Test Date: 18-02-2024

Aakash
DBYJUS
A
Bookiet Code

Zone
West
Aakash

PR
TX
A IA TS
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ALL INDIA AAKASH TEST SERIES

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for

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Medical Entrance Exam-2024
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
TEST No. 8 @NEETXPR
(XHStudying Students)
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES
1 PRead cachhquestuon carefully 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
2 it s randatory lo use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to
appropriale circie n the answer sheel 9 Before handing overthe answer sheet to the inviglator, candidate
3 Mark sukd te dark and should completely fill the circle should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filed and
4 Rough work rust ot be done on the answer sheet marked correctiy.
5 Do not use wite fiuid or any other rubbing maternal on
answer
10 Immediately atter the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet No charge in the artswer once marked is allowed answer sheet to be returned to the invgilator.
Student cannot use iog tatbies and calculators of any other material
in the exarminaton hall 11 There are two sections in each subject i.e Section-A& Section -8
Before attempting the question paper, stucterit shouid ensure that You have to attempt all 36 questions from Section-A & oniy
the test paper cortains al pages and n page is missing 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B

Note: It is cornpuisory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered
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Test No.8

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory, Oscillations and Waves

PR
Chemistry
E TX
Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles &Techniques, Hydrocarbons

N E
Botany @
Photosynthesis in Higher Plants, Respiration in Plants, Plant Growth and
Development

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Zoology Animal Kingdom and Structural Organisation of Animals: Animal Morphology

(Cockroach, Frog. Earthworm)

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 Test-8 (Code-A) AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

MM :720 TEST - 8 Time :3 Hrs. 20 Min.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION -A (1) 2s (2) S
2
1. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a
2
1 (3) 2V3 s (4)
fundamental frequency f in air. If of the length is
dipped vertically in water, the fundamental 6. 32 g of oxygen at 47°C is mixed with 56 g of nitrogen
frequency of the air column will be at 27°C. The temperature of mixture will be
3 3
(assuming that the mixing takes place under

R
(1) (2) condition of constant pressure)
2 4
(2) 43.33°C
(1) 33.67°C

P
f (3) 40.33 C (4) 39.67°C
(3) f

X
(4) 2 For the cyclicprocess, the work done during process

T
7
2 A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a velocity of BA 0s

E
300 m s-1, The distance between the nearest points P(Nm)

E
which are havinga phase difference of 60° is
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm 3 x 10

N
(3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm

@
3 A particle executes SHM with angular frequency 10
B
) =4n rad/s. If it is at its extreme position initially. >V(m)
then the time period of oscillation of particle is 1 3

(2) 0.5s (1) 400J (2) 600J

(1) 1.5 s
(3) 4 s (4) 2.3s (3) -200 J (4) -400 J
4 Awave of frequency 200 Hz is sent along a string 8 An ideal gas A and another ideal gas B have their
towards a fixed end. When this wave travels back, pressure increased fromn P to 2P under isothermal
after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of conditions, then
20cm from the fixed end of the string. The speed of (1) Both the gases wil have equal increment in
incident and reflected waves is
(1) 15ms1 (2) 35 ms-1 internal energy
(3) 25 ms 1 (4) 80 ms1 (2) The increment in internal energy will be zero in
5 A simple pendulum oscillating in air has a
time both gases
(3) The increment in internal energy will be more
period of V3 s. If it is completely immersed in non
th in A
1 of the material
viscous liquid, having density 4)
(4) The increment in internal energy will be more
in B
of the bob, then new time period willbe
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)

9 The temperature of source and sink of a Carnot 14. A particle executes SHM according to the equation,
engine is 227°C and 127°C respectively. lts y =asinot + bcoSot.
efficiency will be The amplitude of resulting simple harmonic motion
(1) 25%o (2) 30%
(3) 20% (4) 40% (1) a+ b (2) Va' +b?
10. What will be the change in internalenergy of system
which has absorbed 2 kcal of heat and has done (3) Va²-b2 (4)
1000 J of work? 2
(1) 1762 cal (2) 1862 cal 15. A particle executing SHM has a kinetic energy
(3) 1962 cal (4) 2062 cal k, sin' ot. The potential energy and total energy
11. The state of an ideal gas is changing from state 1to respectively are [Assume, potential energy to be
state 2. The amount of work done by the gas is least zero at mean position
when the process is (1) k,cos' ot and 2ko
(1) Adiabatic expansion
(2) k, sin' ot and ko
(2) Isobaric expansion (3) k, cos ot and ko (4) k, sin ot and 2ko
(3) Isothermal expansion 16 Consider the following statements.
Statement 1: In standing wave the amplitude of

R
(4) Isochoric prOcess
12. One mole of an ideal gas in initial state A undergoes vibration of particle changes from zero at nodes to

P
maximum at antinodes.
acyclic process ABCA as shown. If the pressure at

X
Ais Po then pressure at B is Statement 2: In a standing wave the particle of

T
medium at nodes are effectively at rest.
Based upon the above statements, choose the

E
4V, B Correct option.

E
(1) Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false
(2) Statement 2 is true while statement 1is false

N
(3) Both statement 1 and 2 are correct

@
A
(4) Both statement 1and 2 are incorrect
-T 17. Asimple pendulum has time period T. The point of
T suspension is noW moved upward according to the
P equation y = kt (k = 5 m s) where y is vertical
(1) Po (2) displacement. The time period T2 now is
2
(1) T (2) 2T1
(4)
P T
(3) 4Po 4 (3)
V2
(4) V27,
13. One mole of diatomic gas is expanded from V to 18. For aparticle executing SHM, at mean position
2V under constant pressure P. The change in
internal energy iS (1) Velocity is minimum and acceleration is
maximum
(1) 5PV (2) 3PV
(2) Both velocity and acceleration are maximum
(4) , PV (3) Both velocity and acceleration are minimum
(3) , (4) Velocity is maximum and acceleration is zero

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Test-8 (Code-A) AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

19. Aspring-block system has time period of oscillation

T. Now spring is cut into n equal parts and
connected in parallel with same block. The new time
period of oscillation will be
T
(1) (2) n

T
(3) (4) nT (1) V= V2
n (2) Vi< V2
20. The maximum velocity of a particle executing SHM (3) VË> V2
with an amplitude of 21 mm is 22 ms. The time (4) Insufficient information
period of oscillation is [use, n: 26. Motion of kink in a longitudinal spring produced by

R
displacing one end of the spring sideways is
(1) 0.6 s (2) 0.06 s

P
(1) Longitudinal only
(3) 6s (4) 60 s (2) Transverse only

TX
21 The concept of temperature is defined by 3) Both longitudinal and transverse
(1) First law of thermodynamics (4) Neither longitudinal nor transverse

E
(2) Second law of thermodynamics 27. In the diagram shown below, the amplitude of

E
(3) Third law of thermodynamics oscillation of each block is
K

N
(4) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
22 At what temperature is the root mean square

@
velocity of gaseous hydrogen molecules equal to 2F
that of oxygen molecule at 79°C? (1) K
(2) K
(1) 20K (2) 22 K
F 4F
(3) 21 K (4) 19 K (3) 2K (4) K
23. Four molecules of a gas are having speed of
2 ms,3 ms and 4ms1. The root mean
1ms 28 Atunnel is made across the earth passing through
square velocity of the gas molecules is the centre. A ballis dropped from the surface in the
(2) 2.25 ms1 tunnel. The motion will be periodic with time period
(1) 750 ms
(3) 274 ms (4) 3.3 ms1 R R
24 An ideal gas is allowed to expand freely against
(1) (2) 4g
vacuum in a rigid insulated Container. The gas
R
undergoes
(1) An increase in its internal energy (3) 3g 21
(2) Adecrease in its internal energy 29. In a thermodynamic gaseous process dW =0 and
(3) Neither an increasSe nor decrease n
dQ<0, then for the gas
ternperature or internal energy (1) Temperature increases
(4) A decrease intemperature 2) Temperature decreases
25 The figure shows temperature (7) versus pressure
two (3) Volume increases
at
(P graphs for certain arnount of ideal gas (4) No change in temperature
Volurnes Vi and V thern
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 AlllndiaAakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)

30. What is the phase difference between the two 33. Twooscillating pendulums Aand Bwith time periods
identical traveling waves moving in the same 3T
direction that would interfere to produce a wave T and are in same phase at a given time
2
having an amplitude V3 times the amplitude of respectively. They are again in phase after some n
original waves? oscillation of A. The value of n is
(1) (1) 2 (2) 3
6
(2) 4 (3) 4 (4) 5
2 34. The average translational kinetic energy of a gas
6
(4)
2 molecule is
31. A tunning fork A can produce a frequency of 250 Hz.
If it is loaded with wax then its (1) Proportional to pressure of gas
frequency (2) Inversely proportional to volume of gas

R
(1) Wil be greater than 250 Hz
(3) Inversely proportional to absolute temperature
) Will be less than 250 Hz

P
of gas
(3) Will remain 250 Hz

TX
(4) Proportional to absolute temperature of gas
(4) Either (1) or (3) 35. Which variation among the following shows the
32. A particle is executing SHM with time

E
period T. correct relationship between the temperature ()
Assuming the particle to be at equilibrium position at and density (p) of an ideal gas assuming pressure

E
t= 0, the most appropriate variation of potential to be constant?
energy with time is given by

N
PE

@
(1) (1) (2)

2T
PE

(3) (4)
TI4 TI2 3TI4 T 5T/4
PE

SECTION -B
3
36. Which one of the
TI4 TI2 3TI4
A T 5T/4 ’ t a correction in the
following equations correctly
represent athermodynamic process that is used as
PE determination
Sound in an ideal gas?
of the speed of

(where symbols have their usual meaning)

(1) PV= constant (2) P2V= constant
TI2 T 3TI2 (3) PVI= Constant (4) TV= constant

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Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

37. In an isothermal expansion, the work done in

(2) A sin
increasing the volume of one mole of a gas by 20% (1) Acos +
23,
at a temperature of 200 K is nearly (Given,
R=83Jmol 1, In1.2 =0.18)
(1) 400J (2) 300J (3) Asin! (4) -Asin !
(3) 320J (4) 360J 42. Speed of sound in air
38 In a given process on an ideal gas, dW = 0 and (1) Independent of change in temperature
dQ= 0 then for the gas (2) Decreases with increase in temperature
(1) Temperature will increase (3) Increases with increase in pressure

R
(2) Temperature willdecrease (4) Increases with increase in temperature

P
(3) Temperature will remain constant 43. The vibration in a string of length 120 cm fixed at

X
(4) Internal energy of gas will increase both ends is represented by the equation

T
39 2 moles of an ideal diatomic gas is carried from a 4TX
2sin |cos(967t)

E
state (Po. Vo) to astate (2 Po. 2Vo) along astraight 15
line path in a P-V diagram. The amount of heat

E
absorbed by the gas in the process is given by where X and y are in cm. The number of loops that
will be formed in it is

N
(1) 10PoVo (2) 9PoVo
(1) 15 (2) 16
(4) 15PoVo

@
(3) 12.5P Vo (3) 32 (4) 18
40. The displacement of a particle in SHM is given by 44. A spring balance has springconstant 4000N m-1. A
equation, x=10 sin 4t-m. If the displacement body suspended from this balance, when displaced
6 slightly and released, oscillates with a period of a
of the particle at certain instant is 6 m, then the 0.628 s. The mass of the body is
acceleration of the particle in (m s2) at that instant
(1) 20 kg (2) 40kg
(3) 30 kg (4) 10 kg
(1) 24 (2) 48 45. TwO simple pendulums A and B are made to
(3) 96 (4) 108 Oscillate simultaneously and it is found that A
41. A particle Pis executing circular motion of radius A. completes 10oscillation in 20 s and B completes 12
Equation of SHM corresponding to the projection of oscillation in 16 s, then the ratio of their length is
particle on y-axiS will be 2
y (1) (2) 2
3
9 16
T=4s (3) (4)
4 25
P{t= 0 46. an adiabatic process, R-c,. The degree of
freedom of gas is
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 3
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)

47. TwO simple harmonic motion are represented by 49. The temperature of a gas is 0C. lts root mean
equation x1 = a sinot and x2 = asinot + acosot. The square velocity wilhbe doubled at
(1) 273°C (2) 756°C
phase difference between the two simple harmonic
motion at any time t is/ (3} 819°C (4) 103C
(1) (2) 50. Asystem goes from Ato B via two processes 1 and
4 2 2as shown in the figure. IfAQi and AQ2 are the heat
(3) (4)
supplied in processes 1and 2respectively, then
3 6

R
T
5 1
48. 1 mole of monoatomiC gas Y= is mixed with

P
3

TX
7 B
3 moles of diatomic gas Y= The value of
5
2

E
adiabatic index for the mixture will be
12 15

E
(1) (2)
11 12 AQ > AQ (2) AQ1 = AQe

N
13 4 (3) AQ, < AQe (4) AQ1 s AQ2
(3) (4)

@
9 3

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 54. Which amongthe following exhibits maximum enol
51. The most stable carbocation among the following is content?
(1) CH3COCH2COCH3
(1) (2) (2) CH:COCH3
(3) CH3COCH;COOH
(4) CH:OCOCH2COOCzH5
55. Given below are two statements.
(4) Statement I: Distillation under reduced pressure is
used to purify liquids having very high boiling points.
52. The number of possible structural isomers of Statement li: Fractional distillation is used to
CaHe is separate different fractions of crude oil in petroleum
(1) 3 (2) 4 industry.
In the light of atbove statements, select the correct
(3) 5 (4) 6 option
53. The pair of hybridised orbitals in the formation of (1) Statementlis true but statement lIl is false
C3- CA bond in CH = CH- CH2 -C= CH is (2) Statement is false but statement ll is true
(1) sp' - sp² (2) sp - sp (3) Both statement Iand Ilare true
(3) sp' - sp' (4) sp'- sp (4) Both statement Iand Il are false
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Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
56. The total number of aromatic species Choose the correct option:
among the
following is b C d
(1) (0) (ii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i1) (ii) () (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (i)
(ii) (i) (iv) (v) (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (i)
A) 2 61. Insulphur estimation, 0.5 g of anorganic compound
(2) 3 gave 0.699 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of
(3) 4 (4) 5 sulphur in the compound is (Molecular mass of
57. Which among the following does not act as a BaSO4 = 233 u)

R
nucleophile? (1) 25.6% (2) 75.2%
(4) 50.5%

P
(1) CHsOH (3) 19.2%
(2) H;O 62. Which among the following substituent is most

X
(3) NH2 AICI3 activating towards aromatic electrophilic substitution

T
reaction?

E
58. The number of o and bonds in o- cresol (1) -OH (2) -OCH3

E
respectively are (3) -NHCOCH3 (4) -NH2
Ar 16 and 3 (2) 11 and 3

N
63. Most stable carbanion among the following is
(3) 12 and 6 (4) 15 and 6

@
(1) CH,CH, (2) CH,CHCH,
59. The colour of complex [Fe(CN)6NOS] is
rViolet (2) Blood red (3) CH, (4) CH,- ç- CH,
(3) Yellow (4) Blue CH,
60 Match the strutures given in List-! with their 64. The correct decreasing order of stability of following
radicals is
common names given in List-ll.

List I List- i| (Csts ),C (Csts),CH (CH3 );C (CHs),CH

() (iü) (i) (iv)
CH-CHCH,- () Neopentyl (1) ()> () >(i) >(iv) (2) (i) >() >(iv) >(i)
(3) (i) > (i) > () > (iv) (4) (iv) > (i) > (ii) > (1)
b CH (ü) Isobutyl 65. The number of sp? hybridised carbon atoms present
CHC in the given compound is

C
CH, (iii) tert-Butyl

CHCHCH
tt 10 (2) 2
(iv)sec-Butyl (3) 6 (4) 8
CH

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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)
66. Which among the following is most reactive towards (1) Both statement Iand Ilare true
electrophilic substitution reaction? (2) Both statement Iand Il are false
CH, CH,CH, A3) Statement Iis true but statement Il is false
(4) Statement Iis false but statement Il is true
(1)
70. The major product B obtained in the following
reaction is
CI CHO
Isopropyl chlonde Br,, hv

(3) anhy AlCI,

A.
>B (Major)
(4

67. The major product (A) of the given -Br

R
reaction is

P
+ HBr ’A
(1) (2)

X
Br

T
(1) (2

E E s
Br (4) (4)
Br

N
68 The correct order of boiling point of the Br Br
given

@
71. Which one the correct order of acidic strength of
Compounds is
given molecules?
(1) 2-Methylpropane < 2,
2-Dimethylpropane
<n-Pentane < 2-Methylbutane () CH3 -C=CH (1) CH3- CH2- CH3
(2) (|) CH2 = CH2 (IV)CH = CH
2-Methylbutane <2, 2-Dimethylpropane
< n-Pentane < (1) (|) > (1) > (1V) > (lI) (2) (1) > (1) >(IV) > (1)
2-Methylpropane
(3) n-Pentane < 2-Methylpropane < 2,2 3) (IV) > (1) > (|) > (l) (4) (ll) > (11) > (|) > (V)
Dimethylpropane <2-Methylbutane 72. H,C-C=CH- HBr
’[X] HBr

A4) 2-Methylpropane <

2,2-Dimethylpropane
<2-Methylbutane < n-Pentane
Structure of [Y] is
Br
69. Given below are twO statements.
Statement I: The most stable conformation of
ACH, -C- CH,
ethane is staggered conformation. Br
Statement lI: Staggered conformation has the (2) BrCH, CH- CH.
maximum torsional strain. B
In the light of above statements, the (3) BrCH2 - CH2 - CHBr
correct option
(4) CH3- CH2 - CHBr2
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 Test-8 (Code-A) AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

73. Which among the folowing can be

prepared by 76. In which among the folowing molecules, all atoms
Kolbe's electrolytic method? are coplanar?
() Ethane () Ethene
(I) Methane (IV) Ethyne (1) CH, =C = CH (2)
(1) Il only A21 1, I| and IV only
(3) Il and lll only (4) Ill only
74 Whch among the following method can be used for 33 CH, = CH- CH = CH2 (4)
the preparation of benzene?
77. Which positions are most reactive towards

R
(0 By passing ethyne through red hot iron tube electrophilic attack in the following molecule?

P
(m) On heating sodium benzoate with soda lime

TX
(n) By passing vapours of phenol over heated zinc
dust

E
(1) () and () only (2) (1) and (ii) only

E
H
(3) (0) and (ii) only 4) (). (i) and (ii)

N
(1) 2 and 3 A2) 2 and 5
75 In the following reaction,

@
(3) 2 and 4 (4) 3 and 4
78. Which among the following compounds does not
Fuming H, SO, undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction easily?
CI
CH,
The major product P is
(1) (2)
(1) HO,S
CHO OCH,

(2) soH (3) 4)

79. Whicth among the following alkenes has the highest

HOS
o heat of hydrogenation?

(1) 2
SO.H

(4 (3) (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)
80 The product A is the following reaction is Choose the correct option.
() o (1) aand b only (2) b and c only
A
(0) Zn/HO (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
84. The principle of separation through thin layer
chromatography is based on
(1) CHCHCH CHO (1) Adsorption of different compounds
(2) Difference in melting point of different
compounds
(2 CHOhiCHCCHCH, (3) Difference in boiling point of different
O=0 compounds

R
(4) Difference in solubility of different compounds
(3) CH-C, _CH,

P
CH CH-CHo 85. The most acidic hydrogen is present in

TX
CH, (1) (2

E
O=0 CH, (3) HC =CH (4) H3C - CH3

E
(4) CHCH CH CH-CHO 4s SECTION -B
86. 0.62 g of an organic compound containing

N
81 Which among the following hydrocarbons gives only phosphorus gives 0.555 g of Mg.P0, by

@
five products upon monochlorination? (excluding quantitative analysis. The percentage of
stereoisomers) phosphorus in the organic compound is
(1) 3-Methyipentane (2) Methylcyclohexane (1) 50% (2) 25%
(3) Cyclohexane (4) 2,2-Dimethylpropane (3) 60% (4) 75%
82 Which among the following pair of substituents can 87. Which among the following can show
show +R effect? maximum
number of hyperconjugative structures?
(1) -COOH, - CN (2) -CI, - CHO
(3) -OR, NHCOCH3 (4) -OH, -COCH3 (1) (24 CH, - CH, - C- CH, - CH,
83 Consider the following statements about CH,
hyperconjugation in ethyl cation.
It involves delocalisation of o electrons of
C-H bond of an alkyl group directly attached to (3) (4)
an atom with an unshared p orbital.
b Hyperconjugation is a permanent effect. 88 The correct order of - effect of the
given by substituent is
Hyperconjugation destabilises the carbocation
because electron density from the adjacent H-CN > -F>- OH (2) -F >- OH >- CN
o bond helps in dispersing the positive charge. (3) -F >- CN > OH (4) -OH>-F>- CN
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Test-8 (Code-A)
AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
89 Which among the following
statement(s)
correct regarding electroneric effect? islare 94 The major product C in the following reaction
sequence is
) It operates in organic compounds having
multiple bond under the influence of an outside CH,CCH NaNA
attacking agent
l) +E effect involves transfer of pi
electron pair of
multiple bond to that atom to which the attacking
reagent does not get attached H H CH,CH
(1) It is a permanenteffect
(2)

R
(1) land ll only (2) Iand lonly (1)
CH, CH,CH, CH

P
(3) Ionly (4) Il only
g0 Select an incorrect statement from the following.

TX
HO OH
CH,
(1) Benzene is extra ordinary stable though it (4)
(3)
contains three double bonds

E
CH,CH CH, CH,CH,

E
(2) Tropone a non-benzenoid aromatic
compound 95. The major product P is

N
(3) Cyclooctatetraene is an aromatic compound

@
(4) CsH12 have three chain isomers UV
|+ CL (excess) 500KP

91. The IUPAC name of the following. is C

CI
(1) 4-Formyl-5-ethylhex-2-en-6-one
(2) 5-Formyl-hept-2-en-3-one (1) (2

(3) 4-Keto-hept-5-en-3-al CI
(4) 2-Ethyl-3-oxohex-4-enal
92 Sodium salt of a compound CaHeO2 reacts with soda
fime and produces a hydrocarbon P CI
monochiorination of P gives R as a major product
which by Wurtz reaction is converted to Q. The
productO is (3) (4)
(1) 2-Methyipentane (2) n-Butane
(3) 2.3 dimethylbutane (4) Isobutane 96. The correct intermediate and the major product
93 When the mixture of methane and dioxygen is obtained in the following reaction is
passed over MoO: at 543 K and 100atm pressure,
t forms CH,-C=C-CH2 -NO HOHSO4
HgSO4
,
(1) HCHO (2) HCOOH
Intermediate +Product
(3) CHOH (4) COz A B

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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)

A B 99. Statement i: cis-But-2-ene has higher boiling point

OH
than trans-But-2-ene.
(1) Statement l: cis-But-2-ene is polar while trans-But
CH-C= CH - CH, - NO CH C- C - CH,- NO
2-ene is non-polar.
OH
(2) In the light of above two statements, cho0se the
CH. - CH= C- CH. CH, -CH C- CH, -NO
NO correct option.
(3) OH (1) Both statement Iand Il are correct
CH, -C = CH- CH. - NO CH, -C= CH- CH - NO (2) Both statements I and Il are false
4 (3) Statement Iis correct but statement ll isfalse
CH CH C- CH - NO (4) Statement I is false but statement ll is correct
CH, -CH =C-CH, - NO
OH
97 -R effect is shown by
(1) -COOH, -NHCOR (2) -CHO, -CN 100. +Zn>A + Zno
(3) >C =0, -0COR

R
(4) -CHO, -OH
98 The major product A is Anhy. AIC ,B+HCI

P
A+Clh

TX
KMnO4
(CH, ), CH Oxdation
’A The major product B is
(1) CHsCOOH OH
OH

E
(2) HCHO

E
(1) (2
(3) (CHs):C - OH

N
C

@
(4) CH,CH, -C-CH, (3 (4)

BOTANY
SECTION -A
(3) Chlorophyll b and c
101. Which of the following factors does not have a direct (4) Chlorophyll a
effect on photosynthesis?
103. The electrons produced during the
(1) Water (2) Temperature in light splitting of water
reaction are first transferred to
(3) Light (4) COz Concentration
(1) Fe-S protein
102 The reaction centre in the photosystem is formed by
moiecule of (2) PS I|
(1) Chiorophyll b (3) Plastocyanin
(4) Cytochrome a
(2) Chiiorophyl b and xanthophyll
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Test-8 (Code-A)
104. Which of the following is correct w.r.t. colour of
photosynthetic pigments in chromatogram?
(1) Chlorophyll b- Yellow-orange
(2) Chlorophyll a- Yellow-green
(3) Xanthophyll - Yellow
(4) Carotenoids - Bright or blue green
105. ldentify the statements as true(T) or false(F) and
select the correct option.
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110. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by
(1) Reducing the supply of water to plant when
fruits are maturing
(2) Increasing the supply of nitrogen
(3) Warming up the suroundings artificially
(4) Using ethephon
111. In plants, oxygen is utilised in

R
A. Carboxylation is the most crucial step of Calvin (1) Providing medium for enzymatic activities

P
cycle. (2) Releasing metabolic energy essential for growth
B In Ca plants, photorespiration does not occur.

X
C. C3 plants have a (3) The processes such as photosynthesis

T
mechanism that increases the
CO2 concentration at the RuBisCO site. (4) Maintaining constant temperature

E
D Dark reaction cannot occur in light. 112. Which of the following is not true w.r.t. growth in

E
A D organisms?

N
(1) F T (1) It is fundamental and conspicuous
(2) T F F

@
(2) It involves expense of energy
(3) T T T (3) It is permanent increase in size
(4) T F T
106. Select the incorrect statement about glycolysis. (4) It is accompanied by anabolic processes only
(1) It takes place in all cellular living organisms 113. Apical dominance means
(2) Itforms a 2C molecule as end product (1) Suppression of growth of apical bud by axillary
buds
(3) It takes place in cytoplasm of cell
(4) It consumes ATP molecules at a few steps (2) Suppression of growth of axillary bud by
presence of apical bud
107. Which of the following is the favoured substrate to
release energy in respiration? (3) Stimulation of growth of apical bud by removal
(1) Fats (2) Proteins of axillary buds
(3) Lipids (4) Glucose (4) Inhibition of growth of axillary buds by removal
of apical bud
108. The first tricarboxylic acid formed in Krebs cycle is
(1) Cis-aconitic acid 114. Kranz anatomy is a feature of all of the following
(2) Alpha-ketoglutaric acid plants, except
(3) Citric acid (1) Sugarcane (2) Maize
(4) Succinic acid (3) Wheat (4) Sorghum
109 The reducing agent NADH+H* produced during 115. C+ plants differ from C3 plants as the former
glycolySis is reoxidised to NAD in all, except.
(1) Are found only in temperate areas
(1) Kretb cycie
(2) Alcoholic fermentation (2) Show chloroplast dimorphism
(3) ETS (3) Have RuBisCOin mesophyll cells
(4) Lactic acid fermentation (4) Have PEPcase in bundle sheath cells
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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-& (Code-A)
116. Match the following columns and select the correct (3) CF1 protrudes on the outer surface
option. stroma side of thylakoid membrane
(4) CF1 part forms transmembrane
towards
Column Column-lI carries out facilitated diffusion of channel that
protons
a. PS-I| Pr00 the membrane across
b. PS-I
120. Chemiosmosis requires
(i) Shield pigment (a) Amembrane (b) Aproton pump

R
C
Chiorophyl b (ii) Oxygen evolving (c) A proton gradient (d) ATP synthase

P
complex (1) Only (a) and (d)

TX
d.Carotenoids (iv) Antenna molecule (2) Only (a), (c) and (d)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b), c(iv), (3) Only (b) and (d)

E
d(ü) (4) All (a),(b). (c) and (d)

E
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b{iü), c(i), 121. Photorespiration involves a set of cell organelles
117.T.WN. Engelmann worked on green alga d(iv)

N
Select the option indicating correct sequence of cell
with aerobic bacteria and Cladophora organelles.

@
(1) ldentified essentiality of light for (1) Chloroplast Mitochondria ’ Vacuole
(2) Hypothesised that plants photosynthesis (2) Chloroplast ’ Peroxisome ’ Mitochondria
restore to air whatever
breathing animals remove (3) Chloroplast ’ Golgi bodies ’ Vacuole
(3) Found that (4) Endoplasmic reticulum ’ Golgi
green parts ofphotosynthesis
plants
mainly occurs in bodies ’
Lysosomes
(4) Thus the first action 122. Substrate level
spectrum of
was described through his photosynthesis phosphorylation is
(1) Oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
118. Read the fo!lowing experiment (2) Formation of ATP by
statements and select the transfer of phosphate
correct option. group from a substrate to ADP
(3) Removal of phosphate group from
Statement-l: Splitting of water
the inner side of the thylakoid molecules occurs on ADP ATP to form
membrane. (4) Formation of ATP by energy
Statement-ll: The NADP reductase enzyme is electrons removed during substrate released from
located on the lumen side of the thylakoid 123. Which of the following oxidation
membrane.
Krebs cycle? statements is not true w.r.t.
(1) Onlystatement-l is correct (1) It starts with the
(2) Only statement-ll is correct condensation
with oxaloacetic acid and
of acetyl group
acid water to yield citric
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (2) There are three steps in the cycle where
is reduced NAD*
119. Which of the following statements is (3) During conversion of
incorrect? succinic acid to malic acid
(1) The ATP synthase enzyme a molecule of
consists of two GTP is
parts, CFo and CF1 (4) Continued oxidation ofsynthesised
acetyl COA via the TCA
(2) CFo is embedded in the thylakoid membrane cycle requires the
Oxaloacetic acid continued replenishment of
Test-8 (Code-A) All india Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
124 How many ATP molecules are obtained only via 131. Which of the following statements is not true w.r.t.
ETS. if one molecule of pyruvic acid is vernalisation?
Oxidised? completely
(1) It is promotion of flowering by a period of low
(1) 12 (2) 15 temperature
(3) 11 (4) 14 (2) It prevents precocious reproductive
125. If organic acids and fats are used as respiratory development late in the growing season
substrates, then their RQs will respectively be (3) It is applicable to all perennial plants
(1) More than one and equal to one (4) It enables the plant to have sufficient time to

R
(2) More than one and less than one reach maturity

P
(3) Less than one and equal to one 132. All of the following are functional applications of

TX
(4) Less than one and more than one ethylene, except
(1) It is used to initiate flowering and synchronising
126. N$-furfurylaminopurine is a

E
fruit set in pineapples
(1) Synthetic plant growth regulator

E
(2) It hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes and apples.
(2) Natural cytokinin (3) It promotes female flowers in cucumbers

N
(3) Synthetic auxin (4) It is used to speed up the malting process in

@
(4) Natural growth inhibitor in plants brewing industry
127. Which of the following plant growth regulators helps 133. Cytokinins
in hedge formation in tea plants? (1) Cause fruits like apple to elongate and improve
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin its shape
(3) Gibberelin (4) Ethylene (2) Lead to early seed production in conifers
128. Select the odd one out w.r.t. developmental (3) Promote bolting in beet, cabbages and many
heterophylly plants with rosette habit
(1) Cotton (2) Coriander (4) Help to produce new leaves and chloroplasts in
leaveS
(3) Larkspur (4) Buttercup
129. The bakanae (foolish seedling) disease of rice A34 ldentify the folowing statements as true (T) or false
seedings led to the discovery of which of the (F) and select the correct option.
following plant growth regulators? A. Cytochrome c Oxidase complex contains
(1) ABA (2) GA cytochrome a, as and two copper centres.
(3) 1AA (4) NAAs B. Ubiquinol receives reducing equivalents.
C. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH+H* gives
130. Which of the following is not a reason behind seed rise to 3 molecules of ATP.
dormancy?
A B
(1) Impermeable and hard seed coat
(1) T
(2) Presence of chemical inhibitors like phenolic
acids and para-ascorbiC acid (2) F T

(3) T F F
(3) Immature emtbryo
(4) F T F
(4) Presence of gibberellic acid
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 All India Aakash Test Serles for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)
135. Match the following columns and select the correct 140. Select the odd one w.r.t. hypothetical substance
option responsible for flowering.
Column Column-l|
(1) It is found in leaves
a. 2, 4-D (2) It induces flowering by the modification of shoot
() Modified purine apex
Zeatin (üi) Terpene (3) Migrates from leaves to shoot apices
C
Ethylene (i) Indole compound (4) Enables shoot apices to receive required
d. GA3
photoperiod.
(iv) Gaseous 141. In the equation of arithmetic growth Lt = Lo + rt, r
(1) a(ii). b(i), c(iv). d(ii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) represents

R
(3) a(i). b(ii), c(iv). d(ii) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (1) Final size

P
SECTION -B (2) Length at time zero

X
136. How many electrons and protons are (3) Elongation per unit time

T
produced
during the photolysis of two molecules of water? (4) Length at time t

E
(1) 4 electrons and 3 protons 142. Formation of two molecules of 3-C compound in

E
(2) 1electron and 2 protons Calvin cycle is due to

N
(3) 3 electrons and 1proton (1) Carboxylase activity of RuBisCO
(4) 4 electrons and 4 protons

@
(2) Oxygenase activity of RuBisCO
137. For the synthesis of one molecule of (3) Carboxylase activity of PEPcase
sucrose, how
many turns of Calvin cycle will be required? (4) Oxygenase activity of PEPcase
(1) 6 (2) 12 143. All of the following are products of light reaction of
(3) 2 (4) 1 photosynthesis, except
138. Read the following statements and (1) NADPH
select the (2) O2
correct option. (3) ATP (4) NADH
Statement A: The presence of oxygen is vital during 144. Choose the option with set of
aerobic respiration. incorrect statements.
(a) Z scheme of light reaction
Statement B: Oxygen drives the whole process by requires PS-llonly.
adding hydrogen in the system. (b) PS-I is functional in cyclic
(1) Only statement A is correct photophosphorylation.
(c) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation results in
(2) Only statement B is correct
synthesis of ATP only.
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct (d) Stroma
(4) Both the statenents A and B are incorrect
lamellae lack PS-I as well as NADP
reductase enzyme.
139 How many steps are there in glycolysis which are (1) (a) and (b) only
under the control of different enzymes? (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) 8 (4) 10 (4) (a). (c) and (d) only
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 Test-8 (Code-A)
145. Alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation
are similar in all of the folowing features, except
(1) Less than seven percent of the
energy in
glucose is released
(2) Net gain in both the types of
2ATP
fermentation
(3) Decarboxylation results in release of CO2
(4) Hazardous end products are produced
146 Which of the following is mobile electron carrier of
mitochondrial electron transport system?
(1) NAD (2) Cytochrome c
(3) Cytochrome a (4) Fe-S
147. Auxin was first isolated from
AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
148. The enzyme that is common in both Krebs cycle and
mitochondrial electron transport system is
(1) Phosphofructokinase
(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
is
(3) a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(4) Pyruvate kinase
149. Abscisic acid is also called
(1) Anti-ageing hormone (2) Growth hormone
(3) Ripening hormone (4) Stress hormone
150. Select the odd one out w.r.t. the cells of maturation
Zone.
(1) They attain maximal size in terms of wall

R
(1) Autoclaved herring sperm DNA thickening

P
(2) Human urine (2) They undergo protoplasmic modifications

TX
(3) Coconut milk (3) They undergo active cell division
(4) Coleoptile tips of canary grass (4) They attain functional specialisation

E E
ZOOLOGY

N
SECTION - A (1) Hibernation (2) Camouflage

@
151. The cellular level of organisation is Seen in (3) Mimicry (4) Poikilothermy
organisms of the phylum 155.A point of difference between Hydra and
(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera Pleurobrachia is
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelida (1) Type of symmetry
152. An undifferentiated layer called mesoglea, is (2) Tissue level of organisation
present in between the ectoderm and the endoderm
(3) Arrangement of cells in embryonic stage
(1) Roundworms (2) Coelenterates (4) Bioluminescence
(3) Flatworms (4) Insects 156. Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs
153. In coelenterates, cnidoblasts are used for on the basis of presence of
(1) Anchorage and digestion
a. Webbed digits in hind limbs
(2) Respiratory exchange only b. Sound producing vocal sacs
(3) Excretion and gametogenesis C Acopulatory pad on first digit of the forelimbs.
(4) Anchorage and capture of prey d Acopulatory pad on last digit of the forelimbs.
154 Cho0se the correct option to complete the analogy Choose the correct option.
w.rt Rana tigrina (1) a and b (2) b and c
Surmmer sleep Aestivation Winter sleep (3) c and d (4) a and d
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 Alllndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
Test-8 (Code-A)
163. Select the correct set of organisms
belonging to the
157.Assertion (A): Frogs have a short alimentary cana. same phylum.
Reason (R): Frogs are carnivores and hence the (1) Pheretima and Aplysia
length of intestine is reduced.
On the basis of above statements, choose the (2) Bombyx and Laccifer
correct answer from the options given below. (3) Octopus and Ophiura
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (4) Physalia and Fasciola
correct explanation of (A) 164. The biological name of great white shark is
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct (1) Pterophylum (2) Carcharodon
explanation of (A) (3) Aptenodytes (4) Balaenoptera
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false 165 Hooks and suckers are present in parasitic form of
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false organisms that belong to the phylum
158. In Rana tigrina, common bile duct opens into (1) Annelida (2) Porifera
(1) Common hepatic duct (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Arthropoda

R
(2) Cystic duct 166. 'X' is a marine, segmented, dioecious invertebrate

P
(3) Jejunum and 'Y' is a hermaphrodite terrestrial animal.

TX
(4) Duodenum Select the correct option for 'X'and 'Y respectively.
159. Which of the following is a well organised sensory (1) Leech, earthworm (2) Hydra, leeches

E
structure in frog? (3) Nereis, earthworm (4) Planaria, Hydra
(1) Sensory papillae

E
(2) Taste buds 167. Ciliated comb plates present in ctenophores
(3) Nasal epithelium (4) Eyes primarily help in

N
160. Match the column Iwith column || and select the (1) Excretion (2) Locomotion

@
correct option. (3) Digestion (4) Reproduction
ColumnI Column | 168. Ali of the following are triploblastic coelomates,
Balaenoptera (i) Aquarium fish except
(1) Macropus (2) Wuchereria
b lchthyophis (ii) Possesses poison sting
(3) Nereis (4) Octopus
C Pterophyllum (i) Four chambered heart 169. Metamerism is seen in
Trygon (iv) Absence of limbs (a) Pheretima
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(i) (b) Anopheles
(3) a(i), b(i), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c{i), d(i) (c) Aplysia
161. File-like raspingorgan for feeding is present in Select the correct option.
(1) Arthropods (2) Molluscs (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) Coelenterates (4) Annelids (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
170. In Salpa, the
162 Select the incorrect option w.r.t. ctenophores. notochord
(1) Extends from head to tail
(1) Commonly called sea walnuts region
(2) Is persistent
(2) Fertilization is internal throughout their
(3) Is present only in larval tail
life
(3) Show bioluminescence
(4) Is replaced by bony vertebral
(4) Indirect development adults column in
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 Test-8 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

171. Consider the following features w.r.t. chordates and 177. Dogfish is similar to flying fish with respect to allof
select the incorrect one. the following features, except
(1) Presence of dorsal, hollow and single CNS (1) Operculated gills
(2) Heart (if present) is dorsally placed. (2) Streamlined body
(3) Notochord is present in some stages of life. (3) 2-chambered heart
(4) Gillslits perforate the pharynx. (4) Marine habitat
172. have a central gastro-vascular cavity with a 178. Presence of closed circulatory system is mainly
single opening, mouth on hypostome. characteristic of organisms of phylum
Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) Arthropoda (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Aschelminthes (4) Annelida
(1) Platyhelminths (2) Cnidarians
(3) Annelids (4) Arthropods 179. Select the correct match.

R
173. Comprehend the given statements and select the (1) Cucumaria Sea urchin

P
correct option. (2) Gorgonia - Sea anemone

TX
Statement A: All reptiles exhibit 3-chambered (3) Pennatula Sea fan
heart.
(4) Aplysia Sea hare

E
Statement B: All amphibians exhibit incomplete
double circulation and have four limbs. 180. has to swim constantly to avoid sinking in

E
water.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct

N
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Catla

@
(1) Carcharodon
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) Clarias (4) Labeo
(4) Only statement B is correct 181. Which of the following is not an aerial adaptation of
174. In case of frogs, two urinogenital ducts emerge from members belonging to the class Aves?
(1) Female kidneys and open into urinary bladder (1) Modification of forelimbs into wings
(2) Male kidneys only and open into cloaca (2) Presence of hollow long bones
(3) Both male and female kidneys and open into (3) Presence of alimentary canal
cloaca
(4) Male kidneys and open into Bidder's canal (4) Air cavities in long bones
175. In Rana tigrina, excretory wastes are separated 182.Select the odd one w.r.t. open circulatory system.
(1) Balanoglossus (2) Aedes
from blood and excreted by
(1) Urinary bladder (2) Ureters (3) Petromyzon (4) Anopheles
(3) Cloaca (4) Kidneys 183. How many of the following animals given below in
the box are economically beneficial?
176. Which of the following belongs to the second largest
phylum of kingdom Animalia? Apis, Bombyx, Culex, Locusta, Pinctada
(1) Cuttlefish (2) Starfish (1) Two (2) Three
(3) Jellyfish (4) Angelfish (3) Four (4) One

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 AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-8 (Code-A)

184. Select the incorrect statement. 190. Assertion (A): In cockroach, gizzard helps in
(1) Awell-developed excretory system is present in grinding the food particles
flatworms and echinoderms Reason (R): Gizzard has an outer layer of cuticle
(2) Torpedo possesses electric organs. forming six chitinous plates called teeth.
(3) Mouth is mostly terminal in bony fishes. in the light of above statements, select the correct
(4) Snakes and lizards shed their option.
scales as skin
cast. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
185. Select the correct match. explanation of (A)
(1) Saccoglossus Indirect development (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) Betta correct explanation of (A)
Marine cartilaginous fish
(3) Bangarus External fertilisation (3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) Pheretima Blood sucking leech (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

R
SECTION -B 191. In Pheretima, blood glands are present on the
186. Match the Column I with Column ll and (1) 11th and 12h segments

P
select the
correct option. (2) 12th to 14h segments

X
Column I (3) 6th to 9th segments

T
Column I|
a Angelfish (4) 4h, 5th and 6th segments

E
() Osteichthyes
Jellyfish 192. Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed

E
(i) Mollusca muscular pharynx in
Dogfish (ii) Chondrichthyes

N
(1) Hookworm (2) Tapeworm
Cuttlefish (iv) Cnidaria (3) Brain coral (4) Scypha

@
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(i). d(ii) 193. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. cyclostomes.
(2) a(ii). b(iv), c(i). di) (1) Devoid of fins
(3) a(). b(iv), c(ii), d(iü) (2) Belong to division Agnatha
(4) a). b(i), c(), d(iv) (3) Exhibit closed circulatory system
187. Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular in (4) Undergoes indirect development
(1) Sponges (2) Cnidarians 194. Notochord is persistent throughout the life in
(3) Amphibians (4) Birds (1) Scoliodon and Amphioxus
188 Which of the following structures present in frog (2) Pristis and Doliolum
passes out through foramen magnum? (3) Ascidia and Exocoetus
(1) Midbrain (2) Cerebelum (4) Salpa and Myxine
(3) Optic lobes (4) Medulla oblongata 195. Psittacula is a bird and
189. Frogs are beneficial to mankind because of all of the Periplaneta belongs to
phylum Arthropoda. The common
following reasons, except two of them is feature among
(1) They eat insects (1) Presence of mesoglea
(2) They protect crop fron insects (2) Presence of chitinous exoskeleton
(3) There is uricotelism in frogs (3) Presence of crop and
(4) They maintain ecological balance
gizzard
(4) Tendency to regulate body
temperature
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 Test-8 (Code-A) AllIndia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

196. Comprehend the givern features: 198. Select the correct option to complete the analogy.
Spongilla : Water canal system : Water
(a) Creeping or crawiing mode of locomotion
vascular system
(b) Tympanum represents ear (1) Meandrina (2) Ophiura
(c) Poikilotherm (3) Loligo (4) Palaemon
The above features belongs to 199. Specialised cells flame cells
called for
osmoregulation and excretion are present in

R
(1) Chelone (2) Columba
(1) Taenia (2) Adamsia

P
(3) Canis (4) Catla
(3) Ascaris (4) Trygon

X
197. Which of the following is not true for Obelia? 200. Which one of the following statements about certain

T
(1) Exhibits metagenesis given animals is incorrect?

E
(2) Exhibits tissue level of organisation (1) Struthio is a flightless bird.

E
(3) Absence of mesoderm (2) Platypus is an oviparous mammal.

N
(3) Snakes do not have external ear opening.
(4) Presence of a skeleton composed of calcium
(4) Cutaneous respiration occurs in Carcharodon.

@
carbonate

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