roads(where as it is (d) the chimney is subjected to wined pressure
not influenced as per the time of the day) only.
• Initial cost is very high for the installation of Ans: (c)
traffic signals. Stress distribution diagram at the base of a
Sensors and detectors are used to operate the circular chimney:
signals. Wind pressure(P) acting on the chimney
• Let wind pressure(P) kN/m2 act on the left
Semi actuated signal side of the chimney the height and diameter of
• In this type of signal system, timings are the chimney are h and D respectively.
affected when vehicles are detected. • The direct stress is the same base on the
• Suitable only when low volume Road chimney because the weight or load of the
intersects, high volume Road.
chimney is uniformly distributed in the base (c) Electrostatic precipitators can collect dry or
area. wet particulates.
𝑾𝒆𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝑪𝒉𝒊𝒎𝒏𝒆𝒚(𝑾)
Direct stress (σd ) = (d) Bag filters work on the principle of
𝑨𝒓𝒆𝒂 𝒐𝒇 𝒄𝒉𝒊𝒎𝒏𝒆𝒚(𝑨)
interception and electrostatic attraction.
• Bending stress at the base of the chimney due Ans: (a)
to wind pressure Electrostatic precipitators
𝑴 • Electrostatic precipitators are used to remove
Bending stress(σb) = the fine particles like smoke and dust from the
𝒛
Where flowing gas.
M = Moment generated due to wind pressure • It is a commonly used device for air pollution
Z = Section modulus of chimney control and mostly used in steel plants, thermal
Let the maximum stress at the base of the power plants etc.
chimney be σ max and the minimum stress at the • It uses an electric charge to remove
base of the chimney be σ min. particulate matter either in the form of solid or
σmax = σd + σb liquid droplets from air or other gases in smoke
σ min = σd – σb stacks or other flues.
• The particulates which can be dry or wet, fall
into a hopper at the bottom of the unit.
• They are extremely effective and are capable
of removing more than 99% of particulate
matter of size smaller than 10 µm size.
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• As the question omax is equal to σ min , we can

conclude that there is no bending force
occurring due to wind action and hence only
force acting on base is its own dead load(direct
compressive load) and the stress diagram will
look like below.
Q.89. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
(a) Collection efficiency of the cyclone collector
is high for smaller particles.
(b) Electrostatic precipitators are widely used in
thermal power plants.
Cyclone separators
• Most cyclones are built to control and remove
particulate matter is larger than 10 µm.
However, high efficiency cyclones are also
available that are designed to remove the
particles as small as 2.5 µm.
• In this system, a whirling column of gas is
produced by means of axial tangential and into
the cylindrical body.
• As the cylindrical body is rotated due to
centrifugal force wing on the particles, It makes
them move to the periphery of the gas stream
and in the runs they collide with the walls of the
cyclone well, thus separating them due to their
mass.

Bag filters
Bag filters operate primarily through
mechanisms like interception (particles collide
with and stick to the filter fibers) and, in some
cases, electrostatic attraction (where charged
particles are attracted to oppositely charged
filter surfaces).
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Q.90. Some steps related to collection of
municipal solid waste have been mentioned
below.
A. Collection by sweepers in small hand driven
carts.
B. Dumping into masonry chambers
constructed along roadsides.
C. Collection in small containers in individual
houses.
D. Collection into municipal trucks.
What is the correct sequence of the
conventional system of collection of municipal
solid waste, as per Indian scenario from start to
end?
(a) C-A-B-D (b) C-B-A-D
(c) A-C-D-B (d) A-D-B-C
Ans: (a)
The sequence of the conventional system of
collection of municipal solid waste–
1. Collection in small containers in individual
houses.
2. Collection by sweepers in small hard driven
carts.
3. Dumping into masonry chambers constructed
long road sides.
4. Collection into municipal trucks
Q.91. The law of flow of water through the soil
was first studied by ___________.
(a) Rankine (b) Boussinesq
(c) Darcy (d) Francis
Ans: (c)
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The flow of free or gravitational water through
a soil mass was first studied by Henry Darcy a
French hydraulic engineer.
Darcy's law states that there is a linear
relationship between flow velocity (v) and
hydraulic gradient (i) for any given saturated soil
under steady laminar flow conditions.
Q.92. Venturimeter is an application of
Bernoulli’s equation. Its basic principle also
depends on the Bernoulli equation, which
is________?
(a) both velocity of moving fluid and pressure
within fluid constant
(b) velocity of a moving fluid increases and the
pressure within the fluid decreases
(c) both velocity of moving fluid and pressure 1. Ridge Canal
within fluid increases • It is also called a watershed canal.
(d) pressure within the fluid increases and • Aligned along the ridge or natural watershed
velocity of moving fluid increase line.
Ans: (b) • Can irrigate areas on both sides of the ridge.
• Bernoulli's Principle is given by Swiss physicist • Cross drainage work not requires.
Daniel Bernoulli derived an expression relating • They are economical.
the pressure to fluid speed and height in 1738.
• Bernoulli's Principle is based on the Law of
conservation of energy.
• Bernoulli's Principle states that the sum of the
pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential
energy per unit volume of an incompressible,
non- viscous fluid in a streamlined flow remains
constant.
𝟏 2. Contour canal
𝑷 + 𝝆𝒗𝟐 + 𝝆𝒈𝒉 = 𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒕 • Aligned nearly parallel to the contours of the
𝟐
country.
• Can irrigate areas only on one side.
• Cross drainage works are required.
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In fluid dynamics, Bernoulli's principle states

that an increase in the speed of a fluid occurs
simultaneously with a decrease in static
pressure or a decrease in the fluid's potential
energy. 3. Side Slope Canals
• Aligned roughly at right angles to the contour
of the country.
Q.93. Match the following types of canals with
• It is neither on the watershed nor in the valley,
their types of alignment.
• In can irrigate areas only on one side.
• It is roughly parallel to the drainage of the
Type of Canal Type of Alignment country, so cross drainage works are not
1. Aligned roughly at required.
A. Ridge canal
right angles to the • It has a very steep bed slope
contours
B. Contour canal 2. Aligned along the
watershed
C. Side slope canal 3. Aligned nearly
parallel to the contours
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2 (b) A-3, B-2, C-1
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1
Ans: (d)
Q.94. Due to the presence of ________, the 3. Carpet area–The covered area of the useable
cement derives the characteristic grey colour. spaces of rooms at any floor is termed as carpet
(a) gypsum (b) magnesia area.
(c) silica (d) iron oxide 4. Circulation area–Area that is helpful in
movement of people through the building
Ans: (d)
around the building.
Different constituents of OPC–
Percentage
Constituent Range (%) Role in Cement
Primary contributor to
strength and hardening
Calcium Oxide through hydration
(CaO) 60-67 reactions with water.
Provides structure and Q.96. In an aqueduct, natural drainage is _____
strength to the cement the canal.
matrix. Reacts with CaO (a) at the level of (b) below
Silicon Dioxide to form calcium silicate
(SiO2) 20-25 minerals. (c) above (d) parallel to
Increases setting time and Ans: (b)
improves workability. Aqueduct
Forms calcium aluminate • An aqueduct is a hydraulic structure which
Aluminum minerals that contribute
carries a canal (through a trough) across and
Oxide (Al2O3) 4-8 to early strength.
above the drainage similar to a bridge in which
Influences clinker color
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and affects setting time.

instead of the road or a railway, a canal is
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Ferric Oxide Plays a role in strength carried over a natural drain.

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(Fe2O3) 2-6 development.

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Improves cement
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soundness and prevents

Magnesium excessive expansion or
Oxide (MgO) 0.5-5 cracking.
Acts as a flux during
clinker formation but
needs to be controlled to • in the case of an aqueduct, HFL (highest flood
Sulfur Trioxide avoid sulfate-related level) of the drainage should remain lower than
(SO3) 1-3 expansion issues. the level of the underside of the canal trough.
Sodium Oxide • The drain flows at atmospheric pressure under
(Na2O) & Minor components the work.
Potassium influencing setting time • Generally, an inspection road is provided
Oxide (K2O) 0.5-1.5 and workability.
along with the trough
Q.95. Which of the following is defined as the
area of a building measured at floor level? Syphon aqueduct
(a) Floor area (b) Plinth area • A syphon aqueduct is a cross drainage
(c) Circulation area (d) Carpet area structure similar to an aqueduct except that the
Ans: (b) streambed is depressed locally where it passes
under the trough of the canal and the barrels
1. Plinth area–The built up covered area of a
discharges the streamflow under pressure.
building measured at floor level of any storey.
• A syphon aqueduct is constructed where the
2. Floor area–It is the plinth area excluding area
water surface level of the drain at high flood is
of walls.
higher than the canal bed.
Floor area = Plinth area – Wall area
• The horizontal floor of the barrels is provided
with slopes at its ends to join the drain bed on
either side.
• The drain water flows under pressure through
the barrels which act as inverted syphons and
hence this cross drainage work is known as
syphon aqueduct.
Q.97. Which of the following types of pumps
can give discharge even at a high pressure?
(a) Mono-block pumps
(b) Rotary pumps
(c) Multistage pumps
(d) Single-stage pumps
Ans: (b)
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Rotary pumps are positive displacement
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pumps. Rotary pumps have two or more
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rotating components. The discharge of rotary
components remains almost the same
irrespective of pressure. They can give discharge
even at high pressure. In the other options, the
type of pumps mentioned is all non-positive
displacement types.
Q.98. Which of the following statements
regarding characteristics of contour lines is
INCORRECT?
(a) Contour lines of different elevation cannot
cross each other.
(b) Contour lines close to one another indicate a
steep slope.
(c) Contour lines of different elevations cannot
intersect.
(d) Contour lines of different elevations can
units to form one line only in the case of vertical
cliff.
Ans: (d) As per ssc final answer key answer is d
but C is most appropriate answer
Characteristics of Contour line:
• Closed contour lines with higher values inside
show a hill.
The variation of the vertical distance between
any two contour lines is assumed to be uniform.
• To contour lines having the same elevations
cannot unite and continue as one line. Similarly,
a single contour cannot be split into two lines
• The horizontal distance between any two
contour lines indicates the amount of slope and
varies inversely on the amount of slope.
• The steepest slope of terrain at any point on a
contour is represented along the normal of the
contour at that point. They are perpendicular to
ridge and valley lines where they cross such
lines.
• Contours do not pass through permanent
structures such as buildings.
• Contours of different elevations cannot cross
each other (caves and overhanging cliffs are the
exceptions).
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• Contours of different elevations cannot unite
to form one contour (a vertical cliff is an
exception).
• Equally spaced contour represents a uniform
slope and contours that are well apart indicate
a gentle slope.
• Closely spaced contours indicate a steep
slope.
• Whereas in the case of depressions, lakes, etc.
the higher figures are outside and the lower
figure is inside.
Q.99. Which of following statements is incorrect
regarding the fineness of cement?
(a) The fineness of cement can be tested by
determination of the specific surface of cement.
(b) The unit of the fineness of cement is cm3/kg.
(c) increase in the fineness of cement increase
the drying shrinkage of concrete.
(d) the specific surface of cement can be
determined by using an air permeability
apparatus.
Ans: (b)
The following properties is regarding the
fineness of cement–
1. The fineness of cement can be tested by
determination of the specific surface of cement.
2. The unit of the fineness of cement is cm2 /kg
3. Increase in the fineness of cement increase
the drying shrinkage of concrete.
4. The specific surface of cement can be
determined by using an air permeability
apparatus.
Q.100. The roof of a room was considered as the
BM. inverted staff reading on this BM was 3.500
m. The staff reading of point P on the ground
was1.200 m. Find the RL of point P, if the RL of
the bench mark is 100 m.
(a) 102.3 m (b) 95.3 m
(c) 97.7 m (d) 104.7 m
Ans: (b)
Given,
RL of BM = 100 m
The staff reading on point "P" = 1.200 m
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HI = RL of BM – BS (in inverted condition)

HI = (100.00 – 3.500) m
HI = 96.500 m
RL of point "P" = HI – Staff reading on point "P"
= (96.500 – 1.200 )m
= 95.300 m
SSC JE PRE CIVIL 10 October water over the ground
2023 Evening Shift Paper surface
C. Base flow 3. Portion of water
Q.01. For which of the following applications in
that moves laterally in
leveling is an inverted staff reading most
the upper part of the
suitable?
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(a) Leveling across a wall
(a) A-1, B-3, C-2 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3
(b) Leveling across an intervening, high or low
ground (c) A-1, B-2, C-3 (d) A-2, B-3, C-1
(c) Leveling across a steep slope Ans: (d)
(d) Leveling across a lake Surface Runoff
Ans: (a) • The unconfined flow of water, which travels all
the time over the surface and as overland flow
Inverted staff reading
and through the channels as open channel flow
• Inverted staff readings are used when a point
and reaches the catchment outlet is called as
to be leveled is above the instrument's line of
Surface Runoff.
sight, making it impossible to take a normal
Interflow
reading.
• A part of precipitation that infilters moves
• When a point for which R.L is to be
laterally through the upper crusts of the soil and
determined is at a very high level above the line
returns to the surface at some location away
of sight, for example, the roof of a building,
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from the point of entry into the soil.

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chajja, etc the leveling staff should be inverted

• Also known as through flow, storm seepage,
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such that bottom of leveling staff should touch

subsurface storm flow or quick return flow.
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a point. It is taken as a negative reading.

C

Base Flow
• In the case of leveling across a wall, the top of
• The delayed flow that reaches a stream
the wall is above the line of sight, so an inverted
essentially as groundwater (sub- surface) flow
staff reading is necessary.
at shallow depth is called base flow.
Q.03. Which of the following methods are not
used for the analysis and design of water tanks?
(a) Carpenter's simplified method
(b) Reissner's method
(c) Rankine method
(d) BIS code method
Ans: (c)
Q.02. Match the basic terms used in the runoff Methods for water tank analysis and design:
given in the first column with their meanings in Carpenter's Simplified Method: This method is
the second column. specifically developed for the analysis of
A. Surface runoff 1. Delayed sub- rectangular water tanks resting on the ground.
surface It provides a simplified approach to calculating
flow at shallow depth stresses in walls and slabs, making it a practical
B. Interflow 2. Unconfined flow of tool for engineers.
Reissner's Method: This method is a more
general approach for analyzing thin-walled
structures, including water tanks. It accounts for
bending and membrane stresses, providing a
more accurate analysis for complex tank
shapes.
BIS Code Method: The Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS) codes, specifically IS 3370,
provide comprehensive guidelines for the
design and construction of reinforced concrete
water tanks. They cover various aspects,
including load calculations, material
specifications, and reinforcement detailing.
Q.04. Shelby tube is one of the most widely
used devices for.
(a) collecting undisturbed
(b) measuring effective stress and plotting Mohr
envelope
(c) drilling rocks
(d) wash borings and drilling cobbles
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Ans: (a)
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• Galvanized Steel Shelby tube samplers are
C
thin-walled, hollow steel tubes which are driven
into the ground to extract a relatively
undisturbed soil sample for use in laboratory
tests used to determine permeability,
compressibility and strength.
• Each tube has one end that is chamfered to
form a cutting edge and the upper end includes
holes for securing the tube to a drive head.
Shelby tubes are useful for collecting soils that
are particularly sensitive to sampling
disturbance including fine cohesive soils and
clays.
• The tubes can also be used to transport
samples back to the lab as well.
Q.05. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT?
(a) Lower water-cement ratio leads to lower
workability.
(b) Graphically, the relation between the
strength of concrete and the water-cement ratio
is approximate cubic.
(c) Lower water-cement ratio is required when
the concrete mix is mechanically compacted to
achieve higher strength as compared to the
hand-compacted concrete mix with higher
water-cement ratio.
(d) Lower water-cement ratio is, the higher will
be the strength of concrete.
Ans: (b)
• Water Cement ratio (W/C) is the ratio of the
weight of water to the weight of cement in a
concrete mix. This ratio decides the strength
and workability of concrete.
• According to Abram's law, the strength of a
concrete mix is inversely related to the weight
ratio of water to cement.
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• According to Abram's law, the compressive
strength increases parabolically with decreasing
water-cement ratio.
• A lower ratio leads to higher strength and
durability but may make the mix difficult to
work with and form. Water cement ratio is
inversely proportional to the strength of
concrete, lower water-cement ratio leads to an
increase in the bond between the aggregates,
cement, and sand.
Q.06. The constituents of paint in suspension • Example:- Turpentine, White spirit, Naptha,
are held by which vehicle that also help in its Benzine, Petroleum, etc
evenly distribution? 5. Drier:
(a) Binder (b) Pigments • The main function of a drier is to increase the
(c) Base (d) Plaster of Paris drying power of the vehicle. They act as oxygen-
Ans: (a) carrying catalysts.
Constituents of paint: • Example:- Litharge, Red lead, Sulphate of
1. Base: manganese, etc
• It is a metallic oxide which is the principal 6. Plasticizer:
constituent of a paint. It makes the paint film • They remain permanently in paints and
opaque & processes binding properties which varnishes. They improve the elasticity of the
reduce the shrinkage cracks in the film on paint film which prevents cracking of the film.
drying. Q.07. In the case of a_______the brickwork is
• Example:- White lead, Red lead, Zinc oxide, not measured in cubic metres.
Iron oxide, etc (a) reinforced brickwork
2. Vehicle or drying oils: (b) half-brick wall
• The vehicle is the liquid substance that holds (c) brickwork in arches
the ingredients of paint in liquid suspension. (d) one and more than one brick wall
They are required mainly for two reasons:
Ans: (b)
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• To make it possible to spread the paint evenly

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According to IS 1200 (Part-3) 1976 clause 4.1.1

and uniformly on the surface in the form of a
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brickwork is measured in following way–

thin layer.
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Brickwork Measurement
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• To provide a binder for the ingredients of paint

Wall thickness < One Sq. meter (measured
so that they may stick or adhere to the surface brick thick separately)
• Example:- Linseed oil, Tung oil, Poppy oil, Nut One brick thick < wall Multiplies of half
oil, etc thickness < 3 brick brick occurs and it
3. Extenders or fillers: thickness measures–
• The function of the addition of filler in paint is (i) upto 1/4th brick -
that it improves the properties of the paint and Actual measurement
(ii) Exceeding 1/7th
mainly reduces the cost. The main purpose is to
brick - full half brick.
increase pigment volume concentration. Wall thickness < Actual thickness shall
• Example:- Gypsum, Calcium carbonate, three bricks be measured
Aluminium silicate, Magnesium silicate, Talc, Q.08. Which of the following stresses is mainly
Diatomite, etc responsible for the stability of a masonry
4. Thinners or solvents: chimney?
• It is a volatile solvent, which is often added to (a) Tensile stresses due to earthquake.
paint which helps to adjust the consistency of (b) Bending stress due to horizontal wind
the paint. pressure.
• Solvents of oil paints are used to thin the (c) Direct stress due to self-weight of the
paints and increase the spread. chimney.
(d) Shear stress due to wind pressure
Ans: (c)
Chimney:
• Only two main forces are considered on the
chimney, one due to wind pressure and the
other due to the self-weight of the chimney.
• Direct stresses are developed due to the self-
weight of the chimney and bending stresses are
developed due to wind pressure on the
chimney. Direct stresses are responsible for
stability of chimney.
• For stress calculations or analysis of forces on
a chimney, the wind pressure is assumed to act
on the projected area of the chimney.
Projected area:
The projected area is the area where the wind
hits (or strikes) the chimney. Therefore this area
is equal to the width of the outer face where the
wind strikes multiplied by the height of the
chimney.
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Projected area = (Height of chimney) × (External
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diameter of chimney shaft)
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Q.09. As per IS 1203-1978 in the penetration
test of bitumen, a standard tapered needle is
used to calculate.
(a) softening point
(b) consistency of the bitumen binder
(c) the required quantity of colour
(d) binder capacity
Ans: (b)
Penetration test
• Penetration value test on bitumen is a
measure of hardness or consistency of
bituminous material.
• A 80/100 grade bitumen indicates that its
penetration value lies between 80 & 100.
• Penetration value is the vertical distance
traversed or penetrated by the point of a
standard needle into the bituminous material
under specific conditions of load, time and
temperature.
• This distance is measured in one tenths of a
millimeter. Penetration test is used for
evaluating consistency of bitumen.
• This test is conducted out a specified
temperature of 25ºC
• No. of sample = 3, needle dia = 1 mm, length =
50 mm, weight = 100 gm
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Q.10. Which of the following is a type of pump
based on the type of power?
(a) High-lift pump (b) Steam engine pump
(c) Low-lift pump (d) Centrifugal pump
Ans: (b)
Pumps on the basis of type of power is classified
as–
(i) Steam engine pump
(ii) Diesel engine pump
(iii) Electrically driven pump.
Pumps on the basis of type of service is • It is the vertical distance between the two
classified as– consecutive steps.
(i) Low lift pump Stringer
(ii) High lift pump • It is an structural component that supports the
(iii) Deep well pump treads and risers.
(iv) Booster pump
Q.11. The horizontal platform that is used for
connecting two flights of a staircase is
called_______.
(a) Connector (b) landing
(c) thread (d) stringer
Ans: (b)
Components of the Stair
Landing
• It is the horizontal platform provided at the
top of a flight. If the landing is of a rectangular Q.12. Which of the following options explain
shape, having a length equal to twice the width the effect of cold weather on concrete?
of the stairs, the landing is called Half-Space (i) Delay in setting and hardening
Landing. (ii) Freezing of concrete at early age
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• If on the other hand, the stairs run at right

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(iii) Alternate Freezing and Thawing

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angles to each other and are separated by a (a) Both (ii) and (iii) (b) Both (i) and (ii)
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square landing, the landing is-called Quarter (c) Only (i) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
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Space Landing. Ans: (d)

Pitch
Cold Weather Concreting:
• It is the horizontal projection between the first
Cold Weather Concreting is defined by ACI 306
and the last riser of an inclined flight.
as a period when for more than three successive
• The maximum pitch for a domestic building
days the average daily air temperature drops
should not exceed 42° and for a public building,
below 4°C. There are two main problems with
it should not exceed 33°.
pouring concrete in cold winter weather.
Going
Effects of cold weather concreting
• the going of a flight of stairs is the horizontal
Delay in freezing and thawing
distance between two successive risers.
• It is likely that due to the varied behaviour of
Nosing
climatic conditions in the cold weather regions,
• It is the front edge of the tread which projects
the fresh concrete or hardened concrete gets
beyond the riser
subjected to freezing and thawing cycles. The
Tread
durability of concrete gets greatly impaired due
• The horizontal portion of the step is called the
to this alternate freezing and throwing. Freezing
tread. The horizontal distance between the two
and thawing may also exert fatigue in the
consecutive risers is called Go,Going, or Run.
concrete.
Rise
Freezing of concrete at an early age
• When the temperature goes below the
freezing point, the free water contained in the
plastic concrete freezes. Freezing of water, not
only prevents the hydration of cement but also
makes the concrete expand. This expansion
disrupts concrete due to which irreparable loss
of strength and quality takes place.
Delay in setting and hardening
• The rate of hydration depends upon the
temperature. If the temperature is low,
concrete takes a long time to set and a longer
time to harden i.e., for the development of
strength. The delay in setting time makes
concrete vulnerable to frost attacks and other
disturbances. Delay in the hardening period
doesn't facilitate the removal of formwork in a
short period. Also, the rate of progress of work
will be very slow, which affects the economy.
Q.13. A road pavement should have which of
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the following qualities?
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(a) Undulation (b) Deflection
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(c) Non yielding (d) Yielding
Ans: (c)
Non-yielding of pavement
The road pavement must be non-yielding in
order to withstand the heavy wheel load and
allow the movement of traffic with the least
resistance possible. There must be no
undulations in the pavement to allow smooth
riding and comfort to passengers.
Q.14. The quantity of water in a reservoir, which
cannot be utilized under normal operating
conditions and is stored below the minimum
pool level, is known as_______?
(a) dead storage (b) live storage
(c) surcharge storage (d) valley storage
Ans: (a)
Zones of storage in Reservoir
1. Full reservoir Level:- The full reservoir level is
the highest water level to which the water
surface will rise during normal operating
conditions.
2. Maximum water level:- The maximum water
level is the maximum level to which the water
surface will rise when the design flood passes
over the spillway.
3. Minimum pool level:- The minimum pool
level is the lowest level up to which the water is
withdrawn from the reservoir under ordinary
conditions.
4. Dead Storage:- The volume of water held
below the minimum pool level is called the
dead storage. It is provided to cater for the
sediment deposition by the impounding
sediment laid in water. Normally it is equivalent
to the volume of sediment expected to be
deposited in the reservoir during the design life
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reservoir.
5. Live/Useful Storage:- The volume of water
stored between the full reservoir level and
minimum pool level is called useful storage. It
assumes the supply of water for a specific
period to meet the demand.
6. Bank Storage:- It is developed in voids of soil
cover in the reservoir area and
becomes available as seepage of water when
water levels drops down. It increases the
reservoir capacity over and above that given by
elevation storage curves.
7. Valley storage: The volume of water stored by
the natural river channel in its
valley up to the top of its banks before
constructing of a reservoir is called the valley
storage. The valley storage depends upon the
cross-section of the river.
8. Flood/Surcharge storage:- It is storage
contained between maximum reservoir level
and full reservoir levels. It varies with the
spillway capacity of the dam for a given design (b) the deflection angle is large and the radius of
flood. curvature is small
(c) both the deflection angle and the radius of
curvature are small
(d) the deflection angle is small and the radius
of curvature is large
Ans: (c)
• Offsets from tangents method is the linear
method used for setting out simple circular
curves on the roadway
• This method is adopted when both the
Q.15. Which of the following methods can be
deflection angle and radius of curvature are
used to lower the water table by using gravity
small.
flow?
• The offsets from tangents are calculated and
(a) Well point system
set to get the required curve
(b) Water suction method
• The offsets from the tangency is classified as–
(c) Dewatering
(i) Radial offsets
(d) Dehydration
(ii) Perpendicular offsets
Ans: (a)
Radial Offsets: If the centre of the curve is
The ground water table can be lowered by
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accessible from the points on the tangent then

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following methods :-
this method of curve setting is used.
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1.Ditches and dumps

Perpendicular Offsets: If the centre of a circle is
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2.Well point system

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not visible, perpendicular offsets from tangent

3.Shallow well system
4.Deep well system
5.Vacuum method
6.Electro-osmosis method.
Well point system
• These are used to lower groundwater levels
and help provide safe working conditions during
excavation.
• Wellpoint systems consist of a number of
small diameter wells, which are connected with
a header pipe to a wellpoint pump.
• The wellpoint pump then creates a vacuum
that draws water up from the
ground.
Q.16. Offsets from the tangents method of
curve setting can be adopted if________.
(a) both the deflection angle and the radius of
curvature are large
can be set to locate the points on the curve.
Q.17.________is the method of location an
offset point from 2 different points on a chain
line in such a way that all the three points form
a near-equilateral triangle.
(a) Method of ties
(b) Swing offset method
(c) Oblique offset method
(d) Perpendicular offset method
Ans: (a)
Offset
Offset is the perpendicular distance taken from
either side of the chain line running in a
particular direction. The purpose of offset is to
locate the objects which lie in the vicinity of the
main survey line.
They may be of two kinds - perpendicular and
oblique
1. Perpendicular Offset: When these lateral
measurements are taken perpendicular to the
chain line.
Perpendicular offsets may be taken in the
following ways:
i) By setting a perpendicular by swinging tape.
ii) By setting a right angle in the ratio 3: 4: 5.
iii) By setting a right angle with the help of
builder square or tri square.
iv) By setting a right angle by cross-staff or
optical square.
2. Oblique Offset: Any offset not perpendicular
to the chain line is said to be oblique. These are
taken when the objects are at a long distance
from the chain line or when it is not possible to
set up the right angle due to some difficulties. It
involves more measurements and difficulties
than perpendicular offsets.
Method of ties–The purpose of a tie line is two-
fold, firstly it enables checking of the accuracy
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of the network and secondary locating the
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interior details, which are comparatively for
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away from the main survey line.
• Generally, it is a method of locating offset
point from two different point on a chain line
and all three points form a near equilateral
triangle.
Q.18. Which of the following options represents
the methods that can be used effectively to
locate the routes of highways or railways from a
contour map?
(a) Method of cross-section and the tracing of
contour gradient method
(b) Method of cross-section and the equal depth
contours method
(c) Tracing of contour gradient method and the
equal depth contours method.
(d) Tracing of contour gradient method and the
method of horizontal plane
Ans: (a)
Methods of Contouring
There are two methods of Contouring:
(i)Direct Method, and
(ii)Indirect Method
Direct Method of Contouring
• The method Involves direct field
measurements, and the establishment of
Vertical and horizontal controls.
• Vertical and horizontal controls are
established for points on the selected contour
line.
• Instruments of Leveiling, involving different
types of Levels, are used for establishing vertical
control.
• The plane of collimation/height of the
instrument is determined, and the required
staff reading for the contour line is calculated.
• The staff man moves up and down the area
until the required staff reading is obtained.
• Horizontal control of the point is established
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using surveying instruments.
• The process is repeated for other points where
the same staff reading can be found,
establishing horizontal control for each point.
• Several points are established on one or two
contour lines and noted down.
• Plane table survey is ideally suited for this
method.
• The instrument is shifted to cover more area
after required points are established.
• Hand level and Abney levels may be used for
faster levelling.
• The method is slow, tedious, but accurate .
• It is suitable for small areas.
Indirect Method of Contouring
This approach involves selecting specific points
and decreasing their elevations. Consequently,
horizontal control is initially established,
followed by determining the elevations of those
points. Once the points are located on the plan,
their reduced elevations are marked, and
contour lines are interpolated between the
selected points. Various methods can be
employed for point selection, including:
(a) Method of Squares
(b) Method of Cross-Section
(c) Radial Line Method
Method of Squares
In this method, the area is divided into several
squares, and each grid point within those
squares is marked. The commonly employed
size of the square in this method ranges from 5
m × 5 m to 20 m × 20 m. Levelling is conducted
to establish the elevations of all grid points.
Subsequently, the grid square is plotted on the
drawing sheet. The reduced levels of grid points
are marked, and contour lines are drawn
through interpolation.
Method of Cross-Section
• in this method, cross-sectional points are
selected at regular intervals. Levelling is
performed to determine the reduced levels of
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these points. The points are then marked on the
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drawing sheets, and their reduced levels (RL)
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are indicated. Contour lines are subsequently
interpolated between these marked points.
• The spacing of cross-sections depends on
factors such as the terrain characteristics, map
scale, and desired contour interval. Typically,
the spacing ranges from 20 m to 100 m. Smaller
intervals are necessary when the ground level
undergoes significant variations. It's important
to note that the cross-sectional line does not
always have to be perpendicular to the main
line. This method is particularly suitable for
road and railway projects.
Radial Line Method
• In this method, multiple radial lines originate
from a central point within the surveyed area.
The direction of each line is recorded. At specific
distances along these lines, points are marked
and their elevations are determined. This
technique is particularly well-suited for
surveying in hilly terrains. Theodolites equipped
with tacheometry capabilities are commonly
employed in this type of survey.
• To interpolate contour points between two
given points, one can utilize any of the following
methods:
(a) Estimation
(b) Arithmetic calculation
(c) Mechanical or graphical interpolation.
In the mechanical or graphical method of
interpolation, contour points are linearly
interpolated using a tracing sheet
Q.19. Which of the following may NOT be a
direct effect of noise pollution?
(a) Stomach disorder
(b) Hearing loss
(c) Migration of birds from cities
(d) Anxiety
Ans: (a)
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Noise pollution
Noise pollution also known as environmental
noise or sound pollution is the propagation of
noise with ranging impacts on the activity of
human or animal life.
Effect of noise pollution–
• Repeated interference with sleep
• Effect on hearing or deafness
• Mental or physiological effect
• Hypertension or high blood pressure
• Migration of bird from cities
• Anxiety
Q.20. According to IS 456 : 2000, for an RCC
footing, the thickness of the footing at the edge
shall NOT be less than_______for footing on
soils.
(a) 150 mm (b) 100 mm
(c) 200 mm (d) 50 mm
Ans: (a)
According to I.S. 456-1978, the thickness of
reinforced concrete footing on piles at its edges
is kept less than 15 cm.
However, from the updated IS Module of
456:2000:
As per IS 456: 2000, Clause 34.1.2,
Thickness at the Edge of Footing
In reinforced and plain concrete footings, the
thickness at the edge shall be not less than 150
mm for footings on soils.
For footings on piles, the thickness at the edge
shall be not less than 300 mm (30 cm) above the
tops of piles.
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Q.22. In a fillet welded connection of steel
structures, the sides containing the right angle
of the fillet are called______.
(a) throats (b) toes
(c) legs (d) roots
Ans: (c)
Throats: The throat is the depth of the weld
measured perpendicular to the weld face along
the shorter leg.
Toes: The toes are the thin edges of the weld
where the weld metal merges with the base
metal.
Legs: The legs are the two sides of the triangular
weld that meet at the right angle.
Roots: The root is the bottom of the weld where
the weld metal meets the base metal at the
joint.
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Q.21. Calculate the approximate mass density Q.23. The dimension of Manning's roughness
of oil with 4.5m3 of the volume and 40 kN of coefficient ‘n’ is.
weight. (Consider g = 10 m/s2) (a) L−1/3T (b) L−2/3T
(a) 889 kg/m3 (b) 809 kg/m3 (c) L−1/6T-1 (d) L−1/2T−2
(c) 920 kg/m3 (d) 850 kg/m3 Ans: (a)
Ans: (a) TERM UNIT/DIMENSION
Given that, Manning co-efficient (N) L−1/3T
Volume of oil (V) = 4.5 m3
Load (P) = 40 kN = 40 × 103 N Permeability (k) LT−1
𝟒𝟎×𝟏𝟎𝟑 Specific speed of pump (Ns) M0L3/4T-3/2
Mass (M) = Kg, = 4× 𝟏𝟎𝟑 Kg
𝟏𝟎
Specific speed of turbine (Ns) M1/2T-5/2L-1/4
g = 10 m/s2
Chazy constant (C) M0L1/2T-1
𝐌𝐚𝐬𝐬 𝟒×𝟏𝟎𝟑 Q.24. In soil mechanics, what is Darcy constant?
Mass density = =
𝐕𝐨𝐥𝐮𝐦𝐞 𝟒.𝟓
(a) coefficient of liquefaction
= 888.88 kg/m3
= 889 kg/m3 (b) coefficient of permeability
(c) coefficient of compressibility
(d) coefficient of compaction
Ans: (b)
Darcy's Law states that velocity of flow through
porous media is directly proportional to
hydraulic gradient for any given saturated soil
under steady laminar flow conditions.
If the rate of flow is Q through the cross-
sectional area (A) of the soil mass, Darcy's Law
can be expressed as
V ∝ i or V = Kx i
Q= K x i x A
k = coefficient of permeability of the soil
Excessive silt and clay contained in the
aggregates may result in increased shrinkage or
permeability in addition to poor bond
characteristics. The excessive silt & clay may
also necessitate greater water requirements for
given workability.
Q.27. What is the value of slope on the inside
face of the flange for all the standard I-sections
and channels sections of steel?
𝟑 𝟐
(a) 𝟏𝟔 % (b) 𝟏𝟔 %
𝟒 𝟑
𝟒 𝟏
(a) 𝟏𝟔 % (b) 𝟏𝟔 %
𝟓 𝟐

i = dh/dl Ans: (b)

dh = difference in total heads All standard I-sections and channel sections
𝟐
dl = length of small soil element have a slope of 𝟏𝟔 % on the inner face of the
𝟑
Q.25. The coefficient of discharge (Cd) in terms flange.
of the coefficient of velocity (Cv) and the • The rolled steel I-sections are most commonly
coefficient of contraction (CC) is. used as beams because of greater lateral
(a) Cd = CV/CC (b) Cd = CV + CC stability, larger moment of resistance and
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higher moment of inertia with less cross

(c) Cd = CC/CV (d) Cd = CV × CC
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Ans: (d) • The rolled I-section steel beams exhibit

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Co-efficient of velocity – Ratio between actual comparable torsional and warping rigidities.
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velocity of a jet of liquid at vena contracta and the • The channel section, which have one web and
theoretical velocity of the jet. two flange exist.
𝐀𝐜𝐭𝐮𝐚𝐥 𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐨𝐜𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐯
Cv = = [Cv = 0.95 – 0.99]
𝐓𝐡𝐞𝐨𝐫𝐞𝐭𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐨𝐜𝐢𝐭𝐲 √𝟐𝒈𝑯
Q.28. The ratio Nc/Nq for a purely cohensive soil
Co-efficient of contraction – is_____.
𝐀𝐫𝐞𝐚 𝐨𝐟 𝐣𝐞𝐭 𝐨𝐟 𝐯𝐞𝐧 𝐜𝐨𝐧𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐜𝐭𝐚 𝒂𝒄 (Nc and Nq are Terzaghi bearing capacity
Cc = =
𝐀𝐫𝐞𝐚 𝐨𝐟 𝐨𝐫𝐢𝐟𝐢𝐜𝐞 𝒂 factors).
Cc = 0.611 (a) 5.7 (b) 2.57
Co-efficient of discharge–
𝐀𝐜𝐭𝐮𝐚𝐥 𝐝𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐛𝐞
(c) 5.14 (d) 2.85
Cd = Ans: (a)
𝐓𝐡𝐞𝐨𝐫𝐞𝐭𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐝𝐢𝐬𝐜𝐡𝐚𝐫𝐠𝐞
Sol - According to Tergazhi's bearing capacity
𝐀𝐜𝐭𝐮𝐚𝐥 𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐨𝐜𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐀𝐜𝐭𝐮𝐚𝐥 𝐚𝐫𝐞𝐚
Cd = × Formula –
𝐓𝐡𝐞𝐨𝐫𝐞𝐭𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐯𝐞𝐥𝐨𝐜𝐢𝐭𝐲 𝐓𝐡𝐞𝐨𝐫𝐞𝐭𝐢𝐜𝐚𝐥 𝐚𝐫𝐞𝐚
Cd = Cv × Cc [Cd = 0.99] Qu = c.Nc + q.Nq + 1/2 B.γ.Nγ
Q.26. Silt content in fine aggregate leads In case of cohesive soil,
to_____. φ = 0, Nc = 5.7, Nq = 1, Nγ = 0
(a) increased shrinkage Then ultimate bearing capacity
(b) excellent bond characteristics Qu = 5.7c + q
(c) decreased permeability where shows,
(d) increased durability
Ans: (a)
𝐍𝐜 𝟓. 𝟕 • Moreover, if a stone is to be excavated on a
= = 𝟓. 𝟕
𝐍𝐪 𝟏 very large scale, the blasting method will have
• For non-cohesive soil or cohesionless soil to be adopted.
• After blasting, the excavated stone is sorted
c=0
out into different sizes and categories.
Qu = q.Nq + 1/2 B.γ.Nγ
• Explosives such as blasting powder, blasting
Q.29. The bearings of two lines AB and AC cotton, dynamite, and cordite are used.
measured by using a surveyor's compass are S
26° 40’ E and N 18o30' W, respectively. The value
of ∠BAC measured in clockwise direction
is_____
(a) 188° 10’ (b) 189° 10’
(c) 134° 10’ (d) 135° 10’
Ans: (a)
Ans. (a) : Given that,
(B) Digging or Excavating:
Bearings of two lines AB = S 26°40' E • Stones buried in the earth or under loose
AC = N 18°30' W overburden are excavated with pickaxes,
Then, the value of ∠BAC in clockwise direction– crowbars, chisels, hammers, etc.
∠BAC = 180 – 18°30' + 26°40'
∠BAC =188°10'
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(C) Heating:
• Heating is most suitable for quarrying small,
Q.30. Which of the following methods of
thin, and regular blocks of stones from rocks,
quarrying is suitable for costly, soft and
such as granite and gneiss.
stratified rocks such as sandstone, limestone,
• A heap of fuel is piled and Fred on the surface
laterite, marble and slate?
of the rock in a small area.
(a) Blasting (b) Wedging
• The two consecutive lavers of the rocks
(c) Excavating (d) Heating
separate because of the uneven expansion of
Ans: (b)
the two layers.
The methods of quarrying the stone are as • The loosened rock portions arc broken into
follows: pieces of the desired size and are removed with
(A) Blasting: the help of pick-axes and crowbars.
• in this method, explosives are used to convert • Stone blocks so obtained are very suitable for
rocks into small pieces of stones. coarse rubble masonry.
• This method is used when the stone to be
excavated is of very hard variety and has no
cracks or fissures.

(D) Wedging:
• This method is mainly used for the rock of
sedimentary type, which is comparatively soft,
such as sandstone, limestone, marble, slate,
laterite.
• In this method, first of all naturally occurring
cracks or fissures are located in the rocks, to be
excavated.
• The steel wedges or points are then driven
with the help of a hammer, in hammer fissures
or cracks and stones are detached.
• The split-out blocks of stone can be converted
into marketable forms and supplied to users.
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(E) Channeling Machines:
• In this method, the channeling machines are
driven by steam, compressed air, or electricity
are used to make vertical or oblique grooves or
channels on the rock mass and make rapidly the
grooves.
• This process of separation of stone from the
rock mass is almost
invariably employed in the case of limestones,
marbles, and other soft
sandstones.
• It is possible to separate very large blocks of
stones from the rocks by the application of this
method.
Q.31. The mechanical device which is used to
measure flow velocity, where the number of
revolutions of the wheel per unit time are
proportional to the velocity of the flowing
water is the_______.
(a) rotameter (b) pitot tube
(c) current meter (d) float
Ans: (c)
Current meter: It is the device that is used to
measure the velocity of the flow of fluid.
The relation between velocity and the number
of revolutions completed by current meter is
V= a x N + b
Where,
V = velocity in m/s, and N = Number of
revolutions done by current meter in 1 second
a & b = current meter constant.
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Q.32. As per the Indian Railway, the gauge is
defined as.
(a) The clear distance between outer faces of
two track rails
(b) The centre to centre distance of two track
rails
(c) The length of the sleeper-width of the
sleeper
(d) The clear distance between inner faces of
two track rails
Ans: (d)
The gauge of a railway track is defined as the
clear distance between the inner or running
faces of two-track rails.
The distance between the inner faces of a pair
of wheels is called the wheel gauge.
The following table gives the length of the rail
for different types of gauges:-
 Type of gauge Length of Rail surrounding concrete thereby introducing strain
B.G 12.8 m compatibility and composite/combined action
M.G 11.89 m of steel and concrete which avoids slippage of
N.G 11.89 m reinforcing bars from within the concrete.
• The basic assumption of the flexural theory
Indian Railways has standardized a rail length of
that plane sections remain plane before and
13 m (previously 12.8 m) for broad gauge and 12
after the bending is valid only if the bond
m (previously 11.8 m) for MG and NG tracks.
between the concrete and the steel is effective.
• In the absence of a bond, the reinforcing bar
in concrete is just like a string wherein the stress
is constant at all the points on the string.
• It is because of the bond only that the axial
Q.33. Identify water-borne diseases from the
following. stress (tensile, compressive) in the reinforcing
I. Typhoid bar varies along its length from point to point.
II. Hepatitis • This is essential to accommodate the variation
III. Malaria in bending moment along the length of flexural
(a) Only II and III (b) Only I members.
(c) Only I and III (d) Only I and II
Q.35. Traffic engineering does NOT include
Ans: (d)
which of the following?
i
Water-borne diseases are the ones caused by
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I. Geometric design
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pathogenic microbes spread via contaminated II. Traffic studies and analysis
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water. III. Road user characteristics

iv

Various types of water borne disease– IV. Marshall mix design

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1. Cholera 2. Typhoid 3. Shigellogis 4. Diarrhea (a) Only iii (b) Only i

(c) Both i and iv (d) Only iv
5. Amoebas 6. Food poisoning 7. Leptospirosis
Ans: (d)
8. Hepatitis A 9. Helminthiasis
Traffic Engineering
Q.34. The absence of a bond between
Traffic engineering is a subdiscipline of civil
reinforcing steel and surrounding concrete in a
RCC beam will result in. engineering that focuses on the safe and
(a) linear variation of axial stress in a straight efficient movement of people and goods on
bar. roadways. It involves planning, designing, and
(b) parabolic variation of axial stress in a straight operating streets and highways using
bar. engineering techniques.
(c) constant stress at all points in a straight bar.
Objective of Traffic Engineering
(d) zero axial stress at all points in a straight bar
Ans: (c) The basic objective of traffic engineering is to
achieve the free and rapid flow of traffic with
Bond between steel and concrete
the least number of accidents. For this, various
• 'Bond' in reinforced concrete is the adhesion
studies have been carried out. These studies
(adhesive force) between the reinforcing steel
include
bar and the surrounding concrete.
1. Traffic characteristics
• Due to this bond, it is possible to transfer the
2. Traffic studies and analysis
axial force from the reinforcing steel to the
3. Traffic control and regulations
Q.36. Level surface in terms of levelling is
a________.
(a) vertical surface (b) horizontal surface
(c) curved surface (d) datum surface
Ans: (c)
Level surface:
• A level surface is the equipotential surface of
the earth's gravity field. It is a curved surface
and every element of which is normal to the
plumb line.
• A body of still water provides the best
example of a level surface.
Horizontal plane/ surface:
• A horizontal plane is a plane that is
perpendicular to the plumb line. It is also
tangential to a level surface at a particular
point.
Mean sea level:
• It is the altitude of the earth's surface above
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sea level. MSL adopted in India is located in
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Mumbai.
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Collimation surface:
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• It is an imaginary surface passing through the
intersection of the crosshairs at the diaphragm
and the optical center of the object-glass and its
continuation.
Datum surface:
• It is a level surface from which the vertical
distances are measured for any point in the
field.
Q.37. As per IS 456 : 2000, in reinforced and
plain concrete footings, the thickness at the
edge of the footing shall not be less than____for
footings on soils.
(a) 100 mm (b) 120 mm
(c) 150 mm (d) 125 mm
Ans: (c)
As per IS 456: 2000, Clause 34.1.2.
Thickness at the Edge of Footing
In reinforced and plain concrete footings, the
thickness at the edge shall be not less than 150
mm for footings on soils.
For footings on piles, the thickness at the edge
shall be not less than 300 mm above the tops of
piles.
Q.38. In a plane survey, the length of an arc 12
km long lying on the earth's surface
is______greater than the subtended chord.
(a) 0.1 cm (b) 1 cm
(c) 100 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans: (b)
Plane surveying:
• In this surveying, the mean surface of the
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earth is considered as a plane and spheroidal
shape is neglected.
• All triangles formed by survey lines are
considered plane triangles and the level line is
regarded as straight.
• In everyday life, we are concerned with the
small portions of the earth's surface and the
above assumption seems reasonable So, the
length of an arc 12 km long lying on the earth's
surface is only 1 cm greater than a subtended
chord.
Q.39. Select the correct option for the given
statements.
Statement 1: Runoff is a function of
precipitation, intensity, duration and its
coverage.
Statement 2: The size of catchment has a
definite effect on the runoff. More the area,
lesser will be the runoff.
(a) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true.
(c) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false
(d) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true.
Ans: (a) (a) m3 and m (b) m and m2
Runoff (c) m2 and m2 (d) m3 and m2
Ans: (d)
• Runoff means the draining or flowing off of
Mass volume & Cubic Unit Earthwork in
precipitation from a catchment area through a thick work Excavation,
surface channel. Earthwork in
• Runoff represents the response of a the filling,
Brickwork with
catchment to precipitation. It reflects the lime or cement
integrated effects of a wide range of catchment, mortar,
climate and rainfall characteristics such as Reinforced
brickwork, Mass
magnitude, intensity, distribution according to Concreting
time and space, and variability. Piece work Jor Numbers Cutting of large
Job Work trees, Painting
• High-stream discharges occur during monsoon
figures,
month, and low flow during the rest of the year. Manholes or
• Physical characteristics of the catchment, such Inspection
chambers, Door
as area, shape, slope and drainage channel or Window
pattern in the catchment, are some of the major handles, Pipe
static characteristics that affect the volume of fittings
Thin, Shallow, Square unit or Clearing of
the surface runoff and shape of the runoff or surface area shrubs,
hydrograph from a catchment due to a storm. works Partition wall,
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Honeycomb
Q.40. The density of mercury used in shrinkage
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brickwork, Brick
limit apparatus is____(approx).
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Flat Soling,
(a) 13.6 g/cc (b) 15.6 g/cc
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Formwork, DPC
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(c) 14.6 g/cc (d) 12.6 g/cc Linear Works Running Metre Cornices,
Ans: (a) or linear Expansion
measurement joints, Ridge Hip
Shrinkage limit test and valley,
Shrinkage limit is the defined as the smallest Eaves Tiles,
water content at which the soil is saturated. Handrails
Q.42. Select the option that is appropriate
• For determination of the shrinkage limit in the
regarding the following two statements labelled
laboratory.
Assertion and Reason.
Sample = 50 gm, Sieve size = 425 µ Assertion : A loose, permeable, sandy soil has a
• Shrinkage dish has a flat bottom and has its higher infiltration capacity than that of a tight,
internal corners well round the capacity of the clayey soil.
shrinkage dish is first determined by filing with Reason : A soil with poor under-drainage has a
mercury. higher infiltration capacity.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
• Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cc
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Reason is no the correct explanation of
(𝐌𝟏 − 𝐌𝐬 )−(𝐕𝟏 − 𝐕𝟐 ).𝛄𝐰
Shrinkage limit, Ws = Assertion.
𝐌𝐬
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Q.41. What should be the unit of measurement Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
for earthwork in excavation in any type of soil (d) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
and honeycomb brick work? Ans: (d)
Infiltration Capacity
• The maximum rate at which a given soil at a
given time can absorb water is defined as
infiltration capacity.
• The infiltration capacity of an area is
dependent on a large number of factors such as:
From equation (i) RA = wL/2
1. Characteristics of Soil: A loose, permeable,
Then, moment at L/4 distance from A side–
sandy soil has a higher infiltration capacity than
a tight, clayey soil. A soil with good under-
drainage has a higher infiltration capacity.
2. Surface of Entry: A surface covered with grass
and other vegetation has lower infiltration
capacity.
3. Fluid Characteristics: The turbidity of water,
especially the clay and colloid content, is an Q.44. Arrange the various zones of distribution
important factor. Contamination of the water by of soil moisture in the infiltration process.
dissolved salts can affect the soil structure and A. Saturation zone
in turn affect the infiltration rate B. Wetting zone
C. Transmission zone
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D. Transition zone
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(a) C, A, D, B (b) C, D, B, A
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(c) A, B, C, D (d) A, D, C, B
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Ans: (d)
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Infiltration Process
• When water is applied to the soil surface, then
water flows through the following zones.
1. Saturation Zone
2. Transition Zone
3. Transmission Zone
4. Wetting Zone
Q.43. Find the bending moment at a distance 5. Wetting Front
L/4 from end A of simply supported beam as
shown below.

Q.45. Direct stress due to self-weight and

extreme bending stress at the base of a
masonry dam is given as 22 M/mm2 and 44
Ans: (d)
M/mm2, respectively. Determine the value of
extreme resultant stresses.
(a) Max. stress = 66 N/mm2, Min. stress = 22
N/mm2
(b) Max. stress = 44 N/mm2, Min. stress = 22
N/mm2
(c) Max. stress= 44N/mm2, Min. stress = –66
N/mm2
(d) Max. stress= 66N/mm2, Min. stress = –22
N/mm2
Ans: (d)
In a masonry dam due to self weight and
bending stress–
Direct stress, σd = 22 N/mm2
Bending stress, σb = 44 N/mm2
We know, for masonry dam, resultant combined
stress–
σ = Direct stress (σd) ± bending stress (σb)
(i) Maximum stress, σ = 22 + 44 = 66 N/mm2
(ii) Minimum stress, σ = 22 – 44 = –22 N/mm2
Q.46. The science that deals with the
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occurrence, circulation and distribution of
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water of the earth and the earth's atmosphere
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is known as______.
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(a) environment (b) oceanography
(c) hydrology (d) hydraulics
Ans: (c)
• The word 'Hydro' means water and 'logy'
means science.
• It is the science that encompasses the study of
water on the Earth's surface and beneath the
surface of the Earth, the occurrence and
movement of water, the physical and chemical
properties of water, and its relationship with
the living and material components of the
environment.
• Therefore, it is the study of water moving
through the earth's surface into the atmosphere
and back in its various forms. It includes the -
precipitation, evaporation, surface runoff,
stream flows in catchments, groundwater etc.
Q.47. The check for traversing by deflection
angle method in a closed traverse of n sides is.
(a) the sum of angles must be equal to (2n – 4)°
(b) the sum of angles must be equal to (2n + 4)°
(c) the sum of angles must be equal to 180°
(d) the sum of angles must be equal to 360°
Ans: (d)
Closed traverse
• When the lines form a circuit that ends at the
starting point, it is known as a closed traverse.
Properties of closed traverse:
• The sum of measured interior angles should
be equal to (2N-4) × 90°, where N = the number
of sides of the traverse.
• If the exterior angles are measured, their sum
should be equal to (2N + 4) x 360°/n.
• The algebraic sum of the deflection angles
should be equal to 360°, taking the right-hand
and deflection angles as positive and left-hand
angle as negative.
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• The fore bearing of the last line should be
equal to its back bearing ±180° measured from
the initial station.
Q.48. Dupit's equation is expressed for series-
connected pipes as: (where L1, L2, and L3 are
lengths of pipe 1, 2 and 3, d1, d2, d3 are
diameter of pipe 1, 2 and 3, L is equivalent
length of pipe are D is equivalent diameter of
pipe)
(a) L/d5 = L1/d15 – L2/d25
(b) L/d6 = L1/d16 + L2/d26 + L3/d36
(c) L/d5 = L1/d15 + L2/d25 + L3/d35
(d) L/d5 = L1/d15 – L2/d25 – L3/d35
Ans: (c)
Pipe connection–
(i) Equivalent pipe or series connection–
In this condition loss of head and discharge
equal to the loss of head and discharge of a
compound pipe consisting of different length.

⇒ (ii) The capitalized value is calculated by
⇒ This equation is known as Dupit's equation.
(ii) Pipe in parallel –
Discharge in main pipe = Sum of discharge in
parallel pipes
Q = Q 1 + Q 2 + Q3
• If n-pipes of equal diameter (d) are placed
instead of main pipe diameter (D)
𝐃
Then, d =
𝐡𝟑/𝟓
Q.49. By which method is valuation carried out
to be initial or prime cost less depreciation?
suitable places is done where profit is of
capitalized value.
multiplying year's purchase with net profit.
(iii) The net profit is worked out after deducting
all possible outgoings and expenditures from
the gross income.
(iv) In such cases the cost will be too high as
compared with the cost of construction actually
incurred.
(5) Value by development method:
(1) This method is also used for working out the
value of a building.
(ii) In certain cases, some additions, alterations
and improvements are carried out which
increases the cost of the building
(6) Rental method of valuation:
(i) In this method, the rent of the building is
used as the base for calculating the value of the
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(a) Initial cost-based valuation building.

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(b) Profit-based on valuation Q.50. In case of staggered or zigzag riverting in

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(c) Cost from detailed items the design of tension members of steel
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(d) Estimated cost from accounts

C

structure, the net cross-sectional area along the

Ans: (a) chains of rivets in.
Various method of valuation: 𝑺𝟐 𝒕
(a) decreased by an amount equal to
(1) Initial cost based valuation:- Prime or initial 𝟒𝐠

cost assumes that the value of a depreciating 𝑺𝟐 𝒕

(b) increased by an amount equal to
asset decrease uniformly over its effective life. 𝟖𝐠

(2) Depreciation method of valuation: 𝑺𝟐 𝒕

(c) decreased by an amount equal to
(i) In this method, the structure is divided into 𝟖𝐠
four-part for calculating depreciation; wall, 𝑺𝟐 𝒕
(b) increased by an amount equal to
roofs, floor, Door and windows 𝟒𝐠
(3) Value-based on cost: Ans: (d)
(i) In this method, the actual cost of the Zig-zag or staggered riveting–
construction is found out and valuation is done In the case of zig-zag or staggered riveting, the
after considering depreciation and considering net cross-sectional area along the chain of rivets
the type of construction and design of the is increased by an amount.
construction. 𝑺𝟐 𝒕
equal to = ( )
(4) Valuation based on profit: 𝟒𝐠

(1) Under this sub-head, valuation of cinemas, • Net area along section ABCDE is given –
theatres, hotels, banks, big shop etc. located at
 𝑺𝟐
𝟏 𝑺𝟐
𝟐
chemical structure and resistance to
Anet = t [(𝐛 − 𝐧𝐝) + ( + ) ]
𝟒𝒈𝟏 𝟒𝒈𝟐 degradation.
Where, S = Staggered pitch Non-persistent pollutants: These break down
g = gauge distance. quickly in the environment and generally do not
cause long-term effects.

Q.53. In an old plan, a line was drawn to a

magnetic bearing of 7° 25' with a magnetic
declination of 2°5' west. If the present magnetic
declination is 9° 40' west, then the new
Q.51. If a compression member of a steel magnetic bearing should be drawn at________.
structure is effectively held in position and (a) 15° (b) 4° 20'
restrained against rotation at both the ends, (c) -4° 20' (d) -15°
then which of the following options represents Ans: (a)
the effective length of the member?
(a) 1.2 times of the actual length Given that,
(b) 0.65 times of the actual length Old magnetic bearing (M.B.) = 7º25'
(c) 0.80 times of the actual length Western declination, θw = 2º5'
(d) 2.0 times of the actual length We know, True bearing =
Ans: (b) Magnetic bearing – Western declination T.B.
Degree of end restraint of Effective = 7º25' – 2º5' = 5º20'
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compression length When, present western declination = 9º40'

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Then,
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Effectively held in position and

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restrained against rotation in both T.B. = M.B. – θw

C

ends 0.65 l 5º20' = M.B. – 9º40'

Effectively held in position at both
ends restrained against rotation at
one end 0.8 l
Effectively held in position at both
ends but restrained against rotation 1.0 l
Q.52. DDT belongs to the category of_______.
(a) Secondary air pollutants
(b) persistent pollutants
(c) primary air pollutants
(d) non-perisistent pollutants
Ans: (b)
Persistent pollutants: These break down slowly
in the environment and stay around for a long
time, accumulating in living organisms and
potentially causing harm. DDT is a well-known
example of a persistent pollutant due to its
M.B. = 15º
Q.54. Salvage value is the ______ of an asset
after all depreciation has been fully expensed.
(a) depreciation (b) scrap value
(c) market value (d) book value
Ans: (d)
Salvage Value:
• Salvage value is the estimated book value of
an asset after depreciation is complete, based
on what a company expects to receive in
exchange for the asset at the end of its useful
life. As such, an asset's estimated salvage value
is an important component in the calculation of
a depreciation schedule.
• Salvage value is the book value of an asset
after all depreciation has been fully
expensed.
• In general, the salvage value is important Then,
because it will be the "carrying value" of the 𝑷𝟏 𝑵𝟑𝟏
=
asset on a book after depreciation has been 𝑷𝟐 𝑵𝟑𝟐
fully expensed. 𝟐×(𝟐𝟖𝟎𝟎)𝟑
𝑷𝟐 = (𝟏𝟒𝟎𝟎)𝟑
• It is based on the value a company expects to
P2 = 16 Kn
receive from the sale of the asset at the end of
its useful life. In some cases, salvage value may Q.56. Which of the following is NOT a natural
source of air pollution?
just be a value the company believes it can
(a) Pollens
obtain by selling a depreciated, inoperable asset (b) Volcanic gases
for parts. (c) Combustion of fossil fuels
Scrap value: (d)Wildfire by atmospheric temperature change
• It is the value of the property at the end of the Ans: (c)
utility period after being dismantled. Pollution enters the Earth's atmosphere in
• Scrap products in a building are steel bars, many different ways. Most air pollution is
steel grills, bricks, etc. created by people, taking the form of emissions
Market value: from factories, cars, planes, or aerosol
• It is the value of property or building if it is put cans. Second-hand cigarette smoke is also
in the open market for sale. considered air pollution. These man-made
• Market value changes from time to time and sources of pollution are called anthropogenic
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depends on the cost of material, labor cost, sources.

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industrialization.
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Book value:
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• The amount of any property after necessary

depreciation.
• Book value = Original cost - depreciation
• After the utility period,
Book value = Scrap value
Q.55. A centrifugal pump, driven by a directly
coupled 2 kW motor of speed 1400 rpm, is
proposed to be connected to a motor of speed
2800 rpm. The power of the motor should be.
(a) 24 kW (b) 8 kW
(c) 4 kW (d) 16 kW Q.57. Hook length for a straight bar in terms of
Ans: (d) the diameter of bar, d is.
Given that, (a) D (b) 18d
Speed of motor, (c) 9d (d) 4.5d
N1 = 1400 rpm Ans: (c)
N2 = 2800 rpm
Coupled, P1 = 2 kw The length of one hook may be taken as 9x dia
Power of centrifugal pump, and the total length is taken as L + 18 D, as
P = kN3 shown in figure.
 Proctor compaction test is used to find the
optimum level of moisture for soil and the
maximum dry density.
• This test can be used to determine optimum
moisture content for compacting soil such as
Q.58. Which of the following is just above the road bases, foundation pads and embankment.
blank pipe in the tubewell? • The value of parameter of proctor test–
(a) ]Fulcrum (b) Barrel Standard Modified
(c) Main tube-well pipe (d) Strainer Feature Proctor Test Proctor Test
Ans: (d)
Number of
The strainer well is the most common and
Layers 3 5
widely used well. In common term, the word
"tube well" refers to the strainer type of tube Weight of
well. In this type of well, a strainer, which is a Hammer (kg) 2.495 4.54
special type of wire mesh, is wrapped round the Height of Fall
main tube of the well and provided just above (mm) 304.8 457.2
the blind pipe in the tubewell . The main pipe Volume of
contains bigger holes or slots than the openings Mold (cc) 944 944
of the strainer. The total area of the openings of Q.60. The difference between the total head
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the tube is kept equal to the openings of the line and the hydraulic grade line in an open
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strainer so that the velocity of flow does not channel flow is called.
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change. Due to fineness of the (a) pressure head (b) total energy head
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(c) velocity head (d) elevation head

C

openings of the strainer, a higher operational

Ans: (c)
velocity of water can be permitted.
The total energy line (TEL)
• It is the line joining the points representing the
value of the total head (pressure head + velocity
head + elevation head) at the various cross-
section of pipe in a pipe flow.
• This line always goes down in the direction of
flow until and unless energy supplied externally.
Hydraulic gradient line (HGL)
• It is the line joining the points representing the
Q.59. Proctor compaction test is made to values of Piezometric head Pressure head +
determine moisture content at which soil will elevation head at the various cross-sections of
be compacted to obtain_______. pipe in pipe flow.
(a) specific gravity • This line may go up or down in the flow
(b) minimum dry density direction.
(c) maximum dry density
• It will always lie below the total energy line in
(d) porosity
Ans: (c) a pipe flow.
Procter compaction test
• In a uniform diameter pipe, HGL always be
parallel to TEL and vertical gap between these
two lines at nay section of pipe is the velocity
head i.e.
HGL = TEL - Velocity head
Velocity head = TEL - HGL
The difference between the total head line and
Hydraulic gradient line is always constant for
particular pipe flow and it is equal to the
velocity head
shuttering plywood contains at least nine
different layers of core veneers that have been
compressed using a high-pressure machine at
an exceptionally high temperature.
The shuttering plywood is generally used to
provide the basis for drains, ceilings, pillars,
walls and roads.

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2. Steel Shuttering
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Steel formworks are types of shuttering that are

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temporary construction elements used to hold

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concrete while it hardens. Steel is an ideal

Q.61. Which material is used for shuttering
material for formwork because it will never
equipment, that require very little maintenance
and can be used for years? bend or warp if designed appropriately while
(a) Timber (b) Epoxy ply pouring concrete. Steel shuttering is capable of
(c) Steel (d) Pressed board storing a big volume of concrete. Steel is brittle,
Ans: (c) making it unsuitable for bonding with concrete.
Shuttering is utilized as a temporary mould into Steel plates may be stacked to build higher
which concrete is poured to get the required constructions. Steel formwork can be reuses
concrete structural shape on the construction many times and require very little maintenance.
site. Shuttering concrete is done to give the
concrete a form while it sets, preventing leaks,
cracks, or uneven surfaces.
Main Types of Shuttering Used in Construction
1. Plywood Shuttering
Plywood formworks are types of shuttering that
has been highly densified and has a smooth film
on both sides of its face. It is mostly used in
construction to put up the ceiling and keeping
3. Timber Shuttering
the cement. Densified means that the
Timber formworks are types of shuttering which
are a low-cost and easily accessible option.
Traditional wooden formwork is constructed
on-site from timber. Wooden shuttering is easy
to make, but it takes time for larger
constructions. Wood shuttering works better
than all other types of shuttering in small-scale
projects. Depending on the materials used, the
timber may be reusable in another projects,
especially if used carefully.
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Q.62. Soil with particle size less than _____ mm
is called fine grained soil (silt or clay).
(a) 14.750 (b) 0.075
(c) 0.020 (d) 0.015
Ans: (b)
• In general, soils may be classified as coarse-
grained (cohesionless) and fine-grained
(cohesive) soil. Both coarse-grained and fine-
grained soils can be further sub-divided based
on their grain size.
• According to Indian Standard Soil
Classification System (ISSCS), soil with particle
size > 300 mm is called Boulder.
• Soil with particle size in between 300 mm to
80 mm is called Cobble.
• The soil is called Gravel if the particle size is
between 80 mm to 4.75 mm. The gravel is sub-
divided as Coarse Gravel (80 mm to 20 mm) and
Fine Gravel (20 mm to 4.75mm).
• Soil with particle size between 4.75 mm to
0.075 mm is called Sand. The sand is sub-
divided as Coarse Sand (4.75 mm to 2.0 mm),
Medium Sand (2.0 mm to 0.425 mm), and Fine
Sand (0.425 mm to 0.075 mm).
• Soil with particle size less than 0.075 mm is
called Fine-Grained soil (Silt or Clay) and soil
with particle size between 80 mm to 0.075 mm
is called Coarse-Grained soil. However, soil
with particle size less than 0.002 mm is called
Clay, and soil with particle size in between
0.075mm to 0.002 mm is called Silt.
Q.63. Which of the following factors does NOT
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contributed to soil/land pollution?
(a) Agricultural activities (b) Mining wastes
(c) Eutrophication (d) Domestic wastes
Ans: (c)
Eutrophication:- It is a process of increasing
biomass generation in a water body caused by
increasing concentrations of plant nutrients
most commonly phosphate and nitrate.
• When increase nutrient concentrations leads
to increasing growth of aquatic plants both
macrophytes and phytoplankton.
• Eutrophication results from runoff from
agricultural field and sewage pollution.
• Eutrophication does not contributes to soil
pollution.
• Various types of domestic wastes agricultural
activities, mining wastes etc. contributes to soil
or land pollution.
Q.64. Which of the following sections is ideally
suited for a compression member?
(a) Section with different moment of inertia
about perpendicular axis passing through its
center of gravity.
(b) Section with same moment of inertia about
perpendicular axis passing through its center of
gravity.
(c) Section with high amount of material
unevenly distributed.
(d) Section with larger length.
Ans: (b)
• An ideal compression section is one that has
the same moment of inertia about any axis
through its center of gravity. The tubular
sections generally have the same moment of
inertia about any axis through its center of
gravity, hence tubular section is the ideal
compression member.
• I sections are generally preferred for resisting
bending moments through flange& shear forces
through a web of I-Section.
• Single and double-angle sections are used as
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tension members. Double angle sections are
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preferred as tension members due to less shear
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lag effect.
Q.65. The true reduced bearing is N 5º W and
the magnetic declination is 2°E. Find the true
bearing in the whole circle bearing system.
(a) 5° (b) 355°
(c) 353° (d) 357°
Ans: (b)
Given that,
Declination = 2°E
True reduced bearing = N5°W
We know that, true bearing always same, hence
true bearing in whole circle bearing system–
TB = 360° – 5° = 355°
Q.66. Select the option that is appropriate
regarding the following two statements labelled
Assertion and Reason.
Assertion : Good-quality irrigation water is one
of the favourable conditions for sub-surface
irrigation practice.
Reason: Irrigation water of bad quality may
block the buried performed pipes in artificial
sub-surface irrigation.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(d) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Ans: (a)
Sub surface irrigation:–In this system, water is
applied beneath the land surface. Sub-surface
irrigation classified as–
• Natural sub-surface irrigation (Leakage water
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from streams, lakes, ponds, canals etc.)
• Artificial sub-surface irrigation (water is
applied through a network of buried perforated
pipes).
• In artificial sub-surface irrigation, the water
used should be of good quality so the
perforation does not get clogged.
Q.67. Which of the following does NOT
represent the grade of Bitumen based on
viscosity?
(a) VG-30 (b) VG-50
(c) VG-40 (d) VG-20
Ans: (b)
As per IS 73:2006, bitumen is classified into
four types based on viscosity grade.
Grade Suitable for 7 day average
maximum air temperature(ºC)
VG-10 < 30
VG-20 30-38
VG-30 38-45
VG-40 >45
Note–Higher the number of grade, the harder
the bitumen in the viscosity grading system.
Q.68. The processes used for the manufacture
of cement can be classified into______.
(a) Five (b) Four
(c) Three (d) Two
Ans: (d)
Manufacturing Process of Cement
1. Dry Process
• Dry process is adopted when raw materials
are quite hard.
• The process is slow and product is costly.
• Limestone and clay are ground to fine powder
separately and are mixed.
• Water is added to make a thick paste. Cakes of
this paste containing about 14% of moisture are
dried and are charged into rotary kiln and the
product obtained after calcination in rotary kiln
is called as clinker.
• Clinker is obtained as a result of incipient
fusion (the process of joining two or more
things together to form a single entity) and
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sintering (fusging together without melting to
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the point of liquefaction) at a temperature of
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about 1400°C-1500°C. because ferric oxide has
lower melting point than other oxide, it act as a
flux (the process of flowing).
• Aeration of cement clinker, which is
commonly practised to slake free lime, also
causes an absorption of moisture and carbon
dioxides.
• Absorption of moisture tends to decreases the
setting.
• Clinker is cooled rapidly to preserve the
metastable compounds (nearly stable or easily
prone to degradable) and their solid solutions
dispersion of one solid in another, which are
made as the clinker is heated.
• Clinker (3 to 20 mm size) is then cooled and
ground in tube mills, where 2-3% gypsum is
added Purpose of adding gypsum is to coat the
cement particles by interfering with the process
of hydration of the cement particles.
2 Wet Process
• In wet process crushed raw materials are fed
into ball mill and a little water is added.
• During operation of ball mill, the steel ball in
it pulverize the materials which form a slurry
with water. This slurry is passed to silos (storage
tanks), where the proportioning of the
compounds is adjusted to ensure designed
chemical composition.
• Corrected slurry having about 40% moisture
content is then fed into rotary kiln, where it
uses moisture and forms into lumps or nodules.
• Then it is finally burned at 1500-1600°C and
nodules change to clinker at this temperature.
• Clinker is cooled and then ground in tube
mills.
• While grinding the clinker, about 3% gypsum
is added.
• The cement is then stored in silos from where
it is supplied.
Q.69. Blaine air permeability apparatus is used
to determine the _______ of Portland cement.
(a) gradation (b) fineness
(c) permeability (d) specific gravity
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Ans: ()
The fineness of the cement is checked to test
the proper grinding of the cement which
significantly influences the rate of hydration.
These two methods is used for determination of
the fineness of cement:
1) Air permeability method (Blaine)
The fineness of cement is measured as the
specific surface. Specific surface is expressed as
the total surface area in square meters of all the
cement particles in one kilogram of cement. The
higher the specific surface is, the finer cement
will be.
Fineness test is performed on the Blaine
apparatus. It is practically a manometer in the
U-tube form. One arm of the manometer is
provided at the top with a conical socket to form
an airtight fit with the conical surface of the cell.
2) Sieving method Q.71. Find the value of shear force at one-fourth
This method serves only to demonstrate the of the given span from the left support as shown
presence of coarse cement particles. This in the below diagram ?
method is primarily suited to checking and
controlling the production process. The fineness
of cement is measured by sieving it on standard
sieves. The proportion of cement of which the
grain sizes are larger than the specified mesh
size is thus determined. 𝑴 𝑴
(a) (+ve) (a) (+ve)
𝟐𝑳 𝑳

𝑴 𝑴
(a) (-ve) (a) (-ve)
𝟐𝑳 𝑳

Ans: (d)
From force equilibrium–
Q.70. The power of a centrifugal pump depends
ΣFy = 0
on the rate of flow of water. The rate of flow of R A + RB = 0
water from the centrifugal pump is directly
proportional to the_______.

(a) inner diameter of the impeller

(b) outer diameter of the impeller Then, taking moments about point 'A'
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RB × L – M = 0
(c) total head
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𝐌 𝐌
RB = RA =
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(d) revolutions per minute of the impeller ,

𝐋 𝐋
Ans: (d)
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Hence, it shows the shear force act on simply

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Centrifugal pump supported beam subjected to moment

A machine which converts mechanical energy everywhere is same.
−𝐌
into hydraulic energy by the action of Which is S.F =
𝐋
centrifugal force known as centrifugal pump.
• Centrifugal pump consists of a rotating
impeller that moves water into the pump and Q.72. Consider the following statements
discharges it. regarding horizontal equivalent and contour
• Flow is radially outwards in this pump. • interval.
Power consumed by a centrifugal pump is I. Horizontal equivalent between two contour
dependent on the quantity of water pumped lines is always constant.
and the rate of pumping. II. Horizontal equivalent may be zero for a
Power of centrifugal pump vertical cliff.
𝝆𝑸𝒈𝑯𝒎 III. Contour interval should be inversely
P=
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 proportional to the scale.
IV. For detailed design work, large contour
Discharge, Q = 𝝅𝑫𝑩𝒗𝒇 interval is taken. Which of the given statements
𝜫𝑫𝑵
Flow velocity, vf = are correct?
𝟔𝟎
𝜫𝟐 𝑫𝟐 𝑩 .𝑵 (a) ii and iv (b) i and iv
Then, Q =
𝟔𝟎
Q∝N (c) i and iii (d) ii and iii
where, N = speed (rpm) Ans: (d)
Contour interval
• it is the vertical distance between the two
consecutive contour.
• It is desirable to have constant contour
interval, however in some special cases it can
be varied but in such cases it become difficult
to make an idea about steepness or flatness of
slope.
• It is generally kept in range of (1m-15m).
• Smaller is the contour interval, more is the
precision in accuracy.
The contour interval depends upon several
factor :
1. Scale of map - inversely proportional to scale.
scale is more contour interval is less of map.
2. Purpose of map -In detailed map contour
interval is less while in reconnaissance contour
interval is more.
3. Nature of ground –
flat- contour - interval less
steep - contour interval is more
4. Time- it is also inversely proportional. Time
is more contour interval is less.
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5. Cost-cost is more contour interval is less.
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Horizontal equivalent
Horizontal distance between two points on any
two consecutive contours is called horizontal
equivalent.
• When several contour lines coincides or meet
it indicates a vertical cliff. Horizontal equivalent
is zero in vertical cliff.
Q.73. The foundation of the structure is
designed for.
(a) shear failure of soils
(b) compression failure of soils
(c) bending failure of soils
(d) tension failure of soils
Ans: (a)
The foundation of the structure is designed for
Shear Failure of Soils.
The various types of shear failure modes of the
soils are as follows:
General Shear Failure:-This type of failure is
seen in dense and stiff soil. The following are
some characteristics of general shear failure.
1. Continuous, well-defined, and distinct failure
surface develops between the edge of the
footing and the ground surface.
2. Dense or stiff soil that undergoes low
compressibility experiences this failure.
3. Continuous bulging of shear mass adjacent to
footing is visible.
4. Failure is accompanied by tilting of footing.
Local Shear Failure
This type of failure is seen in relatively loose and
soft soil. The following are some characteristics
of general shear failure.
1. Significant compression of soil below the
footing and partial development of plastic
equilibrium is observed.
2. Failure is not sudden and there is no tilting of
footing.
3. The failure surface does not reach the ground
surface and a slight bulging of soil around the
footing is observed.
4. The failure surface is not well defined.
5. Failure is characterized by considerable
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settlement.
Punching Shear Failure of foundation soils
This type of failure is seen in loose and soft soil
and at deeper elevations. The following are
some characteristics of general shear failure.
1. This type of failure occurs in soil of very high
compressibility.
2. A failure pattern is not observed.
3. Bulging of soil around the footing is absent.
4. Failure is characterized by a very large
settlement.
Q.74. Which of the following statement for the
included angle method is/are true?
Statement 1 : Included angles can be measured
either clockwise or counter-clockwise.
Statement 2: The measured clockwise angles
are interior angles if the direction of progress
around the survey is counter-clockwise.
(a) Only Statement 2 is true.
(b) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
(c) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is true.
(d) Only Statement 1 is true.
Ans: (b)
Included angle method
An included angle at a station is either of the
two angles formed by two survey lines meeting
there and these angles should be clockwise.
• The method consists simply in measuring each
angle directly from a back sight on the
preceding station.
• The angle measured from the back station
may be interior or exterior depending upon the
direction of progress.
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• When direction of progress in counter
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clockwise and so the angles measured
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clockwise are the interior angle.
• If it is clockwise then measured clockwise
angle are the exterior angle.
Q.75. The system of signal in which clusters of
signals along a route display an opposite
indication at the same moment is called______.
(a) flexible progressive system
(b) alternate system
(c) simultaneous system
(d) simple progressive system
Ans: (b)
There are four general types of co-ordination of
signals for road network:
Simultaneous system: In this system all the
signals along a given road always show the
same indication (green, red etc.) at the same
time. As the division of cycle is also the same at
all intersections, this system does not work
satisfactorily.
Alternate system: In this system, alternate
signals or group of signals show opposite
indications in a route at the same time. This
system is also operated by a single controller
but by reversing the red and green indicator
connections at successive systems. This system
is generally considered to be more satisfactory
than simultaneous system.
Simple progressive system: In this system, the
signal phases controlling "Go" indications along
this road is scheduled to work at the
predetermined time schedule.
Flexible progressive system: In this system it is
possible to automatically vary the length of
cycle, cycle division and the time scheduled at
each signalized intersection with the help of a
computer. This system is most efficient among
all four systems.
Q.76. With reference to lacings under
compression members of steel structures, the
width of the lacing flat for 20 mm of nominal
diameter of rivet is_______.
(a) 50 mm (b) 55 mm
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(c) 60 mm (d) 65 mm
Ans: (c)
According to IS 800: 2007,
• In bolted/riveted construction, the minimum
width of lacing bars shall be three times the
nominal diameter of the end bolt/ rivet.
• The minimum width of lacing bars as per IS
800:2007 for bolted/riveted construction is 3d.
Here, the Nominal Diameter of rivet = 20 mm
Width of lacing bar = 3 x 20 = 60 mm
Width of lacing bars corresponding to the
diameter of rivets:
Rivet diameter (in mm) Lacing bars (in mm)
16 50
18 55
20 60
22 65
If the width is lesser than minimum value, then
it is suspected for the load transfer i.e. 2.5% of
design shear. The minimum width is
approximately equal to 3 times diameter of
rivet.
Q.77. A vertical gate closes a horizontal tunnel 4 Flexible pavement Rigid Pavement
m high and 3 m wide running full with water.
The bottom of the vertical gate is located at a •The load is •The load is
distance of 8 m from the free water surface. transferred from top transferred through
Determine the total fluid force (in kN) acting on to bottom by grain to slab action
the gate. grain contact. •High flexural
(a) 720 (b) 706 •Low or negligible strength.
(c) 740 (d) 730 flexural strength.
Ans: (b) •Joints are absent. •Expansion and
contraction joints are
Given that,
provided
horizontal tunnel, height h = 4 m,
•Low initial cost but •High Initial cost but
width b = 3 m.
high maintenance low maintenance
Bottom of vertical gate distance = 8 mm (from
cost. cost.
water surface)
•It includes Surface,
We know that, Force, F = ρ g 𝒙̅A
base, sub-base and •It includes -
where, 𝒙̅=6
subgrade layers. Concrete slab, base
F = 103 × 9.81 × 6 × 12
•Deformation in the course, and subgrade
F = 706.32 kN
top layers is layers.
transferred to under- •Deformation is only
laid layers in the top layer of the
•More suitable for concrete slab.
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stage construction
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•Less Suitable for

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•Very less effect of stage construction.

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temperature stress.
•Effected by
temperature and
frictional stresses.
Q.78. Consider the following statements Q.79. In which type of dressing are only the
regarding, the function of base course and sub- edges of a stone block levelled with the help of
base course in pavement layers. a hammer?
I. Prevent mud-pumping in rigid pavement (a) Pitched dressing (b) Rough tooling
II. Protect sub-grade of rigid pavement from (c) Hammer dressing (d) Chisel drafting
frost action Ans: (a)
III. Provide tensile strength to the flexible Pitched dressing;–In this type of dressing, only
pavement the edges of a stone block are made level with
IV. Prevent warping stresses in rigid pavement. the help of a hammer, the superfluous mass on
Which of the above statements are correct? the face is generally left intact.
(a) Both (ii) and (iv) Hammer dressing:–Dressing in which large
(b) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) raised portions of the stones broken off.
(c) Only (ii), (iii) and (v) • Stone is shaped somewhat flat but rough due
(d) Only (i), (ii) and (v) to hammer marks.
Ans: (b) Chisel dressing:–In this method drafts or
grooves are made with the help of a chisel at all
the four edges.
Rough dressing:–Edges are first squared by water flows freely under gravity, the structure is
using a chisel and hammer, then a series of known as Aqueduct.
grooves of variable width are developed over • An aqueduct is more suitable for larger stream
the surface of the stone. discharges than a siphon aqueduct, which
Q.80. Select the correct option for the given requires lowering the stream bed by a drop.
statements.
Statement 1: When the crossing site is such that
the canal FSL is well above the stream HFL, the
choice between aqueduct and siphon aqueduct
is made depending on the stream discharge.
Statement 2: For larger stream discharges (i.e.
when the stream bed is much wider), an
aqueduct is more suitable than a siphon
aqueduct which requires lowering of the stream
b. Syphon Aqueduct
bed by a drop.
• If the HFL of the drain is higher than the canal
(a) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false bed and water passes through the aqueduct
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true, barrel under symphonic action, the structure is
and statement 2 is the correct explanation of known as the Syphon Aqueduct.
statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true,
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but statement 2 is not the correct explanation

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of statement 1
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Ans: (b)
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Cross-drainage structures are essential in canal
systems. They help water flow smoothly while
allowing rivers or natural drains to go under or
over the canal. These structures ensure that
canal and drainage water don't mix, keeping
both types of water separate and maintaining
their quality and quantity.
Types of Cross Drainage Works:
Based on the relative bed levels, water levels of
the canal and the drain and their relative
discharge, the Cross Drainage works are of the
following types:
(1) Cross-drainage works carrying the Canal
over the Natural Drain:
a. Aqueduct
• In these works, the canal is taken over the
natural drain, such that the drainage water runs
below the canal either freely or under siphoning
pressure.
• When the HFL of the drain is sufficiently below
the bottom of the canal so that the drainage
(2) Cross drainage works carrying the natural
drain over the canal:
a. Superpassage:
• Analogous to a bridge, a superpassage carries
the natural drain over the canal.
• This structure operates as the inverse of an
aqueduct, where the canal flows beneath the
drain.
• Due to the canal's location under the drain,
providing an inspection road alongside the
canal becomes impractical.
b. Syphon:
• This structure shares similarities with a siphon
aqueduct, utilizing barrels to transport water.
o However, in a siphon, the water flowing under Q = kiA
pressure through the barrels is the canal water, 𝒉
not the drain water. Q=k A
𝑳
• Siphons are employed where the canal's FSL is
where,
higher than the drain's bed.

(3) Intermixing Canal and Drain Water

When allowing canal and drain water to mix,
two types of cross-drainage works are used: Q = the volume of passing water in time 't',
a. Level Crossing:
L = Distance between manometer tapping
• This simple structure allows the drain water to
points,
flow into the canal directly at the same level.
• While straightforward, this approach lacks A Cross-sectional area of the sample,
control and may not be suitable for all
situations. H = Difference in manometer levels i.e the head
b. Inlet and Outlet: loss
• This design involves a controlled inlet for drain
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Variable head permeability test:

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water to enter the canal and an outlet for excess

water discharge. The falling head permeability test is used for
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• This method offers better control over the relatively less permeable soils (fine- grained)
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mixing process than a level crossing. where the discharge is small.

So here in clayey soil falling head permeability
Q.81. Which of the following laboratory
test can be used.
methods is more suitable to determine the
permeability of less permeable soils?
(a) Constant head test
(b) Confined flow pumping test
(c) Unconfined flow pumping test
(d) Falling head test
Ans: (d)
Various types of laboratory method is used to
determine permeability of soil–
Constant head permeability test:
The coefficient of permeability for coarse-
grained soil is determined by means of the
Constant-head permeability test. The degree of For falling head permeability test
saturation of soil should be 100%.
𝒂 𝑳 𝒉𝟏
K= 𝐥𝐧
By Darcy's Law, 𝑨 𝒕 𝒉𝟐
Where, Q.84. Which of the following statement is
INCORRECT about the grading limits of fine
k = permeability,
aggregate?
a = Area of tube in m², (a) There are 3 grading zones as per IS 383-2016.
(b) IS 383 defines the grading zones of fine
A = Area of sample in m³,
aggregates.
t = time in sec, (c) Zone III corresponds to finer sand then Zone
II.
L = length in m,
(d) Zone II corresponds to normal sand.
H1 = Level of time t = 0, and h2 = Level of time Ans: (a)

Q.82. The kinetic head of water flowing through As per IS 383, Table 4(Clause 4.3)
a pipe of diameter 60 cm is 4 m, whereas the • There are 4 types of grading zones for fine
total head of the water at a cross-section, which aggregates(sand) namely Grading zone I, II, III,
is 6 m above the datum line, is 60 m. Determine IV.
the pressure head of water. • All grading zones and their recommended
value for different sieve sizes are given below:
(a) 56 m (b) 48 m
(c) 60 m (d) 50 m
Ans: (d)
Given that,
Diameter of pipes, d = 60 cm
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Kinetic head = 4 m
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Datum head, z = 6 m
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Total water head = 60 m

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From Bernoulli's equation– ⇒

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Total head = Q.85. If the 30th highest hourly volume is

Datum head + kinetic head + Pressure head adopted for design, there will be congestion on
60 = 6 + 4 + Pressure head road for only.
Pressure head = 50 m (a) 30 hours in a year (b) 70 hours in a year
Q.83. As per IS 11624-1986, what will be the (c) 29 hours in a year (d) 0 hours in a year
water quality rating of irrigation water when Ans: (c)
residual sodium carbonate (RSC) is in the range 30th Highest Hourly Volume:
of 1.5 to 3? • It is the hourly volume that will be reached
(a) Low (b) High only thirty times or exceeded only 29 times in a
(c) Medium (d) Very high year and all other hourly volumes of the year
Ans: (c) will be less than this value.
According to IS 11624-1986 Water quality • 30th highest hourly traffic value is found to be
rating based on residual sodium carbonate– satisfactory from the consideration of the
facility as well as the cost. This is because the
cost will be much lesser when compared to the
Class RSC range (me/I) peak hourly volume and there will be
Low below 1.5 congestion only for 29 hours in the year and this
Medium 1.5-3.0 is considered reasonable.
High 3.0-6.0 • The 30th highest hourly volume is generally
adopted as the design hourly volume for the
Very high Above 6.0
purpose of roadway facility design. As per IS 2470 (Part I) - 1983, sizes of septic
Q.86. According to IS 456 : 2000, value of design tank.
bond stress for plain bars shall be increased • Recommended sizes of septic tanks for 20
by______% for deformed bars conforming to IS users are given as–
1786.
(a) 25 (b) 60
(c) 40 (d) 10
Ans: (b)
Design bond stress:
• Bond stress is the result of the bonding
between the concrete surface and the
Q.88. Before stone seasoning, dress of stones is
reinforcement steel.
done as it provides.
• It varies depending upon the type of concrete
I. uniform appearance
and type of reinforcement used. If plane
rounded steel is used as reinforcement then the II. good mortar joints
bond stress will be less, if the same concrete is III. proper bedding
used with HYSD steel as reinforcement then the IV. poor water absorption
bond stress is higher. (a) Only (i)
• The bond between steel and concrete is (b) Only (i) and (ii)
mainly due to pure adhesive resistance, (c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
frictional resistance, and mechanical resistance.
(d) Only (i),(ii) and (iii)
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According to IS 456: 2000, the design bond

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Ans: (d)
stress in the limit state method for plain bars in
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tension shall be as below: • Dressing of stone before seasoning is done to

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provide uniform appearance, good mortar

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joints and proper bedding.

M40
• A good stone must possess uniform texture
Grade of and
and softness so that it can be easily dressed.
Concrete M20 M25 M30 M35 above
• The process of giving a proper size, shape and
Design bond finish to the roughly broken stones as obtained
stress(N/mm²) 1.2 1.4 1.5 1.7 1.9 from the quarry is known as dressing of stone.
Seasoning
Note: Good stone must be free from quarry sap. This
1. For deformed bars conforming to IS 1786, process of removing quarry sap by the action of
these values shall be increased bv 60 percent. nature is termed as seasoning.
2. For bars in compression. the values of bond • Seasoning of stones is essential before use.
stress for bars in tension shall be increased by
Q.89. Silt ejector is provided_________.
25 percent
(a) in the river far off from the weir on the
upstream side
Q.87. As per IS 2470 codes, which of the
following should be the minimum width of a (b) in the canal on the downstream of head
septic tank for five users? regulator
(a) 60 cm (b) 85 cm (c) in the river adjacent to the head regulator
(c) 55 cm (d) 75 cm (d) in the river on the downstream of the weir
Ans: (d) Ans: (b)
• Two popular silt regulation works are as silt
excluders and ejectors.
• Silt excluders are constructed on the bed of
the river, upstream of the head regulator.
While silt ejectors are constructed on the bed of
the canal and a little distance downstream from
the head regulator.
• Silt excluders remove silt from the water
before it enters the canal and silt ejectors
extract the silt from the canal water after the
silted water has travelled a certain distance in
the off-take canal.
• Silt ejectors also called silt extractors, and it
extracts the silt from the canal water after the
silted water has travelled a certain distance in
the off-take canal.
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Q.90. As per IS 2386 (1963), the aggregate
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crushing value is calculated by using a single
sized aggregate, which is.
(a) passing 12.5 mm and retained on 10 mm
sieve
(b) passing 4.75 mm and retained on 2.36 mm
sieve
(c) passing 40 mm and retained on 20 mm sieve
(d) passing 20 mm and retained on 10 mm sieve
Ans: (a)
The aggregate passing 12.5mm IS sieve and
retained on 10mm IS sieve is selected for
standard test. The aggregate should be in
surface dry condition before testing. The
aggregate may be dried by heating at a
temperature 100°C to 110°C for a period of 4
hours and is tested after being cooled to room
temperature.
Q.91. Pot and Bow Sleepers are which of the
following type of sleepers?
(a) Steel sleepers (b) Concrete sleepers
(c) Chock sleepers (d) Cast iron sleepers
Ans: (d)
Cast Iron Sleepers
• Cast iron sleepers are used extensively
worldwide, but particularly in Indian railways.
• They come in two varieties: pot sleepers and
plate-shaped cast iron sleepers.
• Curves sharper than 4 degrees are not ideal
for pot type sleepers.
• In Indian railways, CST 9 type sleepers are
extensively adopted.
Advantages of Cast Iron Sleepers
• Cast Iron Sleepers have a life span of 60 years.
• They can be produced easily and locally, so
there is no need for extensive shipping.
• Cast iron sleepers are resistant to vermin
attacks.
• They provide the rail a sturdy seat.
• Cast iron has a high scrap value because worn-
out sleepers may be reshaped into new ones.
• Cast iron sleepers can prevent creep in rails.
i
Disadvantages of Cast Iron Sleepers
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• Due to its fragile nature, cast iron is damaged
during handled. So dealing with the
transportation and placement of Cast iron
sleepers is a challenging task.
• Cast iron sleepers are not appropriate for
coastal areas since salt water may readily harm
and corrode them.
• The derailment may cause serious damage to
Cast Iron sleepers.
• When compared to other sleeping materials,
cast iron is more costly. It is thus not profitable.
• These require many fastenings for attaching
the rail to the sleeper.
• Maintenance of Cast Iron sleepers should be
done properly.
Q.92. The type of pile foundation that is
installed in soft strata to build a stable
foundation for heavy structures by the method
of resistance is called.
(a) tension piles (b) end bearing piles
(c) friction piles (d) screw piles
Ans: (b)
End bearing Pile: Piles which acts as columns
and transfer the structural load to a hard and
relatively incompressible stratum at a greater
depth such as rock or dense sand are known as
end-bearing piles. These piles derive the
required bearing capacity from end bearing at
the tip of the pile.
Compaction piles: These piles are used to
compact loose granular soil to increase its
bearing capacity. Compaction piles do not carry
the load and hence they can be of weaker
material. Sand piles can be used as compaction
piles.
Fender piles and dolphins: Fender piles and
dolphins are used to protect waterfront
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structure from the impact of any floating object
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or ships.
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Anchor piles: These piles are generally used to
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provide anchorage against horizontal pull from
sheet piling.
Tension or Uplift pile:-These piles are used to
resist uplift forces. A pile may be under tension
if it resists the overturning of the wall
structurally connected to the pile cap and due
to tension developed, these piles are known
tension piles.
Friction piles:-The pile which does not rest on
hard stratum but derives its load carrying
capacity from the adhesion or
friction/resistance between the pile surface and
the neighboring soil is known as friction pile.
Q.93. Which of the following statements
regarding an electronic theodolite fitted with a
graduated circle encoded in an incremental
system in INCORRECT?
(a) The graduated circle is fixed and it does not
move.
(b) Two photodiodes are placed perpendicular
to each over the graduated circle.
(c) One of the photodiodes is fixed and the
other moves with the telescope.
(d) The graduated circle is made of glass.
Ans: (b)
Electronic theodolite:–Electronic theodolite
consists of a telescope mounted on a base an
electric read out screen to display vertical and
horizontal angles. These are convenient as this
creates more accurate readings.
• Electronic theodolites function very similar to
the optical theodolite and vernier transit.
• A very unique characteristic of the electronic
theodolites is that they have the ability to
electronically be interfaced to data collectors.
• In electronic theodolites, one of the
photodiodes is fixed and other moves with the
telescope and graduated circle is fixed and it
does not move.
• In this method graduated circle is made of
glass.
Q.94. A simply supported beam of length 4 m is
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subjected to a UDL of intensity 10 kN/m over
entire span of beam. Determine the magnitude
of maximum shear force acting anywhere in the
beam.
(a) 40/6 kN (b) 20 kN
(c) 40 kN (d) 10 kN
Ans: (b)
Given that,
Span l = 4 m
UDL w = 10 kN
Σfy = 0
RA + RB = 40 kN
Then, moment taken at, 'A'
𝟒
R B × 4 -10 × 4 × = 0
𝟐
RB × 4 = 80
RB = 20 kN
RA = 20 kN
• Hence, it shows 20 kN maximum shear force
act.
Q.95. Which of the given options is NOT a
commonly used mirror method of disinfection
of water during its treatment process?
(a) Boiling of water
(b) Treatment with ozone • In this method potassium permanganate
(c) Treatment with iodine and bromine (KMnO4) is used for disinfection of water.
(d) Treatment with silica • Potassium permanganate works as a powerful
Ans: (d) oxidising agent and it is found to be effective in
killing cholera bacteria. However, it is less
The following are the minor methods of
effective in killing bacteria of other water-borne
disinfection:
diseases.
Boiling:
Silver Treatment:
• The bacteria present in water can be killed by
• It has been found that silver has the property
boiling it for a long time. This is the most
of disinfecting water as it is effective in
effective method of disinfection of water.
destroying the bacterial spores and algae
• However, this method cannot be used to
present in comparatively clear water.
disinfect water on a large scale for public water
• Silver can be introduced in water either in the
supplies, for economic reasons.
form of a silver salt or by immersing silver or
Excess Lime Treatment:
silver coated electrodes in water and applying
• It has been found that when pH value of water
an electrical potential of about 100 volts.
is greater than 9.5, E-coli and other bacteria
• The later process is called Electro-Katadyn
present in water cannot survive.
Process.
• Thus when enough lime is added to water to
Ultra-Violet Ray Treatment:
raise its pH value to 9.5 or more most of the
• The ultra-violet rays offer an effective method
bacteria will be killed.
for the disinfection of water. The ultra-violet
lodine Treatment:
rays are the invisible light rays.
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• In this method iodine (12) is used for

• These rays are basically found in sunlight. As
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disinfection of water. Iodine is a bluish black

such the exposure of water to sunlight leads to
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solid which when added to water forms

destruction of micro-organisms which is
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hypoiodous acid (HIO) and the dissociation of

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primarily due to ultra-violet rays.

the hypoiodous acid resulting in the formation
of hypoiodite ion (10). Q.96. In India, the authority to issue the
Bromine Treatment- environmental no objection certificate to start
• In this method bromine (Br) is used for an industry lies with the______.
disinfection of water. (a) Central Government
• Bromine is a heavy dark reddish-brown liquid (b) Pollution Control Board
which when added to water forms (c) State Government
hypobromous acid (HOBr) and the dissociation (d) Forest Department
of the hypobromous acid resulting in the Ans: (b)
formation of hypobromite ion (OBr).
Pollution control board of India issue the
• The bactericidal effect of bromine is almost
environmental no objection certificate to start
similar to that of chlorine
an industry.
Ozone Treatment-
• Central pollution board of India established in
In this method ozone (O3) is used for
22 September 1974.
disinfection of water.
• Ozone is a faintly blue gas of pungent odour. It Q.97. Which of the following is an example of
is an unstable gas which tends to break down to sedimentary rock?
normal oxygen (O₂) and nascent oxygen (O) (a) Sandstone (b) Black flint
(containing single atom of oxygen). (c) Pumice (d) Basalt
Potassium Permanganate Treatment- Ans: (a)
• Sedimentary rocks are types of rock that are
formed by the accumulation or sedimentation
of minerals or organic particles at the Earth's
surface, followed by cementation.
• Typical sedimentary rocks are sandstone,
limestone, shale, Gypsum, etc. These are also
known as aqueous or stratified rocks.
• the rocks are well stratified and show well-
defined bedding planes.
The rocks are soft and can be easily split up
along the bedding as well as normal planes.
• The properties of the sedimentary rocks vary
considerably depending upon the nature of the
sediment and the type of bond between the
sediment and grains.
Q.98. As per components of the sewerage
system, what is the meaning of ‘outfall sewer’?
(a) A sewer which transports sewage from a
treatment plant to final disposal point
(b) A sewer which transports sewage from a
lateral sewer to a branch sewer.
(c) A sewer which transports sewage from a
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branch sewer to the main sewer
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(d) A sewer which transports sewage from a
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house to lateral sewers
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Ans: (a)
Sewer:
Sewer is an underground pipe that carries
human waste to a place where it can be treated.
There are three types of sewer according to
their working:
• Sanitary sewers: Sanitary sewers carry
wastewater from homes and businesses
Storm sewers: Storm sewers carry rainwater
and melting snow
• Combined sewers: carry both wastewater and
storm runoff water to wastewater plants
Outfall Sewer:
The length of the main or trunk sewer between
the connection of the lowest branch and final
point of disposal is known as an outfall sewer
and it thus conducts the sewage either to the
treatment plant or to the point of final
discharge.
Branch Sewer:
Branch sewers are an integral part of the
municipal sewerage system that connects
lateral sewer pipes from homes and offices
along a street and empties them into the main
sewers.
House Sewer: A house sewer is a term given to
the connection of the horizontal house drainage
system to the public sewer.
Lateral sewer:
A sewer lateral is an underground pipe that
connects a residence or business to the main
sewer line.
Q.99. In India, stones with a specific gravity less
than _____ are considered unsuitable for
buildings.
(a) 3.2 (b) 3.6
(c) 2.8 (d) 2.4
Ans: (d)
A good building stone has the following
properties:
• The percentage of wear in the attrition test
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should not be more than 3.
• Specific gravity for most of the building stones
lies between 2.5 to 3. Stones of specific
gravity less than 2.4 are unsuitable for building
construction.
• The coefficient of hardness should be greater
than 17.
• Percentage of water absorption by weight of
stone should be less than 5
• The toughness index should not be less than
13
• Crushing strength should be greater than 100
N/mm²
Q.100.Pavement blocks are mostly
recommended during construction due to.
(a) water absorption capacity
(b) low maintenance
(c) efflorescence
(d) size of the block
Ans: (b)
Pavement blocks, also known as pavers or
interlocking concrete blocks, are individual
precast units used to create pavements for
various applications. They offer numerous
advantages over traditional materials like
asphalt and concrete, making them a popular
choice for a wide range of projects.
Benefits of Pavement Blocks:
Durability: They are highly resistant to heavy
traffic, weather extremes, and wear and tear,
offering a long lifespan.
Low Maintenance: Unlike asphalt or concrete,
they require minimal maintenance, saving on
long-term costs. Individual blocks can be easily
replaced if damaged.
Versatility: Available in various shapes, sizes,
colors, and textures, allowing for creative
design possibilities and customization.
Flexibility: Individual blocks can be removed
and replaced for repairs or access to
underground utilities.
Environmentally Friendly: Many are made from
recycled materials and promote water
infiltration, reducing runoff and benefiting the
environment.
Pedestrian-Friendly: Textured surfaces offer
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better traction and gaps between blocks reduce

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heat buildup, creating a safer and more

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comfortable walking experience.

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Aesthetics: They enhance the visual appeal of

spaces with their diverse colors, textures, and
patterns.
Cost-Effective: While the initial cost might be
higher, their durability, low maintenance, and
ease of repair make them cost-effective in the
long run.
SSC JE PRE CIVIL 11 OCTOBER • The angle of divergence = 6° -7° It should not
be greater than 7° to avoid flow separation
2023 MORNING PAPER
Q.01. The angle of the divergent portion of a
Venturimeter is kept less than the angle of the
converging portion to _______
(a) decrease the pressure in the direction of
the flow at the diverging part
(b) increase the velocity of the flow in the
direction of the flow at the diverging part
(c) avoid a situation where in the flow may
become compressible
(d) minimize the loss of energy caused by flow Q.02. In the double integration method for a
separation simply supported beam subjected to UDL over
Ans : (d) its entire span, the slope and deflection
calculation will require:
Venturimeter
(a) the boundary condition as well as the
It is based on Bernoulli's principle. It is a device symmetry condition
commonly used to measure the flow rate of a
(b) the boundary condition as well as the
fluid flowing through a pipe. It is named after
continuity condition
to notable Italian physicist G.B. Venturi (1746-
(c) only symmetry condition
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1822).
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• A venturimeter is a device used for (d) only the boundary condition

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measuring the rate of flow of a fluid of a liquid Ans : (a)

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flowing through a pipe. Method of determining deflection of beams

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• The venturimeter always have smaller • Double integration method

convergent portion and a larger divergent
• Moment area method
portion.
• Strain energy method
• This is done to ensures a rapid converging
passage and a gradual diverging passage in the • Conjugate beam method
direction of flow to avoid the loss of energy • Macaulay’s method
due to separation. • Unit load method
• In the course of flow through the converging Double integration method:–It is also known as
part, the velocity increases in the direction of integration method, it uses the equation of the
flow according to the principle of continuity, deflection curve in terms of bending moment.
while the pressure decreases according to ⅆ𝟐 𝒚
𝑬𝑰 = = −𝑴
Bernoulli's theorem. ⅆ𝒙𝟐

• The velocity reaches its maximum value and Integrating

ⅆ𝒚
pressure reaches its minimum value at the 𝑬𝑰 = 𝑬𝑰𝜽 = −∫ 𝑴
ⅆ𝒙
throat.
Integrating again
• Subsequently, a decrease in the velocity and
𝑬𝑰𝒚 = −∬ 𝑴
an increase in the pressure take place in course
of flow through the divergent part. Case 1–Simply supported beam with UDL over
the entire length
• The angle of convergence 20°
ⅆ𝟐 𝒚 𝒘𝑳 𝒘𝒙𝟐
𝑬𝑰 = −𝑴 = [ 𝒙− ]
ⅆ𝒙𝟐 𝟐 𝟐
 𝒘𝑳𝟑 (c) 61 cm (d) 20.375 cm
𝜽𝑨 =
𝟐𝟒𝑬𝑰
𝟓𝑾𝑳𝟒
Ans : (a)
𝒚𝒎𝒂𝒙 =
𝟑𝟖𝟒𝑬𝑰 Given that,
Sleeper density = N + 3
(W) width of sleeper = 20.25 cm
For BG track length of one rail = 13 m
No. of sleepers = 13 + 3 = 16
𝟏𝟑×𝟏𝟎𝟎
Therefore, in the double integration method Spacing of sleepers (S) =
𝟏𝟔
for a simply supported beam subjected to UDL = 81.25 cm
over its entire span, the slope and deflection 𝑺−𝒘
calculation will require the boundary condition Depth of ballast cushion =
𝟐
as well as the symmetry condition. 𝟖𝟏⋅𝟐𝟓−𝟐𝟎⋅𝟐𝟓
=
𝟐
Q.03. The ration of the total length of streams
= 30.50 cm = 30.5 cm
of all orders within a basin to its area is
called..?
(a) drainage density (b) stream density Q.05. Which of the following is NOT a type of
(c) catchment density (d) stream order municipal solid waste based on source?
Ans : (a) (a) House refuse (b) Street refuse
(c) Trade refuse (d) Industrial refuse
Drainage density:
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Ans : (a)
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• It is defined as the sum of lengths of all the

Solid wastes
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streams divided by the catchment area.

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• Drainage Density = (Total Length of • Solid wastes are the total wastes arising from
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Channels/Catchment Area) human and animal activities that are normally

• In general as drainage density increases, flow
velocity increases, infiltration decreases, base
period decreases and peak discharge increases.
The study area is divided into three classes–
High drainage density > 4 km/km2
Moderate drainage density 2-4 km/km2
Low drainage density < 2 km/km2
Stream density
While similar to drainage density, stream
density specifically refers to the total length of
first-order streams (the smallest streams)
within a basin divided by its area. It serves as a
measure of the initial channel development in
a landscape.
Q.04. A BG track is laid with a sleeper density
of N+3. The width of the sleeper is 20.25 cm.
Find the minimum depth of the ballast
cushion.
(a) 30.5 cm (b) 10.125 cm
solid and hence are useless or unwanted.
• It encompasses the heterogeneous mass of
throw away from houses of commercial
centers as well as the nearby homogeneous
accumulation of a single industrial activity.
TYPES OF SOLID WASTES
The general categories of solid wastes are as
given below:
1. Municipal solid wastes
2. Industrial solid wastes.
MUNICIPAL SOLID WASTES
MSW are also called refuse. Refuse are the
organic and inorganic waste materials such as
product packaging, grass clippings, furniture,
clothing, bottles, kitchen refuse, paper,
appliances, paint cans, batteries, etc.
1. Municipal Solid Wastes are Classified as:
(a) Garbage
• It includes all sorts of putrescible (bio-
degradable) organic wastes, obtained from
kitchens, hotels, restaurants etc.
• All waste food articles, vegetable peelings,
fruit peeling, etc.
• The density of garbage usually varies
between 450 to 900 Kg/m³.
(b) Rubbish
• It can include non-putrescible wastes (except
ashes) which may either be combustible or
incombustible.
Combustible:- paper, plastic, textile etc.
Incombustible:-broken glass, metal, masonry
etc.
• The density of rubbish usually varies
between 50 to 400 Kg/m³
(c) Ashes
• The density of ashes generally varies
between 700 to 850 Kg/m³
2. Municipal Solid Wastes Classified on the
Basis of Source are as follows:
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Refuse may also be classified, depending on its
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source as
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(a) House refuse: This consists of vegetable and
animal waste matters, ashes, rubbish, debris
from cleaning and demolition of structures.
(b) Street refuse: This consists of empty
packets and bottles, empty matches and
cigarette boxes, fruit, peels, tree leaves, street
sweepings etc.
(c) Trade refuse: This consists of solid wastes
from factories, commercial and business
centers, slaughter houses etc .
INDUSTRIAL WASTES
• Industrial wastes are generated from the
industrial activities or manufacturing
processes.
• All the three types of wastes, solid, liquid and
gaseous are generated
• The solid wastes produced by industries can
be broadly divided into following two
categories
(a) Non hazardous solid wastes
(b) Hazardous solid wastes
Q.06. Which of the following options
represents the satellite-based positioning
systems run by Russia?
(a) TSIKADA and GPS
(b) TRANSIT and GLONASS
(c) TSIKADA and GLONASS
(d) GPS and GLONASS
Ans : (c)
GLONASS- Russia
• This system is meant to provide radio
navigation satellite services.
• GLONASS (Global Navigation Satellite) is a
Russian space-based satellite navigation
system.
• The GLONASS system was preserved,
modernized and became operational consisting
of "GLONASS-K" satellites.
• It support with ensured performances on a
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competitive level GLONASS development
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towards capability enhancement aimed at
achieving parity with international navigation
satellite systems and leadership of the Russian
Federation in satellite navigation
• GLONASS use both on the territory of the
Russian Federation and abroad
GPS - United States
• GPS is a radio-navigation system owned by
the government of The United States.
• This system is developed for the Air Force
operations of the United States.
• The GPS use in national and international
operations including lending a helping hand to
navy and military operations.
NAVIC - India
• ISRO, made India's indigenous GPS and
navigation system called NAVIC, since 2016.
This is the 7th and last navigation satellite
launched by India.
• NAVIC can become the leading light for
travelers and hikers by providing terrestrial
navigation information.
• It can be used to lay hands on accurate D2 = 5.62 m2
location coordinates linked to aerial (air), D = 2.36 m
terrestrial (land) and marine (water) Bed width of canal (B) = 6.5 D
navigation.
B = 6.5 × 2.36 = 15.40 m
Galileo - European Union
Q.08. Which of the following types of soil have
• Galileo is a Global Navigation Satellite System
excellent workability as a construction
(GNSS) that was built by the European Union
material?
(EU), in collaboration with the European Space
Agency (ESA). (a) Well graded gravel (b) Silty sand
• Galileo will have 30 satellites which will orbit (c) Silty gravel (d) Clayey sand
in space, interoperating with both Russia's Ans : (a)
GLONASS and USA's GPS.
• The important application of Galileo is to Permeability Shearing Workability
come up with a novel global search and rescue Typical when strength as a
(SAR) function, lending a helping hand to all name of soil compacted when construction
groups and saturated compacted material
the distressed people caught up in aerial and
marine accidents. Well-graded
gravels,
Tsikada- Russia gravel-sand
Tsikada is a Russian satellite navigation system mixtures,
including ten Low Earth orbit (LEO) satellites. It little or no
transmits the same two carrier frequencies as fines (GW) Pervious Excellent Excellent
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the U.S. TRANSIT satellite system.

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Poorly
graded
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Q.07. A trapezoidal canal carries a discharge of gravels,

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40 cumec and has the permissible mean gravel-sand

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velocity of 0.95m/s. The bed width of the canal mixtures

is _____ Take the side slope of the canal as 1 : (GP) Very pervious Good Good
1 and the width/depth ration as 6.5. Silty gravel Semi-pervious
(a) 14.50 m (b) 17.40 m (GM) to impervious Good Good
(c) 15.40 m (d) 16.40 m Clayey
gravel (GC) Impervious Good to fair Good
Ans : (c)
Well-graded
Discharge (Q) = 40 cumec sand (SW) Pervious Excellent Excellent
Permissible mean velocity (V) = 0.95 m/s Silty sands Semi-pervious
Side slope = 1:1 (SM) to impervious Good Fair
𝐁 𝐖𝐢𝐝𝐭𝐡
= = 𝟔. 𝟓
𝐃 𝐃𝐞𝐩𝐭𝐡 Q.09. Determine the total pressure on a
B = 6.5 D circular plate of diameter 2 m, which is placed
∵ Q = AV vertically in water in such a way that the
40 = A × 0.95 Center of the placed vertically in water in such
𝟒𝟎 a way that the Center of the plate is 2.5 m
A= = 42..11 m2 below the free surface of the water.
𝟎.𝟗𝟓
Cross sectional area (A) = (B + D)D (a) 72058 N (b) 70058 N
42.11 m2 = (6.5D + D)D (c) 71058 N (d) 77048 N
42.11 m2 = 7.5 D2 Ans : (d)
Diameter of circular plate (d) = 2 m
̅ = 2.5m
𝒙 to a pipe in which liquid is flowing with a
Density of water (ρ) = 1000 kg/m3.
𝛑 𝛑
Area (A) = × 𝐝𝟐 = × 𝟐𝟐 = 𝟑. 𝟏𝟒 𝐦𝟐
𝟒 𝟒
̅
Total horizontal force FH = ρgA𝒙
FH = 1000 × 9.81 × 3.14 × 2.5
FH = 77008.5 N
Q.10. The type of signal in which the timings of
the phase and cycle are changed according to
traffic demand is called ______ .
(a) actuated traffic signal
Q.11. A simple U-tube manometer connected
uniform speed will give ______ .
(a) vacuum pressure
(b) gauge pressure
(c) atmospheric pressure
(d) absolute pressure
Ans : (b)
U tube manometers:
• A U-tube manometer is the simplest pressure
measurement device.
• Its name comes from the U-shape formed
when the two ends of a flexible tube full of
liquid are raised to keep the liquid from coming
out the ends.
• A simple U tube manometer connected to a
pipe in which liquid is flowing with uniform
speed will give Gauge pressure.
• For larger pressure measurement, for
measuring gas pressure at a point and for
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(b) pedestrian signal measuring (-)ve pressure, U-tube manometers

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(c) fixed time signal are used. U-Tube manometers are used to
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(d) manually operated signal measure pressure upto 3-3.5 atm.

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Ans : (a)
Actuated signals.
• In this type of signal system, signal timings
are completely influenced by the traffic volume
as detected on all approach roads(where as it
is not influenced as per the time of the day)
• Initial cost is very high for the installation of
traffic signals.
• Sensors and detectors are used to operate
the signals.
Semi actuated signal
Q.12. For cast in situ lining, identify the false
• In this type of signal system, timings are
statement.
affected when vehicles are detected.
• Suitable only when low volume Road (a) It has a higher initial cost.
intersects, high volume Road. (b) It is most resistant to erosion.
Fixed time signal (c) The recurring maintenance charges are
• The timing of each phase of the cycle is fixed high.
based on the traffic studies. (d) It has a longer life than that of any other
• Signals time cycle does not change with type.
respect to the change in traffic flow at the Ans : (c)
intersection.
The tunnel lining construction method will
depend on the ground conditions and
geological strata. There are many different
types of lining, including:
(a) Precast concrete segments
(b) In-situ concrete that is cast in position
(c) In-situ concrete that is sprayed in position
Cast In Situ Lining in Tunnels:
Tunnels cut through hard rock may be lined
with concrete cast in-situ. Generally a long
length (or the entire length) of the tunnel is
excavated before lining, with some temporary
roof support provided by rock bolting. For
tunnels in soft ground, precast linings will
usually be installed as excavation progresses,
though sprayed concrete may be used to give a
temporary support before an in-situ lining is
cast.
1. Cast in situ lining allows for customization
according to the specific dimensions and shape
of the tunnel, ensuring a precise fit.
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3. First coat
4. Final coat
Surface preparation: Before painting, it's
essential to prepare the surface by cleaning,
sanding, and repairing any imperfections. This
step ensures that the paint adheres well and
provides a smooth finish.
Prime coat: After preparing the surface,
applying a primer coat helps seal the surface,
provides better adhesion for the paint, and
improves the durability of the final finish.
First coat : Once the primer is dry, the first coat
of paint is applied. This layer establishes the
base color and coverage.
Final coat : Lastly, the final coat of paint is
applied to achieve the desired color depth and
finish. This coat enhances the appearance and
provides additional protection to the surface.
Q.14. A beam cross section has shape of an
angle section as given below. Which of the
i
following cross sections has the same nature of
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2. Provides a high level of structural strength shear stress distribution as that of the below
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and durability, especially when reinforced with angle section?

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materials like steel or fiberglass.

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3. Additives such as fibers or chemicals can be

added to the concrete mix to enhance
properties like waterproofing or corrosion
resistance.
4. Precast concrete linings are more (a) (b)
economical than cast-iron and steel, but they
can be problematic to achieve water tightness.
Q.13. Arrange the following steps for painting
of surfaces in a sequential manner.
1. First coat (c) (d)
2. Final coat
3. Prime coat Ans : (d)
4. Surface preparation Shear stress distribution of L section
(a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Ans : (c)
Steps for painting of surfaces
1. Surface preparation
2. Prime coat
Shear Stress distribution in T section. • They are obtained by rotating a log of wood
against a sharp knife of rotary cutter or saw.
Veneers after being removed are dried in kilns.
• Veneers may be glued to inferior wood to
improve its appearance. Veneers are used to
produce plywood, batten boards and
Shear stress distribution for a triangular laminboards.
section is given by 2. Plywood
• PLY means thin layer. Plywoods are boards
which have been prepared from thin layers of
wood or veneers.
• The three or more veneers in odd numbers
are used to get a balanced sheet and reduce
warping.
• Veneers are placed one above the other with
Shear Stress distribution in H section. the direction of grains of successive layers of
right angles to each other.
• They are held in position by application of a
suitable adhesive and applied suitable pressure
of 100 to 150 N/cm².
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• They have a wide range of applications like

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ceilings, furniture, doors, packing cases etc, but

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Shear Stress distribution in I section. are not suitable for applications that involve
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direct impact.
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3. Fibre Board
• These are rigid boards also known as pressed
wood or reconstructed wood.
• These board are built up from wood fibres,
agricultural fibres, saw dust etc. with varying
Q.15. Which of the following is manufactured thickness of 3-12mm .
from particles of wood or other lingo cellulose • Depending upon their form and composition,
materials, which are agglomerated, formed the fiberboards are classified as soft boards,
and pressed together using an organic binder (insulating boards) medium hard boards, hard
together in the presence of heat, pressure or density boards, superhard boards and
moisture? laminated boards.
(a) Block board (b) Particle board • Fibreboards form an ideal base for practically
(c) Fibre board (d) Plywood all types of decorative finishes such as
distemper, oil paint etc.
Ans : (b)
• They are widely used for wall and ceiling
WOOD PRODUCTS cladding, partitions, doors, perforated acoustic
1. Veneers tiles. railway carriages and bus bodies.
• Veneers are thin sheets of wood of thickness Particle boards or chip boards
thinner than 3mm.
• They are manufactured from particles of
wood or other lingo cellulose materials which
are agglomerated formed and pressed together
by the use of an organic binder together in the
presence of heat, pressure or moisture.
• These are cheaper, denser and more uniform
than conventional wood and plywood and is
substituted for them when appearance and
strength are less important than cost.
• A major disadvantage is that it is prone to
expansion and discoloration due to moisture.
Therefore rarely used at outdoor, bathroom
and kitchen.
• Particle boards are extensively used for
partitions doors, furniture making, etc.
5. Batten Board
• It is a board having a core made up of strips
of wood, each laid separately or glued to form
a slab which is glued between two or more
outer veneers with the direction of the grain of
the core running at right angles to that of the
Q.16. The mantle layer exists from the base of
the crust layer to a depth of about ________ .
(a) 2,900 km (b) 2,600 km
(c) 2,700 km (d) 2,800 km
Ans : (a)
Starting at the center, Earth is composed of
four distinct layers. They are, from deepest to
shallowest, the inner core, the outer core, the
mantle and the crust.
The inner core
This solid metal ball has a radius of 1,220
kilometers (758 miles), or about three-quarters
that of the moon. It’s located some 6,400 to
5,180 kilometers (4,000 to 3,220 miles)
beneath Earth’s surface. It would likely consist
almost entirely of iron.
The outer core
This part of the core is also made from iron and
nickel, just in liquid form. It sits some 5,180 to
2,880 kilometers (3,220 to 1,790 miles) below
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adjacent outer veneers. the surface. Heated largely by the radioactive

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decay of the elements uranium and thorium,

• The overall thickness and breadth not
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this liquid churns in huge, turbulent currents.

exceeding 50 mm. The core consist of sawn
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The mantle
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thin wood having thickness of about 20 25 mm.

6. Lamin Board At close to 3,000 kilometers (1,865 miles) thick,
this is Earth’s thickest layer. It starts a mere 30
Lamin boards have a core of strips, each not
kilometers (18.6 miles) beneath the surface.
exceeding 7 mm in thickness. Glued together
Made mostly of iron, magnesium and silicon, it
to form a slab which in turn is glued between
is dense, hot and semi-solid (think caramel
two or more outer veneers. The directions of
candy).
the grains of the core block run at right angles
to that of the adjacent outer veneers.
7. Block Board
• These are boards having a core made up of
strips of wood each not exceeding 25mm in
width, laid separately or glued to form a slab
which is glued between two or more outer
veneers with the direction of the core blocks
running at right angles to that of the adjacent
outer veneers.
• Block boards are extensively used for
construction of railway carriages, bus bodies,
marine and river crafts and for furniture
making, partitions, prefabricated houses etc.
Q.17. The air vessel in a reciprocating pump is:
(a) fitted ahead of the pump
(b) fitted outside the system
(c) fitted in the delivery pipe
(d) not fitted
Ans : (c)
Air vessels
Air vessels is a large closed chamber fitted in
suction and delivery pipes close to the cylinder.
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Functions of air vessel
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Advantages of using air vessel on suction side
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(1) Chances of cavitation will be less.
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(2) Length of suction pipe can be increased
(due to friction not occurs).
(3) Power expended in pumping will be
reduced for a given min press head.
(4) For a given min pressure head, head
running speed of pump can be increased and
hence discharge con be increased.
Advantage of using air vessel on delivery side
(1) Steady discharge in the delivery pipe is
assured.
(2) If pipe is to be designed on the basis of max
discharge there would be considerable saving
the pipe diameter.
(3) Due to reduction in frictional losses power
can be saved and for a given min press Running
speed of pump can be increased producing
greater discharge.
Q.18. If the normal and shear stress
corresponding the failure are plotted, then a
curve is obtained. The plot or curve is called
the____.
(a) failure line (b) phreatic line
(c) strength envelope (d) parabolic curve
Ans : (c)
Mohr Coulomb Failure Theory:
The theory was first given by coulomb (1776)
and later generalized by Mohr (1900).
According to Mohr coulomb failure theory, the
failure occurs when shear stress on the failure
plane reaches some unique function of the
normal stress on that plane and can be
expressed algebraically by the equation
τf= S= f(σt)
The shear stress at failure, τf is called the shear
strength. If the shear stress and normal stress
at failure are plotted then a curve is obtained.
This curve is called failure envelope or strength
envelope. The failure envelope suggested by
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coulomb is a straight line.
Q.19. The Cd value of an orifice of d/D = 0.5 (d
= diameter of orifice and D = diameter of the
pipe) lies in the range ______ .
(a) 0.95 to 0.98 (b) 0.60 to 0.62
(c) 0.70 to 0.80 (d) 0.81 to 0.94
Ans : (b)
Coefficient of discharge
Coefficient of discharge is the ratio of actual
discharge to the theoretical discharge.
Venturimeter 0.95 to 0.98
Orifice meter 0.62 to 0.65
Nozzle meter 0.93 to 0.98
Q.20. A 0.3 m diameter pipe carries oil of
specific gravity 08 at flow velocity of 1.5m/s
and the pressure at a point A is 20kN/m2
(gauge). If the point A is 3 m above the datum Traffic Noise:- Noise produced by traffic has
line, calculate the approximate total energy at always been a nuisance to the society. The
point A in meters of oil. intensity and nature of the traffic noise
(a) 5.25 m (b) 6.31 m depends on various factors. The disturbance
(c) 5.95 m (d) 5.65 m due to aircraft noise depends very much on the
type of aircraft. A jet aircraft at take-off
Ans : (d)
produces more noise than a propeller type and
Diameter of pipe (d) = 0.3 a heavy truck carrying loose luggage may have
Specific gravity (G) = 0.8 a greater nuisance value than a private car. In
Flow velocity (v) = 1.5 m/s case of automobile traffic the condition of the
road and the maintenance of the vehicles play
Gauge pressure (P) = 20 kN/m2
an important part.
Datum head (z) = 3 m
The noise produced by trains also depends
ρ = Specific gravity × ρwater upon the type of train , for typical values of
ρ = 0.8 × 1000 = 800 kg/m3 train noise, the rails and their bending. As in
We know that, the case of road, rail, and air traffic the noise
Total energy at point A. produced by sea traffic is more at the harbour
where the loading and unloading takes place.
𝑽𝟐 𝑷
TEL = Z + + Industries :- Noise is one of the by-products of
𝟐𝐠 𝛒𝐠
industry. The nature and intensity of the noises
depend on the type of industry. These noises
𝟏.𝟓𝟐 𝟐𝟎×𝟏𝟎𝟑
i
are generally produced by rotating,
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TEL = 3 + + = 𝟓. 𝟔𝟔𝟒 𝒎
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𝟐×𝟗.𝟖𝟏 𝟖𝟎𝟎×𝟗.𝟖𝟏
reciprocating or any other machinery, or by
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high pressure, high velocity gases liquids or

Q.21. Which of the following traffic sources will
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vapours involved in the processes of industry.

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cause noise of the highest level during Noises Due to Other Activities:- These noises
operation? are periodical, continuous or intermittent, such
(a) Rail traffic as from temple and church bells, sirens, blaring
(b) Road traffic or loudspeakers, hawkers and children playing,
(c) Jet aircraft at the take-off stage as a result of local community life and activity.
(d) Inland water traffic Source of noise dB

Ans : (c) 100-

Air traffic 110
SOURCES OF NOISE
100-
Common sources of outdoor noise are the 1. Jet aircraft at take-off stage at about 300 m 110
following:
2. Propeller aircraft at take-off stage at about
a) Traffic 300 m 90-110
i) Air traffic Rail traffic (at about 30 m) 90-110
ii) Rail traffic, Heavy road traffic (highway) 80-90
iii) Road traffic
Medium road traffic (main streets) 70-80
iv) Sea shore and inland water traffic
Light road traffic (side streets) 60-70
b) Industries
c) Other activities
Q.22. The type pavement marking which is
used as a hazard marking and guide marking
for safe driving during night is known as
_______?
(a) kerb marking
(b) reflector unit marking
(c) object marking
(d) pavement marking
Ans : (b)
Road markings
Road markings or traffic markings are made on
the road to control, warn, guide, or regulate
the traffic.
The markings may be in the form of lines,
patterns, words, symbols, reflectors on the
pavement, kerb, side of islands, or on fixed
objects within or near the roadway.
The road markings are classified as:
1. Pavement markings,
2. Kerb markings,
3. Object markings, and
4. Reflector Unit markings.
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1. Pavement markings: The white color paint is
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generally used for pavement markings whereas
iv
the yellow color paints are used to indicate
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parking restrictions, and for the continuous
centre line and barrier line markings. The
longitudinal solid lines being used as guiding or
regulatory lines, are not supposed to be
crossed by the drivers. The stop lines for
vehicular traffic are indicated by transverse
solid lines.
Brief descriptions of some of the common
types of pavement markings are given below:
Centre line – used on undivided two-way roads
to separate the opposing stream of traffic.
Lane line – used to designate the traffic lanes
to guide traffic and to properly utilize the
carriageway.
No Passing Zone markings – used to indicate
prohibited overtaking.
Turn markings – used near the intersections to
designate proper lateral placement of vehicles
before turning to different directions.
Parking Space Limit markings – are made for
the proper utilization of parking facility.
Bus Stop markings – are continuous yellow line
on the kerb used to indicate the area where
parking is prohibited to utilize the area as bus
stop along the length of the kerb. The space
meant for bus stop is also marked by the word
‘BUS’.
Stop Line markings – used to indicate that the
vehicles have to stop and then proceed near
the
pedestrian crossings, signalized intersections,
etc.
Approach to Obstruction markings – are
indicated by appropriate pavement markings.
Border or Edge Line markings – indicate the
carriageway edge of rural roads which do not
have kerb stones along the edges of the
carriageway.
Route Direction markings – used to guide
i
effectively the traffic into correct lane or lanes
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by using arrow or arrows.
2. Kerb marking:- It is used to indicate certain
regulations like parking regulations.
3. Object markings :– It indicate the hazardous
objects such as signs and signals, level crossing
gates,supports for bridge, traffic islands,
narrow bridges, culvert head wall, etc., on or
near the roadway.
4. Reflector Unit markings :–It is used as hazard
markers and guide markers for safe driving at
nights.
The reflecting yellow light is used for such
markings to make them visible from a long
distance of about 150 m.
Road Delineators – are the devices or some
arrangements to provide visual assistance to
the drivers about the alignment of road ahead,
especially at night to avoid accidents. The
delineators may be of three types as Roadway
Indicators, Hazard Markers, and Object
Markers. All the three have different shapes,
designs, and color patterns.
Q.23. During a cement mortar plastering of a → Soil is in a state of plastic condition at the
brick wall, the ration of 1 : 4 corresponds to time of active and passive pressure generation.
_____. → The backfill soil is horizontal. (although it
(a) Cement : Coarse aggregate does not necessarily need to be horizontal)
(b) Lime : Cement → Back of wall is vertical and smooth.
(c) Cement : Sand → Rupture surface is a planar surface which is
(d) Cement : Water obtained by considering the plastic equilibrium
Ans : (c) of soil.

Recommended cement and sand mix ratio for Q.25. Which of the following is NOT a retarding
plastering: admixture?
For external wall prone to severe climate (a) Starch (b) Calcium chloride
condition and for repair work = 1:3 (c) Sugar (d) Calcium sulphate
External brick wall plastering and ceiling Ans : (b)
plastering = 1 : 4 Type of
Admixture Examples Function
Internal brick wall plastering when fine sand is
not available = 1:5 Reduce water-to-
cement ratio while
Internal brick wall plastering when fine sand is maintaining
available = 1:6 Lignosulphate, workability, or
polyglycol ester, increase
Q.24. Rankine theory considers the stress in a carbohydrates, workability at the
i
soil mass when it reaches in the state of ____. hydroxylated same water-to-
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Plasticizers carboxylic acid cement ratio

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(a) plastic equilibrium

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Modified
(b) local state of equilibrium lignosulphonate,
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(c) limited equilibrium sulphonated malanie Same as plasticizers

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formaldehyde (SMF), in terms of

(d) general state of equilibrium sulphonated function, but
napthalene different in
Ans : (a)
Superplasticizers formaldehyde chemical reaction
EARTH PRESSURE THEORIES Slow down the
There are two classical theories of Earth chemical reaction
of hydration so that
Pressure.
Calcium sulphate, concrete remains
(a) Rankine's theory (1857) tartaric acid, starch, plastic and
Retarders sugar cellulose workable for longer
(b) Coulomb's theory (1776)
Increase the rate of
Rankine theory came later and is considered to Calcium chloride, strength gain in
be simpler than Coulomb's theory. Accelerators silicates, flousilicate concrete
Rankine Theory Entrap millions of
air bubbles in the
Rankine's theory considered stress in soil mass
Natural wood resin, concrete, which
when it attains plastic equilibrium. Here, by plant and animal fatty improve
plastic equilibrium we infer that every point in oil, stearic acid, oleic workability, frost
the soil mass experience shear failure, under acid, hydrogen resistance,
Air-entraining peroxide, aluminium segregation, and
the effect of shear stress developed. agents powder bleeding
Assumptions in Rankine's Theory Q.26. Sprinkle irrigation is the best method of
→ Soil is semi-infinite, homogeneous, irrigation for standing crops in ______ in fields.
isotropic, dry and cohesionless. (a) heavy soil with low infiltration rate
(b) level surface channels etc and hence more irrigated.
land is available for cropping.
(c) alluvial soil
(d) undulating sandy soil Insecticides and fertilizer can be
Ans : (d) mixed with water.

Sprinkler Irrigation Method About 80% water application

• In this method, the irrigation water is applied efficiency is possible (water
to the land in the form of spray, somewhat as application efficiency is high).
in ordinary rain through a network of pipes
Especially adaptable to more
and pumps.
humid regions.
• The sprinkler irrigation can be used for all the
crops except rice and jute and for almost ail
the soils except very heavy soils with very low
infiltration rates.
• Best suited for very light soils as deep
percolation losses are less.
• This system is flexible to suit undulating
topography and hence land levelling is not
necessary.
• This method is used mainly by cultivators of
tea, coffee and vegetables in our country.
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Q.27. For field compaction of soil, in cohesive

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soil the combination of tamping action and

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kneading action on soil is achieved by:

(a) pneumatic-tyred rollers
(b) sheep foot rollers
(c) vibroflotation
Advantages of Sprinkler Disadvantages of Sprinkler
Irrigation Irrigation (d) frog rammers
Ans : (b)
Used for a wide range of
topographic conditions, soils
Mostly four types of rollers used are:
and crops. Evaporation losses are high. 1. Pneumatic tired roller
2. Tamping roller/ sheep foot roller
Erosion of soil can be
controlled (as surface runoff is Saline water may cause leaf 3. Smooth wheel rollers
eliminated). burns in many crops. 4. Vibratory Roller
Pneumatic tired roller: Pneumatic tired roller
Uniform application of water is System is costly to install,
possible. operate and maintain.
has a number of rubber tires at the front and
at the rear end. A pneumatic tired roller can be
Continuous supply of power used for highways, construction of dams and
Labour cost is reduced as no is generally required for for both fine- grained and non-cohesive soils.
land preparations are required. operating the system. Sheep foot roller: Sheep foot roller also named
tamping roller. The front steel drum of sheep
Does not require borders, field Corners remain under-
foot roller consists of many rectangular-shaped
boots of equal sizes fixed in a hexagonal
pattern. In sheep foot, roller compaction is by
static weight and kneading of the respective
layer. This makes tamping roller better suited
for cohesive soils.
Smooth wheel rollers: Smooth wheel roller and
vibratory rollers are the same. Both have the
same characteristics. Only the difference in
both is vibratory equipment. Smooth wheel
roller has no vibrator attached to the drum.
This makes smooth wheel roller best suited for
rolling of weaker aggregates, proof rolling of
subgrades and in compacting asphalt
pavements.
Vibratory Roller: Vibratory type rollers have
two smooth wheels/drums plus the vibrators.
One is fixed at the front and the other one is
on the rear side of the vibratory roller.
Vibration is to reduce the air voids and to
cause densification of granular soils. During the
vibration of the soil layer, rearrangement of
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particles occurs due to deformation of the
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granular soil because of oscillation of the roller
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in a cycle.
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Q.28. The following observations were made in
an open-traverse compass survey. Bearing of
Line AB is S 35o 30' E, whereas the included
angles measured clockwise at stations B, C, D
and E are 105o, 20o, 265o, 50o, 20o, 10o, 325o
and 325o 40o, respectively. The bearing of Line
CD is
Ans : (d)
Given that,
Bearing of line AB = S35º30'E
The bearing line of CD = S24º20'E
Q.29. The maximum value of the radius of
gyration is obtained if a material_______.
(a) is placed nearest the centroid
(b) has the maximum area
(c) is placed at the centroid
(d) is placed farthest from the centroid
Ans : (d)
Radius of gyration:
It is the radial distance from the point to the
axis of rotation where whole area of the body
is supposed to be concentrated, so that the
moment of inertia of system is same as given
situation. Maximum radius of gyration is
obtained when material is farthest from the
centroid hence box section is best.
The radius of gyration of a body depends on
1. On the shape and size of the body.
2. Position and direction of the axis of rotation.
3. Distribution of area about the axis of
rotation.
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It is given by
𝑰
𝒓=√
𝑨
Where A = Area of cross section
I = Moment of inertia
Q.30. In plane table surveys, the orientation of
the table only by back sighting is preferred
when_______ .
(a) the traverse is too long
(b) speed is more important than accuracy
(c) the plane table can be set on a point
already plotted on the sheet
(d) there is no second point for orientation
Ans : (c)
Orientation
• It is the operation of keeping the plane table
parallel to the position it occupied at the first
station.
• In such a case all the lines plotted will be
parallel to the corresponding lines on the
ground.
• During orientation the table is rotated and
the plotted position of the instrument station
is also disturbed and shifts relative to the
ground stations.
• Therefore operations of orientation and
centering are therefore interrelated.
Methods of Orientation of Plane table:
1. Orientation by trough compass
2. Orientation by mean of back sighting
1. Orientation by trough compass:
• Orientation by trough compass is less
accurate and used for approximate orientation
of plane table prior to the final adjustment.
• The plane table can be oriented by compass
under the following conditions:
1. When speed is more important than
accuracy,
2. When there is no second point available for
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orientation,
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3. When the traverse is so long that
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accumulated errors in carrying the azimuth
forward might be greater than the orientation
of the compass,
4. For approximate orientation prior to final
adjustment.
2. Orientation by mean of back sighting:
• Orientation in plane table surveying can be
done precisely by sighting the points already
plotted on the sheet.
• The plane table can be oriented by mean of
back sighting the following conditions:
1. When it is possible to set the plane table on
the point already plotted on the sheet by way
of observation from the previous section.
2. When it is not possible to set the plane table
on the point.
Q.31. Select the correct option for the given
statements.
Statement 1 : Due to their low strength,
particle boards are less durable than plywood
or solid wood. However, using laminates or
veneers on the surface can aid to improve
durability.
Statement 2: A layer of melamine can be
applied to the top surface of particle boards to
make them fire-resistant.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true
(b) Both statement 1 and Statement 2 are false
(c) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(d) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
Ans : (a)
Particle boards or chip boards
• They are manufactured from particles of
wood or other lingo cellulose materials which
are agglomerated formed and pressed together
by the use of an organic binder together in the
presence of heat, pressure or moisture.
• These are cheaper, denser and more uniform
than conventional wood and plywood and is
substituted for them when appearance and
i
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strength are less important than cost.
• A major disadvantage is that it is prone to
expansion and discoloration due to moisture.
Therefore rarely used at outdoor, bathroom
and kitchen.
• Due to their low strength, particle boards are
less durable than plywood or solid wood.
However, using laminates or veneers on the
surface can aid to improve durability.
• A layer of melamine can be applied to the
top surface of particle boards to make them
fire-resistant.
• Particle boards are ideal for usage in
recording studios and performance venues
because of their outstanding sound insulation
capabilities.
• Particle boards are extensively used for
partitions doors, furniture making, etc.
Q.32. In which process of manufacturing of
cement are the raw materials ground, mixed
and fed to the rotary kiln in the dry state?
(a) Wet process (b) Moist process
(c) Grinding process (d) Dry process
Ans : (d)
Manufacturing Process of Cement
1. Dry Process
• Dry process is adopted when raw materials
are quite hard.
• The process is slow and product is costly.
• Limestone and clay are ground to fine
powder separately and are mixed.
• Water is added to make a thick paste. Cakes
of this paste containing about 14% of moisture
are dried and are charged into rotary kiln and
the product obtained after calcination in rotary
kiln is called as clinker.
• Clinker is obtained as a result of incipient
fusion (the process of joining two or more
things together to form a single entity) and
sintering (fusging together without melting to
the point of liquefaction) at a temperature of
about 1400°C-1500°C. because ferric oxide has
lower melting point than other oxide, it act as
a flux (the process of flowing).
• Aeration of cement clinker, which is
commonly practised to slake free lime, also
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causes an absorption of moisture and carbon
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dioxides.
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• Absorption of moisture tends to decreases
the setting.
• Clinker is cooled rapidly to preserve the
metastable compounds (nearly stable or easily
prone to degradable) and their solid solutions
dispersion of one solid in another, which are
made as the clinker is heated.
• Clinker (3 to 20 mm size) is then cooled and
ground in tube mills, where 2-3% gypsum is
added Purpose of adding gypsum is to coat the
cement particles by interfering with the
process of hydration of the cement particles.
2 Wet Process
• In wet process crushed raw materials are fed
into ball mill and a little water is added.
• During operation of ball mill, the steel ball in
it pulverize the materials which form a slurry
with water. This slurry is passed to silos
(storage tanks), where the proportioning of the
compounds is adjusted to ensure designed
chemical composition.
• Corrected slurry having about 40% moisture
content is then fed into rotary kiln, where it
uses moisture and forms into lumps or
nodules.
• Then it is finally burned at 1500-1600°C and
nodules change to clinker at this temperature.
• Clinker is cooled and then ground in tube
mills.
• While grinding the clinker, about 3% gypsum
is added.
• The cement is then stored in silos from where
it is supplied.
Q.33. Register of arrears of wages due to work
people is recorded in _______
(a) part II of the muster roll
(b) part III of the muster roll
(c) part II of the wage record
(d) part III of the wage record
Ans : (a)
Muster Roll:
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• Muster Roll is used for keeping a complete
record of attendance, payment made, unpaid
wages, and work done by daily labour engaged
in the execution of works.
• It is the basic records of payment made to
daily labour. After the payment is made, the
muster roll is kept as a voucher. It is very
important to record and strictly in accordance
with the rules.
Muster Roll consists of the following three
parts:
• Part-1 (Nominal Roll) - In this part of the
Muster Roll full information about the labour
employed is recorded and daily attendance of
the labour is marked.
• Part -2 (Register of arrears of wages due to
Worked People) - This part of the muster group
is used for keeping a record of all unpaid
wages.
• Part -3 (Details of measurement of work
done by labour) - This part of the muster group
is used for full particulars of the work done and
the reference to pages and nos of the
measurement book are recorded .
Q.34 Which of the given options does NOT monoxide is a poisonous gas as it reduces
include solid waste? oxygen carrying capacity of our blood, when
(a) Garbage (b) Sewage inhaled.
(c) Street sweepings (d) Plastic waste. Municipal drainage systems emit H2S gas.
Ans : (b) Municipal drainage system means the system
operated and maintained by the city for the
Solid wastes
purpose of transporting, disposing, treating
• Solid wastes are the total wastes arising from using or discharging drainage etc.
human and animal activities that are normally
solid and hence are useless or unwanted. Q.36. A rectangular channel 3 m wide carries
water at a depth of 1.2 m. The bed slope of the
• It encompasses the heterogeneous mass of
channel is 0.0025 Calculate the hydraulic radius
throw away from houses of commercial
of the channel.
centers as well as the nearby homogeneous
accumulation of a single industrial activity. (a) 0.627 m (b) 0.667 m
• Garbage , street sweepings, and plastic waste (c) 0.637 m (d) 0.617 m
are all examples of solid waste. They are Ans : (b)
discarded materials with a semi-solid or solid Given that
consistency. Width (b) = 3 m
Q.35. Which of the following statements is Depth (d) = 1.2 m
INCORRECT? Bed slope = 0.0025
(a) Welding operations may release nitrogen
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oxide.
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(b) Thermal power houses are the main

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contributors to SO2 emissions.

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(c) Municipal drainage systems emit H2S gas.

Area (A) = 1.2 × 3
(d) Incomplete combustion of carbonaceous
A = 3.6 m2
fuels releases carbon dioxide as the major
pollutant. Wetted perimeter (P) = b + 2d
Ans : (d) P = 3 + 2 × 1.2
= 3 + 2.4
Combustion of coal in coal-fired power plants
releases emissions of P = 5.4 m
𝑨
■ Sulfur dioxide (SO2), Hydraulic radius of channel =
𝑷
■ Nitrogen oxides (NOx), 𝟑.𝟔
R=
■ Particulate matter (PM), 𝟓.𝟒
= 0.6666
■ Carbon monoxide (CO), and
= 0.667 m
■ Volatile organic compounds (VOCs)
Welding operations can produce the following Q.37. Which of the following is NOT a property
emissions of coir fibers?
■ Carbon monoxide (a) Resistance to dynamic loading
■ Nitrogen oxides (b) Elasticity
■Ozone, dusts and metallic fumes (c) Ease to carry
Incomplete combustion of fuels generally (d) Long service span
releases carbon monoxide gas (CO). Carbon Ans : (a)
Coir fibers are natural fibers derived from the
outer husk of coconuts. Here's an explanation
of their properties:
Resistance to Dynamic Loading: Coir fibers are
known for their high tensile strength and
durability, which make them resistant to
dynamic loading. This property makes them
suitable for various applications where they
may undergo stress or strain, such as in ropes,
mats, and geotextiles.
Elasticity: Coir fibers have limited elasticity
compared to some synthetic fibers like nylon
or elastane. While they can flex to some extent
without breaking, their elasticity is not as
pronounced as that of certain other materials.
Ease to Carry: Coir fibers are lightweight and
relatively easy to handle and transport,
especially in comparison to heavier materials
like steel. This property makes them
convenient for use in applications where ease
of handling is important, such as in packaging
Underground water tank:
• It is a water tank that is constructed beneath
the ground level to store the water. It is also
used for rainwater harvesting.
• They are generally used all over the world for
storage of water for various domestic as well as
industrial uses.
• A pump is normally attached to the
connecting line of the underground tank to get
water into the required area.
For the design of the underground water tank,
the following factors should be considered:
1. Soil pressure surrounding the tank
2. Water pressure
3. Ground water table
• The empty tank is the worst condition of
loading for the design of an underground water
tank because the soil around with water tank is
charged with water acts as a critical condition
of outside loading, that's why it is designed in
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materials or in construction. empty condition.

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Long Service Span: Coir fibers are highly • On the other hand, full filling or partial filling
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durable and resistant to degradation from condition, the hydrostatic pressure of water
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environmental factors such as moisture, counteract the earth pressure of the soil.
C

sunlight, and microbial activity. As a result,

products made from coir fibers often have a
long service life, making them a sustainable
choice for various applications.
Overall, coir fibers are valued for their
strength, durability, and versatility, making
them suitable for a wide range of applications
including textiles, agriculture, landscaping, and
environmental engineering.

Q.38. An underground water tank is to be

designed. Which of the following cases is
considered most appropriate for the analysis of
its wall?
(a) The underground water tank is 3/4 full
(b) The underground water tank is half full
(c) The underground water tank is empty
(d) The underground water tank is full
Ans : (c)
Q.39. The maximum shear stress (in N/mm2) in Vertical formwork to columns,
a reinforced concrete beam of M-25 grade as beams, and walls 16-24 hours
per IS 456-2000 is given as:
Soffit formwork to slabs (props
(a) 3.1 (b) 2.8 to be refixed immediately after
(c) 3.4 (d) 3.5 removal of formwork) 3 days
Ans : (a) Soffit formwork to beams
The shear strength of reinforced concrete with (props to be refixed
the reinforcement is restricted to some immediately after removal of
maximum value τmax depending on the grade of formwork) 7 days
concrete. Props to slab
Table 20 of IS 456 Spanning up to 4.5 m 7 days
Stipulates the maximum shear stress of Spanning over 4.5 m 14 days
reinforced concrete in beams as τmax given
below in Table. Under no circumstances, the Props to beams
nominal shear stress in beams τ, shall exceed Spanning up to 6 m 14 days
τmax given in the table for different grades of Spanning over 6 m 21 days
concrete
Q.41. Which of the following is NOT a
Grade of concrete τmax (in MPa) disadvantage of using rods and bars as a
M20 2.8 tension member of steel structures?
(a) Inadequate stiffness
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M25 3.1
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(b) High slenderness ratio

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M30 3.5
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(c) Sag under own weight

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M35 3.7 (d) Tensile strength

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M40 4 Ans : (d)

A tension member is the one which is intended
to resist axial tension. Tension members are
Q.40. As per IS 456, the stripping time of the
also called ties or hangers.
soffit formwork to slabs (props to be refixed
immediately after removal of formwork) advantages and disadvantages of using rods
is_______ .? and bars as tension members in steel
structures
(a) 28 hours (b) 3 days
Advantages:
(c) 2 days (d) 1 day
High Strength: Rods and bars made of steel
Ans : (b)
offer high tensile strength, making them
In normal circumstances, where ambient capable of withstanding significant loads
temperature does not fall below 15ºC and without failing.
where ordinary portland cement is used and
Ductility: Steel is highly ductile, meaning it can
adequate curing is done, following striking
deform considerably before failing. This
period can be considered sufficient as per IS
property allows tension members to absorb
456 of 2000.
energy and undergo significant deformation
before failure, providing warning signs of
Minimum period impending failure.
before striking Ease of Fabrication: Steel rods and bars can be
Type of formwork formwork
easily fabricated into various shapes and sizes
to suit the design requirements of tension
members.
Corrosion Resistance: Steel can be treated to
improve its corrosion resistance, ensuring the
longevity and durability of tension members in
different environmental conditions.
Disadvantages:
Inadequate Stiffness: Rods and bars may
exhibit inadequate stiffness, leading to
excessive deflection or deformation under
load. This can affect the overall stability and
performance of the structure.
High Slenderness Ratio: When tension
members have a high slenderness ratio (length-
to-diameter ratio), they become prone to
buckling. Buckling can reduce the load-carrying
capacity and stability of the tension member.
Sag under Own Weight: Long rods or bars can
sag under their own weight, especially in
applications where they are suspended or
spanning long distances. Sagging can affect the
appearance and functionality of the structure.
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Cost: While steel offers high strength and
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durability, it can be relatively expensive
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compared to other materials. The cost of steel
rods and bars, along with fabrication and
installation expenses, can contribute to the
overall cost of the structure.
Q.42. Which of the following compounds is
responsible for slow hardening, less heat of
hydration, and greater resistance to the
chemical attack in OPC Cement?
(a) C3S (b) C3A
(c) C4AF (d) C2S
Ans : (d)
The four major compounds which are
constituents of cement are:
a) Tricalcium silicate (C3S): 3CaO.SiO2
b) Dicalcium silicate (C₂S): 2CaO.SiO2
c) Tricalcium Aluminate (C3A): 3CaO.Al2O3
d) Tetra-calcium Alumino Ferrite (C4AF):
4CaO.Al2. Fe2O3
1. Tricalcium Silicate C3S (25-50%) Normally
40%
• It is considered as the best cementing
material and is well-burnt cement.
• It hydrates rapidly generating high heat and
develops an early hardness and strength.
• Raising of C3S content beyond the specified
limits increases heat of hydration and solubility
of cement in water.
• The heat of hydration is 500 J/g.
2. Dicalcium Silicate (C₂S) (25-40%)- (Normally
32%)
• It hydrates and hardens slowly and takes a
long time to add to the strength (after a year or
more) i.e. it is responsible for ultimate
strength.
• It imparts resistance to chemical attack.
• Raising of C₂S content renders clinkers harder
to grind, reduces early strength, decreases
resistance to freezing and thawing at an early
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age and decreases heat of hydration.
• At an early age, less than a month, C₂S has
little influence on strength and hardness.
While after one year, its contribution to the
strength and hardness is proportionately
almost equal to C3S.
• The heat of hydration is 260 J/g.
3. Tricalcium Aluminate (C3A)-(5-11%)-
(Normally 10.5%).
• It rapidly reacts with water and is responsible
for the flash set of finely grounded clinkers.
• The rapidity of action is regulated by the
addition of 2-3% of gypsum at the time of
grinding the cement.
• It is most responsible for the initial setting,
the high heat of hydration and has a greater
tendency to volume changes causing cracking.
• Raising the C3A content reduces the setting
time, weakens resistance to sulphate attack
and lowers the ultimate strength, heat of
hydration and contraction during air
hardening.
• The heat of hydration of 865 J/g.
4. Tetracalcium Alumino Ferrite - (C4AF 8-14%)
(Normally 9%)
• It is responsible for the flash set but
generates less heat.
• It has the poorest cementing value. Raising
C4AF content reduces the strength slightly.
• The heat of hydration 420 J/g.
Q.43. When designing steel structures, the
effective length of battened compression
members should be _______.
(a) increased by 20%
(b) decreased by 20%
(c) decreased by 10%
(d) increased by 10%
Ans : (d)
Batten plate–The batten plates are also called
as the plates and these are also used in lateral
system. The angle sections, channels and I-
sections are also used as battens. The
components of built-up column sharing the
load are connected together by batten plates.
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The battening of columns shall not be done
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where the columns are subjected in the plane
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of batten to eccentric loading.
• If battens are provided effective length of the
column is increased by 10%. (To take shear
deformation effects in column). Shear
deformation is more when battens are
provided as compared to lacing members, so
the effective length is increased by 10%.
• Compression members composed of two
main components battened should preferably
have these components of the same cross-
section and symmetrically disposed about their
X - X axis.
• Spacing of batten (C), from center-to-center
of end fastening should be such that the
slenderness ratio of the lesser main
component, 50 or 0.7 times the slenderness
ratio of the compression member as a whole
about X - X axis (parallel to battens) whichever
is less.
Q.44. Which of the following materials is a
sustainable and green building material that
can be used in construction?
(a) Mortar (b) Bamboo
(c) Concrete (d) Brick
Ans : (b)
Green building materials are composed of
renewable, rather than non-renewable
resources. Green materials are
environmentally responsible because impacts
are considered over the life of the product .
The aim of using green building materials is to
construct energy-efficient structures and to
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build those structures one should be aware of
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different green building materials, their
properties and how they contribute into saving
energy.
Following are the materials used in green
building–
1. Wood brick 2. Sustainable concrete 3.
Bamboo 4. Clay 5. Cork 6. Recycled rubber 7.
Straw 8. Fly ash bricks
Q.45. The carbon credit system helps ______.
(a) reduce noise pollution
(b) reduce soil pollution caused by agricultural
wastes
(c) reduce water pollution caused by chemicals
(d) reduce greenhouse gas emissions
Ans : (d)
Carbon credits were devised as a mechanism
to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by
creating a market in which companies can
trade in emissions permits. Under the system,
companies get a set number of carbon credits,
which decline over time.
Q.46. Which term indicates the stages in which
the total predetermined cost of construction of
the project is to be spread over?
(a) Financial planning
(b) Cost determination
(c) Cost planning
(d) Budget planning
Ans : (c)
a) Financial planning:
• Financial planning involves the process of
determining how a project or organization will
afford to achieve its goals and objectives.
• It encompasses various aspects such as
budgeting, forecasting, investment planning,
and capital allocation.
• In the context of a construction project,
financial planning would include securing
funding, managing cash flow, and ensuring that
financial resources are available to cover
project expenses.
b) Cost determination:
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• Cost determination refers to the process of
accurately calculating the total costs associated
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with a particular project, product, or service.
• It involves identifying and quantifying all
direct and indirect costs, including materials,
labor, overhead, and other expenses.
• Cost determination is essential for setting
prices, budgeting, and evaluating the feasibility
and profitability of a project
• In the context of construction, cost
determination helps project stakeholders
understand the financial implications of
different design choices, construction
methods, and resource allocations.
c) Cost planning:
• Cost planning involves estimating, allocating,
and controlling costs throughout the lifecycle
of a project.
• It includes activities such as budgeting, cost
estimation, value engineering, risk
management, and cost control.
• Cost planning aims to ensure that resources
are allocated efficiently and effectively to
achieve project objectives within the allocated
budget.
• In construction projects, cost planning helps
stakeholders manage expenses, minimize
financial risks, and optimize the use of
available resources.
d) Budget planning:
• Budget planning refers to the process of
creating a detailed financial plan that outlines
projected revenues and expenditures for a
specific period or project.
• It involves setting financial targets, allocating
funds to different activities or departments,
and establishing spending limits.
• Budget planning helps organizations
prioritize spending, track financial
performance, and ensure that resources are
used wisely.
i
Q.47. Minimum shear reinforcement is
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provided in an RCC beam under which of the
following conditions?
(a) Nominal shear stress is less than design
shear strength of concrete
(b) Nominal shear stress is greater than design
shear strength of concrete.
(c) Nominal shear stress is greater design shear
strength of concrete but less than maximum
shear stress
(d) Nominal shear stress is greater than
maximum shear stress
Ans : (a)
Minimum shear reinforcement
When τv is less than τc minimum shear
reinforcement shall be provided.
Minimum shear reinforcement in beams is
provided to ensure the following:
• To prevent sudden failure of the beam due to
loss of bond between steel and concrete due to
bursting of concrete cover.
• To prevent brittle shear failure due to
diagonal principal tension.
• To prevent cracks due to shrinkage of
concrete and thermal stresses.
• To hold the main reinforcement and
increases the confinement.
Minimum shear reinforcement in the form of
stirrups shall be provided such that
𝑨𝑺𝒗 𝟎⋅𝟒
≥
𝒃𝑺𝒗 𝒇𝒚
Q.48. If the cohesion value of soil is zero, the
Mohr envelope will pass through:
(a) some distance on positive y-axis
(b) The origin
(c) some distance on negative x-axis
(d) some distance on positive x-axis
Ans : (b)
MOHR-COULOMB THEORY
The soil is a particulate material. The shear
failure occurs in soils by slippage of particles
due to shear stresses. The failure is essentially
by shear, but shear stresses at failure depend
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upon the normal stresses on the potential
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failure plane. According to Mohr, the failure is
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caused by a critical combination of the normal
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and shear stresses.
• Cohesionless soils, such as sands and gravels,
possess internal friction, and when they are
completely lacking in cohesion, their Coulomb
or Mohr envelopes tend to pass through the
origin.
• If the soil is purely cohesive with φ = 0, the
Mohr envelope is parallel to the abscissa
Q.49. A new system of sanitation is needed
over the old conservancy system because:
(a) the new system pollutes the city's water
supplies
(b) both the systems of sanitation have an
equal chance of polluting water supplies
(c) the system of sanitation has no relation
with the city's water supplies
(d) the old system may pollute the city's water
supplies
Ans : (d)
Conservancy system:
• This is an old system in which various types
of wastes, such as night soil, garbage, etc.
• Waste is collected separately in a vessel or
deposited in pools or pits and then removed
periodically at least once in 24 hours.
• The conservancy system is highly unhygienic
and causes insanitary conditions.
• In this system, the collection conveyance, and
disposal of various wastes are carried out with
the help of water.
• Thus water is used as a medium to convey
the waste from its point of production to the
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point of final disposal.
• A sufficient quantity of water is required to
be mixed with waste so that the dilution ratio
is so great that the mixture may flow just like
water.
• This system is very hygienic as night soil and
other waste are carried out through a closed
conduit that is not directly exposed to the
atmosphere.
Q.50. As a precaution in cold weather
concreting, cement containing _______ should
be selected.
(a) lower C3S and higher C2S
(b) higher C3S and lower C2S
(c) lower C3S and lower C2S
(d) higher C3S and higher C2S
Ans : (b)
Cold Weather Concreting:
Cold Weather Concreting is defined by ACI 306
as a period when for more than three
successive days the average daily air
temperature drops below 4°C. There are two
main problems with pouring concrete in cold
winter weather.
Tricalcium silicate hardens rapidly and is largely
responsible for the initial set and early
strength. It is also called as alite. It has the best
cementitous property among all the other
Bogue's compounds. The cement that has
more C3S content is good for cold weather
concreting and lower C2S. C2S will undergo
reaction slowly. C2S is responsible for
progressive strength of concrete. It is also
called bellite.
Q.51. Hollow pre-cast concrete blocks possess
good thermal insulation because of the:
(a) air entrapped within the block
(b) seepage resistance
(c) outside air near the block
(d) resistance to efflorescence
Ans : (a)
Hollow pre-cast concrete blocks
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Hollow concrete blocks are manufactured in
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various shapes and sizes. Blocks of concrete are
moulded in a machine.
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Hollow concrete blocks - 39 cm × 19 cm × 30 cm
Hollow building tiles - 39 cm × 19 cm × 20 cm
The use of precast concrete blocks in the
construction
• It has high compressive strength.
• It has a good fire and abrasion resistance and
very good stability.
• Hollow units have low self weight.
• Air space provides good thermal insulation
• Hollow precast concrete blocks posses good
thermal insulation because of the air
entrapped within the blocks.
Q.52. The distance travelled by an
electromagnetic wave in one second is
called________.
(a) wave velocity (b) wave length
(c) frequency (d) period
Ans : (a)
Velocity of wave:- The distance travelled by a
wave in one second is called velocity of the
wave. The SI unit for the velocity of a wave is
meters per second (m/s).
Wavelength:- The distance between two
nearest crests of a wave is called its
wavelength. Frequency:- The number of
complete waves produced in one second is
called frequency of the wave. The unit of
frequency is hertz .
Q.53. Which of the following is a purpose
served by lintel?
(a) To join the column at sill level
(b) To support the wall above the opening
(c) To join the foundation
(d) To support the slab
Ans : (b)
A lintel is one type of beam which used to
support the above wall when openings like
doors, windows etc. The main function of the
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lintel is to take loads coming from above wall
and transfer its load to the side walls.
Following are the purposes of lintel beams
• to support the walls above the openings like
doors, windows.
• to provide a safeguard of the windows and
doors.
• to transfer its load to the side walls.
Q.54. In expansion joints, the loads are
transferred through:
(a) aggregates (b) dowel bars
(c) longitudinal bars (d) tie bars
Ans : (b)
Expansion joint:- It is provide to allow
expansion due to rise in temperature w.r.t.
construction temperature.
• These are provided at 50-60 m spacing if
construction is in winter.
• As per IRC, maximum spacing between the
expansion joint is 140 m and thickness is 2.5
cm. • For load transference across the
transverse joint, dowel bars are placed
Dowel bar: Device Purpose
• Dowel bar is steel bar provided in rigid Hot wire anemometer Air & gas velocity
pavements in the direction of traffic i.e. in Current meter Velocity in open channels
longitudinal direction.
Surface float Velocities of flow
• Dowel bars are provided at expansion joints
and sometimes at contraction joints also. Rotameter Discharge measurement
Elbow meter Discharge measurement
Bend meter Discharge measurement

Q.56. A vehicle was stopped by fully jamming

the breaks in 1.8s and the skid marks
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measured 9m. Determine the average skid

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resistance. Take g = 10m/s2

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(a) 0.15 (b) 2.78

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(c) 0.278 (d) 0.556

Ans : (d)
Q.55. A current meter is a device used for Given that,
measuring the: Time (t) = 1.8 s
(a) viscosity of the fluid Skid measured marks (s) = 9 m
(b) velocity of the flow of the fluid g = 10 m/s2
(c) surface tension of the fluid We know that,
(d) pressure of the fluid 𝑺 = 𝒖𝒕 + 𝒂𝒕𝟐
𝟏
𝟐
Ans : (b) 𝟏
Current meter: It is the device that is used to 𝟗 = 𝟎 × 𝟏 ⋅ 𝟖 + × 𝒂 × 𝟏 ⋅ 𝟖𝟐
𝟐
𝟓𝟎
measure the velocity of the flow of fluid. 𝒂= 𝒎 ∕ 𝒔𝟐
𝟗
The relation between velocity and the number Average skid resistance (f) =
𝒂
𝒈
of revolutions completed by current meter is
𝟓𝟎∕𝟗
V= a x N + b f= = 0.556
𝟏𝟎
Where, Q.57. he gross command area for a distributory
V = velocity in m/s, and N = Number of is 10,000 ha and 80% of this is culturable. The
revolutions done by current meter in 1 second intensity of irrigation is 50% for wheat and 30%
a & b = current meter constant. for rice. Determine the total area cultivated by
wheat and rice.
(a) 2400 ha (b) 8000 ha by mass of PPC), or by intimately and
(c) 6400 ha (d) 4000 ha uniformly blending portland cement and fine
Ans : (c) pozzolana.

Given that, • Pozzolana is a volcanic powder found and

Gross command area = 10,000 ha (brunt clay, shale or fly ash) has no cementing
properties itself, but has the property of
Culturable command area = GCA of 80%
𝟖𝟎
combining with lime to produce a stable lime
= 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 × = 𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎 pozzolana compound which has definite
𝟏𝟎𝟎
Total area cultivated by wheat and rice cementitious properties.
𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝟓𝟎 𝟖𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝟑𝟎
= + • Since the pozzolanic action is very slow, with
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟏𝟎𝟎
replacement of fly ash upto 25% may result in
= 6400 hac
lower strength at 7 days and 28 days but may
be about equal at 3 months and may further
Q.58. Which of the following statements increase at ages greater than 3 months
regarding Portland Pozzolana Cement (PPC) is provided curing is continued.
INCORRECT?
• Initial setting time, final setting time and
(a) PPC is useful in marine and hydraulic
compressive strength requirements are same
structures.
as that of OPC.
(b) PPC produces more heat of hydration than • Fineness should not be less than 300 m2/kg,
ordinary Portland cement. when tested by air permeability method.
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(c) The long-term strength of PPC beyond a Drying shrinkage should not be more than
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couple of months is higher than that of 0.15%.

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ordinary Portland cement if enough moisture is • Free lime present in the cement is thus
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available for continued pozzolanic action. removed and hence, resistance to chemical
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(d) Fly ash is a pozzolanic material used for the
manufacture of PPC.
Ans : (b)
Rapid hardening portland cement (IS:8041 -
1990)
• Also known as high early strength cement
• It is finer than ordinary portland cement
• It contains more C3S and less C2S than OPC.
• 1 Day strength of Rapid hardening cement
(RHC) = 3 Day strength of OPC with same w/c
ratio
•The final setting time of RHC is < 600 min = 10
Hours .
• It hardens fast but has the same setting time
as OPC.
• It is useful in cold weather concreting.
• Not used for a massive concrete structure.
Portland pozzolana cement: (IS 1489-1991)
• Manufactured by grinding portland cement
clinker and pozzolana (usually fly ash 10 to 25%
attack increases making it sutaible for marine
works, It has low heat evolution and is used in
the places of mass concrete such as dams and
in places of high temperature.
Portland Slag Cement (PSC) (IS 455 -1976)
• This cement is manufactured by mixing
portland cement clinker with blast furnace
slag, a waste product.
• The percentage of slag added to cement is
between 25% to 65% by mass.
• This cement has a low heat of hydration and
has more durability.
Low Heat Cement (IS 12600 - 1989)
• It comprises lesser quantities of C3S and C3A.
Due to a reduced proportion of these
constituents, this cement attains strength at a
low rate.
• Its heat of hydration is 314 KJ/kg at 28 days.
• It is useful for mass concreting works.
Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)
• It is the most sought-after cement used in
modern-day RCC construction works.
• Based on strength requirement, the type of
OPC can be chosen, viz, OPC 33 (compressive
strength of 53 N/mm2, OPC 43 (compressive
strength of 43 N/mm2, and OPC 53
(compressive strength of 53 N/mm2.
• It can be used on pavements, sidewalks,
bridges, and railways.
• OPC has a high development of compressive
strength in earlier phases.
• OPC 53 is used for pre-stressed concrete
structures wherein high strength of concrete is
a necessary prerequisite.
Q.59. The painting of walls, doors and windows
is measured in ________.
(a) gram (b) cubic metre
(c) square metre (d) pound
Ans : (c)
The painting of walls, doors, and windows is
typically measured in square metres. This is
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measuring distances indirectly and levelling.
CLASSIFICATION
Theodolites can be classified into transit and
non-transit theodolites.
Transit Theodolite
A theodolite is said to be a transit one when its
telescope can be rotated through 180° in a
vertical plane about its horizontal axis, thus
directing the telescope in exactly opposite
direction.
Non-Transit Theodolite
A theodolite is said to be a non-transit one
when its telescope cannot be rotated through
180° ina vertical plane about its horizontal axis.
Such theodolites are obsolete nowadays.
Theodolites can also be classified into two
types as follows:
1. Vernier Theodolites
2. Precise Optical Theodolites (Used for Precise
work)
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In a vernier theodolites, verniers are used for

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because painting is a surface activity and the

amount of paint required depends on the area taking the readings. These theodolites are
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of the surface to be painted. most commonly used in general work. Most of

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the vernier theodolites can read angles up to

Unit of 20" (i.e. the least count of theodolite is 20").
Name of items
measurement
Painting of doors and
square meter (m2)
windows
Half brick wall m2
Earth excavation m3
RCC work for staircase m3
Damp proof course m2 m2
Q.60.The least count of a theodolite
is________
(a) 1 second (b) 1 millisecond
(c) 1 minute (d) 1 hour
Instrument Least count
Ans : (a)
Prismatic compass 30'
Theodolite
Survey or compass 15'
A theodolite is an important instrument used
for measuring horizontal and vertical angles in Vernier scale 0.1 mm
surveying. Micrometer 0.01 mm
It can also be used for a number of surveying Levelling staff 5 mm
operations, such as prolonging a line, Theodolite (transit vernier) 20"

Q.61. In case of a turbulent flow in a pipe, the
shear stress is:
(a) maximum at the wall and decreases linearly
to zero at the centre
(b) maximum at the centre and decreases
linearly towards the wall
(c) maximum at the midway between the
centre line and the wall
(d) maximum at the centre and decreases
logarithmically towards the wall
Ans : (a)
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Turbulent Flow
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• Turbulent flow is the random, disordered and
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dis-organised flow which has bulk and or
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macroscopic mixing. It occurs at higher flow
velocities compared to laminar flow. In
turbulent flow, inertia forces are significant as
compared to viscous forces.
• For flow in the pipes if Reynold's number is
less than 2000 the flow is called the laminar
and if it is more than 4000, the flow is called
turbulent flow. If the Reynolds number lies
between 2000 and 4000 the flow may be
laminar or turbulent (also known as transition
period).
• In case of turbulent flow in a pipe, the shear
stress is maximum at the wall and decreases
linear to zero at the center.
Q.62. A magnetic compass can be used to
measure_______.
(a) magnetic meridian, magnetic bearing and
arbitrary bearing
(b) both magnetic meridian and magnetic
bearing
(c) magnetic bearing only
(d) magnetic meridian only
Ans : (b)
Arbitrary bearing: The horizontal angle made
by the survey line with reference to arbitrary
meridian passing through one of the
extremities. A theodolite or sextant can be
used to measure it.
True Bearing: It is horizontal angle between the
true meridian and the survey line measured in
a clockwise direction.
Magnetic meridian: When the magnetic needle
is suspended freely and balanced properly,
unaffected by magnetic substances, it indicates
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a direction. This direction is known as magnetic
meridian. The angle between the magnetic
meridian and a line is known as magnetic
bearing or simple bearing of the line. To
measure it we need Magnetic Compass.
Azimuth: it is the horizontal angle or direction
of a compass bearing.
Q.63. For a railway track, the width of the
formation depends upon which of the
following?
i. Type of sleepers
ii. Type of ballast
iii. Type of gauge
iv. Number of tracks, i.e. single or double track
(a) Both iii and iv (b) Both ii and iii
(c) Both i and iv (d) Both i and ii
Ans : (a)
The track or permanent way is the railroad on
which trains run. It consists of two parallel rails
fastened to sleepers with a specified distance
between them. The sleepers are embedded in
a layer of ballast of specified thickness spread
over level ground known as formation.
For a railway track, the width of the formation k = 25
depends upon ∴ c = 0.5
• Numbers of tracks to be laid over it
• Gauge of the track
• Width of ballast layer
• Width of drains provided

Gauge Type of Formation Width of formation (m)

BG Embankment 6.1
Cutting 5.4
MG Embankment 4.88
Cutting 4.27

Q.64. A tacheometer was set at a station and

the readings were taken on two points, which
were 100 m and 150 m apart and had staff
intercepts of 3.98 m and 5.98 m, respectively. If
an externally focusing tacheometer was used
for the observation, then the values of focal
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length (f), stadia interval (i) and distance (d)

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between the objective and the vertical axis of

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the instrument could be_______.

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(a) f = 0.2m, i = 12mm, d = 30cm

(b) f = 0.3m, i = 1.2mm, d = 20cm
(c) f = 0.3m, i = 12mm, d = 20cm
(d) f = 0.3m, i = 0.12mm, d = 20cm
Ans : (c) We know that,
Given, c = f + d 0.5
Staff intercepts of 100 m apart staff (S1) = c = 0.3 + d
3.98m d = 0.2m
Staff intercepts of 150 m apart staff (S2) = d = 20cm.
5.98m
Q.65. If the pipes are connected in parallel, the
Focal distance (f) =? total loss of head is:
Stadia interval (i) = ? (a) equal to the sum of the squares of head
We know that– losses in each pipe
D = ks + c (b) the same in each pipe
100 = k × 3.98 + c .......(i) (c) equal to the sum of head losses in each pipe
150 = k × 5.98 + c ........(ii) (d) equal to the reciprocal of the sum of head
From eq.(i) & eq. (ii) losses in each pipe
150 – 100 = k (5.98 – 3.98) + c – c Ans : (b)
Pipe connection– Ans : (c)
(i) Equivalent pipe or series connection– As per IS 456:2000 for longitudinal
In this condition loss of head and discharge
reinforcement–
equal to the loss of head and discharge of a
compound pipe consisting of different length. • It is 6% of gross cross-sectional area of
column.
• It can be reduced to 4% at lapped splice
locations for better placement and
compaction.
• Minimum diameter of longitudinal bar = 12
mm

⇒ • Minimum number of bars for rectangular

columns are 4 and for circular columns are 6.
⇒ This equation is known as Dupit's equation.
• Maximum center to center spacing of
(ii) Pipe in parallel – reinforcement = 300 mm.
Discharge in main pipe = Sum of discharge in
parallel pipes Q.67. As per Indian Standard code (IS - 456),
what should be the minimum clear cover
provided during the design of a water tank
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during moderate exposure conditions?

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(a) 75 mm (b) 30 mm
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Q = Q 1 + Q 2 + Q3 (c) 10 mm (d) 45 mm
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Ans : (b)
According to IS 456 (Clause 26.4.1),
• If n-pipes of equal diameter (d) are placed Nominal concrete cover (clear cover) can be
instead of main pipe diameter (D)Then, defined as the distance from the outer surface
𝐃 of the concrete members to the outer surface
d=
𝐡𝟑/𝟓 of steel (either main reinforcement or stirrups)
reinforcements, including links.
Q.66. As per IS 456:2000, which of the Minimum concrete grade and nominal cover
statement regarding longitudinal requirement based on exposure condition are:
reinforcement in the RCC column is Expose Nominal cover Minimum concrete
INCORRECT? conditions (mm) grade
(a) Minimum 6 longitudinal bars is to be
Mild 20 M20
provided in a circular column.
Moderate 30 M25
(b) Minimum 4 longitudinal bars is to be
provided in a rectangular column. Severe 45 M30
(c) Minimum 8 longitudinal bars is to be Very severe 50 M35
provided in a column having helical Extreme 75 M40
reinforcement within the helical region.
As per Indian standard code (IS 456) the minimum
(d) Minimum diameter of longitudinal bars clear cover provided during the design of a water
shall not less than 12 mm.
tank is 30 mm during moderate exposure
condition.
Note–Minimum grade of concrete for the RCC
water tank is M30 and maximum cement content is
400 kg/m3 .
Q.68. Miscellaneous expenses such as office
expenses, stationery, postal expenses, etc.,
falls under_________.
(a) extra expenses (b)overhead expenses
(c) surcharge expenses (d) additional expenses
Ans : (b)
Overhead expenses:
Overheads are business costs that are related
to the day-to-day running of the business.
Unlike operating expenses, overheads cannot
be traced to a specific cost unit or business
activity. Instead, they support the overall
revenue-generating activities of the business.
Types of Overhead expenses:
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• Fixed overheads: Fixed overheads are costs
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that remain constant every month and do not
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change with changes in business activity levels.
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Examples of fixed overheads include salaries,
rent, property taxes, depreciation of assets,
and government licenses.
• Variable overheads: Variable overheads are
expenses that vary with business activity
levels, and they can increase or decrease with
different levels of business activity. Examples
of variable overheads include shipping costs,
office supplies, advertising and marketing
costs, consultancy service charges, legal
expenses, as well as maintenance and repair of
equipment.
• Semi-variable overheads: semi-variable
overheads possess some of the characteristics
of both fixed and variable costs. Examples of
semi-variable overheads include sales
commissions, vehicle usage, and some utilities
such as power and water costs that have a
fixed charge plus an additional cost based on
the usage.
Examples of overhead charges:
• Rent
• Administrative costs
• Utilities
• Rate of lighting and heating
• Repair and maintenance of motor vehicles
and machinery
•Sales and marketing
Q.69. For ______, measuring is required
individually in order to provide extra rates of
associated components.
(a) honeycomb brickwork
(b) brickwork in arches
(c) reinforced brickwork
(d) earthwork
Ans : (b)
For brickwork in arches measuring is required
individually in order to provide extra rates of
associated components. Arch is a curved
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structural member which provides horizontal
support. It is stronger than a beam.
Q.70. When the precipitation of a storm
reaches the ground, it must fill up a basin,
which is lower than its surrounding, before it
can flow over the surface. The volume of water
trapped in the basin, which is lower than its
surroundings, is called _______.
(a) dead storage
(b) basin storage
(c) sub-surface storage
(d) depression storage
Ans : (d)
Depression Storage
When the precipitation of a storm reaches the
ground it must first fill up all depressions
before it can flow over the surface. The volume
of water trapped in these depression is called
depression storage.
 Depression storage range from 1 to 8 mm
(0.04 to 0.3 in) with some values as high as 15
mm (0.6 in) per event.
 Depression storage varies greatly with the
land use (A paved surface will not detain as
much water as a recently furrow field).
Depression storage is dependent on the
amount and intensity of precipitation in the
storm, soil characteristics, land use land cover
and topography.
The volume of water in depression storage at
any time during a precipitation event can be
approximated as (Linsley 1982):
𝒗 = 𝒔ⅆ⋅ (𝟏 − ⅇ−𝒌𝑷ⅇ )
Where,
V is the volume of water in depression storage.
Sd is the maximum storage capacity of the
depression.
Pe is the rainfall excess,
and k is a constant equal to 1/Sd .
Q.71. Which of the following options
represents an Incorrect relation between the
fundamental axes of a theodolite?
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(a) the axis of the altitude level must be
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parallel to the line of collimation.
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(b) the axis of the plate level must be
perpendicular to the vertical axis.
(c) the axis of the striding level must be
,perpendicular to the transit axis.
(d) the trunnion axis must be perpendicular to
,the line of sight.
Ans : (c)
Fundamental lines in a Theodolite:
Vertical axis (Azimuth axis):
• It is the axis about which instrument rotates
in the horizontal plane.
Horizontal Axis (Trunnion axis):
• it is the axis about which instrument rotates
in the vertical plane.
• The striding level is attached to the trunnion,
parallel with the horizontal axis.
• It is advantageous to employ the striding
level for the accurate adjustment of the
vertical axis and measurement of the
inclination of the horizontal (trunnion) axis.
• Hence, Some theodolite are fitted with
striding level which is used to test the
horizontally of the trunnion axis.
Line of Collimation (Line of Sight):
• It is the line that passes through the
intersection of horizontal and vertical
crosshairs and the optical center of object-
glass.
Bubble Line (Level tube axis or Altitude level
axis):
• It is a straight line tangential to the
longitudinal curve of the level tube at its
center. It is horizontal when the bubble is
center.
Plate level axis:
• It is perpendicular to the vertical axis when
the bubble is at the center.
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Q.72. Which of the following accelerating
admixtures is harmful for reinforced concrete
and pre-stressed concrete?
(a) Silicates (b) Calcium chloride
(c) Carbonates (d) Fluorosilicates
Ans : (b)
Accelerating admixture
• These are the admixtures that increase the
rate of gain of development of strength in the
cement or concrete.
• They find application in cold weather
concreting, prefabricated constructions,
emergency repair work, pavement
construction, where formwork is reutilized for
speedy construction.
• Their dose varies in the range of 0.1 to 0.2%
by the weight of cement.
• Examples: Calcium chloride, Calcium formate,
silicates, Silica fume, fluorosilicates, and tri
ethanolamine
Note:- With the availability of such powerful
accelerator the underwater concreting has
become easy. In the past one of the commonly
used materials as an accelerator was calcium
chloride. But now days it is not used. The
recent studies have shown that calcium
chloride is harmful for reinforced concrete and
pre-stressed concrete. It may be used for plain
cement concrete in comparatively high dose.
Q.73. To measure vertical angles, the
theodolite must be leveled with reference to
_______.
(a) the bubble tube on the plate level
(b) the altitude bubble on the index frame
(c) the altitude buddle on both the telescope
and the index frame
(d) the altitude bubble on the telescope
Ans : (b)
Measurement of vertical angle:
• A vertical angle is an angle between the
inclined line of sight and the horizontal plane
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through the trunnion axis of the instrument.
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• The vertical angle is measured in a vertical
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plane containing the inclined line of sight.
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• The vertical angle is the angle of elevation
when the line of sight is inclined upwards from
the horizontal line.
• For measurements of the vertical angle, the
instrument should be leveled with the help of
altitude level.
• Prior to the measurement of vertical angle,
instrument is required to be leveled with
reference to the altitude level.
• To measure a vertical angle, the instrument
should be leveled with reference to the
altitude bubble when the altitude bubble is on
the index frame
• The altitude level should be more sensitive
than the plate level produced on the upper
plate.
• Then the plate bubble is brought to the
center with the help of a foot screw and then
the altitude bubble is brought to the center by
a clip screw. At this position, the line of
collimation is exactly horizontal.
• Loosen the vertical circle clamp, and direct
the telescope towards the station whose
vertical angle is required.
Q.74. Based on the slenderness ratio, a steel
column is found to be an intermediate column.
The failure of such a column is visible as:
(a) The steel column will not fail but remain
unstable.
(b) a mixed mode of buckling and crushing
(c) only buckling
(d) only crushing
Ans : (b)
Short Column:
• Short columns are those whose slenderness
ratio is less than 32 or length to diameter ratio
is less than 8.
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• In the case of a short column, the failure
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occurs by crushing the material under the
compression yield stress.
• Such columns are always subjected to direct
compressive stress only.
Intermediate column
• Intermediate columns are those whose
slenderness ratio is between 32 to 120 or
length to diameter ratio is between 8 to 30 .
• Intermediate column fails in combined
buckling and crushing.
Long Column:
•Long columns have a slenderness ratio of
more than 120 or a length to diameter ratio of
more than 30.
• In the case of the long column, the failure
occurs by buckling. i.e by lateral deflection of
the bar.
Q.75. As per IS 456-2000, the flexural strength
of a rectangular section of a singly reinforced
RCC beam does NOT depend on which of the
given options?
(a) Grade of concrete (b) Depth of beam
(c) Grade of steel (d) Temperature
Ans : (d)
In reinforced concrete beam design, flexural
strength refers to the ability of the beam to
resist bending without failing. The flexural
strength of a singly reinforced RCC beam
depends on several factors, but as per IS 456-
2000, the temperature does not directly
influence it.
Factor effecting flexural strength of concrete:
(a) Grade of Concrete: The strength of the
concrete, typically denoted by its grade (e.g.,
M20, M25), directly affects the flexural
strength of the beam. Higher grades of
concrete have greater compressive strength,
which results in higher flexural strength of the
beam.
(b) Depth of Beam: The depth of the beam,
often denoted by the symbol "d," plays a
crucial role in determining its flexural strength.
Deeper beams can resist higher bending
(b) sowing and the last watering before
harvesting a crop
(c) sowing and harvesting of a crop
(d) preparation of land and sowing
Ans : (c)
Crop period
Crop period is defined as total time that
elapses b/w the sowing of the crop and its
harvesting. Thus, crop period represents the
total time during which the crop remains in the
field.
Base period
Base period is defined as the total time
between the first watering done for the
preparation of the land for sowing of a crop
and the last watering done before its
harvesting.
Note: Crop period is slightly more than the
base period for any crop but for calculation
purpose they are taken same.
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moments, thus exhibiting greater flexural Q.77. Defects due to fungi occur when the
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strength. moisture content of timber is above_____.

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(c) Grade of Steel: The grade of steel (a) 20% (b) 25%
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reinforcement used in the beam, often (c) 10% (d) 15%

denoted by the symbol "Fe," significantly Ans : (a)
influences its flexural strength. Higher grades
DEFECTS IN TIMBER
of steel have greater tensile strength, which
enhances the overall capacity of the beam to Defects in timber affect the quality, reduce
resist bending. quantity of useful wood, reduce the
strength, spoil the appearance and favour its
(d) Temperature: Temperature does not
decay, thus lowers its economical value.
directly affect the flexural strength of a singly
reinforced RCC beam according to IS 456-2000. Burls (Rind Galls)
While extreme temperatures may impact the Also known as the excrescences (distinct
behavior of concrete and steel (e.g., thermal outgrowth resulting from abnormality) and
expansion or contraction), these effects are are formed when tree receive injury in its
typically considered separately from the young age or due to unsuccessful attempts
determination of flexural strength. at the formation of branches.
Q.76. The number of days for which a crop
remains in a field is known as crop period. The
crop period is also defined as the number of
days between ________.
(a) preparation of land and last watering
before harvesting a crop

Shakes
It is longitudinal separations (crocks) in the
wood between the annual rings.
This lengthwise separations reduce the
allowable shear strength without much effect
on compressive and tensile strength
Wood appearance becomes undesirable.
Foxiness
• It is indicated by red or yellow tinge stain in
wood or reddish or brown stains or spots
around the pith of tree.
• It is caused either due to poor ventilation
during storage or by commencement of decay
due to over- maturity or due to growth of tree
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in a marshy soil.
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Upsets (Ruptures)
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• They indicate the wood fibers which are
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injured by crushing or compression.
• Upsets are mainly due to improper felling
of tree and exposure of tree in its young
age to fast blowing wind.
Defects due to Fungi, Bacteria and Insects
• Timber can have a long service life if it is
protected from the weathering affects and
attacks from bio- organism
• Most of the defects causes are related to
moisture.
• Bacteria do not cause any serious damage to
timber except for some discolourations, where
as fungi are a system of plant organism which
live in and attack timber causing rot.
Fungi attack timber only when the following
two conditions are satisfied simultaneously.
(1) Moisture content of timber is above 20 per
cent,
(2) Presence of air and warmth for the growth
of fungi.
• If any of the two given condition is absent,
then decay of wood due to fungi would not
occur.
Therefore the dry wood having moisture
content less than 20% will remain sound for
centuries and wood submerged in water will
not be attacked by fungi because of absence of
air.
Brown Rot
Rot means decay. Brown-rot fungi breakdown
cellulose and hemicellulose compounds from
wood and attains brown colour.
Dry Rot
Dry rot is attack on the sapwood by fungus (for
feeding) and convert it into dry and powdry
condition Causes:
(a) Absence of sunlight, dampness, presence of
sap and stagnant air and warmth,
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(b) Where there is no free air circulation e.g,
non-ventilated basements and damp situations
eg, kitchen and toilet
(c) Easily attacks on unseasoned softwood.
(d) By charring, painting and tarring the
unseasoned timber.
White Rot
White rot fungi attacks on lignin of wood and
wood appears like white mass consisting of
cellulose and hemicellulose compounds.
Wet Rot
• Wet rot fungi causes chemical decomposition
of timber, converting timber into a greyish
brown powder.
Causes:
(a) Alternate dry and wet conditions.
(b) Improperly seasoned timber exposed to
rain and wind
• To prevent wet rot the well-seasoned timber
used for exterior work or underground work
and it should be covered by tor or paint for
protection against moisture.
Q.78. Select the correct option for the given
statements.
Statement 1: Direction of the movement of a
storm over the catchment area has a definite
effect on the runoff.
Statement 2: If the storm moves against the
flow direction, then the base period will be
comparatively more and less peak flow may be
expected.
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true,
but statement 2 is not the correct explanation
of statements1
(b) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true
(c) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true,
and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
Ans : (d)
Runoff
• Runoff means the draining or flowing off of
precipitation from a catchment area through a
surface channel.
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• Runoff represents the response of a
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catchment to precipitation. It reflects the
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integrated effects of a wide range of
catchment, climate and rainfall characteristics
such as magnitude, intensity, distribution
according to time and space, and variability.
The various factors which affect the runoff
from a drainage basin depend upon the
following characteristics.
1. Rainfall characteristics:
a. Type of storm and season -
It significantly affects runoff. Precipitation that
falls in the form of rain begins to cause surface
runoff immediately, whereas precipitation that
falls as snow does not.
b. Intensity-
If the rainfall intensity is greater than the
infiltration rate of soil then runoff starts
immediately after rainfall. Whereas in the case
of low rainfall intensity runoff starts later.
c. Duration-
• Because the pace at which soil infiltrates
decreases with the length of rainfall, it is
directly correlated with runoff volume.
• Therefore, if the duration of the rainfall is
prolonged, medium intensity rainfall even
produces a significant amount of runoff.
d. Direction of storm movement:
A storm moving in the direction of flow
direction produces a higher peak in shorter
period of time than a storm moving in opposite
direction.
2. Metrological factors:
a. Temperature,
b. Humidity
c. Wind velocity
d. Pressure difference
3. Watershed Factor:
a. Size
b. Shape
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c. Altitude
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d. Topography
e. Geology [Soil type]
f. Land use [vegetation], Orientation
g. Type of drainage network
h. Proximate to ocean and mountain range
Q.79. Select the correct statement regarding
the 1st and 2nd moment of area of circular
lamina with radius 'R'.
(a) 1st moment of area is always +ve and 2nd
moment of area is always -ve.
(b) 1st moment of area and 2nd moment of
area are always +ve.
(c) 1st moment of area is may be either -ve or
+ve based on the chosen reference axes, but
2nd moment of area is always +ve.
(d) 1st moment of area is always -ve and 2nd
moment of area is always +ve.
Ans : (c)
1st Moment of Area(Q): it measures how a
shape's area is distributed in reference to an
axis. Used to find out the centroid of a shape.
Q = perpendicular distance (d) x Area(A)
The axis can be chosen as per the requirement
and hence, the perpendicular distance can be
either positive or negative. Hence 1st moment
of area can be either +ve or -ve depending on
the location from the reference axis.
2nd Moment of Area: It is also called the
moment of inertia(I) which is the capacity of a
body to resist bending or angular rotation
about a certain axis.
Using the parallel axis theorem we can find the
moment of inertia of any C/S using the below
expression
Ix = Ixc + Ad12
Iy = Iyc + Ad22
Where
Ix and Iy = moment of inertia about any random
x-axis and y-axis respectively, Ixc and Iyc =
moment of inertia about the shape’s centroidal
x-axis and y-axis respectively, A = area of
shape, d1 = distance of reference x-axis and
centroidal x-axis , d2 = distance of refrence y-
axis and centroidal y-axis, Ix (circle) = ℼd4/64
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(cannot be negative), Ad2 this term cannot be
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negative too.
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Q.80. Consider the following distances:
d1 = distance travelled by the vehicle after
applying the breaks.
d2 = distance travelled by overtaking vehicle,
during reaction time for overtaking.
d3 = distance travelled by overtaking vehicle,
during total overtaking time.
d4 = distance travelled by overtaken vehicle,
during total overtaking time.
The Overtaking Sight Distance, on a road with
one-way traffic will be equal to:
(a) d3 + d4 (b) d1 + d2 + d3 + d4
(c) d2 + d3 (d) d1 + d2 + d3
Ans : (c)
Sight Distance
The distance along the center line of the road
at which a driver has visibility of an object,
stationary or moving at a specified height
above the carriage way is known as sight
distance.
Types of Sight Distance
Following `types of sight distances are
considered for geometrical design of road :
• Stopping or non-passing sight distance
• Overtaking or passing sight distance
• Intermediate sight distance
• Lateral sight distance.
1. Stopping or Non-passing Sight Distance :
The clear distance ahead needed by a driver to
bring his vehicle to a stop before meeting a
stationary object on the road is called as
stopping or non-passing sight distance.
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2. Overtaking Sight Distance (OSD) :
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The minimum distance open to the vision of
the driver on a two way road to enable him to
overtake another vehicle ahead with safety
against the traffic from opposite direction is
called overtaking or passing sight distance.
OSD = d1 + d2 + d3 + d4
Where,
d1 = distance travelled by the vehicle after
applying the breaks.
d2 = distance travelled by overtaking vehicle,
during reaction time for overtaking.
d3 = distance travelled by overtaking vehicle,
during total overtaking time.
d4 = distance travelled by overtaken vehicle,
during total overtaking time.
For one way traffic OSD = d2 + d3
When no vehicle is expected from opposite
direction (on divided highways and on roads
with one way traffic).
3. Intermediate Sight Distance (ISD) :
The distance which affords reasonable
opportunities to drivers to overtake the vehicle
ahead with caution is known as intermediate
sight distance. ISD is taken as twice the safe
stopping distance.
4. Lateral Sight Distance :
The sight distance needed by the driver of a
vehicle who see another vehicles approaching
the intersection, reacts and applies brakes to
bring his vehicle to dead stop at the
intersection without any collision or accident is
called safe sight distance for entering into an
intersection or lateral sight distance.
Q.81. Consider the given statements.
I: Rate of material used for construction
includes the cost of transport.
II: For material that is supplied
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departmentally, cost of carriage from godown
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to work rate shall be added.
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Which of the statements is/are true?
(a) Both statements I and II are true
(b) Only statement I is true
(c) Both statements I and II are false
(d) Only statement II is true
Ans : (a)
Material cost
The rate of various materials as per
specifications for the items under
consideration can be chalked out from market
survey. The costs of materials are taken as
delivered at side of work.
This is inclusive of–
• The first class (cost at origin)
• Cost of transport, railway freight (if any) etc.
• Local taxes and other charges.
Q.82. The value of slope at fixed support of a
cantilever beam of length-L, flexural rigidity- EI,
subjected to a point load 'P' at its mid span,
and another point load 'P' at its free end, is:
𝐏𝐋 𝟑.𝐏𝐋
(a) (b)
𝟒.𝐄𝐈 𝟒.𝐄𝐈
𝑷𝑳
(c) (d) 𝒛ⅇ𝒓𝒐
𝟐.𝑬𝑰
Ans : (d)
For a cantilever beam, the bending moment
will be zero at the free end. This is because the
free end is not supported, and there is no force
acting on it to cause bending.
The bending moment will be maximum at the
fixed end of the beam. This is because the fixed
end is where the beam is attached to the
support, and the support prevents the beam
from rotating.
The bending moment will also be zero at the
center of the beam if the beam is
symmetrically loaded. This is because the
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forces acting on the beam will be balanced,
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and there will be no net force causing bending.
We know that in case of cantilever beam, the
value of slope at fixed support of a cantilever
beam is zero.
Q.83. In the design of T beam, If Mu > Mu,lim
then the section is designed as a ______
Where
Mu = ultimate flexural strength of beam
Mu,lim = limiting moment of resistance of beam
(a) Doubly reinforced section
(b) under reinforced section
(c) Singly reinforced section
(d) Over reinforced section
Ans : (a)
Doubly reinforced concrete beam in flexure
Mu=0.36 fckb.xu (d – 0.42.xu)+(fsc – fcc)Asc (d – d')
where,
Asc = Area of the compression reinforcement
xu = Depth of neutral axis at ultimate state
fcc = Stress in concrete at the level of the
compression reinforcement.
fsc = Stress in compression reinforcement.
d'=Effective cover to compression
reinforcement.
d = Effective depth of the beam section.
• If Mu > Mulim the beam section has to be
design as a doubly reinforced section For T-
beam
• When the neutral axis lies within the flange
Mu=0.36fckBxu(d – 0.42 xu)=0.87fy Ast(d–0.42 xu)
Q.84. Proper experimental knowledge about
the porosity and water absorption capacity of a
coarse aggregate is required as its affects the
durability of concrete because of:
I. Freezing and thawing
II. Reaction with chemically reactive fluids
III. Increasing the workability of concrete
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) Only (ii)
Ans : (c)
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Porosity–The entrapped air bubbles in the
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rocks during their formation lead to minute
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hales or cavities known as pores. The porosity
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of the aggregate will also affect the durability
of the concrete when the concrete is subjected
to chemically aggregate liquids. The pores may
become reservoirs of free moisture inside the
aggregate resulting in loss of workability of
concrete. The percentage of water absorbed by
an aggregate when immersed in water is
termed as the absorption of aggregate. The
porous aggregate absorb more moisture,
resulting in loss of workability of concrete at a
much faster rate.
Q.85. The geographical information system is
capable of integrating_____to capture, store,
retrieve, analyze and display the spatial data.
(a) only a multi-sector database system
(b) multi-sector, multi-level and multi-period
database systems
(c) only multi-level and multi-period database
systems
(d) only multi-sector and multi-level database
systems
Ans : (b)
Geographical information system is defined as
a system for capturing, storing, checking,
integrating, manipulating, analyzing and
displaying data, which are spatially referenced
to the earth.
APPLICATIONS OF GIS
• GIS finds its application in all those area
where professionals are involved in
management and planning utilizing analysis of
large amount of geographical data that relates
to space, typically involving positional data.
Positional data determine where things are or
perhaps, where they were or will be.
• The areas of GIS applications are unlimited as
it can be used for management and planning
that may be required in any field, e.g., civil
engineering, urban planning, forestry,
environmental management, flood control,
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natural disaster management, natural
resources management, military, biology,
geology, mining, hydrology, etc.
• GIS has distinct application in feasibility
studies such as site suitability and simulation
studies in erosion modeling.
Q.86. Consider the following statements with
respect to long wall-short wall method. Which
of the following statement is/are correct?
I. The wall that is taken first is treated as the
length, though the length may be lesser.
II. The wall with longer length has to be taken
as the long wall.
(a) Only statement II is true
(b) Both statements I and II are true
(c) Both statements I and II are false
(d) Only statement I is true
Ans : (d)
Methods of estimation–
(i) Long wall-short wall method

(ii) Center line method
Center Line:
• It's a theoretical line that marks the middle
of a structure's walls.
• It's used for initial measurements and
calculations.
Long Wall and Short Wall:
• In this method the wall along the length of
room is considered to be long wall while the
wall perpendicular to long wall is said to be
short wall to get the length of long wall or
short wall (outside dimension) may be
calculated after adding half breadth at each
end to its center line length.
Adjustments:
• Long Wall: To get the actual length of the
long wall, we need to add one breadth (width)
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to the center line measurement. This accounts
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for the extra length created by the intersecting
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wall.
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• Short Wall: To get the actual length of the
short wall, we need to subtract one breadth
from the center line measurement. This
accounts for the portion of the wall that
"disappears" due to the intersection.
Q.87. If the actual velocity of jet at the vena
contracta in an orifice meter is 'V', the depth of
the centre of orifice below the free surface is
'h' and 'g' is the gravitational acceleration, then
the coefficient of velocity 'CV' is:
(a) 2Vgh/300 (b) 2gh/(V)1/2
(c) 4V/(2gh)3/2 (d) V/(2gh)1/2
Ans : (d)
Coefficient of velocity (CV)–It is defined as the
ratio of actual velocity of jet at vena-contracta
to the theoretical velocity at vena-contracta. It
is denoted by CV.
𝑨𝒄𝒕𝒖𝒖𝒂𝒍 𝒗ⅇ𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 𝒐𝒇 𝒋ⅇ𝒕 𝒂𝒕 𝒗ⅇ𝒏𝒂−𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒂
Cv =
𝑻𝒉ⅇ𝒐𝒓ⅇ𝒕𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒗ⅇ𝒍𝒐𝒄𝒊𝒕𝒚 𝒐𝒇 𝒋ⅇ𝒕 𝒂𝒕 𝒗ⅇ𝒏𝒂−𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒕𝒓𝒂𝒄𝒕𝒂
𝑽
Cv=
𝑽𝒕𝒉
Theoretical velocity of jet at vena-contracta:
Vth = √𝟐𝒈𝑯 is also called velocity of spout
𝑽
Cv =
√𝟐𝒈𝑯
The value of CV varies from 0.95 to 0.99. The
variation in value depends upon size, shape of
orifice and head of liquid under which flow
take place.
Q.88. Which of the following is NOT a way by
which traffic volume data is presented?
(a) Traffic Variation charts
(b) AADT in traffic engineering
(c) Model average
(d) The pattern of traffic
Ans : (c)
Traffic Volume Study
Traffic volume or flow is the number of
vehicles crossing a point on a road in unit time.
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It is used to measure the quantity of traffic
flow and is expressed as Vehicle/hr or PCU/hr.
Complete traffic volume study includes:
1. Classified volume study: Number of different
types of vehicles are counted,
2. Directional study: Distribution of traffic on
different lane is calculated.
3. Turning movement study at intersection: It is
done for intersection design.
4. Pedestrian volume study: This study helps in
planning, subways, footbridge and in
pedestrian signal timing.
Presentation of Traffic Volume Data
1. Annual Average Daily Traffic (AADT): It is the
average traffic volume at a location calculated
over a full 365 days
Total traffic and classified traffic are calculated.
• It helps in deciding the relative importance of
a route and road development.
• it includes seasonal variation also.
2. Average Daily Traffic (ADT): It is the average
24 hour volume at a given location for some
period of time less than a year. For this
minimum of 7 days count is done to include gaseous substance discharged from chimneys,
the daily variation like on Saturday and Sunday ducts, or other outlets.
3. Trend Chart: Q.90. Which of the following methods is most
• Showing volume trends over period of years. accurate for the determination of the water
• These data are useful for planning, future content of cohesionless soil?
expansion, design and regulation. (a) Torsion Balance moisture meter method
4. Traffic flow map along the route: (b) Calcium carbide method
• It gives an idea of traffic at a glance. (c) Pycnometer method
• Thickness of lines represents traffic volume. (d) Oven drying method
5. 30th highest hourly volume: Ans : (d)
• It is taken as design hourly volume/design Exp.
capacity. Method Properties
• It is a plot between hourly volume and the Oven drying Most accurate method and is a
number of hours in an year that the traffic method standard laboratory method
volume is exceeded.
More suitable for cohesionless soil
• For this all hourly volumes are arranged in Pycnometer as removal of entrapped air from
decreasing order and order number is given to method cohesive soil is difficult
each of them. The data at order number 30 is
Sand bath It is a rapid method hence not very
the 30th highest hourly volume.
method accurate
• The 30th highest hourly volume is the hourly
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volume that will be exceeded only 29 times in Drying and weighing are done
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Torsion simultaneously with the help of

a year.
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balance infrared rays, hence one of the

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Q.89. According to the Air (Prevention and method accurate methods

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Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, how is the term

Calcium
'Emission' defined? carbide Takes just 5-7 minutes and is used
(a) Only the solid particles coming out of an method as a field test
outlet
It is a quick field test and is not
(b) Any solid or liquid or gaseous substance used for soils containing calcium or
mcoming out of any chimney, duct or flue or Alcohol test organic compound
any other outlet
Radiation Gives water content in an in-situ
(c) Only the gaseous substance coming out of method condition
an outlet
Q.91. An RCC beam of width 250 mm and
(d) Only the liquid substance coming out of an effective depth 450 mm is subjected to a
outlet nominal shear stress of 1.25 N/mm2. What is
Ans : (b) the value of shear force due to design load
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) coming on the section?
Act of 1981 offers definitions crucial to (a) 14.0625kN (b) 1.40625kN
understanding air quality. It defines "air (c) 140.625kN (d) 1406.25kN
pollutant" as any solid, liquid, or gaseous Ans : (c)
substance found in the atmosphere in
concentrations that could harm human health. Given that,
This statute also highlights the significance of Width (b) = 250 mm
"emission," which refers to any solid, liquid, or Effective depth (d) = 450 mm
Nominal shear stress (τv) = 1.25 N/mm2 Bubble Line (Level tube axis or Altitude level
axis):
τv =
𝑽 • It is a straight line tangential to the
𝒃ⅆ longitudinal curve of the level tube at its
center. It is horizontal when the bubble is
Shear force (V) = τv.bd center.
V = 1.25 × 250 × 450 Plate level axis:
V = 140625 N = 140.625 kN • It is perpendicular to the vertical axis when
Q.92. Identify the correct statements regarding the bubble is at the center.
theodolite.
i. The axis of the plate level must lie in a plane Q.93. What is the relation between the
parallel to the vertical axis. delivery head of the centrifugal pump and the
ii. The horizontal axis must be perpendicular to shaft speed (N) ?
the vertical axis. (a) The delivery head is directly proportional to N2
iii. The vertical circle vernier must read zero (b) The delivery head is inversely proportional to N
when the line of collimation is horizontal. (c) The delivery head is directly proportional to N
iv. The axis of the altitude level must be (d) The delivery head is inversely proportionalto N2
perpendicular to the line of collimation. Ans : (a)
(a) i, ii, iii and iv (b) Only i and iv Various relation between the pumps and shaft
(c) Only i and iii (d) Only ii and iii speed
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Ans : (d)
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(i) Flow rate is proportional to shaft speed

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Fundamental lines in a Theodolite: Q∝N

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𝑸𝟏 𝑵𝟏
Vertical axis (Azimuth axis): =
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𝑸𝟐 𝑵𝟐
• It is the axis about which instrument rotates
in the horizontal plane.
Horizontal Axis (Trunnion axis):
• it is the axis about which instrument rotates
in the vertical plane.
• The striding level is attached to the trunnion,
parallel with the horizontal axis.
• It is advantageous to employ the striding
(ii) Pressure or head is proportional to the
level for the accurate adjustment of the
square of shaft speed
vertical axis and measurement of the
inclination of the horizontal (trunnion) axis. H ∝ N2
𝑯𝟏 𝑵 𝟐
• Hence, Some theodolite are fitted with = ( 𝟏)
𝑯𝟐 𝑵 𝟐
striding level which is used to test the
horizontally of the trunnion axis.
Line of Collimation (Line of Sight):
• It is the line that passes through the
intersection of horizontal and vertical
crosshairs and the optical center of object-
glass.
(iii) Power is proportional to the tube of Igneous rocks are formed by the solidification
shaft speed of magma below the earth’s surface. When the
P ∝ N3 magma is unable to erupt through the earth
𝟑
surface during its upward journey, it is held up
𝑷𝑰 𝑵
= ( 𝟏) below the earth’s surface and unable to
𝑷𝟐 𝑵𝟐
descend. This magma cools down gradually
and solidifies into igneous rocks.
Examples: Granite ,Dolerite, Basalt ,etc.
Metamorphic rocks
Metamorphic rocks are formed by the
metamorphism process. Metamorphism is the
process of changing the characteristics of the
Q.94. Formation of ______ type(s) of rocks pre-existing rocks under the influence of heat
involves biological activity in addition to and pressure. The pre-existing rocks may be of
complex mechanical or chemical processes. the sedimentary or igneous type of rocks.
(a) sedimentary
Examples: Slate, Gneiss, Schist, marble,
(b) igneous soapstone etc.
(c) sedimentary and metamorphic Q.95. Which of the following test apparatus is
(d) metamorphic used to determine initial setting time and final
Ans : (a) setting time ?
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Classification of Rocks (a) Soundness test
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Rocks are classified based on three major (b) Sieve test

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factors as follows : (c) Vicat's apparatus

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1.Geological classification (d) Air permeability test

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2.Physical classification Ans : (c)

3.Chemical classification
1. Geological classification
Rocks are classified into three types based on
their geological formation and they are :
• Sedimentary rocks
• Igneous rocks
• Metamorphic rocks
Sedimentary rocks
Sedimentary rocks are formed by the
deposition of sediments obtained by the
weathering of pre-existing rocks and these
sediments are transported by various agents
such as water, wind, frost, gravity, etc. These
transported sediments form layered structures
and give rise to the sedimentary deposits.
Examples: Sandstone, limestone, lignite, etc
Igneous rocks
Setting Time
• On addition of water to cement the paste
thus resulted undergoes stiffening and starts to
gain strength and looses consistency
simultaneously
• This stiffening occurs in two stages and these
stages are referred as initial and final setting
time.
• When water is added to cement and mixed
properly the chemical reaction soon starts and
the cement paste remains plastic for a short
period During this period it is possible to remix
the poste and this period is called initial setting
time.
• It is assumed that no hardening will start in
this period As the time passes the reaction is
continued and cement begins to harden and
time elapse from the time of mixing with water
to hardening is known as final setting time
• In initial setting time test a cement paste is
prepared by gauging cement with 0.85 times
the water required to prepare a paste of
standard consistency
• It is also determined by the vicat's appratus
Q.96. Which of the following scales may NOT
given accurate measurements of a plan drawn
on a paper, due to shrinkage after few years?
(a) Representative fraction and graphical scale
(b) Engineer's scale and graphical scale
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(c) Graphical scale
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(d) Engineer's scale and representative fraction
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Ans : (d)
Plain Scale:
• This scale is used to represent two successive
units, such as 'kilometer, hectometer', 'meter,
decimeters', 'meters, 1/10th of meter', and so
on.
Diagonal Scale:
• This is a scale used to represent three
successive units or one unit and its fraction up
to the second place of decimals, such as
'kilometers, hectometres, decametres
Engineer's scale:
• An engineer's scale is an instrument that is
similar to a ruler and is used to measure scale
on technical drawings. It is shaped like a long
triangular prism, about 12 inches (30.5 cm)
long, with each side of each point marked with
a different scale for measuring.
This scale is represented by a statement like
1cm = 10m
• Here 1cm on the plan represents & 10m
represents ground distance.
Representative fraction:
• Here one unit of length on the plan
represents some number of the same units of
length on the ground.
1cm = 10m is represented in RF as 1:1000
Q.97. Punching shear may occur in loose sand
with density less than_____.
(a) 55% (b) 35%
(c) 45% (d) 65%
Ans : (b)
The foundation of the structure is designed for
Shear Failure of Soils.
The various types of shear failure modes of the
soils are as follows:
General Shear Failure:-This type of failure is
seen in dense and stiff soil. The following are
some characteristics of general shear failure.
1. Continuous, well-defined, and distinct
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failure surface develops between the edge of
the footing and the ground surface.
2. Dense or stiff soil that undergoes low
compressibility experiences this failure.
3. Continuous bulging of shear mass adjacent
to footing is visible.
4. Failure is accompanied by tilting of footing.
Local Shear Failure
This type of failure is seen in relatively loose
and soft soil. The following are some
characteristics of general shear failure.
1. Significant compression of soil below the
footing and partial development of plastic
equilibrium is observed.
2. Failure is not sudden and there is no tilting
of footing.
3. The failure surface does not reach the
ground surface and a slight bulging of soil
around the footing is observed.
4. The failure surface is not well defined.
5. Failure is characterized by considerable
settlement.
Punching Shear Failure of foundation soils
This type of failure is seen in loose and soft soil
and at deeper elevations. The following are
some characteristics of general shear failure.
1. This type of failure occurs in soil of very high
compressibility.
2. A failure pattern is not observed.
3. Bulging of soil around the footing is absent.
4. Failure is characterized by a very large
settlement.
5. Punching shear may occur in relatively loose
sand with relative density less than 35%.
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Q.98. Which of the following statements about
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carbon footprint is incorrect?
(a) If you choose to walk or cycle, you lessen
your carbon footprint.
(b) If you prefer to drive all the time, your
carbon footprint will be higher.
(c) Manufacturing and transportation of
consumer goods form a part of teh secondary
carbon footprint.
(d) Carbon footprint is of the following three
types: primary, secondary and tertiary.
Ans : (d)
Carbon footprint
“A carbon footprint is the total greenhouse gas
(GHG) emissions caused directly and indirectly
by an individual, organization, event or
product.”
Sources of Emissions
Household Emissions
Personal Transportation
Food
Ways to Reduce Carbon Footprint
Reduce meat in your diet and avoid wasting
food.
Walk, bike, carpool, use mass transit, or drive a
best-in-class vehicle.
Ensure car tires are properly inflated. Fuel
efficiency decreases by 0.2% for each 1 PSI
decrease.
Smaller houses use less energy. Average
household energy use is highest in single-
family houses (80.85 million BTU), followed by
mobile homes (61.3 million BTU), apartments
with 2-4 units (53.5 million BTU), and
apartments with 5+ units in the building (33.7
million BTU).
Whether you hand wash dishes or use a
dishwasher, follow recommended practices to
decrease water and energy use and reduce
emissions.
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Energy consumed by devices in standby mode
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accounts for 5-10% of residential energy use,
adding up to $100 per year for the average
American household. Unplug electronic
devices when not in use or plug them into a
power strip and turn the power strip off.
Choose energy-efficient lighting. Switching
from incandescent to LED light bulbs saves an
average household more than $200/year.
Reduce what you send to a landfill by recycling,
composting, and buying products with minimal
packaging.
Carbon footprints are typically divided into
three scopes:
Scope 1: Direct emissions from sources you
own or control, such as your car or home
heating. Scope
2: Indirect emissions from purchased energy,
like electricity or heating for your apartment.
Scope
3: All other indirect emissions associated with
your activities, including manufacturing,
transportation, and disposal of goods and
services you use.
Q.99. Trapezoidal sections ith rounded corners comprehensive list that describes the location,
for large canals or triangular sections with mark, type, size, length and number and
circular bottoms for small canals are the most bending details of each bar or fabric in a
suitable sections for _______ canals. Reinforcement Drawing of a Structure.
(a) lined (b) semi-lined Work charged establishment: The work
(c) unlined (d) earthen charged establishment will include the
Ans : (a) temporary establishment as are employed for
the execution or the immediate technical
Lining of canal:
supervision or departmental stores in
(i) By lining of canal we mean that the earthen connection with the specific work.
surface of the canal is lined with a stable lining
Sundries: Sundries is the column used to add
surface (such as concrete, tiles, asphalt etc.)
prices for miscellaneous items which are not
(ii) In general, We adopt two types of lined listed in the bow. For example, binding wire
canal section: used to tie rebar, cover blocks etc.
• Triangular shaped channel with circular
bottom (for smaller discharge)
• Trapezoidal shaped channel with rounded
corner (for larger discharge)
Advantage of lining of the canal:
(i) Prevents seepage loss and hence more area
can be employed for irrigation.
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(ii) Helps in the prevention of water-logging.

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(iii) Increased velocity in a canal prevents

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silting of the canal.

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Disadvantage of lining canal:

(i) It requires heavy initial investment.
(ii) It is difficult to repair initial investment.
Q.100. Which of the following terms describes
the location, type, mark, length and bending
details of each bar in a structure's reinforce
drawing?
(a) Bar bending schedule
(b) Material statement
(c) Work charged establishment
(d) Sundries
Ans : (a)
Material statement: The total quantities of all
the items of materials required for the
completion of the construction is shown in
Material statement.
Bar bending schedule: Bar Bending Schedule,
commonly referred to as "BBS" is a
 SSC JE MAINS CIVIL PAPER 4 DECEMBER 2023
Q.01. Identify the correctly matched pair(s) from
the following based on the type of cut-back
bitumen and fluxing agents used.
1. Rapid curing (RC) cut-backs : Kerosene
2. Medium curing (MC) cut-backs : Naptha or
gasoline
3. Slow curing (SC) cut-backs : light oils
(a) Only 3 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 and 3
Ans : (a)
Cutback bitumen:
(i) Cutback bitumen is bitumen with less
viscosity which, is achieved by the addition of
volatile diluent. Hence, to increase the fluidity
of the bitumen binder at low temperatures the
binder is blended with a volatile solvent.
(ii) The viscosity of the cutback bitumen and the
rate at which hardness on the road depends on
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Ans : (c)
Permeability
• Permeability refers to the ability of soil to
allow the flow of water through it.
• When soil is compacted, the void spaces
between soil particles are reduced.
• These void spaces are crucial for the
movement of water through the soil.
• As dry density increases through compaction,
the soil particles come closer together, reducing
the size of the void spaces.
• This reduction in void spaces makes it more
difficult for water to flow through the soil,
resulting in a decrease in permeability.
Q.03. Match the angles under List I (whole circle
bearings) with their corresponding values under
List 2 (quadrantal bearings).
i

the characteristics and quantity of both bitumen

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and volatile oil used as diluent.

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(iii) Cutback bitumen is available in three types:

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• Rapid curing (RC):- In this bitumen is fluxed

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with Naptha/gasoline, petroleum

• Medium curing (MC):- In this bitumen is fluxed
with Kerosene or high diesel oil
• Slow Curing (SC): - In this bitumen is fluxed
(a) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (b) P-2, Q-3, R-2, S-1
with High boiling point gas oil or light oils
(c) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (d) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(iv) Cutback bitumen is prepared by diluting a
paving grade bitumen with a volatile solvent Ans : (d)
such as light fuel oil or kerosene. P
Q.02. Select the option that is correct regarding =1440 30' in W.C.B.
the following two statements, labelled as QB = 1800 – 1440 30'
Assertion (A) and Reason (R), with respect to = S 350 30' E
permeability of soil.
Assertion (A): Permeability of soil continues to
decrease with the increase in dry density of
compacted soil Q
Reason (R): Soil and water are compressible in  = 2150 30' in WCB
nature. QB = 2150 30' – 1800
(a) A is false, but R is true. = S 350 30'W
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
 Indira Gandhi Harike (Satlej
R Canal and Beas) Punjab
 = 1250 30' in WCB Bihar and
QB = 1800 – 1250 30' Kosi Project Kosi River Nepal
= S540 30'E Hirakund
Project Mahanadi Orissa
Q Tungabhadra Tungbhadra-
= 324030' in WCB project Krishna AP-Karnataka
QB = 3600 – 3240 30’ Nagarjuna
= N 350 30'W Sagar Project Krishna AP
Rajasthan and
Chambal Madhya
Q.04 Hirakud Dam is built across Project Chambal Pradesh
(a) Yamuna River (b) Kaveri River Damodar Jharkhand,
(c) Mahanadi River (d) Krishna River valley project Damodar West Bengal
Ans : (c) Q.05. A two-roomed building is shown in the
figure Calculate the quantity of lime concrete
Hirakud is the longest earthen dam in the world;
foundation (PCC).
it is built on the river Mahanadi in Odisha. It was
the first major multipurpose river valley project The width of PCC 1.1 m is mentioned in figure.
since India's Independence.
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Some Facts about Dam

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1. Idukki Dam - Arch Dam

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2. Most of gravity Dam constructed in India are

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straight solid gravity dams. ex-Bhakra Dams.

3. Bhakra Dam (A concrete Dam) & Rana Pratap
Sagar Dam (A stone Masonry Dam) are rigid dam
in India.
4. Best/Most economical Central Angle in an
arch Dam is the one whose value is equal to 133°
34' at mid-height in constant radius dam.
5. A check Dam is a soil conservation structure.
6. The Tehri dam is highest dam in India. It is a
multi-purpose rock & earth-fill embankment
dam on the Bhagirathi river near Tehri (UK).
Some of the Major Irrigation Projects
Name River State
Punjab and
Bhakra Nangal Himachal
Project Sutlej Pradesh (a) 9.56 m³ (b) 14.66 m³
Punjab, (c) 12.87 m³ (d) 10.53 m³
Haryana and Ans : (c)
Beas Project Beas River Rajasthan
 Bending stress(f) is a result of the couple of P x
e about y-axis only, as a load P at centroid causes
direct compressive stress.
Using Flexure formula
𝑴 𝝈 𝑬
= =
𝑰 𝒚 𝑹
𝑴 𝟔𝑴
𝝈= =
𝒛 𝒃𝒅𝟐

Total length of the wall–

(i) C/C distance of long wall
𝟎⋅𝟑𝟎 𝟎.𝟑𝟎
=( + 𝟒 ⋅ 𝟎 + 𝟎 ⋅ 𝟑𝟎 + 𝟔. 𝟎 + )×𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
= 10.60 × 𝟐 = 21.20 m
(ii) C/C distance of short wall= 6.0 × 3 = 18 m
Total length = 21.20 + 18.0 = 39.20 m
Volume of PCC = L × B × H = 39.20 × 1.1 × 0.30
𝟔𝑴 𝟔×𝑷×ⅇ
= 12.936 m3 Then bending stress = =
𝒃𝒅𝟐 𝒃𝒅𝟐
𝟔𝑷ⅇ
𝝈=
Q.06. The gross bearing capacity of a strip 𝒃𝒅𝟐
footing 1.5 m wide located at a depth of 1.2 m in
clay is 420 kN/m². If the unit weight of the soil is
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Q.08. Identify the correct pairs from the

20 kN/m³, estimate the net bearing capacity in
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following with respect to the minimum road

kN/m² units.
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way width in a mountainous and steep terrain.

(a) 366 (b) 396
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Minimum Road
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(c) 390 (d) 400 Road Type Way Width

Ans : (b) Single-lane major district roads 5.75 m

Given, Single-lane other district roads 4.75 m

Gross bearing capacity (qg ) = 420 kN/m2 Single-lane village roads 4.00 m
Unit weight of soil = 20 kN/m3 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
Depth of footing = 1.2 m (c) Only 1 and 2 (d) Only 1 and 3
So, Ans : (b)
Net bearing capacity Road Classification Mountainous & Steep
𝒒𝒏 = 𝒒𝒈 − 𝜸𝑫𝒇= 420 – 20 × 1.2 Terrain (m)
= 396 kN/m2 NH and SH 6.25
Major District Roads 4.75
Other District Roads 4.75
Q.07. A column with length 'b' and breadth 'd'
is subjected to an eccentric point load 'P' Village Roads 4.0
(eccentric in the direction of breadth) with an Q.09. As per IS 456:2000, the pH value of water
eccentricity 'e'. Calculate the bending stress used for mixing and curing of cement concrete
developed. shall NOT be less than
(a) 3 Pe/bd2 (b) 6 Pe/bd2 (a) 7.5 (b) 6
(c) 24 Pe/bd2 (d) 12 Pe/bd3 (c) 8.5 (d) 5
Ans : (b) Ans : (b)
According to IS 456:2000, the pH value of water
used for mixing & curing of cement concrete
shall not be less than 6. As the pH below 6 can
be acidic & react with the cement to form
deleterious compounds, which can reduce the
strength & durability of the concrete.
Q.10. A timber test specimen of size 50 × 50 mm
in cross-section and 150 mm in length was
tested for its specific gravity. If the specimen
weighs 250 g and has 15% of moisture content,
calculate its specific gravity by accounting the
moisture content.
(a) 0.625 (b) 0.667
(c) 0.596 (d) 0.579
Ans : (d)
Given,
Volume of specimen = 50 × 50 × 150
= 375000 mm3
= 375 cm3
Percentage moisture content = 15
Weight of specimen = 250 gm
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Sound waves
• The sound is defined as a vibration that
propagates as an audible wave of pressure,
through a medium such as a gas, liquid or solid.
• The disruption pattern that results from
energy moving away from the sound source is
called a sound wave.
• Sound waves are longitudinal waves.
• Sound propagation from one point to another
point is governed by Mechanical wave's
formula.
• This indicates that the direction of energy
wave propagation and particle vibration
propagation are parallel.
• The atoms vibrate back and forth when they
are in this state.
• There are high-pressure and low-pressure
regions in the medium as a result of this
constant back and forth action. These areas of
high and low pressure are referred to as
rarefactions and compressions, respectively.
Sabine's formula
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• According to Sabine's formula, the

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𝒘𝒊 𝟏𝟎𝟎 reverberation time is used to find out the sound

×[ ]
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Specific gravity =
𝒗𝒊 𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝒎 quality in an auditorium, concert hall, or other
iv

Where, places.
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wi = Weight in 'gm' of test specimen • Reverberation time is the time that is required
vi = Volume in cm3 of test specimen by the sound to decay or fade away in an
m = Percentage moisture content of test enclosed area after stopping the source of the
specimen. sound.
𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝟏𝟎𝟎 Q.12. Consider the below statements with
Specific gravity = ×[ ] respect to asbestos and identify the correct
𝟑𝟕𝟓 𝟏𝟎𝟎+𝟏𝟓
Special gravity = 0.579 option.
Statement A: When asbestos is heated below
550°C, asbestos loses its elasticity and strength
and becomes brittle but re- stores its properties
Q.11. Study the given statements (P, Q) on cooling.
pertaining to propagation of sound waves and
Statement B: Asbestos molecules are strongly
select the most appropriate option with respect
bound together only in one direction, whereas
to the correctness of the statements.
the lateral bond with adjacent molecules is
P. Sound propagation from one point to another quite weak.
point is governed by Sabines' formula.
(a) Statement A is correct, and statement B is
Q. In air, sound propagates as longitudinal incorrect.
waves.
(b) Statement B is correct, and statement A is
(a) Neither P nor Q (b) Both P and Q incorrect
(c) Q only (d) P only (c) Both statements are incorrect
Ans : (c) (d) Both statements are correct
Ans : (b) Q.13. Consider the below statements with
Asbestos is natural mineral, which consists of respect to hydraulic pumps and identify the
silicate of calcium and magnesium found in the correct option.
form of very thin fibres having following Assertion (A): Reciprocating pumps are used for
properties: lifting oils from deep wells, as it can build up
• They are light in weight and fire-resistant. very high pressure.
• It has low water permeability hence less Reason (R): Discharge capacity of a reciprocating
porous. pump is much greater than that of a centrifugal
pump.
• Molecules are strongly bound together only in
one direction (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
It is brown, grey, and white in colour.
(b) A is true but R is false.
• It is resistant to acids and alkalis.
(c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
• Its specific gravity is 3.10.
explanation of A.
It has excellent heat and electric insulation.
(d) A is false but R is true.
• They do not require any protective paint.
Ans : (b)
• Asbestos cement is widely used in the
The hydraulic machines which convert the
manufacturing of roofing slates and tiles. These
mechanical energy into hydraulic energy are
sheets are widely used in industries, factories,
called pumps.
cinemas, auditoriums etc .
Centrifugal pumps Reciprocating pumps
Asbestos find wide acceptance in the
construction due to the following properties:
The discharge is The discharge is
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• Fire Resistance- The products derived from continuous and smooth fluctuating and pulsating
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asbestos are conducive for use in high-heat

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settings as they can successfully withstand high It can handle a large It handles a small quantity
iv

temperatures. Therefore, when asbestos is quantity (Discharge) of (Discharge) of liquid only

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heated at or above 550°C, asbestos does not liquid

loses its elasticity and strength and does not It can be used for lifting It is used only for lifting
becomes brittle at all. highly viscous liquids pure or less viscous liquids
like lifting oils from deep
• Durability- Asbestos products are wells
exceptionally strong and durable, therefore It is used for large It is meant for a small
making them a perfect choice in the discharge through smaller discharge and high heads
construction industry. heads
• Friction Resistance- Automotive assemblers Cost of a centrifugal pump approximately four times
found asbestos resisted friction and wear. In the is less as compared to the cost of a centrifugal
reciprocating pump pump
automobile industry, Asbestos is employed in
the manufacture of brakes, clutches, and
Centrifugal pump runs at It runs at low speed.
gaskets.
high speed. They can be Speed is limited due to
• Lightweight- Asbestos products are also coupled to an electric consideration of
sought-after, considering their light weight. This motor separation and cavitation.
property makes asbestos products the perfect
choice in the airplane industry. The operation of a The operation of a
• Less Cost- Asbestos is relatively cheap to centrifugal pump is reciprocating pump is
smooth and without complicated and with
extract from its natural sources. The process of much noise. much noise.
blending it with other materials to form
Asbestos products is also a cheap process.
The maintenance cost is The maintenance cost is
• Sound Absorption- Asbestos products also low high.
have the property of sound absorption. Efficiency is low Efficiency is high
Q.14. Identify the instrument shown in the
figure below, which is used for finding the shear
strength of soil.
(a) Unconfined compression test apparatus
(b) Tri-axial shear test apparatus
(c) Direct shear test apparatus
(d) Vane shear test apparatus
Ans : (a)
Unconfined compression test apparatus-
• The unconfined compression test apparatus is
used to determine the compressive strength of
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a soil sample without applying any lateral
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confinement.
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C
• The apparatus typically consists of a loading
device, loading platen, base plate, sample
holder or mold, and a displacement
measurement device.
• The soil sample is prepared in a cylindrical
shape and is subjected to axial load until failure.
Vane shear test apparatus
• In this test, there is no mechanism to measure
the pore water pressure and
there is no drainage facility provided.
• Hence, vane shear tests can be conducted only
under undrained conditions.
• The Vane Shear test for calculating the shear
strength of soil is suitable for soft saturated clay
like marine clay to find undrained shear
strength.
• This test can be conducted in the lab as well as
in the field.
• The mechanism is the same, but the difference
is only in the size of the vane.
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Tri-axial shear test apparatus
• In a cell, the triaxial test is performed on a
cylindrical soil sample with a length- to-
diameter ratio of 2 to calculate the shear
strength of the soil.
• The standard dimensions are 76 mm x 38 mm
and 100 mm x 50 mm.
• Three principal stresses are applied to the soil
sample.
• Out of three, two principal stresses are equal
and are caused by water pressure inside the
confining cell.
• The third principal stress, which differs from
the other two principal stresses, is applied by
loading ram through the top of the cell.
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iv
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Direct shear test apparatus-
IS 2720 (Part 13)- 1986 Methods of test for soils:
(Part -13) Direct Shear Stress.
• To calculate the shear strength of soil, Direct
shear test is performed on a soil sample that is
contained in a metal box with a square cross-
section that is split horizontally at mid-height.
• A small gap exists between the two halves of
the box.
• By moving the top half of the box relative to
the bottom half, the soil is sheared along a
predetermined plane.
• The box is typically square in plan, measuring
60 mm x 60 mm.
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Q.15. Calculate the theoretical weight of a steel
bar of length 8 m and diameter 20 mm. Take
density of steel as 7850 kg/m³.
(a) 19.72 kg (b) 12.56 kg
(c) 15.58 kg (d) 17.77 kg
Ans : (a)
Given,
Length, L = 8 m
Diameter () = 20 mm = 20 × 10–3 m
Density of steel (ds) = 7850 kg/m3
Theoretical weight of steel bar
= Volume of steel bar × density of steel
 𝜫
= 𝟒 𝝓𝟐 × 𝑳 × 𝒅𝒔 (a) The ratio of volume calculated by end area
formula and the prismoidal formula is called as
𝜫
= 𝟒 (𝟐𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 )𝟐 × 𝟖 × 𝟕𝟖𝟓𝟎 the 'Prismoidal correction'.
= 19.72 kg (b) If there is an even number of cross sections,
the end strip must be treated separately, and
Q.16. Which of the following types of canal is
volume between the re- maining sections may
aligned roughly at right angles to the contours of
be calculated by prismoidal formula.
the country ?
(c) Prismoidal formula is also known as
(a) Ridge canal (b) Water shed canal
Simpson's rule for volume.
(c) Side slope canal (d) Contour canal
(d) It is necessary to have an odd number of
Ans : (c) cross-sections to apply prismoidal formula.
Side slope canal is aligned roughly at right angles Ans : (a)
to the contours, traversing the side slopes of the
Prismoidal formula (Simpon's rule is used)
land.
Contour canal follows the contours of the land,  Valid for odd number of offset and number of
not at right angles to them. division is even.
𝑳
V = [(A1+An)+4(A2+A4+…+An–1)+2(A3+A5+…An–2)]
𝟑
• For irregular boundaries, Simpson's rule is
Ridge Canal Contour Side Slope preferred over the trapezoidal rule to calculate
(Watershed Canal (Single Canal the given area.
canal) Bank Canal) • In the case of an even number of cross-
Aligned along Aligned along Aligned sections, the end strip is treated separately and
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the ridge or the natural perpendicular the area of the remaining strip is calculated by
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natural contour of to the Simpson's rule. The area of the last strip may be
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watershed the country contour of calculated by trapezoidal formula.

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Line the country. Prismoidal correction

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A ridge canal Maximum No Cross The difference between the volume computed
does not cross drainage Drainage by the trapezoidal formula and the prismoidal
drainage line work is work formula is known as a prismoidal correction.
and Hence required required.
 Since the trapezoidal formula always over
cross drainage
work are not estimates the volume. Prismoidal correction is
required. always subtractive in nature.
𝑫
Can irrigates Can irrigate Can irrigate 𝑪𝑷 = 𝟔 (𝒅𝟐 − 𝒅𝟏 )𝟐
on both sides areas only on areas only on
Where,
of the ridge one side one side. It is
and hence, a Neither on D = Distance between the sections
large area can watershed S = H : 1V (Side slope)
be cultivated nor in valley. d1 and d2 = depth of earth work at centre line
Ridge line are It is generally This type of
quite provided in canal is
economical Hilly areas. Nearly Q.18. Match the following.
and can be parallel to the List - I List - II
provided in Natural 1. Storm water a. Provided to admit the surface
plane areas. drainage of inlets runoff to sewers.
the country. 2. Catch basins b. Provided at the head of
sewers
3. Flushing C. Provided to stop the entry of
Q.17. Identify the INCORRECT statement about manholes heavy debris present in the
prismoidal formula used to compute earthwork. storm water into sewers.
(a) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a (b) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
(c) 1-a, 2-6, 3-c (d) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
Ans : (b)
Storm water inlets
Storm water inlets are the openings in the
pavement, which collect surface runoff & direct
it into the storm sewer system. These are used
to prevent flooding & protect streets from
damage.
Types of Manholes:
(a) Straight - Trough Manholes: When there is a
change in the size of sewer, the soffit or crown
level of the two sewers should be the same.
(b) Drop Manholes: To connect the high level
branch sewer to the low level main sewer by
vertical dropping pipe.
(c) Junction Manholes: Built at every junction of
two or more sewer
(d) Flushing Manhole: When it is not possible to
obtain self-cleaning velocities due to flatness of
the gradient. It is essential that some form of
flushing device be incorporated.
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Flushing manholes are located at the head of
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sewers or at points where the grade changes
significantly. They are used to flush out
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sediment & debris, which may have
accumulated in the sewer system.
Catch basin - It allow the strom water to enter
the sewer by eliminating the silt, grit, etc. at the
bottom of the basin. It helps to maintain the
efficiency of the sewer system & prevent
blockages.
Q.19. Identify the correct pairs from the
following with respect to the manufacturing
techniques of different types of cement
1. Quick-setting cement:- Use of reduced
gypsum content as compared to that used in
ordinary Portland cement.
2. Low heat cement:- Use of reduced C₂S content
as compared to that used in ordinary Portland
cement.
3. Sulphate-resistant cement: Cement with C3A
content not more than 5%
(a) Only 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (c)
Quick setting cement: Fine grinded OPC with
reduced Gypsum content & a small amount of
aluminium sulphate.
• IST 5 minutes & FST = 30 minutes. It set quickly
but not harden.
• It is used in under water concreting.
Sulphate-resistant cement has a C3A content of
3 not more than 5%. C3A reacts with sulphates
present in the soil or water to form expansive
compounds, leading to cracking & deterioration
of concrete. By limiting the C3A content, the risk
of sulphate attack is reduced.
Low heat Portland cement: Low C3S & C3A and 3
i
more contents of C₂S By reducing the C₂S
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content, the heat generation is minimized,
resulting in a low heat cement.
• It is use in mass concrete work & widely use
in retaining wall, abutment, dam.
• Rate of development of strength is low but
ultimate strength is same
Q.20. Calculate the slope at free end of a
cantilever beam of length 1 = 5 m subjected to a
uniformly varying load with intensity varying
from 0 kN/m (at B) to 20 kN/m (at A) as shown
in figure. Consider that the flexural rigidity (EI)
of the beam as constant throughout its length.
𝟏𝟐𝟗.𝟐𝟕 𝟔𝟒.𝟔𝟒
(a) (b)
𝐄𝐈 𝐄𝐈
𝟏𝟎𝟒.𝟏𝟔 𝟖𝟖.𝟓𝟖
(c) (d)
𝐄𝐈 𝐄𝐈
Ans : (c)
 Statement A: As per IS 3129:1985, the maximum
thickness of low-density particle boards shall be
50 mm.
Statement B: As per IS 3129: 1985, the maximum
thickness of insulation particle boards shall be
40 mm.
𝒘𝒍𝟑 (a) Both the statements are correct.
Slope at (B) 
𝟐𝟒𝑬𝑰 (b) Statement B is correct, but statement A is
𝟐𝟎×𝟓𝟑 incorrect.
=
𝟐𝟒×𝑬𝑰 (c) Both the statements are incorrect.
𝟏𝟎𝟒⋅𝟏𝟔𝟕
b= (d) Statement A is correct, but statement B is
𝑬𝑰
incorrect.
Ans : (d)
As per IS: 3129-1985,
• Low-density particle board is manufactured by
low-density wood or other lignocellulose by
disintegration of the same or other pre-
determined sizes.
• The maximum thickness of low-density
particle boards shall be 50 mm.
• The thickness of insulation particle boards in
i

mm shall be as 50,45,40,35,30,27,25,22, 19, 16

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Q.21. As per IS-456-2000, for ultimate limit and 12.

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states, the partial factor of safety assigned for • The maximum thickness of insulation particle
concrete is
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boards shall be 50 mm.

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(a) 1.5 (b) 1.15 • The maximum length of the insulation particle
(c) 0.36 (d) 0.87 board is 3650 mm.
Ans : (a) • The maximum width of the insulation particle
Factor of safety: The ratio of ultimate strength of board is 1800 mm
a material to working strength (or permissible Q.23. Consider the following statements with
stress). respect to the effects of water logging on
agricultural land and identify the correct option.
𝐒𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐠𝐭𝐡 𝐨𝐟 𝐦𝐚𝐭𝐞𝐫𝐢𝐚𝐥 Statement A: Water logging increases the
(a) F.O.S. = 𝐏𝐞𝐫𝐦𝐢𝐬𝐬𝐢𝐛𝐥𝐞 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬 activity of soil bacteria.
Statement B: Water logging leads to growth of
𝐘𝐢𝐞𝐥𝐝 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬
(b) F.O.S. = 𝐖𝐨𝐫𝐤𝐢𝐧𝐠 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬 wild flora.
(a) Both the statements are correct.
 Factor of safety for concrete is taken as 1.5
while the value for steel is taken as 1.15. (b) Statement A is correct, but statement B is
 Steel is manufactured in the factories under incorrect.
quality control. So, factor of safety is taken (c) Statement B is correct, but statement A is
lesser than that of concrete which is incorrect.
 produced in field in not that much controlled (d) Both the statements are incorrect.
way. Ans : (c)
Q.22. Consider the following statements with Water Logging: Water logging occurs when the
respect to the maximum thickness of particle soil is saturated with water. The agricultural land
boards and identify the correct option. becomes waterlogged when the soil pores
within the root zone of the crops get saturated
and the normal conditions circulation of air is
cut off. The water logging affects the
productivity of the land and leads to a reduction
in the crop yield. Water logging generally occurs
because of over-irrigation, high water table, and
poor water management.
Effects of water logging
1. Reduction in productivity
2. Growth of unwanted plants
3.Creation of cold and damp climate that causes
spreading of diseases like dengue and malaria.
4. Difficulty in cultivation operation
5. Salinity and alkalinity of the soil is increased
in the root zone.
Q.24. Locate the centroid with respect to base
AB of a rectangular section shown in the figure.
Consider that a part of the circular section with
diameter 150 mm is removed.
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most appropriate option with respect to the
correctness of the statements.
P. The plasticity index of a soil is measure of the
amount of clay in the soil.
Q. When silt is added to clay, the plasticity index
of the resulting soil increases.
(a) Both P and Q (b) Q only
(c) Neither P nor Q (d) P only
Ans : (d)
Plasticity:
• The range of water content over which soils
remains in a plastic state is known as the
"Plasticity" of the soil.
• Clayey soils exhibit this plasticity property due
to the presence of clay minerals.
Plasticity Index:
• It is a measure of the plasticity of the soil and
is calculated as the difference between the
liquid limit and the plastic limit.
• Plasticity index order: clay> silt> sand > gravel
• Adding silt to the clay reduces the plasticity or
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plasticity index of soil because percentage of

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clay content is decrease.

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Plasticity Index Plasticity Type of Soil

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0 Non-plastic Sand
<7 Low-plastic Silt
(a) 129.1 mm (b) 133.68 mm
(c) 154.9 mm (d) 112.44 mm 7-17 Medium-plastic Silt-clay
Ans : (a) > 17 High-plastic Clay
Given, Q.26. Which of the following is an INCORRECT
Area of rectangle = 300 x 200 = 60000 mm² statement with respect to the characteristics
𝝅 and design factors of rigid and flexible
Area of circle (A2) = 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟐
pavements ?
= 17662.5 mm2 (a) Rigid pavements do not get deformed to the
Centroid of circle from (AB) y2) shape of the supporting layer below it.
=300–100 = 200 mm (b) The lower layers of flexible pavements face
Centroid of rectangular from (AB) y1  stresses of lesser magnitudes as compared to
𝟑𝟎𝟎 the pavement surface directly under the wheel
= = 𝟏𝟓𝟎 mm load.
𝟐
𝒂𝟏 𝒚𝟏 −𝒂𝟐 𝒚𝟐
Centroid of composite member = (c) The flexible pavement layers may reflect non-
𝒂𝟏 −𝒂𝟐
recoverable as well as recoverable deformations
𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝟏𝟓𝟎−𝟏𝟕𝟔𝟔𝟐⋅𝟓×𝟐𝟎𝟎
= of the lower layers, including the sub-grade onto
𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎−𝟏𝟕𝟔𝟔𝟐.𝟓
the upper layers and also the pavement surface.
= 129.14 mm
(d) The stresses in rigid pavements are analyzed
Q.25. Study the given statements P and Q, based by using the plastic theory, assuming that the
on the plasticity index of soils and select the pavement is resisting over a rigid surface.
Ans : (d)
 Rigid pavements are typically analyzed using
elastic theory, not plastic theory. The
assumption is that the pavement is resisting
over an elastic foundation & stress analysis
is based on this principle.
 Rigid pavements do not get deformed to the
shape of the supporting layer below it. Rigid
pavements are designed to be stiff & resist
deformation, not like flexible pavements.
 Flexible pavements can experience both
permanent (non-recoverable) & temporary
(recoverable) deformations due to the traffic
loads & environmental factors. These
deformations can manifest as cracks, rut-
ting & other surface distresses.
Q.27. Identify the INCORRECT statement with
respect to different types of pipe flow.
(a) The fluid characteristics like velocity, density
and pressure at a point do not change with time
in case of steady flow.
(b) The flow in a circular pipe is categorized as
laminar when the Reynolds number for the flow
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is less than 4000.
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(c) The velocity of the flow at any given time
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does not change with respect to space in case of
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uniform flow.
(d) The type of flow in which the fluid particles
move along a well-defined streamline or math’s
such that all the streamlines are straight and
parallel to each other is known as laminar flow.
Ans : (b)
In reality, the flow in a circular pipe is generally
considered laminar at Reynolds numbers less
than about 2000, not 4000.Above this range, the
flow transitions to turbulent.
Q.28. Consider the below statements with
respect to cement concrete and identify the
correct statement(s)
i. Size and shape of aggregates used in making
concrete influence the workability of concrete.
ii. As the water cement ratio in making concrete
increases, the strength of concrete increases.
iii. Maturity of concrete is independent of
temperature at which it is cured.
(a) i and iii (b) i and ii
(c) Only i (d) Only ii
Ans : (c)
Effect of water-cement ratio on concrete:
• The ratio of water-cement is generally lying in
between 0.35 to 0.65.
• Water cement ratio inversely proportional to
the strength of concrete. If the water-cement
ratio increases then the strength decreases and
vice versa.
• And W/C is directly related to workability
because if the water-cement ratio increases
then the concrete gets wetter and more
consistent and can be placed easily.
Size of Aggregates
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• Finer aggregate requires more water because
of larger surface area, hence aggregate with
finer particles need more water to make it
workable.
• On the other hand, bigger particles have less
surface area, and therefore demand less water
for wetting surface and require less amount of
paste for lubricating.
• So bigger particles gives higher workability for
fixed water content.
The Shape of Aggregates
• Irregular shape and rougher texture of angular
aggregate require more water as compared with
the round shaped aggregate.
• For fixed volume or weight, rounded particles
has lesser surface area and lesser voids.
• Hence round shaped aggregates gives higher
workability than angular, flaky or elongated
aggregates.
Concrete Maturity
• Concrete maturity reflects how far curing has
progressed.
• Maturity is the relationship between concrete
temperature, time, and strength gain.
Q.29. A person constructed a warehouse at a 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝟓𝟎⋅𝟐𝟔𝟓
=
cost of Rs. 4,00,000, excluding the cost of land. 𝟐𝟎𝟎
The warehouse will become obsolete after 10 = 251.32 mm
years. Find the amount of sinking fund to be Q.31. Calculate the limiting moment of
annually deposited at the rate of 5% compound resistance in accordance with the limit state
interest. Th scrap value of the warehouse is 10% design of singly reinforced rectangular beam
of the cost of purchase. whose width is 200 mm and effective depth is
(a) Rs. 32,502 (b) Rs. 28,571 400 mm. Consider that the grade of steel is
(c) Rs. 30,800 (d) Rs. 25,980 Fe415 and that of concrete is M20.
Ans : (b) (a) 88.30 kN-m (b) 69.98 kN-m
Given, (c) 75.96 kN-m (d) 96.52 kN-m
Time (n) = 10 years Ans : (a)
Scrap value = 10% For Fe-415,
Sinking fund interest = 5% Limiting moment of resistance
Warehouse cost = 4,00,000 = 0.138 fck bd2
𝟏𝟎 = 0.138 × 20 × 200 × 4002
Scrap value = 𝟒𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟒𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
= 88.30 kN-m
Sinking fund value (s) = 4,00,000 – 40,000
Q.32. Identify the type of lacing/batten system
= 3,60,000
shown in the figure below.
𝑺𝒊
Annual installment = (a) Single flat batten intersecting
(𝟏+𝒊)𝒏 −𝟏
𝟑𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝟎.𝟎𝟓 (b) Double flat batten intersecting
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=
(𝟏+𝟎.𝟎𝟓)𝟏𝟎 −𝟏 (c) Single flat lcing intersecting
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= 28621.64  28571 Rs (d) Double flat lacing intersecting

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Ans : (d)
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LACINGS
Q.30. In the design of a two-way slab, the • Lacing is a system of connecting elements in
flexural reinforcement required in a shorter built up column.
span is found to be 200 mm²/m. Calculate the • Lacing make the component of column act as
required spacing if steel bars of diameter 8 mm a single unit.
are to be used. Ignore the spacing of
• If the component of column are each very
reinforcement based on other criteria's and
close to each other, then tack rivets are used to
calculate only based on the given information.
make them act as a single unit.
(a) 251.32 mm (b) 194.65 mm
• If the spacing of component is more then the
(c) 267.23 mm (d) 236.87 mm rivets are useless and so we use lacing or batten.
Ans : (a) The lacing is of two types.
𝜫
Area of reinforcement (As)= × 𝒅𝟐 (i) Single lacing
𝟒
𝜫 (ii) Double lacing
= × 𝟖𝟐
𝟒
= 50.265 mm2
Area of reinforcement given shorter span
(Ast) = 200 mm2 /m
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎×𝑨𝒔𝝓
Spacing of reinforcement (S) =
𝑨𝒔𝒕

Q.33. As per IS 10262:2019, what is the
approximate amount of entrapped air to be
expected in normal (non air-entrained) concrete
when 10 mm nominal maximum size of
aggregate is used in making concrete?
(a) 2.0 (b) 1.5
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.5
Ans : (b)
The approximate amount of entrapped air to be
Line CD is free from local attraction. Therefore
fore bearing of DE line is free from local
attraction. Then fore bearing of line DE = 230o
10'.
Q.35. The rainfall on five successive days on a
catchment was 2,6,9,5 and 3 (in cm units). If the
-index for the storm is taken as 3 cm/day, the
total direct runoff from the catchment will be:
(a) 20 cm (b) 22 cm
(c) 11 cm (d) 10 cm
Ans : (c)
The -index represents an infiltration rate where
the infiltration rate surpasses the threshold at
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expected in normal (non-air- entrained) which the volume of runoff equals the volume
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concrete is given by the table 3 of IS 10262:2019 of rainfall.

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SI. No Nominal Entrapped Air, as Calculation:

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Maximum Size of Percentage of if Rainfall < 𝝓-index; Runoff = 0

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Aggregate Volume of
if Rainfall ≥𝝓 -index; Runoff = Rainfall - 𝝓-index
(mm) Concrete
The total direct runoff from the catchment
1 10 1.5
= 0+(6-3) + (9-3) + (5-3) + (3-3) =11 cm
2 20 1.0
Q.36. As per IS soil classification, if the
3 40 0.8
coefficient of uniformity of a soil sample is
greater than 6 and the coefficient of cur- vatures
Q.34. The following bearings were taken in a lies between 1 and 3, the soil is classified as
closed compass traverse. (a) GC (b) GW
(c) SM (d) SW
Ans : (d)
Soil Classification as per IS
• Sand is said to be well-graded if the uniformity
coefficient (Cu) is greater than 6 and the
coefficient of curvature (CC) lies in between 1 to
Calculate the corrected fore bearing of line 'DE' 3
by assuming that the observed bearing of line • Gravel is said to be well-graded if the
'CD' is correct. uniformity coefficient (Cu) is greater than 4 and
(a) 230°5' (b) 230°15' the coefficient of curvature (CC) lies in between
1 to 3.
(c) 229°55' (d) 230°10'
Calculation:
Ans : (a)
In this case, our soil is sand and it is given as Cu
> 6, and Cc lies in between 1 and 3 so it is well-
graded sand or SW.
Q.37. Study the given estimates for the
construction of a proposed hospital building and
identify the estimate that does not belong to the
category of preliminary estimates.
(a) Estimate on the basis rate per unit length of
wall and length of walls of hospital
(b) Estimate on the basis of rate per bed, and
number of beds in the hospital
(c) Estimate on the basis of the plinth area unit
rate and plinth area of hospital
(d) Estimate on the basis of each item of the
work in the building and their respective unit
rates
Ans : (d)
There are different types of estimate
Approximate or preliminary estimate: The
approximate estimate serves as the preliminary
evaluation of various project aspects, aiding in
derived by dividing the actual cost of a nearby
similar building by the number of units.
Detailed estimate: This method of estimation is
precise, involving the subdivision of the entire
building work into individual items. The cost is
determined by multiplying the numbers of each
item by the respective completion rate
Q.38. Which of the following constant factors
relates stress in the steel linearly with stress in
adjoining concrete?
(a) Young's modulus (b) Shear modulus
(c) Poisson's ratio (d) Modular ratio
Ans : (d)
Modular ratio:
Modular ratio is the ratio of modulus of
elasticity of steel to modulus of elasticity of
concrete. In working stress design,
𝟐𝟖𝟎
M = 𝟑𝛔
𝐜𝐛𝐜
where, 𝛔cbc = Permissible stress in extreme
compression fibre in concrete.
𝐄𝐬 𝟐×𝟏𝟎𝟓
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financial decision-making and administrative (a)m = = × (𝟏 + 𝛉) → for long term

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𝐄𝐜 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎√𝐟𝐜𝐤
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approval. For revenue-generating projects, value

probable income is included, while non-
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𝐄𝐬 𝟐×𝟏𝟎𝟓
commercial projects are assessed based on (b) m = = for short term value
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𝐄𝐜 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝟎√𝐟𝐜𝐤
necessity, utility, prospects, and financial
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(c) Considering creep and shrinkage, value of

availability. 𝟐𝟖𝟎
Different methods of approximate estimate are ‘m’ considered m = 𝟑𝛔
𝐜𝐛𝐜
given below. 𝛔cbc. = Permissible stresses in concrete
a. Plinth area method: The construction cost is Where 𝛉 = creep coefficient
calculated by multiplying the plinth area with Poisson’s Ratio:-
the plinth area rate, where the area is derived
For homogeneous & isotropic material,
from the multiplication of the length and
elongation/contraction produced by any axial
breadth (outer dimensions of the building).
force in the direction of force is accompanied by
b. Cubical content method: This method, contraction/elongation in all transverse
commonly applied to multistoried buildings, is directions & all such contractions/elongations
more accurate than the plinth area and unit are same.
base methods. The cost is determined by 𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬
multiplying the total volume of the building Young’s modulus (E) =
𝐍𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐚𝐥 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐢𝐧
(obtained from length x breadth x depth) by the
Local Cubic Rate, excluding costs for features like
𝐒𝐡𝐞𝐚𝐫 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬
string course, cornice, corbelling, etc. Shear modulus (G) =
𝐬𝐡𝐞𝐚𝐫 𝐬𝐭𝐫𝐚𝐢𝐧
c. Unit-based method: This method calculates
the structure's cost by multiplying the total units
with the unit rate for each item. For schools and Q.39. In the design of RCC structures, the limit
colleges, the unit is defined as one student, and state of collapse deals with
for hospitals, it is one bed. The unit rate is (a) Leakage of water in the structure
(b) Loss of durability
(c) The strength of the structure under the
maximum design load
(d) Discomfort caused by excessive deflection
Ans : (c)
There are two limit states
1. Limit state of collapse
2. Limit state of serviceability
i) Limit state of collapse: The limit state of
collapse of the structure or part of the structure
could be assessed from rupture of one or more
critical sections and from buckling due to elastic
or plastic instability or overturning. Limit state
of collapse deals with the strength and stability
of structures subjected to the maximum design
loads out of the possible combinations
Note:
The resistance to bending, shear, torsion, and
axial load at every section shall not be less than
the appropriate values at that section produced
by the most unfavorable combination of loads
on the structures using the appropriate partial
safety factors
ii) Limit state of serviceability: It ensures that
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your designed structure is comfortable and
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useable enough for human use.
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Note:
The serviceability limit state deals with
vibrations and deflections (movements), as well
as cracking and durability.
It might also involve limits to non-structural
issues such as fire, acoustics and heat
transmission.
Q.40. Select the option that is correct regarding
the following two statements, labelled as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R), with respect to
characteristic features of contour lines.
Assertion (A): A single contour cannot split into
two lines.
Reason (R): A knife-edge ridge or depression
does not occur in nature.
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the cor- rect
explanation of A.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Ans : (c)
Characteristics of contours
 All points lying on one contour have the same
elevation.
 A contour will always close on itself either
within or beyond the limits of the map.
 A contour closing within the limits of the map
indicates either summit or a depression.
 Contours can not interact or cross each other.
 The contours are spaced equally on a uniform
slope.
 Contours cross the ridge line at right angles.
 The curve of a contour in a valley is convex
toward the stream.
 A single contour cannot split into two contour
lines.
 Two contour lines having the same elevation
can not unite and continue as one line, a single
contour can not split into two lines. This is
evident because a single line could, otherwise,
indicate a knife-edge ridge or depression which
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not occur in nature
Q.41. Identify the type of weld made between
two plates shown in the figure below.
(a) Continuous fillet weld
(b) Flat fillet weld
(c) Groove weld
(d) Lap weld
Ans : (c)
Butt weld is also called groove weld. It is
provided when the members to be jointed are
lined up (in one plane) (butt joint)
In Slot weld fillet welding is made along the
periphery of hole
 in roof truss) and subjected to re- versal of
stresses due to action of the wind or earthquake
forces?
(a) 180 (b) 280
(c) 450 (d) 350
In Plug welds small holes are made in one plate Ans : (d)
and is kept over another plate to be connected Maximum slenderness ratio –
& then entire hole is filled with filler material. Tension members
Description 𝝀𝒎𝒂𝒙
Tension member in which reversal of
direct stress occurs due to live load other
than wind or earthquake 180
Fillet welds are provided when two members to In reversal occurs due to wind or
be jointed are in different place (lap joint) earthquake 350
A tension member permanently in
tension except in pretensioned
members. 400

Groove weld
Compression Members –
A groove weld is made in a prepared groove
between two members, typically with a V. U or J Description 𝝀𝒎𝒂𝒙
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shape. It provides a strong and full penetration

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weld. A strut connected by single rivet at each end 180

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Member carrying loads resulting from dead

loads and imposed loads 180
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A member subjected to compressive force

resulting from wind/earthquake force,
providing the deformation of such members
does not adversely effect the stress in any
part of structure. 250
Compression flange of a beam 300
Member normally acting as a tie in a roof
truss or a bracing system but subjected to
possible reversal of stresses resulting from
the action of wind or earthquake forces 350
Q.43. The value of speed ratio of a Pelton wheel
turbine varies from
(a) 0.78 to 0.85 (b) 0.62 to 0.77
(c) 0.43 to 0.48 (d) 0.5 to 0.98
Ans : (c)
Turbine Speed ratio
Pelton 0.4-0.5

Francis 0.6-0.9

Q.42. As per IS 800:2007, what is the maximum

slenderness ratio for tension members (e.g. tie Kaplan & Propeller 1.8-2.5
Q.44. Match the following with respect to
imposed floor loads for different occupancies as
specified in IS 875 (part 2)-1987.
Occupancy Classification Uniformly
distributed
1. Balconies of dwelling houses a. 2 kN/m2
2. All rooms and kitchens of b. 4 kN/m2
dwelling houses
3. Dining rooms, cafeterias and c. 2.5
restaurants in hotels, hostels kN/m2
and boarding houses.
4. Office rooms in hotels, hostels d. 3 kN/m2
and boarding houses.
(a) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (b) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
(c) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d (d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-а, 4-с
Ans : (a)
Imposed floor loads for different occupancies as
specified in IS 875 (Part -2 ) - 1987
Snow Load
pollutants, or by reaction with normal
atmospheric constitutents with or without
photoactivation.
Examples
A. Ozone
B. Formaldehyde
C. PAN (peroxy acetyl nitrate)
D. Sulphuric Acid
E. Photochemical smog, Smog, Aldehyde and
ketone, HNO3
Primary pollutants– (i) Sulphur dioxide (ii) CO
(iii)Nitrogen oxides NO and NO2 (iv) Lead (v)
Hydrocarbons, halogens (vi) Radio active
substances etc.
Q.46. Read the given statements (S1, S2)
pertaining to structural plywood as per IS:
10701-2012 and select the most appropriate
option with respect to the correctness of the
statements.
S₁: The moisture content of finished ply- 1 wood
bards shall be in the range 5% to 15%
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Building Type (kN/m²) S2: The tensile strength and compressive

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strength across the grain shall be greater than

Balconies of dwelling houses 3
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that along the grain.

All rooms and kitchens of dwelling
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(a) Both S₁ and S₂ are false

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houses 2
(b) S₁ is false and S2, is true
Dining rooms, cafeterias and (c) S₁ is true and S₂ is false
restaurants in hotels, hostels,
(d) Both S₁ and S2, are true
houses and boarding houses 4
Ans : (c)
Office rooms in hotels, hostels,
Plywood
houses and boarding houses 2.5
• Wood is a hygroscopic material and has ability
Toilets and bath rooms 2 to exchange its moisture content with air. Many
Corridors, passages and staircases, mechanical properties are affected by changes
including fire escapes 1.5 in moisture content.
• The exchange of moisture depends upon the
relative humidity and temperature of air and on
Q.45. Select the air pollutant that does NOT
the amount of water present in the wood. This
belong to the category of secondary air
relation has great influence on the properties
pollutants.
and quality of manufactured plywood.
(a) PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrate)
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
(b) Halogens recommends a moisture content of 5%-15% by
(c) Photochemical smog weight for plywood. Moisture content above or
(d) Ozone below this range can have adverse effects on the
Ans : (b) manufactured products and the environment.
Secondary air pollutants are produce by the
interaction among two or more primary
• The plywood boards are prepared from thin
layers of wood or veneers. So Plywood is
specified by the number of layers,
• The three or more veneers in odd numbers are
placed one above the other with the direction of
grains of successive layers at right angles to each
other.
• They are held in position by application of
suitable adhesives. The placing of veneers
normal to each other increases the longitudinal
and transverse strengths of plywood.
• The tensile strength and compressive strength
along(parallel) the grain shall be greater than
that across(normal) the grain.
Q.47. Identify the correct statements from the
following based on IS specifications (IS:1130
1969) regarding the marble slabs and blocks
supplied.
1. Marble slabs shall be supplied with a
minimum thickness of 20 mm.
2. Marble blocks shall be supplied with a
Q.48. Study the given statements (S1, S2) about
centrifugal pumps and select the most
appropriate option with respect to the
correctness of the statements.
S₁ : The operation of pumps connected in series
(more than one impeller in the same shaft)
increase the flow rate.
S2 : The operation pumps connected in parallel
allow the head to increase.
(a) S₁ is false and S₂ is true
(b) S₁ is true and S₂ is false
(c) Both S₁ and S₂ are false
(d) Both S₁ and S₂ are true
Ans : (c)
Pumps operating in series
When two pumps are connected in series at the
same flow rate the series pump yield high heads
as compared to the individual heads produce by
each pump.
Hnet = h1 + h2 + h3+......+ hn
Qnet = Q1 = Q2 = Q3 = Qn
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maximum thickness of 100 cm.

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3. Marble blocks shall be supplied with a

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minimum length of 100 cm.

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(a) Only 1 and 3 (c) Only 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (b)
As per the IS specifications (IS: 11301969)
regarding the marble slabs and blocks
The marble blocks shall be supplied in the sizes
given below:
Length - 30(min) to 250 cm(max) (in stages of 10
cm)
Width 30(min) to 100 cm(max) (in stages of 10
cm)
Thickness - 30(min) to 100 cm(max) (in stages of
10 cm) Pumps operating in parallel
The marble slabs shall be supplied in the sizes In parallel, two pumps can simultaneously
given below: discharge a greater amount of water than the
Length 70(min) to 250 cm(max) (in stages of 10 individual one.
cm) Hence boost the discharge, if two pumps are
Width - 30(min) to 100 cm (max) (in stages of 10 connected in parallel.
cm) h = h 1 h2 = h 3 = h n
Thickness-20(min) to 150 cm (max) (in stages of Qnet Q1+ Q2 + Q3+..... + Qn
10 cm)

Q.49. Identify the correctly matched pair(s) from
the following based on the unit of measurement
used for the estimation of different items of
work.
1. Stone slab in roof: square metres
2. Cutting of trees: tonnes
3. Lime concrete in foundation: cubic metres
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3
Volume of fresh concrete = 1 m3
Mix proportion = 1 : 2 : 4
We know, 1 m³ of freshly mixed concrete = 1.54
m³ dry volume of concrete
𝟏×𝟏⋅𝟓𝟒
(a) Volume of cement = = 0.22m3
𝟕
1 m³ of cement = 1500 kg by weight
0.22 m³ of cement = 1500 × 0.22 = 330 kg
𝟐
(b) Volume of fine aggregate = 𝟕 × 𝟏 ⋅ 𝟓𝟒
=0.44 m3of fine aggregate
c) Volume of coarse aggregate
𝟒
= 𝟕 × 𝟏 ⋅ 𝟓𝟒 = 0.88 m3 of coarse aggregate
Q.51. 51. A residential building fetches a
monthly gross rent of Rs. 12,000. The annual
out- goings in the form of taxes and other
contingencies is Rs. 12,000. The cost of land
comes to Rs. 6,00,000. Estimate the total value
of property (in Rs.) on a yearly basis. Assume the
rate of interest as 6% per annum.
(a) 22,00,380 (b) 29,88,000
(c) 7,32,550 (d) 28,00,440
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(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2 and 3

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Ans : (b) Ans : (d)

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Given that,
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Stone slab in Square meter monthly rent = 12000

C

roof Yearly or annual gross rent (Ag) = 12 × 12000

Cutting of tree Number = 144000
Lime concrete Cubic meter Annual outgoing (O) = 12000
in foundation Land cost = 600, 000,
Pointing m2 Rate of interest = 6%.
Cornice Running length or meter We know, then,
Q.50. Determine the volume of coarse aggregate Net income = gross rent – outgoing Net income
(in m³ units), volume of fine aggregate (in m³ = 144000 – 12000
units) and cement (in kg units), respectively, for
= 132000 Rs.
preparing 1 m³ of 1:2:4 (by volume) of concrete.
(Assume 1 m³ of freshly mixed concrete Then, value of property =
corresponds to 1.54 m³ dry volume of concrete. Capital value + Land cost
Take 1 m³ of cement is equal to 1500 kg by Capital value = Net income × year's purchase
weight.) 𝟏𝟎𝟎
[𝒚𝒑 = 𝑹𝒂𝒕ⅇ 𝒐𝒇 𝑰𝒏𝒕ⅇ𝒓ⅇ𝒔]
(a) 0.96 m³; 0.48 m³; 247.5 kg
𝟏𝟎𝟎
(b) 1.32 m³; 0.61 m³; 412.5 kg Capital value = 𝟏𝟑𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 × 𝟔
(c) 0.44 m³; 0.22 m³; 165 kg = 2200 000 Rs.
(d) 0.88 m³; 0.44 m³; 330 kg Value of property = 2200, 000 + 600,000
Ans : (d) = 2800,000 Rs. ≃ 2800,440 Rs.
Q.52. Match the items under List I (Type of
canals) with those under List II (Details
pertaining to different types of canals).

List I List II
P. Ridge Canal 1. Aligned roughly at right
angles to the contour of
area, neither on a watershed
nor valley, does not
intercept any cross-
drainage.
Q. Contour canal 2. Draw supplies from a river
when there is high stage in
river, not provided with
head works for diversion of
river water to canal.
 Side slope canal is constructed at right
R. Side slope canal 3. Aligned along a angles to the contours & does not intercept
watershed, can com- mand
areas on both banks of any cross drainage.
canal.
S. Inundation canal 4. Aligned nearly parallel to
the contours of the area,
irrigation possible on one
side of the canal only.
(a) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
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(b) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

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(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1

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(d) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

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Ans : (b)
 Inundation Canal draw supplies from a river
Solu – Ridge canal aligned along a watershed,
when there is a high stage in the river, not
can command areas on both banks of the canal.
provided with headworks for the diversion
of river water to the canal.
Q.53. It is found that the weight of liquid is 15N
which measures 6 litres. Calculate its specific
weight.
(a) 2500 N/m³ (b) 4000 N/m³
(c) 3200 N/m³ (d) 1500 N/m³
Ans : (a)
Given that,
Weight of liquid (w) = 15 N Volume
(V) = 6 lit = 6 × 10–3 m3
We know,
𝑾ⅇ𝒊𝒈𝒉𝒕 𝒐𝒇 𝒍𝒊𝒒𝒖𝒊𝒅
Specific weight = 𝑽𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒎ⅇ
 Contour canal aligned nearly parallel to the 𝟏𝟓
contours of the area, irrigation possible on Specific weight = 𝟔× 𝟏𝟎−𝟑
one side of the canal only. = 2500 N/m3
Q.54. A solution of resin or resinous substance
dissolved in alcohol, turpentine or spirit is called
(a) aluminium paint (b) distemper 3. Penetration Test
(c) varnish (d) resin paint
Ans : (c)
Varnish
Varnish is a solution of resin or resinous sub
stance dissolved in alcohol, turpentine or spirit.
It is used to protect & improve the appearance
of wood, metal & other surfaces.
Aluminium paint: It has shining & visible in dark. 4. Ductility test
It is corrosion & weather resistance, water proof
etc. It is used for wood & metal work.
Distempers
Distempers are the cheaper variety of paints in
which chalk is used as base & water as carrier &
glue as emulsifying agent. Available in powder
or paste form. (a) Only 1, 2 and 4 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4
 They are most suitable for plastered surfaces (c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of 1, 2, 3 and 4
as well as white washed surface of interior Ans : (d)
walls.
 Distempers are workable & easy in 1. Viscosity test It is a measure of resistance to
application but less durable flow. It is conducted to check consistency and
flow resistance of bitumen. Viscosity of a cut
 This is used as interior paint for homes.
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back can be measured with either 4 mm orifice

 It is not used for surfaces exposed to
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at 25oC or 10 mm orifice at 25 to 40oC. Measured

weather.
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by efflux viscometer. Fural viscosity is standard

 Distempers are washed away when used in
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test.
exposed surfaces.
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Q.55. Identify the correct pairs from the

following with respect to the tests used to find
the desirable properties of bitumen.
1. Viscosity Test

2. Softening point test Ring and ball apparatus

are used to fine softening point. It is the
temperature at which the bitumen attains a
2. Softening Point Test
particular degree of softening. Diameter of steel
ball is 0.95 cm, constantly 5-6oC temperature is
increased per minute. It is conducted at 35 to
70oC

3. Penetration test Penetration test on bitumen
is used for determining its grade. Needle is
allowed to penetrate for 5 second. Penetration
test is conducted at 25oC
4. Ductility test Ductility is defined as the
distance in cm, to which a standard sample or
iG
briquette of the material will be elongated
without breaking. Rate of pull is 50 mm per min.
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Q.56. In saturated soils, the initial consolidation
is mainly due to
(a) Expulsion of air in voids
(b) Compression of solid particles
(c) Compression of air in voids
(d) Compression of water molecules
Ans : (b)
The following table shows the consolidation of
soil deposit in three stages
Stage Characteristics
• When a load is applied to partially
saturated soil, there is a decrease in the
volume of soil due to expulsion and
compression of the air voids.
• Also, a small decrease in the volume of
Initial soil occurs due to compression of solid
Consolidation particles..
• The reduction in the volume of soil just
after the application of load is called initial
consolidation.
• For saturated soils, the initial
consolidation is mainly due to the
compression of solid particles.
• Reduction of the volume is due to the
expulsion of water from voids
• The decrease in volume in this stage
depends on the permeability of the soil,
hence it is a time-dependent process.
• In fine-grained soil primary
consolidation occurs for a long time. But
Primary in coarse-grained soil it occurs quickly due
Consolidation to high permeability
• The reduction in volume continues at a
very slow rate even after the primary
consolidation is completed, this
Secondary additional reduction in the volume of soil
Consolidation is called secondary consolidation.
Q.57. Identify the Dicken's formula used for the
estimation of the peak rate of runoff QP (in
cumec units), during a flood from a catchment
area of A (in km² units). (CD - Dicken's constant.)
(a) QP = CD A2/3 (b) QP = CD A3/4
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(c) QP = CD A1/2 (d) QP = CD A3/5
Ans : (b)
1. Dicken's formula: - This formula is applicable
in North India
2. Ryve's formula: - Applicable in South India
3. Ingli's formula : - Applicable in Maharashtra
Region
Nawab Jung Bahadur's formula : - Applicable in
North & South India
Q.58. A crop having a base period of 120 days
requires the following depth of water
application in the planting stage, vegetation
stage, flowering stage, and maturity stage as 20
cm, 32 cm, 25 cm and 13 cm, respectively.
Estimate the duty of irrigation water in ha/
cumec units.
(a) 848 (b) 648 (c) 1152 (d) 1346
Ans : (c) • The function of the addition of filler in
Given that, paint is that it improves the properties of the
Base period (B) = 120 days paint and mainly reduces the cost. The main
Depth of water () purpose is to increase pigment volume
= 20 cm + 32 cm + 25 cm + 13 cm = 90cm concentration.
= 0.90 m • Example:- Gypsum, Calcium carbonate,
We know, Aluminium silicate, Magnesium silicate, Talc,
𝟖⋅𝟔𝟒𝑩
Duty (D) = hect /cumec Diatomite, etc
𝜟
𝟖⋅𝟔𝟒 ×𝟏𝟐𝟎 4. Thinners or solvents:
= • It is a volatile solvent, which is often added
𝟎.𝟗𝟎
D = 1152 hac/cumec to paint which helps to adjust the
consistency of the paint.
Q.59. Which of the following is a vehicle used in • Solvents of oil paints are used to thin the
making paint? paints and increase the spread.
(a) Linseed oil (b) Aluminium powder
• Example:- Turpentine, White spirit,
(c) Antimony white (d) Zinc white
Naptha, Benzine, Petroleum, etc
Ans : (a)
5. Drier:
Constituents of paint:
• The main function of a drier is to increase
1. Base:
the drying power of the vehicle. They act as
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• It is a metallic oxide which is the principal

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oxygen-carrying catalysts.
iG

constituent of a paint. It makes the paint film

• Example:- Litharge, Red lead, Sulphate of
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opaque & processes binding properties

manganese, etc
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which reduce the shrinkage cracks in the film

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6. Plasticizer: They remain permanently in

on drying.
paints and varnishes. They improve the
• Example:- White lead, Red lead, Zinc oxide,
elasticity of the paint film which prevents
Iron oxide, etc
cracking of the film.
2. Vehicle or drying oils:
• The vehicle is the liquid substance that Q.60. A simple circular curve of radius 600 m is
to be set out on field. Calculate the value of
holds the ingredients of paint in liquid versed sine for the curve if the deflection angle
suspension. = 120°
They are required mainly for two reasons: (a) 120 m (b) 300 m
• To make it possible to spread the paint (c) 453.33 m (d) 333.33 m
evenly and uniformly on the surface in the Ans : (b)
form of a thin layer. Given that,
• To provide a binder for the ingredients of Simple circular curve, Radius (R) = 600 m
paint so that they may stick or adhere to the Deflection angle () = 120o
surface We know that, Value of versed sine of a curve
𝜟
• Example:- Linseed oil, Tung oil, Poppy oil, O0 = 𝑹 [𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔 𝟐]
Nut oil, etc = 𝟐𝟎𝟎 [𝟏 − 𝒄𝒐𝒔
𝟏𝟐𝟎
]
𝟐
3. Extenders or fillers:
O0 = 300 m

Q.61. Which of the following stones is classified
as igneous rock?
(a) Syenite (b) Marble
(c) Limestone (d) Kankar
Ans : (a)
Syenite is a type of igneous rock formed from
the cooling of magma with high potassium
content.
Geological classification -
Sedimentary rock - formed by weathering action
of existing rock. Ex. Sand-stone, Lime-stone,
iG
Shales, Gravel, Lignite.
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Igneous Rock - formed by cooling & solidification
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of magma & lava. Ex. Trap, Dolerite, Rhyolite,
Syenite, Pegmatite, Diorite, Basalt,
Meta-morphic Rock - Igneous & Sedimentary
rocks are undergone considerable change with
high pressure & temperature. Ex- Marble (made
from lime - stone), Quartzite (made from sand-
stone), Static.
Q.62. Study the following pairs (P, Q, R, S) with
respect to GPS receivers used in GPS surveys and
select the correct answer based on the
matching.
P: GPS receivers : L-band radio processor
Q: Self-contained GPS receivers : Also known as
'GPS mice'
R: Dual-frequency receivers: Survey grade GPS,
position accuracy according to differential
correction with sub-centimeter
S: Carrier phase receivers: GPS receivers with 10
to 30 cm position accuracy with differential
correction
(a) Q, R only (c) P, R, S only
(b) P, Q only (d) P, S only
Ans : (c)
GPS Receivers - A GPS receiver is an L-band radio
processor. It processes the signal broadcast by
GPS satellites, solves the equations for
navigation so that user can easily compute their
position, precise time & velocity.
Types of GPS Receivers
1. On the basis of features
2. On the basis of level of accuracy
Types of GPS Receivers on the basis of features-
• Not-self-contained receivers: also known as
'GPS mice. These are without screen and are
need to be connected to a computer for the
purpose of visualization of real position of GPS
receiver Bluetooth (wireless) can be the link of
connection between the GPS and computer. This
type is best used in car- navigation systems.
• Self contained: Self contained receivers have a
screen and is integrated with the computer
itself. Sometimes, additional features e.g.
electronic compass, barometer etc. are found in
this type. It is primarily used in boating and
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aviation.
• Sophisticated receivers: are meant for
professional use. e.g. in the field of mapping &
GIS. transportation safety, crop & agriculture
etc. Though the working principle remains the
same as others, the only important difference is
its storage capacity and higher accuracy, which
helps to store a larger amount of data that can
be treated later in the office.
Types of GPS Receivers on the basis of different
levels of accuracy-
• C/A Code receivers: These receivers have the
accuracy of 1 to 5 m related to position and
differential correction so that getting an
occupation time of 5 seconds. The recent
advancement in the GPS receiver design now
enables it to provide sub-meter accuracy down
to 30 cm.
• Carrier Phase receivers: These receivers
provide 10-30 cm GPS position accuracy with
differential correction. The distance from the
receiver to the satellite is measured by
determining the total number of waves which
supports the C/A code signal, which is more
accurate and takes about 5 minutes of the
occupation time
• Dual-Frequency receivers: provide GPS Total dissolved
solids (mg/L) 500 2000
position accuracy according to differential
Alkalinity (mg/L
correction within sub centimeter & accuracy as CaCO3) 200 600
according to survey grade. These receivers are
pH 7-8.5 < 6.5 & > 9.2
presented with the signals from satellites on the
Hardness (mg/L
basis of two frequencies at the same time. The as CaCO3) 200 600
use of two frequencies will help in omission of Chloride
atmospheric and other errors and thus content (mg/L) 250 1000
improving the accuracy. Free ammonia
(mg/L) 0.15 0.15
Q.63. The actual length of a prismatic
Nitrite (mg/L) 0 0
compression member is found to be 3 m.
Calculate its effective length if one of its ends is Nitrate (mg/L) 45 No Relaxation
restrained against both translation and rotation Fluoride content
(mg/L) 1 1.5
and the other end is restrained against rotation
Iron as Fe
but free to translate. (mg/L) 1(Old=0.3) No Relaxation
(a) 2.8 m (b) 3.6 m Sulphate (mg/L) 200 400
(c) 6 m (d) 3.2 m
Calcium (mg/L) 75 200
Ans : (b) Free residual
Chlorine (mg/L) 0.2 1
Given,
Total Arsenic as NO Relaxation
Length = 3 m, As (mg/L) 0.01 (Old=0.05)
Effective length = ? Uranium, mg/l 0.03 No relaxation
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Given case effective held in position and

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Q.65. Calculate the annual depreciation of a

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restrained against rotation at one end and at property, whose original cost is Rs. 30,00,000.
other end restrained against rotation but not
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Consider its scrape value as Rs. 3,00,000 after 30

held in position. years. Use the straight-line method.
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Effective Length (l) = 1.2 L = 1.2 × 3 (a) Rs. 90,000 (b) Rs. 87,000
Effective Length (l) = 3.6 m (c) Rs. 82,000 (d) Rs. 93,000
Q.64. Match the following with respect to IS Ans : (a)
specifications on drinking water quality as per IS Given,
10500-2012.
Original cost = 30,00,000
CHARACTERISTICS ACCEPTABLE LIMIT
Scrape value = 3,00000,
1. Calcium a. 250 mg/1
Life in year = 30 years
2. Chloride b. 75 mg/1
Annual depreciation = ?
3. Fluoride c. 0.2 mg/1
4. Free residual chlorine d.1.0 mg/1
Solving,
𝑶𝒓𝒊𝒈𝒊𝒏𝒂𝒍 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝒕− 𝑺𝒄𝒓𝒂𝒑ⅇ 𝒗𝒂𝒍𝒖ⅇ
(a) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c Annual depreciation = 𝑳𝒊𝒇ⅇ 𝒊𝒏 𝒚ⅇ𝒂𝒓
(c) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c =
𝟑𝟎 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎− 𝟑 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟎
Ans : (b)
Permissible Limit in
Annual depreciation = 90,000
Acceptable Absence of Alternate Q.66. In case of volume batching followed for
Parameter Limit Source
the manufacture of cement concrete, generally,
Total suspended
solids (mg/L) 500 2000 the volume of one bag of cement is considered
as
Turbidity (NTU) 1 10
(a) 50 litres (b) 25 litres
Colour (TCU) 5 25
Taste & Odour
(c) 35 litres (d) 42 litres
(TON) 1 3 Ans : (c)
Cement has approximately 40% voids.
Standard density = 1440 kg/m³
Weight of 1 bag of cement = 50 kg
𝟓𝟎
Volume = 𝟏𝟒𝟒𝟎 = 0.0347 m3 = 34.7 litre
Q.67. In plane table surveying, Lehmann's rule
are associated with:
(a) Solution of all type of resection problems
(b) Method of resection after orientation by
compass
(c) Method of resection by two-point problem
(d) Method of resection by three-point problem
Ans : (d)
Lehmann's method
 Locating the position of a plane table station
with reference to three point known as three
point problem.
 The trial and error method of three point
problem also known as Lehman's method.
 The accuracy with which a plane table station
can be located through three-point problem is
iG
known as its fix.
il K
 In plane tabling failure of fix occurs when the
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plane table is on the great circle.
Q.68. French polish is a type of ————, which
is used to hide the grain defects on hard-wood
substances.
(a) Flat varnish (b) Water varnish
(c) Spirit Varnish (d)Asphalt varnish
Ans : (c)
Varnish: Varnish is nearly homogenous solution
of resins in oil, alcohol or turpentine. Type of
solvent used depends upon the type of resin
used.
French Polish: It is a type of spirit varnish
prepared by dissolving resin in Methylate spirit
at room temperature for use on hardwood
substance to hide the grain defects. The surface
is made smooth by rubbing.
Wax Polish: It consists of bees wax dissolved in
turpentine and is used for highlighting the grain
over wooden surfaces. The polish is rubbed over
the surface with rag until a bright appearance is
obtained.
Varnishes are classified as follows-
1.Oil Varnish - uses linseed oil and takes 24
hours to dry. It is suitable both for interior and
external works.
2. Spar Varnish - Derives its name from its use on
spars and other parts of ships. It gives sticky
effect in warm weather and is not used indoors.
3. Flat Varnish - Materials such as wax, metallic
soap or finally divided silica when added to
varnish produce a dull appearance on drying
known as flat varnish.
4. Spirit varnish - it is resin dissolved in spirit.
The examples are French polish, lacquer and
shellac varnish. It dries very quickly.
5. Asphalt varnish-it is made by dissolving
melted had asphalt in linseed oil with a thinner
such as turpentine or petroleum spirit. It is used
over shop fabricated steel works.
Q.69. Study the given statements (S1, and S2)
pertaining to the permeability of soils and select
the most appropriate option with respect to the
correctness of the statements.
S₁: Coefficient of permeability of a soil is directly
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proportional to the square of the particle size.
S₂: Permeability of a partially saturated soil is
greater than that of a fully saturated soil.
(a) S₁ is true and S₂, is false
(b) S₁ is false and S₂, is true
(c) Both S₁ and S₂ are true
(d) Both S₁ and S₂ are false
Ans : (a)
Allen Hazen Equation:
K = CD2 10
where,
k = coefficient of permeability in cm/s,
C = constant (100 to 150),
D10= effective size in cm.
This equation gives an empirical value of
permeability.
• From the equation it is clear that coefficient of
permeability of a soil is directly proportional to
the square of the particle size.
The permeability of a soil refers to its ability to
transmit water or other fluids through its pores.
Permeability is influenced by factors such as
particle size, shape, and the arrangement of soil
particles.
• In a fully saturated soil, every pore is filled with
water, allowing water to flow continuously and
unhindered through the interconnected
network of voids. This results in higher
permeability.
• On the other hand, in a partially saturated soil,
the pore spaces are filled with both air and
water. Water, being a polar molecule, tends to
adhere to soil particles, making it harder to flow
through the mixture of air and soil. Air, being
non-polar and having lower viscosity, doesn't
transmit water as effectively as a fully liquid
medium would.
• Moreover, the entry and flow of water in a
partially saturated soil involve displacement of
air, a process that requires more energy due to
surface tension forces. This added resistance
makes the flow of water more difficult, reducing
the overall soil permeability.
Q.70. Match the items under List 1 (Members
used for) with those under List 2 (Name of
member).
Strut: Compression member resisting
compressive forces, often used in bracing
systems. Struts are commonly used in structures
like trusses, frames & walls.
Q.71. If the amount of annuity begins at some
future date after a number of years, it is known
as
(a) Annuity certain (b) Annuity due
(c) Deferred annuity (d) Perpetual annuity
Ans : (c)
Annuity: The annual payments (paid in months
or year) paid for capital amount invested party.
(a) Annuity Due: The amount paid at the
beginning of each period or year for definite
number of intervals.
(b) Perceptual Annuity: The payments of the
annuity continue for indefinite period (no end)
(c) Deferred Annuity: The payments of the
annuity begined after some years
Note:- When payment of a debt is made by a
series of equal periodic payments. It is known as
i

Almortization.
ol
iG

List 1 List 2 Q.72. Match the items under List 1 (Components

il K

P. Member supporting roof 1. Tie of turn out in a railway track) with those under
in a building
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List 2 (Details of components).

C

Q. Tension member in a 2. Boom

roof truss
List 1 List 2
R. Compression member in 3. Strut P. Stock rail 1. Tapered movable rail,
a roof truss at its thicker end it is
S. Compression member in 4. Joist attached to a running
a crane rail. Also known as
switch rail.
(a) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (b) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Q. Crossing 2. Pair of tongue and
(c) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (d) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 stock rails with
Ans : (a) necessary connections
and fittings
Tie: Resists tension forces, prevents separation.
R. Tongue rail 3. Device introduced at
Ties are commonly used in structures such as
the junction where two
trusses, bridges & cranes. rails cross each other to
Boom: Boom is a horizontal member which permit the wheel flange
primarily resists bending moments. It of a railway vehicle to
experiences both tension & compression forces pass from one track to
along it's length. Booms are often found in another.
structures like cranes, where they pro- vide S. Switch 4. Running rail against
horizontal reach for lifting loads. which a tongue rail
Joist: Horizontal member supporting floors or operates
ceilings in buildings. They are often made of (a) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
wood, steel, or concrete. (c) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Ans : (c)
Turnout- Ans : (d)
• A turnout is provided on a railway track to Name of item Measurement
provide facilities for turning of vehicles from one unit
track to another. Expansion joint Running meter
• It consists of a pair of points (switches), four
lead rails, two check rails, and a crossing. Flooring work Square meter
• Turnout enables either a branch line or sliding
to take off from another track Damp proof course Square meter
Cement concrete Cubic meter

Half brick wall Square meter

Well sinking, pile driving, Dag- Meters

belling, Grouting of cracks or
joints, Supply of pipes, Skirting,
cornice
Plastering, pointing, Dado, Square meters
White Washing, distempering,
Stock rail - The running rail against which the painting, polishing, coal tarring,
tongue rail operates is called the Stock rail. removing of paint
Crossing Tile roof, slate roofing, timber Square meters
roofing, Ceiling, centering and
A crossing is an arrangement provided at the
i
ol

shuttering, Damp proof course,

junction/intersection where the two rails cross
iG

Turfing or lining of canal,

each other.
il K

surface dressing or leveling, jail

The objective of providing crossing is to allow work or Jafri work, Woodwork
iv

indoors and shutters, sawing of

C

the passing of the wheel flange of the vehicle

from one track to another. timber, woodwork in partition
and plywood.
The different types of crossings are:
Boring holes in iron, painting Numbers
1. Square crossing letters, and figures, ornamental
2. Acute angle or V-crossing or Frog pillar caps, cleaning flues,
3. Obtuse angle or Diamond crossing cotton cords in skylight, Easing
doors and windows, Fixing
Tongue rail doors and windows
It is a tapered movable rail that is composed of Earthwork in excavation, Cubic meters
high carbon or high manganese steel. puddling, Quarrying of stones,
• it is attached to a running rail at the thicker concreting, brickwork in the
end. foundation, stone masonry
• A tongue rail is also called a switch rail. Rolled steel joists, steel Quintals
reinforcement bars, binding of
Points or switch steel reinforcement, fabrication
A pair of tongue and stock rails alongside the and hoisting of steelwork
connections and fittings are called Points or
Switches.
Q.74. Which of the following is NOT the effect of
Q.73. The unit of measurement used for noise?
estimating the quantity of expansion joint is (a) Fluorosis (b) High blood pressure
(a) cubic metres (b) square metres (c) Hearing loss (d) Sleeplessness
(c) quintal (d) running metre Ans : (a)
 High blood pressure, hearing loss & sleep-
lessness are effects of noise exposure.
 Fluorosis is not an effect of noise; it is a
health disorder caused by the excessive
intake of fluoride.
Q.75. Textural classification of soil is based on:
(a) Grain size and consistency limits
(b) Consistency limits only
(c) Grain size only
(d) Plasticity index
Ans : (c)
Textural classification of soil is based on grain
size only.
• This refers to the Unified Soil Classification
System (USCS), where soil is classified based on
the percentage of particles in different size
ranges (gravel, sand, silt, and clay).
• This system primarily focuses on grain size
distribution for classification.
iG
il K
iv
C
Q.76. Identify the behaviour study of soils in
which the zero air void unit weight is found.
(a) Compaction test (b) Shear strength test
(c) Permeability test (d) Consolidation test
Ans : (a)
Zero-air voids line: It means the soil is fully
saturated, with the air not present in the pores
of the soil mass. It is obtained from the
compaction test. The zero-air void line was
drawn with the results, obtained from the
compaction test as shown below.
Q.77. Select the INCORRECT statement
pertaining to the lining of an irrigation canal.
(a) Lining helps to provide a flatter hydraulic
gradient to canal, and better command area.
(b) Lining minimalizes the seepage loss in the
canal, more area can be irrigated.
(c) Lining increases the discharge in the canal
section by increasing the velocity.
(d) Due to lining the resistance to flow increases
and the velocity of flow decreases.
Ans : (d)
Canal lining : It is process of covering or lining
the earthen surfaces of a canal with stable, non-
erodible lining surface such as concrete, tiles,
asphalt etc.
Some of the key advantages of lining a canal are
the following
 To minimise the seepage losses in canal.
 To increase the discharge in canal section by
increasing the velocity.
 To prevent erosion of bed and side due to high
i
ol
velocity.
 To retard the growth of weeds.
 To reduce maintenance of canal.
 The increased velocity minimises the losses
due to evaporation.
Q.78. The minimum length of a tongue rail in
case of a broad-gauge railway track is…………….
(a) 4.34 m (b) 3.44 m
(c) 3.66 m (d) 4.22 m
Ans : (c)
As per Indian standards, the minimum length of
a tongue rail for a broad-gauge railway track is
3660 mm. It ensures smooth entry to the switch
while maintaining safety & preventing
derailment.
 A tongue rail is tapered having toe at one
end & heel at the other end.
Q.79. The ratio of Young's modulus of elasticity
of two materials (E1 to E2) is 2.5. Find the ratio of
the elongations in the two bars (𝛅𝐥𝟏 𝐭𝐨 𝛅𝐥𝟐 ) of
these materials if they are of the same length
and same area and subjected to the same force
P.
(a) 1 (b) 2.5
(c) 2 (d) 0.4
Ans : (d)
Given,
𝑬
Young's modulus of elasticity ratio = 𝑬𝟏 = 2.5
𝟐

E1 = 2.5 E2
Area is same , A1 = A 2
Load is same , P1 = P2
We know that ,
𝑷𝑳
𝜟𝒍 = 𝑨𝑬
So, Q.81. Consider the following statements with
𝑷𝟏 𝑳𝟏 respect to proportioning of flanges in a plate
𝑨𝟏 𝑬𝟏
𝜟𝒍𝟏 𝑷𝟐 𝑳𝟐 girder and identify the correct option.
=
𝜟𝒍𝟐 𝑨 𝟐 𝑳𝟐 Statement A: When the moment-resisting
𝜟𝒍𝟏 𝑬𝟐 𝑬𝟐 capacity of a plate girder is to be increased, the
= =
𝜟𝒍𝟐 𝑬𝟏 𝟐⋅𝟓𝑬𝟐 flange cover plates may be provided over the
𝜟𝒍𝟏 flange angles.
= 0.4
𝜟𝒍𝟐
Statement B: The flange plates shall be thicker
than the flange angles in a riveted/bolted plate
Q.80. Calculate the Reynolds number if the girder.
kinematic viscosity of water is 0.01 × 10-4 m²/s,
i
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which is flowing through a pipe of diameter 200

(a) Statement A is correct, but statement B is
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mm with the velocity of 5 m/ s.

incorrect.
il K

(a) 1 × 106 (b) 2.2 × 106

(b) Both the statements are correct.
iv

(c) 1.6 × 106 (d) 0.5 × 106

C

(c) Both the statements are incorrect.

Ans : (a)
(d) Statement B is correct, but statement A is
Given, incorrect.
Kinematic viscosity () = 0.01 × 10–4 m2/s Ans : (a)
Diameter of pipe (D) = 200 mm.
Plate girder are typically used as long-span floor
Velocity (V) = 5 m/s girders in buildings, as bridge girders, and as
Reynolds number (Re) = ? crane girders in industrial structures.
𝑽𝑫 • Plate girders are at their most impressive in
𝑹ⅇ =
𝝂 modern bridge construction where main spans
𝟓×(𝟎.𝟐)
= of well over zoom are feasible, with
𝟎.𝟎𝟏×𝟏𝟎−𝟒 corresponding cross-section depths, launched
= 1× 10 6 over the supports, in the range of 5-10 m.
• When moment resisting capacity of the plate
girder has to be increased, flange cover plates
are provided over flange angles. The moment of
inertia and consequently the moment resisting
capacity of the girder is increased considerably
as the flange cover plates are at the greatest
distance from neutral axis.
• The flange cover plates should not be thicker
than the flange angles in riveted/bolted
connections. Hence, if necessary more than one
plate may be required. It is preferred that all Q. There is no rainfall during the time interval
cover plates should have same or less thickness (30 to 45).
than flange angle. (a) Neither P nor Q (b) P only
(c) Both P and Q (d) Q only
Ans : (c)
Given,
Time from start of rainfall Cumulative rainfall
(minutes) (mm)
0 0
15 6
Q.82. An overhanging beam CADEBF is shown in
the figure below. Calculate the sum of the 30 15
bending moment values at A and B. Ignore the 45 15
sign conventions.
60 30
75 35
90 45

(a) 16.78 kN-m (b) 13.50 kN-m The intensity of rainfall during the time interval
(c) 10.00 kN-m (d) 12.50 kN-m (0 to 15 is more than the intensity of rainfall
during the time interval 60 to 75. )
Ans : (b)
(i) Intensity of rainfall during to 0 to 15 minutes
Concept: 𝟔𝒎𝒎
× 𝟔𝟎
i

=
ol

It is the algebraic sum of moments acting on 𝟏𝟓

iG

either side of a section along the length of the = 24mm /s

il K

beam. (ii) Intensity of rainfall during 60 to 75 minutes

iv

Calculation: 𝟓𝒎𝒎
C

= × 𝟔𝟎 = 20mm/ s
The bending moment at A (from left) 𝟏𝟓
𝟏⋅𝟓 Note- (ii) < (i)
= 9 x 1.5 x = 10.125 kN-m
𝟐 These in no rainfall during the time interval 30
The bending moment at B (from right) to 45 minutes.
𝟏⋅𝟓
= 3×1.5× = 3.375 kN-m Intensity of rainfall during 30 to 45 minutes
𝟐
𝒐
Thus sum of moments = 10.125 +3.375 × 𝟔𝟎 = 0
𝟏𝟓
= 13.50 kN-m Q.84. Identify the defect in timber, which is NOT
Q.83. The following statements (P, Q) are caused by seasoning of timber.
derived on the basis of precipitation values from (a) Checks (b) Rindgall
the mass curve of rainfall of a self- recording rain
(c) Warpage (d) Splitting
gauge, given in the table. Identify the correct
statement(s) and select the most appropriate Ans : (b)
option. S. Defect due to Types
NO
Time from 0 15 30 45 60 75 90
start of rainfall Conversion Chip mark
(minutes) 1. Diagonal grain
Cumulative 0 6 15 15 30 35 45 Tom grain
rainfall (mm)
Wane
P. The intensity of rainfall during the time Insect Marine Boners
interval (0 to 15) is more than the intensity of 2. Beetles
rainfall during the time interval (60 to 75). Termites
 Fungi Blue Rot In the process of precipitation, a part of the
3. Heart Rot atmosphere saturates itself with water vapour
Dry Rot and at the right temperature, it condenses and
Sap stain
precipitates onto the surface of the earth. Air
becomes saturated by the cooling of molecules
Wet Rot
present in the air, and the addition of water
Seasoning Bow vapour to these molecules results in the
4. Check saturation of the air.
Collapse Forms of precipitation
Cup Raindrops - Raindrops or rain is the most
Twist observed kind of precipitation in the
Split atmosphere. Clouds are formed of water
Warp droplets, dirt and dust. When the amount of
Natural Forces Knots water droplets exceeds and the cloud becomes
5. heavy, they fall down onto the surface of earth.
Burb
Raindrops can have a diameter of 6mm. These
Rindgall
water droplets combine each to form a bigger
Twisted fiber water droplet. The droplets freeze onto a crystal
Shaker of ice, this process is known as coalescence.
Q.85. Match the following with respect to types Large drops of water fail to the Earth's surface,
of precipitation. they break up into smaller drops in the form of
List – I List -II rain.
1. Sleet a. It is ice coating Snowflakes - When the temperature freezes the
i
ol

formation when rain or tiny cloud droplets, snow crystals are formed. It
iG

drizzle comes in contact is basically flaky ice crystals that have an average
il K

with cold object on the

density of 0.1g/cc. Water vapours being large in
ground.
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number, force the ice droplets to evaporate, ice

C

2. Glaze b. It is a showery
precipitation in the form
of irregular pelletsor
lumps of ice of size more
than 8 mm.
3. Hail c. They are frozen
raindrops of transparent
grains that are formed
when rain falls through air
at a sub-freezing
temperature.
(a) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b (b) 1-b, 2-a, 3-с
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-а (d) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
Ans : (a)
Solu –
Precipitation is the process of condensation of
atmospheric water either in liquid or frozen
form, which fails back to earth due to
gravitational forces of attraction.
crystals grow at the expense of these droplets.
Sleet - The rain that freezes or partially freezes
when falling from the sky is known as sleet.
Sleet only occurs during winters when air is at
sub freezing temperature.
Hail - Hail is supercooled water, which is refrozen
in the atmosphere, before it falls back to the
ground as a small ball of ice of size more than 8
mm.
Glaze - It is ice coating formation when rain or
drizzle comes in contact with cold object on the
ground.
Q.86. Select the option that is true regarding the
following two statements labelled Assertion (A)
and Reason (R).
(A): For horizontal curves, the centrifugal ratio
increases along the length of the transition
curve.
(R) In a horizontal curve, the superelevation is
provided at an increasing rate with zero at the
start to the maximum value at the end of
transition curve.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is false, but R is true
(d) A is true, but R is false
Ans : (a)
A horizontal curve is a curve in plan to provide
change in direction to the central line of a road.
 When a vehicle traverses a horizontal curve,
the centrifugal force acts horizontally outwards
through the centre of gravity of the vehicle.
 The ratio of the centrifugal force to the weight
of the vehicle, P/W is known as the centrifugal
ratio or the impact factor.
𝒗𝟐
 The centrifugal ratio is thus equal to 𝒈𝑹
 In a horizontal curve, the superelevation is
provided at an increasing rate with zero at the
start to the maximum value at the end of
transition curve.
Q.87. Select the option that is correct regarding
the following two statements, labelled as
iG
Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
il K
Assertion (A): Copper sulphate should be used
iv
C
for control of aquatic weeds, except for the
algae.
Reason (R): The concentration of copper
sulphate required to destroy the vegetation will
assuredly kill any fish present in water.
(a) A is false, but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Ans : (d)
Copper sulphate:
• Copper sulphate is used to control the algae
present in water.
• It is a very powerful oxidizing agent so it is
toxic.
• When it is added to water it can kill bacteria,
algae, plants, fungi, etc.
• The heavy concentration of copper sulphate in
water is killing the vegetation.
• This decay of vegetation creates a scarcity of
dissolved oxygen.
• Thus killing of fish starts over there.
Q.88. Consider the below statements with
respect to surveying and identify the correct
answer.
Statement A: Latitude of a survey line is defined
as its coordinate length measured in the
direction perpendicular to an assumed meridian
direction.
Statement B: The type of levelling in which
levels are taken on each side of a main line at
right angles to that line in or- der to determine a
vertical cross-section of the surface of the
ground is called Differential levelling.
(a) Statement B is correct, and statement A is
incorrect.
(b) Both statements are correct.
(c) Statement A is correct, and statement B is
incorrect.
(d) Both statements are incorrect.
Ans : (d)
i
ol
Traverse computations:- The position of
different points are plotted on a plan with
reference to two lines which are respectively
parallel and perpendicular to the meridian.
Latitude:- The latitude of the line may therefore
defined as the distance measured parallel to the
meridian (north and south line). Departure:-
Departure defined as the distance measured
parallel to the line perpendicular to the
meridian (east and west line).
L = Latitude is the projection on North-South
meridian
D = Departure is the projection on East-West
meridian
𝜽 = Bearing angle
| = Length of the line.
L = l x cos 𝜽
D = l x sin 𝜽
Differential levelling:- Method of direct levelling
the object of which is solely to find out the
difference in elevation of two points regardless A₁=Area of smaller diameter pipe
of the horizontal positions of the points with A₂=Area of bigger diameter pipe
respect of each other, is known as differential V1=Velocity of smaller diameter pipe
levelling.
𝑽𝟐𝟏
Q.89. An offset is laid out 5° from its true hL = K 𝟐𝒈
direction on the field. If the scale of plotting is
20 m to 1 cm, find the maximum length of the
offset so that the displacement of the point on Where K =
the paper may not exceed 0.5 mm.
(a) 5 m (b) 9.22 m (b) Losses due to sudden contraction
(c) 11.47 m (d) 13.33 m
Ans : (c)

(𝑽𝒄 −𝑽𝟐 )𝟐 𝑲𝑽𝟐𝟐 𝟎.𝟓𝑽𝟐𝟐

hL = = =
𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈

𝟏 𝑨
where K = (𝑪 − 𝟏)2, Cc = 𝑨𝒄
i
ol

𝒄 𝒄
iG
il K
iv

Special Points:
C

Q.90. Which of the following minor losses in
𝐕𝟐
pipe flow is taken as 𝟐𝐠 ?
(Consider that 'v' is velocity of the liquid in the
pipe and 'g' is acceleration due to gravity.)
(a) Loss of head at the entrance of the pipe with
a sharp-cornered entrance
(b) Loss of head at the exit of the pipe
(c) Loss of head due to friction
(d) Loss of head due to obstruction in the pipe
Ans : (b)
Minor losses
(a) Due to sudden expansion : -
 Momentum equation and Bernouilli's
equation are uses in derivation of losses
 Loss in expansion is much higher than loss in
contraction
 Losses are always expressed in terms of
velocity of smaller diameter pipe.
(c) Exit loss (due to impact)
𝐊𝐕 𝟐
hL =
𝟐𝐠

Special Point: In exit loss due to impact, K is the

kinetic energy correction factor. For Laminar, its
K = 1 & for Turbulent, its K = 1
hL =
(d) Entry loss  Crushed aggregate passed through 2.36 mm
𝟎.𝟓𝐕 𝟐 sieve & passing material weighs W₂.
hL =
𝟐𝐠

Crushing test set-up

 Crushing value for surface course should be
(e) Loss due to pipe fittings and bends less than 30% & should not exceed 45% for
base course.
𝐊𝐕 𝟐
hL =  A value less than 10 shows strong aggregate
𝟐𝐠
while above 35 shows Weak aggregate.
Type of fitting K  For the Bituminous concrete, a maximum
Standard Tee 1.8 value of 35 is specified.
Standard Elbow 0.9  A maximum value of 40% is allowed for
WBM base course in Indian Conditions.
45° Elbow 0.4
90° Bend T (Sharp) 1.2
Q.92. As per IS456:2000, the deflection,
Gate valve (half open) 5.6 including effects of temperature, creep and
Angle valve 5 shrinkage occurring after erection of partitions
i
ol

and application of finishes of RC structures,

iG

Foot valve of pump 1.5

should not normally exceed -
il K

Q.91. As specified in IS 2386 (Part IV): 1963,

(a) span/250 or 20 mm, whichever is less
iv

which of the following set of sieves are used to

C

find the crushing value of coarse aggregates?
(a) 6.3 mm, 10 mm, 12.5 mm
(b) 10 mm, 12.5 mm, 20 mm
(c) 2.36 mm, 10 mm, 12.5 mm
(d) 2.36 mm, 6.3 mm, 12.5 mm
Ans : (c)
According to IS 2386 (Part IV): 1963, the correct
set of sieves used for this test is 2.36 mm, 10
mm, 12.5 mm.
Crushing test : - It gives strength of Aggregates.
𝐖
Aggregate crushing value = 𝐖𝟐 × 100
𝟏
(b) span/350 or 20 mm, whichever is less
(c) span/200 or 40 mm, whichever is less
(d) span/350 or 40 mm, whichever is less
Ans : (b)
Solu –
Check for Deflection : -
As per Clause 23.2 of IS 456, stipulates the
limiting deflections under two heads as given
below :-
a. The maximum final deflection should not
more than span/250 due to all loads
including the effects of temperature, creep &

 Aggregates passing from 12.5 mm &
retained on 10 mm.
 Then filled in cylinder of 11.5 cm diameter &
18 cm height in 3 layers.
 Each layer tamped 25 times & weighted W₁
 Then sample is subjected to 40 tonnes of
load at the rate of 4 (sometimes 5) tones per
minute.
shrinkage & measured from the cast level of
the supports of floors, roof & all other
horizontal members.
b. The maximum deflection should not more
than the lesser of span/350 or 20 mm
including the effects of temperature, creep &
shrinkage occurring after erection of
partitions & the application of finishes.
Q.93. A hydraulic press has a ram of cross- As per section 6.1: IS 1121-1974 (part IV)
section area 30×30 cm and a plunger of cross • The shear strength of the test piece shall be
section area 4 x 4 cm as shown in figure. Find the calculated as follows
force 'F' required to lift the weight 'W' = 30 kN. 𝒘
𝑺=
𝟐𝑨
Where S is shear strength (kg/cm²)
W is the total maximum load in kg indicated by
the testing machine
A is the area of the center cross-section of the
test piece (cm2). (Ref. sec 6.1; IS 1121 part IV-
1974)
(a) 589.58 N • The durability of the stone shall be expressed
(b) 533.33 N in percentage as a change in the weight of the
(c) 481.22 N specimen. (As per section 5.2, of IS 1126-1974)
(d) 232.88 N Q.95. A hydraulic jump is categorised as an
Ans : (b) oscillating jump when the Froude number of the
incoming flow lies between
(a) 1.7 and 2.5 (b) 0.5 and 1.2
(c) 2.5 and 4.5 (d) 1.2 and 1.7
Ans : (c)
Types of Jump : -
i

It depends on the Froude's number of the

ol
iG

𝒘 𝑭 incoming flow (upstream end).

=
il K

𝑨 𝒂 Water
Fr EL/E1
iv

W = 30 kN surface
C

A = 30 × 30 = 900 cm2 Undular 1-1.7 ≈0 Undulating

a = 4 × 4 = 16 cm2 Weak 1.7-2.5 5–18% Small rollers
form
F=?
Oscillating 2.5-4.5 18–45% Water moving
𝒘×𝒂 𝟑𝟎×𝟏𝟎𝟑 ×𝟏𝟔
𝑭= = = 533.33 N in random
𝑨 𝟗𝟎𝟎
manner
Steady 4.5-9 45–70% Roller & jump
Q.94. Consider the following statements P and
action
Q, based on the testing of natural building
Strong ≥9 ≥70% Very rough &
stones, following the IS codes and select the
correct option. choppy

P. The shear strength of the test piece of natural
building stone tested using Johnson shear tool is
𝐖 point of the fluid is constant. This is called
estimated as, S = 𝟐𝐀 where W is the total
maximum load indicated by testing machine and
A is the centre cross-section area of test piece.
Q. For testing the durability of stone as per IS
1126-1974, the durability value of the stone
shall be expressed in percent-age as change in
the volume of specimen.
Ans : (c)
Q.96. For a steady, ideal flow of an
incompressible fluid, the total energy at any
(a) Bernoulli's equation
(b) The moment of the momentum equation
(c) Euler's equation
(d) The momentum equation
Ans : (a)
Bernoulli's equation states that for an ideal fluid
flowing steadily, the total energy at any point is
constant i.e. the sum of the kinetic energy,
potential energy & pressure energy at any point
in the flow is equal to the sum of these energies
at any other point in the flow.
 Euler's equation is a more general equation
that describes the motion of a fluid.
 The momentum equation relates the forces
acting on a fluid element to its acceleration
Q.97. Calculate the combined correction, due to
At shrinkage limit, (a) S = 1, (b) there are two
refraction and Earth's curvature, in levelling
phases (soil & water), (c) no volume change.
(surveying) for a distance of 2500 m.
(a) 0.070 m (b) 0.420 m
(c) 0.490 m (d) 0.168 m Q.100. Consider the following statements with
respect to effects of air pollutants on human
Ans : (b)
health and identify the INCORRECT statement.
Combined correction = 0.0673 (d)2 (a) Inhalation of carbon monoxide leads to
d = 2.5 km reduction in the amount of oxygen delivered to
Combined correction = 0.0673 × (2.5)2 organs and tissues.
= 0.420 m (b) Sulphur dioxide can cause cancer and
mutations and it is radioactive in nature.
Q.98. In case of slenderness limits, according to
IS 456-2000, the ratio of unsupported length (1) (c) Inhalation of lead can cause mental
to the least lateral dimension (d) of a column retardation and behavioural disorders.
should not exceed a value of……………? (d) Nitrogen dioxide irritates the lungs and can
i
ol

(a) 40 (b) 60 cause bronchitis and pneumonia.

iG

(c) 30 (d) 75 Ans : (b)

il K

Ans : (b) Sulphur dioxide can contribute to respiratory

iv

problems & acid rain, it is not radio- active &

C

Slenderness ratio(𝝀) of column:

It is the ratio of its effective length or
unsupported length to the least lateral
dimension of the column.
The relevant clause from IS 456-2000: 25.3.1,
The unsupported length between end restraints
shall not exceed 60 times the least lateral
dimension of a column.
Q.99. The maximum water content at which re-
duction in the water content will NOT cause a
decrease in the volume of soil mass is known as
…………………….of soil sample
(a) liquid limit (b) liquidity index
(c) shrinkage limit (d) plastic limit
Ans : (c)
It is minimum water content at which soil is
completely saturated or the maximum water
content at which further reduction in water
content does not cause any decreases in the
volume of soil sample
does not directly cause cancer. It can create
reactive oxygen species, which can contribute to
oxidative stress, linked to cancer development.
 Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin more
readily than oxygen, reducing the amount of
oxygen transported throughout the body.
Hence, statement is correct.
 Nitrogen dioxide is a lung irritant that can
contribute to bronchitis, pneumonia & other
respiratory illnesses. Hence, statement is
correct.
 Lead is a neurotoxin, which can damage the
28 brain & nervous system, leading to
mental retardation and behavioral
disorders, specially in children.