Test Paper 2023-2024

Republic of the Philippines
Department of Education
CORDILLERA ADMINISTRATIVE REGION
Schools Division of Abra
LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
3rd Periodical Test in Science 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Direction: Choose the letter that best answers the question or completes the
statement. Write the letter of your answer on your answer sheets.
1. Which of the following refers to the length of the entire path that the object travelled? A. displacement B.
distance C. motion D. speed
2. Myra runs 400 meters North, then turns around and run 400 meters South. What is her displacement? A.
0m B. 800 m C. 400 m D. 400 m/s
3. When is an object considered to be in motion? A. When its position changes with respect to a point of
reference. B. When its distance changes with respect to a point of reference. C. When its position will not
change with respect to a point of reference. D. When its distance will not change with respect to a point of
reference.
4. What do we call the zero location in a coordinate system or frame of reference? A. acceleration B.
reference point C. displacement D. uniform motion
5. Scalars are quantities that are fully described by a magnitude (or numerical value) alone. Which of the
following is a scalar quantity? A. direction B. displacement C. distance D. velocity
6. Vectors are quantities that are fully described by both a magnitude (or numerical value) and a direction.
Which of the following is a vector quantity? A. displacement B. distance C. meters D. speed
7. Sofia travels 15 meters North, 20 meters East and another 5 meters North going to church. What is the
total distance travelled by Sofia? A. 40 m B. 20m C. 40 m/s D. 1500 m
8. Which of the following equations is correct in describing the relationship between speed (v), distance (d)
and time (t)? A. v = d + t B. v = d x t C. v = d / t D. v = d ± t
I.The tape chart below represents the motion of a rolling ball. Study the tape chart and answer the following
items.
. . . . .
.
9.What does the chart tells you about the speed of the ball? a. accelerating c. constant b. decelerating d. very
fast
10. How would the distance between successive dots compared? a. increasing uniformly c. increasing four
times b. decreasing uniformly d. decreasing four times
11. What will happen to the acceleration of the ball if the speed increases uniformly? a. increases also c.
remains constant b. decreases also d. cannot be determined
Study the table below and answer the question that follows.

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RUNNER DISTANCE (m) TIME (s)
1 20 10
2 30 15
3 40 20
12. What is correct about the speeds of the runner?
a. runner 1 has the lowest speed b. runner 3 has the highest speed c. runner 3 has the lowest speed d. all the
runners have the same speeds.
The graph below shows the motion of a car.
Series 1
3.5
2.5
1.5
0.5
0
Category 1 Category 2 Category 3 Category 4
Series 1
13. How is the speed of the car between 1 to 2 hours?

a. increases b. decreases c. constant d. zero 4
14. What does the graph show about the motion of the car?
a. constant c. uniformly decreasing b. changing d. uniformly increasing
15. What is the speed of the car at time 1 hour and 3 hours?
a. 5 Km/h b. 10 Km/h c. 15 Km/h d. 20 Km/h
16. Which of the following is not correct about waves?
a. Waves carry energy from place to place but the particles do not move with the waves. b. Waves transfer
particles (matter) and energy. c. Waves can be classified as either electromagnetic or mechanical. d. Waves
have the capacity to transmit messages.
17. Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points in a wave train that are
____________________. a. in phase with each other c. vibrating with the same frequency b. out of phase
with each other d. oppositely directed
18. The higher the wavelength of the wave, ____________________________.
a. the lower is its speed c. the greater is its amplitude b. the longer is its period d. the shorter is its frequency

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19. What do you call the maximum distance the molecules of a medium are displaced from their rest
position? a. speed b. frequency c. amplitude d. wavelength
20. Which of the following characteristics of a wave that is independent of the other?
a. speed b. frequency c. amplitude d. wavelength
21. As a longitudinal wave passes through a medium, the particles of the medium move in
_______________. a. circles
c. parallel to direction of wave propagation b. ellipse d. perpendicular to direction of wave propagation
22. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium _______________. a. move in circles c.
move in parallel to the direction of travel b. move in ellipses d. move perpendicular to the direction of travel
23. Which of the following is not correct about waves?
a. Waves carry energy from place to place but the particles do not move with the waves.
b. Waves transfer particles (matter) and energy.
c. Waves can be classified as either electromagnetic or mechanical.
d. Waves have the capacity to transmit messages.
24. Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points in a wave train that are
___________________________.
a. in phase with each other c. vibrating with the same frequency
b. out of phase with each other d. oppositely directed
25. The higher the wavelength of the wave, ____________________________.

a. the lower is its speed c. the greater is its amplitude
b. the longer is its period d. the shorter is its frequency
26. What do you call the maximum distance the molecules of a medium are displaced from their rest
position?
a. speed b. frequency c. amplitude d. wavelength
27. Which of the following characteristics of a wave that is independent of the other?
a. speed b. frequency c. amplitude d. Wavelength
28. As a longitudinal wave passes through a medium, the particles of the medium move in
_______________.
a. circles c. parallel to direction of wave propagation
b. ellipse d. perpendicular to direction of wave propagation
29. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium _______________.

a. move in circles c. move in parallel to the direction of travel
b. move in ellipses d. move perpendicular to the direction of travel
For items numbers 30 and 31, refer to the table below.

Color of Light Wavelength Frequency

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Violet 400 nm 744 THz
Green 530 nm 566 THz
Yellow 580 nm 517 THz
Red 700 nm 422 THz
30. Which of the following statements is NOT correct based on the table?
A. Different colors of light have different wavelengths B. Different colors of light have different frequencies
C. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is low D. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is high
31. Which of the following is TRUE about the speed in a vacuum of these colors of light?
A. All colors of light have equal speeds in a vacuum. B. All colors of light have varying speeds in a vacuum
C. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is low D. When the wavelength is long, the frequency is high
32. How does frequency vary with wavelength?

A. The higher the frequency of a wave, the shorter the wavelength.
B. The higher the frequency of a wave, the longer the wavelength.
C. The lower the frequency of a wave, the shorter the wavelength.
D. Frequency does not vary with wavelength
33. Which of the following is a proof that light travels in a straight line?
A. Formation of shadows B. Formation of clouds C. Formation of rainbows D. Formation of colors
34. When white light is passed through a prism, the different lights are bent to varying degrees and are
dispersed into different colors. Which of these colors bent the least?
A. Violet B. Red C. Orange D. Green
35. Which of the following are the primary colors of light?

A. Blue, Red and White B. Blue, Green and Yellow C. Blue, Green and Red D. Blue, Red and Yellow
36. What is the wavelength band of orange?

A. 565 nm - 590 nm B. 590 nm – 625 nm C. 625 nm – 740 nm D. 520 nm - 565 nm
37. It is described as the “hotness or coldness” of a body.

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A. conductivity C. heat B. energy D. temperature
38. It can be transformed into other forms or can be transferred to objects or places (energy in transit)
A. conductivity C. heat B. energy D. temperature
39. It is a nessesary condition for heat to transfer.

A. different atomic structure C. different heat contents B. different heat capacity D. different temperature
40. It is a transfer of heat related to the movement that occurs within a fluid due to the rising of hotter
materials paired with the sinking of colder materials.
A. conduction C. radiation B. convection D. Insulation
41. Transfer of heat that takes place when the hotter object emits more energy than it absorbs from the
cooler object and the cooler object receives more energy than it emits
A. conduction C. radiation B. convection D. insulation
42. It takes place when the particles between objects that are in contact vibrate and collide at different
speeds due to the difference in their temperature.
A. conduction C. radiation B. convection D. insulation
43. When a metal spoon with a temperature of 20 ๦C is placed into a cup of water with a temperature of 90
๦C the spoon will heat up. This is an example of ________.
A. conduction C. radiation B. convection D. Insulation
44. What will happen when two like charges brought together?
A. they will repel each other. B. they will attract each other. C. they will neutralize each other. D. they will
have no effect on each other.
45. Which of the following describes the usual way by which a material can gain a positive charge?
A. by gaining protons. C. by losing protons. B. by gaining electrons D. by losing electrons.
46. If you comb your hair and the comb becomes positively charged. What will happen to your hair?
A. it will remain uncharged. C. it will be repelled by the comb. B. it will become positively charge. D. it
will become negatively charged.
47. Which of the following can be attracted by a positively charged objects?

A. another positively charged object. C. a neutral object. B. any other object. D. no other object.
48. When you charge a balloon by rubbing it on your hair this is an example of what method of charging?
A. friction C. grounding B. conduction D. induction
49. Which of the following is contained in a neutral atom?

A. equal number of electrons and protons. B. more protons than electrons. C. equal number neutrons and
electrons. D. more protons than neutrons.

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50. What do you call the process of charging a conductor by bringing it near another charged object?
A. induction B. polarization C. neutralization D. conduction
GOOD LUCK!
Prepared by: Recommending Approval: Noted:
MARK AUSTIN ALESSANDRO E. LOPEZ RODA A. BUERA HECTOR S. LOPEZ

Subject Teacher JHS Coordinator Principal II
ANSWER KEY GRADE 7
1.B 4.C
2.A 5.C
3.A 6.A

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7.A 29.D
8.C 30.D
9.A 31.C
10.A 32.A
11.A 33.A
12.D 34.B
13.D 35.C
14.B 36.B
15.B 37.D
16.D 38.C
17.C 39.D
18.C 40.B
19.C 41.C
20.C 42.A
21.B 43.A
22.D 44.A
23.A 45.C
24.B 46.D
25.D 47.C
26.C 48.A
27.C 49.A
28.C 50.A

School ID: 305087
3rd Periodical Test in Science 10

statement. Write the letter of your answer on your answer sheets
1. This hormone is responsible for the development of the secondary sex characteristics in female.
a. Follicle Stimulating Hormonec. Testosterone b. Estrogen d. Luteinizing Hormone
2. Which of the following is the role of the luteinizing hormone?

a. Luteinizing hormone inhibits ovulation, uterine contractions b. Luteinizing hormone stimulates the
development of the follicle cells in the ovary c. Luteinizing hormone stimulates ovulation and the
formation and maintenance of the corpus luteum d. Luteinizing hormone produce egg cell
3. Which of the following chemical substance helps in maintaining balance in our body?
a. Food b. Hormones c. Blood d. Water
4. If testes produces testosterone while ovary produces what hormone?

a. Adrenaline c. Calcitonin b. Estrogen d. Melatonin
5. If testosterone is for male secondary sex characteristics; estrogen is for __.

a. Female secondary sex characteristics c. Female organ b. Ovulation d. Spermatogenesis
6. If the male reproductive hormone includes testosterone, FSH and LH. What about the female
reproductive hormones?
a. Estrogen, melatonin, FSH and LH b. Estrogen, adrenaline, FSH and LH c. Estrogen, progesterone, FSH
and LH d. Estrogen, calcitonin, FSH and LH
7. Which of the following reproductive hormones are both present in male and female reproductive
hormones? a. FSH and LH c. Thyroid and parathyroid b. Estrogen and adrenaline d. Testosterone and
oxytocin
8.What feedback mechanism is responsible when you sweat and cool off?
a. negative feedback mechanism b. positive feedback mechanism c. defense mechanism d. b and c
9. What monitors and causes the release of hormones from the pituitary gland?
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a. sweat gland b. hypothalamus c. pituitary gland d. endocrine gland
10. Where does your hypothalamus sends a gonadotropin releasing hormone when the reproductive
hormone is required?
a. posterior pituitary b. hypothalamus c. anterior pituitary gland d. endocrine gland
11.When does positive feedback regulation process is involved during menstrual cycle?
a. if high levels of a hormone stimulate the output of even more hormone b. if the original stimulus is
negated c. if it can be out of control d. if it requires continuous adjustment
12. When does positive feedback mechanism regulates the secretion of luteinizing hormone?
a. when the follicle is uncaptured b. when the egg cell completes the second meiotic division c. when
the ovary rupture and ovulation occurs. d. All of the above
13.Which of the following statement describes ovulation?

a. A series of events when the ovaries prepare and release ovum b. When the anterior pituitary gland
releases FS Hormone c. When LH into the blood stream, the FSH causes the follicle to develop d. The
release of an ovum from an ovary which occurs every 28 days
14. Which statement differentiate negative from positive feedback mechanism?

a. In negative, the response will cause the opposite effect of the original stimulus while in positive, it
does not require continuous adjustment. b. In negative feedback, the response will reverse while in
positive feedback, the original stimulus is promoted. c. In negative feedback, the response will reverse
or cause the opposite effect of the original stimulus while in positive feedback, the original stimulus is
promoted rather than negated, it controls self-perpetuating events that can be out of control and do
not require continuous adjustment. d. All of the above.
15.What feedback mechanism is responsible when you sweat and cool off?
a. negative feedback mechanism b. positive feedback mechanism c. defense mechanism d. b and c
16. What monitors and causes the release of hormones from the pituitary gland?
a. sweat gland b. hypothalamus c. pituitary gland d. endocrine gland
17.Why does your hypothalamus initiate physiological responses when you feel hot?
a. to decrease heat production and lose heat b. to cause the body temperature decrease c. to increase
heat production and conserve heat d. all of the above
18. How does your nervous system coordinate and regulate the feedback mechanism of the human
body?

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a. by directing the body to respond appropriately to the information it receives. b. by responding to
the stimulus to make a change or signal in the environment. c. by being aware of what is happening in
its environment d. All of the above.
19. Which of the following scenes illustrates that the nervous system maintains homeostasis?
a. The billiard player’s nervous system adjusts his/her breathing for her not to feel nervous as he/she
hits the que ball. b. The goalie’s nervous system adjusts his/her heart rate to meet his/her energy
needs to spike the ball. c. The sprinter’s nervous system directs the player when he/she feels hungry
to eat food. d. All of the above.
20. Feedback mechanism happens when the response to a stimulus________.

a. has an effect on the original stimulus. b. decreases the original stimulus c. increases the original
stimulus d. all of the above
21. Negative feedback mechanism occurs when the response to a Stimulus _________.
a. has an effect on the original stimulus. b. increases the original stimulus c. decreases the original
stimulus d. all of the above
22. What is the building blocks of protein?

a. Nucleic acid c. amino acid b. glutamic acid d. ribonucleic acid
23. What process is involved when DNA copies itself?

a. Replication b. transcription c. translation d. mutation
24. Which of the following is a start codon?

a. AUG b. UGA c. UAA d. UAG
25. Which will interpret the information transcribed in the mRNA?

a. mRNA b. rRNA c.tRNA d. iRNA
26. Where information found in a gene of a DNA is transferred during transcription process?
a. into a molecule of RNA b. into a molecule of DNA c. into a molecule of amino acid d. into a molecule
of protein
27. When does the initiation stage happen during transcription process?
a. When the RNA polymerase binds to the promotor sequence and unwinds a portion of DNA double
helix. b. When the RNA polymerase catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester bonds between
adjacent ribonucleotides. c. When the RNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the cytoplasm. d. When the
RNA polymerase slides along the DNA strands and links with free RNA nucleotides.
28. How is the initiation complex formed in the translation process?

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a. When he tRNA anticodon pairs with the first mRNA start codon and the two molecule will
temporarily join together. b. When the ribosomes slides along the mRNA to the next codon. c. When
the new tRNA molecule pairs with the second mRNA codon. d. When the polypeptide chain is released
29. What are remains that were replaced by minerals forming rock like materials?
A. fossils B. embryo C. anatomy of human D. sequence of amino acids
30. Which among the body structures do not serve any useful purpose but are considered to be
evidence of an organism’s evolutionary past?
A. vestigial structure B. analogous structures C. homologous structure D. moderate structures
31. Where are the remains of organisms embedded or commonly found? A. sedimentary rocks B.
woody stem C. muddy soil D. concrete wall
32. What environments would most likely cause fossil formation?

A. wet lowlands & shallow seas B. slow-moving streams C. areas near volcanoes that spewed out ashes
D. All of the above
33. How are fossils formed? When organisms and traces of organisms are rapidly buried by sediments
in _____ A. upland forest B. wet lowlands C. mountainous area D. deserts
34. How do paleontologists usually determines the age of a fossil? Through____

A. the position in the sedimentary rocks B. relative dating C. the use of radioactive isotopes D. All of
the above
35. Which among the following is a strong indicator that the organisms evolved from common
ancestors.
A. vestigial structure B. analogous structures C. homologous structure D. moderate structures
36. Equal number of dark and light-colored peppered moths are in the city. But during revolution and
industrialization, the population of light-colored moth decreased due to pollution. This example
portrays the theory of ___________.
A. Natural Selection C. Use and Disuse B. Selective Selection D. Need
37. In nature, there is the tendency toward overpopulation, however, these can be slowed down due
to competition of food and space, escape from predators, and ability to find shelter. Which among the
following is best described by the example given where natural selection is anchored?
A. Artificial Selection C. Competition B. Struggle for existence D. Selective Breeding
38. According to Darwin, neck of giraffes vary in length: the long, medium and short. Overtime, short
and medium neck giraffes disappeared due to shortage of food, while the long-neck giraffe
propagated. Which among the following supported the example?

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A. Those with desirable trait survive because the trait is used often B. Those with less desirable trait
disappears because it is not in use C. Those traits favored by the environment survive D. Those traits
favored by the environment are eliminated
39. On all the seeds of a mother squash, only 90% survived. Those who did not survive died due to
lack of space. On the four major points that supports the Natural theory, which among the following is
described by the example?
A. Inherited variation exists within the genes of every population or species B. In a particular
environment, some individuals of a population or species are better suited to survive and have more
offspring. C. Overtime, the traits that make certain individuals of a population able to survive and
reproduce tend to spread in that population. D. There are overwhelming pieces of evidence from
fossils and many other sources illustrating how species evolved from organisms that are extinct.
40. Not all offspring produced will survive. Which among the following is an example of the given
statement of natural selection?
A. Only 50% of watermelon seeds will grow and thrive B. All COVID virus will survive in the
environment C. Long fur of cats is passed on to the next generation D. An entire population of bacteria
adapts a resistance to anti-biotics
41. Which among the following observations of Darwin during his voyage became his basis to
hypothesize that life evolves over time?
A. Fossils of extinct armadillos closely resembled, but not identical to, armadillos living in South
America. B. Finches in Galapagos island closely resembled South American finches. C. Plant/Animal
breeders select desirable traits to propagate. D. Both A and B.
42. Darwin explained evolution of life through _____________.

A. Adaptation B. Use and Disuse C. Natural Selection D. Need
43. Which of the following causes a decreasing wildlife population in most of the places in our
country?
A. Loss of habitat B. Loss of limiting factor C. Loss of carrying capacity D. Loss of natural disturbances
44. Davao is known for its wide variety of fruits and other plant species that makes it really attractive
to tourists. Which of the following classification of biodiversity value is described?
A. Indirect economic value B. Direct economic value C. Ethical/ cultural D. Both A and C

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45. Lino breeds white mice in a cage. After a few generations, the breeder observes that the white
mice are more aggressive towards each other, the young are less healthy, and more young white mice
die. What do you think will happen to the population of white mice?
A. The population will remain the same. B. The population is not affected. C. The population will
decrease. D. The population will increase.
46. Cocolisap infestation outbreak has been declared in some parts of the Philippines. The cocolisap
feeds on the sap of the coconut tree and injects toxic enzymes, resulting in discolored leaves and
deformed plant tissues that retard its growth of coconut tree. This, results in a decrease of the survival
rate of coconut trees. Which of the following factors limits the population of coconut trees?
A. Predation B. Emigration C. Diseases and parasites D. Competition for resources
47. What is adaptation? It is a physical or behavioral characteristic that helps _____

A. a plant grow B. a living thing survive C. a living thing walk D. plant and animals to reproduce
48. If the number of births in a population is the same as the number of deaths in a population, what
will happen to the growth of the population?
A. It will increase. B. It will decrease. C. It will stay the same. D. It will fluctuate.
49. Why would advances in medicine lead to population growth?

A. Treatment of deadly diseases allows people to live longer B. People are unable to have babies
without medical help C. Babies do not grow if they don't take their medicines D. Drugs allow mothers
to have multiple births, like octuplets.
50. Which of the following describes the largest number of individuals in a species that an
environment can support long term?
A. carrying capacity B. emigration C. immigration D. population density
GOOD LUCK!


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ANSWER KEY GRADE 10

1.B 26.A
2.B 27.A
3.B 28.B
4.B 29.A
5.A 30.A
6.C 31.A
7.A 32.A
8.A 33.B
9.B 34.D
10.C 35.C
11.A 36.A
12.D 37.B
13.C 38.A
14.A 39.C
15.A 40.A
16.B 41.D
17.B 42.C
18.B 43.A
19.D 44.D
20.D 45.C
21.A 46.C
22.C 47.B
23.A 49.C
24.C 50.A
25.C .

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3rd Periodical Test in Physical Science 11

statement. Write the letter of your answer on your answer sheets.
1. Which of the following defines as the primordial creation and expansion of space at the beginning of
time?
a. Bigbang theory c. Nucleosynthesis b. Biological creation d. Earth science
2. Which of the following light elements DOES NOT belong to the group?
a. Hydrogen c. helium b. lithium d. Iridium
3. It refers to the process of creating new atomic nuclei from pre-existing nucleons primarily protons
and neutrons.
a. Bigbang theory c. Bigbang Nucleosynthesis b. Nucleosynthesis d. All of the above
4. Which of the following is NOT true about Elements?

a. there are 118 elements in the periodic table c. Some elements are naturally occurring and
artificially made b. Light elements are created by means of bigbang nucleosynthesis d. Elements are
made from combining compounds
5. Which of the follow is true about light elements?

a. they are strongest and the heaviest c. They are made from bigbang nucleosynthesis b. They are
made from other galaxies d. They are naturally occurring hence are not made
6. Light elements: Bigbang Nucleosynthesis as to Heavy Elements : __________

a. Stellar Nucleosynthesis c. Bigbang Nucleosynthesis b. Nuclear synthesis d. Synthesis
7. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group?

a. Sodium (Na) c. Potassium (K) b. Helium (He) d. Calcium (Ca)
8. Which of the following is defined as a process by which elements are formed within the stars as a
result of nuclear fusion?
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a. Stellar Nucleosynthesis c. Bigbang Nucleosynthesis b. Nuclear synthesis d. Synthesis
9. Our Sun’s age is about _______.

a. 4.5-5 byo c. 4.6-5 byo b. 4.7-5 byo d. 4.8-5 byo
10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

a. Elements heavier than iron are formed during supernova explosion c. Stars are primarily composed
of Hydrogen b. Elements are primarily composed of atoms and nuclei basin d. The first fusion process
occurs at the hydrogen core of the star
11. It is a type of reaction that fuses lighter elements to form heavier elements?
a. Nuclear synthesis c. Nuclear fusion b. Nuclear bed d. Nuclear explosion
12. It is the lightest element and the starting point of nuclear fusion reactions in stars.
a. helium c. Hydrogen b. carbon d. nitrogen
13. it is the process that uses kinetic energy of protons to form helium-4 from hydrogen
a. proton-proton chain c. CNO Cycle b. Nuclear fusion d. Beta decay
14. What are the conditions necessary for a nuclear fusion to occur?
a. Low temperature, high temperature c. High temperature, low temperature b. Low temperature, low
pressure d. High temperature, high pressure
15. What characteristics of the stars determines whether the energy comes from the proton-proton
fusion or carbon-nitrogen-oxygen cycle?
a. distance from another star c. Distance from the earth b. Mass d. Shape
16. It is the process by which nuclei are synthesized from pre-existing ones.
a. Nuclear fusion c. Bigbang b. Nucleosynthesis d. All of the above
17. Slow neutron capture process is called?

a. S- process c. P- process b. N- process d. R- process
18. Which of the following processes cannot synthesize nuclei heavier than iron?
a. slow neutron capture c. Proton capture b. Fusion reaction d. Rapid neutron capture
19. Which of the following are the requirements for rapid neutron capture process?
a. High alpha particle density c. High neutron density b. High proton density d. Extremely high
temperature
20. Which of the following are the net effects of a proton capture?
a. decrease in the number of neutron c. Increase in mass number b. Increase in atomic number d.
decrease in atomic number

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21. Who among the following scholars proposed that matter is composed of tiny, unbreakable
particles?.
a. Democritus c. Empedocles b. aristotle d. Leucippus
22. In what nation did Democritus and Leucippus come from?.

a. Dacia c. Greece b. Russin Empire d. Persia
23. Which of the following Greek word that means uncuttable?

a. atomos c. antion b. atom d. actonos
24. Which of the following is NOT made-up atoms?
a. stone c. water b. heat d. smoke
25. According to Aristotle he believes that everything in the universe is made up of four elements
namely air, water, fire and ____
a. Sun c. Trees b. earth d. Solar system
26. the following are the four primordial sources according to Empedocles EXCEPT?
a. Air c. Earth b. Fire d. Food
27. Anixamenes: air, Heraclitus: Fire, Thales: Water, Xenophanus: ________

a. Earth c. air b. fire d. water
28. Plato treated the four elements geometrically and named them ______
a. Plato liquids c. Platonic solids b. Platonic liquids d. Plato solid
29. Aristotle describe each element using the qualities hot, cold, dry and wet. He named the fifth
element _________.
a. Aeros c. Area b. Aether d. Airless
30. Who believed that the four elements can be described geometrically?
a. Democritus c. Empedocles b. aristotle d. Plato
31. It was a speculative science with goals of finding the Elixir of life and transforming base metals
into gold?
a. Alchemist c. Chemistry b. Physics and Mathematics d. Alchemy
32. Indian alchemy:Steel as to China: _____

a. metallic zinc c. Artificial gemstones b. Gun powder d. Imitation of gold and silver
33. China: gun powder as to Egypt: ______

a. metallic zinc c. Artificial gemstones b. Gun powder d. Imitation of gold and silver
34. Paracelsus created the tria prima namely _______

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a. salt, mercury and sulfur c. Salt and mercury b. Salt and sulfur d. None of the above
35. The following are some works of Paracelsus EXCEPT?

a. tria prima c. Laudanum b. Fishnet used in hunting d. the body works alchemically
36. Who described atoms as spherical?

a. John Dalton c. Joseph John Thompson b. Ernest Rutherford d. Empedocles
37. He discovered electrons.

38. He proposed that electrons orbit around the nucleus.

39. He proposed that electrons orbit around the nucleus in set energy levels.
a. Niels Bohr c.James Chadwick b. Ernest Rutherford d. Empedocles
40. He discovered the neutron.

a. Niels Bohr c.James Chadwick b. Ernest Rutherford d. Empedocles
41. His experiment is the gold foil experiment. A beam of alpha particles was aimed at a piece of gold
foil.
a. John Dalton c. Democritus b. JJ Thompson d. Ernest Rutherford
42. He proposed that all things are composed of the atomos or the fundamental, indivisible particles,
atoms; atoms cannot be destroyed; atoms are separated by the void or empty space, atoms are in
constant motion, and undergo constant change through the void.
43. His famous experiment is the Plum pudding model.

44. He defined an atom to be a ball-like structure, as the concepts of atomic nucleus and electrons
were unknown at the time.
45. JJ Thompson : Plum pudding model as to Ernest Rutherford: ________

a. Atom model c. Quantum atomic model b. Plum pudding model d. Nuclear model
46. Positively charge particle of an atom.

a. Proton c. Neutron b. Electron d. None of the above

School ID: 305087
47. Negatively charge particle of an atom.
48. Neutral charge particle of an atom.

49. The smallest particle of Matter.

a. Electron c. Proton b. atom d. Neutron
50. What are the sub particles of an atom?

a. Proton, neutron and electron c. Proton and electron only b. Neutron and electron only d. All of the
above
GOOD LUCK!


School ID: 305087
ANSWER KEY GRADE 11 Physical Science
1.A 26.D
2.D 27.A
3.C 28.C
4.D 29.B
5.C 30.D
6.A 31.D
7.D 32.B
8.A 33.D
9.A 34.A
10.C 35.B
11.C 36.A
12.C 37.C
13.B 38.B
14.D 39.A
15.B 40.C
16.B 41.D
17.A 42.C
18.B 43.B
19.BONUS 44.A
20.B 45.A
21.A OR D 46.B
22.C 47.C
23.A 49.B
24.B 50.A
25.B .

School ID: 305087

School ID: 305087

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Republic of the Philippines

3rd Periodical Test in Science 7

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

13. How is the speed of the car between 1 to 2 hours?

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

25. The higher the wavelength of the wave, ____________________________.

29. In a transverse wave, the individual particles of the medium _______________.

For items numbers 30 and 31, refer to the table below.

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

32. How does frequency vary with wavelength?

35. Which of the following are the primary colors of light?

36. What is the wavelength band of orange?

37. It is described as the “hotness or coldness” of a body.

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

39. It is a nessesary condition for heat to transfer.

47. Which of the following can be attracted by a positively charged objects?

49. Which of the following is contained in a neutral atom?

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

Prepared by: Recommending Approval: Noted:

MARK AUSTIN ALESSANDRO E. LOPEZ RODA A. BUERA HECTOR S. LOPEZ

ANSWER KEY GRADE 7

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

3rd Periodical Test in Science 10

2. Which of the following is the role of the luteinizing hormone?

4. If testes produces testosterone while ovary produces what hormone?

5. If testosterone is for male secondary sex characteristics; estrogen is for __.

13.Which of the following statement describes ovulation?

14. Which statement differentiate negative from positive feedback mechanism?

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

20. Feedback mechanism happens when the response to a stimulus________.

22. What is the building blocks of protein?

23. What process is involved when DNA copies itself?

24. Which of the following is a start codon?

25. Which will interpret the information transcribed in the mRNA?

28. How is the initiation complex formed in the translation process?

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

32. What environments would most likely cause fossil formation?

34. How do paleontologists usually determines the age of a fossil? Through____

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

42. Darwin explained evolution of life through _____________.

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

47. What is adaptation? It is a physical or behavioral characteristic that helps _____

49. Why would advances in medicine lead to population growth?

Prepared by: Recommending Approval: Noted:

MARK AUSTIN ALESSANDRO E. LOPEZ RODA A. BUERA HECTOR S. LOPEZ

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

ANSWER KEY GRADE 10

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

3rd Periodical Test in Physical Science 11

4. Which of the following is NOT true about Elements?

5. Which of the follow is true about light elements?

6. Light elements: Bigbang Nucleosynthesis as to Heavy Elements : __________

7. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group?

9. Our Sun’s age is about _______.

10. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?

17. Slow neutron capture process is called?

LANGIDEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

22. In what nation did Democritus and Leucippus come from?.

23. Which of the following Greek word that means uncuttable?

27. Anixamenes: air, Heraclitus: Fire, Thales: Water, Xenophanus: ________

32. Indian alchemy:Steel as to China: _____

33. China: gun powder as to Egypt: ______