1. A drug receptor can be any of the following except: 4.

RCOR is a general formula of

A. Isolatable enzyme A. Amide
B. Functional component of a cell membrane B. Ketone
C. Protein or nucleic acid C. Imide
D. Chelates D. Amino

A drug receptor can be an isolatable enzyme, a The C=O group, known as carbonyl group links all
structure and functional component of a cell membrane, or a types of structural units of hydrocarbon or substituted HC or
specific intracellular substance, such as a protein or nucleic heterocycles. The general formulas for other organic
acid and is usually a small portion of a macromolecule. compounds are in the table below:
Interaction between the functional groups of the receptor
and the complementary functional groups of the drug GROUP NAME TYPE STRUCTURE
initiates changes in structure and function of the Alcohols ROH
macromolecule that ultimately lead to the observable Phenols ArOH
biologic response Ethers ROR
Aldehydes RCOH
Ketones RCOR
2.This results from the forces of attraction between nonpolar Carboxylic acids RCOOH
region of molecules and the biological receptor
Esters RCOOR
A. van der Waals forces
B. Covalent bonds
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Hydrophobic bonds 5. In IUPAC name for CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 is
A. Ethyl-n-propylether
Hydrophobic bond is the tendency of hydrophobic B. Ethylisopropylether
molecules or hydrophobic (non-polar) parts of molecules to C. Ethoxypropane
avoid water because they are no readily accommodated in D. n-propoxyethane
the H-bonding structure of water and is not actually bond
formation In naming ethers in the IUPAC system, the smaller
Van der Waals forces are attractive forces created group containing the ether oxygen is identified and then
by polarizability of molecules and are excreted when any two treated as a substituent on the parent chain. The group’s
uncharged atoms approach very closely name has the suffix “oxy”. In this case, the smaller group has
Covalent bonds are effective and useful when 2 carbon atoms, so its ethoxy, CH3CH2O and the remaining
relatively long lasting or irreversible effects are desired carbon chain has 3 carbon atoms so propane, therefore the
because of the strong bond between the drug and the name is ethoxypropane
biologic receptor
Many drugs possess groups such as carbonyl,
hydroxyl, amino and imino, with the structural capabilities of 6. What type of isomers are O-xylene and m-xylene?
acting as receptors or donors in the formation of hydrogen A. Chain
bonds B. Functional
C. Positional
D. Geometric
3. Molecules which are _______readily penetrate a variety of
cells and tissues Chain isomers result if the position of some alkyl
A. Are lipid soluble groups on a parent carbon chain is altered. These chain
B. Are non-ionized isomers have the same number of carbon and hydrogen
C. Have low partition *ortho – adjacent
D. Are isolatable * para – directly opposite each, other
*meta – one carbon between two substituted
The pKa can have a pronounced effect on the carbons
pharmacokinetics of the drug. In general, the non-ionized or Position isomers, results if the position of the double
non-polar form of the drug readily passes through the bond is transferred. These will have the same number of
nonpolar membranes of capillary walls, cell membranes and carbon and hydrogen.
blood-brain barrier Geometric isomers are also known as cis-trans, syn-
anti isomers. Overlapping of the p orbitals to form pi bon
constitutes sufficient barrier to rotation to make it possible
to isolate isomers at room temperature
7. This structural effect is characterized by the presence of a
bulky group which may cause an alteration in the properties
of a substance
A. Pi electron
B. Sigma electron
C. Steric effect
D. Inductive effect
Steric effects may result in congestion which is
sometimes relieved by twisting the bonds from their normal
bond angles
Inductive effect involves the presence of strong
electronegative groups of atoms, electron repelling groups or
groups that have highly polarisable outermost electrons
which results in distortion of the electron cloud
8. Which of the following is not an acid derivative?
A. Esters
B. Acid halide
C. Acid anhydride
D. Ketone
Acid derivatives are formed when portions of the
carboxyl group is replaced by halogen, amino or acid
grouping
Esters: type formula = RCOOR – formed when the
hydroxyl group is replaced by an alkoxy group, RO
Acid halide: type formula = RCOX – formed when
the hydroxyl group is replaced by a halogen, which is either
chlorine or bromine
Acid anhydride: type formula = RC=O-O-O=CR –
formed when the OH group is replaced by an acid group,
RCOO
9. Esters when hydrolyzed forms
A. Acid and alcohol
B. Acid and acid
C. Acid and aldehyde
D. Acid and ketone
Hydrolysis of esters, the ester is heated with an
aqueous or alcoholic solution of a strong base may result in
the formation of alcohols. Esters react slowly with water and
the reaction is catalyzed by hydrogen or hydroxide ions
RCOOR + H2O  RCOOH + ROH
10. This is formed when a secondary alcohol is oxidized
A. Ether
B. Ketone
C. Ester
D. Acid
Secondary alcohol, R2CHOH, yield ketones, R2C=O,
on oxidation. With sufficient oxygen or air, the alcohols burn
to CO2 and H2O.
Oxidation of primary alcohols, RCH2OH yield and
aldehyde and an acid
Tertiary alcohols are not oxidized readily due to the
fact that there is not hydrogen attached to the carbon
holding the oxygen atom
11. Belstein Test is used to test for the presence of
A. Sulfur
B. Oxygen
C. Halogen
D. Nitrogen
Belstein test confirms the presence of halogens.
When an organic halogen compound is burned upon a
surface of copper wire, cuprous halide is formed and imparts
a green color to the flame
Oxygen is tested with ferrox paper
Test for nitrogen include Lassaigne’s test, Benzidine
Test and Will-Varentrop tests
12. Methods of preparing ketones except:
A. Direct dehydrogenation or primary alcohol
B. Decarboxylation by fusion of calcium organic salts
C. Hydrolysis of dihalide
D. Oxidation of secondary alcohols
Aldehydes and not ketones are formed by the direct
dehydrogenation of primary alcohols. When lower primary
alcohols are passed over hot metals, especially Cu, Ag or a
CuAg alloy at 20 degrees Celsius, they are dehydrogenated
or they lose hydrogen and are converted to aldehydes
13. One of the first known surgical anesthetics and still the
safest, it is also known as Oleum vitriol dulce
A. Halothane
B. Chloroform
C. Ether
D. Ethylchloride
Diethylether was introduced by Crawford W. Long
of Jefferson, Georgia in 1842. It is a potent and complete
anesthetic. It is aptly reputed to be a safe drug in relatively
unskilled hands. It has a good margin of safety and causes
excellent muscular relaxation without undue depression of
the CNS. It stops respiration before it stops the heart;
consequently it is possible to revive a patient by means of
artificial respiration. Its use as a single clinical anesthetic has
declined with the availability of volatilve anesthetics with
more desirable properties
14. CNS depressants that calm the nerves and decrease the
state of excitement without producing sleep
A. Hypnotics
B. CNS relaxants
C. Sedatives
D. Tranquilizing agents
The term sedatives refer to a quieting effect
accompanied by relaxation and rest, but not necessarily
sleep. Sedative drugs are used to allay excitement and
anxiety without inducing sleep
The term hypnotic refers to the production of sleep.
Hence, hypnotic drugs are used to induce drowsiness and
help the onset and maintenance of sleep
15. Loss of muscle coordination is
A. Anesthesia
B. Ataxia
C. Strain
D. Neurosedation
Ataxia is a cerebellar disease, e.g., overshooting a
mark, drawling, scanning, sing song speech
Anesthesia is a condition of inability to appreciate
sensation
16. Inflammation of a small soft tissue located between parts
that move upon one another
A. Strain
B. Bursitis
C. Sprain
D. Spondyilits
Bursitis is the inflammation of a bursa, i.e., small
cushion sacs found between body parts, making movement
easier. It is relatively common disorder most often cause by
excessive or repetitive exercise or sudden trauma to the
joints. The condition is generally treated with immobilization
of the joint and anti-inflammatory drugs
Injuries to skeletal muscles resulting from
overexertion or trauma results usually in muscle strain
If an injury occurs in the area of a joint and a
ligament is damaged, the injury may be called sprain
17. This is the first sulphonamide discovered to be effective
against pneumonia
A. Prontosil
B. Sulfanilamide
C. Sulfacetamide
D. Sulfapyridine
The outstanding effect of sulfapyridine against
pneumonia was first recognized by Whitby. However,
because of its highly toxic, it is now used only for dermatitis
herpetiformis and it has been supplanted largely by
sulfadiazine and sulfamerazine
Prontosil is a bright red dye which releases
sulphanilamide and used for the treatment of staphylococcal
septicaemias
Sulfanilamide is the parent substance and the
simplest of the sulphonamides. It was discovered by Fuller in
1937 from the blood and urine of patients being treated with
Prontosil. From this, over 4500 have been synthesized and
tested but only about 2 dozen have actually been used in
clinical practice. Sulfanilamide is toxic, often causing severe
kidney damage
Sulfacetamide sodium is used as a topical
application in the local management of ophthalmic
infections
18. The actinomycete has antitumor effect and is useful in
treating carcinomas of the testes and uterus
A. Cosmegen
B. Polymyxin
C. Amphoterecin B
D. Terramycin
Cosmegen (MSD), which is dactinomycin is an
antineoplastic drug that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase. It is approved for use in Wilm’s tumor,
rhabdomyosarcoma and carcinoma of the testest and uterus
Amphoterecin B has the widest spectrum of anti-
fungal activity of any systemic anti-fungal drug
19. Pentanol has a stronger antibacterial action than
A. Hexanol
B. Heptanol
C. Propanol
D. Octanol
The antibacterial potencies of primary alcohols
(against S. aureus) increase with molecular weight up to
carbon 8, where the cut-off is reached. Beyond this point,
water solubility is less than the minimum effective
concentration and the apparent potency decreases with
molecular weight. Thus, pentanol which has 5 carbon atoms
is more potent that propanol, which only has 3 carbon atoms
20. RONa is also known as
A. Williamson’s reagent
B. Fehling’s reagent
C. Grignard reagent
D. Tollen’s reagent
The Williamson’s synthesis which involves the
interaction of the sodium alkoxide with an alkyl halide. RONa
+ R’X  ROR’ + NaX is a generally applicable method of
preparing either simple or mixed ethers. A given alcohol can
be transformed into the corresponding simple either by
converting the one part of it to the sodio derivative and
another to the bromide or iodide and bringing these two
compounds into reaction with each other
21. Dr. Joseph Lister introduces this compound in surgery
and is regarded as the oldest antiseptic
A. Phenol
B. Iodoform
C. Sulfonamides
D. Antiobiotics
Phenol, also known as carbolic acid, was introduced
as a surgical antiseptic by Sir Joseph List in 1867. In addition
to its germicidal activity, phenol has caustic and local
anesthetic actions. It is general protoplasmic poison that is
toxic to all cells
22. This anti-tubercular drug is the most potent and most
selective
A. Streptomycin
B. Isoniazid
C. Viomycin
D. PAS
Isoniazide, or isonicotinic hydrzide (INH) is a
remarkably effective agent and continues to be one of the
primary drugs (along with rifampicin and ethambutol) for the
treatment of tuberculosis. A synthetic analog of pyridoxine,
it is the most potent of the anti-tubercular drugs, but is never
given as a single agent in the treatment of acute tuberculosis
Streptomycin is effective against the tubercle
bacillus. In itself, it is not a cure, but is a valuable adjunct to
the standard treatment of tuberculosis.
PAS or aminosalicyclic acid is believed to prevent
the incorporation of p-amine-benzoic acid into the
dihydrofolic acid molecule catalyzed by the enzyme
dihydrofolate synthetase
Viomycin is a second line anti-tubercular agent,
occasionally substituted for streptomycin in infections
resistant to that antibiotic
22. This carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is used as diuretic in the
treatment of glaucoma
A. DFP
B. Diuril
C. Diamox
D. Mercuhydrin
The most common use of acetazolamide (Diamox) is
to reduce the elevated intraocular pressure of open angle
glaucoma. It is also used in the treatment of epilepsy and
mountain sickness. Acetazolamide is a sulphonamide
without antibacterial activity
23. An alkaloid used in obstetric surgery to bring about a
state of semi-consciousness and amnesia called “twilight
sleep”
A. Atropine
B. Scopolamine
C. Papaverine
D. Hyoscyamine
A sufficiently large dose of scopolamine will cause
an individual to sink into a restful, dreamless sleep for a
period of eight hours, followed by a period of approximately
the same length in which the patients is in a semi-conscious
state. During this time, the patient does not remember
events that take place. When scopolamine is administered
with morphine, this temporary amnesia is termed twilight
sleep
Atropine is a CNS stimulant, causing restlessness
and talkativeness
Papaverine exerts an antispasmodic effect on
smooth muscle
Hyoscyamine is the levo form of the racemic
mixture known as atropine. It is used to treat disorders of the
urinary tract
24. This is the only fixed oil that is soluble in alcohol
A. Cod liver oil
B. Corn oil
C. Peanut oil
D. Castor oil
Castor oil is the fixed oil obtained from the seed of
Ricinus communis L. (Fam. Euphorbiacease). It is soluble in
alcohol, and is used externally as an emollient, internally as a
laxative
Cod liver oil is the partially destearinated fixed oil
obtained from the fresh liver of Gadus morrhua L. and other
species of the family Gadidae. It is a source of Vitamins A and
D. It is slightly soluble in alcohol
Corn oil is the refined fixed oil obtained from the
embryo of Zea mays Linne (Fam. Poaceae). It is slightly
soluble in alcohol and its main official uses is as a solvent and
vehicle for injections
Peanut oil is the refined fixed oil from the seed
kernels of one or more of the cultivated varieties of Arachis
hypogaea L. (Fam. Fabaceae). It is very slightly soluble in
alcohol and is used as a solvent in preparing oil for solution
for injection
25. This is the chemical classification of parathion and
malathion which are extensively used as insecticides are
A. Organosulfates
B. Chlorophenothanes
C. Organophosphates
D. Hexachlorophenes
These pesticides are potent anticholinesterase
inhibitors and can be very toxic. This inhibition results in both
muscarinic and nicotinic effects. Malathion is used asan
insecticide and acaricide in the treatment of pediculosis and
scabies. Lotions of 0.5% and shampoos of 1% are commonly
available. Parathion also has insecticidal and ascaricidal
properties
26. This vitamin is used for the treatment of pernicious
anemia
A. Thiamine
B. Niacin
C. Ribofalvin
D. Cyanocobalamin
Vitamin B12, cyanocobalamin, occurs in nature as a
cofactor that originally was isolated as cyanocobalamin and
Vitamin B12 b (hydroxocobalamin). A deficiency of vitamin
B12 leads to an anemia. Pernicious anemia is due to lack of
the intrinsic factor. The symptoms involve systems that have
rapidly dividing cells and the nervous system. These
symptoms are readily reversed by vitamin B12
supplementation, however, the nerve damage is irreversible
27. Paraldehyde oxidizes in air forming
A. Acetic acid
B. Formic acid
C. Propionic acid
D. Butyric acid
Acetaldehyde, a volatile liquid for pungent smell and
marked reactivity, undergoes rapid polymerization under the
influence of a trace of sulfuric acid to less volatile and
unreactive trimer, paraldehyde. Paraldehyde is used as a
hypnotic. Aldehydes, having a hydrogen atom on the
oxidized carbon of the carbonyl group, are subject to ready
oxidation, yielding acids. Paraldehyde upon oxidation yields
acetic acid
28. This general anesthetic is gaseous at room temperature
A. Ether
B. Chloroform
C. Ethylene
D. Halothane
The three gaseous anesthetics are ethylene,
cyclopropane and nitrous oxide. Ethylene is a colorless gas
with an unpleasant odor. Luckhardt and Lewis rediscovered
its anesthetic properties and found it to be slightly more
potent than nitrous oxide and similar to it in pharmacologic
properties. The use of high concentration of ethylene to
produce surgical anesthesia may cause anoxia, necessitating
the use of high concentrations of oxygen to relieve it, this will
make the anesthetic mixture highly explosive
29. Lean meats, liver and poultry are good sources of
A. Pyridoxine
B. Thiamine
C. Niacin
D. Panthothenic acid
Niacin, nicotinic acid or B3 was first prepared by the
oxidation of the alkaloid nicotine but not until 1913 was it
isolated from yeast and is recognized as an essential food
factor. Generous sources of this vitamin include pork, lamb
and beef livers, hog kidneys, yeasts, porks, beef tongue,
hears, lean meats, wheat germ, peanut meal and green peas
Pyridoxine is available from whole grain cereals,
peanuts, corn, meat poultry and fish
Thiamine can be obtained from the germ of cereals,
brans, egg yolks, yeast extracts, peas, beans and nuts
Excellent sources of pantothenic acid are liver, eggs
and cereal
30. The absorption of this drug is enhanced by taking it with a
fatty meal
A. Nystatin
B. Clotrimazole
C. Griseofulvin
D. Ketoconazole
E. Ampothericin B
Griseofulvin is a very lipophilic compound with very
low water solubility, that is why it has poor oral
bioavailability. The most successful attempts to improve oral
absorption have concentrated on improving the dissolution
of the antibiotic in the GIT by reducing particle size. The
bioavailability of griseofulvin may also be increased by
administering the drug with fatty meal
31. Penicillins and cephalosporins have a common ring
known as
A. Thiazolidine
B. Dihydrothiazine
C. Beta-lactam
D. Benzene
The beta-lactam ring structure is a four-membered
cyclic amide contained in antibiotics that constitute the
dominant class of agents currently employed for
chemotherapy of bacterial infections. The first antibiotic
used in therapy, penicillin and cephalosporins are both beta-
lactam antibiotics
32. Which of the following is not used for the symptomatic
relief of non-productive cough?
A. MAOI’s
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. A and B
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are used for
symptomatic relief of severe reactive or endogenous
depression in hospitalized patients or closely supervised
patients who have not responded to other anti-depressant
therapy
N-acetylcysteine is an expectorant and used to
reduce the viscosity of pulmonary secretions and facilitate
their removal
Dextromethorphan is an antitussive. Antitussives
are substances that specifically inhibit or suppress the act of
coughing. It controls cough spasms by depressing the cough
center in the medulla
33. The GIT absorption of ________may be impaired by
certain divalent ions
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Nystatin
Tetracyclines form stable chelate complexes many
metals, including calcium, magnesium and iron. Such
chelates are usually very insoluble in water, accounting for
the impairment in absorption of most (if not all) tetracyclines
in the presence of milk, calcium, magnesium, and aluminum
containing antacids and iron salts
34. The principal effect of Vitamin A is in the maintenance of
what tissue?
A. Epithelial
B. Connective
C. Osseus
D. Vascular
Vitamin A participates in the maintenance of the
integrity of the epithelial membranes. There is a growing
body of epidemiological data which suggest that foods which
are a good source of vitamin A and carotenoids are
protective against a variety of epithelial cancers. This
association simply may be a result of a chronic vitamin A
deficiency, since vitamin A is required in normal cell
differentiation of stem cells in epithelial tissue
35. This tetracycline is most likely to cause photosensitivity
A. Tetracycline
B. Minocycline
C. Demeclocycline
D. Aureomycin
Demeclocycline has an antibiotic spectrum similar
to that of other tetracyclines, but it is slightly more active
than the others against most of the microorganisms for
which they are used. Similar to the other tetracyclines, it may
cause frequent photosensitivity reactions that produce
erythema after exposure to sunlight. However, it appears
that demeclocycline produces the reaction somewhat more
frequently than the other tetracyclines
36. The tetracyclines are _______ drugs
A. Intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic
B. Intermediate spectrum, bactericidal
C. Broad spectrum, bactericidal
D. Broad spectrum, bacteriostatic
The tetracyclines are truly broad-spectrum
antibiotics with the broadest spectrum of any known
antibacterial agents. They are active against a wide range of
G+ and G- bacteria spirochetes, mycoplasmas, rickettsia and
Chlamydia. However, their bacteriostatic action is a
disadvantage in the treatment of life-threatening infections
37. The function of allopurinol when prescribed with
antineoplastic agents
A. Prevent hyperuricemia
B. Decrease liver toxicity
C. Inhibit alopecia
D. Accomplish AOTA
 Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor which is
frequently administered to cancer patients receiving
chemotherapy to reduce hyperuricemia. Allopurinol reduces
the production of uric acid by competitively inhibiting the
last two steps in uric acid biosynthesis, which are catalyzed
by xanthine oxidase
38. This antihyperlipidemic drug acts through a mechanism
that involves inhibition of cholesterol synthesis
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Cholestyramine
C. Clofibrate
D. Colestipol
Animal studies show that the fibrates, an example of
which is clofibrate can cause lowering of plasma cholesterol
by inhibiting cholesterol synthesis in the liver (mechanism
unknown) and by increasing biliary excretion of cholesterol
into the feces. It also causes a decrease in plasma
triacylglycerol levels by stimulating lipoprotein lipase
activity, thereby reducing triacylglycerols in chylomicrons
and VLDL, and this hastening the removal of these particles
from the plasma. Gemfibrozil is also a derivative of fibric acid
Niacin or nicotinic acid causes a decrease in liver
triacylglycerol synthesis, which is required for very low
density lipoprotein production
Chlolestyramine is an anion exchange resin that
binds negatively charged bile acids and bile salts in the small
intestine. Lowering the bile acid concentration causes
hepatocytes to increase conversion of cholesterol to bile
acids, resulting in a replenished supply of these compounds
39. This action of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonists
A. Vasodilation
B. Increase in gastric secretions
C. Itching
D. Increase in salivary secretions
Histamine2 receptors mediate gastric acid
secretion. H1 receptor blockers competitively block the
receptor mediated response of the target tissue. Its actions
include treating allergies, prevention of symptoms of motion
sickness, treatment of insomnia. Oral antihistamines also
exert a weak anticholinergic effects, leading not only to
drying of the nasal passages but also a tendency to dry the
oral cavity. Histamine promotes vasodilation by causing
vascular endothelium to release nitric oxide; this chemical
signal diffuse to the vascular smooth muscle where it
stimulates cGMP production, causing vasodilation
40. Chloramphenicol comes from
A. Streptomyces venezuelae
B. S. orientalis
C. S. kanamyceticus
D. Bacillus subtilis
Chloramphenicol or chloromycetin was isolated by
Ehrlich et al. In 1947 and obtained it from Streptomyces
venezuelae, an organism that was found in a sample soil
collected in Venezuela. Since that time, chloramphenicol has
been isolated as a product of several organisms found in soil
samples from widely separated places. In 1949, its structure
and synthesis has been reported which led to its production
by a totally synthetic route
Vancomycin was isolated from S. orientalis. The
organism was originally obtained from cultures of an
Indonesian soil sample and subsequently has been obtained
from Indian soil
Kanamycin was isolated in 1957 in Japan by
Umezawa and co-workers from S. kanamyceticus
41. Gantrisin is an example of
A. Sulfa drug
B. Antacid
C. Antibiotic
D. Antihypertensive
Gantrisin is sulfafurazole and is available in different
dosage forms: eye drops and eye ointment for bacterial eye
infections, oral suspension and tablets for bacterial infections
and as an adjunct in falciparum malaria
42. Which of the following antibiotics does not act upon the
50s bacterial ribosomes?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Lincomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Cephalosporin
Cephalosporin is an inhibitor of cell wall synthesis,
same as penicillins, carbapenems and monobactams. They
interfere with the last step in bacterial cell wall synthesis
(transpeptidation or cross-linkage) thus exposing the
osmotically less stable membrane. Cell lysis can then occur
and these drugs are therefore bactericidal
Chloramphenicol binds to the bacterial 50s
ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis at the
peptidyl transferase reaction. It is either cidal or static
depending on the microorganism
Lincomycin and erythromycin are macrolides whose
mechanism of action is to bind irreversibly to a site on the
50s subunit of the bacterial ribosome, thus inhibiting the
translocation of protein synthesis. Generally considered
bacteriostatic, they may be bactericidal at higher doses
43. This antibiotic affects the m-RNA synthesis of bacteria
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Tetracyclines
C. Rifampin
D. Nystatin
Rifampicin blocks transcription by interacting with
the beta-subunit of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase, thus inhibiting RNA synthesis by suppressing
the initiation step. This drug is specific for prokaryotes
Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines affect protein
synthesis
Nystatin is a polyene antibiotic which binds to
ergosterol and disrupts membrane functions leading to cell
death
44. Pro-vitamin A
A. Carotene
B. Azulene
C. Phytofluene
D. Anthracene
Examples of provitamin A are α,ß and δ-carotenes
and cryptoxanthin. These carotenoid pigments are
provitamins A because they are converted to the active
Vitamin A. The carotenoid pigments are utilized poorly by
humans, whereas animals differ in their ability to utilize these
compounds
45. This indicator is used as a purgative in medicine
A. Phenolphthalein
B. Alizarin
C. Methylrosaniline chloride
D. Sodium fluoroscein
Phenolphthalein is classified as a stimulant cathartic
and is one of the most widely used cathartic drugs.
Phenolphthalein colors an alkaline urine red and small
portions may appear in the urine after oral ingestion
46. The presence of _______renders benzalkonium chloride
inactive
A. Organic acids
B. Gram negative organisms
C. Cationic surfactants
D. Soaps inorganic salts
Benzalkonium chloride is a cationic surfactant
inactivated by soaps and other anionic detergents. Because
of this, all traces of soap must be removed from the skin and
other surfaces before they are applied. It possesses
detergent, emulsifying and wetting actions. It is employed as
an antiseptic for skin and mucosa in concentration of 1:750 to
1:20,000
47. Chymopapain is used for therapy of herniated lower back
disks. It is a/an
A. Local anesthetics
B. Antibiotic
C. Adrenergic beta blocker
D. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
E. Proteolytic enzyme
Chymopapain is a proteolytic enzyme isolated from
the latex of papaya. Chymopapain is used as an injection into
the intervertebral disk in the treatment of sciatic pain
secondary to herniation of intervertebral disks of the lumbar
spine. Chymopapain injection should be administered under
local anesthesia rather than under general anesthesia
48. This is specific for the measurement of glucose
A. Benedict’s solution
B. Acetest tablets
C. Clinitest tablets
D. Tes-tape
E. Ketostix
Testape (Lilly) is a specific test but extremely simple
enzyme test for glucose. Reagent strips are impregnated
with glucose oxidase, peroxidise and ortholidine. When
dipped into a solution of glucose, oxidation occurs and
hydrogen peroxide is formed which oxidizes ortholidine to a
blue color
Benedict’s test is the traditional test for glucose in
ruin and it relies on the reduction of cupric ions in alkaline
solution to reddish orange insoluble cupric oxide
Acetest reagent is available in tablet form and
reagent strip
Clinitest is a modification of Benedict’s test in the
form of a tablet
Ketostix used as dip-and-read test on urine or serum
are used to test the presence of acetone or ketone bodies
49. Lactic acid is
A. Ethanedioic acid
B. Dihydroxysuccinic acid
C. 2-hydroxypropionic acid
D. Ethanoic acid
E. cis-butanedioic acid
 The common name of an organic acid is based on
the number of carbon atoms in the compound. Since, lactic
acid has three carbon atoms, it is called propionic acid. Some
organic acids have substituents on the parent carbon chain; it
may be a halogen, hydroxyl, keto, amino, aryl or alkyl
groups. The substituent group is found in the second carbon
and it is a hydroxyl group. Thus, the name 2-
hydroxypropionic acid
50. The various penicillins that are available differ chemically
A. In the nature of the acyl side chain
B. In substituents on the fused ring nucleus
C. In spatial arrangements of atoms around an asymmetric
carbon
D. In the nature of the original nucleus
E. Only by being different salts
These compounds differ chemically in the acid
moiety of the amide side chain. Variations in this moiety
produce differences in antibiotic effect and in physico-
chemical properties, including stability. Examples are as
follows:
 Pen G – benzylpenicillins
 Pen V – phenoxymethylpenicillin
 Methicillin – 2,6-dimethylpenicillin
 Ampicillin – D-alpha amino benzyl penicillin
 Carbenicillin – alpha-carboxybenzyl penicillin
51. This penicillin is both acid stable and penicillinase
resistant
A. Methicillin
B. Disodium carbenicillin
C. Ampicillin
D. Oxacillin
E. Penicillin V
The steric effects of the 3-phenyl and 5-methyl
groups of the isoxazolyl ring prevent the binding of oxacillin
to the beta-lactamase active site, and thereby protect the
lactam ring from degradation. It is also relatively resistant to
acid hydrolysis and therefore may be administered orally
with good effect
Oxacillin sodium is the salt of a semisynthetic
penicillin that is highly resistant to inactivation by
penicillinase
52. Lactulose is
A. Synthetic disaccharide
B. Refined lactose
C. Milk sugar
D. Polysaccharide
E. Cellulose derivative
Lactulose is a disaccharide containing one molecule
of galactose and one molecule of fructose and is prepared by
the epimerization of lactose (a disaccharide containing one
molecule of galactose and one molecule of glucose) in a lime
water medium. It is used to reduce blood ammonia levels in
patients with portal-systemic encephalopathy
53. Alprostadil is a prostaglandin marketed for
A. Uses as an abortifacient
B. Maintaining the patency of the ductus arteriosus in
neonates
C. Treatment of hypertension
D. Reducing inflammation in arthritis
E. Treatment of asthma
Endogenous prostaglandin E1 helps maintain the
patency of the ductus arteriosus of the fetus. After birth,
prostaglandin production falls and the ductus arteriosus
closes. However, when there are congenital heart defect, it is
necessary that the ductus remain patent until corrective
surgery can be accomplished. In such instances, infusion of
alprostadil helps maintain patency pending surgery
54. Which is not true for camphor?
A. Forms a eutectic mixture with phenol
B. Can be powdered by rubbing with a small amount of
alcohol or ether
C. Is a ketone
D. Dissolves readily in water
E. Is one of the ingredients of flexible collodion USP
Camphor is a ketone obtained from Cinnamomum
camphora Nees et Ebermaier (Fam. Lauraceae). When
camphor is mixed in approximately molecular proportions
with chloral hydrate, methol, phenol, or thymol, liquefaction
ensues; such mixtures are known as eutectiv mixtures. It is a
pharmaceutical necessity for flexible collodion and
camphorated opium tincture. However, it does not readily
dissolves in water: 1 g of camphor is soluble in about 800mL
of water
55. A soap can be formed by a reaction between
A. An alcohol and an organic fatty acid
B. A phenol and an inorganic acid
C. An inorganic base and an inorganic acid
D. An organic base and an inorganic acide
E. An inorganic base and an organic acid
Saponification is the term used when an ester is
hydrolyzed in the presence of a strong base. Since the
reaction between an acid and an alcohol is reversible, it
follows that the addition of a base will remove the acid and
thus upset the equilibrium. More ester will hydrolyze and the
acid formed will combine with the base. In time all the ester
will be converted into the alcohol and the salt of the organic
acid
56. This hormone initiates and controls male sexual
development and maintains the integrity of the male
reproductive system
A. Testosterone
B. Insulin
C. Corticotropin
D. Estradiol
E. Vasopressin
The interstitial cells are the seat of production of a
steroid hormone, testosterone. However, it is mainly the
metabolite, dihydrotestosterone, which stimulates and
maintains the secondary sex organs. It also exerts sustaining
effects on the spermatogenic cells, and it stimulates the
development of bone muscles, nerves, skin and hair growth
and emotional responses to produce the characteristic adult
masculine traits. This group of combined actions of this
hormone is termed androgenic actions
57. Which of the following is not considered as a centrally
acting antitussives
A. Nospacine
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Codeine
D. Benzocaine
E. Diphenhydramine
Benzocaine is not a centrally acting antitussive but
rather is an insoluble local anesthetic. It is usually employed
as an ointment to relieve pain associated with ulcers, wounds
and mucous surfaces. Benzocaine commonly is combined
with antitussives such as dextromethorphan, in cold
medications
58. Levarterenol is
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Levorphanol
D. Dopamine
E. Ephedrine
When norepinephrine is used as a drug, it is
sometimes called levarterenol. It is used to treat shock
because it increases vascular resistance and therefore
increases blood pressure. It is never used for asthma
59. Rubbing alcohol is a form of denatured alcohol containing
denatured alcohol containing approximately _________of
absolute alcohol
A. 49%
B. 70%
C. 92%
D. 95%
E. 100%
Rubbing alcohol contains 68.5 – 71.5% by volume of
absolute ethyl alcohol. It is applied externally as a cooling,
soothing application for bedridden patients and athletes. As
an antiseptic it is a good against vegetative bacteria and fair
against fungi and viruses. It is believed widely that 70%
ethanol provides the greatest reduction in bacterial count,
however this is an error. Other concentration may be more
effective, but their rate of kill is slower
60. Which of the following drugs is not an antimetabolite?
A. 5-fluorouracil
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Digoxin
Antimetabolites are structurally related to normal
cellular components. They generally interfere with the ability
of normal purine or pyrimidine nucleotide precursors by
inhibiting their synthesis or by competing with their DNA or
RNA synthesis. Examples of antimetabolites are: cytarabiine,
fludarabine, 5-fluouracil, 6-mercaptopurine, methotrexate,
6-thioguanine. These are all used for cancer chemotherapy
Sulfisoxazole is a sulphonamide and is structurally
similar to PABA, it competes with this substrate for the
enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase, this preventing the
synthesis of bacterial folic acid and formation of its one-
carbon carrying factor. This deprives the cell of essential
cofactors for purine, pyrimidine and amino acid synthesis
61. It is an inactive drug that is activated predictably in vivo
to the active drug
A. Analog
B. Soft drug
C. Prodrug
D. Targeted drug
Most prodrugs are compounds that are inactive in
their active form, but are easily metabolized to the active
agent. Others are metabolic precursors of the active form.
Occasionally, the prodrug approach is used to enhance the
absorption of a drug that is poorly absorbed from the GIT.
The prodrug approach can also be used to alter the solubility
characteristics which, in turn, can increase the flexibility in
possible dosage forms
PRACTICE SET 9. Pharmacologist who proposed molecular modification as a
means of altering the properties of drugs
1. Soaps are classified as A. Dr. Ferguson
A. Cationic surfactants B. Dr. Burger
B. Anionic surfactants C. Dr. A. Fleming
C. Amphoteric surfactants D. Dr. P. Ehrlich
D. Nonionic surfactants
10. Term used for drugs that produce dilation of the pupils of
2. The following are the effects of protein binding, except: the eye
A. Prevent rapid excretion of the drug A. Mydriatic
B. Limits the amount available for metabolism B. Cycloplegic
C. Act as a transport for the drug C. Miotic
D. Increase forces of attraction between nonpolar region of D. NOTA
molecules and biological receptor
11. The antibiotic that approaches Dr. Ehrlich’s concept of an
3. Passive diffusion includes what drug? ideal chemotherapeutic agent
A. Lipid soluble A. Tetracycline
B. Lipid insoluble B. Erythromycin
C. Amphoteric C. Penicillin
D. Hydrophilic D. Streptomycin

4. A carbon atom which is bonded to four different groups is 12. A decrease in responsiveness of the invading organism,
known as (microorganism, neoplasm or pests) to chemotherapeutic
A. Primary carbon agents is termed
B. Tertiary carbon A. Drug tolerance
C. Chiral carbon B. Drug resistance
D. Asymmetrical carbon C. Idiosyncrasy
D. Hypersensitivity
5. Used as solvent for fats, resins, and alkaloids and as staring
material for the synthesis of aromatic compounds 13. Structurally specific drugs have the following
A. Naphthalene characteristics except
B. Anthracene A. Low thermodynamic activity
C. Benzene B. Effective even in smaller doses
D. Cycloparaffin C. Similar chemical structure
D. A slight modification in chemical structure does not result
6. The original European name for chlorpromazine which was in substantial changes in biologic activity
used in combination with meperidine and promethazine for
“cooling” (artificial hibernation) in cryosurgery 14. A drug that is bound to plasma protein is usually inactive
A. Phenargan pharmacologically. What happens to a drug that is so bound?
B. Reserpine A. Most protein bound drug is metabolized before it can be
C. Largactil released to the active form
D. Miltown B. As unbound drug is distributed to the tissues, bound drug
dissociates itself from protein to re-establish an equilibrium
7. Fusion of vertebrate between bound and unbound fractions
A. Bursitis C. After most unbound drug is released from the vascular
B. Palsy system to the tissues, the bound fraction dissociates slowly
C. Spondylitis and provides a longer duration of action
D. Ataxia D. Protein bound drug remains bound until it passes through
capillary cell walls, at which time the protein moiety is
8. A macrolide which was found in the soil in Iloilo removed and the active drug form enters the tissues
A. Achromycin
B. Albamycin 15. A superinfection is most specifically defined as a
C. Erythromycin A. High serious infection
D. Viomycin B. Secondary infection
C. Fungal infection
D. Rapidly progressing infection
16. Acetaminophen enhances the effect of 24. Which of the following acids is the strongest?
A. Barbiturates A. Acetic
B. MAOI’s B. Propionic
C. Amphetamines C. 2-hydroxypropionic
D. Coumarin anticoagulants D. Trichloroacetic

17. Superinfection is most likely to occur with 25. Drug solubility in aqueous solution depends on its
A. Broader spectrum antimicrobials A. Acidity
B. Longer duration of use B. Polarity
C. Both A and B C. Basicity
D. Neither A nor B
26. Process of taking a well-established chemical substance
18. This substance is considered to be the precursor in the of known biological activity as lead or prototype and testing
biosynthesis of cholesterol its analogs
A. Azulene A. Molecular association
B. Squalene B. Molecular dysfunction
C. Ocimine C. Molecular addition
D. Myrcene D. Molecular modification

19. To have useful antibacterial activity, a sulphonamide 27. The following are parenteral routes of administration that
molecule must possess or be capable of conversion in the involves no absorption complication except
body into which of the following? A. Intraspinal
A. An alkylated aromatic amino group B. Intraarterial
B. An alkoxy group C. Intravenous
C. A chloride group D. Intramuscular
D. A nonsubstituted aromatic amino group
E. A free sulfonic acid group 28. A polypeptide antibiotic which was isolated from
debrided tissue from a compound fracture of 7 year old
20. Quinine is Margaret Tracy
A. Prepared synthetically A. Vancomycin
B. An optical isomer of quinidine B. Kanamycin
C. Legally available only on prescription C. Aureomycin
D. An aminoquinoline D. Bacitracin
E. Weakly acidic
29. RMgX is a very valuable reagent in organic chemistry
21. Sodium cellulose phosphate (SCP) is used for used in the synthesis of
A. A source of dietary fiber A. Alcohol
B. Treatment of hypercalcemia B. Alkanes
C. Treatment of constipation C. Acids
D. A diet aid D. AOTA
E. A bulking agent in tablet formation
30. A general term applied to animal and plant products
22. Surfactants are characterized by the presence of which are glyceryl esters of higher fatty acids
A. Water-solubilizing groups A. Sterols
B. Negative charges B. Resins
C. Positive charges C. Lipids
D. Fat solubilising groups D. Waxes
E. Water solubilising and fat solubilising groups
31. This is the first known cure for syphilis
23. Which is true for alcohol? A. Mercurials
A. Water solubility increases as the molecular weight of the B. Salvarsan
alcohol C. Bismuth compounds
B. Water solubility increases with an increase in the number D. Antimony compouns
of hydroxyl groups
C. Water solubility decreases with branching of the carbon
chain in the alcohol
32. A trimer of acetaldehyde used as a hypnotic 40. A halogenated alkane used as a refrigerant and aerosol
A. Formol propellant
B. Chloral A. Chloroform
C. Paraldehyde B. Freon
D. Knockout drops C. Trilene
D. Iodoform
33. The following compounds are considered to be pyridine
derivatives except 41. Polyethylene glycol is used chiefly as
A. Picolinic acid A. Emulsifying agent
B. Pyridine B. Suspending agent
C. Isoniazide C. Dispersant
D. Citrin D. AOTA

34. This penicillin is used to provide a prolonged duration of 42. Alcohol obtained by the destructive distillation of wood
action A. Methanol
A. Phenethicillin potassium B. Ethanol
B. Penicillin V C. Phenol
C. Penicilline G benzathine D. Propanol
D. Ampicillin trihydrate
E. Hitacilline 43. Haloforms are trihalogen derivatives of
A. Methane
35. Dipivefrin hydrochloride is the prodrug of B. Ethane
A. Pilocarpine C. Propane
B. Physostigmine D. Butane
C. Epinephrine
D. Isoproterenol 44. An ultra-short acting barbiturate used as an anesthetic
and in psychotherapy as a truth serum
36. Which of the following is not a solvent for polyethylene A. Luminal
glycol? B. Seconal
A. Mineral oil C. Amytal
B. Water D. Pentothal
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Glycerin 45. The following are memorable barriers except
E. Chloroform A. GIT membrance
B. Cell nucleus
37. A group of sedative hypnotics that closely approaches the C. Mucosal membrane of the oral cavity
best criteria for an ideal hypnotic D. Skin
A. Alcohols
B. Barbiturates 46. A natural product used as an anthelmintic
C. Aldehydes A. Povan
D. Acyclic ureides B. Hexylresorcinol
C. Butyl chloride
38. A sulphonamide for urinary tract infections D. Male fern
A. Sulfasuxidine
B. Sulfamerazine 47. Alterations in the chemical structure of a drug imposed
C. Gantrisin upon it by life processes
D. Sulfathiazole A. Biotransformation
B. Metabolism
39. Anti-tubercular antibiotic useful for infections that have C. Bioavailability
developed resistance to streptomycin D. Chemical reaction
A. Terramycin
B. Amoxicillin 48. The Father of Chemotherapy
C. Cyclamycin A. Ehrlich
D. Viomycin B. Fleming
C. Ferguson
D. Waksman
49. The major route of excretion for drugs ANSWER KEY
A. Skin
B. Kidneys 1. B 26. D
C. Liver 2. D 27. D
D. Intestines 3. B 28. D
4. D 29. D
50. Benzocaine 5. C 30. C
A. p-aminobenzoic acid 6. C 31. B
B. Ethyl p-aminobenzoic acid 7. A 32. C
C. p-Aminosalicylic acid 8. C 33. D
D. Novocaine 9. B 34. C
10. A 35. C
11. C 36. A
12. B 37. B
13. D 38. C
14. B 39. D
15. B 40. B
16. D 41. D
17. C 42. A
18. B 43. A
19. D 44. D
20. B 45. B
21. B 46. D
22. E 47. A
23. B 48. A
24. D 49. B
25. B 50. B