SET-I

DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL, RUBY PARK ,KOLKATA

BLOCK TEST [2020-21]
Class – XII

Time : 3 Hours Subject: Biology (044) Maximum Marks: 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. There are a total of 27 questions and five sections in the question paper. All questions are
compulsory.
2. Section A contains question numbers 1 to 5, multiple choice questions of one mark each.
Section B contains question numbers 6 to 12, short answer type I questions of two marks
each.
Section C contains question numbers 13 to 21, short answer type II questions of three
marks each.
Section D contains question number 22 to 24, case-based short answer type questions of
three marks each.
Section E contains question numbers 25 to 27, long answer type questions of five marks
each.
3. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, internal choices are provided in
two questions of one mark, one question of two marks, two questions of three marks and
all three questions of five marks. An examinee is to attempt any one of the questions out
of the two given in the question paper with the same question number.
__________________________________________________________________________

SECTION – A [1x5=5]

Q.1) First phase of embryonic development is:

a) Cleavage b) Gastrulation c) Fertilisation d) Gametogenesis
OR
Which one of the following events is correctly matched with the time period in a normal menstrual
cycle?
a) Release of egg: 5th day
b) Endometrium regenerates: 5-10 days
c) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation: 11 - 18 days
d) Rise in progesterone level: 1 – 15 days

Q.2) The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during
which month of pregnancy?
a) Sixth month b)Third month c) Fourth month d) Fifth month
OR
How many secondary spermatocytes will be required to form 400 spermatozoa?
a) 100 b) 200 c) 40 d) 400
Q.3) Progesterone present in contraceptive pill is meant for –
a) Checking ovulation
b) Preventing implantation of zygote
c) Preventing fertilization
d) Preventing cleavage

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Q.4) From a cross AaBB x aaBB following genotypic ratio will be obtained in F1 generation-
a) 1 AaBB : 3 aaBB b) 3 AaBB : 1 aaBB c) All AaBB and no aaBB d) 1AaBB : 1 aaBB

Q.5) What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters?

a) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and O2
b) Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
c) Methane and CO2
d) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2

SECTION – B [2x7=14]

Q.6) State two functions of each of the following- a) Endometrium b) Placenta.

OR
a) Why does corpus luteum secrete large amount of progesterone during luteal/secretory phase
of the menstrual cycle?
b) When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans?
Q.7) Explain why parturition is called a neuro-endocrine mechanism.
Q.8) A healthy couple is detected with inability to produce functional gametes. Name the ART and
explain the procedure you would suggest solving the problem.
Q.9) A cross between a normal couple resulted in a son who was haemophilic and a normal daughter.
In course of time, when the daughter was married to a normal man, to their surprise, the grandson was
also haemophilic.
a) Represent this cross in the form of a pedigree chart. Give the genotypes of the daughter and
her husband.
b) What conclusion do you draw about the inheritance pattern of this disease?
Q.10) Why is that transcription and translation can be coupled in prokaryotic cells but not in
eukaryotic cells?
Q.11) Regulation of lac operon can be visualised as regulation of enzyme synthesis by its substrate.
Explain the statement.
Q.12) Integrated Pest Management may involve the use of naturally occurring viruses. Name the
category of viruses employed and state their advantages.

SECTION – C [3x9=27]

Q.13) Provide brief explanation with suitable example for-

a) Rewards for pollinators b) Pollination in sea grasses
Q.14) a) Embryo sacs of some apomictic species appear normal but contain diploid cells. Suggest a
suitable explanation for the condition.
b) Name the seeds of two plants that have retained their viability for thousands of years.
OR
a) State the names and functions of the various wall layers of a mature anther.
b) Provide a suitable, labelled diagram to explain the above.
Q.15) Give reasons-
a) The ploidy of the angiospermic embryo and food laden tissue are different.
b) “Microspore” and” pollen grain” are not the same for a Botanist.
c) Geitonogamy has glimpses of both autogamy and xenogamy
Q.16) Draw a labelled diagram of a human blastocyst. How does it get implanted in the uterus?
Q.17) Gametogenesis is a well organised, hormone-mechanised process. Justify with the help of
oogenesis as an example.
Q.18) a) Mention the problems that are taken care of in the Reproduction and Child Health Care
Programme.
b) What is amniocentesis and why is there, a statutory ban on it?
Q.19) A DNA segment has a total of 1000 nucleotides, out of which, 240 are adenine.How many
pyrimidine bases do this DNA segment possess. Illustrate with the help of a diagrammatic
sketch of a portion of DNA segment.

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Q.20) Study the given pedigree chart and answer the questions that follow-

a) Is the trait recessive or dominant?

b) Is the trait sex-linked or autosomal?
c) Give the genotypes of the parents in generation I and of their 3rd and 4th child in
generation II.
OR
A red-eyed heterozygous female fruit fly is crossed with a red-eyed male. Work out all possible
genotypes and phenotypes of the progeny. Comment on the pattern of inheritance of eye colour
in fruit flies.

Q.21) In peas, tallness is dominant over dwarfness and red colour of flowers is dominant over the
white colour.When a tall plant bearing red flowers was pollinated by a dwarf plant bearing
white flowers,the different phenotypic groups were obtained in the progeny as-
Tall-red=138 Tall-white = 132 Dwarf – red = 136 Dwarf – white =128
Mention the genotypes of the two parents and types of four offspring.

SECTION – D [3x3=9]

Q.22)

a) What does the diagram depict?

b) Label A,B C and D correctly
c) State the function of C.

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Q.23)

a) Correctly label A,B,C,D.

b) Which step of the process is depicted here?
c) What is expected to happen when the complex reaches the end of mRNA and how?

Q.24)

a) What is depicted in the above picture ?

b) Describe in detail, the steps involved in the above process.
c) Define BOD and state the significance of its measure.

SECTION – E [5x3=15]

Q.25 (a) Differentiate between flocsand activated sludge.

(b)Name the microbes that produce –
1) ) Streptokinase 2) Ethanol 3 Butyric acid 4) Acetic acid
(c) Name the methods employed in primary sewage treatment.
OR
a) Describe critically, the main ideas behind biological control of pests and diseases.Explain
with the help of suitable examples.
b) Who initiated –
1)Ganga Action Plan and Yamuna Action Plan?
2) The technology of Biogas production in India?
c) What is the advantage of growing Bt cotton?

Q.26) a) Explain the mechanism of DNA replication. Highlight the role of enzymes in the process.
b) Why does one new strand lag while the other one leads?
OR
a) What was the conclusion drawn by Griffith at the end of his experiments with Streptococcus
pneumoniae?
b) Name the scientists who provided an experimental proof to Griffith’s findings.
c) Describe the method they employed to prove that DNA is the genetic material in bacteria.

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Q.27) a) Name the scientist who postulated the presence of an adapter molecule that can assist in
protein synthesis.
b) Describe its structure with the help of a diagram and mention its role in protein synthesis.
c) What are the components required for amino acylation of this adapter?
OR
a) State any three important goals of the Human Genome Project.
b) Differentiate between Expressed Sequence Tagging and Sequence Annotations.
c) What is the significance of SNPs?

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