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PHYSICS Question Bank

Light and Optics


Q. 1. The Tyndall Effect is due to:

(a) Scattering of Light (b) Dispersion of LIght (c) Refraction of Light


(d) Reflection of Light

Sol. (a) Scattering of Light

Explanation: When light rays pass through collide it scatters after striking fine particles. This shows
the Tyndall effect.

Q. 2. The sky appears blue due to:

(a) Refraction of light (b) Dispersion of light (c) Scattering of Light (d) Reflection of light

Sol. (c) Scattering of Light

Explanation: Blue light has shorter wavelengths. It scatters in the sky after striking on fine particles.

Q. 3. Fulminology is the study of:

(a) Volcanic eruptions. (b) Lightening (c) Natural gases (d) Atmosphere

Sol. (b) Lightening

Explanation: The study of Lightning - Fulminology.The study of Volcanic eruptions - Volcanology

Q. 4. What will be the size of the image formed by a concave mirror when an object placed
between Pole and Focus?

(a) Same Size (b) Enlarged (c) Point Size (d) Diminished

Sol. (b) Enlarged

Explanation: When the object is placed between the pole and focus of the concave mirror.
Image will be virtual, erect and enlarged.

Q. 5. Twinkling of stars is mainly due to which phenomenon ?

(a) Diffraction (b) Refraction (c) Reflection (d) Advection

Sol. (b) Refraction

Explanation: Light coming from the star undergoes continuous refraction due to change in
density of air.This results in twinkling of stars.

Q. 6. The amount of light entering into eye can be controlled and regulated by-

(a) iris (b) cornea (c) pupil (d) retina

Sol. C) pupil

Explanation: Pupile controls the amount of light entering into the eye.Iris controls the diameter and
size of the pupil.Cornea is the front part of the eye. It allows light to enter the eye. Retina is like a
screen of the eye. It forms an image of the object. It also converts light energy into neural signals
and sends it to the brain.

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Q. 7. Which instrument is used to measure the intensity of light produced by an unknown source in
terms of a standard source?

(a) Photometer (b) Calipers (c) Ammeter (d) Dynamometer

Sol. (a) Photometer

Explanation: Photometer-It is used to measure the intensity of light. Calipers - It is used to measure
the dimension of an object.Ammeter- It is used to measure the current. Dynamometer - A device
for measuring mechanical force, or power, transmitted by a rotating shaft.

Q. 8. Rajat has hypermetropia. What type of lens will the ophthalmologist recommend to correct
his vision?

(a) Bifocal (b) Concave (c) Progressive (d) Convex

Sol. (d) Convex

Explanation: Hypermetropia is also known as far-sightedness is corrected by convex. In this


condition the patient is able to see far objects clearly but unable to see close objects clearly.

Q. 9. Light rays enter the eye through the outer, transparent structure at the front of the eye
called the______.

(a) Lens (b) Iris (c) Cornea (d) Optic nerve

Sol. (c) Cornea

Explanation: Cornea is the front part of the eye. It allows light to enter the eye. Iris controls the
diameter and size of the pupil. Optic nerves carry neural signals.

Q. 10. The lens-type commonly used for correcting presbyopia is ______.

(a) bifocal lens (b) cylindrical lens (c) convex lens (d) concave lens

Sol. (a) bifocal lens

Explanation: The lens-type commonly used for correcting presbyopia is bifocal lens . concave lens
is commonly used for correcting Myopiaconvex lens is commonly used for correcting Long
Sightedness. Cylindrical lenses are prescribed to correct astigmatism.

Q. 11. Which of the following is the instrument used in submarines to view objects above sea level
?

(a) Odometer (b) Pyrheliometer (c) Hypsometer (d) Periscope

Sol. (d) Periscope

Explanation: Periscope - Periscope is used for the navigation of the ships while remaining under
water or submerged.

 Odometer - It is used to measure distance travelled by vehicle.


 Pyrheliometer - It is used to measure direct beam solar irradiance
 Hypsometer - A hypsometer is an instrument for measuring height or elevation.

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Q. 12. The total number of images formed by two mirrors inclined at 120° to each other is ______.

(a) 1. (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3

Sol. (b) 2

Explanation: The number of images formed when two mirrors are placed at an angle theta to
each other is given by: n = (360° / ) - 1 θ So, here, we have the mirrors placed perpendicular to
each other. So, theta = 90 degree

=> n = no. of images formed

=> n = ( 360° /120° ) - 1

=> n = 3 - 1

=> n = 2

So, a total of two images will be formed.

Q. 13. Which among the following has its refractive index closest to that of crown glass ?

(a)Canada balsam (b)Sapphire (c)Diamond (d)Ruby

Sol. (a) Canada balsam

Explanation: Due to its high optical quality and the similarity of its refractive index to that of crown
glass (n = 1.55), purified and filtered Canada balsam was traditionally used in optics as an
invisible when dry glue for glass, such as lens elements.

Q. 14. The phenomenon of deviation of light rays from their original path, when they pass from
one medium to another, is called ____

(a) obstruction (b) reflection (c) Diffraction (d) Refraction

Sol. (d) Refraction

Explanation: Refraction is the change in direction of a wave passing from one medium to another
or from a gradual change in the medium. Some common examples of refraction are formation of
rainbow, mirage etc.

Q. 15. Which phenomenon deals with the scattering of light by molecules of a medium when
they are excited to vibrational energy levels?

(a) Huygens Effect. (b) Maxwell Effect (c) Raman Effect (d) Rayleigh Effect

Sol. C) Raman Effect

Explanation: Raman Effect deals with the scattering of light by molecules of a medium when they
are excited to vibrational energy levels. Huygens' principle states that every point on a wavefront
may be considered as a source of secondary waves. Maxwell Effect is a phenomenon of
electromagnetic induction in which an electric charge, near a solenoid in which current changes
slowly, feels an electromotive force (e.m.f.) even if the magnetic field is practically static inside
and null outside. Rayleigh Effect is a phenomenon of scattering of light or other electromagnetic
radiation by particles much smaller than the wavelength of the radiation.

Q. 16. How many colours does sunlight consist of?

(a) Three (b) Two (c) Seven (d) Five

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Sol. C) Seven

Explanation: Sunlight consists of seven colors. Sun rays are white in color and a mixture of seven
colours i.e violet, indigo, blue, green, orange, and red. We usually call it VIBGYOR.

Q. 17. Mirror used by dentists to see large images of teeth of patients is ______.

(a) ZigZag Mirror (b) Plane Mirror (c) Convex Mirror (d) Concave Mirror

Sol. (d) Concave Mirror

Explanation: Concave Mirror - Concave mirrors are used to form an enlarged image and upright
image. So, dentist use it to view larger profiles of teeth to find the decay in it. A plane mirror is a
mirror with a flat reflective surface. For light rays striking a plane mirror, the angle of reflection
equals the angle of incidence. A convex mirror or diverging mirror is a curved mirror in which the
reflective surface bulges towards the light source. Convex mirrors reflect light outwards, therefore
they are not used to focus light Such mirrors always form a virtual image.

Q. 18. Image formed by a Plane Mirror is always ______.

(a) Virtual and Erect (b) Real and Erect (c) Real and Inverted (d) Virtual and Inverted

Sol. (a) Virtual and Erect

Explanation: characteristics of a plane mirror image are Virtual and Erect M Image is formed
behind the mirror Size of the image is equal Distance of image and mirror is equal to the distance
of object and mirror. Laterally inverted image (image of right hand will be shown at the left side)
and To see the full image of an object, a plane mirror should be half of the object.

Q. 19. The part of the eye which is responsible for the conversion of image of an object into
neural signals is:

(a) iris (b) optic nerve (c) vitreous humour. (d) retina

Sol. (d) retina

Explanation: Retina is responsible for the conversion of the image of an object into neural signals.
It has a thin layer of tissue that lines the back of the eye on the inside and it is located near the
optic nerve. The purpose of the retina is to receive light that the lens has focused, convert the light
into neural signals, and send these signals on to the brain for visual recognition.

Q. 20. What is the name of the phenomena (derived by scattering of the light) in which mountain
tops acquire a rosy or orange hue around sunrise and sunset ?

(a) Brillouin scattering (b) Circle of confusion (c) Alpenglow (d) Barrel distortion

Sol. (c) Alpenglow

Explanation: Alpenglow is the phenomenon by which mountain tops acquire a rosy or orange hue
around sunrise and sunset. It is either the indirect sunlight reflection off of clouds after sunset or
before sunrise, or to direct sunlight that occurs near sunset or sunrise.

Q. 21. What is the colour of the light emitted by the Sun ?

(a) Yellow (b) Orange (c) Red (d) White

Sol. (d) White

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Explanation: The light emitted by the Sun is white, which consists of all visible frequencies of light
red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet all of which form the colors of the rainbow and
to remember the colour pattern remember a word ‘VIBGYOR’ which is formed by the starting
letters, in reverse order.

Q. 22. The absolute refractive index of ______ is 2.42.

(a) air (b) diamond (c) crown glass . (d) water

Sol. (b) diamond

Explanation: The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42. The absolute refractive index of
diamond is 2.42 and glass is 1.50. Refractive index, also called the index of refraction, measures
the bending of a ray of light when passing from one medium into another.

Q. 23. Apart from the red and green wavelengths of sunlight, which other wavelength of sunlight
is absorbed by water molecules in the ocean?

(a) Orange (b) Blue (c) Violet (d) Yellow

Sol. (d) Yellow

Explanation: Apart from the red and green wavelengths of sunlight, the wavelength of Yellow
sunlight is absorbed by water molecules in the ocean. The red, yellow, and green wavelengths of
sunlight are absorbed by water molecules in the ocean. When sunlight hits the ocean, some of
the light is reflected back directly but most of it penetrates the ocean surface and interacts with
the water molecules that it encounters.

Q. 24. Which of the following mirror is used in vehicles as a headlight?

(a) Double Convex mirror (b) Plane mirror (c) Concave mirror (d) Convex mirror

Sol. (c) Concave mirror

Explanation: A concave mirror is used in vehicles as a headlight because when the bulb of the
headlight is placed at the focus of the concave mirror, it allows the light to spread out to infinity
(longer distances).

Q. 25. An image formed on a screen is called a ______ image, whereas the image formed by a
plane mirror is called a ______ image.

(a) real; virtual (b) parabolic; perpetual (c) virtual; real (d) vector; layered

Sol. (a) real; virtual

Explanation: An image formed on a screen is called a real image, whereas the image formed by
a plane mirror is called a virtual image. Real image is formed by the actual intersection of light
rays. Virtual image is formed when the light rays appear to be originating from a point but do not
actually meet.

Q. 26. What is the full form of LED?

(a) Linear Emergency Device (b) Light Emitting Diode (c) Liquid Emitting Display
(d) Light Emitting Device

Sol. (b) Light Emitting Diode

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Explanation: LED, in full light-emitting diode, in electronics, a semiconductor device that emits
infrared or visible light when charged with an electric current.

Q. 27. ‘Myopia’ is also known as:

(a) near-sightedness (b) astigmatism (c) presbyopia. (d) far-sightedness

Sol. (a) near-sightedness

Explanation: ‘Myopia’ is also known as near-sightedness. Myopia is corrected by spectacles or


contact lenses with lenses that are 'minus' or concave in shape. In order to correct astigmatism,
we must use a cylindrical lens. Presbyopia can be corrected by using bi-focal lenses. Convex
lenses are used in eyeglasses for

correcting farsightedness.

Q. 28. Which of the following types of mirrors show a lateral inversion of light?

(a) Convex mirror (b) Concave mirror (c) Rectangle mirror (d) Plane mirror

Sol. (d) Plane mirror

Explanation: Plane mirrors show a lateral inversion of light. Lateral inversion is the reversal of a
mirror image where the right side of the object appears on the left side behind the mirror.

Q. 29. People who wear bifocal lenses have ______.

(a) hypermetropia (b) myopia (c) presbyopia. (d) cataract

Sol. C) presbyopia

Explanation: People who wear bifocal lenses have presbyopia. Bifocal lenses are used for people
who are both nearsighted and farsighted.

Q. 30. The colour of the clear sky is blue due to the phenomenon of:

(a) dispersion of light (b) reflection of light (c) scattering of light (d) refraction of light

Sol. (c) scattering of light

Explanation: The color of the clear sky is blue due to the phenomenon of scattering of light.
Raman was awarded the Nobel prize in Physics in 1930 for his discovery of Raman scattering
(Scattering of light). The Tyndall effect is the phenomenon of the scattering of light by colloidal
particles.

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Heat and thermodynamics
Q. 1. _______ expansion makes the Eiffel Tower taller during summers.

(a) thermal (b) slope (c) gravitational (d) chemical

Sol. (a) thermal

Explanation: The Eiffel tower gets taller in summer because of the thermal expansion. Thermal
expansion is a phenomenon due to which the metal expands when heated and contracts when
cooled. The Eiffel Tower gets taller by up to 6 inches during the summer.

Q. 2. Name the law in Physics which states that equal volume of all gases under the same
conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal numbers of molecules.

(a) Avogadro’s Law (b) Charles's Law (c) Ohm’s Law. (d) Boyle's Law

Sol. (a) Avogadro’s Law

Explanation: Avogadro's law states that "equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and
pressure, have the same number of molecules.

Q. 3. Heat, in ______, is a type of energy transfer from a warmer substance to a colder one.

(a) gravity (b) friction (c) thermodynamics (d) magnet

Sol. (c) thermodynamics

Explanation: Heat is a type of energy transfer in thermodynamics. During energy transfer, the
energy moves from the hotter object to the colder object. This means that the hotter object will
cool down and the colder object will warm up. The energy transfer will continue until both objects
are at the same temperature. Heat is measured in joules (J).

Q. 4. A clinical thermometer reads the temperature from ______.

(a) 25°C to 32°C (b) 38°C to 48°C (c) 32°C to 38°C (d) 35°C to 42°C

Sol. (d) 35°C to 42°C

Explanation: A clinical thermometer reads the temperature from 35°C to 42°C.

Q. 5. What is the Steam Point on the Fahrenheit scale?

(a) 32 ° F (b) 100 ° F (c) 212 ° F. (d) 80 ° F

Sol. (c) 100 ° F

Explanation: Steam point is the temperature at which the maximum vapour pressure of water is
equal to one atmosphere. It has the value of 100° on the Celsius scale and 212 ° F on the
Fahrenheit scale.

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Q. 6. ___________ codified the first two laws of thermodynamics and deduced that the absolute
zero of temperature is -273.15°C. He was honored for this with the naming of the Kelvin
temperature scale.

(a) William Crookes (b) William Thomson (c) Luis Alvarez (d) Robert Hooke

Sol. (b) William Thomson

Explanation: The first law, also known as the Law of Conservation of Energy, states that energy
cannot be created or destroyed in an isolated system. The second law of thermodynamics states
that the entropy of any isolated system always increases.

Q. 7. Which of the following is also called the First Law of Thermodynamics ?

(a) Boyle’s Law (b) Law of Conservation of Energy (c) Charles's Law
(d) Law of Conservation of Mass

Sol. (b) Law of Conservation of Energy

Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics is also known as the Law of Conservation of Energy.
It states that energy can neither be created nor be destroyed, energy can only be transferred or
changed from one form to another.

Q. 8. The innovative concept of using sunshine to keep houses warm in freezing winters is
called______.

(a) latent solar heating (b) conductive solar heating (c) radiation heating
(d) passive solar heating

Sol. (d) passive solar heating

Explanation: passive solar heating traps heat from the sun in the building and releases that heat
when the sun is absent.

Q. 9. The sun heats the earth through_______

(a) Convention (b) Radiation (c) Conduction (d) Fission

Sol. (b) Radiation

Explanation: The sun heats the earth through radiation. Since there is no medium (like the gas in
our atmosphere) in space, radiation is the primary way that heat travels in space. When the heat
reaches the earth it warms the molecules of the atmosphere, and they warm other molecules
and so on.

Q. 10. The process of transformation of a substance in a gaseous state into a liquid state due to
change in pressure or temperature of the substance is called_______.

(a) Evaporation. (b) Saturation (c) Condensation (d) transformation

Sol. C) Condensation

Explanation: Condensation is the change of the physical state of matter from the gas M phase
into the liquid phase, and is the reverse of vaporization.

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Fluid Mechanics
Q. 1. What will happen if a glass bottle is completely filled with water, sealed with a lid and put
into a freezer ?

(a) The glass bottle will be deformed due to atmospheric pressure on the bottle after the water
freezes.

(b) Eventually, the ice will burst the glass bottle (c) Nothing will happen. (d) Weight of the
glass bottle will increase after water freezes into ice

Sol. (b) Eventually, the ice will burst the glass bottle

Explanation: If a glass bottle is completely filled with water, sealed with a lid and put into the
freezer, it will eventually result in a burst of glass bottle.

Q. 2. Lactometers (used to determine the purity of a sample of milk) and hydrometers (used to
determine the density of liquids) are based on the _______ principle.

(a) Archimedes (b) special relativity (c) relativity (d) Uncertainty

Sol. (a) Archimedes

Explanation: Lactometers and Hydrometers work on the principle of Archimedes principle that a
solid suspended in a fluid will be buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced

Q. 3. What is the relative density of silver ?

(a) 9.5 (b) 7.2 (c) 10.4. (d) 10.8

Sol. (d) 10.8

Explanation: The relative density of silver is 10.8.Relative density of silver = density of silver/ density
of water

Q. 4. The buoyant force exerted on an object fully or partially submerged in a fluid medium ( gas
or liquid ) is equal to the weight of the fluid that the body displaces.” This principle is :

(a) Newton's second law of motion (b) Boyle's principle (c) Archimedes' principle
(d) Charles' principle

Sol. (c) Archimedes' principle

Explanation: Archimedes' principle states that the upward buoyant force that is exerted on a
body immersed in a fluid, whether fully or partially submerged, is equal to the weight of the fluid
that the body displaces.

Q. 5. When pressure is applied to a fluid, the pressure change is transmitted to every part of the
fluid without any loss. Which of the following laws explains this phenomenon ?

(a) Hooke’s Law (b) Bernoulli’s Law (c) Avogadro’s Law (d) Pascal’s Law

Sol. (d) Pascal’s Law

Explanation: According to Pascal's law, any force applied to a confined fluid is transmitted
uniformly in all directions throughout the fluid regardless of the shape.

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Q. 6. Which force helps swimmers float in water ?

(a) Muscular Force (b) Frictional Force (c) Buoyant Force (d) Magnetic Force

Sol. C) Buoyant Force

Explanation: Buoyant Force is an upward force exerted on an object that is partially or


completely immersed in water.

Q. 7. A fuse protects an electric circuit from

(a) inducing current (b) converting one form of energy into other (c) overloading
(d) carrying current

Sol. (c) overloading

Explanation: A fuse protects an electric circuit from overloading. It contains a thin strip of metal
that melts if the current flowing through that circuit exceeds the amount for which that fuse is
rated.

Q. 8. Why do water droplets always take a round shape when dropped onto plane surfaces ?

(a) Due to gravity (b) Due to atmospheric pressure (c) Due to presence of Eddy Currents in the air

(d) Due to exertion of surface tension by the molecules

Sol. (d) Due to exertion of surface tension by the molecules

Explanation: Surface tension is the tendency of liquid surfaces to shrink into the minimum surface
area possible. This inward forces on the surface molecules of the liquid droplet tend to cause the
surface to volume ratio as small as possible.

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Electric current and its effects
Q. 1. Which of the following instruments can detect the presence of a current in a circuit ?

(a) Galvanometer (b) Sphygmomanometer (c) Barometer (d) Magnetometer

Sol. (a) Galvanometer

Explanation: Galvanometer can detect the presence of a current in a circuit. A galvanometer is


an electromechanical instrument used for detecting and indicating an electric current. A
galvanometer works as an actuator, by producing a rotary deflection, in response to electric
current flowing through a coil in a constant magnetic field.

Q. 2. Which law of physics states that the force between the two electric charges reduces to a
quarter of its former value when the distance between them is doubled ?

(a) Coulomb's law (b) Stefan's law (c) Pascal's law (d) Hooke's law

Sol. (a) Coulomb's law

Explanation: Coulomb's law : The magnitude of the electrostatic force of attraction or repulsion
between two point charges is directly proportional to the product of the magnitudes of charges
and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. The force is along the
straight line joining them.

Q. 3. The rating for a fuse used in a household electric circuit is provided on the basis of:

(a) voltage (b) current (c) power (d) resistance

Sol. (b) current

Explanation: A fuse rating is the current need to blow (break) the fuse. When a fuse has blown, it
removes electrical power from an electrical circuit. The fuse rating is usually defined in

Q. 4. Among various electrical safety devices, one based on the heating effect of electric
current is called a:

(a) −10. (b) +1 (c) 0 (d) 10

Sol. C) 0

Explanation: An electric dipole is a pair of equal and opposite charges, therefore the total
charge in an electric dipole will be zero.

Q. 5. In the symbol for the electric cell, the thicker, shorter line represents the:

(a) positive terminal. (b) ring terminal (c) negative terminal (d) neutral terminal

Sol. (c) negative terminal

Explanation: In the symbol for the electric cell, the thicker, shorter line represents the negative
terminal. The longer, thinner vertical line in the symbol of a cell represents the positive terminal.

Q. 6. Who founded and named the science of electromagnetism?

(a) Michael Faraday (b) James Clerk (c) Hans Christian Oersted (d) Andre Marie Ampere

Sol. (d) Andre Marie Ampere

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Explanation: Electromagnetism is named by Andre Marie Ampere. Michael Faraday discovered
electromagnetic induction , diamagnetism and electrolysis.

Q. 7. Which of the following are the highest-frequency electromagnetic waves?

(a) Gamma Rays (b) Radio Waves (c) Ultraviolet Rays (d) Microwaves

Sol. (a) Gamma Rays

Explanation: Gamma rays have the highest frequencies, the shortest wavelengths, and the
highest energies. Radio waves have the lowest frequencies, longest wavelengths, and lowest
energies of EM radiation.

Q. 8. Ohm’s Law states that:

(a) Electric current = Voltage/ Resistance (b) Power = Voltage + Current


(c) Power= Voltage Current ×. (d) Electric current = Resistance/ Voltage

Sol. (a) Electric current = Voltage/ Resistance

Explanation: Electric current = Voltage/ Resistance: Ohm's law states that the electrical Current (I)
flowing in a circuit is proportional to the voltage (V) and inversely proportional to the resistance
(R).

Q. 9. Magnetic Field inside the solenoid is ______.

(a) increases from one end to another (b) zero at the middle
(c) varies from point to point (d) uniform

Sol. (d) uniform

Explanation: The magnetic field inside a solenoid is proportional to the current, number of turns
and inversely proportional to length. so , there is no direct relationship between the position of the
solenoid and the magnetic field, so the magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform throughout

Q. 10. Which of the following is NOT a primary force which influences ocean currents ?

(a) Magnetic fields of the earth (b) Heating by the sun (c) Gravity (d) Coriolis force

Sol. (a) Magnetic fields of the earth

Explanation: Magnetic fields of the earth. Ocean currents can be caused by wind(coriolis force),
density differences in water masses caused by temperature and salinity variations, gravity, and
events such as earthquakes or storms.

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Force and Pressure
Q. 1. Which instrument is used to measure the level of humidity?

(a) Fathometer (b) Galvanometer (c) Hygrometer (d) Hydrometer

Sol. (c) Hygrometer

Explanation: Fathometer is used in measuring the depth of water.

 Galvanometer is used for detecting and indicating an electric current.


 Hygrometer is used to measure the level of humidity.
 Hydrometer is used to measure the relative density of liquids based on the concept of
buoyancy.

Q. 2. With what do you divide thrust in a liquid to obtain the value of pressure?

(a) Volume (b) Area (c) Density (d) Mass

Sol. (b) Area

Explanation: Thrust acting per unit area is known as pressure i.e. Pressure= 𝑇ℎ𝑟𝑢𝑠𝑡 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎

Q. 3. ______ is the external agency applied on a body to change its state of rest or uniform
motion.

(a) Heat (b) Power (c) Energy. (d) Force

Sol. (d) Force

Explanation: Force is the external agency applied on a body to change its state of rest or uniform
motion. The SI unit of force is Newton.

Q. 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of conservative force?

(a) Energy is dissipated as heat energy. (b) Work done by it in a round trip is not zero.
(c) Work done by it depends upon the path (d) Work done by it is completely recoverable.

Sol. (d) Work done by it is completely recoverable

Explanation: ‘Work done by it is completely recoverable’ is a characteristic of a conservative


force. A conservative force is one in which work done by or against it depends only on the
starting and ending points of a motion. It does not depend upon the path taken during the
work. The stored energy is recoverable as work.

Q. 5. According to ______ , pressure is equal to the force divided by the area on which it acts.

(a) Pascal’s Law (b) Hooke’s Law (c) Stefan Boltzmaan’s Law (d) Newton’s Law

Sol. (a) Pascal’s Law

Explanation: Pascal’s Law states that pressure is equal to the force divided by the area on which
it acts. P = F/A

 Hooke’s Law states that the displacement or size of the deformation is directly proportional
to the deforming force or load. It is also known as the law of elasticity.
 Stefan Boltzmaan’s Law states that the amount of radiation is directly proportional to the
fourth power of temperature.

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 Newton gave three laws of motion.

Q. 6. Inertia is proportional to:

(a) Mass (b) Weight (c) Length. (d) Height

Sol. (a) Mass

Explanation: Inertia is a characteristic of an object due to which object resists its position. Inertia is
directly proportional to mass.

Q. 7. Which of the following equations represents Pressure in Physics ?

(a) Mass/Acceleration (b) Force / Area (c) Mass × Acceleration (d) Force × Area

Sol. (b) Force / Area

Explanation: Pressure is defined as force exerted per unit area. P = 𝐹 𝐴

Q. 8. A barometer is used to measure which one of the following?

(a) Current (b) Atmospheric Pressure (c) Humidity (d) Altitude

Sol. (b) Atmospheric Pressure

Explanation: Barometer is used to measure Atmospheric pressure. Humidity is measured by a


Hygrometer. Altitude is measured by Altimeters. Current is measured by Ammeter.

Q. 9. Which of the following is NOT a scalar quantity ?

(a) Volume (b) Temperature (c) Torque (d) Time

Sol. C) Torque

Explanation: Torque is a vector quantity having both magnitude and direction.

Q. 10. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) If the constituents of the medium oscillate along the direction of wave propagation, we call
the wave a transverse wave.

(b) The minimum distance between two points in a wave having the same phase at a particular
instant of time is called the wave length.

(c) If the constituents of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, we call the wave a longitudinal wave.

(d) Frequency of a wave is the number of oscillations of each constituent particle in the
vibrating medium per minute.

Sol. (b) The minimum distance between two points in a wave having the same phase at a
particular instant of time is called the wave length.

Explanation: The correct statement is that the minimum distance between two points in a wave
having the same phase at a M particular instant of time is called the wavelength.

 A transverse wave is a wave whose oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation.
 A longitudinal wave is a wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the
direction of wave propagation.

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 The frequency of a wave is the number of oscillations of each constituent particle in the
vibrating medium per second.

Q. 11. The inertia of an object is measured by its ______.

(a) volume (b) speed (c) mass (d) area

Sol. (c) mass

Explanation: The inertia of an object is measured by its mass. Basically, our idea of inertia goes
back to Sir Issac Newton's first two laws of physics:

(a). An object at rest tends to stay at rest.

(b). An object in motion tends to stay in motion.

Q. 12. Friction depends on the smoothness of the surfaces. The force of friction always ______ the
applied forces.

(a) reflects. (b) conducts (c) opposes (d) adds up to

Sol. C) opposes

Explanation: Friction depends on the smoothness of the surfaces. The force of friction always
opposes the applied forces. Friction is the force resisting the relative motion of solid surfaces, fluid
layers, and material elements sliding against each other.

Friction force:

f=friction force, =coefficient of µ friction, N=normal force

Q. 13. What is the melting point of ice at the sea-level at normal atmospheric pressure and at 45
degree latitude?

(a) 256.14 K. (b) 273.16 K (c) 245.18 K (d) 222.14 K

Sol. (b) 273.16 K

Explanation: The melting point of ice at the sea level at normal atmospheric pressure and at 45-
degree latitude is 273.16 K( 32°F (0°C). At sea level, pure water boils at 212 °F (100°C). At the
lower atmospheric pressure on the top of Mount Everest, pure water boils at about 154 °F (68°C).
In the deep oceans, under immense pressure, water remains liquid at temperatures of 750°F
(400°C) around hydrothermal vents.

Q. 14. The sound of thunder is heard much later than the flash of light is seen. What does this
show?

(a). The speed of sound is much less than the speed of light.

(b) The speed of sound is thrice the speed of light.

(c) The speed of sound is twice the speed of light.

(d) The speed of sound is same as the speed of light.

Sol. (a) The speed of sound is much less than the speed of light

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Explanation: The sound of thunder is heard much later than the flash of light is seen. This shows the
speed of sound is much M less than the speed of light. The speed of sound in the air is about 343
metres per second. Light from a stationary source travels at 300,000 km/sec

(186,000 miles/sec). Light from Moon to Earth: 1.3 s, from Sun to Earth (1 AU): 8.3 min.

Q. 15. Which of the following quantities is measured using a torsion balance?

(a) Magnetism (b) Charge (c) Pressure (d) Force

Sol. (d) Force

Explanation: Torsion balance is used to measure small forces. It is based on the principle that a
wire or thread resists twisting with a force that is proportional to the stress.

Q. 16. If two forces act on an object from opposite directions, then the magnitude of the net
force acting on it is the ______ of the magnitudes of the two forces.

(a) product. (b) sum (c) ratio. (d) difference

Sol. 78.(d) difference

Explanation: If two forces act on an object from opposite directions, then the magnitude of the
net force acting on it is the difference of the magnitudes of the two forces.

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Sound
Q. 1. In which medium does sound travel faster ?

(a) Gas (b) Liquid (c) Solid (d) Vacuum

Sol. (c) Solid

Explanation: Solids are packed together tighter than liquids and gases, hence sound travels fastest
in solids. The distance in liquids is shorter than in gases, but longer than in solids. Liquids are more M
dense than gases, but less than solids, so sound travels second fast in liquids. In gases, sound
travels the slowest because they are the least dense, the molecules in M gases are very far apart,
compared to solids and liquids.

Q. 2. Bats search out prey and fly in dark night by emitting and detecting reflections of which
type of Sound waves ?

(a) Sonic waves (b) Hypersonic waves (c) Subsonic waves (d) Ultrasonic waves

Sol. (d) Ultrasonic waves

Explanation: Bats use to detect their prey with the help of Ultrasonic waves. They emit and collect
the rays emitted by them. If the complete rays are collected then there is prey in the path of the
bat. Otherwise there is no prey in its path.

Q3. Which of the following M characteristics of sound is measured in hertz (Hz) ?

(a) Frequency of the sound (b) Intensity of the sound (c) Wavelength of the sound
(d) Loudness of the sound

Sol. (a) Frequency of the sound

Explanation: Frequency of the sound is measured in hertz (Hz).

Q. 4. If an object executes 10 oscillations per second, then its frequency in kilohertz is equal to:

(a) 1 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.1 (d) 10

Sol. (b) 0.01

Explanation:.

1 kilohertz = 1000 oscillation per second

10 oscillation per second = = 0.01 10 1000 Kilohertz

Q. 5. Which of the following creatures use ultrasonic sound to catch their prey ?

(a) Bats. (b) Cats (c) Hawks (d) Dogs

Sol. (a) Bats

Explanation: The bats emit ultrasonic waves of frequency 20 to 100 Kilohertz and returning echo of
the sound waves give information about prey.

Q. 6. Sound cannot travel through______.

(a) vacuum (b)soil (c)water (d)fire

Sol. (a) vacuum

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Explanation: Sound needs medium to travel. It does not travel in vacuum

Q. 7. The audible range of sound for human beings is from::

(a) 20 Hz to 200 kHz (b) 10 Hz to 100 kHz (c) 20 Hz to 20 kHz (d) 10 Hz to 10kHz

Sol. (c) 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Explanation: audible range of sound for human beings is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Q. 8. The audible range of sound for an average adult human being is ______.

(a) 2 Hz - 20000 Hz (b) 2 Hz - 2000 Hz (c) 20 Hz - 2000 Hz. (d) 20 Hz - 20000 Hz

Sol. (d) 20 Hz - 20000 Hz

Explanation: 20 Hz - 20000 Hz

Explanation:- The audible range of sound for an average adult human being is 20 Hz - 20000Hz.
More than 20000Hz sound is considered damaging.

Q. 9. When the speed of an object exceeds the velocity of sound, Then it is said to be moving
with ______ speed.

(a) Subsonic Speed (b) Supersonic speed (c) Ultrasonic Speed (d) 1 Mach speed

Sol. (b) Supersonic speed

Q. 10. What is the velocity of sound in air ?

(a)220 m/sec. (b)232 m/sec (c)343 m/sec (d)110 m/sec

Sol. C) 343 m/sec

Explanation: The speed of sound is the distance travelled per unit time by a sound wave as it
propagates through an elastic medium. At 20 °C, the speed of sound in air is about 343 metres per
second, or a kilometre in 2.9 s or a mile in 4.7 s.

Q. 11. Vibration of which among the following produces only odd harmonics?

(a) An air column in a closed organ pipe

(b) A vibrating string fixed at two

(c) An air column in an open organ pipe

(d) A vibrating rod fixed at two ends

Sol. (a) An air column in a closed organ pipe

Explanation: In the first mode of vibration of the air column, there is one node and one antinode.
In the second mode of vibration of the air column, two nodes and two antinodes are formed. This
shows that only odd harmonics are present in the modes of vibrations of the air column closed at
one end.

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Gravitation
Q. 1. Which instrument was used to detect gravitational waves for the very first time?

(a) WIGO (b) LIGO (c) TRIGO (d) GIGO

Sol. (b) LIGO

Explanation: LIGO was used to detect gravitational waves for the very first time. The Laser
Interferometer

 Gravitational-Wave Observatory is a large-scale physics experiment and observatory to


detect cosmic gravitational waves and to develop gravitational-wave observations as an
astronomical tool.

Q.2. Which among the following is an ‘action-at-a-distance’ force?

(a) Friction (b) Tension (c) Gravitation (d) Pull

Sol. (c) Gravitation

Explanation: Action at a distance forces are those forces which can act even when the bodies
are not in the physical contact. Ex. Gravitational force magnetic force. Friction, tension and pull
are contact forces. They will only act when the bodies are in physical contact.

Q. 3. Who among the following is credited with postulating three laws of planetary motion?

(a) Isaac Newton (b) Tycho Brahe (c) Johannes Kepler (d) Galileo Galilei

Sol. (c) Johannes Kepler

Explanation: Johannes Kepler proposed three laws of planetary motion. The three laws state that:

1.The orbit of a planet is an ellipse with the Sun at one of the two foci.

2. A line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas in equal intervals of time.

3. The square of a planet's orbital period is proportional to the cube of the length of the semi-
major axis of its orbit.

Q. 4. Who among the following was the first to conclude that in vacuum all objects fall with the
same acceleration and reach the ground at the same time?

(a) Thomas Alva Edison (b) Galileo Galilei (c) Albert Einstein (d) Isaac Newton

Sol. (b) Galileo Galilei

Explanation: Galileo Galilei was the first to conclude that in a vacuum all objects fall with the
same acceleration g and reach the ground at the same time. Galileo Galilei was from modern-
day Italy and has been called the father of observational astronomy and modern physics.

Q. 5. Kepler’s first law is known law of _______ ?

(a) Ellipse (b) Harmonise (c) Motion (d) Equal Area

Sol. (a) Ellipse

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Explanation: Kepler’s law is also known as the law of Ellipse. His laws are related to the planetary
motif the earth and planets with sun at the centre. The shape of the orbit is elliptical so, kepler’s
law is also known as the law of Ellipse.

Q. 6. Once a satellite has been launched into orbit, the only force governing its motion is the force
of ______ .

(a)gravity (b) elasticity (c) friction (d) fuel drive

Sol. (a) gravity

Explanation: Once a satellite launched into orbit, the only force governing the motion of a satellite
is the force of gravity.

Q. 7. Which of the following helps keep earth's atmosphere in place?

(a) Gravitational force of earth (b) Rotation of earth on its axis


(c) Gravitational force of the sun (d) Gravitational force of the moon

Sol. (a) Gravitational force of earth

Explanation: Gravitation is a natural phenomenon by which all things with mass and energy
including planets, stars, galaxies and even light are brought towards each other. On earth,
gravity gives weight to physical objects and the Moon’s gravity causes oceanic tides.

Q. 8. What is the value of g ? (g stands for acceleration due to gravitational force of the earth

(a) 5.2 m/s 2 (b) 9.8 m/s 2 (c) 7.8 m/s 2 b. (d) 6.7 m/s 2

Sol. (b) 9.8 m/s 2

Explanation: The value of g is 9.8 m/s 2

Q. 9. Which law explains about the tides due to the moon and the sun?

(a) Law of gravitation (b) Law of reflection (c) Law of inertia (d) Law of refraction

Sol. (a) Law of gravitation

Explanation: The Law of gravitation explains about the tides due to the moon and the sun.
Newton's law of universal gravitation is usually stated as that every particle attracts every other
particle in the universe with a force that is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.

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Work and Energy
Q. 1. Which of the following is an example of gravitational potential energy?

(a) Moving car (b) Bullet fired from a gun (c) Water that is behind a dam
(d) Foot kicking a ball

Sol. C) Water that is behind a dam

Explanation: ‘Water that is behind a dam’ is an example of gravitational potential energy.


Potential energy is the stored energy of position possessed by an object.

Q. 2. Mechanical energy is the sum of potential energy and ______ energy.

(a) kinetic (b) heat (c) electrical (d) chemical

Sol. (a) kinetic

Explanation: Mechanical energy is the sum of potential energy and kinetic energy.

Q. 3. The English physicist James Prescott Joule outlined the basis of the ______.

(a) principle of conservation (b) phenomenon of gravitation


(c) theory of vibrating receptacle (d) concept of diffusion of gases

Sol. (a) principle of conservation

Explanation: The English physicist James Prescott Joule outlined the basis of the principle of
conservation which in turn led to the development of the first law of thermodynamics.

Q. 4. Which of the following quantities is NOT a vector quantity ?

(a)Work (b)Velocity (c)Acceleration (d)Force

Sol. (a) Work

Explanation: Quantity which has both magnitude and direction is vector quantity. In the given
option except work all quantities have magnitude and direction.

Q. 5. Which of the following energy is NOT from sea?

(a) Wave energy (b) Geothermal energy (c) Ocean Thermal energy (d) Tidal energy

Sol. (b) Geothermal energy

Explanation: Geothermal energy is heat within the earth surface.

Q. 6. Power exerted by an object moving in a straight line is equal to Force multiplied by ______.

(a) Velocity (b) Work (c) Acceleration. (d) Displacement

Sol. (a) Velocity

Explanation: Power exerted by an Object moving in a straight line = Force × Velocity

Q. 7. The energy derived from the heat of the earth is called _______

(a) Geothermal Energy (b)SolarEnergy (c) Biogas. (d) Tidal Energy

Sol. (a) Geothermal Energy

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Explanation: Geothermal energy is heat derived within the sub-surface of the earth. Water and/or
steam carry the geothermal energy to the Earth's surface.it is also used to produce electricity.

Q. 8. What is represented by the product of force with displacement in the direction of force?

(a) Momentum (b) Power (c) Impulse (d) Work

Sol. (d) Work

Explanation: Work is represented by the product of force with displacement in the direction of the
force. The SI unit of work is Joule(J).

Q. 9. Kinetic and potential energies of a body are the components of its ______ energy.

(a) chemical. (b) electrical (c) mechanical (d) heat

Sol. (c) mechanical

Explanation: The kinetic and potential energies of a body are the components of its mechanical
energy. The potential energy of an object depends on the position of the body, kinetic energy is
the energy of motion for that same body.

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Waves
Q. 1. ______ are also known as heat waves.

(a) X-rays (b) Light waves (c) Infrared waves (d) Gamma rays

Sol. (c) Infrared waves

Explanation: When materials are exposed to the infrared radiation, the water molecules of the
material absorb this radiation. This results in the increase of thermal motion of the water molecules
in that material. This is the reason why infrared radiations are also known as heat waves.

Q. 2. For a wave, wavelength divided by the time period is equal to

(a) amplitude (b) phase difference (c) frequency (d) wave velocity

Sol. (d) wave velocity

Explanation: Wavelength divided by the time period is equal to wave velocity. Wave velocity
means distance traversed by a periodic, or cyclic, motion per unit time. The velocity of a wave is
equal to the product of its wavelength and frequency.

Q. 3. What is the rate at which a wave moves through the water, and is measured in knots?

(a) Wave height (b) Wave crest and trough (c) Wave frequency (d) Wave speed

Sol. (d) Wave speed

Explanation:

 Wave speed - It is the rate at which the wave moves through the water. It is measured in
knots.
 Wave height - the vertical distance between the trough of a wave and the following
crest.
 Wave crest and trough - A crest point on a wave is the maximum value of upward
displacement within a cycle. A crest is a point on a surface wave where the displacement
of the medium is at a maximum. A trough is the opposite of a crest, so the minimum or
lowest point in a cycle.
 Wave frequency - The number of waves that pass a fixed point in unit time; also, the
number of cycles or vibrations undergone during one unit of time by a body in periodic
motion.

Q. 4. The waves used in radar systems are _______ waves.

(a) ultraviolet (b) infrared (c) micro (d) radio

Sol. (c) micro

Explanation: Microwaves are generally used in RADAR systems due to the fact that they have
longer wavelengths and low frequencies. So they can be focussed along a straight line without
much deviation.

Q.5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sound waves ?

(a) Velocity (b) Nature (c) Wavelength (d) Amplitude

Sol. (b) Nature

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Explanation: Sound wave can be described by five characteristics: Wavelength, Amplitude, Time-
Period, Frequency and Velocity or Speed.

Q. 6. What is the unit of loudness ?

(a) Bel (b) Phon (c) Decibel (d) All of the above

Sol. (d) All of the above

Explanation: The sensation of a sound perceived in an ear is measured by another term called
loudness which depends on the intensity of sound and sensitiveness of the ear. Unit of loudness is a
bel. A practical unit of loudness is the decibel (dB) which is 1/10th of bel. Another unit of loudness
is phon.

Q. 7. _____ waves include visible light waves, X-rays,gamma rays, radio waves, microwaves,
ultraviolet and infrared waves.

(a) Mechanical (b) Magnetic (c) Electromagnetic (d) Electric

Sol. (c) Electromagnetic

Explanation: Electromagnetic waves include visible light waves, X-rays, gamma rays, radio waves,
microwaves, ultraviolet and infrared waves.

Q. 8. A simple pendulum consists of a small metallic ball or a piece of stone suspended from a
rigid stand by a thread. The metallic ball is called the ______ of the pendulum.

(a) bob (b) knob (c) hinge (d) head

Sol. (a) bob

Explanation: A simple pendulum consists of a small metallic ball or a piece of stone suspended
from a rigid stand by a thread. The metallic ball is called the bob of the pendulum.

Q. 9. The ‘to and fro’ or ‘back and forth’ motion of an object is termed as:

(a) convulsion (b) impulse (c) swing (d) vibration

Sol. (d) vibration

Explanation: The ‘to and fro’ or ‘back and forth’ motion of an object is termed as vibration.
Convulsion- a sudden violent movement of the body that you cannot control. Impulse is a force
that starts a body into motion.

Q. 10. The SI unit for frequency is ______.

(a) ohm (b) hertz (c) volt (d) joule

Sol. (b) hertz

Explanation: The SI unit for frequency is hertz. The ohm (symbol: Ω) is the SI-derived unit of
electrical resistance. The volt (symbolized V) is the Standard International (SI) unit of electric
potential or electromotive force. The joule is a derived unit of energy.

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Radioactivity
Q. 1. With which of the following type L of fuels is the device named ‘tokamak’ associated?

(a) Hydel (b) Tidal (c) Geothermal. (d) Atomic

Sol. (d) Atomic

Explanation: The device named ‘tokamak’ is associated with Atomic fuel. Tokamak is a device
used in nuclear-fusion research for magnetic confinement of plasma. The fusion reaction in the
Tokamak will be powered with deuterium and tritium, two isotopes of hydrogen.

Q. 2. ________ received the very first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901 for his discovery of X - rays.

(a) Wilhelm Rontgen (b) William Thomson (c) Louis Pasteur (d) William Crookes

Sol. (a) Wilhelm Rontgen

Explanation: Wilhelm Rontgen discovered the X-rays. He got the first nobel prize in physics in 1901.
William Thomson invented the international system of Absolute temperature.

Q. 3. Hydrogen Bomb is based on which reaction ?

(a) Nuclear Fusion (b) Heavy water Reaction (c) Nuclear Fission (d) Addition Reaction

Sol. (a) Nuclear Fusion

Explanation: Hydrogen bombs are based on the principle of Nuclear Fusion. Nuclear fusion is a
reaction in which two different nuclei fuses together to form a bigger and heavier nuclei.

Q. 4. Name the high frequency radiation produced in nuclear reactions and also emitted by
radioactive nuclei that is used in medicine to destroy cancer cells.

(a) X-rays (b) Gamma rays (c) Ultraviolet waves (d) Light waves

Sol. (b) Gamma rays

Explanation: Gamma rays are the high frequency radiation produced in nuclear reactions and
also emitted by radioactive nuclei that is used in medicine to destroy cancer cells. Gamma rays
have very high penetrating power.

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Discoveries
Q. 1. Who discovered radium?

(a) Abdus Salam (b) Alexander Fleming (c) Pierre and Marie Currie (d) Ronald Ross

Sol. (c) Pierre and Marie Currie

Explanation: Pierre and Marie Currie Explanation: Radium is alkaline earth metals with symbol Ra
and atomic number 88.

Q. 2. The Wright brothers completed the world’s first successful controlled powered flight in:

(a)1908 (b)1909 (c)1911 (d)1903

Sol. (d) 1903

Explanation: On December 17, 1903, Wilbur and Orville Wright made four brief flights at Kitty Hawk
with their first powered aircraft.

Q. 3. The names of Wright brothers M credited with inventing the aeroplane were:

(a)William and Oliver (b)William and Orville (c)Wilbur and Orville (d)Wilbur and Oliver

Sol. (c) Wilbur and Orville

Explanation: Wilbur and Orville Wright made four brief flights at Kitty Hawk with M their first
powered aircraft.

Q. 4. Who invented the atomic battery in 1912 ?

(a) Alessandro Volta (b) Henry Moseley (c)Benjamin-Franklin (d) Louis Pasteur

Sol. (b) Henry Moseley

Explanation: Henry Moseley invented the atomic battery in 1912.

Q. 5. Who is known as the ‘Father of Indian Nuclear Programme’?

(a) CV Raman. (b) Vikram Sarabhai (c) Homi Jehangir Bhabha (d) APJ Abdul Kalam

Sol. (c) Homi Jehangir Bhabha

Explanation: Homi Jehangir Bhabha was an Indian nuclear physicist, and also known as the
‘Father of Indian Nuclear Programme’.

Q. 6. The spectrum of light was first explained by____.

(a) Neils Bohr (b) Issac Newton (c) Albert Einstein (d) Galileo Galilei

Sol. (b) Issac Newton

Explanation: Isaac Newton discovered that prisms can disassemble and reassemble white light
into different light spectrums.

Q. 7. Name the physicist who is credited with the discovery of the Neutron. This 1932 discovery led
to his winning the Nobel Prize?

(a) Max Planck (b) James Chadwick (c) J.S. Fleming (d) Enrico Fermi

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Sol. (b) James Chadwick

Explanation: Neutron was discovered by James Chadwick in 1932. Then in 1935, he was conferred
with nobel prize.

Q. 8. The American scientist Edwin Hubble's name is associated with which of these theories?

(a) Lattice Gauge Theory (b)Quantum Chromodynamics Theory


(c) Partial Coherence of Light Theory (d) The Big Bang Theory

Sol. (d) The Big Bang Theory

Explanation: Edwin Hubble is associated with the Big Bang theory. He is an American Astronomer
and played a crucial role in establishing the field of extragalactic astronomy and observational
cosmology.

Q. 9. Who among the following scientists invented dynamite?

(a) Alfred Nobel (b) Benjamin Franklin (c) Rudolf Diesel (d) Thomas Alva Edison

Sol. (a) Alfred Nobel

Explanation: Alfred Nobel invented dynamite.

Q. 10. What did Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discover?

(a) Thermodynamics (b) X-Rays (c) Electric bulb (d) Conservation of electric charge

Sol. (b) X-Rays

Explanation: Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen was a German mechanical engineer and physicist who in
1895 produced and detected electromagnetic radiation in a wavelength range known as X-rays,
an achievement that earned him the first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901.

Q. 11. Who among the following scientists invented the Cotton Gin?

(a) George Washington Carver (b) Sonny Perdue (c) Eli Whitney
(d) Norman Borlaugh

Sol. C) Eli Whitney

Explanation: In 1794, Eli Whitney invented the cotton gin, a machine that revolutionized the
production of cotton by greatly speeding up the process of removing seeds from cotton fiber.

Q. 12. Who among the following scientists invented Kevlar?

(a) Marry Anderson (b) Stephanie Louise Kwolek (c) Steve Wozniak
(d) George Eastman

Sol. (b) Stephanie Louise Kwolek

Explanation: Stephanie Louise Kwolek Explanation: Stephanie Louise Kwolek was an American
chemist who is known for inventing Kevlar. Stephanie Kwolek M was a chemist at the DuPont
company in M Wilmington, Delaware, when she invented the stronger-than-steel fibre in 1965.

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Q. 13. Which scientist won the Nobel prize in Physics in 1918 for the discovery of ‘Energy Quanta’?

(a) Louis de Broglie (b) Werner Heisenberg (c) James Chadwick


(d) Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck

Sol. (d) Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck

Explanation: Max Karl Ernst Ludwig Planck won the Nobel prize in Physics in 1918 for the discovery
of ‘Energy Quanta’.

Q. 14. In the context of the contribution of scientists for which they were awarded Nobel Prize,
which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

(a) Light scattering – CV Raman (b) Diffraction of X-rays – Max Von Laue
(c) Zeeman Effect – Hendrik Lorentz (d) Quantum mechanics – Galileo Galilei

Sol. (d) Quantum mechanics – Galileo Galilei

Explanation: Werner Karl Heisenberg received the Nobel Prize in Physics 1932 for the creation of
quantum mechanics.

Q. 15. Which scientist/s proposed the theory of relativity?

(a) Watson and Crick (b) Albert Einstein (c) John Dalton (d) Charles Darwin

Sol. (b) Albert Einstein

Explanation: Theory of relativity was proposed by Albert Einstein. It encompasses two interrelated
theories: special relativity and general relativity. Special relativity applies to all physical
phenomena in the absence of gravity. General relativity explains the law of gravitation and its
relation to other forces of nature.

Q. 16. What do you call the effect of splitting of a spectral line into several components in the
presence of a static magnetic field?

(a) Bezold effect (b) Domino effect (c) Askaryan effect (d) Zeeman effect

Sol. (d) Zeeman effect

Explanation: The effect of splitting a spectral line into several components in the presence of a
static magnetic field is called the Zeeman effect. It is named after the Dutch physicist Pieter
Zeeman, who discovered it in 1896 and received a Nobel prize for this discovery.

Q. 17. Who invented the capillary feed fountainpen?

(a) David Hughes (b) Ian Donald (c) LE Waterman (d) Alfred Nobel

Sol. (c) LE Waterman

Explanation: LE Waterman invented the capillary feed fountain pen. Alfred Nobel's most famous
invention was dynamite. Ian Donald was an obstetrician who developed ultrasound diagnostics.
David Hughes invented the Carbon Microphone.

Q. 18. Superconductivity was discovered by ______, who was also awarded the Noble Prize for
Physics in 1911.

(a) Robert Bunsen (b) Johannes Diderik van der Waals (c) Heike Kamerlingh Onnes
(d) Gustav Kirchhoff

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Sol. (c) Heike Kamerlingh Onnes

Explanation: Superconductivity was discovered by Heike Kamerlingh Onnes, who was also
awarded the Nobel Prize for Physics in 1911. When he cooled the Mercury to the temperature of
liquid helium, 4 degrees Kelvin, its resistance suddenly disappeared.

Q. 19. The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic induction is based on a long series of
experiments carried out by ______.

(a) Einstein (b) Rutherford (c) Planck and Fermi (d) Faraday and Henry

Sol. (d) Faraday and Henry

Explanation: The discovery and understanding of electromagnetic induction is based on a long


series of experiments carried out by Faraday and Henry in 1831. The principle of electromagnetic
induction states that the EMF induced in a loop by a changing magnetic flux is equal to the rate
of change of magnetic flux threading the loop.

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Units and measurements
Q. 1.Which of the following is the SI unit of temperature?

(a) Kelvin (b) Reaumur scale (c) Candla (d) Ampere

Sol. (a) Kelvin

Explanation: The SI base unit for thermodynamic temperature T is kelvin (lower case) with the
symbol K (upper case).

Q. 2. Identify the unit of measuring the intensity of sound.

(a) Knots (b) Ampere (c) Candela (d) Decibels

Sol. (d) Decibels

Explanation: Intensity of sound is measured in Decibels. The difference between the loudest and
faintest sounds that human can hear is about 120 dB, a range of one-million in amplitude. The
range of human hearing is generally considered to be 20 Hz to 20 kHz, but it is far more sensitive to
sounds between 1 kHz and 4 kHz.

Q. 3. The SI unit of radioactivity is ____________.

(a) ampere (b) becquerel (c) decibel. (d) cobalt

Sol. (b) becquerel

Explanation:

 SI unit of radioactivity is Becquerel.


 SI unit of Sound is Decibel.
 SI unit of Current is Ampere.
 Cobalt is a metal.

Q. 4. A nautical mile is equal to __________.

(a) 2000 metres. (b) 1852 metres (c) 1672 metres (d) 2450 metres

Sol. (b) 1852 metres

Explanation: Nautical mile is used in air and water navigation as a unit of measurement.

Q. 5. Hertz is the SI unit of:

(a)Frequency (b) Force (c) Pressure. (d) Energy

Sol. (a) Frequency

Explanation:

 SI unit of Frequency - Hertz (Hz)


 SI unit of Force - Newton(N)
 SI unit of Pressure - pascal (P)
 SI unit of Energy - joule (J)

Q. 6. What is the SI unit of pressure?

(a) Ohm (b) Pascal (c) Volt (d) Ampere

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Sol. (b) Pascal

Explanation:

 SI unit of pressure - Pascal


 SI unit of resistance - Ohm
 SI unit of voltage - Volt
 SI unit of current - Ampere

Q. 7. Which of the following is the SI unit of temperature ?

(a) Kelvin (b) Réaumur scale (c) Candela (d) Ampere

Sol. (a) Kelvin

Explanation: Kelvin -SI unit of temperature Réaumur scale - temperature measuring scale

 Ampere -SI unit of electric current


 Candela -SI unit of luminous intensity

Q. 8. Which of the following is the unit of Magnetic field strength?

(a)Gauss (b)Ohm (c)Tesla (d)Weber

Sol. (c) Tesla

Explanation:

 unit of Magnetic field strength - Tesla


 unit of measurement of magnetic induction - Gauss
 unit of Resistance - Ohm
 unit of magnetic flux - Weber

Q. 9. Which of the following has an odometer ?

(a)Water heater (b)Car (c)Blood pressure monitoring device (d)Air pump

Sol. (b) Car

Explanation: An odometer or odograph is a device used for measuring the distance travelled by a
vehicle, such as a bicycle or car.

Q. 10. Which of the following quantities have its SI unit named after Blaise Pascal?

(a) Energy (b) Pressure (c) Work (d) Power

Sol. (b) Pressure

Explanation: SI unit of Pressure - Pascal

Q. 11. What is the unit of Power of a lens ?

(a) Joule (b) Dioptre (c) KWH. (d) Watt

Sol. (b) Dioptre

Explanation:

 Unit of Power of a lens - Dioptre


 Unit of Energy - Joule

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Q. 12. The power of a lens is measured by:

(a) Ampere. (b) Kelvin (c) Candela (d) Diopter

Sol. (d) Diopter

Explanation Power of the lens is measured in the diopter. Diopter is equal to the reciprocal of focal
length of the lens.

13. Which of the following instruments measures infra-red radiation ?

(a) Phenograph (b) Pyrheliometer (c) Cathetometer (d) Bolometer

Sol. (d) Bolometer

Explanation: Bolometer-It is a device to measure infra-red radiation.

 pyrheliometer-A pyrheliometer is an instrument designed specifically to measure the direct


beam solar irradiance.
 Cathetometer-It is a device used for accurate measurement of small vertical distances.

Q. 14. Identify the SI unit of electrical resistance.

(a)Ohm (b)Watt (c)Coulomb (d)Ampere

Sol. (a) Ohm

Explanation:

 SI unit of electrical resistance – Ohm


 SI unit of power- Watt
 SI unit of charge - Coulomb
 SI unit of current - Ampere

Q. 15. Horsepower has how many Watt ?

(a) 766 Watt (b) 746 Watt (c) 756 Watt (d) 736 Watt

Sol. (b) 746 Watt

Explanation: Horsepower (hp) is a unit of measurement of power, or the rate at which work is
done, usually in reference to the output of engines or motors.

Q. 16. 1 pound = _____ ounces.

(a) 16 (b) 18 (c) 12 (d) 20

Sol. (a) 16

Explanation: The pound is a unit of mass. 1 pound is equal to 16 ounces.

Q. 17. What is the S.I. unit of Energy ?

(a)Joule (b)Newton (c)Hertz (d)Pascal

Sol. (a) Joule

Explanation:

 S.I. unit of frequency – Hertz


 S.I. unit of pressure - Pascal

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Q. 18. In Physics, what is Hubble Constant ?

(a)Total energy of Electromagnetic radiations

(b)Permittivity in the free space

(c)Unit of measurement which explains the expansion of universe

(d)Velocity of light in vacuum

Sol. (c) Unit of measurement which explains the expansion of universe

Explanation: The Hubble Constant is the unit of measurement used to describe the expansion of
the universe. The cosmos has been getting bigger since the Big Bang kick-started the growth
about 13.82 billion years ago.

Q. 19. What is the SI unit of Momentum ?

(a) Ampere (b) Kg m/sec (c) Joule (d) Kg m

Sol. (b) Kg m/sec

Explanation: Kg m/sec is the SI unit of Momentum.

 Ampere is the SI unit of current


 Joule is the SI unit of Energy

Q. 20. Which of the following physical quantity - SI unit pairs is correctly matched ?

(a) Power-Kilogram (b) Inductance-Henry (c) Capacitance-Ohm (d) Force-Newton

Sol. (d) Force-Newton

Explanation: Force - Newton

 Power - Watt
 Inductance - henry
 Capacitance - Farad

Q. 21. At which temperature are Fahrenheit and Celsius equal?

(a) -30 (b) -40 (c) -10 (d) -20

Sol. (b) -40

Explanation:

C = F × (9/5) + 32

When both are same let them x

x = 1.8x +32

x = -40

Q. 22. The SI (international system of units) unit of length is ________

(a) metre (b) centimetre (c) millimetre . (d) kilometre

Sol. (a) metre

Explanation: There are seven SI units of measurement as per International systems:

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Length(metre); Time(second); Amount of substance(mole); Electric current(ampere);
Temperature(kelvin); Luminous Intensity(candela); Mass(kilogram).

Q. 23. 1 horsepower = approximately ____watts.

(a) 647 (b) 674 (c) 764 (d) 746

Sol. (d) 746

Explanation: Horsepower is a unit of measurement of power, or the rate at which work is done. 1
Horsepower is equal to 746 watt.

Q. 24. The power of a lens is -2.0 D. Here 'D' stands for:

(a) distance (b) dilation (c) dioptre (d) degree

Sol. (c) dioptre

Explanation: A dioptre is a unit of measurement of the optical power of a lens or curved mirror,
which is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length measured in metres. (1 dioptre = 1 m −1 .) It is
thus a unit of reciprocal length.

Q. 25. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

(a)Brass is a mixture of 30% zinc and 70% copper

(b)Evaporation causes cooling

(c)The measurable unit of pressure is denoted in Metre

(d)Matter is made up of small particles

Sol. (c) The measurable unit of pressure is denoted in Metre

Explanation: For pressure, the SI unit is Pascal (Pa), which is N/m² (Newton per square meter). the
standard atmospheric pressure is 101325 Pa absolute.

Q. 26. The SI (international system of units) unit of length is ________.

(a) metre (b) centimetre (c) millimetre (d) kilometre

Sol. (a) metre

Explanation: There are seven SI units of measurement as per International systems: Length(metre);
Time(second); Amount of substance(mole); Electric current(ampere); Temperature(kelvin);
Luminous Intensity(candela); Mass(kilogram).

Q. 27. Heinrich Rudolph Hertz laid the foundation for the future development of radio, telephone
and telegraph. The SI unit of ____ was named as 'Hertz' as his honour.

(a) Sound (b) Heat (c) Light. (d) Frequency

Sol. (a) Sound

Explanation: Heinrich Rudolf Hertz was a German physicist who first conclusively proved the
existence of the electromagnetic waves. The unit of frequency, cycle per second, was named
the "hertz" in his honor. He laid the foundation for future development of radio, telephone and
telegraph.

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Q. 28. ' Tor ' is a unit of _____

(a) force (b) pressure (c) power (d) energy

Sol. (b) pressure

Explanation: The torr (symbol: Torr) is a unit of pressure based on an absolute scale, defined as
exactly 1760 of a standard atmosphere (101325 Pa). Thus one torr is exactly 101325760 pascals (≈
133.32 Pa).

Q. 29. Which of the following is the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature ?

(a) Radian (b) Celsius (c) Kelvin (d) Fahrenheit

Sol. (c) Kelvin

Explanation: Kelvin is the SI unit of thermodynamic temperature.

Q. 30. Since the clinical thermometer is designed to measure the temperature of the human
body only, it displays the range of 35 degree Celsius to ________.

(a) 46 degree Celsius (b) 48 degree Celsius (c) 42 degree Celsius (d) 44 degree Celsius

Sol. (c) 42 degree Celsius

Explanation: The clinical thermometer displays the range of 35 degree Celsius to 42 degree
Celsius.

Q. 31. Which one among the following measures the same quantity as that is measured by the SI
unit ‘pascal’?

(a) newton (b) joule (c) watt (d) torr

Sol. (d) torr

Explanation: Pascal is SI unit of pressure

 Newton is SI unit of force


 Joule is SI unit of work done
 Watt is SI unit of power
 Torr is used to measure pressure

Q. 32. 1 horse power is equal to approximately ______ watts.

(a) 500 (b) 250 (c) 1000 (d) 750

Sol. (d) 750

Explanation: One Horse power is approximately equal to 746 watts.

Q. 33. Identify the unit of measurement of energy.

(a) Ampere (b) Joule (c) Volt (d) Watt

Sol. (b) Joule

Explanation: The unit of measurement of energy is Joule.

Q. 34. Which of the following is the basic SI unit of thermodynamic temperature ?

(a) Mole (b) Candela (c) Metre (d) Kelvin

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Sol. (d) Kelvin

Explanation: Kelvin is the basic SI unit of thermodynamic temperature.

Q. 35. The difference in temperature between two bodies is 30 degree centigrade. What is the
difference in degree Fahrenheit?

(a) 72 (b) 54 (c) 64 (d) 86

Sol. (b) 54

Explanation: Change in degree fahrenheit = 1.8 change in degree centigrade. × Change in


degree fahrenheit = 1.8 30 = × 54

Q. 36. 30˚Celcius = ______ Kelvin (approximately)

(a) 303 (b) –243 (c) 130. (d) –30

Sol. (a) 303

Explanation: 0˚Celsius = 273.15°Kelvin So 30˚Celsius = (273.15°+30˚)Kelvin =303.15°Kelvin≅303° Kelvin

Q. 37. Which of the following would you associate with ‘dioptre’?

(a) Urology (b) Ophthalmology (c) Neurology (d) Oncology

Sol. (b) Ophthalmology

Explanation: Dioptre is the unit of measurement of power of a lens. Lens is used to correct the eye
disorder.

 Ophthalmology is a branch of medicine which deals with diagnosis of eye disorders.

Q. 38. Electron-volt is a unit of ______.

(a) current (b) energy (c) power (d) potential difference

Sol. (b) energy

Explanation: Electron-volt is a unit of energy. It is commonly used in atomic and nuclear physics.

 One electron volt is equal to 1.602 × 10 erg, or 1.602 × joule. The − 12 10 − 19


 SI unit of Current is Ampere, Power is Watt and Potential difference is Joules per coulomb.

Q. 39. How many microns are there in a metre?

(a) 10000 (b) 1000 (c) 1000000 (d) 100000

Sol. (c) 1000000

Explanation: There are 1000000 microns in a meter. A micron is a unit of measure in the metric
system. It equals one-millionth of a meter and one-thousandth of a millimeter.

Q. 40. Weber per second is equivalent to ______.

(a) volt (b) coulomb (c) ohm (d) ampere

Sol. (a) volt

Explanation: Weber per second is equivalent to volt. Coulomb is the SI unit of Electric charge,
Ohm is the SI unit of Electric Resistance and

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 Ampere is the SI unit of Electric current.

Q. 41. Which of the following is the SI unit for measuring the amount of a substance?

(a) metre (m) (b) mole (mol) (c) kelvin (K) (d) candela (cd)

Sol. (b) mole (mol)

Explanation: mole (mol) is the SI unit for measuring the amount of a substance. Kelvin is the SI unit
of temperature and Candela is the SI unit of Luminous Intensity.

Q. 42. ‘mho’ is the unit of ______ of a substance.

(a) conductance (b) resistivity (c) resistance (d) conductivity

Sol. (a) conductance

Explanation: ‘mho’ is the unit of electrical conductivity of a substance.

The unit of resistance is ohm. Resistance and conductance are inverse of each other that is why
mho is 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚

Q. 43. One calorie of heat energy is equivalent to approximately ______ joules of mechanical
Energy.

(a) 0.24 (b) 0.48 (c) 4.2 (d) 2.4

Sol. (c) 4.2

Explanation: 1 calorie of heat energy is approximately equal to 4.2 Joules.

 1 calorie is defined as the amount of heat required at a of 1 standard atmospheric


pressure to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1 ° centigrade.

Q. 44. Parsec is a unit of ______.

(a) acceleration (b) time (c) length (d) speed

Sol. (c) length

Explanation: Parsec is a unit of length. Parsec is the distance from the Sun to an astronomical
object that has a parallax angle of one arcsecond. It is used to measure very large distances.

Q. 45. In terms of SI prefixes 10(-15)is called:

(a) Yocto (b) Zepto (c) Atto (d) Femto

Sol. (d) Femto

Explanation: In terms of SI prefixes, 10(-15) is called: Femto. It is a unit prefix in the metric system
denoting a factor of 10 −15. It was added to the International System of Units (SI) in 1964.

Q. 46. Which among the following instruments is used to measure either direct or alternating
electric current?

(a) Wattmeter (b) Hygrometer (c) Ammeter (d) Pyrometer

Sol. (c) Ammeter

Explanation: Ammeter is used to measure either direct or alternating electric current.

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 Wattmeter : The wattmeter is an instrument for measuring the electric active power in
watts of any given circuit.
 Hygrometer : A hygrometer is an instrument used in meteorological science to measure
the humidity or amount of water vapour in the air.
 Pyrometer : A pyrometer is a type of remote-sensing thermometer used to measure the
temperature of distant objects.

Q. 47. Of the units mentioned in the options, which one is the largest as compared to the others?

(a) Hecto (b) Deca (c) Tera (d) Giga

Sol. (c) Tera

Explanation: Of the units mentioned in the

options, Tera is the largest as compared to the others. Tera is a unit prefix in the metric system
denoting multiplication by one trillion, or 10 12 or 1000000000000. Hecto means hundred or 10 2 .
Deca means 10. Giga means 10 9

Q. 48. A ______ is an instrument used for measuring electrical potential difference between two
points in an electric circuit.

(a) voltmeter (b) galvanometer (c) ammeter (d) bolometer

Sol. (a) voltmeter

Explanation: A voltmeter is an instrument used for measuring the electrical potential difference
between two points in an electric circuit.

Q. 49. What is the unit to measure the wavelength of light?

(a) Faraday (b) Candela (c) Dyne (d) Angstrom

Sol. (d) Angstrom

Explanation: Angstrom is the unit to measure the wavelength of light. Angstrom (Å), unit of length,
equal to 10 -10 metre, or 0.1 nanometre. Faraday, also called Faraday constant, unit of
electricity. The candela is the SI unit of luminous intensity.

 Dyne, unit of force in the centimetre -gram-second.

Q. 50. Coulomb per second is equivalent to ______.

(a) ohm (b) ampere (c) volt (d) joule

Sol. (b) ampere

Explanation: Coulomb per second is equivalent to ampere.

 Ampere is the SI unit of electric current.


 Ohm is the SI unit of electrical resistance.
 Joule is the SI unit of work.
 Volt is the SI unit of potential difference.

Q. 51. In terms of SI prefixes 10(-15)is called:

(a) Yocto (b) Zepto (c) Atto (d) Femto

Sol. (d) Femto

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Explanation: In terms of SI prefixes, 10(-15) is called: Femto. It is a unit prefix in the metric system
denoting a factor of 10 −15 . It was added to the International System of Units (SI) in 1964.

Q. 52. Electron-volt is a unit of ______.

(a) current (b) energy (c) power (d) potential difference

Sol. (b) energy

Explanation: Electron-volt is a unit of energy. It is commonly used in atomic and nuclear physics.

 One electron volt is equal to 1.602 × 10 erg, or 1.602 × joule. The − 12 10 − 19


 SI unit of Current is Ampere, Power is Watt and Potential difference is Joules per coulomb.

Q. 53. How many microns are there in a metre?

(a) 10000 (b) 1000 (c) 1000000 (d) 100000

Sol. (c) 1000000

Explanation: There are 1000000 microns in a meter. A micron is a unit of measure in the metric
system. It equals one-millionth of a meter and one-thousandth of a millimeter.

Q. 54. Weber per second is equivalent to ______.

(a) volt (b) coulomb (c) ohm (d) ampere

Sol. (a) volt

Explanation: Weber per second is equivalent to volt.

 Coulomb is the SI unit of Electric charge.


 Ohm is the SI unit of Electric Resistance
 Ampere is the SI unit of Electric current.

Q. 55. Which of the following is the SI unit for measuring the amount of a substance?

(a) metre (m) (b) mole (mol) (c) kelvin (K) (d) candela (cd)

Sol. (b) mole (mol)

Explanation: mole (mol) is the SI unit for measuring the amount of a substance.

 Kelvin is the SI unit of temperature and


 Candela is the SI unit of Luminous Intensity.

Q. 56. Parsec is a unit of ______.

(a) acceleration (b) time (c) length (d) speed

Sol. (c) length

Explanation: Parsec is a unit of length. Parsec is the distance from the Sun to an astronomical
object that has a parallax angle of one arcsecond. It is used to measure very large distances.

Q. 57. Coulomb per second is equivalent to ______.

(a) ohm (b) ampere (c) volt (d) joule

Sol. (b) ampere

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Explanation: Coulomb per second is equivalent to ampere. Ampere is the SI unit of electric
current.

 Ohm is the SI unit of electrical resistance.


 Joule is the SI unit of work.
 Volt is the SI unit of potential difference.

Q. 58. Which instrument is used to measure very high temperature?

(a) Fathometer (b) Manometer (c) Salinometer (d) Pyrometer

Sol. (d) Pyrometer

Explanation: Pyrometer is used to measure very high temperatures. 'Fathometer' is used to


measure Ocean Depth. A

Manometer is a device to measure pressures. Salinometer used to measure the salinity of a


solution.

Q. 59. Which of the following is equivalent to coulomb per second?

(a) Faraday (b) Ohm (c) Volt (d) Ampere

Sol. (d) Ampere

Explanation: Ampere (symbol: A) is equivalent to coulomb per second. Ampere is the S.I. unit of
electric current.

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Miscellaneous
Q. 1. Twin paradox is associated with:

(a) the theory of relativity (b) particle physics (c) hydrodynamics (d) quantum mechanics

Sol. (a) the theory of relativity

Explanation: The twin paradox is a thought experiment in special relativity involving identical
twins, one of whom makes a journey into space in a high-speed rocket and returns home to find
that the twin who remained on Earth has aged more.

Q. 2. What would you call the area under the curve of a velocity-time graph included between
itself and two time ordinates?

(a) Speed. (b) Displacement (c) Velocity (d) Acceleration

Sol. (b) Displacement

Explanation: You can use a velocity vs. time graph to calculate the displacement of an object in
straight-line motion. The area between the graph line and the time axis equals the object's
displacement over that time period.

Q. 3. Which one of the following attributes is NOT true for uniform circular motion?

(a)The distance is always equal to the displacement

(b) Velocity is always perpendicular to the radius of the circle

(c) The speed of the body remains constant

(d) The velocity of the body is continuously changing

Sol. (a) The distance is always equal to the displacement

Explanation: For a uniform circular motion, velocity of a body is continuously changing and is
perpendicular to radius of the circle. Also the speed of the body remains constant.The distance is
not equal to the displacement.

Q. 4. Which of the following metals is the most ductile metal?

(a) Tin (b) Gold (c) Copper (d)Aluminium

Sol. (b) Gold

Explanation: Ductility is the ability of material to change into wire. Malleability, a similar property, is
a material's ability to form a thin sheet by hammering or rolling.

Q. 5. A high tensile alloy steel called _____was used to construct Howrah Bridge.

(a) TISCAL (b) TISCBROM (c) TISCOP (d) TISCROM

Sol. (d) TISCROM

Explanation: Howrah Bridge (Rabindra Setu) is On River Hooghly in kolkata. A high tensile alloy
steel called TISCROM as used to construct Howrah Bridge.

Q. 6. ________ is the process by which water vapour in the air is changed into liquid water.

(a) Decantation (b) Precipitation (c) Evaporation (d) Condensation

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Sol. (d) Condensation

Explanation: Condensation is the process by which water vapour in the air is changed into liquid
water.

Q. 7. During the occurrence of thunder and lightning:

(a) whether lightning is seen first or thunder is heard first will depend upon the distance and
angle of the clouds vis-a-vis earth

(b) lightning is seen at the same time as thunder is heard

(c) thunder is heard before lightning is seen

(d) lightning is seen before thunder is heard

Sol. (d) lightning is seen before thunder is heard

Explanation: As light travels faster than sound, hence light is seen before sound is heard during
lightning.

Q. 8. The term 'Askaryan effect' is associated with which functional area of science?

(a) Physics (b) Geology (c) Chemistry. (d) Biology

Sol. (a) Physics

Explanation: The Askaryan radiation also known as Askaryan effect is the phenomenon whereby
a particle traveling faster than the phase velocity of light in a dense dielectric (such as salt, ice
or the lunar regolith) produces a shower of secondary charged particles.

Q. 9. Which among the following is responsible for the rotation of the plane of oscillation of
Foucault's pendulum ?

(a) Centripetal force (b) Viscous drag of air (c) Centrifugal force (d) Coriolis force

Sol. (d) Coriolis force

Explanation: The Coriolis force is an inertial or fictional force that acts on objects that are in
motion within a frame of reference that rotates with respect to an inertial frame.Coriolis force is
responsible for the rotation of the plane of oscillation of Foucault's pendulum. Foucault's
pendulum is an easy experiment demonstrating the Earth's rotation

Q. 10. What is the name of the phenomena in physics and astronomy which involves the splitting
of a spectral line into two or more components of slightly different frequency when the light
source is placed in a magnetic field?

(a) Lumen Effect (b) Alpenglow Effect (c) Zeeman Effect (d) Raman Effect

Sol. (c) Zeeman Effect

Explanation: Zeeman Effect is a phenomena in physics and astronomy which involves the splitting
of a spectral line into two or more components of slightly different frequency when the light
source is placed in a magnetic field.

Q. 11. Car moving on a straight road is an example of ______ motion.

(a) Periodic (b) Curvilinear (c) Rectilinear (d) Random

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Sol. (c) Rectilinear

Explanation: Rectilinear motion is the motion in which the path is a straight line with constant
velocity. So, a car moving in the straight path is an example of a Rectilinear motion.

Q. 12. Solids can be classified as ______ on the basis of the nature of order present in the
arrangement of their constituent particles.

(a) conductor or non-conductor (b) metallic or non-metallic (c)


magnetic or non-magnetic (d) crystalline or amorphous

Sol. (d) crystalline or amorphous

Explanation: On the basis of the nature of order present in the arrangement of their constituent
particles Solids are classified into Amorphous and Crystalline. Crystalline solids have well defined
edges and faces whereas Amorphous solids have irregular or curved surfaces.

Q. 13. Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?

(a) Biomass (b) Asphalt (c) Bitumen (d) Petroleum

Sol. (a) Biomass

Explanation: Fossil fuels are formed when the remains of plants and animals are buried for millions
of years. Biomass is an alternative for fossil fuels, it is a non-conventional form of energy.

Q. 14. Which of the following is a characteristic of conservative force?

(a) Energy is dissipated as heat energy. (b) Work done by it in a round trip is not zero.

(c) Work done by it depends upon the path.

(d) Work done by it is completely recoverable.

Sol. (d) Work done by it is completely recoverable.

Explanation: ‘Work done by it is completely recoverable’ is a characteristic of a conservative


force. A conservative force is one in which work done by or against it depends only on the
starting and ending points of a motion. It does not depend upon the path taken during the work.
The stored energy is recoverable as work.

Q. 15. Which of the following scientists was awarded a Nobel Prize for his services to Theoretical
Physics, and especially for his discovery of the Law of the Photoelectric Effect ?

(a) Albert Einstein (b) Nikola Tesla (c) Thomas Edison (d) Ernest Rutherford

Sol. (a) Albert Einstein

Explanation: Albert Einstein was awarded a Nobel Prize in 1921 for his services to Theoretical
Physics, and especially for his discovery of the Law of the Photoelectric Effect.

Q. 16. Which of the following elements occurs most abundantly in our universe?

(a) Nitrogen. (b) Oxygen (c) Hydrogen (d) Silicon

Sol. (c) Hydrogen


Explanation: Hydrogen being the simplest element is the most abundant element in the universe.
Oxygen is the third most abundant element of the universe. On earth, oxygen is the most
common element making up about 47% of the earth's mass.

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Q. 17. In the Millikan’s Oil Drop experiment, the oil drop is subjected to such forces whose nature
does NOT fall under the category of:

(a) electrostatic (b) viscous (c) gravitational (d) magnetostatic

Sol. (d) magnetostatic

Explanation: Millikan's oil drop experiment measured the charge of an electron. Electrically
charged oil droplets entered the electric field and were balanced between two plates by
altering the field. When the charged drops fell at a constant rate, the gravitational and electric
forces on it were equal. In the whole experiment magnetostatic force doesn't come into play.

Q. 18. A set of equations involving electric and magnetic fields, and their sources, the charge
and current densities are known as ______ equations.

(a) Einstein’s (b) Newton’s (c) Maxwell’s (d) Bhor’s

Sol. (c) Maxwell’s

Explanation: A set of equations involving electric and magnetic fields, and their sources, the
charge and current densities are known as maxwell’s equations Maxwell first used the equations
to propose that light in an electromagnetic phenomenon.

 Newton’s equation is related to kinematics and motion


 Einstein’s equation is related to the Theory of relativity.
 Bohr's equation is related to atomic physics

Q. 19. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) If the constituents of the medium oscillate along the direction of wave propagation, we call
the wave a transverse wave.

(b) The minimum distance between two points in a wave having the same phase at a particular
instant of time is called the wave length.

(c) If the constituents of the medium oscillate perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, we call the wave a longitudinal wave.

(d) Frequency of a wave is the number of oscillations of each constituent particle in the vibrating
medium per minute.

Sol. (b) The minimum distance between two points in a wave having the same phase at a
particular instant of time is called the wave length.

Explanation: The correct statement is that the minimum distance between two points in a wave
having the same phase at a particular instant of time is called the wavelength.

 A transverse wave is a wave whose oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation.
 A longitudinal wave is a wave in which the vibration of the medium is parallel to the
direction of wave propagation.
 The frequency of a wave is the number of oscillations of each constituent particle in the
vibrating medium per second.

Q. 20. ______ is used to measure the pressure inside the eyes of a person

(a) Tonometer (b) Machmeter (c) Odometer (d) Viscometer

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Sol. (a) Tonometer

Explanation: Tonometer is used to measure the pressure inside the eyes of a person. Viscometer is
used to measure the viscosity of fluids.

 Machmeter is a flight instrument that gives a ratio of airspeed and speed of sound.
 An odometer is an instrument used to measure the speed of a vehicle like a bicycle or a
car.

Q. 21. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(a) Electric charge (b) Electric flux (c) Electric field (d) Electric current

Sol. C) Electric field

Explanation: Electric field strength is a vector quantity, it has both magnitude and direction.
Other examples of vector quantity are displacement, velocity, and acceleration, while speed
(the magnitude of velocity), time, and mass are scalars.

Q. 22. Which everyday morning ritual is part of quantum mechanics?

(a) Brushing teeth (b) Making tea (c) Ringing of an alarm clock (d) Reading newspaper

Sol. (c) Ringing of an alarm clock

Explanation: In the ringing of the alarm clock lies the quantum mechanics, as the clock marks time
using the oscillating electric current coming out of the wall plug, which is designed to be
oscillating exactly 60 times per second and that oscillating current is itself regulated by using
quantum physics.

Q. 23. Which of the following cells is NOT used in watches?

(a) Silver oxide cell. (b) Mercury cell (c) Zinc air cell (d) Lead acid cell

Sol. (d) Lead acid cell

Explanation: The lead-acid cell is not used in watches. It is a type of rechargeable battery first
invented in 1859 by French physicist Gaston Plante. It is the first type of rechargeable battery ever
created.

Q. 24. What does LED stand for?

(a) Light Emitting Diode (b) Light Energy Device (c) Light Efficient Device
(d) Light Emitting Decoder

Sol. (a) Light Emitting Diode

Explanation: LED:- Light Emitting Diode

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