[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
v2
1 (1) 2
− a2
1. The least count of a stop watch is s. The time of r
5
20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured as 25s. v4
(2) + a2
The percentage error in the measurement of time r2
will be
(1) 0.1 % v4
(3) 2
− a2
(2) 0.8 % r
(3) 1.8 %
v2
(4) 8 % (4) 2
+ a2
r
2. Two identical spheres of same material are in
contact with each other. If r be the radius of the 5. A block of mass m is released from a height h from
sphere, then gravitational attraction between them the top of a smooth surface. There is an ideal spring
is proportional to: of spring constant k at the bottom of the track. Find
(1) r the maximum compression in the spring. (Wedge
(2) r2 is fixed)
(3) r3
(4) r4

3. Two particles of equal mass m go round a circle of

radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle 2mgh
(1)
is k
1 1 mgh
(1) (2)
2R Gm k
Gm mgh
(2) (3)
2R 2k
1 Gm (4) Cannot be determined
(3)
2 R
6. A particle is dropped from rest from a height h0 on
4Gm
(4) a horizontal floor. The coefficient of restitution
R
between the floor and particle is e. Maximum
height attained by the particle after first rebound is
4. A car is travelling with a linear velocity v on a (1) eh0
circular road of radius r. If it is increasing its speed (2) e2h0
at the rate of a m/s2, then the resultant acceleration (3) e3h0
will be (4) e4h0

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[2]
7. The position vector of a particle is 11. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is
r = ( a sin t ) iˆ + ( a cos t ) ˆj. The velocity of the 1
given by U = kx 2 for x < 0 and U = 0 for x  0.
particle is 2
(1) Directed towards the origin If total mechanical energy of the particle is E, its
(2) Directed away from the origin 2E
speed at x = is
(3) Parallel to the position vector k
(4) Perpendicular to the position vector (1) Zero
2E
(2)
8. A shell of mass m moving with a velocity v breakes m
up suddenly into two pieces. The part having mass
E
m (3)
remains stationary. The velocity of the other m
3
part will be E
(4)
(1) v 2m
(2) 2v
2 12. A uniform string is vibrating with a fundamental
(3) v frequency f. The new frequency, if radius and
3
3 length both are doubled, would be
(4) v (1) 2f
2
(2) 3f
(3) f/4
9. A system is shown in the figure. The time period
(4) f/3
for small oscillations of the two blocks will be

13. An object of 4 kg mass, moving at 6 m/s velocity

strikes a spring and compress it by a distance x. If
3m the force constant of the spring is 900 N/m then
(1) 2
k what is the value of x
3m (1) 4 cm
(2) 2 (2) 40 cm
2k
(3) 20 cm
3m (4) None of these
(3) 2
4k
3m 14. A tangential force F acts at the rim of a ring of
(4) 2 radius R and causes the ring to turn through an
8k
angle . The work done by the force will be
10. A carnot engine has the same efficiency between FR
(1)
800 K to 500 K and x K to 600 K. The value of x is 
(1) 1000 K (2) FR
1
(2) 960 K (3) FR −
(3) 846 K 
(4) 754 K (4) FR − 

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[3]
15. For a constant hydraulic stress on an object, the 18. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on rough inclined
fractional change in the object’s volume (V/V) plane of inclination angle 37°. Coefficient of friction
and its bulk modulus(B) are related as between block and plane is 0.8, find minimum
V magnitude of F so that block remains at rest.
(1) B
V
V 1
(2) 
V B
V
(3)  B2
V
V 1
(4)  2
V B (1) 4N
(2) 124 N
16. A rod of length 2 is bent as shown in figure. (3) 122 N
(4) Zero
Coordinates of centre of mass are
19. The three vessels shown in figure have same base
area. Equal volumes of a liquid are poured in the
three vessels. The force on the base will be
maximum in

(1) A
(2) B
2 
(1)  ,  (3) C
 3 3 
(4) equal to all
 
(2)  , 
8 8 20. Extra pressure inside a soap bubble of radius (r) is
 3  proportional to
(3)  , 
4 4  (1) r
(2) 1/r
 
(4)  ,  (3) r2
 3 6 
(4) 1/r2

17. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of

21. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If K.E.
masses 3 kg and 6 kg. the velocity of mass 3 kg is
of rotation is 40% of K.E. in translatory state, then
16 ms–1. The kinetic energy of mass 6 kg is
the body is a
(1) 96 J (1) Ring
(2) 384 J (2) Cylinder
(3) 192 J (3) Hollow ball
(4) 768 J (4) Solid ball

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[4]
22. A particle of mass m moving towards west with (1) v = 5 m/s
speed v collides with another particle of mass m (2)  = 18 m
moving towards south. If two particles stich to each (3) A = 0.04 m
other, the speed of the new particle of mass 2 m (4) f = 50 Hz
will be
(1) v 2 27. The time period of a simple pendulum on a
v satellite, orbiting around the earth, is
(2)
2 (1) infinite
(2) zero
v
(3) (3) 84.6 min
2
(4) 24 hours
(4) v

23. If the work done in stretching a wire by 1 mm is 2 28. A gas follows VT2 = constant. Its volume
J, then work necessary for stretching another wire expansion coefficient will be
of same material but with double radius of cross- 2
(1)
section and half of the length by 1 mm is T
(1) 8 J 2
(2) −
(2) 16 J T
(3) 4 J 3
(4) 32 J (3)
T
3
24. Two identical particles move towards each other (4) −
T
with velocity 2v and v, respectively. This velocity
of the centre of mass is
29. The molar specific heat at constant pressure of an
(1) v
ideal gas is 7 R/2. The ratio of specific heat at
v
(2) constant pressure to that at constant volume is
3
9
v (1)
(3) 7
2
8
(4) zero (2)
7
25. For a wave propagating in a medium, identify the 7
(3)
property that is independent of the others. 5
(1) velocity 5
(4)
(2) wavelength 7
(3) frequency
(4) All these depend on each other 30. If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, then
which of the following is true?
26. Equation of progressive wave is given by (1) Room is cooled
  t x   (2) Room is heated
y = 4sin    −  +  , where x and y are in
 5 9  6 (3) Room is either cooled or heated
metre. Then, (4) Room is neither cooled nor heated

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[5]
31. If two sound waves having a phase difference of (1) 10–2m3
60°, then they will have a path difference of (2) 10–4m3
(1) /6 (3) 10–5m3
(2) /3 (4) 10–3m3
(3) 
(4) 3 SECTION - B
36. Assertion: Speed can’t be negative, but velocity
32. If  be the ratio of specific heats of a perfect gas, can be negative.
the number of degrees of freedom of a molecule Reason: Because distance can’t be negative but
of the gas is displacement can be negative.
25
(1) (  − 1) (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
2
3 − 1 Assertion.
(2) (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
2 − 1
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
2
(3) Assertion.
 −1 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
9 (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
(4) (  − 1)
2
37. Assertion: The earth without its atmosphere would
33. The Laplace correction was necessary to be inhospitably cold.
Newton’s calculation of velocity of sound because Reason: All heat would escape in the absence of
the propagation of sound in a medium is atmosphere.
(1) An isothermal process (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) An adiabatic process the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) An isobaric process Assertion.
(4) None of these (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
34. A black body is heated from 27°C to 127°C. The Assertion.
ratio of the energies of radiations emitted will be (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true

38. Assertion: Energy cannot be divided by volume.

Reason: Dimensions for energy and volume are
different.
(1) 3:4 (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) 9 : 16 the Reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) 27 : 64 Assertion.
(4) 81 : 256 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
35. The length, breadth and height of a glass slab are Assertion.
respectively 50 cm, 20 cm and 25 cm. Find the (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
order of magnitude of volume of slab in SI unit. (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true

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39. Assertion: A null vector is a vector whose 43. In a cyclic process, work done by the system is
magnitude is zero and direction is arbitrary. (1) Zero
Reason: A null vector does not exist. (2) More than the heat given to system
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (3) Equal to heat given to system
the Reason is the correct explanation of the (4) Independent of heat given to system
Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
44. When a stretched wire and a tuning fork are
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
sounded together, 5 beats per second are produced,
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. when length of wire is 95 cm or 100 cm. Frequency
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true of the fork is
(1) 90 Hz
40. Assertion: It is not possible for a system, unaided (2) 100 Hz
by an external agency to transfer heat from a body (3) 105 Hz
at a lower temperature to another at a higher (4) 195 Hz
temperature.
Reason: It is not possible to violate the second law
45. The sun emits a light with maximum wavelength
of thermodynamics.
510 nm, while another star X emits a light with
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
maximum wavelength of 350 nm. What is the ratio
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. of surface temperature of the sun and the star X?
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) 1.45
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the (2) 0.68
Assertion. (3) 0.46
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) 2.1
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
46. The angular velocity of a body changes from 1 to
41. A 10 kg iron bar (specific heat 0.11 cal/gm-°C) at 2 without applying torque. The ratio of initial
80°C is placed on a block of ice. How much ice
radius of gyration to the final radius of gyration is
melts?
(1) 1.1 kg (1) 2 : 1
(2) 10 kg (2) 1 : 2
(3) 16 kg
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 60 kg
(4) 1 : 2
42. A perfect gas is contained in a cylinder kept in
vacuum. If the cylinder suddenly busts, then the 47. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon
temperature of the gas (1) length of the wire
(1) becomes zero K
(2) radius of the wire
(2) Is decreased
(3) material of the wire
(3) Is increased
(4) shape of the cross-section
(4) Remains unchanged
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[7]
48. Particles of masses m, 2m, 3m, ..., nm grams are (1) 0.25 rad/s2
placed on the same line at distances, l, 2l, 3l,.... , (2) 25 rad/s2
nl cm from a fixed point. The distance of the centre (3) 5 m/s2
of mass of the particles from the fixed point (in (4) 25 m/s2
centrimetres) is
(2n + 1)l
(1) 50. A particle is executing linear simple harmonic
3
motion of amplitude A. What fraction of the total
l
(2) energy is kinetic when the displacement is half the
n +1
amplitude?
n(n 2 + 1)l
(3) 1
2 (1)
4
2l
(4) 1
n(n2 + 1) (2)
2 2
49. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass 1
(3)
3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular 2
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled 3
(4)
with a force of 30 N? 4

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A Which of the following relations is correct?
51. At a certain temperature in a 5 L vessel, 2 moles (1) K1 K 2 = K3
of carbon monoxide and 3 moles of chlorine were
allowed to reach equilibrium according to the (2) K 2 K3 = K1
reaction, CO + Cl2 ⇌ COCl2. At equilibrium, if (3) K3 = K1K 2
one mole of CO is present then equilibrium
(4) K3  K32 K12
constant (Kc) for the reaction is:
(1) 2
(2) 2.5 53. How many moles of HCOONa must be added to
(3) 3 1L of 0.1 M HCOOH to prepare a buffer solution
(4) 4 with a pH of 3.4?
(Given: Ka for HCOOH = 2 × 10–4 & 10–0.30 = 0.50)
52. For the following three reactions 1, 2 and 3,
(1) 0.01
equilibrium constants are given:
(2) 0.05
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g); K1
(2) CH4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO(g) + 3H2(g); K2 (3) 0.1
(3) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + 4H2(g); K3 (4) 0.2

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 CN CH 3
|
(1) CH 3 –C–CH 3
(CH3)2NH
|
Cu2O, 
Cl
54. The product is
F CH3
(2) |
CH3 –CH–CH 2 − Cl
NMe2 (3) Equimolar mixture of (1) & (2)
(4) CH3–CH–CH3
(1)
56. CH2 CH2 + HBr Peroxide (A) , (A) is
NMe2

(1) CH3 CH2Br

CN Br

(2) CH3 CH3

Br Br
(2) Br Br

NMe2 (3) CH3 CH3

(4) BrCH2 CH2Br

CN
57. Arrange the following A, B and C in order of their
reactivity towards E2 elimination
(3)
(A) CH3 − CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − Br
NMe2 |
F CH3
Br
NMe2 |
(B) CH3 —C—CH 2 —CH3
|
(4) CH3
CH3 Br
F | |
_ CH
(C) CH3 − C − CH 3
|
CH3
CH3 (1) A>B>C
55. |
h (2) B>A>C
CH3 –CH–CH3 +Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Monochlorination
→
(3) B>C>A
Major product is
(4) C>B>A

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58. Which of the following compounds undergoes
replacement of –Cl by –OH by merely warming
the compound with aqueous NaOH?
(2)

(1)

(3)

(2)
(4)

(3) 60. In the reaction

I + NaOH
CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯⎯
LiAlH
4 →(A) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 ⎯
→
(B) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→(C)
Ag(Dust)

The final product (C) is

(1) C2H5I1
(2) C2H5OH
(4) (3) C2H2
(4) CH3COCH3

CH3 – CH – CHO ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Product.

dil.NaOH
61.
|
59. The product (Y) of the following sequence of D
reactions would be The product of this reaction would be

(1)
(i) CHCl3 /NaOH/
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
+
→
(ii) H3O

(2)
(X) ⎯⎯⎯→
Br2 /Fe
(Y)

(3)

(1)
(4)

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[10]
62. ⎯⎯⎯→
NaBH 4
(A) (1) Cl

 (2) CH3
⎯⎯→
H

(B) Compound (B) is:
Cyclic
CH3
(3) COCH3

(1) CH 3
(4)

(2) 66. The decreasing order of basicity of following

aniline derivative is

(3)

(4) (1) and (3) both

(P) (Q) (R) (S)
63. The pKb value of NH3 is 5. Calculate the pH of the (1) S > R > P > Q
buffer solution, 1 L of which contains 0.01 M (2) P > R > Q > S
NH4Cl and 0.10 M NH4OH: (3) R > P > Q > S
(1) 4 (4) S > R > Q > P
(2) 6
(3) 8 67. Which of the following pairs are diastereomers:
(4) 10
(1)
64. Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salt MX,
MX2, M3X at temperature T are 4.0 × 10–8, 3.2 ×
10–14, and 2.7 × 10–15 respectively. Solubility (mol (2)
dm–3) of the salts at temperature “T” are in the
order:
(1) MX > MX2 > M3X
(2) M3X > MX2 > MX (3)
(3) MX2 > M3X > MX
(4) MX > M3X > MX2

65. In which of the following molecules all the effects (4)

namely inductive, mesomeric and
hyperconjugation operate?

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[11]
68. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3. There is free rotation 72. Which one of the following set of quantum
about (C2 – C3) bond. The second most stable form numbers is not possible for electron in the ground
is repeated after rotation of state of an atom with atomic number 19?
(1) 60º (1) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
(2) 120º (2) n = 2, l = l, m = 0
(3) 240º (3) n = 3, l = l. m = –1
(4) 360º (4) n = 3, l = 2, m = +2

69. Among the following compounds, the one which

73. Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1
can exhibit geometrical isomerism is-
shell such that:
(1) 1,3 -pentadiene
(2) 1, 2-butadiene 2n2 + 3n1 = 18
(3) 1, 2 -pentadiene 2n2 − 3n1 = 6
(4) 1, 4-pentadiene What will be the total number of photons emitted
when electrons transit to n1 shell
70. The correct IUPAC name of the given compound (1) 21
is (2) 15
I — C = C — C  C — OCH3 (3) 20
| |
F Cl (4) 10
(1) 3–Chloro–1–fluoro–1–iodo–4–methoxybut–
1–en–3–yne 74. Meitnerium is IUPAC official name of an
(2) 4–Methoxy–2–chloro–1–fluoro–1– element with atomic number
iodobutenyne (1) 113
(3) 3–Chloro–4–fluoro–4–iodo–1– (2) 118
methoxybutenyne (3) 104
(4) 2–Chloro–1–fluoro–1–iodo–4– (4) 109
methoxybutenyne
75. The correct order of decreasing second ionization
71. The correct structure of 6-Ethyl-2,3,5- energy of Li, Be, Ne, C, B
trimethylnonane is (1) Ne > B > Li > C > Be
(2) Li > Ne > C > B > Be
(1)
(3) Ne > C > B > Be > Li
(4) Li > Ne > B > C > Be
(2)
76. Assuming (2s−2p) mixing is not operative, the
paramagnetic species among the following is:
(3)
(1) Be2
(2) B2
(4) (3) C2
(4) N2
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77. Among the following pairs, those in which both 81. How many mole of Zn(FeS2) can be made from 2
species have similar structures are mole zinc, 3 mole iron and 5 mole sulphur.
(A) N3− , XeF2 (1) 2 mole
(2) 3 mole
(B) [ICl4 ]− , [PtCl4 ]2−
(3) 4 mole
(C) [ClF2 ]+ , [ClO4 ]− (4) 5 mole
(D) XeO3 , SO3
(1) (A) and (B) only 82. a and b are van der Waals’ constants for gases.
(2) (A) and (C) only Chlorine is more easily liquefied than ethane
(3) (A), (B) and (C) only because
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only (1) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2 H6

78. A certain amount of a reducing agent reduces x (2) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2 H6
mole of KMnO4 and y mole K2Cr2O7 in different (3) a for Cl2 > a for C2 H6 but b for Cl2 > b for
experiments in acidic medium. If the change in
C2 H6
oxidation state in reducing agent is same in both
experiments, x : y is (4) a for Cl2 > a for C2 H6 but b for Cl2 < b for
(1) 5 : 3
C2 H6
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 5 : 6
(4) 6 : 5 83. Van der Waals equation for 0.2 mol of a gas is:
 a 
(1)  P + 2  + (V − 0.2b ) = 0.2RT
79. The equivalent weight of H 2SO4 in the reaction:  V 
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 10HCl →
 a 
2MnSO4 + K 2SO4 + 5Cl2 + 8H2O is (2)  P +  (V − b ) = 0.02 RT
 0.04V 2 
M
 0.2a 
(1)
2 (3)  P + 2  (V − 0.2b ) = 0.2RT
 V 
(2) M
 0.04a 
(3)
3M (4)  P +  (V − 0.2b ) = 0.2RT
10  V2 
3M
(4) 84. The standard enthalpy of combustion of solid
5
boron is numerically equal to
80. 300 gm of 25% w/w solution of solute A is mixed 1
(1)  f H oB2O3 (s)
with 400 gm of 40% (w/w) solution of another 2
solute B. What is the w/w percentage of the new (2) f HB2O3 (s)
o

mixture?
(3) −f HB2O3 (s)
o
(1) 33.57%
(2) 35%
1
(3) 25% (4) −  f HoB2O3 (s)
2
(4) 40%

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85. When one mole of an ideal gas at pressure P is 88. In which of the following reaction CO2 (carbon
compressed to half its initial volume and dioxide) is not released?
simultaneously heated to twice its initial (1)
temperature, the final pressure is
(1) 4P
(2)
(2) 2P
(3) P
(3)
(4) 3P

SECTION - B (4)
86. Ksp for Ca (OH)2 is 5.5 × 10–6. What is the
maximum pH that can be attained in a sewage tank
treated with slaked lime?
(1) 9.35 89. Which compound would give 5 - keto −2 - methyl
(2) 10.35 hexanal upon ozonolyis?
(3) 11.35 CH3
(4) 12.35
(1)
87. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with CH3
CH3
chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and
produces (2) H 3C
CH3

(1) (3) CH3

CH3

(4)
CH3

90. Consider the given reaction:

(2) C

+ 3H2 Pd/C

B D
(3) In this reaction which one of the given ring will
undergo reduction?
(1) C
(4) (2) D
(3) A
(4) B

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[14]
91. The interchange of two groups (Br and CH3) at the 93. Total number of 2° carbon present in given
chiral centre of the projection formula (I) yields compound is x, so the value of x – 7 is
the formula (II), while the interchange of another
set of two groups (C2H5 and Cl) of (I) yields the
projection formula (III).

(I)

(1) 6
(2) 8
(II) (3) 9
(4) None of these

94. If in Bohr’s model, for unielectronic atom, time

period of revolution is represented as T n, z where
(III) n represents shell no. and Z represents atomic
number then the value of T 1, 2 : T2, 1 will be :
(1) 8 : 1
Which of the following statements is not correct
(2) 1 : 8
about the structures (I), (II) and (III)-
(3) 1 : 1
(1) (II) and (III) are identical
(4) 1 : 32
(2) (I) and (III) are enantiomers
(3) (II) and (III) are enantiomers
95. The first (H1) and second (H2) ionisation
(4) (I) and (II) are enantiomers
enthalpies (in KJ mol–1) and the electron gain
enthalpy (eg H) (in KJ mol–1) of the elements I, II,
92. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect?
III. IV, V and VI are given below:
Elements H1 H2 egH
(1) 3, 6-Dimethyl cyclohexene I 520 7300 – 60
II. 419 3051 – 48
III. 1681 3374 – 328
IV. 1008 1846 – 295
(2) 1, 6-Dimethyl cyclohexene V. 2372 5251 + 48
VI. 738 1451 – 40
The least reactive element based on the above data
(3) 6, 6- Dimethyl cyclohexene is:
(1) III
(2) IV
(4) 1, 5- Dimethyl cyclohexene (3) II
(4) V
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96. In a polar molecule, the ionic charge is (1) 15
4.8 × 10–10 e.s.u. If the inter ionic distance is 1 Å (2) 20
unit, then the dipole moment is (3) 19
(1) 41.8 debye (4) 12
(2) 4.18 debye
(3) 4.8 debye 99. The critical constants for water are 374°C, 218
(4) 0.48 debye atm and 0.0566 L mo1–1. Then
(1) van der Waal constant a = 0.189 L mo1–1
97. 2g of metal on reaction with H2SO4 give 5g metal (2) van der Waal constant b = 0.0189 L mol–1
(3) van der Waal constant b = 2.095 L mol–1
sulphate. Find equivalent mass of metal?
(1) 2
8
(4) At critical point z =
(2) 16 3
(3) 32 100. Consider the following chemical changes
(4) 64 I. CaC2(s)+2H2O(l)→Ca(OH)2(s)+C2H2(g)
II. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)
98. A polystyrene having the formula Br 3C6H3 III. 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(g) → Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g)
(C8H8)n, was prepared by heating styrene with Work is done by the system in the cases of
(1) I and II
tribromo benzoyl peroxide in the absence of air. If
(2) II and III
it was found to contain 10.45% of bromine by
(3) Only I
mass. Find the value of n.
(4) None of these

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 103. In 1953, George Palade had observed presence of
101. Golgi complex is NOT related with the function of dense particles in the cytoplasm of animal cell.
(1) Glycosylation of lipids These particles are
(2) Formation of cell plate during cytokinesis of (1) Known as protein factories
plant cells (2) Surrounded by a single membrane
(3) Formation of a hydrolytic enzymes of (3) Composed of mRNA and proteins
lysosomes. (4) Found in cytoplasm only
(4) Breakdown of xenobiotics (man made
chemicals) for detoxification. 104. A cell at metaphase II can be differentiated from the
cell at metaphase I in having
102. An interphase nucleus contains all, except. (1) Double metaphasic plates
(1) Chromatin (2) Chromosomes with sister chromatids
(2) Nucleolus (3) Each chromosome, connected to both the
(3) Spindle fibres spindle poles
(4) Nuclear envelope (4) None of above

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105. Mark the taxon that is equivalent to the taxon Q. Calotropis and mustard show opposite
'insecta' of house fly, in hierarchy. phyllotaxy
(1) Poaceae of wheat R. In lupin, younger flowers are present towards
(2) Hominidae of man the apex
(3) Dicotyledonae of brinjal S. In Bougainvillea, the peduncle terminates into
(4) Sapindales of mango a flower
P Q R S
106. In dinoflagellates: (1) T F F T
P. Body is covered by pecto-cellulosic plates. (2) T F T T
Q. Flagella is made up of flagellin protein (3) F F T T
R. Cell wall resembles a soap box (4) T F F F
S. Autotrophic mode of nutrition is found
(1) P and S 111. P. The attachment of a stamen to a tepal is called
(2) P and Q epipetalous condition which is found in lily
(3) Q and R flowers.
(4) R and S Q. When stamens are free, it is called polyandrous
condition as in flowers of Citrus.
107. In wheat plants (1) Only statement P is correct
(1) Roots originate from every node of stem (2) Only statement Q is correct
(2) Primary root is short lived (3) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Roots move against the direction of gravity (4) Both the statements are correct
(4) Main root is further branched into secondary
and tertiary roots 112. How many of the following features (I to V) are
similar between flowers of fabaceae and solanaceae
108. The long, thin, thread-like, spirally coiled structure families?
of cucumber is I. Floral symmetry
(1) A modification of stem II. Aestivation of corolla
(2) A modified axillary bud III. Position of floral parts on the thalamus w.r.t.
(3) A modification of leaf ovary
(4) Both (1) and (2) IV. Cohesion of stamens
V. Presence of syncarpous bilocular ovary
109. The subaerial stem of Pistia (1) Five
(1) Contains long internodes (2) Four
(2) Grows aerially but sometimes arch (3) Two
downwards (4) One
(3) Contains rosette of roots on alternate nodes
(4) Have tuft of roots on each node 113. Which one is NOT a secondary lateral meristem?
(1) Fascicular vascular cambium
110. Read the following statements and mark them as (2) Interfascicular cambium
True (T) or False (F) (3) Cork cambium
P. In pitcher plant, leaves are modified to trap (4) All are the examples of secondary lateral
insects meristem
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114. Assertion: In both lactic acid and alcohol 119. Which of the following features are common
fermentation, not much energy is not released. between basidiomycetes and deuteromycetes?
Reason: Lactic acid and alcohol fermentation lead P. Cell wall composition
to complete oxidation of glucose into CO2 and H2O. Q. Absence of asexual spores
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the R. Presence of septate and branched mycelium
reason is the correct explanation of the S. Presence of dikaryonphase
assertion. (1) P and Q
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the (2) P and R
reason is not the correct explanation of the (3) Q and R
(4) P and S
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
120. Colchicine is obtained from a plant and is very
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
useful tool for doubling of chromosomes. The
statements.
plant which provides colchicine is found in a
115. Specialised upper epidermal cells of certain monocot family having followimg characteristics except
leaves that help them during drought show all (1) Absence of corolla
following features, except (2) Valvate aestivation
(3) Trilocular quary
(1) Large & Empty cells
(4) Parietal placentation
(2) Found in groups
(3) Green coloured
121. In maize seed
(4) Involved in curling of leaves to minimise (1) Seed coat is membranous and fused with
water loss pericarp
(2) Endosperm fat only
116. Spring wood is characterised by all, except (3) Embryo is large and situated above endosperm
(1) Wide lumen in vessels (4) Coleoptile covers both plumule as well as radicle
(2) High density
(3) High porosity 122. When the carpels are free then they are said to be
(4) Lighter colour as compared to winter wood ___P___ as in ___Q___.
Complete the above statement by selecting the
117. Select the incorrect matched pair. correct option for
(1) Chemotaxonomy – Chemicals used P Q
(2) Cytotaxonomy – Chromosome (1) Apocarpous Tomato
behaviour (2) Apocarpous Lotus
(3) Karyotaxonomy – Number of (3) Syncarpous Lotus
chromosomes (4) Syncarpous Tomato
(4) Phylogenetics – Usage of numbers and
codes 123. Heartwood includes
P. Peripheral secondary xylem
118. Natural system of classification is based on all Q. Vessels and tracheids filled with tannins, resins
except. etc.
(1) Anatomy R. Highly lignified, living xylary elements.
(2) Embryology S. Non functional secondary xylem.
(3) Morphology (1) P and R (2) Q and S
(4) Phylogeny (3) P and Q (4) Q and R

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124. Read the following statements w.r.t hydroponics 128. Phloem sap mainly contains
P. In this method, plants are grown in a soil free (1) Only hormones and amino acid
defined mineral solution. (2) Only water and hormones
Q. It has been successfully employed as a technique (3) Mainly water and disaccharide
for commercial production of vegetable such as (4) Mainly monosaccharide and hormone
seed-less cucumber and lettuce
Now choose the correct option. 129. Who performed a series of experiments that
(1) Only P is correct
revealed the essential role of air in the growth of
(2) Only Q is correct
green plants?
(3) Both are correct
(1) Joseph Priestley
(4) Both are ncorrect
(2) Julius von Sachs
125. Match the mineral elements given in column I with (3) T.W. Engelmann
their respective functions in column II in select the (4) Cornelius van Niel
correct option.
Column I Column II 130. Membrane channels is characterised by all, except
P. Calcium i. Pollen germination (1) Can be closed or remain open
Q. Potassium ii. Opening and (2) May possess large pore size
closing of stomata (3) Are form of transmembrane proteins
R. Boron iii. Water splitting reaction in
(4) Allow movement of large size proteins
photosynthesis
S. Chlorine iv. Normal function of cell
membrane 131. Plant can adjust the quantity and quality of solutes
P Q R S that reach the xylem through transport proteins of
(1) i iii ii iv (1) Pericycle
(2) iv iii ii i (2) Root hair
(3) i ii iii iv (3) Cortex
(4) iv ii I iii (4) Endodermis

126. Ammonia is first oxidised to nitrite by bacteria. 132. Which of the following is a living mechanical tissue?
(1) Nitrobacter (1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Nitrococcus (2) Collenchyma
(3) Pseudomonas (3) Aerenchyma
(4) Thiobacillus (4) Parenchyma

127. Deficiency of all of the following elements lead to 133. Step of glycolysis in which ATP is broken into
necrosis or death of tissue, particularly leaf tissue,
ADP is catalysed by the enzyme
except.
(1) Aldolase
(1) Ca
(2) Hexokinase
(2) Mg
(3) Invertase
(3) Cu
(4) Mn (4) Isomerase

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134. GTP is formed during the conversion of (1) C2H4
(1) Malic acid → Oxaloacetic acid (2) 2, 4-D
(2) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid (3) GA3
(3) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(4) Fumaric acid → Malic acid (4) ABA

135. Which of the following complexes are involved in 140. Cell regains the capacity to divide under certain
FADH2 and NADH oxidation through ETS conditions, this is called
respectively? (1) Differentiation
(1) Complex I & II
(2) Quiescence
(2) Complex II & I
(3) Complex, III & IV (3) Redifferentiation
(4) Complex II & IV (4) Dedifferentiation

SECTION - B 141. Which of these can NOT be done by application of

136. Production of phosphoglycolate due to activity of IAA in plants?
RuBisCO occur in which of the following pathway
(1) Early seed production
in plants?
(1) CAM pathway (2) Abscission in old mature leaves
(2) Photorespiration (3) Apical dominance
(3) C3–cycle (4) Root initiation in ștem cutting
(4) C4–cycle
142. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. vernalisation.
137. Chlorophyll–a is
P. Bright or blue green in the chromatogram. (1) Can be done in biennial polycarpic plants for
Q. Chief pigment of reaction centre. induction of flowering
R. Involved in both cyclic and non-cyclic (2) Promotes flowering by low temperature
photophosphorylation. (3) Prevents precocious reproductive development
(1) All P, Q and R are correct
late in growing season
(2) Only P and Q are correct
(3) Only P is correct (4) Seen in some annual & biennial
(4) Only Q and R are correct
143. Choose the option that correctly differentiates
138. The F1 head piece in mitochondria is a
between secondary growth of dicot stem and root.
(1) Catalytic site which produces ADP from ATP
(2) Channel through which proton cross the outer Dicot stem Dicot root
membrane (1) Vascular cambium is Vascular cambium is
(3) Integral membrane protein complex completely primary in completely secondary
(4) Peripheral membrane protein complex origin in origin
(2) Cambial activity is Cambial activity is
139. Fruit ripening, Seed germination, Differentiation always uniform uniform throughout
of chloroplast, Female flower in cucumber, Delay throughout the year the year
leaf senescence, Petiole elongation in deep water (3) Conjunctive tissue Pericycle forms
rice, Flowering in mango
forms cambium vascular cambium
With reference to the above mentioned role of
growth hormones, maximum functions are shown (4) Cork cambium forms Cork cambium does
by periderm not form periderm

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144. Mark the appropriate option for P and Q. 147. Girdling experiment demonstrates that
I. The predominant stage of the life cycle of a (1) Xylem is responsible for translocation of water
in one direction
moss is the ___P___
(2) The growth below the ring on the stem
II. Dryopteris is a ___Q___ species. increases
P Q (3) Phloem is responsible for translocation of food
(1) Gametophyte Heterosporous (4) Transpiration pull acts during night only
(2) Gametophyte Homosporous
148. Assertion: Taxonomic keys are tools that help in
(3) Sporophyte Homosporous
identification based on characteristics.
(4) Sporophyte Heterosporous Reason: The taxonomic keys are generally non
analytical in nature.
145. Identify the NOT correct statement for (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
gymnosperms.
assertion.
(1) These are phanerogams without fruits.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(2) The male and female gametophytes do not have reason is not the correct explanation of the
an independent free-living existence assertion.
(3) The stem is branched in Cycas and Cedrus (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Pinus is monoecious
statements.

146. Which of the following statements w.r.t. 149. Conjoint and closed vascular bundles are NOT
photosynthesis is/are correct? found in
P. Three carbons are present in the primary CO 2 (1) Mustard leaf
(2) Mustard stem
acceptor of C4 plants.
(3) Wheat stem
Q. Temperature optimum for C4 plant is 5°C. (4) Wheat leaf
R. RuBP is the primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants.
(1) Only P & R 150. If there are 26 chromosomes in a cell in the G 2
phase, find out the number of chromosomes in its
(2) P, Q & R
meiosis I products.
(3) P only (1) 26
(4) R only (2) 13
(3) 39
(4) 52

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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 155. Visual purple is found in
151. The factor responsible for repolarisation of an (1) Bipolar cells
axonal membrane is (2) Ganglionic cells
(1) Opening of K+ leaky channels (3) Rods
(4) Cones
(2) Opening of voltage gated Na+ channels
(3) Closure of Na+ leaky channels 156. Choose the incorrect match
(4) Opening of voltage gated K+ channels (1) Gigantism → High secretion of GH
before puberty
152. Read the given statements and select the option that (2) Acromegaly → High secretion of GH
correctly classifies them as true(T) or false(F) after puberty
A. Human skeleton has 206 bones in an adult (3) Dwarfism → Low level of GH
B. There are usually 12 pairs of ribs in man before puberty
C. Sternum is present on the dorsal side of the (4) Exopthalmic → Low secretion of
human body goitre thyroxine after puberty
D. Myasthenia gravis refers to progressive
157. Which of the following is not true with respect to
degeneration of smooth muscles mostly due to
the vision of cockroach?
autoimmune disorder (1) Mosaic vision
A B C D (2) Superposition vision
(1) T T F T (3) More sensitivity
(2) F F T T (4) Less resolution
(3) F T F F
(4) T T F F 158. Choose the correct match
Hyposecretion Disease
153. The portion of myofibril between two successive of hormone
(1) Estrogen Osteoporosis in
Z-lines and considered as functional unit of
males
contraction is (2) Thyroxine Myxoedema in
(1) Sarcoplasm infants
(2) Sarcolemma (3) Parathormone Tetany
(3) Sarcomere (4) Vasopressin Diabetes mellitus
(4) Sarcoma
159. Choose the incorrect option
154. Select the incorrect statement (1) Cretinism → Deaf mutism due to
(1) Na+/K+ ATPase is an electrogenic pump that hyposecretion of thyroxine in
helps to maintain electrochemical ionic children
gradient across axolemma (2) Goitre → Enlargement of thyroid gland
(2) At rest, axoplasm has lower Na + ions due to hyper-secretion of
concentration than K+ ion concentration TSH
(3) Brain stem comprises of midbrain and (3) Diabetes → Diuresis due to
hindbrain insipidus hyposecretion of ADH
(4) Thalamus part of hindbrain is responsible for (4) Myopia → Defect can be overcome by
using convex lens
emotions like anger and rage
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160. Select the incorrect statement 164. Read the following statements carefully
(1) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates A. Body is divisible into head and trunk
are not vertebrates B. Tympanum represents ear
(2) All diploblastic animals are acoelomate but all C. Skin is without scales
acoelomate are not diploblastic. D. Heart is three chambered
Above statements are not suitable for
(3) All triploblastic animals are eucoelomates but
(1) Salamandra
all eucoelomates are not triploblastic
(2) Ichthyophis
(4) All insects are arthropods but all arthropods
(3) Bufo
are not insects (4) Myxine

161. All of the following are characteristics of non- 165. Pteropus is commonly known as
chordates, except (1) Tongue worm
(1) Ventral, solid, double nerve cord (2) Duckbilled platypus
(2) Gills may be present but gill slits are absent (3) Flying fox
(3) Heart, if present, is ventral and usually neurogenic (4) Pearl oyster
(4) Post anal tail is absent
166. Exclusively marine animals are found in _______
162. Match column I with column II and choose the and _______ phyla
(1) Porifera and coelenterata
correct option
(2) Coelenterata and ctenophora
Column I Column II
(3) Echinodermata and porifera
A. Unipolar I. Retina of eye
(4) Echinodermata and ctenophora
neurons
B. Bipolar neurons II. Dorsal root ganglion of 167. Match column I with column II and choose the
spinal nerve correct option
C. Pseudo unipolar III. Cerebral cortex Column I Column II
neurons Paired structures situated
Pair of
D. Multipolar IV. Early embryos A. I. in 2nd to 6th abdominal
spermatheca
neurons segments in cockroach
Mushroom Lying laterally in 4th to
A B C D
B. shaped II. 6th abdominal segments
(1) IV I II III gland in cockroach
(2) IV I III II 6th - 7th abdominal
(3) I IV II III segments which functions
C. Testes III.
(4) I III II IV as an accessory
reproductive gland
163. How many moults occur during metamorphosis in 6th segment which opens
D. Ovaries IV.
into the genital chamber
Periplaneta?
A B C D
(1) 10
(1) IV III II I
(2) 12 (2) I II III IV
(3) 13 (3) I III IV II
(4) 14 (4) III IV I II

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168. Structure responsible for cutting of food in 174. The channels made of six proteins that make a
cockroach are central pore and facilitate passive transport of
(1) Mandibles usually small polar molecules like ions and other
(2) Maxillae
small molecules are named
(3) Hypopharynx
(1) Gap junctions
(4) Labium
(2) Tight junctions
169. Choose the incorrect statement in relation to (3) Carrier proteins
chondrichthyes (4) Adherens junctions
(1) They are mostly oviparous and exhibit
external fertilisation 175. What will be the primary and immediate adverse
(2) Gills are without operculum effect observed if our goblet cells become non-
(3) Teeth are modified into placoid scales which
functional due to some reason?
are directed backwardly
(4) They constantly swim to avoid sinking (1) Digestion of proteins in stomach is totally inhibited
(2) Complete inhibition of gastric juice secretion
170. The body of an animal ‘X’ is divided into a number of takes place
segments during embryonic development but in adult (3) Chances of excoriation of mucosal membrane
stage this segmentation is not seen except in certain of stomach increase
internal body parts. The animal ‘X’ is likely to be (4) Absorption of iron in alimentary canal does not occur
(1) Sycon
(2) Periplaneta americana
176. Select the correct match of enzymes listed, their
(3) Pheretima posthuma
(4) Taenia solium site of action, their substrate and optimum pH
Site of
Enzyme Substrate pH
171. Ligament forms a connection between action
(1) Muscle to muscle (1) Amylopsin Pancreas Starch 7.8
(2) Bone to muscle (2) Trypsinogen Duodenum Peptones 6.8
(3) Bone to skin Small
(3) Nucleotidase Nucleoside 6.8
(4) Bone to bone intestine
Carboxy- Small
172. Presence of lacunae in matrix is the characteristic (4) Polypeptide 7.8
peptidase intestine
feature of
(1) Bone only
177. What would be outcome if body temperature is
(2) Cartilage only
(3) Both bone and cartilage increased due to enhanced metabolic activities?
(4) Muscle (1) Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve will shift
to right side at tissue level
173. Which of the following statements is not correct for (2) Affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen will
enzyme? increase at tissue level
(1) Most of the enzymes are proteinaceous in nature (3) Sensitivity of chemoreceptors to pO2 increases
(2) Enzymes are very specific in function
dramatically while it falls for pCO2 & H+
(3) Most of the enzymes denature at high temperatures
(4) Bohr’s effect will not occur
(4) Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction
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178. Stomach is mainly responsible for initial digestion
of ___A___ and absorption of ___B___
Choose the option which correctly describes A and
B in the given blanks respectively
A B
(1) Carbohydrates Alcohol
(2) Lipids Carbohydrates
(3) Proteins Alcohol
(4) Alcohol Proteins
179. Read the following statements carefully & select
the incorrect statement
(1) Carbon monoxide binds to Hb with higher affinity
than oxygen and forms carboxyhaemoglobin
(2) Nearly 23% of oxygen is transported as
oxyhaemoglobin in RBCs of blood
(3) 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
under normal physiological conditions
(4) About 07% of CO2 gets transported via blood plasma
180. Upon stimulation of a muscle fibres, the
intracellular calcium (Ca2+) is released from
(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(2) Nucleus
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Mitochondria
181. Under the influence of ADH, maximum reabsorption of
water occurs in _____ segments of a nephron
(1) Distal convoluted tubule
(2) Collecting duct
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) Proximal convoluted tubule
182. Read the following statements regarding various
steps of urine formation
A. Blood flows through glomerular capillaries
under a pressure created due to difference in
diameter of afferent and efferent arterioles
B. Filtrate formed after ultrafiltration is isotonic
to blood plasma
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C. Reabsorption of glucose occurs throughout
the tubules of nephron
D. Selective tubular secretion of H+ and K+ ions
help in maintaining ionic balances of body
Select the option having only correct statements
(1) A and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and D
(4) C and D
183. Read the following statements and select the
correct option
Statement I: Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs between
Rh+ve mother and Rh–ve foetus after first pregnancy
Statement II: Erythroblastosis foetalis can be
avoided by administering Rh antigens to mother
immediately after delivery of first child in all cases
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
184. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. counter-current
mechanism
(1) Osmolarity of filtrate increases while moving
down the descending limb of loop of Henle
(2) There will be no urine formation if loop of
Henle is absent in mammalian nephrons
(3) NaCl and urea maintain the osmolarity
gradient in medulla
(4) Osmolarity of fluid moving out from the
collecting duct is four times than that of
plasma
185. Heart disorder in which cardiac muscles are
suddenly damaged by inadequate supply of blood is
(1) Heart failure
(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Heart attack
(4) Atherosclerosis
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 SECTION - B
186. Epithelium lining the inner surface of hollow
structures like fallopian tubes and bronchioles is
(1) Simple columnar epithelium
(2) Squamous epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium
187. The average systolic and diastolic blood pressure
in adult human under normal physiological
conditions are ____ and _____, respectively
(1) 90 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg
(2) 120 mm Hg and 20 mm Hg
(3) 40 mm Hg and 100 mm Hg
(4) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg
188. Read the following statements w.r.t. mechanism of
muscle contraction and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Visceral muscles are located in the inner
walls of hollow visceral organs
Statement II: I-band gets reduced during
contraction whereas A-band retain its length
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
189. Consumption of excessive amount of coffee and
beer causes
(1) No impact on renal system
(2) Increased urinary output than normal
(3) Decreased production of glomerular filtrate
(4) Failure of micturition reflex
190. Which of the following blood vessels carries blood
from intestine to the liver before it is delivered to
systemic circulation?
(1) Intestinal mesenteric capillaries
(2) Hepatic portal vein
(3) Hepatic vein
(4) Jugular vein
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191. Arrange the following nitrogenous waste products
in decreasing order of their toxicity and choose the
correct option
(1) Urea > Ammonia > Uric acid
(2) Uric acid > Ammonia > Urea
(3) Ammonia > Urea > Uric acid
(4) Ammonia > Uric acid > Urea
192. Read the following statements carefully and choose
the option with all correct statements
I. Language comprehension is function of cerebrum
II. In presence of light, rhodopsin dissociates into
opsin and retinal which is derivative of vitamin-C
III. Bowman’s glands are located in olfactory
epithelium of our nose
IV. The transparent lens in human eye is held in
its position by ligaments attached to the iris
(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) I and III
193. __A__ is the blood without formed elements,
clotting factors, while __B__ is blood without
formed elements
Choose the option that correctly fills the given
blanks A and B
A B
(1) Lymph Serum
(2) Serum Plasma
(3) Sebum Lymph
(4) Lymph Plasma
194. Assertion (A): Muscle fibre is a syncytium
Reason (R): Sarcoplasm contains many nuclei
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, (R) is true
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195. In cockroach, the sense organs are
(1) Antennae and eyes
(2) Maxillary and labial palps
(3) Anal cerci
(4) All of the above
196. Read the statements I and II carefully and select the
correct option
Statement I: Each half of pelvic girdle consists of
a clavicle and a scapula
Statement II: Scapula has a spine that projects as
a flat expanded process called acromion process
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct
197. Transition state structure of the substrate formed
during an enzymatic reaction is
(1) Permanent and stable
(2) Transient but stable
(3) Permanent but unstable
(4) Transient and unstable
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
198. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option
Statement I: Sense organs are transducers and
they transform the energy of a stimulus to the
energy of nerve impulses
Statement II: Sense organs do not interpret the
stimulus, it is done by brain
(1) Only statement I is correct
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Only statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
199. Which of the following hormones is produced by
juxtaglomerular cells of kidney and stimulates
erythropoiesis?
(1) Cortisol
(2) Rennin
(3) Erythropoietin
(4) Atrial natriuretic factor
200. Association areas are
(1) Sensory areas found in deeper part of cerebral
cortex
(2) Motor areas found in surface layer of grey
matter of cerebrum
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor, found in
grey matter of cerebrum
(4) Hypothalamic neurons which secrete hormones
[27]
Rough Work
Rough Work
Rough Work